Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.

011-47623456

Admission-cum-Scholarship Test
(Sample Paper)
(Two Years Integrated Course for NEET 2020-2022)

(Syllabus of the Test : Science and Mathematics of Class X)

Roll No. : __________________

Test Booklet Code : A
Time : 2 Hrs. Max. Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. The initial 10 minutes are earmarked for the candidates to carefully read the instructions. (Note : The
candidates are not allowed to either look inside the question booklet or start answering during these
initial 10 minutes.)
2. The question booklet and answer sheet are issued separately at the start of the examination.
3. This question booklet contains 75 questions.
4. Read each question carefully.
5. Determine the correct answer, one out of the four available choices given under each question.
6. It is mandatory to use Blue/Black ballpoint pen to darken to appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
7. For each correct answer, four marks will be awarded. There is no negative marking.
For Example
Q. 12 : In the Question Booklet is: Which one of the following is linear in Geometry ?
(Answer Sheet)
(1) SO2 Q.12.    
(2) CO2
(3) NO2
(4) KO2
Thus as the correct answer is choice 2, the candidate should darken completely (with a blue/black
Ballpoint pen only) the circle corresponding to choice 2 against Question No. 12 on the Answer Sheet.
If more than one circle is darkened for a given question such answer will be rejected.
8. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet. No change in the answer once
marked is allowed. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate should check that
Roll No. and Test-Booklet code have been filled and marked correctly.
9. Rough work should be done only on the space provided in the question booklet.
10. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Answer sheet and Question booklet are
to be returned to the invigilator. If the candidate wants to leave the examination hall before time, he/she
should hand over the question paper and answer sheet to the invigilator. However, no student can leave
the examination hall before half time.
Two Years Integrated Course for NEET 2020-2022 Sample Paper

SCIENCE
Choose the correct answer :
1. Hydrogen bomb is based on 4. V-I graphs for two wires plotted at a given
(1) Thermonuclear fission reaction temperature are as shown below. For common
(2) Thermonuclear fusion reaction potential difference applied across them,
(3) Thermionic emission V
(4) Chemical substitution reaction wire 1
2. Which of the following is an incorrect
wire 2
representation of angle of incidence (∠i) and
angle of reflection (∠r)? (Symbols have their
usual meanings) I
(1) (1) More power is consumed in wire 1
(2) More power is consumed in wire 2
C F
P
(3) More current flows in wire 1
i
r
(4) Same current flows in both the wires
5. The reading of ammeter in the given circuit will
(2) be
15 Ω
i F C
r P 4Ω
3Ω 15 Ω
10 V + 4Ω
–
(3) 15 Ω
A
C F
(1) 2 A (2) 1 A
i P
r (3) 4 A (4) 3.5 A
6. Difference between an AC generator and a DC
generator is that
(4) r
i (1) AC generator has an electromagnet while a
DC generator has permanent magnet
P F C (2) DC generator generates an alternating
voltage
(3) AC generator generates a constant voltage
3. A straight wire carrying current vertically upward (4) AC generator has slip rings while the DC
is placed in a uniform magnetic field directed generator has a split ring type commutator
northwards. The wire will experience a magnetic
7. A light incident at an interface at an angle 60° is
force
refracted into another medium at an angle 30°.
N
If its speed in the first medium is C, then its
W E speed in the second medium is
(1) 2C (2) 2C
S
(1) Due west (2) Due east C C
(3) (4)
(3) Due south (4) Vertically downward 2 3
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Sample Paper Two Years Integrated Course for NEET 2020-2022
8. Focal length of a concave lens is 10 cm. Where 13. The magnetic field pattern that corresponds to
should a real object be placed in front of it so that that around a current carrying straight wire is
1
an image of magnification is formed?
4
(1) 15 cm (2) 30 cm (1) (2)
(3) 20 cm (4) 7.5 cm
9. Power dissipated across the resistor X is
1.5 V
3Ω
(3) (4)
Ω
3
Ω X 14. Choose the correct statement among the
3 3Ω
following.
3Ω (1) Magnetic field is stronger where field lines
(1) 18.7 W (2) 0.187 W are farther apart
(3) 35.2 W (4) 0.352 W (2) Direct current changes its direction
periodically
10. Choose the incorrect statement among the
following. (3) Magnetic field around a current carrying
solenoid is similar to that around a bar
(1) Electric power can be transmitted over long
magnet
distances without much loss of energy using
AC (4) Fleming's left hand rule gives the direction of
(2) Alternating current changes its direction induced current
periodically 15. Find the equivalent resistance between points A
(3) Electric fuse is connected in series with the and B, if each resistor is of resistance r.
circuit A
(4) In domestic wiring all the switches should be
connected in earth wires
11. Match the following
Column I Column II
a. Hot springs (i) Solar panel
b. Silicon (ii) Nuclear energy
B
c. Uranium (iii) Biogas
4r 2r
d. Methane (iv) Geothermal energy (1) (2)
3 3
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
r
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (3) (4) r
3
12. The temperature difference between the surface
water and the deeper sections of sea is exploited 16. Which of the following solutions is most basic in
to obtain nature?
(1) Tidal energy (1) Solution A with pH = 8
(2) Wave energy (2) Solution B with pH = 9
(3) Ocean thermal energy (3) Solution C with pH = 10
(4) Hydro-power (4) Solution D with pH = 6

