SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : (CBSE) SR AIIMS S60 (BANGALORE, CHENNAI, VIZAG & VIJAYAWADA) DATE: 15-11-2021
Sub: BOTANY NEET WEEKEND TEST - 12 Max.Marks: 720
Guidelines:
In every subject:
a) In Section-A, 35 Questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from Section-A
b) In Section-B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which answer 10 questions

BOTANY (1) Wild varieties are selected.

SECTION – A (2) All alleles for new genes are
1. Green revolution was dependent to a preserved as seeds
large extent on plant breeding technique (3) Diverse alleles for all genes in a given
for the development of high yielding and crop are collected as plant parts
disease-resistant varieties of (4) Seeds of cultivated forms only are
(1) Wheat (2) Rice preserved.
(3) Maize (4) All of these 6. 250 g of microorganism like
2. Read the following statements and select Methylophilus, methylotro phus produces
the correct option: 25 tones protein per day. This is because
A. All our major food crops are derived of
from domesticated varieties. (1) High-quality protein in them
B. Plant breeding dates back to 9000- (2) High rate of biomass production
11000 years ago. (3) Culturing bacteria in specialized broth
(1) Only (A) is correct (4) All except (2)
(2) Only (B) is correct 7. During the period 1960-2000, wheat
(3) Both (A) and (B) are correct production in creased from
(4) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect (1) 35 million tonnes to 89.5 million
3. The development of several high-yielding tonnes
verities of wheat and rice in the mid- (2) 11 million tonnes to 75 million tonnes
1960s was the result of various plant (3) 25 million tonnes to 75 million tonnes
breeding techniques that led to increase in (4) 11 million tonnes to 89.5 million
food production which is referred to as tonnes
(1) Green revolution (2) Biofortification 8. Which of the following processes is
(3) Eutrophication (4) Bioremediation crucial to the success of the breeding
4. Aim of plant breeding is to produce objective and requires careful scientific
(1) High-yielding varieties evaluation of the progeny?
(2) Disease-resistant varieties (1) Selection of parents
(3) Early maturing varieties (2) Cross-hybridization
(4) All of these (3) Selection and testing of superior
5. Collection of variability include recombinants
germplasm (4) Testing release and commercialization
collection where of new cultivars
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9. Consider the following four statements (2) Jaya and Ratna
(A-D) and select the correct option stating (3) Sonalika and IR-8
which ones are true (T) and which ones (4) IR-8 and IR-24
are false (F). 14. Desired improved varieties of
(1) M. S. Swaminathan is considered as economically useful crops are raised by
the Father Green Revolution in India. (1) Natural selection
(2) Genetic variability is the root of any (2) Hybridization
plant breeding programme. (3) Mutational breading
(3) Evaluation and selection of parents is (4) Tissue culture on
a very time consuming and tedious 15. Which of the following is not used for
process crop improvement?
(4) It is necessary that hybrids do (1) Inbreeding (2) Introduction
combine with the desirable characters. (3) Hybridization (4) Mutation
A B C D 16. A breeder evolving disease-resistant
(1) T T F T variety will start with
(2) T T F F (1) Working out yield of different
(3) T F T T varieties
(4) F T F F
(2) Go through the subjects in library

10. After cross-hybridization, superior (3) Selection of parents

progeny is self-pollinated for several (4) Hybridization
generations till homozygous condition of 17. Sugarcanes grown in North India
features is achieved. This is to (1) Had thicker stem and higher sugar
(1) Obtain higher number of plants
(2) Record performance of crop under content
ideal conditions (2) Had poor yield
(3) Avoid segregation of characters in (3) Had better adaptability in South India
progeny
(4) More than one option is correct
(4) Obtain high number of hybrids
11. IRRI is located at 18. Microbes used as SCP are initially
(1) Mexico (2) Shimla processed to remove 'excess of
(3) Odisha (4) Philippines
(1) Fat (2) Proteins
12. Which is the oldest breeding method?
(1) Introduction (3) Carbohydrate (4) Nucleic acids
(2) Hybridization 19. Improved varieties of wheat suitable for
(3) Selection
Indian climates have been developed by
(4) Mutation breeding
13. High-yielding and disease-resistant wheat (1) Hybridization and mutation
varieties (2) Mutation and cloning
which were introduced all over the wheat- (3) Cloning and polyploids
growing belt of India are
(4) Polyploidy and hybridization
(1) Sonalika and Kalyan Sona

