MEGA QUIZ on INDIAN PENAL CODE
1. Who prepared the first draft of Indian Penal Code?
(a) Canning (b) Stephen (c) Bentinck (d) Macaulay
2. Read the following :
(1) Indian Courts have jurisdiction to try crime committed by an Indian in a foreign country.
(2) Indian Courts do not have jurisdiction to try crime committed by a foreigner in India.
Of the above:
(a) (1) is true but (2) is false.
(b) (1) is false but (2) is true.
(c) Both (1) and (2) are true.
(d) Both (1) and (2) are false.
3. Which one of the following cases is not related to Mens rea?
(a) R.V. Prince
(b) Queen V. Tolson
(c) Sherras V. De Rutzen
(d) Barendra Kumar Ghosh V. Emperor
4. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?
(a) Mens Rea —R. V. Prince
(b) Necessity —D.P.P. v. Beard
(c) Insanity —mcnaughten case
(d) Intoxication —Basudeo v. State of Pepsu
5. ‘A’ is a good swimmer looks 'B' drowning but does not try to save 'A’. 'A’ committed the offence of
(a) Murder
(b) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(c) Causing death due to negligent act
(d) Not committed any offence
6. ‘X’ having sufficient food, does not provide some food to a beggar, who dies of hunger.
X’ is guilty of-
(a) No offence
(b) Attempt to murder
(c) Murder
(d) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
7. A national of Pakistan fires from the other side of the borders and a person within the Indian border is killed the
relatives, friends and other Indians rush and drag the Pakistani to border Indian Police Station. Can the Indian courts
try the accused for murder?
(a) No, Indian courts have no jurisdiction
(b) Yes
(c) He shall be handed over to the Pakistani authorities for trial in Pakistan
(d) None of the above
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8. Which of the following offences is punishable under I.P.C.?
(a) A citizen of Italy commits murder of an Indian in Pakistan
(b) A Citizen of Italy commits murder of an Indian Jammu & Kashmir
(c) An Indian commits murder of a citizen of Italy in Italy
(d) All the above
9. Under Section 10 of I.P.C. "Man" denotes a male human being of:
(a) 16 years (b) 18 years (c) 21 years (d) Any age
10. Which of the following maxims is related to mens-rea?
(a) Autre fois acquit and Autrefois convict
(b) Actus non faeit reum nisi mens sit rea
(c) Nulla poena sine lege, Nullum Crimen sine lege
(d) Nemo debect bis punivi pro uno delicto
11. Who among the following is not a public servant?
(a) Chief Minister of State
(b) Chairman of the Central Board of Film Censors
(c) Surveyor of an insurance Company
(d) Employee of 'Nationalized Bank
12. “In every statute mens rea is to be implied unless the contrary is shown.” This view was expressed in
(a) Sheras v. De-Rutzen (b) R.v. Dudley & Stephen
(c) Harding v. Price (d) Rv. Prince
13. Who according to Section 21 of Indian Penal Code, 1860, is not a public servant
(a) A commissioned officer in Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force
(b) An arbitrator to whom any cause has been referred for adjudication by any Court of justice
(c) An officer, who, by virtue of his office, is empowered to place or keep any person in confinement
(d) An advocate, who practices law in a Court of justice
14. Wrongful gain means:
(a) A gain by lawful means of property which the person gaining is not entitled
(b) A gain by unlawful means of property to which the person gaining is not legally entitled
(c) A gain by unlawful means of property which the person gaining is entitled
(d) All of the above
15. ‘Electronic Record’ under I.P.C. is defined in
(a) Section 29 (b) Section 29A (c) Section 29B (d) Section 29D
16. The phrase "in furtherance of common intention of all" used in Section 34 of Indian Penal Code, is
(a) In the original draft
(b) Added by Amending Act of 1870
(c) Not at all there
(d) Added by Amending Act of 1986
17. Word ‘Dishonestly’ as defined in Section 24 of IPC means
(a) With the intention of causing wrongful gain to one person
(b) With the intention of causing wrongful loss to another person
(c) With the intention of causing wrongful gain to one person or with the intention of causing wrongful loss to
another person
(d) None of the above are true
18. Common intention under Section 34 means:
(a) Same intention
(b) Similar intention
(c) Intention is known and is shared by each of persons committing criminal act
(d) Evil intention with similar object
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19. Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
