PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION

Pre-Mendelism
01. Match Column-I (theory) with Column-II (scientists) and choose the correct option.
Column - I Column - II
(a) Theory of Pangenesis (i) Charles Bonnet
(b) Particulate Theory (ii) Charles darwin
(c) Preformation Theory (iii) August Weisffiann
(d) Theory of Germplasm (iv) Maupertius
(e) Encasement Theory (v) Swammerdam
(1) (a) - (v); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iv); (d) - (iii); (e) - (i)
(2) (a) - (iv); (b) - (ii); (c) - (v); (d) - (iii); (e) - (i)
(3) (a) - (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (v); (d) - (ii); (e) - (i)
(4) (a) - (v); (b) - (iii); (c) - (iv); (d) - (i); (e) - (ii)
02. Which theory assumes mother and his child as Box within-a-box?
(1) Preformation theory (2) Fluid theory
(3) Encasement theory (4) Theory of Pangenesis
03. What is the other name for Pangenel
(1) Homunculus (2) Panspermia (3) Gemmules (4) Seeds
04. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding germplasm theory?
(1) This Iheory was given by August Weismann (2) Germplasm is immortal
(3) Somatoplasm is mortal (4) The experiments were performed on rabbits for 21
generations
05. Which pre-Mendelian theory believes Homounculus to be present in the human beings in a miniature
form?
(1) Theory of Pangenesis (2) Theory of Germplasm
(3) Pre-formation theory (4) Particulate theory
06. Which of the following is matched correctly?
(1) Particulate theory - Empedocles (2) Encasetaient theory - Pythagoras
(3) Fluid theory - Aristotle (4) Pre-formation theory - Darwin

Mendelism
07. Emasculation is
(1) Removal of anther from unisexual flower by a pair of forceps
(2) Removal of anther from flower bud after it dehisces using a pair of forceps
(3) Removal of anther from bisexual flower bud before it dehisces using a pair of forceps
(4) All of these
08. When a true breeding pea plant that has yellow seeds is pollinated by a plant that has green seeds, then
all the F1 plants have yellow seeds. This means that the allele for yellow is -
(1) Heterozygous (2) Dominant (3) Recessive (4) Lethal
09. When heterozygous tall plants are self-pollinated, then tall and dwarf plants are obtained. This explains
(1) Law of impurity of gamete (2) Law of segregation
(3) Law of dominance (4) Law of independent assortment
10. Mental crossed a pure white-flowered recessive pea plant with a dominant pure red-flowered plant. The
first generation of hybrids from the cross should show
(1) 50% white-flowered and 50% red-flowered plants (2) All red-flowered plants
(3) 75% red-flowered and 25% white-flowered plants (4) All white-flowered plants
11. How many genotypes are formed in Mendelian dihybrid cross?
(1) 4 (2) 9 (3) 6 (4) 8
12. Shape of a seed depends on starch granules size; so inheritance of seed shape shows _______________
relationship, while inheritance of starch grains show _____________.
(1) Dominant recessive; codominance (2) Incomplete dominance; codominance
(3) Dominant recessive; incomplete dominance (4) Codominance; incomplete dominance
13. Law of independent assortment is always true or applicable if two genes are located on
(1) Same homologous chromosome (2) Different chromosomes
(3) Same locus of different chromosomes (4) Different locus of same chromosome
14. How many phenotypes are produced from the test cross of AaBbCC
(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 2
15. Maximum height of a plant species is 60 cm and minimum height is 20 cm. What is the height of a plant
with genotype AaBB?
(1) 30 cm (2) 40 cm (3) 50 cm (4) 90 cm
16. Law of independent assortment can be explained by
(1) Monohybrid cross (2) Dihybrid cross (3) Test cross (4) Reciprocal cross
17. What would be the frequency of AABBCC individuals from a cross of two AaBbCc individuals?
(1) 1/64 (2) 1/32 (3) 1/16 (4) 1/8
18. The phenomenon of independent assortment refers to
(1) Expression at the same stage of development
(2) Unlinked transmission of genes in crosses resulting from being located on different chromosomes, or
far apart on the same chromosome
(3) Independent location of genes from each other in an interphase cell
(4) Association of a protein and a DNA sequence implying related function

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19. Mendel's law of segregation, as applied to the behaviour of chromosomes in meiosis, means that
(1) Pairing of homologs will convert one allele into the other, leading to separation of the types
(2) Alleles of a gene separate from each other when homologs separate in meiosis I, or in meiosis II if
there is a single crossover between the gene and the centromere.
(3) Genes on the same chromosome will show 50% recombination
(4) Alleles of a gene will be linked and passed on together through meiosis.
20. In Mendelian dihybrid cross, when plants heterozygous for round yellow seeds are self-crossed, round
green offspring are represented by the genotype
(1) RrYy, RrYY and RRYy (2) Rryy, RRyy and rryy (3) rrYy and rrYY (4) Rryy and RRyy
21. Law of segregation is based on the fact that
(1) Expression of only one of the parental characters in a monohybrid cross
(2) Expression of both of the parental characters in the F2
(3) phenotypic ratio of F2 is 3:1.

(4) Alleles do not show any blending and both the characters are recovered as such in the F2 generation
22. Based on his observations on monohybrid crosses, Mendel proposed ____________ to consolidate his
understanding of inheritance in monohybrid crosses.
(1) 3 laws (2) 2 hypothesis (3) 3 principles (4) 2 general rules
23. Dominant allele is
(1) Modified allele (2) Unmodified allele
(3) responsible for a character in presence of recessive allele (4) Both (2) and (3)
24. From a cross AABb x aaBb, genotypes AaBb and aabb will be in the ratio of
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 0 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 2 : 2
25. What would be the sum of phenotypes and genotypes obtained from a trihybrid test cross?
(1) 35 (2) 8 (3) 16 (4) 24
26. Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement.
(a) Genetics deals with the inheritance, as well as variation of characters from parents to offspring
(b) Variation is the process by which characters are passed on from parent to progeny
(c) Inheritance is the basis of heredity
(d) Inheritance is the degree by which progeny differ from their parents
(e) Human knew from as early as 8000-10,000 B.C. that one of the causes of variation was hidden in
sexual reproduction.
(1) (b), (d) and (e) (2) (a), (c) and (e) (3) (b) and (d) only (4) (e) only
27. Which of the following set of chromosomes do not contain any character selected by Mendel for his
experiments?
(1) 1, 4 and 5 (2) 2, 3 and 6 (3) 4, 5 and 7 (4) 1, 5 and 7
28. How many types of gametes are possible from the product obtained in the cross ABcDE x AbcdEi
(1) 32 (2) 16 (3) 4 (4) 8
29. Select the odd one out.
(1) Yellow seed colour (2) Terminal flower (3) Yellow pod colour (4) Constricted pod
30. A true breeding line is one that
(1) Have undergone continuous self-pollination (2) Shows the stable trait inheritance.
(2) Shows expression for several generations (4) All of these
31. Fill in the Blanks.
(a) _____________ contain the information that is required to express a particular trait
(b) Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits are known as _____________
(c) Mendel selected ___________ true breeding pea plant varieties
(d) ___________ are slightly different forms of the same gene
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Genes alleles 14 Alleles
(2) Factors codons 7 Alleles
(3) Genes alleles 7 Codons
(4) Alleles genes 14 Variety
32. When AABB and aabb are crossed, in F2 generation, the ratio of AaBb will be
(1) 1/16 (2) 2/16 (3) 8/16 (4) 4/16
33. From a cross AABb x aaBb, the genotypes AaBB : AaBB: Aabb : aabb will be obtained in the ratio
(1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 1 : 0 (3) 0 : 3 : 1 : 0 (4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 0
34. When a tall plant with rounded seeds (TTRR) is crossed with a dwarf plant with wrinkled seeds (ttrr), the
F1 generation consists of tall paltns with rounded seeds. How many types of gametes and F 1 plant would
produce?
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 8
35. Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) Each back cross is a test cross
(2) Each test cross is back cross
(3) Both tests have the same meaning
(4) Reappearance of similar characters in a attest cross is called a back cross
36. Which of the following characters was not chosen by Mendel?
(1) Pod colour (2) Flower colour (3) Leaf shape (4) Pod shape
37. How many characters selected by Mendel were found on chromosome 4?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
38. In F1 generation, a phenotypic ratio of 1:1:1:1 exhibits
(1) Back cross (2) Monohybrid test cross (3) Lethality (4) Dihybrid test cross
39. From a cross AaBB x aaBB, genotypic ratio obtained in F1 generation will be
(1) 1 AaBB : 1 aaBB (2) 1 AaBB : 3 aaBB (3) 3 AaBB : 1 aaBB (4) All AaBB : No aaBB