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Two Years Integrated Course for NEET 2020-2022 Sample Paper
17. Anmol is a student of class 10. While playing 22. Fe2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Fe
football he got his arm fractured. Doctor used a
chemical substance 'X' with water for supporting Which of the following statements is incorrect for
his fractured bone. After few hours 'X' is above reaction?
converted into 'Y' which is a hard solid. 'X' and 'Y' (1) Fe2O3 is getting reduced
respectively are (2) Al is getting oxidised
(1) Plaster of Paris and Baking soda (3) Fe2O3 is the oxidising agent
(2) Gypsum and Plaster of Paris
(4) Al2O3 is the reducing agent
(3) Plaster of Paris and Gypsum
23. An amphoteric oxide ‘X’ reacts with aqueous
(4) Baking soda and Plaster of Paris NaOH to form sodium aluminate. Identify the
18. 'A' and 'B' are the two salts which are responsible product when ‘X’ reacts with hydrochloric acid
for the hardness of water. If the size of metal 'X' (1) NaCl
present in salt 'A' is larger than the size of metal
'Y' present in salt 'B' then which of the following (2) AlCl3
elements does not belong to the same period as (3) Al2Cl3
metal 'Y' in the Modern Periodic Table?
(4) NaAlO2
(1) Na (2) K
24. Which of the following is not a compound of
(3) Al (4) Cl
sodium?
19. Which of the given elements has the smallest
(1) Sodium carbonate (2) Sodium amalgam
atomic radii?
(3) Sodium acetate (4) Sodium sulphate
(1) Na (2) Li
25. An acid present in atmosphere of venus in the
(3) Cs (4) Rb
form of yellow clouds reacts with sodium
20. Noble gases were discovered late because hydroxide to form
a. They are very inert (1) Sodium chloride (2) Sodium carbonate
b. They are gases (3) Sodium nitrate (4) Sodium sulphate
c. They react with oxygen readily 26. Consider the following statements.
d. They are present in very low concentrations I. The oily dirt gets collected in the centre of the
in atmosphere micelle.
Which of the above can complete the given II. The hydrophobic part of a soap molecule
statement correctly? remains towards water.
(1) a and b Choose the correct option.
(2) b and c (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(3) a and d incorrect
(4) a and c (2) Statement II is correct but statement I is
incorrect
21. Elements A, B and C represent a Dobereiner's
triad. If atomic masses of A and B (middle (3) Both the statements are correct
element) are 7 u and 23 u respectively, then the (4) Both the statements are incorrect
atomic mass of element 'C' will be 27. Combustion of fossil fuel does not evolve
(1) 30 u (1) Oxides of carbon
(2) 35 u (2) Oxides of sodium
(3) 39 u (3) Oxides of sulphur
(4) 42 u (4) Oxides of nitrogen
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Sample Paper Two Years Integrated Course for NEET 2020-2022
28. Match the following. 33. Which of the following hormones is/are
Column I Column II responsible for bending of shoot tip towards
light?
a. Ethanol (i) Sweet smelling
substance (1) Auxins