(a) Creates a substantive offence
(b) Is a rule of evidence
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
20. Which one of the following recognizes the principle of vicarious criminal liability under Indian penal Code, 1860?
(a) Section 34 (b) Section 149
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
21. Which one of the following pairs is incorrect?
List I List II
(a) Pandurang v. State of Hyderabad - Common intention
(b) R. V. Mcnaughten - Act of person of unsound mind
(c) R. V. Prince - Mens rea
(d) R. V. Williams - Murder
22. Which one of the following is known as Indus River case?
(a) Dukhmochan Pandey case
(b) Mehboob Shah case
(c) Barendra Kumar Ghosh case
(d) Swaran Singh case
23. When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all, each one of them is liable
(a) For an attempt to commit the act
(b) For the abetment of the act
(c) Only for the part each one has done
(d) As if it was done by each one of them in singular capacity
24. The term ‘Common intention' is defined under Section 34 of the IPC. Which one of the following elements is not an
essential ingredient of it?
(a) One should have committed an offence
(b) Said act should have been committed by many persons
(c) Intention about planning and execution of the act should be common
(d) All should get similar benefit
25. “In certain situations common intention may develop suddenly on the spot and such common intention may be inferred
from the facts and circumstances of the case and conduct of the accused.” It was held in
(a) Rishi Deo Pandey v. State of U.P.
(b) Major Singh v. State of Punjab
(c) Mahboob Shah v. Emperor
(d) J.M. Desai v. State of Bombay
26. Which one of the following cases is not related to the principle of common intention?
(a) Rishi Deo Pandey v. State of U. P.
(b) Mehboob Shah v. Emperor
(c) R v. Tolson
(d) Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor
27. In Post Master Murder case before the Privy Council, the judgment was delivered by:
(a) Lord Sumner (b) Sir Madhavan Nair (c) Lord Coleridge (d) Lord Haldane
28. An effect is said to be caused voluntarily if a person:
(a) Intends to cause it
(b) Knows that he is to cause it
(c) Has reason to believe that he is likely to cause it
(d) In all the above cases
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29. Under Section 44 of 1.P.C. the term ‘Injury’ means any harm:
(a) Illegally caused to a person in body and mind
(b) Illegally caused to a person in body and property
(c) Illegally caused to a person in body, mind, reputation or property
(d) Illegally caused to a person in body, mind and reputation
30. “Local Law” mentioned under Section 42 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 means a law applicable to
(a) Whole of India (b) A particular part of India
(c) Any part of India (d) None of the above
31. “Good faith” within the meaning of the I.P.C. means
(a) An act done with due care and attention
(b) An actual belief that the act done is not contrary to law
(c) An act in fact done honestly
(d) An act done under bonafide belief
32. Which one of the following is not a punishment under Section 53 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
(a) Fine (b) Transportation
(c) Forfeiture of property (d) Death
33. Which one of the following is not a punishment under Section 53 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
(a) Fine (b) Transportation
(c) Forfeiture of property (d) Death
34. By which one, out of the following Acts, the words “imprisonment for life” was substituted for the words “transportation
for life” in the Indian Penal Code?
(a) Act XXV of 1955 (b) Act XXIV of 1955
(c) Act XXVI of 1955 (d) Act XXVII of 1955
35. The term for which the court directs the offender to be imprisoned in default of payment of a fine shall not exceed:
(a) One-third (b) Half (c) One-fourth (d) Two-third
36. Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India, (2014) 3 SCC 1 is the case related to
(a) Giving false evidence before the court
(b) Waging war against the state
(c) Commutation of death sentence to life imprisonment
(d) None of the above
37. Where no sum is expressed to which a fine may extend there the amount of fine to which the offender may be liable
will be:
(a) Not exceeding rupees fifty thousand
(b) Not exceeding rupees twenty-five thousand
(c) Not exceeding rupees ten Lac
(d) Unlimited but not excessive
38. If the offence be punishable with fine only, imprisonment for non-payment of fine:
(a) Has to be simple (b) Has to be rigorous
(c) Can be rigorous or simple (d) No imprisonment
39. X is punished with fine of Rupees 200 only with the condition that if X does not pay the fine he will have to go for four
months imprisonment. X does not pay the fine. X undergoes four months imprisonment, but after the completion of
2 months imprisonment he pays Rs. 150 whether
(a) X should be released immediately
(b) X should be released after completion of four months imprisonment
(c) X should be released after three months
(d) None of the above
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40. The maximum period of solitary confinement is:
(a) 3 months (b) 6 months (c) 1 month (d) 15 days
41. Enhanced punishment for previous conviction under .................of the IPC
(a) Section 76 (b) Section 71 (c) Section 68 (d) Section 75
42. Which one of the following is not an essential element of mistake of fact under Section 76 of I.P.C.?
(a) An act done by a person who is either bound or believes himself to be bound by law is doing that
(b) The belief must be by reason of a mistake of fact
(c) Belief must be a bonafide belief in good faith
(d) The belief may be by reason of mistake of fact or law
43. 'A' a soldier fires on a mob by the order of his superior officer in conformity with the commands of the law due to which
certain person are injured. What offence has been committed by 'A'
(a) Attempt to murder (b) Hurt (c) Grievous hurt (d) No offence
44. A Hangman who hangs the prisoners pursuant to the order of the Court is exempted from criminal liability by virtue
of:
(a) Section 77 of IPC (b) Section 78 of IPC
(c) Section 79 of IPC (d) Section 76 of IPC
45. Which one of the following Sections of I.P.C. applies the maxim, “Ignorance of law is no excuse”?
(a) Section 77 (b) Section 78 (c) Section 79 (d) None of the above
46. ‘A' is at work with proper caution with a hatchet. The head flies off and kills a man who is standing by. ‘A'‘ is guilty of
the offence of
(a) Murder
(b) Attempt to murder
(c) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(d) None of the above
47. Which one of the following is not an ingredient of defense of accident under Section 80 of the IPC?
(a) The act must be an accident
(b) Intention of act is not relevant consideration
(c) Act must have been done with proper care and caution
(d) Accident must be the outcome of a lawful act done in lawful manner by lawful means
48. Which one of the following cases is not correctly matched?
(a) Nc’Naughten’s case - Section 84 of I.P.C.
(b) D.P.P. V. Beard - Section 84 of I.P.C.
(c) Basudeo v. State - Section 86 of I.P.C.
(d) Bhawoo Jiwaji v. Mooljee Dayal - Section 79 of I.P.C.
49. Raju is cutting wood with an axe at a place where children are playing. The axe flies off and kills a nearby child. Raju
is liable for:
(a) No offence (b) Murder
(c) Death by negligence (d) Culpable homicide
50. “Necessity” as a defense cannot be claimed when the act has been done:
(a) With good faith
(b) Without criminal intent
(c) With inherent risk of causing harm
(d) For avoiding other greater harm
51. The famous case of R. V. Dudley and Stephens was related to which of the general exceptions of criminal liability?
(a) Mistake (b) Necessity
(c) Private Defense (d) Unsoundness of mind
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52. X and Y, swimming in the sea, after a ship wreck, got hold of a plank. The plank was not large enough to support
both. X having no other option, pushed Y who was drowned. X has committed
(a) Culpable homicide
(b) Murder
(c) The offence of causing death by negligence
(d) No offence
53. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child if he is at the time of commission of the offence
(a) Under seven years of age
(b) Between seven and twelve years of age
(c) Between twelve and eighteen years of age
(d) All of the above
54. An offence is committed by a child and he wishes to claim the defense under Section 83 of the Indian Penal Code. In
which case of the following such defense can be claimed:
(a) When the child is above 8 years but below 12 years of age
(b) When the child is above 7 years but below 10 years of age
(c) When the child is above 7 years but below 12 years of age
(d) When the child is above 12 years but below 16 years of age
55. The leading case on Section 83 of I.P.C. is:
(a) Bishambher v. Roomal
(b) Deo Narain v. State
(c) Ulla v. King
(d) Dayabhai Chhaganbhai Thakkar v. State of Gujarat
56. "A person has a mental disease or defect is not enough to relieve him of responsibility of a crime. There must be a