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40. A human male produces sperms with the genotypes AB, Ab, aB, and ab pertaining to two diallelic
characters in equal proportions. What is the corresponding genotype of this person?
(1) AaBB (2) AABb (3) AABB (4) AaBb
41. Select the incorrect statement from the following.
(1) Inheritance is the process by which the characters are passed on from parent to the progeny
(2) Inheritance is the basis of heredity
(3) Variation is the degree by which the progeny differs from their parents.
(4) Sahiwal breed of buffaloes in Punjab are produced through artificial selection and domestication from
wild cows
42. What is the probability of genotype TrRR in F2 generation obtained from parental cross with genotype
TTRR x ttrr?
(1) 2/16 (2) 4/16 (3) 1/16 (4) 3/16
43. In a monohybird cross, 256 seeds were obtained in F 2 generation. Find out the number of seeds which
genotypically resemble F1 generation.
(1) 128 (2) 64 (3) 192 (4) 256
44. Starch synthesis in the pea seed is controlled by one gene. It has two alleles B and b. If starch grain size
is considered as the phenotype, then from this angle allele shows
(1) Multiple allele (2) Incomplete dominance
(3) Co-dominance (4) Polygenic inheritance
45. In monohybrid test cross,
(1) Both parental traits appear as pure line (2) Only dominant phenotype appears
(3) Hetrozygous dominant trait appears in 50% (4) Recessive trait appears in 25%
46. True breeding tall and dwarf plants were crossed and total 1000 seeds were obtained in F 2 generation.
Find out the number of seeds which genotypically resemble with F1 parent
(1) 250 (2) 500 (3) 750 (4) 900
47. Probability of getting heterozygous round and yellow seeds out of 800 seeds collected in F2 is
(1) 450 (2) 500 (3) 200 (4) 150
48. If there are 16 small boxes in a punnet square then how many different types of genotypes and
phenotypes respectively are possible?
(1) 3 and 2 (2) 9 and 4 (3) 81 and 16 (4) 27 and 8
49. In a given plant, red colour (R) of fruits is dominant over white fruit (r); and tallness (T) is dominant
over dwarfness (t). If a plant with genotype RrTt is crossed with a plant of genotype rrtt, what will be
the percentage of tall plants with red fruits in the next generation?
(1) 25% (2) 75% (3) 50 (4) 100%
50. What is true for expressing recessive characters?
(1) They are true breeding (2) They are homozygous for related trait
(3) They produce one type of gametes for concerning character (4) All of these
51. Which of the following is dominant character according to Mendel?
(1) Dwarf plant and yellow fruit (2) Terminal fruit and wrinkled seed
(3) White testa and yellow pericarp (4) Green coloured pod and rounded seed
52. A cross between a homozygous recessive and a heterozygous plant is called
(1) Monohybrid cross (2) Dihybrid cross (3) Test cross (4) Back cross
53. The percentage of heterozygous individuals obtained in F2 generation from selfing the plants with
genotype Rr would be
(1) 24 (2) 50 (3) 75 (4) 100
54. From a single ear of corn, a fanner planted 200 kernels which produced 140 tall and 40 dwarf plants. The
genotypes of these offspring are most likely
(1) TT, Tt and tt (2) TTand tt (3) TT and Tt (4) Tt and tt
55. The main reason for the success of Mendel was
(1) Study of all the characters at the same time (2) Study of one character at one time
(3) Study of all the plants at the same time (4) Counting of plants
56. If enough crosses are made between male flies of the genotype Aa and the female flies of the genotype
aa to produce about 1000 offspring. Which one of the following is the most likely distribution of
genotypes in the offspring?
(1) 250 Aa: 750 aa (2) 750Aa:250aa (3) 243 AA:517 Aa:240 aa (4) 481Aa:519aa
57. In pea plants, red flowers {R) are dominant over white flowers (r) and tall plants (7) are dominant over
dwarf plants Hi The table below shows the gametes and the possible offspring produced in a dihybrid
cross. The numbers 1 to 16 represent the genotypes of each individual cross (e.g., 3 = RrTT)
RT Rt rT rt
RT 1 2 3 4
Rt 5 6 7 8
rT 9. 10 11 12
rt 13 14 15 16
If plant 7 is crossed with plant 12, then what proportion of the offspring produced will be homozygous
for both the recessive characters?
(1) 50% (2) 37.5% (3) 25% . (4) 12.5%
58. Which plant was offered by Karl Nageli to Mendel for proving the laws of genetics?
(1) Hevea braziliensis (2) Hieracium (3) Haplopappus gracilus (4) Capsella
59. Which of the following statements is false for the experimental model of Mendel?
(1) It produces bisexual flowers (2) It may undergo cross-pollination naturally
(3) Its flowers have vexillary aestivation (4) It is an annual plant
60. How many of the following characters are present on chromosome number 4 of Pisum sativum?
Flower colour, Seed shape, Pod shape, Pod colour, Plant height, Seed colour
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) None
61. Which of the following is not true regarding dihybrid cross performed by Mendel?
(1) Phenotypic ratio is 9:3:3:1 (2) The number of genotypes possible are 23=8
(3) The true heterozygous form is AaBb (4) Sixteen mini squares are possible in the punnet square

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62. Which of the following crosses proves that there is no effect of sex on inheritance?
(1) Test cross (2) Back cross (3) Reciprocal cross (4) Hybrid cross
63. The phenotypic ratio obtained in dihybrid test cross is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 9 : 3 : 3: 1 (3) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 0
64. ZW, XO, XY and haplo-diploid type of sex determination is seen in respectively
(1) Parrot, Cockroach, Melandrium and honey bee (2) Aptenodytes, grasshopper, Drosqphila and Apis
(3) Pavo, grasshopper, man and honey bee (4) All of these
65. How many types of gametes are possible in the organism with the genotype PpqqrrSsTt?
(1) 32 (2)16 (3) 8 (4) 4
66. Offspring of which of the following crosses are all phenotypiadly alike?
(1) DdxDd (2) Ddxdd (3) DDxDd (4) DDxdd
67. 25:46:26 ratio is expected from which cross?
(1) AA x aa (2) Aa x Aa (3) AA x AA (4) aa x aa
68. Which is correct about Mendelian characters?
(1) Tall palnts are dominant over dwarf plants (2) Green pods are recessive over yellow pods
(3) Constricted pods are dominant over inflated pods (4) All of these
69. A pea plant having violet-coloured flowers with unknown genotype was crossed with a plant having
white- coloured flowers. In the progeny, 50% of the flowers were violet and 50% were white. The
genotypic constitution of the parent having violet-coloured flowers was
1) Homozygous (2) Azygous (3) Heterozygous (4) Hemizygous
70. Mendel found that the reciprocal cross yield identical result, from this he concluded that
(1) There is an independent assortment of trait
(2) The sex plays an important role in deciding the dominance of a trait
(3) There is no dominance of any trait
(4) The sex has no influence on the dominance of the traits
71. How many pairs of contrasting characters in a pea pod were chosen by Mendel?
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 7 (4) 2
72. If a cross between two individuals produces offspring with 50% dominant character (1) and 50%
recessive character (1), the genotype of parents are
(1) Aa x Aa (2) Aa x aa (3) AA x aa (4) AA x Aa
73. Mendel was not able to get any linkage due to the
(1) Law of dominance (2) Law of unit character
(3) Law of independent assortment (4) None of these
74. A test cross is carried out to
(1) Determine the genotype of a plant at F2
(2) Predict whether two treats are linked
(3) Assess the number of alleles of a gene
(4) Determine whether two species or varieties will breed successfully
75. What is the correct sequence of the following events?
(a) Formation of the chromosome theory of heredity
(b) Experiments which proved that DNA is the hereditary material
(c) Discovery of Mendel's Law of Inheritance
(1) (a), (c) and (b) (2) (a), (b) and (c) (3) (c), (a) and (b) (4) (b), (a) and (c)
76. Mendel crossed a pure white-flowered recessive pea plant with a dominant pure red-flowered plant. The
first generation of hybrids from the cross should show
(1) All pink flowered plants (2) All red flowered plants
(3) Equal number of red and white flowered plants (4) Red, pink and white flowered plants in the ratio 1:2:1
77. Select the false statement from the following
(1) Mendel first time applied statistical analysis and mathematical logics to problem in biology
(2) Mendel’s experiment has a large sampling size, which gave greater credibility to the data that he collected
(3) Mendel conduced artificial cross pollination experiment using true breeding pea lines
(4) Mendel selected 14 true breeding pea plant varieties, as pairs which were similar except for two
characters
78. Mendel did not recognise the linkage phenomenon in his experiments because
(1) There were many chromosomes to handle
(2) The characters he studied were located on different chromosomes
(3) He did not have powerful microscope
(4) He studied only pure plants
79. It is said that Mendel proposed that the factor controlling any character is discrete and independent. This
proposition was based on the
(1) Results of Ft generation of a cross
(2) Observations that the offspring of a cross made between the plants having two contrasting
characters show only one character without any blending.
(3) Self-pollination of Ft offspring
(4) Cross pollination of parental generations
80. A test cross enables one to
(1) Determine the viability of cross
(2) Distinguish between homozygous dominant and heterozygous dominant
(3) Determine whether two species can interbreed
(4) Determine the similarities in the DNA of two species
81. In keeping with the law of independent assortment, what is actually assorted?
(1) Different genes on the same chromosome (2) Centromeres
(3) Homologous chromosomes (4) Heterologous chromosomes

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82. If Mendel had studied 7 traits using a plant with 12 chromosomes instead of 14, in what way the
interpretation would have been different?
(1) He would have discovered crossing over
(2) He would have discovered blending or incomplete dominance
(3) He could not have proposed that genes are carried on chromosomes
(4) He would not have discovered that law of independent assortment
83. What is not true of the law of independent assortment?
(a) Applicable to all the dominant alleles
(b) Applicable to all genes on the same chromosome
(c) Not applicable to genes present on the same chromosome
(d) Applicable to all recessive alleles
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
84. Test cross does not involve
I) Crossing between two genotypes with dominant trait
II) Crossing between two genotypes with recessive trait
III) Crossing the F1 hybrid with double recessive genotype
IV) Crossing between two F1 hybrids
(1) I, II and IV (2) All of these (3) II, III and IV (4) I, II and III
85. Which one/ones of following is/are correct regarding the Mendelian dihybrid cross?
(a) The F2 phenotypic ratio is 9:3:3:1
(b) Law of independent assortment can be explained on the basis of this cross.
(c) F2 generation is obtained through the cross between F1 plaints with one of the two parental plants.

(d) The gametes produced by F1 plants are of four types in ratio of 1:1:1:1.
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) All of these (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
86. Which of the following expresses Mendel's law of equal segregation?
(1) All dominant alleles of different genes segregate into separate cells from the recessive alleles
(2) Two copies of a gene separate during meiosis and end up in different gametes
(3) When a dominant allele hybridises with a recessive allele, the resultant is a dominant one
(4) Gametes with recessive alleles will fuse only with each other
87. Starch grain size in garden pea, flower colour in 4'0 clock plant and heterozygous individual for sickle cell
anaemia are the examples of
(1) Incomplete dominance (2) Non-allelic interaction
(3) Codominance (4) Interallelic interaction
88. Choose the wrong statement
(1) Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division results in aneeuploidy
(2) Additional copy of X chromosome in males results in Klinefelter’s syndrome
(3) Closely located genes in a chromosome always assort independently resulting in recombinants
(4) Failure of cytokinesis after DNA replication results in polyploidy
89. Select the incorrect statement with respect to reciprocal cross.
(1) It is done to know whether the alleles are present on sex chromosomes or autosomes
(2) It is made to eliminate the effect of nuclear traits
(3) two individuals with contrasting genotypes are involved
(4) Results are not changed for autosomal traits
90. Human skin colour is polygenic trait with each dominant determining a part of melanin deposition while
the recessive are coding for no melanin. If a very1 dark skinned person marries very light skinned
women, the chances of a very dark skinned offspring are
(1) 0 (2) ¼ (3) 5/8 (4) 9/64
91. Pea plants were more suitable than cattle for Mendel's experiment because
(1) There were no breeding records of catties
(2) Pea plants can be self-fertilised
(3) Catties are not easy to maintain
(4) All pea plants have 2n chromosomes and fewer genetic traits
92. In the Punnet square given below, the genotypes of the female and male parents are respectively,

(1) AABB and AaBb (2) AaBB and AaBb (3) aaBB and'AaBb (4) AAbb and AaBb
93. Marriages between close relatives should be avoided because it includes more
(1) Recessive alleles to come together (2) Mutations
(3) Multiple births (4) Blood group abnormalities
94. Test cross involves crossing
(1) Between two genotypes with recessive trait (2) Between two F1 hybrids