b. Methanol (ii) Dehydrating agent (2) Cytokinins

(3) Gibberellins
c. Sulphuric acid (iii) Lethal
(4) Abscisic acid
d. Ester (iv) Organic solvent
34. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. excretion in
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
plants.
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(1) Plants get rid of excess water by transpiration
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(2) Some waste is excreted in the soil around
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) them
29. Which of the following metal pairs react with very (3) Some waste products are stored as resins
dilute nitric acid to produce hydrogen? and gums in phloem
(1) Mg and Na (4) Some waste products may be stored in
(2) Mg and Mn leaves that fall off
(3) Mn and Si 35. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
(4) Cu and Si
Column I Column II
30. The decomposition of iron sulphate results in the
formation of a. Nadis (i) Maharashtra
b. Kattas (ii) Bihar
(1) FeO, SO2 and SO3
c. Tals (iii) Rajasthan
(2) Fe2O3, O2 and SO3
d. Pynes (iv) Karnataka
(3) Fe2O3, SO2 and SO3 (1) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
(4) Fe3O4 and SO3 (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
31. Phytoplankton → Snail → Tuna → Dolphin (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
In the above food chain, if 1 J of energy is (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
available to the secondary consumer then, how 36. The longest part of the alimentary canal is
much energy was assimilated by the producers?
(1) Oesophagus
(1) 100 J (2) 10 J
(2) Large intestine
(3) 1000 J (4) 0.1 J
(3) Small intestine
32. The parts of the floral whorl that produces pollen
(4) Stomach
grains are
37. Statement-1: An ecosystem consists of biotic
P – Filament, Q – Stigma,
and abiotic components.
R – Style, S – Anther,
Statement-2: Temperature, rainfall, wind and
T – Ovary insects are abiotic components.
(1) P, R & T (1) Both the statements are true
(2) P & S (2) Both the statements are false
(3) Q, R & T (3) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false
(4) R & S (4) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true
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Two Years Integrated Course for NEET 2020-2022 Sample Paper
38. In the sketch diagram given below P, Q, R and S 41. Which of the following characteristics was
are blood vessels. selected by farmers to breed cauliflower from
wild cabbage?
Lungs
(1) Sterile flowers
P Q
(2) Arrested flower development

Heart (3) Short distance between leaves

(4) Swollen parts
R S
A B
42. Glucose  → Pyruvate → CO2 + H2O + Energy.
The reactions A and B occur in
Body parts
(1) Plasma and mitochondria, respectively
Identify the blood vessels which are carrying (2) Cytoplasm and mitochondria, respectively
oxygenated blood and deoxygenated blood.
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria,
Blood vessels respectively
Blood vessels
carrying
carrying (4) Mitochondria and plasma, respectively
deoxygenated
oxygenated blood
blood 43. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) P and Q R and S (1) The female germ cells are produced in
(2) P and R Q and S oviducts
(3) Q and S P and R (2) Zygote gets implanted in the lining of the
uterus in human females
(4) Q and R P and S
(3) Two eggs are produced by both oviducts
39. If the parent plants are having the genotypes every month
RRyy and rrYY, the number of types of gametes
produced by both the plants together are (4) The embryo gets nutrition from placenta
which is located in vagina
(1) Two (2) Four
(3) Six (4) Eight 44. Which of the following hormones is released by
the glands located on our excretory organ?
40. Identify the mode of reproduction which is shown
in the given diagram. (1) Testosterone
(2) Insulin
(3) Thyroxine
(4) Adrenaline
45. Gustatory and olfactory receptors are located
in/on
(1) Nose and ear, respectively
(1) Budding
(2) Multiple fission (2) Ear and tongue, respectively