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20. IARI, New Delhi, has developed (3) Smooth leaves (4) Nectar
A. Vitamin A-enriched carrot, pumpkin 26. For which of the following qualities,
and spinach Saccharum officinarum was selected to
B. Vitamin C-enriched bitter gourd and
get desirable qualities in new varieties of
bathua
C. Calcium- and iron-enriched spinach sugarcane?
and bathua (1) Soft and branched stem
D. Protein-enriched beans and garden
(2) Ability to grow well in low winter
peas
(1) Only (A) is correct temperature
(2) Only (A) (C) (D) are correct (3) Higher sugar content
(3) Only (C) and (D) are correct
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(4) All (A). (B). (C), (D) are correct
21. Legumes are commonly deficient in 27. Choose the correct option w.r.t. YMV-
(1) Lysine resistant variety of bhindi.
(2) Tryptophan (1) Pusa Sawani (2) Parbhani Kranti
(3) Sulphur-containing amino acids
(4) All of these (3) Pusa Sadabahar (4) Pusa Lerma
22. Select the odd one w.r.t. crop varieties 28. Selection of homozygous plant is
bred by hybridization and selection of (1) Mass selection
disease-resistance against microbes.
(2) Pure line selection
(1) Pusa Komal (2) Pusa Swarnim
(3) Parbhani Kranti (4) Pusa Gaurav (3) Mixed selection
23. Which of the following is a correct match (4) Introduction
of a plant variety w.r.t. its disease 29. Which of the following is incorrectly
resistance? matched?
(1) Himgiri-Leaf and stripe rust (1) Red rot of sugarcane Colletotrichum
(2) Pusa Swarnim-Bacterial blight falcatum
(3) Pusa Komal-Black rot (2) Brown rust of wheat-Puccinia
(4) Pusa snowball K-1-Leaf curl
graminis tritici
24. In India two species of sugarcane were
crossed to have sugarcane varieties that (3) Late blight of potato-Phytophthora
have high qualities of infestans
(A) High yield
(4) White rust of crucifer-Albugo candida
(B) Thick stem
(C) Thin stem 30. Which of the following is not a wheat
(D) Ability to grow in South India variety introduced in India during green
(E) Ability to grow in North India revolution?
(1) (A), (B) and (E) (2) (A), (B) and (D)
(1) Kalyan Sona
(3) (A), (C) and (E) (4) (A) and (E) only
(2) Sonalika
25. Cotton is resistant to boll worms due to the
(3) Sonora 64
presence of
(4) Taichung Native-1
(1) Hairy leaves (2) Solid stem
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31. Match the following: 38. Select the correct options which fill in the
Column I Column II blanks A, B, C in the table given below:
a. Himgiri (i)Cow pea Crop Variety Insert pest
b. Pusa Swarnim (ii)Cauliflower
Brassica _____A____ Aphids
C. Pusa Komal (iii)Wheat
d. Pusa Subhra (iv)Brassica ____B___ Pusa Sem-2 Jassids,
(1) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(iii) Aphids fruit
(2) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii) borer
(3) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii) Okra Pusa Sawani _____C____
(4) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii)
32. Which of the following incorrectly
matched? A B C
(1) Mung bean-Mutation breeding Pusa
(1) Flat bean YMV
(2) Atlus 66-Biofortified Gaurav
(3) IR-8-Mexican rice Pusa Stem and
(2) Flat bean
(4) Parbhani Kranti Disease-resistant Gaurav fruit borer
variety of bhindi
Pusa
33. Hairy leaves in wheat provide resistance (3) Cauliflower Stem and
Shubhra
against
(1) Stem saw fly (2) Leaf beetle Pusa
(3) Jassids (4) Stem borers (4) Cow Pea YMV
Swarnim
34. Cotton bollworms are not attracted
towards the cotton variety which posses 39. Biofortification involves breeding crops
(1) Hairy leaves (2) Smooth leaves
which have
(3) Solid stem (4) Nectar gland
35. Resistance to stem borers in maize is due (1) Disease resistance
to (2) Soil salinity tolerance
(1) High aspartic acid
(3) Insect pest resistance
(2) Low nitrogen and sugar content
(3) Solid stem (4) Improve nutritional quality
(4) Both (1) and (2) 40. A wheat variety with high protein content
SECTION – B has been used as a donor for improving
36. In mung bean resistance to powdery
mildew was introduced by cultivated wheat is
(1) Hybridization (1) Jaya (2) Ratna
(2) Mass selection (3) Atlas 66 (4) Himgiri
(3) Mutation breeding 41. Due to which of the following features a
(4) Polyploid budding variety of cotton is resistant to Jassids?
37. Find odd one w.r.t. vitamin A enriched (1) Solid stem
variety developed by IARI. (2) Hairy leaves
(1) Bathua (2) Carrot (3) Smooth leaves
(3) Pumpkin (4) Spinach (4) Absence of nectar
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42. Select the one w.r.t. objective of 47. Plant whose ancestry has become obscure
biofortification: and which cannot survive in nature
(1) Protein content and quality without human help is
(2) Oil content and quality (1) Maize (2) Pisum
(3) Micronutrient and mineral content (3) Wheat (4) Banana
(4) Enzyme content and quality 48. Concept of crop scheduling and crop
43. Find the incorrect match: cafeteria was developed by
Variety Resultant to (1) N. E. Borlaug
pest/insect (2) Prof R. Mishra
(1) Pusa Gaurav Aphids (3) M. S. Swaminathan
(4) Warming
(2) Pusa Sem-2 Shoot borer
49. Read the following statements and select
(3) Pusa Sem – 3 Bollworm the right option which is correct for them.
(4) Pusa Sawani Shoot and fruit borer A. Single cell protein is obtained from
unicellular as well as multicellular
44. Which of the following mutágen was microorganisms.
used for the conversion of Mexican wheat B. SCP is rich in good quality protein and
varieties to amber grain wheat varieties is poor in fats.
by M. S. Swaminathan? (1) Only A statements is correct.
(1) γ -Radiation (2) UV radiation (2) Only B statements is correct.
(3) HNO3 (4) Base analogue (3) Both the statements are correct.
45. Read the following statements and state (4) Both the statements are incorrect.
them true (T) or false (F): 50. How many of the following organisms
A. Semi-dwarf varieties Jaya and Ranta are associated with single cell protein?
were developed in India. Yeast, Chlorella, Spirulina, Nostoc,
B. In 1963, many varieties like Sonalika
Methylophilus methylotrophus,
and Kalyan Sona were introduced in all
wheat-growing belt of India. Mushroom, Clostridium
C. Classical plant breeding involves (1) Two
crossing of pure lines followed by (2) Five
artificial selection. (3) Four
D. Taichung Native-1 variety of rice was (4) Three Featt, Candid,
developed in Mexico. ZOOLOGY
A B C D SECTION – A
(1) T T F F 51. Which of the following is a safe
(2) T T T F diagnostic image technique
(3) F F T T 1) X-ray 2) CAT
(4) T T F T 3) MRI 4) PET
46. Improved rice variety IR-8 has been 52. Which technique is best to detect blood
introduced in India from flow in the body of a person
(1) Taiwan (2) Philippines 1) CAT 2) Polygraphy
(3) Japan (4) Mexico 3) PET 4) MRI