(3) The F1 hybrid with a double recessive genotype (4) Between two genotypes with dominant
trait
95. Which one of the following cannot be explained on the basis of Mendel's law of dominance?
(1) Alleles do not show any blending and both the characters recover as such in F2 generation
(2) Factors occur in pairs
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 (3) The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called a factor
(4) Out of one pair of factors, one is dominant and the other is recessive

96. Which of the following points further strengthened Mendelism?

(1) Law of independent assortment which was based on monohybrid cross
(2) Law of independent assortment which could be stated on the basis of segregation of gametes
(3) Incomplete dominance which gave a new way of Mendelism
(4) A character controlled by a pair of unit factors

Post-Mendel ism
97. If one parent belongs to A blood group and the other to O blood group, their children possibly represent
(1) A and B groups only (2) ABonly (3) A and O groups only (4) All four groups
98. In multiple allelism,
(1) All alleles of a gene are situated on different chromosomes
(2) All alleles of a gene are situated on same chromosome at different locus
(3) Crossing over is possible
(4) All alleles occupy same locus
99. A cross between two true breeding lines one with dark blue flowers and one with bright white flowers
produces F1 offspring that are light blue. When the F1 progeny are selfed, a 1:2:1 ratio of dark blue to
light blue to white flowers is observed. What genetic phenomenon is consistent with these results?
(1) Epistasis (2) Incomplete dominance
(3) Co-dominance (4) Inbreeding depression
100. A gene showing codominance
(1) Has both alleles independently expressed in the heterozygote
(2) Has one allele dominant to the other
(3) Has alleles tightly linked on the same chromosome
(4) Has alleles expressed at the same time in development
101. In humans brown eyes are dominant to blue eyes. A cross between a heterozygous brown eyed individual
and a recessive blue eyed individual would result in a phenotypic ratio of
(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 1 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
102. Mr. Sandival has blood type B and Mrs. Sandival has blood type O. They have three children of their own
and one adopted child. Om has blood type AB, Jai has blood type O, Aman has blood type B, and Priya has
blood type B. Which child is adopted one?
(1) Priya (2) Jai (3) Om (4) Aman
103. Based on ABO blood grouping in human beings, the total number of genotypes and phenotypes possible
are respectively,
(1) Four and six (2) Six and four (3) Four and eight (4) Six and eight
104. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Multiple alleles can be found only when population studies are made
(2) Mendel provided only one physical proof for existence of factor
(3) Mendel's work remained unrecognised till 1901
(4) All of these
105. A particular trait is controlled by six alleles in a population. How many genotypes should exist in the
population for this trait?
(1) 21 (2) 42 (3) 13 (4) 729
106. Find the wrong match.
(1) Recessive epistasis — 9:7
(2) Inhibitory gene effect — 13 :3
(3) Duplicate gene effect — 15 :1
(4) Collaborative gene effect - 9:3:3:1
107. Two non-allelic genes C and P show complementaiy gene effect in sweet pea and control the flower
colours purple and white. How many purple-flowered plants could we obtain if we carry out a test cross
between F1 plants with recessive (ccpp) plants?
(1) 2/4 (2) ¼ (3) 3/4 (4) None
108. Dominant epistasis is reported in following condition because

(a) A suppress a (b) A suppress B (c) c suppress B (d) d suppress D

(1) (a) (2) (d) (3) (b) (4) (b), (c)
109. The best example of multiple allelism is
(1) Human skin colour (2) Sickle cell anaemia.
(3) Colour blindness (4) Human blood groups
110. A ten year patient is found to have slanting eyes with epicanthic fold, hypertelorism, dysplastic ears,
mongoloid face and protruding tongue. The patient is suffering from
(1) Down's syndrome (2) Klinefelter's syndrome
(3) Turner's syndrome (4) Cri-du-chat syndrome,
111. If a red-flowered Antirrhinum plants is crossed with a pink-flowered Antirrhinum plant, the ratio of
Red : Pink : White flowers obtained will be
Red Pink White
(1) 1 : 2 : 1
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 (2) 1 : 0 : 1
(3) 2 : 2 : 0
(4) 2 : 0 : 2
112. Which bf the following is not a co-dominant trait?
(1) AB blood group (2) MN blood group
(3) Size of starch grain in pea (4) Carrier of sickle cell anaemia
113. In Mirabilis jalapa, when red-flowered plants were crossed with white-flowered plants, the F1 progeny
was
(1) Red (2) White (3) Pink (4) Variegated
114. The genotypes of a husband and wife are PP x Pi. Among the blood types of their children, how many
different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?
(1) 4 genotypesr3 phenotypes (2) 3 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
(3) 3 genotypes; 4 phenotypes (4) 2 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
115. The father has blood group AB and mother O.The child is supposed to have which of the following blood
groups?
(1) A or B (2) Only A (3) B or O (4) Only B
116. In a medicolegal case of accidental interchange between two babies in a hospital, the baby of blood
group A could not be rightly given to a people
(1) With both husband and wife of group O (2) Husband of group O and wife of group A
(3) Husband of group A and wife of group O (4) Both husband and wife of group A
117. The alleles are
(1) A pair of genes governing a specific character such as tallness or dwarfness
(2) Multiple forms of genes
(3) Genes governing eye characters
(4) Genes present in allosomes
118. An allele is said to be dominant if
(1) It is expressed only in heterozygous combination
(2) It is expressed only in homozygous combination
(3) It is expressed in both homozygous and heterozygous condition
(4) It is expressed only in second generation
119. Which of the following conditions can lead to erythroblastosis foetalis?
(1) Rh  husband and Rh  wife (2) Rh  Woman and her first child Rh 
(3) Rh  husband and Rh wife (4) Both (1) and (2)
120. The exceptions to the law of dominance are
(a) Complementary genes (b) Incomplete dominance (c) Duplicate genes
(d) Epistasis (e) Co-dominance (f) Supplementary genes
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (d) and (e) (3) (c), (e) and (f) (4) (b) and (e)
121. Which of the following laws is without any exceptions?
(1) Law of independent assortment (2) Law of dominance
(3) Law of unit pair alleles (4) Law of segregation
122. Which of the following genes if present in homozygous condition can cause the death of the organism?
(1) Complementary genes (2) Lethal genes (3) Epistatic genes (4) Duplicate genes
123. Incomplete dSminance was discovered in
(1) Flower colour of Mirabilis jalapa (2) Fruit shape of snapdragon
(3) Skin colour of short-horned cattle (4) Fruit shape of Cucurbita pepo
124. In which of the following, the Mendelian genotypic monohybrid ratio is modified?
(1) Incomplete dominance (2) Co-dominance (3) Lethality (4) All of these
125. Which of the following phenomenon is called mosaic inheritance?
(1) Dominance (2) Co-dominance (3) Incomplete dominance (4) Pleiotropy
126. Which of the following statements regarding incomplete dominance is correct?
(1) F1 progenies resemble dominant parent
(2) F1 progenies resemble reciessive parent

(3) F1 progenies can produce both parental phenotypes on selling

(4) F1 progenies on selfing can only produce offspring of its type in the F2 generation
127. Which of the following characters is not affected by the gene which is responsible for the size of wing in
Drosophilal
(1) Position and number of antennae (2) Character of balancers
(3) Colour of eye (4) Fertility and longevity
128. In South-African populations, a gene mutation that does not allow the spread of malaria, actually causes
(1) Phenylketonuria (2) Sickle-cell anaemia (3) Alkaptonuria (4) Colourblindness
129. Which of the following is not an example of co- dominance?
(1) Plumage colour of Andulasian fowls (2) Skin colour in short-horned cattle
(3) AB blood group in humans (4) Carriers of sickle-cell anaemia in the human population
130. Quantitative inheritance is also known as
(1) Multiple factor inheritance (2) Polygenic inheritance
(3) Metric inheritance (4) More than one options are correct
131. If the kernel colour of wheat is determined by two polygenes, then the number Of phenotypes possible is
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
132. Identify the wrong statement with respect to pleiotropy.
(1) One gene has the ability to have multiple effect
(2) One gene influences a number of characters
(3) One gene equally influences all the traits
(4) In cotton, a gene for lint also influences height of plant

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133. Which of the following set of blood groups can be donated to an A+ individual?
(1) O+, O-, A+, A- (2) O-, A-, AB-, A- (3) AB+, A+, O+,B- (4) O-, A-, A+, AB+
134. What could be the Rh of the lady whose husband is Rh  and son is Rh  ?
 