(3) Binary fission (3) Tongue and nose, respectively

(4) Regeneration (4) Skin and nose, respectively

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Sample Paper Two Years Integrated Course for NEET 2020-2022

MATHEMATICS
46. The HCF of 66 and 121 is 52. If C(a, b) is the mid-point of the line segment
(1) 34 (2) 17 joining the points A(4, –7) and B(–8, 9), then the
value of (a + b) is
(3) 22 (4) 11
(1) 0 (2) 2
47. The sum of two natural numbers is 30. If their
difference is 20, then the product of these two (3) –1 (4) 1
natural numbers is 53. For any distribution of data, 3 median – mode =
(1) 600 (2) 300 (1) Mean (2) 3 mean
(3) 125 (4) 50
Mean
48. If x = 1 is a zero of the polynomial p(x) = x4 – 5x3 (3) 2 mean (4)
2
– 20x2 + 130x – a, then the value of a is
54. If the shadow of a pole ‘a’ metres high is ‘a’
(1) 29 (2) 47
metres long, then the angle of elevation of the
(3) 79 (4) 106 sun is
49. If α and α + 1 are the roots of the equation (1) 45° (2) 60°
x2 – 7x + a = 0, then a equals
(3) 30° (4) 90°
(1) 6
55. The maximum number of tangents that can be
(2) 9 drawn to a circle from a point outside the circle is
(3) 10 (1) 0 (2) 1
(4) 12 (3) 2 (4) 3
50. The sum of three consecutive terms of an AP is 56. A quadratic polynomial, the sum and product of
72. Then, the middle term is whose zeroes are –4 and –1 respectively, can be
(1) 18
(1) x2 + 4x + 1 (2) x2 – 4x – 1
(2) 24
(3) x2 + 4x – 1 (4) x2 – 4x + 1
(3) 36
57. If the area of a circle is 308 cm2, then its
(4) 48 perimeter is
51. In ∆ABC, DE || BC. If AD = (x – 3) cm,
(1) 22 2 cm (2) 44 2 cm
BD = (x + 5) cm, AE = 25 cm and EC = 35 cm,
then the value of x is
(3) 88 2 cm (4) 66 2 cm
A
58. If a solid metallic sphere of radius 16 cm is
melted and recast into m spherical solid balls of
D E radius 2 cm, then the value of m is equal to
(1) 128 (2) 512
(3) 256 (4) 228
B C 59. A ladder leaning at an angle of 30° with ground
(1) 15 reaches a window at a height of 7 m. The length
of the ladder is
(2) 18
(1) 7 m (2) 3.5 m
(3) 21
(4) 23 (3) 14 m (4) 7 3 m
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Two Years Integrated Course for NEET 2020-2022 Sample Paper
60. A card is selected at random from a deck of 52 67. The condition for m for which the expression
cards. The probability of its being a black card is –mx2 + x – 1 cannot be factorized into two linear
1 factors is
1
(1) (2)
3 2 1 1
(1) m ≤ (2) m >
4 4
1 1
(3) (4)
4 6 1 1 1
(3) − ≤m≤ (4) m <
61. Which of the following rational numbers is a 4 4 4
non-terminating repeating decimal number? 68. If the radii of the ends of a frustum of a cone of
17 29 height 12 cm are 7 cm and 2 cm, then the
(1) (2) volume (in cm3) of the frustum of the cone is
625 1600
(1) 268π (2) 286π
15 105
(3) (4) (3) 143π (4) 216π
455 150
62. If the system of equations ax + 4y = 7 and sin2 37° + cos4 37°
69. The value of is
2x + by = 14 has infinitely many solutions, then cos2 53° + sin4 53°
the value of a + b is
1
(1) 7 (2) 2 (1) 0 (2)
2
(3) 21 (4) 9
1
63. If a die is thrown once, then the probability of (3) (4) 1
getting a number that divides 36 is 4
1 5 70. The number of integers from 100 to 500 which
(1) (2) are divisible by 5 is
6 6
(1) 80 (2) 81
1 2
(3) (4) (3) 79 (4) 78
2 3
71. A circle is inscribed in a triangle ABC such that it
64. The area of a sector of a circle of radius 7 cm touches the sides BC, CA and AB at D, E and F
and central angle 120° is respectively as shown in the figure. If BC = 5 cm
154 and AB + AC = 13 cm, then AE equals
(1) 152 cm2 (2) cm2
3 A
128
(3) cm2 (4) 128 cm2
3
65. The area enclosed by the points (2, 5), (–3, 5), F E
O
(–3, –4) and (2, –4) is
(1) 36 sq. units
B C
(2) 45 sq. units D
(3) 40 sq. units (1) 2 cm (2) 3 cm
(4) 32 sq. units (3) 4 cm (4) 6 cm
66. In ∆PQR, if PS is the median, then PQ2 + PR2 is 72. If a, b and c are three natural numbers such that
equal to abc = 3600, HCF(a, b, c) = 2, HCF(a, b) = 10,
HCF(b, c) = 2 and HCF(a, c) = 6, then
1 LCM (a, b, c) is equal to
(1) PS2 + QS2 (2) (PS 2 + QS 2 )
2
(1) 120 (2) 30
(3) 2(PS2 + QS2) (4) PS2 + 2QS2
(3) 360 (4) 60
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Sample Paper Two Years Integrated Course for NEET 2020-2022
xi − 45 75. If one zero of the cubic polynomial px3 + qx2 + rx
73. If =
ui , Σu
= i fi 30 and Σfi =100, where + s is 2, then the square of the difference of other
10
the symbols have their usual meaning, then x is two zeroes is
equal to q 2 + 4s 2 + 4qs + 2sp
(1)
(1) 33 (2) 38 p2
(3) 45 (4) 48
q 2 − 4s 2 + 4qs − 2 ps
74. The expression (2)
p2
2sec2θ – sec4θ – 2cosec2θ + cosec4θ is equal to
2 q 2 + 4 p 2 + 4 pq + 2 ps
 1  (3)
(1) (sec2θ – cosec2θ)2 (2)  tan2 θ +  p2
 tan2 θ 
(3) sin4θ + cos4θ (4) cot4θ – tan4θ q 2 − 4 p 2 + 4 pq − 2 ps
(4)
p2