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53. Which of the following is used as 3) Francesco Redi 4) Von Helmont
interrogation tool with criminal suspects 63. This theory states that living organisms
1) polygraphy 2) Endoscopy orginate from pre-existing organisms
3) Ultrasonography 4) PET
1) Theory of Catastrophism
54. Ultrasonography is used to detect
1) cancers 2) fractnes 2) Theory of Panspermia
3) blood flow 3) Biogenesis theory
4) stones of kidney & gall bladder
4) Theory of spontaneous generation
55. MRI technique based on detection of
1) proton density images 64. Oparin and Haldane’s theory of chemical
2) sound echoes evolution of life was experimentally
3) positrons emitted by radio isotopes
supported by
4) none of the above
56. ‘Blocks’ in coronary or carotid artery can 1) Landsteiner and weiner
be detected by 2) Hardy and Weinberg
1) Endoscopy 2) MRI 3) Oparin and Sydney fox
3) x-ray 4) CAT
57. Hairline fractures can be detected by 4) Miller and urey
1) x-ray 2) MRI 65. Gases used by miller for synthesis of
3) CAT 4) PET amino acids through heat and electric
58. Three dimensional images of the internal discharges are
organs are obtained using X-rays in 1) water vapour, methane, ammonia and
1) Radiography nitrogen
2) Compound tomography 2) Carbon dioxide, ammonia, methane
3) MRI 4) EEG and water vapour
59. Strong magnetic fields and non-ionising 3) Ammonia, carbon dioxide, oxygen and
radiations are used in water vapour
1) Radiography 2) CT 4) Methene, ammonia, hydrogen and
3) MRI 4) EEG water vapour
60. Which techniques are useful to detect
66. Which one of the following experiments
cancer of the internal organs
a) Radiography b) CT c) MRI suggests that simplest living organisms
1) Only a 2) only c could not have originated spontaneously
3) only a and c 4) All a, b and c
from nonliving matter?
61. This theory states that living organisms on
the earth were created by divine power 1) Larva could appear in decaying
1) Cosmozoic theory organic matter
2) Theory of spontaneous generation 2) Meat was not spoiled, when heated and
3) Theory of catastrophism kept sealed in a vessel
4) Theory of special creation 3) Microbes did not appear in stored meat
62. By swan-neck flask experiment, theory of 4) Microbes appeared form unsterilized
Biogenesis was confirmed by organic matter
1) Louis Pasteur 2) Spallanzani
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67. The concept of chemical evolution is 2) Earth was supposed to be formed 3
based on billion years back
1) Interaction of water, air and caly under 3) Life appeared 500 million years after
intense heat the formation of earth
2) Effect of solar radiation of chemicals 4) Formation of life on earth was
3) Possible origin of life by combination succeeded by chemical evolution
of chemicals under suitable 74. About how long ago was the earth
environmental conditions formed?
4) Crystallization of chemicals 1) 3 billion years ago
68. One of the possible early sources of 2) 10 billion years ago
energy were/was 3) 4.5 billion years ago
1) CO2 4) 20 billion years ago
2) Chlorophyll 75. The cells that first originated are
3) Green plants 1) Heterotrophs 2) Autotrophs
4) UV rays and lightning 3) Eukaryotic 4) Aerobic
69. Early atmosphere contained methane and 76. The prebiotic atmosphere of the earth was
other hydrocarbons. They have been now of a reducing nature. It was transformed
replaced by into an oxidizing atmosphere of present
1) nitrogen 2) oxygen day due to the emergence of
3) carbon dioxide 4) hydrogen 1) cyanobacteria
70. The theory of spontaneous generation 2) angiosperms
stated that 3) photosynthetic bacteria
1) life arose from living forms only 4) eukaryotic algae
2) life can arise from both living and 77. The sequence of origin of life may be
nonliving 1) Inorganic materials → Organic
3) life can arise from nonliving things materials → Colloidal aggregate →
only Eobiont cell
4) life arises spontaneously, neither from 2) Organic materials → Inorganic
living nor from the nonliving materials → Colloidal aggregate →
71. Theory of Abiogenesis was believed by Eobiont cell
1) Aristotle 2) Thales and Plato 3) Inorganic materials → Organic
3) Von Helmont 4) All these materials → Eobiont cell → Colloidal
72. Among the following, which theory was
aggregate
not connected with the origin of life?
1) Big Bang theory 4) Organic materials → Inorganic
2) Theory of Panspermia materials → Eobiont cell → Colloidal
3) Theory of spontaneous generation
aggregate
4) Theory of chemical evolution
73. Select the correct statement from the 78. The word organic evolution was coined
following by
1) Big Bang theory attempts to explain us
1) Darwin 2) Dobzhansky
the origin of life
3) Herbert Spencer 4) Lamarck
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79. Catastrophes destroyed the life from time I) The earliest organisms that appeared on
to time and created new and special form the earth were non-green and presumably
of life after each destruction according to an aerobes
1) Saurez 2) Cuvier II) The first autotrophic organisms were
3) Pasteur 4) Spallanzani the chemoautotrophs that never released
80. Molecules with limited metabolic activity oxygen of the above statements which of
are called the following options is correct?
1) Protocells 2) Protists 1) II is correct, but I is false
3) Protobinonts 4) Protostomes 2) Both I and II are correct
81. These organisms use inorganic molecules 3) Both I and II are false
for their energy and CO2 as the source of 4) I is correct, but II is false
carbon SECTION – B
1) Chemo-heterotrophs 86. The term ‘prebiotic soup’ for organic
2) Photo-heterotrophs water containing mixture of simple
3) Photo-autotrophs organic compounds was given by
4) Chemo-autotrophs 1) Richter 2) Haldane
82. Endomembrane system of eukaryotes 3) Arrhenius 4) Miller
including nuclear membrane might have Assertion & Reason:
evolved by 1) Both A and R are true and R is the
1) Out folding of the plasma membrane of correct explanation of A
ancestral prokaryotes 2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
2) Infolding of the cell wall of ancestral correct explanation of A
prokaryotsynthesize 3) A is true but R is false
3) Infolding of the plasma membrane of 4) A is false and R is also false
ancestral prokaryotes 87. A: Coacervates are regarded as the first
4) Infolding of the plasma membrane of true cells formed during evolution
ancestral eukaryotes
R: Coacervates were the self duplicating
83. Symbiotically prokaryotes lived in the
ancestral eukaryotes and evolved into aggregates of protein surrounded by a
organelles like lipid layer
1) Mitochondria and plasmids
88. A: In the primitive earth O2 was released
2) Mitochondria and phasmids
3) Centrosomes and plastids into the atmosphere after the evolution of
4) Mitochondria and plastids photoautotrophs
84. Which one of the following amino acids
R: Photoautotrophs in their
was not found to be synthesized in
Miller’s experiment? photosynthesis release free O2 as by-
1) Glycine 2) Aspartic acid product
3) Glutamic acid 4) Alanine 89. A: The primitive atmosphere was
85. Following are the two statements reducing i.e., without oxygen.
regarding the origin of life R: In the primitive atmosphere, oxygen
was involved in forming ozone layer