(1) Rh (2) Rh (3) Either Rh  or Rh  (4) Rh cannot be determined
135. The antigens present in O blood group and antibodies/ present in AB blood group are respectively,
(1) a, b, none (2) None; a, b. (3) a, b; b, a (4) None; none
136. Calculate the number of phenotypes and genotypes possible if a character is determined by 6 alleles.
(1) 4 and 6 (2) 5 and 10 (3) 7 and 21 (4) 7 and 27
137. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(1) Epistasis - 9:7 (2) Complementary genes - 13:3
(3) Duplicate genes - 12:6:1 (4) All of these
138. If purple-flowered sweet pea plant (CcPP) is crossed to a white-flowered sweet pea (ccPP), then what
will be the ratio of purple and white flowered plants?
(1) 9 : 7 (2) 9 : 6 (3) 15 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
139. Which type of comb is produced by crossing two' dominant combs type in poultry?
(1) Rose (2) Pea (3) Walnut (4) Single
140. In household poultry, if the cock with walnut poultry is test crossed, then what types of combs are
produced in the next generation?
(1) 9 walnut : 3 rose: 3 pea: 1 single (2) 9 walnut : 7rose
(3) 1 walnut : 1 rose: 1 pea: 1 single (4) 9 walnut : 7 single
141. The best example of polymeric additive genes is
(1) Fruit shape in Cucurbita pepo (2) Flower colour in snapdragon
(3) Skin colour in Andalusian flowers (4) Flower colour in sweet pea
142. Father's blood group is A and his son has O group. Which of the blood groups cannot be present in
mother?
(1) A (2) B (3) O (4) AB
143. Blood group O is universal donor because
(1) It has no antigen to clump with any antibody of recipient
(2) It has no antibody to clump with antigen of recipient
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) No definite answer is known
144. A man with blood group A marries a woman having blood group AB. Which of the following types in the
progeny of this couple would show that the man is heterozygous?
(1) Type O (2) Type A (3) Type B (4) All of these
145. A child born to both parents having AB groups cannot possess
(1) A group (2) AB group (3) B group (4) O group
146. Epistasis differs from dominance in being
(1) Polygenic (2) Non-allelic (3) Pleiotropic (4) Multiple allelic
147. An example of pleiotropic gene is
s A A B
(1) Hb (2) Hb (3) I (4) I
148. Which of the following statements is wrong about Mendel?
(1) He was born in 1822
(2) Mendel presented his work in the form of a paper at Heinzendorf in 1856
(3) Mendel carried out his experiments for 7 years
(4) Mendel died in 1884
149. If a negro marries a white skin female, the mulattoes are born. If such mulattoes intermarry, progeny
will show a gradual gradation of skin colour in the ratio of
(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1
(3) 1 : 4 : 6 : 15 : 20 : 15 : 6 : 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 6 : 15 : 20 : 15 : 6 : 1
150. In human, height shows a lot of variation. It is an example of
(1) Multiple alleles (2) Pleiotropic Iheritance (3) Polygenic inheritance (4) Pseudoalleles
151. Two non-allelic genes produce the new phenotype when present together but fail to do so independently,
then it is called
(1) Epistasis (2) Polygene (3) Non-complementary gene (4) Complementary gene
152. The polygenic genes show
(1) Similar genotype (2) Different phenotype (3) Different karyotype (4) Different genotype
153. Extranuclear genes occur in
(1) Plastids and inherited by male (2) Plasmids and not inherited
(3) Mitochondria and inherited by male (4) Mitochondria and inherited by female
154. Heterozygous purple flower is crossed with recessive white flower. The progeny has the ratio
(1) All purple (2) All white
(3) 50% purple and 50% white (4) 75% purple and 25% white
155. When a gene masks the effect of another gene, then the phenomenon is called
(1) Epistasis (2) Lethal gene (3) Multiple allele (4) Complementary gene
156. A human female with blood group A has
(1) Antibody anti-B in the red blood cells and antigen A in the serum
(2) Antigen A in the red blood cells and antibody anti-B in the serum
(3) Antigen B in the red blood cells and antibody anti-B in the serum
(4) Antigen A in the red blood cells and antibody anti-A in the serum
157. Coat colour in Andulasian fowls is an example of
(1) Complementary genes (2) Epistasis (3) Incomplete dominance (4) Co-dominance
158. Occasionally, a single gene may express more than one effect. The phenomenon is called
(1) Multiple allelism (2) Mosaicism (3) Pleiotropy (4) Polygeny
159. The inheritance pattern of a gene over generations among humans is studied by the pedigree analysis.
Character studied in the pedigree analysis is equivalent to
(1) Quantitative trait (2) Mendelian trait (3) Polygenic trait (4) Maternal trait

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160. Mother and father of a person with blood group O have A and B blood groups, respectively. What would
be the genotype of both mother and father?
(1) Mother jp homozygous for A blood group and father is heterozygous for B
(2) Mother is heterozygous for A blood group and father is homozygous for B
(3) Both mother and father are heterozygous for A and B blood group, respectively
(4) Both mother and father are homozygous for A and B blood group, respectively
161. Polygenes are
(1) Genes which control continuously variable characters like height, weight etc
(2) Multiple copies of a single gene
(3) Always linked genes
(4) Pspseudogenes
162. In snapdragon plants, the alleles for red and ivory flower colour show incomplete dominance. When a
homozygous red-flowered plant is crossed with a homozygous ivory-flowered plant, all the members of
the F, generation are found to bear pink flowers. Which of the following would be the outcome of
crossing a red- flowered plant with a pink one?
(1) 1 Red : 2 Pink : 1 Ivory (2) 3 Red : Ivory (3) 1 Red :1 Pink (4) All Red
163. In mice, black coat colour (allele B) is dominant to brown coat colour (allele b). The offspring of a cross
between a black mouse (BB) and a brown mouse (bb) were allowed to interbreed. What percentage of
the progeny would have black coats?
(1) 25% (2) 50% (3) 75% (4) 100%
164. In fruit flies, long wing is dominant over vestigial wing. When heterozygous long-winged flies were
crossed with vestigial-winged flies, 192 offspring were produced, of these 101 had long wings and 91
had vestigial wings. If an exact Mendelian ratio had been obtained, what would be the number of each
phenotype?
Long winged Vestigial winged Long winged Vestigial winged
(1) 64 128 (2) 96 96
(3) 128 64 (4) 192 0
165. Incomplete dominance occurs when
(1) Chromosomes are deleted
(2) Heterozygotes synthesis is reduced of an enzyme, producing an intermediate phenotype
(3) One gene is epistatic to the other
(4) The genes fall to segregate
166. Find out the wrong option
(1) Snapdragon or Antirrhinum shows incomplete dominance.
(2) Theoretically, the modified allele could be responsible for the production of the normal/less- efficient/non-
fiinctional enzymes or no enzymes at all.
(3) Sahiwal cows in Punjab is a well-known Indian breed
(4) Control crosses can be performed in human being
167. Go through following statements with respect to pea plant
(a) A single gene product may produce more than one effect
(b) BB produces round seed with large-sized starch grain
(c) bb produces wrinkled seed with small-sized grain
(d) Bb produces round seeds with large grain
(e) Heterozygote Bb produces round seed with intermediate-sized starch grain
(f) Allele B is dominant over allele b in respect of seed shape, but their relation is of incomplete
dominance in respect to starch grain size.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(1) One (2) All of these (3) Five (4) Four
168. A gene may have many alleles, but each individual has only two alleles for a gene because
(1) Having more than two alleles is lethal
(2) Having more than two alleles unbalances the chromosomes
(3) A person has two parents and each contributes one allele
(4) A backup set of alleles is necessary in case something goes wrong
169. A mother who is blood type AB has a child AB also. A potential father is blood type O. A well-informed
geneticist concludes that .
(1) He cannot be the father (2) He might be the father, but it is Unlikely
(3) He is very likely to be the father (4) He or any other male of blood type O could be the father
170. Which of the following is an example of pleiotropy?
(1) Haemophilia (2) Thalassemia (3) Sickle cell anaemia (4) Colourblindness
171. ABO blood groups in human beings are controlled by gene I. The gene (I) has three alleles in which
(1) I A , I B and i produce a slightly different form of sugar
B
(2) I and i produce identical sugars
A B
(3) I and I produce a slightly different form of the sugar
(4) Only allele i produces sugar
172. Whicti of the following conditions represent a case of co-dominant genes?
(1) A gene expresses itself, suppressing the phenotypic effect of its alleles
(2) Those genes that when present separately are similar in phenotypic effect, but when occur together interact to
produce a different trait
(3) Allele, both of which interact to produce a trait, which may resemble either of the parental type
(4) Alleles, each of which produces an independent effect in heterozygous condition

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173. The most popularly known blood grouping is the ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not ABC, because O
in it refers to having
(1) No antigens on RBCs
(2) Other antigens besides A and B on RBCs
(3) Over dominance of this type on the genes for A and B types
(4) One antibody only either anti-A or anti-B on the RBCs
174. Epistatic gene differs from dominant gene in
(1) Epistatic gene is non-allelic
(2) Epistatic gene never express itself independendy
(3) Epistatic and hypostatic genes are present at different loci
(4) All of these
175. In duroc jersey hog, the coat colour is dependent on two pairs of alleles, R and r, and S and s. Any
genotype containing at least one R gene and at least one S gene results in-red coat colour. The double
recessive genotype results in white coat colour. All other genotypes results in sandy coat colour. If one
hog with genotype RrSs mated with another hog with genotype rrss, what kind of offspring will be
produced by the above cross?
(1) 9 Red: 6 Sandy: 1 White (2) 9 Red: 3 Sandy: 4 White
(3) 12 Red: 3 Sandy: 1 White (4) 1 Red: 2 Sandy: 1 White

Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance

176. Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by
(1) Gregor Johann Mendel (2) HugodeVries
(3) LangdonDown (3) Thomas Hunt Morgan
177. The behaviour of the chromosomes was parallel to the behaviour of genes during meiosis was noted by
(1) Correns (2) Tschermark (3) Sutton and Boveri (4) deVries
178. Sutton and Boveri explained Mendel's laws on the basis of
(1) Presence of genes on chromosomes (2) Same structure of genes and chromosome
(3) Chromosomal movement (4) Dihybrid cross
179. Select the odd one out with respect to chromosomal theory of inheritance.
(1) It was proposed by Sutton and Boveri
(2) Behaviour of chromosomes is parallel to behaviour of genes
(3) Chromosomes and genes occur in pairs in diploid J and haploid cells, respectively
(4) The paired condition of both chromosomes as well as Mendeliah factors is restored during fertilisation
180. Find the incorrect statement with respect to chromosomal mapping.
(1) Crossing over is important in locating genes on chromosome
(2) Recombination frequency depends upon the distance between the genes
(3) Recombination frequency is inversely proportional to distance between genes
(4) The sequences and the relative distance between various genes are graphically represented in terms of
recombination frequencies.

Experimental Genetics: Crossing Over, Linkage and Recombination

181. In maize, chromosome number is 2n = 20. The number of linkage groups in it will be
(1) 20 (2) 40 (3) 10 (4) 5
182. The percentage of crossing over will be more if
(1) Linked genes are located far apart from each other
(2) Linked genes are located close to each other
(3) Genes are located in different species
(4) Genes are located in a different cell
183. John is heterozygous for three loci, that is, MmNnOo. He has Y-linked gene d. What is the probability of
gametes having mnod genes?
(1) 1/16 (2) 1/2 (3) 1/32 (4) 1/8
184. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, if the frequency of the two alleles at the gene being studied is 0.6
and 0.4, the genotype frequency of heterozygotes will be
(1) 0.80 (2) 0.64 (3) 0.48 (4) 0.32
185. What are the assumptions of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
(1) Small population size, random mating, no selection, no migration and no mutation
(2) Large population size, random mating, no selection, no migration and no mutation
(3) Large population size, random mating, heterozygotes survive the best, no migration and no mutation
(4) Large population size, like individuals mate, no selection, no migration and no mutation
186. The following genotypes are found in a population:
AA Aa aa
70 50 20
What are the allele frequencies of A and a?
(1) A = 0.86 and a = 0.14 (2) A = 0.68 and a = 0.32
(3) A- 0.63 and a- 0.36 (4) A - 0.32 and a = 0.68
187. In Drosophila (fniit flies), eye colour is sex-linked' and red eye colour is dominant to white eye colour.
Which of the following progenies is not possible in a cross between a red-eyed male and a heterozygous
female?
(1) Red-eyed male (2) White-eyed male (3) Carrier female (4) Homozygous white-eyed
female

Page 10 of 24
188. In the given diagram what is the frequency of recombination between AB gene?