  

Space For Rough Work

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 Test Booklet Code : A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

Admission-cum-Scholarship Test
(Sample Paper)
(Two Years Integrated Course for NEET 2020-2022)

Answers

1. (2) 16. (3) 31. (1) 46. (4) 61. (3)

2. (3) 17. (3) 32. (2) 47. (3) 62. (4)
3. (1) 18. (2) 33. (1) 48. (4) 63. (2)
4. (2) 19. (2) 34. (3) 49. (4) 64. (2)
5. (2) 20. (3) 35. (3) 50. (2) 65. (2)
6. (4) 21. (3) 36. (3) 51. (4) 66. (3)
7. (4) 22. (4) 37. (3) 52. (3) 67. (2)
8. (2) 23. (2) 38. (3) 53. (3) 68. (1)
9. (2) 24. (2) 39. (1) 54. (1) 69. (4)
10. (4) 25. (4) 40. (2) 55. (3) 70. (2)
11. (3) 26. (1) 41. (1) 56. (3) 71. (3)
12. (3) 27. (2) 42. (2) 57. (2) 72. (4)
13. (3) 28. (4) 43. (2) 58. (2) 73. (4)
14. (3) 29. (2) 44. (4) 59. (3) 74. (4)
15. (2) 30. (3) 45. (3) 60. (2) 75. (3)