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90. Following are the two statements 1) 3 2) 8
regarding the origin of life 3) 10 4) 1
A) The earliest organisms that appeared 95. The first life originated
on the earth were non-green and 1) on land 2) in air
presumably anaerobes. 3) in water 4) all of these
B) The first autotrophic organisms were 96. On the primitive earth, polymers such as
the chemoautotrophs that never released proteins and nucleic acids in aqueous
oxygen
suspension formed the membrane less
On the above statements which one of the
following options is correct? spherical aggregates. These are called
1) A is true but B is false 1) primosomes 2) liposomes
2) B is true but A is false
3) microspheres 4) coacervates
3) both A and B are true
4) both A and B are false 97. Coacervates does not include
91. From the point of view of early chemical 1) colloid droplets
evolution that preceded the origin of life
2) nucleoprotein containing entities
on earth, the most important simple
organic molecules formed were 3) Prokaryotic cell
1) sugars and amino acids 4) both 1 and 2
2) glycerol and fatty acids 98. Consider following statements regarding
3) purines and pyrimidines
4) all of these microspheres.
92. The correct sequence for the manufacture 1) They were spherical in shape
of the compounds on the primitive earth ii) They had double-layered boundaries
is
iii) They could grow in size but were not
1) NH3, CH4, protein and carbohydrate
2) protein, carbohydrate, water and able to reproduce
nucleic acid iv) They used ATP as source of energy
3) NH3, CH4, carbohydrate and nucleic
Which of the above statements is/are
acid
4) NH3, carbohydrate, protein and nucleic incorrect?
acid 1) (i) Only 2) (ii) and (iv) only
93. The prebiotic atmosphere of the earth was
3) (iii) only 4) None of these
of a reducing nature. It was transformed
into an oxidizing atmosphere of present 99. According to Haldane and Oparin finally
day due to the emergence of protobionts evolved into
1) cyanobacteria 1) Eukaryotic organisms
2) angiosperms
2) Early protists
3) photosynthetic protists
4) eukaryotic algae 3) Early protostomes
94. The first non-cellular form of life could 4) Early living organisms
have originated ________billion years
back.
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100. The following are some major events in 105. The mass defect in particular nuclear
the early history of life: reaction is 0.3g. The amount of energy
liberated in kilo watt hour is (Velocity of
P. First heterotrophic prokaryotes
light = 3 × 108 ms −1 )
Q. First genes
(1) 1.5 × 106 (2) 2.5 × 106
R. First eukaryotes
(3) 3 × 106 (4) 7.5 × 106
S. First autotrophic prokaryotes 106. The number of α - particles and β -
T. First animals particles respectively emitted in the
196
Which option below places these events reaction 88 A → 78B164 are
in the correct order? (1) 8 and 8 (2) 8 and 6
(3) 6 and 8 (4) 6 and 6
1) P→Q→S→R→T
107. The half – life period of a radioactive
2) Q→S→P→T→R substance is 3 days. Three fourth of
3) Q→P→S→R→T substance decays in
(1) 3 days (2) 6 days
4) Q→S→P→R→T
(3) 9 days (4) 12 days
PHYSICS
108. What is the Q – value of the reaction
SECTION – A
101. A sample contains 16g of a radioactive P + 7 Li → 4 He + 4 He
7
material, the half life of which is two The atomic masses of 1 H, 4 He and Li
days. After 32 days, the amount of are 1.007825 u, 4.002603 u and 7.016004
radioactive material left in the sample is u respectively
1 (1) 17.35 MeV (2) 18.06 MeV
(1) Less than 1mg (2) g
4 (3) 177.35 MeV (4) 170.35 MeV
1 109. If one starts with one curie of radioactive
(3) g (4) 1g
2 ( )
substance T1 2 = 12 hrs the activity left
102. Neutron is a particle, which is after a period of 1 week will be about
(1) Charged and has spin (1) 1 curie
(2) Charged and has no spin (2) 120 micro curie
(3) Charge less and has spin (3) 60 micro curie (4) 8 milli curie
(4) Charge less and has no spin 110. If the half life of a radioactive sample is
103. Calculate the energy released when three 10 hours, its mean life is
α - particles combined to form a 12 C (1) 14.4 hours (2) 7.2 hours
nucleus, the mass defect is (atomic mass (3) 20 hours (4) 6.93 hours
of 2 He4 is 4.002603 u) 111. The half – life of 215 At is 100 µs . The
(1) 0.007809 u (2) 0.002603 time taken for the radioactivity of a
(3) 4.002603 u (4) 0.5 u 1
sample of 215 At to decay to th of its
104. The energy equivalent to 1mg of matter in 16
MeV is initial value is
(1) 400 µs (2) 6.3 µs
(1) 56.25 × 1022 (2) 56.25 × 1024
(3) 40 µs (4) 300 µs
(3) 56.25 × 1026 (4) 56.25 × 1028
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112. Half life of a radioactive substance is 20
minutes. The time between 20% and
80%$ decay will be
(1) 20 minutes (2) 40 minutes
(3) 30 minutes (4) 25 minutes
113. Using the following data (1)
Mass hydrogen atom = 1.00783 u
Mass of neutron = 1.00867 u
Mass of nitrogen atom ( 7 N14 ) = 14.00307 u
The calculated value of the binding
energy of the nucleus of the nitrogen
atom ( 7N
14
) is close to (2)
(1) 56 MeV (2) 98 MeV
(3) 104 MeV (4) 112 MeV
114. If m, m n and m p are the masses of Z X A
nucleus, neutron and proton respectively,
then
(1) m < ( A − Z ) m n + Zm p (3)
(2) m = ( A − Z ) m n + Zm p
(3) m = ( A − Z ) m p + Zm n
(4) m > ( A − Z ) m n + Zm p
115. The average binding energy per nucleon
is maximum for the nucleus (4)
4 16
118. A radioactive isotope has a half – life of T
(1) 2 He (2) 8O
years. How long will it take the activity to
56 238
(3) 26 Fe (4) 92 He reduce to 1% of its original value
116. Consider α - particles, β - particles and (1) 3.2 T year (2) 4.6 T year
γ - rays each having an energy of 0.5 (3) 6.6 T year (4) 9.2 T year
MeV. In increasing order of penetrating 119. An artificial radioactive decay series
powers, the radiations are 241
begins with unstable 94 Pu . The stable
(1) α, β, γ (2) α, γ , β nuclide obtained after eight α - decays
(3) β, γ, α (4) γ , β, α
and five β - decays is
117. The dependence of binding energy per
209 209
nucleon, B N on the mass number A, is (1) 83 Bi (2) 82 Pb
205 201
represented by (3) 82 Ti (4) 82 Hg