(1) 50% (2) 30% (3) 15% (4) 10%

189. The distance between the genes a, b,c, and din mapping units are a - d = 3.5 cM; b - c = 1 cM;
c — d = 1.5 cM; a-c = 5 cM. Find out the sequence of arrangement of these genes
(1) acbd (2) abed (3) acdb (4) adbc
190. Who used the frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a measure of
the distance betvveen genes and mapped their position on the chromosome?
(1) Gregor Mendel (2) Correns (3) Tschermark (4) Alfred Sturtevant
191. Find the incorrect statement.
(a) Drosophila can be grown in banana pulp or sugar molasses medium in laboratory
(b) Genes are located on ch romosomes was first proved by Sutton and Boveri
(c) Linkage was discovered by Bateson and Punnet
(d) Chromosomal mapping was carried out by Sturtevant in polytene chromosomes
(1) (a), (b) and (d) (2) Only (c) (3) (b)and(c) (4) Only(b)
192. In a linear chromosome map, distance between 4 loci is' as follows:
a - b = 10%, a - d = 3%, b - c = 4% and a - c = 6%.
The crossover frequency between c and d is
(1) 3% (2) 9% (3) 3 to 9% (4) 4 to 12%
193. From the following test cross result, find out the map distance between the genes A and B.
(a) Purple flower, long pollen (AaBb): 900
(b) Purple flower, round pollen (Aabb): 320
(c) White flower, long pollen (aaBb): 315
(d) White flower, round pollen (aabb) : 920
(1) 36.7 mu (2) 25.8 mu (3) 34.8 mu (4) 2.8 mu
194. Two genes which show linkage will have the phenotypic ratio
(1) 9:3:3:1 (2) 1:1 (3) 3:1 (4) 1:2:1
195. Kappa particles indicate
(1) Nuclear inheritance (2) Cytoplasmic inheritance
(3) Mutation (4) Nucleocytoplasmic inheritance
196. Two linked genes will show the dihybrid phenotypic ratio of
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 : 1 : 2 : 1 :
2:1
197. Drosophila has four pairs of chromosomes. How many linkage groups does it have?
(1) Eight (2) Four
(3) One less than the pairs of chromosomes (4) One more than the pairs of chromosomes
198. Find out the incorrect statement.
(1) Morgan carried out several dihybrid crosses in Drosophila to study genes that were sex linked
(2) Sturtevant used the frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a measure of
the distance between genes and mapped their position on chromosome
(3) Henking gave the term X-body
(4) Boveri united the knowledge of chromosomal segregation with Mendelian principles and called it the
chromosomal theory of inheritance.
199. Two genes A and B are linked. In a dihybrid cross involving these two genes, the F, heterozygote is
crossed with homozygous recessive parental type (aabb). What would be the ratio of offspring in the
next generation?
(1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
200. Two linked genes a and b show 20% recombination. The individuals of a hybrid cross between ++/++ x
ablab shall show gametes.
(1) ++50 : ab 50 (2) ++ 80 : ab20
(3) ++40 : ab 40 : + a10 : +b 10 (4) ++ 30 : ab 30: + a 20 : + b 20
201. Given are the statements regarding linkages of genes:
(a) The strength of a linkage is determined by the distance between the two genes in question
(b) The strength of the linkage is directly proportional to the distance between the two genes
(c) The two genes are said to be linked when they fail to show independent assortment
(d) Out of these statements
(1) All are correct (2) (a) and (b) are correct
(3) (a) and (c) are correct (4) (b) and (c) are correct
202. Drosophila melanogaster is suitable for studies of genetics because
(1) It can be grown on simple synthetic medium in the laboratory
(2) Its life cycle is short (about 2 weeks)
(3) A single mating produces large number of progenies
(4) Visible sexual dimorphisms and many types of genetical variations can be easily observed
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
203. (a) Linkage prevents segregation of genes present on the same chromosome
(b) XY sex chromosomes were discovered by Nettie Stevens
(c) Complete linkage has been reported to make Drosophila
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 (d) Term linkage was given by Correns
(1) All are correct (2) All are incorrect
(3) All are correct except (d) (4) Only (d) is correct

204. The recombination frequency

(a) Between two genes cannot exceed 50%
(b) Is inversely proportional to the distance between linked genes
(c) Helps to determine the relative order of genes and distances between them on a chromosome
(4) Is equal to map unit.
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
205. Morgan carried out several dihybrid crosses in fruit fly and found that
(1) Loosely linked genes show low recombination
(2) The strength of linkage between genes of white eye and miniature wing is lower than the genes of
yellow body
and white eye
(3) Tightly linked genes show equal amount of parental and recombinant types in F2 generation

(4) All genes segregate independently of each other and the F2 ratio deviated very significantly from the 9:3:3:1
206. Which of the following was not discovered by Morgan and his associates?
(1) Criss-cross inheritance (2) Crossing over (3) Linkage (4) Recombination
frequency
207. The fruit fly (Drosophila melanogaster) was found to be very suitable for experimental verification of
chromosomal theory of inheritance by Morgan and his colleagues because
(1) It reproduces parthenogenetically (2) A single mating produces two young flies
(3) Smaller female is easily recognisable from larger male (4) It completes life cycle in about two
weeks
208. Select the incorrect statement regarding Drosophila
(1) The fly feeds over yeasts growing over the fruits
(2) The fly can be reared in a bottle
(3) Female flies are distinguishable from male flies due to their red eye
(4) The larva possesses polytene chromosome in its salivary glands
209. Barr body in mammals represents
(1) All the heterochromatin in male and female cells
(2) The Y chromosome in somatic cells of male
(3) All the heterochromatin in female cells
(4) One of the two X chromosomes in somatic cells of females
210. Select the incorrect statement from the following.
(1) Baldness is a sex-limited trait
(2) Linkage is an exception to the principles of independent assortment in heredity
(3) Galactosemia is an inborn error of metabolism
(4) Small population size results in random genetic drift in a population
211. Which is not an example of cytoplasmic inheritance?
(1) Female sterility in maize (2) Sigma particle inheritance
(3) Kappa particle inheritance (4) Plastid inheritance
212. The two eukaryotic organelles responsible for cytoplasmic inheritance are
(1) Lysosome and mitochondria (2) Chloroplasts and lysosomes
(3) Mitochondria and chloroplasts (4) Mitochondria and Golgi complex
213. A scientist performed the gene mapping experiments in maize. He mapped the genes on chromosomes on
the basis of percentage (%) crossing over between different genes. One map unit corresponds to 1%
crossing over or recombination- In crossing over studies on maize, scientist observed the following %
crossing over between genes A, B, C, D- 10% between A and D, 3% between A and C, 7% between C and
D, 5% between A and B and 8% between genes C and B. On the basis of above observation, find out the
correct sequence Of genes A, B, C and D on chromosomes.
(1) BCDA (2) ABCD (3) BACD (4) DACB
214. In maize coloured endosperm (Q is dominant over colourless (c) and full endosperm (A) is dominant over
shrunken (r). When a dihybrid of Ft generation was test crossed, it produced four phenotypes in the
following percentage:
Coloured and full = 45%
Coloured and shrunken = 5%
Colourless and full = 4%
Colourless and shrunken = 46%
From these data what would be distance between the two non-allelic genes?
(1) 48 units (2) 9 units (3) 4 units (4) 12 units
215. Which statement is incorrect about linkage?
(1) It helps in maintaining the valuable traits of new varieties
(2) It helps in forming new recombinants
(3) Knowledge of linkage helps the breeder to combine all desirable traits in a single variety
(4) It helps in locating genes on chromosome
216. Cross over value (COV) of gene A and B is 5%, while COV of genes B and C is 15%, the possible sequence
of these genes on chromosome is
(1) A – B - C (2) C – A – B (3) B – C - A (4) Both (1) and (2)
217. Barr body is associated with
(1) Sex chromosome of female (2) Sex chromosome of male
(3) Autosome of female (4) Autosome of male
218. Select the correct statement from the following with respect to dihybrid cross
(1) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosomes show similar recombination as tightly linked ones
(2) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosomes show very few recombination

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 (3) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosomes show higher recombination.
(4) Genes far apart on the same chromosomes show very few recombination.

Sex Determination
219. Which type of sex-determination is found in grasshopper?
(1) XO type (2) XY type (3) ZW type (4) Any of these
220. Find out the correct statement.
(1) Genetic makeup of the egg determines sex of the child in human
(2) Generic makeup of the sperm determines sex of the child in human
(3) XO and XY type of sex determination is an example of female heterogamety
(4) Henking could trace a specific nuclear structure all through oogenesis of few insect's
221. Select the incorrect match with respect to determination of sex.
(1) Birds - ZO, female (2) Drosophila - XY, male
(3) Grasshopper - XX, female (4) Roundworms - XX,female
222. Female heterogamety is found in
(1) DioscoTea (2) Birds (3) Drosophila (4) Roundworms
223. Environmental mechanism of sex-determination is seen in
(1) Silkworm (2) Fragaria (3) Roundworms (4) Bonnelia
224. According to genetic balance theory of Bridges, which is the correct sex index for AAA + XY condition in
Drosophila?
(1) Super male (2) Super female (3) Normal female (4) Intersex
225. Identify the wrong statements,
(1) In male grasshoppers, 50% of the sperms have no sex chromosome
(2) Usually female birds produce two types of gametes based on sex chromosomes
(3) The human males have one of their sex chromosomes much shorter than the other
(4) In domesticated fowls the sex of the progeny depends on the type of sperm that fertilises the egg
226. The initial clue about the chromosomal mechanism of sex determination can be traced back to some of
experiments carried but on ____________ .
(1) Man (2) Drosophila (3) Birds (4) Insects
227. Male honeybee has 16 chromosomes. What is the number of chromosomes in drone?
(1) n = 32 (2) 2n = 32 (3) n= 16 (4) 2n=16
228. AnMelandrium, the sex-determinationtype is
(1) XX-XYtype (2) XX-XO type (3) ZZ-ZW type (4) ZZ-ZO type
229. Which type of sex determination isfound in some moths and butterflies?
(1) XY method (2) ZO method (3) XY method (4) ZW method
230. Male heterogamy is found in case of
(1) XO type male in grasshopper (2) XY type male in human
(3) ZW male in birds (4) Both (1) and (2)
231. In Drosophila, the XXY condition leads to femaleness, whereas in human beings the same condition leads
to Klienfelter's syndrome in male. It proves that
(1) In human beings Y chromosome is active in sex determination
(2) Y chromosome is active in sex determination in both human beings and Drosophila
(3) In DrosophilaY chromosome decides femaleness
(4) Y chromosome of man has genes for syndrome
232. In Drosophila, the sex is determined by
(1) The ratio of number of X chromosomes to the sets of autosomes
(2) X and Y chromosomes
(3) The ratio of pairs of X chromosomes to the pairs of autosomes
(4) Whether the egg is fertilised or develops parthenogenetically
233. Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex in the given
example?
(1) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in birds
(2) XO types of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper
(3) XO condition in humans as found in Itirner Syndrome, determines female sex
(4) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosophila

Mutations
234. Find out the correct statement
(1) UV radiation can cause mutation in organism
(2) Chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed in cancer cells
(3) Mutation is a phenomenon which results in alteration of DNA sequences and results in changes in the genotype
and the phenotype of an organism.
(4) All of these
235. Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in
(a) Frame shift mutation (b) Anaeuploidy
(c) Point mutation (d) Chromosomal aberration
236. Match the Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option.
Column - I Column - II
A) Autopolyploid (i) AAA
B) Allopolyploid (ii) AABB
C) Tetrasomy (iii) 2n 1
D) Hypoploidy (iv) 2n  1  1
(v) 2n  2
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 (a) (a) - (i); (b) - (ii); (c) - (v); (d) - (iii) (b) (a) - (i); (b) - (iv); (c) - (iii); (d) - (ii)
(c) (a) - (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (v); (d) - (iv) (d) (a) - (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d) - (iii)
237. Mutations which occur in body cells and do not go on to form gametes can be classified as
(1) Somatic mutations (2) Morphological mutations
(3) Oncogenes (3) Temperature sensitive mutations.

238. A duplication is
(1) An exchange between non-homologous chromosomes, resulting in chromosomes with new genes adjacent to
each other
(2) Loss of genes in part of a chromosome
(3) An extra copy of the genes on part of a chromosome
(4) A reversal of order of genes on a chromosome
239. ______________ can cause genes to move from one linkage group to another
(1) Inversions (2) Deletions (3) Translocations (4) Unequal crossing over
240. Type of inversion involving centromere is called
(1) Monosomy (2) Nullisomy (3) Pericentric (4) Paracentric
241. When a mutation is limited to the substitution of one nucleotide for another, it is called
(a) Translocation (b) Point mutation (c) Base inversion (d) Sugar phosphate deletion
242. Which phenomenon leads to variation in DNA?
(a) Mutations (b) Recombination (c) Mutagens (d) Both (a) and (b)
243. Mutations or disorders related to single gene are
(1) Traceable in family by pedigree analysis (2) Mendelian disorders
(3) Sickle cell anaemia. (4) All of these
244. What name is given to the type of gene mutation illustrated in the following diagram?

(1) Inversion (2) Deletion (3) Insertion (4) Substitution

245. Chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed in
(1) Cancer cells (2) Polyploid cells (3) Permanent cells (4) Modified cells
246. Recessive mutations are expressed in
(a) Homozygous condition (b) Heterozygous condition
(c) Next generation (d) Same generation
247. Haploids are more suitable for mutation studies than the diploids. This is because
(1) Haploids are more abundant in nature than diploids
(2) All mutations whether dominant or recessive are expressed in haploids
(3) Haploids are reproductively more stable than diploids
(4) Mutagens penetrate in haploids more effectively than diploids
248. What name has been assigned to the genus produced by a cross between cabbage and radish?
(1) Secale (2) Bursa pastoris (3) Lysogenicophyll (4) Raphanobrassica
249. Plant A is having chromosome number 2 n = 12 and B having 2n = 16. Both are crossed to form
allotetraploid C. What is the chromosome number in C?
(1) 32 (2) 14 (3) 28 (4) 7
250. Mutations can be induced with
(a) Gamma radiations (b) Infra-red radiations (c) IAA (d) Ethylene
251. The loss of a chromosomal segment is due to
(1) Polyploidy (2) Deletions (3) Duplications (4) Inversions
252. Polyploid derived from two different species is called
(1) Autopolyploid (2) Triploid (3) Allopolyloid (4) Monoploid
253. Which one of the following is a wrong statement regarding mutations?
(1) Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause frameshift mutations
(2) Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal aberrations
(3) UV and gamma rays are mutagens
(4) Change in a single base pair of DNA does not cause mutation
254. The idea of mutations was brought forth by
(a) Hugo de Vries, who worked on evening primrose
(b) Gregor Mendel, who worked on Pisum sativum
(c) Hardy Weinberg, who worked on allele frequencies in a population
(d) Charles Dajwin, who observed a wide variety of organisms during sea voyage
255. Mutation arises due to the change in single base pair of DNA is known as
(1) Point mutation (2) Frameshift mutation (3) Silent mutation (4) Recombination
256. Monosomy and trisomy can be represented as
(1) 2n  1, 2n  3 (2) 2n  1, 2n  2 (3) 2n, 2n  1 (4) 2n  1, 2n  1

Page 14 of 24
257. Assign the correct names from the following list to the figures below.

(a) Trisomic (i)

(b) Tetrasomic (ii)

(c) Tetraploid (iii)

(d) Double trisomic (iv)

(e) Triploid (v)

(f) Haploid (vi)

(g) Nullisomic (vii)

(h) Monosomic (viii)

(1) (a) - (i); (b) - (vii); (c) - (v); (d) - (viii); (e) - (iv); (f) - (ii); (g) - (vi); (h) - (iii)
(2) (a) - (i); (b) - (vii); (c) - (iii); (d) - (ii); (e) - (iv); (f) - (viii); (g) - (vi); (h) - (v)
(3) (a) - (i); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iii); (d) - (viii); (e) - (iv); (f) - (vii); (g) - (vi); (h) - (v)
(4) (a) - (i); (b) - (vii); (c) - (v); (d) - (iv); (e) - (viii); (f) - (ii); (g) - (iii); (h) - (vi)
258. A mutation is a
(a) Sudden temporary change in an organism's genetic material
(b) Change in phenotype followed by a change in genotype
(c) Change in hereditary material directed by a changing environment
(d) Change in genotype which may result in a new expression of a characteristic
259. Which of the following statements about mutations is false?
(a) Mutations are the source of new alleles for genes
(b) Organisms are able to create mutations to meet their specific needs
(c) Mutations are random events and can happen in any cell at any time
(d) Most mutations tend to be harmful or have no effect on organisms
260. Polyploidy is
(a) The occurrence of more than 2 sets of chromosomes or genome
(b) Resulted due to non-formation of spindle fibres
(c) Resulted due to failure of cytokinesis
(d) More common in plants
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (c)

Pedigree Analysis
261. A pedigree is shown below for a disease that is autosomal dominant. The genetic makeup of the first
generation is

(1) AA and Aa (2) Aa and aa (3) Aa and AA (4) Aa and Aa

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262. The pedigree below shows the pattern of inheritance for a sex-linked trait. The female marked with a
question mark is

(1) Normal because her daughter is normal

(2) Normal because the majority of her children are normal
(3) Colour blind because her mother was a carrier
(4) A carrier because one of her sons is colour blind
263. Study the pedigree chart given below.

What does it show?

(1) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease like haemophilia
(2) Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of metabolism like phenylketonuria
(3) Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait
(4) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible
264. Which of the following symbols represents consanguineous mating?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

265. In the given pedigree, if the individual III-3 is married to a normal man, then what will be the possibility
of first child to be diseased?

(1) 25% (2) 50% (3) 75% (4) 0%

266. Which type of characters are shown in the given pedigree?

(1) Dominant (2) Recessive (3) Co-dominant (4) Either (1) or (2)
267. In the given pedigree, the dark shaded organisms are patients of albinism. What will be the probability of
disease in the offspring of A and B?

(1) 0% (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) 75%

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268. In the given pedigree, What do the shaded symbols show?

(1) Autosomal recessive trait (2) Autosomal dominant trait

(3) Sex-linked recessive trait (4) Sex-linked dominant trait
269. The symbol used in pedigree chart to represent monozygotic twin is

(1) (2) (3) (4)

270. The pedigree shows the occurrence of albinism which is a recessive trait. If person 4 is homozygous, the
carrier for the trait is

(1) 1, 4, 5 and 6 (2) 5 and 6 (3) 1, 2 and 3 (4) 1, 2, 5 and 6

271. A pedigree is shown below for a disease that is autosomal recessive. The genetic make-up of the first
generation is

(1) AA, a (2) Aa.Aa (3) Aa, aa (4) aa, aa

272. In a family pedigree,
(a) Circles represent males
(b) Squares represent females
(c) A solid/blackened symbol represents the individual with a recessive trait always
(d) Mating is shown by a horizontal line connecting a male and a female symbol
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (b) (3) Only (c) (4) Only (d)

Mendelian Disorders (Due to Gene Mutations)

273. Which of the following is not an X-linked recessive disease?
(1) Haemophilia A (2) Colour blindness (3) Beta-thalasemia (4) G-6-PD deficiency
274. X-linked recessive trait shows transmission from
(1) Carrier female to female progeny (2) Carrier female to male progeny
(3) Father to son (4) Father to son and daughter
275. If a normal man marries a girl who is carrier for colour blindness, then
(1) All daughters will be colour blind (2) 50% of the sons will be colour blind
(3) All sons will be colour blind (4) 75% of the offspring will be colour blind
276. The diseased phenotype for sickle cell anaemia is represented by genotype
A A A s s s
(1) Hb Hb (2) Hb Hb (3) Hb Hb (4) More than one options are correct
277. Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait in humans. If a father and a son are both haemophilic, but the
mother is normal, her genotype must be
h h h h
(1) X X (2) XX (3) XX (4) X Y
278. In humans, normal colour vision-is dominant over colour blindness. A colour blind male marries a female
who is a carrier for colour blindness. What is the probability that a colour blind boy would be born to
these parents?
(1) 0% (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) 75%
279. Which one of the following is not a Mendelian disorder?
(1) Cystic fibrosis (2) PKU (3) Sickle cell syndrome (4) Turner's syndrome
280. Y-linked trait shows transmission from
(1) Carrier female to female progeny (2) Carrier female to male progeny
(3) Father to son (4) Father to son and daughter