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120. A radioactive sample S1 having an 124. When a DC voltage of 200V is applied to
2 3
activity of 5µC has twice the number of a coil of self – inductance  H , a
 π 
nuclei as another sample S2 which has an current of 1A flows through it. But by
activity of 10 µC . The half lives of S1 and replacing DC source with AC source of
200V, the current in the coil is reduced to
S2 can be 0.5A. Then the frequency of AC supply is
(1) 100 Hz (2) 75 Hz
(1) 20 yr and 5 yr, respectively
(3) 60 Hz (4) 50 Hz
(2) 20 yr and 10 yr, respectively 125. The power factor of good choke coil is
(3) 10 yr each (1) Nearly zero (2) Exactly zero
(3) Nearly one (4) Exactly one
(4) 5yr each
126. A resistor of R = 6 Ω , an inductor of L =
121. A resistor 30Ω , inductor of reactance 1H and a capacitor of C = 17.36 µF are
10 Ω and capacitor of reactance 10 Ω are connected in series with an AC source.
connected in series to an AC voltage Find the Q factor
source e = 300 2 sin ( ωt ) . The current in (1) 3.72 (2) 40
the circuit is (3) 2.37 (4) 80
127. Power dissipated in an LCR series circuit
(1) 10 2 A (2) 10 A
connected to an a.c. source of emf E are
(3) 30 11 A (4) 30 11 A
2
 2  1  
2