Page 17 of 24
281. Find odd one with respect to autosomal recessive disorder.
(1) Cystic fibrosis (2) Sickle cell anaemia (3) Phenylketonuria (4) Myotonic dystrophy
282. The colour blindness is more likely to occur in males than in females because
(1) The Y chromosome of males have the genes for' distinguishing colour
(2) Genes for characters are located on the X chromosome
(3) The trait is recessive in males and dominant in females
(4) None of these
283. A person whose father is colour blind marries a lady whose mother is daughter of a colour blind man.
Their children will be
(a) All sons colour blind (b) Some sons normal and some daughters colour blind
(c) All sons and daughters colour blind (d) All daughters normal
284. Albinism is known to be due to an autosomal recessive mutation. The first child of a couple with normal
skin pigmentation was an albino. What is the probability that their second child will also be an albino?
(1) 50% (2) 75% (3) 100% (4) 25%
285. A woman with two genes for haemophilia and one gene for colour blindness on one of the X
chromosomes marries a normal man. How will the progeny be?
(1) 50% haemophilic colour blind sons and 50% haemophilic sons
(2) 50% haemophilic daughters and 50% colour-blind daughters
(3) All sons and daughters haemophilic and colour blind
(4) Haemophilic and colour blind daughters
286. A woman with normal vision, but whose father was colour blind, marries a colour blind man. Suppose
that the fourth child of this couple was a boy. This boy
(1) May be colour blind or may be of normal vision
(2) Must be colour blind
(3) Must have normal colour vision
(4) Will be partially colour blind since he is heterozygous for the colour blind mutant allele
287. Match the human genetical disorder in Column-I with the causative abnormal chromosome in Column-II
and select the correct option.
Column - I Column - II
(a) Sickle cell (i) Sex linked (X chromosome) anaemia
(b) Colourblindness (ii) Autosomal chromosome 7
(c) Phenylketonuria (iii) Autosomal chromosome 11
(d) Cystic fibrosis (iv) Autosomal chromosome 4
(e) Huntington's (v) Autosomal chromosome 12 disease
(1) (a) - (iii); (b) - (v); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii); (e) - (iv)
(2) (a) - (v); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iii); (e) - (iv)
(3) (a) - (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (v); (d) - (ii); (e) - (iv)
(4) (a) - (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (v); (d) - (iii); (e) - (iv)
288. A person affected with phenylketonuria, lacks an emyme that converts the amino acid phenylalanine into
(1) Valine (2) Proline (3) Histidine (4) Tyrosine
289. In sickle cell anaemia, the sequence of amino acids from the first to the seventh position of the a-chain of
haemoglobins (HbP) is
(1) His, Leu, Thr, Pro, Glu, Val, Val (2) Val, His, Leu, Thr, Pro, Glu, Glu
(3) Thr, His, Pro, Val, Pro, Val, Glu (4) Val, His, Leu, Thr, Pro, Val, Glu
290. In PKU, what is poorly absorbed in kidney?
(1) Homogentisic acid (2) Alkaptonuria (3) Phenylpyruvic acid (4) Tyrosine
291. If man is haemophilic and woman colour blind and carrier for bleeder's disease then what percentage of
progenies may be colour blind?
(1) 25% (2) 66% (3) 33% (4) 50%
292. A man with pure blue eyes and pure black hair marries a woman with black eyes and red hair (Black eyes
are dominant over blue eyes and black hair over red hair). What will be the probabilities of phenptypes of
the children?
(1) 50% with black eyes and black hair, and 50% blue - eyes and black hair
(2) All will be with black eyes and black hair
(3) Both the above cases are possible
(4) 1:1:1:1
293. Sickle cell anaemia is caused due to
(1) Change in a-chain (2) Change in glutamic acid from valine in   chain
(3) change in valine from glutamic acid in   chain (4) Change in valine from glutamic acid in 
chain
294. A man having hypertrichosis married a colour blind woman. What types of progenies will be produced by
this marriage?
(1) All daughters will be colour blind
(2) All sons will be normal
(3) All sons will be colour blind and will have hypertrichosis
(4) 50% normal daughters and 50% colour blind daughters
295. A boy has normal brother and a colour blind sister. What is true about his parents?
(1) His father was normal but mother was colour blind
(2) His father was colour blind but mother was normal
(3) Both father and mother were colour blind
(4) Both father and mother were normal
296. A marriage between normal-visioned man and colour blind woman will produce which of the following
types of offspring?
(1) Normal sons and carrier daughters
(2) Colour blind sons and carrier daughters
(3) Colour blind sons and 50% carrier daughters
(4) 50% colour blind sons and 50% carrier daughters
Page 18 of 24
297. If two pea plants having red (dominant) coloured flowers with unknown genotypes are crossed, 75% of
the flowers are red and 25% are white. The genotypic constitution of the parents having red-coloured
flowers will be
(1) Both homozygous (2) One homozygous and other heterozygous
(3) Both heterozygous (3) Both hemizygous
298. A normal-visioned man whose father was colour blind marries a woman whose father was also colour
blind. They have their first child as a daughter. What are the chances that this child would be colour
blind?
(1) 100% (2) Zero percent (3) 25% (4) 50%
299. Which enzyme is defective in PKU?
(1) DOPA Cnzym 
Enxyme ( a )
 Melanin (2) Tyrosine 
Enxyme ( b )
 Thyroxin
(3) Phenylalanine   tyrosine 
Enxyme ( c ) Enxyme ( d )
(4) Tyrosine Homogentisic acid
(1) Enzyme (a) (2) Enzyme (b) (3) Enzyme (c) (4) Enzyme (d)
300. Probability which of the following is extremely rare?
(1) Carrier female in haemophilia (2) Carrier male in haemophilia
(3) Affected male in haemophilia (4) Affected female in haemophilia
301. Haemophilia is more common in males because it is a
(1) Recessive trait carried by X chromosome (2) Dominant trait carried by X chromosome
(3) Recessive character carried by Y chromosome (4) Dominant character carried by Y chromosome
302. The incorrect statement with regard to haemophilia is
(1) It is a recessive disease
(2) It is a dominant disease
(3) A single protein involved in the clotting of blood is affected
(4) It is a sex-linked disease
303. A person whose father is colour blind marries a lady whose mother is daughter of a colour blind man.
Their children will be
(1) All sons colour blind (2) Some sons normal and some daughters colour blind
(3) All sons and daughters colour blind (4) All daughters normal
304. In sickle cell anaemia,
(1) The mutant haemoglobin molecule undergoes polymerisation under low oxygen tension causing
change in the shape of RBC
(2) Glutamic acid is substituted by valine at the sixth position of an a-chain of haemoglobin
(3) The mutant haemoglobin undergoes polymerisation under high oxygen tension causing the change in shape of
RBC
(4)   globin chain is modified
305. A woman with normal vision marries a man with normal vision and gives birth to a colour blind son. Her
husband dies and she marries a colour blind man. What is the probability of her children having the
abnormality?
(1) 50% colour blind sons + 50% colour blind daughters
(2) All sons colour blind and daughter carrier
(3) All daughters colour blind and sons normal
(4) 50% sons colour blind and all daughters normal
306. If father shows normal genotype and mother shows a carrier trait for haemophilia, then
(1) All the female children will be carrier
(2) A male child has 50% chances of active disease
(3) Female child has probability of 50% active disease
(4) All the female children will be colour blind
307. A man whose mother and mother-in-law both were colourblind, will produce the following types of
offspring:
(1) All colourblind children (2) 50% children will be colourblind
(3) All normal children (4) 75% children will be colourblind

Chromosomal Disorders
308. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option.
Column - I Column - II
(a) Haemophilia (i) Broad palm with characteristic palm crease
(b) Down's syndrome (ii) Delayed clotting of blood
(c) Klinefelter's syndrome (iii) Feminine character development
(d) Turner's Syndrome (iv) Rudimentary ovaries
(1) (a) - (i); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iv) (2) (a) - (ii); (b) - (i); (c)- (iii); (d) - (iv)
(3) (a) - (iv); (b) - (ii); (c) - (i); (d) - (iii) (4) (a) - (i); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iii); (d) - (iv)
309. Chromosomal constitution with AA+XXY is
(1) Normal male (2) Super male (3) Klinefelter's male (4) Turner's male
310. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched while the remaining three are correct?
(1) 2n + 1 - Trisomy
(2) Cri-du-chat syndrome - Deletion in long arm of 4th chromosome
(3) Chronic myelogenous leukaemia - Translocation
(3) 2n-1 - Monosomy
311. Select the odd symptom with respect to Down's syndrome.
(1) Short-stature (2) Furrowed tongue (3) Small round head (4) Gynaecomastia
312. How many disorders in the box given below are chromosomal disorders?
Haemophilia, Cystic fibrosis, Klinefelter's syndrome, Sickle cell syndrome, Turner's syndrome
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One
313. Females are sterile as ovaries are rudimentary besides other features when their genetic makeup is

Page 19 of 24
 (1) AA + XXX (2) AAA + XXX (3) AA + XXY (4) AA + XO
314. A few humantraits are believed to be carried by genes on the Y chromosome. A man with a gene that is
carried on the Y chromosome will transmit this gene to
(1) Half of his male offspring (2) Half of his female offspring
(3) All of his male offspring (4) All of his female offspring
315. Use the following diagram to answer the question.

Which of the following statements is true?

(1) The individual's diploid number is 46
(2) The individual would be expected to be normal
(3) The individual would be expected to have a genetic disorder
(4) The individual's haploid number is 46
316. Genetic constitution of a person suffering from Klinefelter's syndrome is
(1) AA + XXX (2) AA+XXY (3) AA + XYY (4) AA+l+XY
317. Gynaecomastia symptom is associated with
(1) Down's syndrome (2) Super female (3) Turner's syndrome (4) Klinefelter's syndrome
318. Absence of one sex chromosome causes
(1) Turner's syndrome (2) Klinefelter's syndrome (3) Down's syndrome (4) Tay-Sach's syndrome
319. Which one of the following conditions in humans is correctly matched with its chromosomal abnormality
linkage?
(1) Down's syndrome - 44 autosomes + XO
(2) Klinefelter's syndrome - 44 autosomes + XXY
(3) Colourblindness - Y-linked
(4) Erythroblastosis foetalis - X-linked
320. An abnormal human female phenotype, involving absence of X-chromosome is a case of
(1) Klinefelter's syndrome (2) Turner's syndrome (3) Intersex (4) Down's syndrome
321. A genetically diseased father (male) marries a normal female and gives birth to 3 carrier girls and 5
normal sons. It may be
(1) Holandric disease (2) Blood group inheritance disease
(3) Sex-linked disease (4) Sex-limited disease
322. A man can inherit his X chromosomes from
(1) His maternal grandmother or maternal grandfather (2) His father
(3) His paternal grandfather (4) His paternal grandmother
323. Which is male among these?
(1) 44A + XX (2) 44A + XY (3) 44A + XXY (4) Both (2) and (3)
324. Find the wrong match.
(1) Down's syndrome - Trisomy
(2) CML - Translocation
(3) Familial Down's syndrome - Duplication
(4) Cat cry syndrome - Deficiency
325. Disorders like Patau's syndrome are due to
(1) Non-disjunction of chromosome (2) Fusion of defective gamete with normal gamete
(3) Anaeuploidy (4) All of these
326. Choose the wrong statement.
(1) Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division results in aneuploidy
(2) Additional copy of X chromosome in males results in Klinefelter's syndrome
(3) Closely located genes in a chromosome always assort independently resulting in recombination
(4) Failure of cytokinesis after DNA replication results in polyploidy
327. Person I (P-I) - Shows tall stature with feminised character (Gynaecomastia)
Person II (P-II) - Shows short stature, Sterility underdeveloped feminine characters webbed neck
Person III (P-III) - Shows short-statured, small head furrowed tongue, creased broad palm, retarded
physic, psychomotor and mental developed.
P-I P-II P-III
(1) Turner's syndrome Klinefelter's syndrome Down's syndrome
(2) Down's syndrome Klinefelter's syndrome Turner's syndrome
(3) Klinefelter's syndrome Turner's syndrome Down's syndrome
(4) Klinefelter's syndrome Down's syndrome Turner's syndrome