122. The natural frequency ( ωo ) of (1) E R  R +  Lω −  

  Cω  
oscillations in L – C circuit is given by 2
2 2  1 
1 1 1 E R +  Lω − 
(1) (2) LC  Cω 
2π LC 2π (2)
R
1   1  
2
(3) (4) LC E 2  R 2 +  Lω −  
LC   Cω  
(3)
123. An ac source of angular frequency ω is R
2
fed across a resistor r and a capacitor C in E R
(4)
2
series. The current registered is I. If the  1 
R 2 +  Lω − 
frequency of source is changed to ω 3  Cω 
(maintaining the same voltage), the 128. A virtual current of 4A and 50Hz flows in
current in the circuit is found to be an ac circuit containing a coil. The power
halved. Calculate the ratio of reactance to consumed in the coil is 240W. If the
resistance at the original frequency ω virtual voltage across the coil is 100V its
3 2 inductance will be
(1) (2)
5 5 1 1
(1) H (2) H
1 4 3π 5π
(3) (4) 1 1
5 5 (3) H (4) H
7π 9π
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129. Two nucleons are at a separation of one
fermi. Protons have a charge of
+ 1.6 × 10−19 C . The net nuclear force
between them is F1 , if both are neutrons,
F2 if both are protons and F3 if one is (2)
proton and the other is neutron. Then
(1) F1 = F2 > F3 (2) F1 = F2 = F3
(3) F1 < F2 < F3 (4) F1 > F2 > F3
130. If r1 and r2 are the radii of the atomic
(3)
nuclei of mass numbers 64 and 125
respectively, then the ratio ( r1 r2 ) is
64 64
(1) (2)
125 125
5 4
(3) (4) (4)
4 5 134. The frequency for which a 5 µF capacitor
131. Voltage V and current in in AC circuit are
1
given by V = 50sin ( 50t ) volt , has a reactance of ohm is given by
1000
 π 100 1000
i = 50sin  50 t +  mA . The power (1) M Hz (2) Hz
 3 π π
dissipated in circuit is 1
(3) Hz (4) 1000 Hz
(1) 5.0 W 2) 2.5 W 1000
(3) 1.25 W (4) zero 135. The peak value of an alternating current is
132. In an LCR series resonant circuit which 5A and its frequency is 60 Hz. Find its
one of the following cannot be the rms value and time taken to reach the
expression for the Q – factor peak value of current starting from zero
ωL 1 (1) 3.536 A, 4.167 ms
(1) (2) (2) 3.536 A, 15 ms
R ωCR
(3) 6.07 A, 10 ms
L 1 R
(3) (4) (4) 2.536 A, 4.167 ms
CR LC
SECTION – B
133. Which one of the following curves
136. Two radioactive materials X1 and X 2
represents the variation of impedance (Z)
have decay constants 10 λ and λ
with frequency f in series LCR circuit
respectively. If initially, they have the
same number of nuclei, then the ratio of
the number of nuclei of X1 to that of X 2
will be 1 e after a time
1 1
(1) (2)
(1) 10λ 11λ
11 1
(3) (4)
10λ 9λ
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137. Isobars are formed by 143. The variation of the instantaneous current
(1) α - decay (2) β - decay (I) and the instantaneous emf (E) in a
(3) γ - decay (4) h – decay circuit is as shown in figure. Which of the
138. An alternating voltage is connected in following statements is correct
series with a resistance R and an
inductance L. If the potential drop across
the resistance is 200V and across the
inductance is 150V, then the applied
voltage is
(1) 350 V (2) 250 V
(3) 500 V (4) 300 V
139. Voltage and current in an ac circuit are (1) The voltage lags behind the current
 π by π 2
given by V = 5sin  100πt −  and
 6
(2) The voltage leads the current by π 2
 π
I = 4sin 100 πt +  (3) The voltage and the current are in
 6
(1) Voltage leads the current by 30° phase
(2) Current leads the voltage by 30° (4) The voltage leads the current by π
144. In an L – R circuit, the value of L is
(3) Current leads the voltage by 60°
 0.4 
(4) Voltage leads the current by 60°   H and the value of R is 30 Ω . If in
 π 
140. The phase angle between e.m.f. and the circuit an alternating emf of 200 V at
current in LCR series as circuit is 50cycle s is connected, the impedance of
π π the circuit and current will be
(1) 0 to (2) (1) 11.4Ω, 17.5A (2) 30.7 Ω, 6.5A
2 4
π (3) 40.4 Ω, 5A (4) 50 Ω, 4A
(3) (4) π
2 145. A 100V, AC source of frequency 500 Hz
141. If an 8 Ω resistance and 6 Ω reactance is connected to an L – C – R circuit with
are present in an ac series circuit then the
L = 8.1mH, C = 12.5 µF, R = 10 Ω are
impedance of the circuit will be
(1) 20 ohm (2) 5 ohm connected in series as shown in figure.
(3) 10 ohm (4) 14 2 ohm What is the quality factor of circuit ?
142. The instantaneous values of current and
emf in an ac circuit are I = 1 2 314t amp
and E = 2 sin ( 314 t − π 6 ) V respectively.
The phase difference between E and I will
be
(1) − π 6 rad (2) − π 3rad (1) 2.02 (2) 2.5434
(3) π 6 rad (4) π 3rad (3) 20.54 (4) 200.54

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146. A constant voltage at different 148. A mixture consists of two radioactive
frequencies is applied across a materials A1 and A 2 with half lives of
capacitance C as shown in the figure. 20s and 10s respectively. Initially the
Which of the following graphs correctly mixture has 40g of A1 and 160g of A 2 .
depicts the variation of current with The amount of the two in the mixture will
frequency become equal after
(1) 60 s (2) 80 s
(3) 20 s (4) 40 s
149. The average binding energy per nucleon
in the nucleus of an atom is
approximately
(1) 8 eV (2) 8 KeV
(3) 8 MeV (4) 8 J
150. The phenomenon of radioactivity is
(1) Exothermic change which increases
or decreases with temperature
(2) Increases on applied pressure
(1)
(3) Nuclear process does not depend on
external factors
(4) None of the above
CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A
151. The structure of the compound formed
(2) when nitrobenzene is reduced by lithium
aluminum hydride( LiAlH 4 )

N N

H H
1)
NHOH

(3)
2)

N N

3)
NH
2

(4)
147. If is the atomic mass and is the mass 4)
number, packing fraction is given by 152. Nitrobenzene on reduction with zine and
M M−A NH 4Cl gives
(1) (2)
M−A M 1) azobenzene 2) aniline
A A−M 3) hydrazobenzene
(3) (4)
M−A A 4) N-phenlhydrozylamine
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 Me
153. C6 H 5 NO2 → C6 H 5 X ' X ' is identified
sn / HCl

`
I II
as Me OCOMe

1)NO 2) NH 2 OCOMe

3) NHOH 4)None of these 1)fihling’s reagent 2) NaHSO3

154. Which H atom in the following ester is 3)brady’s reagent 4)lucas test
mostacidic? 158. PhCONH 2 
KoBr
→( B ) 
MeOH
→(C ) Product
O O
1 2 3 4 5
CH 3 − CH 2 − C − CH 2 − C − O −CH 2 − CH 3
(C ) is (A)
1) PhNH 2 2) PhNHCOOMe
1) 1 2) 2
3) 3 4) 4 3) PhNHCOOPh 4) none of these
155. Give decreasing order of the flowing 159. Which of the following reagent can help
towards NA reaction in separating a mixture acetone and CCl4
CHO
1) NaOH 2) NaCl
CHO
3) NaHSO3 4)none of these
Cl
160. The reagents used to convert
I
II O

C CH
CH
3 are
CHO
CHO
I) II) III)
1) O3 / Re d AlCO3 MeCOOH
IV

2) H 2 SO4 + HgSO4 H 2O, heat

III

3) O3 / Zn − AcOH H 2 SO4 + HgSO4 H 2O, heat

4) CH 3COOH H 2O2 OH / H 2O
Cl Cl
161. Which of the following is the stronger
1) (I)>(II)>(III)>(IV) acid?
2) (IV)>(III)>(II)>(I) 1)benzoic acid
3) (II)>(III)>(IV)>(I) 2) 4- nitro benzoic acid
3)4-methoxy benzoic acid
4) )(I)>(IV)>(III)>(II)
4)4-methyl benzoic acid
156. Which of the following is the best method 162. An optically acitive organic compound
for the synthesis of easter has molecular formula C5 H12O( X ). X on
(I) ( Me3C − COOMe) oxidation with CrO3 / H 2 SO4 gives an
1) Me3C − COCl + MeOH → achiral C5 H10O hence X could be
2) Me3C − COOH + MeOH → OH
OH

3) Me3C − COOH + CH 2 N 2 → 1) 2) OH

4) Me3C − COCl + MeONa → HO

157. How will you distinguish the products

3) OH 4)
obtained by acidic hydrolysis of

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163. A hydrocarbon X has molecular formula 167. Which reagent given below can
C5 H10 . X on treatment with B2 H 6 in differentiate propanal from propanone?
H 2O2 / NaOH gives an optically active 1)2,4- dinitrophenyl hydrazine
C5 H12O which on treatment with 2) NaHSO3
3)schiff’s reagent
CrO3 / HCl pyridine gives C5 H10O which
4) NaCN / HCN
is still chiral which of the following can
168. Which is the most suitable reagent for the
be a product of reductive ozonolysis of
reaction ?
X? OH OH
O

1) CH 3 − CH 2 − C − CH 3
O

2) CH 3 − C − CH 3 CHO
COOH

CH 3
I 1) AgNO3 − NH 3 (aq ) 2) KMnO4 − NaOH
3) C2 H 5 − C − CHO
O 3) KMnO4 − H 2 SO4 4) CrO3 − H 2 SO4
169. Right order of acidic strength is
4) H
1) CH2ClCOOH > HCOOH > C2H5COOH > CH3COOH
164. Identify the reactant X and the product Y
2) CH 2ClCOOH > HCOOH > CH 3COOH > C2 H 5COOH
CH 3 − CO − CH 3 + X → (CH 3 )3 C − OMg − cL
3) C2 H 5COOH > CH 3COOH > HCOOH > CH 2ClCOOH
↓ Hydrolysis
4) HCOOH > CH 2ClCOOH > CH 3COOH > C2 H 5COOH
Y + Mg (OH )Cl
170. The correct acidity order of the following
1) X = MgCl2 , Y = CH 3CH = CH 2
is
2) X = CH 3MgCl , Y = C2 H 5COCH 2 OH
OH
3) X = CH 3MgCl , Y = (CH 3 )3 C − OH
4) X = C2 H 5 MgCl , Y = (CH 3 )3 C − OH
165. Which of the following pairs is not
correctly matched
1) > C = O →
Clemenson ' sreduction
> CH 2 I II Cl
COOH
COOH
Wolff − kishner reduction
2) > C = O → > CHOH
3) −COCl 
Rosenmund ' sredcution
→ CHO
4) −C ≡ N  
Stephen redcution
→ CHO
166. Reagent that can differentiate 2-propanol
CH
from acetone is III IV 3

1) ( III ) > ( IV ) > ( II ) > ( I )

1) Ce( NO3 ) 4 2) [ Ag ( NH 3 ) 2 + ]
2) ( IV ) > ( III ) > ( I ) > ( II )
2+
3) NaOH / I 2 4) [Cu ( NH 3 ) 4 ] 3) ( III ) > ( II ) > ( I ) > ( IV )
4) ( II ) > ( III ) > ( IV ) > ( I )

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171. A acetophenane when reacted with a base 175. Which of the following is correct
C2 H 5ONa yields a stable compound regarding following diagram of reduction
which has the structure of heamatite
100
CH C 2CO+O 2CO 2
CH 2 -300 2
-500 3/4Fe+O 2Fe O
2 2 2
CH O 2C+O
3
1) -700
2
1073 K
CH CH3
3 -900
500 1000 1500 2000 2500
C C
Temperature in K
OH OH Ellingham diagham
2)
Reduction of haematite
CH
1)below 1073K ,C is better reducing
CH
agent
OH OH 2)below 1073K.CO is better reducing
3) agent
C
3)Above 1073k,C is better reducing agent
C CH
4)heamatite can’t be reduced by C or CO
CH O
176. Which of the following represents the
4) 3
thermite reaction ?
172. Which of the following orders is wrong
1) 3Mn3O4 + 8 Al → 9 Mn + 4 Al2O3
with respect to property indicated
1)formic acid>acetic acid>propionic 2) MgCO3 + SiO2 → MgSiO3 + CO2
acid(acid strength) 3) Cu2 S + 2Cu2O → 6Cu + SO2
2)fluoro acetic acid>chloro acetic acid
4) Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2 Fe + 3CO2
>bromo acetic acid (acid strength)
3)benzoic acid >phenol>cyclohexanol 177. In Ellingham diagram the slope of the
(acid strength) curve of the formation metal oxide
4)aniline>cyclohexylamine>benzamide 1)is mostly +ve
(base strength) 2)is mostly –ve
173. Amides may be converted into amines by 3)depends on the type of metal
reaction named after 4) depends on the formula of metal oxide
1) perkin 2) claisen 178. Match items of column I with the items
3)Hoffmann 4) Kolbe of column II and assign the correct code:
174. The order of reactivity of phenyl COLUMN I COLUMN II
magnesium bromide ( PhMgBr ) with the (A) Cyanide process (i)ultrapure Ge
(B)Forth floatation
following compounds. (ii)dressing of ZnS
Ph process
CH 3 CH
3
C O, (C) Electrolytic
C O, C O, (iii)extraction of Al
H Ph
reduction
H