328. Hypertichosis is
(1) Holandric character (2) X-linked character
(3) Digenic character (4) Sex-influenced character

Page 20 of 24
Miscellaneous
329. Which of the following is genetically dominant in man?
(1) Colourblindness (2) Rh positive (3) Haemophilia (4) Albinism
330. Mitochondrial DNA is advantageous for evolutionary studies because
(1) It is inherited only through the female parent and thus evolves in a way that allows trees of
relationship to be easily constructed
(2) It is inserted into the X chromosome
(3) It first appeared in humans and is not found in other animals
(4) It evolves more slowly than the genes in the nucleus
331. Mark the correct statements.
(a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease
(b) Down's syndrome is due to anaeuploidy
(c) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal dominant gene disorder
(d) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder
(4) Sickle cell anaemia is an X-linked recessive gene disorder
(1) (a), (c) and (e) (2) (a) and (c) (3) (b)and(e) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
332. Which genomic number is wrong?
(1) Pisum sativum - 7 (2) Triticum monococcum - 1
(3) Drosophila melanogaster - 4 (4) Zeamays - 8
333. For a gene if AA = male plant, BB = female plant. Find out the genotype of endosperm and embryo in
gymnosperm
(1) AAB.BBA (2) B,AB (3) ABB.AB (4) BBA.AAB
334. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(1) Multiple allelism - Self incompatibility trait
(2) Starch grain size - Incomplete dominance
(3) Mendelian disorder - Thalassemia
(4) Myotonic dystrophy - X-linked dominant trait
335. Choose the correct option from the statements given below.
(a) symbol represent affected offspring in pedigree analysis
(b) Partially open mouth is seen in person having trisomy of 22nd chromosome
(c) Multiple matching could produce a single progeny in fruit fly
(d) Yellow/Green is the contrasting traits of seed colour in pea
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (d) (3) All of these (4) Only (d)
336. How many genome types are present in a typical green plant cell?
(1) More than ten (2) Ttoo (3) Three (4) More than five
337. A family has 9 girls. Probability of son at 10th birth is
(1) 50% (2) 100% (3) 25% (4) 75%.
338. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option.
Column - I Column - II
(a) Removal of anther (i) Human blood group
(b) Laws of inheritance (ii) Emasculation
(c) Multiple allelism (iii) Blood group O
(d) Universal donor (iv) Mendel
(1) (a) - (ii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); (d) - (iii) (2) (a) - (iii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (ii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (iii); (d) - (i) (4) (a) - (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d) - (iii)
339. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option.
Column – I Column - II
(a) Autopolyploidy (i) 2n + 1
(b) Anaeuploidy (ii) AAAA
(c) Allopolyploidy (iii) AABBB
(d) Nullisomy (iv) 2n - 2
(1) (a) - (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iii); (d) - (iv) (2) (a) - (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iii)
(3) (a) - (ii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (iii); (d) T (i) (4) (a) - (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d) -'(iii)
340. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option.
Column – I Column - II
(a) ABO blood group (i) Dihybrid cross
(b) Law of segregation (ii) Monohybrid cross
(c) Law of independent (iii) Base pairs substitution assortment
(d) Gene mutation (iv) Multiple allelism
(1) (a) - (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d) - (iii) (2) (a) - (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iii)
(3) (a) - (iv); (b) - (ii); (c) - (i); (d) - (iii) (4) (a) - (ii); (b) - (iii); (c) - (iv); (d) - (i)
341. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option.
Column – I Column - II
(a) Sickle cell anaemia (i) 7th chromosome
(b) Phenylketonuria (ii) 4th chromosome
(c) Cystic fibrosis (iii) 11th chromosome
(d) Huntington's disease (iv) X-chromdsome
(e) Colourblindness (v) 12thchromosome
(1) (a) - (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d) - (iii); (e)- (iv) (2) (a) - (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii); (d) - (c); (e) - (iv)
(3) (a) - (iv); (b) - (ii); (c) - (i); (d) - (iii); (e) - (iv) (4) (a) - (iii); (b) - (v); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii); (e) - (iv)
342. Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) Genetic maps are extensively used as starting point in the sequencing of whole genome as was done
in case of the human genome sequencing project.
(b) UV rays can cause mutation in organisms
(c) Deletion and insertions of base pairs of DNA cause frame shift mutations
(d) Mendelian disorders may be dominant of recessive

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 (1) All of these (2) None of these (3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
343. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
(a) Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal dominant trait
(b) Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive trait
(c) Cystic fibrosis is a Mendelian disorder
(d) Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell divisions cycle results in the gain or loss of a
chromosome (s) called aneuploidy.
(1) Only (c) (2) All of these (3) All except (c) (4) None of these
344. Which of the following statements is true?
(1) Specific mutations occur because they are needed
(2) Recessive alleles follow different laws of inheritance than dominant alleles do
(3) Offspring get two copies of each gene from each parent
(4) Gametes fuse irrespective of the alleles they carry
345. Choose the incorrect option.
(1) Recombination and mutation are phenomena that lead to variations in DNA
(2) Chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed in cancer cells
(3) A change in a single base pair of DNA is not sufficient to cause mutation
(4) Point mutation arises due to change in a single base pair
346. Consider the following (a)-(d) each with one or two blanks.
(a) ___(i)____ fit are commonly observed in cancer cells
(b) During ___(ii)____ purine is replaced by another purine
(c) Failure of ___(iii)____ after telophase stage of cell' division results in an increase in whole set of
chromosome in an organism and this phenomenon is known as ___(iv)____.
(d) In Down's syndrome, the affected individual is short statured with ___(v)____ round head and
partially open mouth.
Which one of the following option correctly fills up for the blank numbers from (i) to (v) in the
statements?
(1) (iii) - karyokinesis; (iv) - polyploidy; (v) - large
(2) (ii) - transversion; (iii) - cytokinesis; (iv) - chromosomal aberration
(3) (i) - chromosomal aberration; (iv) - polyploidy, (v) – small
(4) (ii) - transition; (iii) - karyokinesis; (v) - large
347. Consider the following four statements (a), (b), (c) and (d) and select the right option for incorrect
statements.
(a) Mendelian experiments had a large sampling size, which gave greater credibility to the data that he
collected
(b) Recessive allele influences the appearance of the phenotype even in the presence of an alternative
allele
(c) Multiple alleles can be found only when population studies are made
(c) In F2 generation of a Mendelian monohybrid cross, the tall and dwarf traits were identical to their
parental types and show blending.
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (c) and (d) (3) (b) and (d) (4) (b) and (c)
348. Select the incorrect statement.
(a) Linked genes cause absolute lethality
(b) Persons affected by PKU do not show mental disorder
(c) F2 ratio in codominance and incomplete dominance are same
(d) Sex of male Drosophila is dependent on Y-chromosome
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) All of these
349. TDF gene is a
(1) Gene present on X-chromosome (2) Segment of RNA
(3) Proteinaceous factor (4) Gene present on Y-chromosome
350. There are two alleles A1 and A2  out of which one  A1  has nil abundance in a population, then the

abundance of second allele  A2  is

(1) 0.25 (2) 1.00 (3) 0.40 (4) 0.50
351. What is the probability of three daughters to a couple in three children?
(1) 1/4 (2) 1/8 (3) 1/16 (4) 3/8
352. A male human is heterozygous for autosomal genes A and B and is also hemizygous for haemophilic gene
h. What is the probability of that person to form the gamete abhl
(1) 1/4 (2) 1/8 (3) 1/32 (4) 1/16
353. In a random 'mating, population frequency of dominant allele is 0.7. What will be the frequency of
recessive phenotype?
(1) 0.49 (2) 0.09 (3) 0.3 (4) 0.21
354. Which of the following abnormalities, results from an unnatural presence of a Barr body?
(1) Turner's syndrome (2) Down's syndrome (3) Klinefelter's syndrome (4) All of these

01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10 11 12 13 14 15

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 2 3 3 4 3 3 3 2 2 2 2 3 2 3 3
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
2 1 2 2 4 4 4 2 2 3 1 2 3 1 4
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
1 4 2 3 2 3 3 4 1 4 4 1 1 2 3
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
2 3 2 1 4 4 3 2 1 2 4 4 2 2 2
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
2 3 3 4 3 3/4 2 1 3 4 4 2 3 1 3
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
2 4 2 2 2 4 4 4 1 4 2 4 3 2 1
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
2 3 1 3 1 4 3 4 2 1 4 3 2 1 1
106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
1 2 3 4 1 3 3 3 1 1 1 1 3 4 4
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
4 2 1 3 2 3 1 2 2 4 4 3 1 2 4
136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 148 150
2 4 4 3 3 1 4 1 3 4 2 1 2 4 3
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165
4 2 4 3 1 2 3 3 2 3 1 3 4 2 2
166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
4 3 3 1 3 3 4 1 4 4 4 3 3 3 3
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195
3 1 1 3 2 2 4 4 4 4 4 3 2 3 2
196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210
1 2 4 1 3 3 2 3 1 2 2 4 3 4 1
211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225
1 3 3 2 2 4 1 2 1 2 1 2 4 1 4
226 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240
4 3 1 2 4 1 1 2 4 2 1 1 3 3 3
241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250 251 252 253 254 255
2 4 4 2 1 1 2 4 3 1 2 3 4 1 1
256 257 258 259 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270
4 1 4 2 1 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 3 4

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271 272 273 274 275 276 277 278 279 280 281 282 283 284 285
2 4 3 2 2 3 2 3 4 3 4 2 4 4 1
286 287 288 289 290 291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300
1 4 4 4 3 4 2 4 3 2 2 3 2 3 4
301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310 311 312 313 314 315
1 2 4 1 1 2 2 2 3 2 4 3 4 3 3
316 317 318 319 320 321 322 323 324 325 326 327 328 329 330
2 4 1 2 2 3 1 4 3 4 3 3 1 2 1
331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340 341 342 343 344 345
4 4 2 4 2 2 1 1 1 3 4 1 4 4 3
346 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354
3 3 3 4 2 2 2 2 3

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