1) III>II>I 2) II>I>III (D) Zone refining (iv) extraction of Au

3) I>III>II 4) I>II>III (v) purification of Ni
Code:
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 A B C D 2) both have high solubility in pure
1) (iii) (iv) (v) (i) liquid ammonia to produce blue solution
2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) 3)both can be extracted by aqueous salt
3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) electrolysis
4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 4)both have same number of electron (s)
179. Which of the following is not an ore of in outermost shell
magnesium 184. If the impurity in a metal has a greater
1) magnesite 2)dolomite affinity for oxygen and is more easily
3)gypsum 4)carnallite oxidized than the metal then the
180. Mark the wrong statement purification of metal may be carried out
1)wrought iron is prepared by heating by
cast iron in a reverberatory furnace 1)cupellation 2)electrolytic refining
2)the impurities present in cast iron are 3)zone refining 4)poiling
oxidised by air 185. In which of the following process
3)the impurities are oxidised by Fe2O3 roasting and self-reduction is required
4)CO bruns with blue flame and the 1) Cu2 S → Cu2O 2) CaCO3 → CaO
Si,Mn and other impurities form slag with 3) ZnS → Zn 4) PbS → Pb
silica SECTION – B
181. Roasting of suplhides gives the gas X as a 186. Extraction of Ag from sulphide ore and
by –product this is a colourless gas with removal of unreacted silver bromide from
choking smell of brunt sulphur and causes photographic plate involve complexes
great damage to respiratory organs as a 1) [ Ag ( S 2O3 ) 2 ]3− in both
result of acid rain its aqueous solution is 2) [ Ag (CN ) 2 ]− in both
acidic acts as a reducing agent and its
3) [ Ag ( S2O3 ) 2 ]3− [ Ag (CN ) 2 ]− respectively
acid has never been isolated the gas X is
1) CO2 2) SO2 4) [ Ag (CN ) 2 ]− [ Ag ( S 2O3 ) 2 ]3− respectively
3) SO3 4) H 2 S 187. Which of the following has maximum
thermodynamic spontaneity at 400o C?
182. Metals are usually not found as nitrates in
1) C + O2 → CO2 2) 2C + O2 → 2CO
their ores out of the following two (I and
II) reasons which is/are true for the above 3) 2CO + O2 → 2CO2 4)all have same
observation 188. Van arkel method of purification of
I.Metal nitrates are higly ustable metals involves converting the metal to a
II.metal nitrates are highly soluble in 1) volatile stable compound
water 2)volatile unstable compound
1)I is false but II is true 3) nonvolatile stable compound
2)I is true but II is false 4)none of the above
3)I and II are true 189. Aluminothermic process is used for the
4)I and II are false extraction of metals whose oxides are
183. Select similarity between alkali metals 1) fusible
and coinage metals 2) not easily reduced by carbon
1) both are required to store in organic 3) not easily reduced by hydrogen
solvent 4) strongly basic
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190. The function of fluorspar in the 1) 3Ca, CuSO4 , Fe 2) 3Ca (OH )2 ,6Cu, FeO
electrolytic reduction of alumina 3) 3CaO,6Cu , 2 Fe 4) 3CaO2 , CuS , FeO
dissolved in fused cryolite ( Na3 AlF6 ) is Assertion & Reason:
1)as a catalyst 1) Both A and R are true and R is the
2) to lower the temperature of the melt correct explanation of A
and improve the conductivity of cell 2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
3) to decreases the rate of oxidation of correct explanation of A
carbon at the anode 3) A is true but R is false
4) to decreases the rate of oxidation of 4) A is false and R is also false
carbon at the cathode 195. Assertion: in forth floatation method
191. During the process of electrolytic refining sodium ethylxanthate is used as a
of copper some metals present as collector
impurity settle as anode mud these are Reason: Sulphide ores are water soluble
1)Fe and Ni 2) Ag and Au 196. Assertion : sulphide ores of Zn and pb are
3) Sn and Ag 4)Pb and Zn generally converted into their respective
192. For extraction of sodium from NaCl the oxides prior to reduction
electrolytic mixture NaCl + Na3 AlF6 + Reason: the zinc oxide and lead oxide are
CaCl2 is used during extraction process reduced by carbon to their respective free
only sodium is deposited on cathode but metals
K and Ca do not because 197. Assertion : G o for reaction becomes less
1)Na is more reactive than K and Ca negative on increasing temperature
2CO + O2 → 2CO2
2)Na is less reactive than K and Ca
3)NaCl is less stable than Na3 AlF6 and Reason: carbon monoxide burns with blue
flame
CaCl2 198. Assertion :lower aldehydes and ketones
4)the discharge potential of Na + is less are soluble in water but the solubility
than that of K + and Ca 2+ ions decreases as the molecular mass increases
193. Which of the following reactions Reason:distinction between aldehydes
represents the self reduction process and ketones
 HgS + O2 → HgO + SO2 199. Assertion :
1)  O
 HgO + HgS → Hg + SO2
Cu2 S + O2 → Cu2O + SO2 C=O
2) 
Cu2 S + Cu2O → Cu + SO2 I II
 PbS + O2 → PbO + SO2 Compound II is more reactive towards
3) 
 PbO + PbS → Pb + SO2 nucleophile addition reaction
4)all of these Reason :cyclic ketones are more reactive
194. x,y and z in the following processes are than acyclic ketone due to less steric
hindrance and compact structure of
respectively cyclic ketone
i) P2O5 + .....x... → Ca 3 ( PO4 )2 200. Assertion : NaHSO3 is used in separation
ii) 2Cu2O + Cu2 S → .. y.... + SO2 ↑ and purification of aldehydes
iii) Fe2O3 + 3CO → ....z.... + 3CO2 ↑ Reason: NaHSO3 is reducing agent
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