relationship between the disease and the criminal act.” It was held in
(a) R.v. Prince (b) Ganesh v. Shravan
(c) Durhum v. United States (d) R.v. Baxendale
57. Which one of the following cases is related to the defense of insanity under Section 84 I.P.C.?
(a) R.v. Arnold (b) R.v. White (c) R.v. Walker (d) R.v. Wheat
58. Which case of the following is related to the defense of ‘intoxication’:
(a) Mc Naughten Case
(b) R.v. Dudley and Stephen
(c) R.v. Spicer
(d) Director of Public Prosecution v. Beard
59. ‘A’ and ‘Z’, both adults, agree to engage each other in fencing for amusement. In course of such fencing, without any
foul play, ‘A’ causes a superficial hurt to ‘Z’. Here, ‘A’
(a) Is guilty of causing hurt by sharp edged weapon as he attacked ‘Z’
(b) Is not guilty as there is an implied consent on the part of ‘Z’ to suffer such harm
(c) Is guilty because fencing is a dangerous sport
(d) Both (a) and (c)
60. Which of the following section of IPC deals with volenti-nonfit-injuria?
(a) Section 87 (b) Section 88 (c) Section 89 (d) All of the above
61. '‘A' a school teacher for the purposes of enforcing discipline inflicts moderate punishment upon a pupil aged about 11
years. In this case
(a) ‘A’ is entitled to claim defense under Section 89 of I.P.C.
(b) ‘A’ is guilty of causing simple hurt
(c) ‘A’ is guilty of using criminal force
(d) '‘A' is entitled to claim defense under Section 88 of I.P.C.
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62. Under Indian Penal Code, 1860 the defense of ‘Consent” is not available in cases of
(a) Consent to cause death (b) Consent to cause grievous hurt
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
63. Z is carried off by a tiger. A fires at the tiger knowing it to be likely that the shot may kill Z. But he does it in good faith
intending to save Z. A's bullet gives Z a mortal wound. Which one of the following statements is correct:
(a) A will be held guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(b) A can take the defense under Section 92 of the Penal Code dealing with acts done without consent
(c) A can plead accident
(d) None of the above is correct
64. A, a surgeon, sees a child suffer an accident which is likely to prove, fatal unless an operation be immediately
performed. There. Is no time to apply to the child's guardian. A performs the operation inspite of the entreaties of the
child, in good faith, for the child's benefit. The child died. A has committed:
(a) Culpable homicide (b) Murder
(c) Attempt to murder (d) No offence
65. "A", a blacksmith is seized by a gang of dacoits and compelled by threat of instant death to force open the door of Z's
house to enter and plunder it. While committing dacoity, one of the dacoits kills Z's son. A is guilty of
(a) Murder (b) Dacoity with murder
(c) Abatement of dacoity (d) No offence
66. "A", a blacksmith is seized by a gang of dacoits and compelled by threat of instant death to force open the door of Z's
house to enter and plunder it. While committing dacoity, one of the dacoits kills Z's son. A is guilty of
(a) Murder (b) Dacoity with murder
(c) Abatement of dacoity (d) No offence
67. Read the following:
1. The maxim “Actus me invito factus non est mens acts” finds application in Section 94 of I.P.C.
2. The maxim “diminmis non curat lex” has been incorporated in Section 95 of I.P.C.
Of the above:
(a) (1) is true but (2) is false. (b) (1) is false but (2) is true.
(c) Both (1) and (2) are true. (d) Both (1) and (2) are false.
68. “The right of private defense is available only to one who is suddenly confronted with immediate necessity of averting
an impending danger not of his own creation." It was held in
(a) Prabhu v. Emperor
(b) Raj Kapoor v. Laxman
(c) R.v. Stephens
(d) Laxman v. State of Orissa
69. The right of Private Defense based on the natural instinct of
(a) Self-respect (b) Self-protection
(c) Self-reliance (d) Self-sufficiency
70. The right of private defense:
(a) Is not a right of defense but of retribution
(b) Is a right of defense but not a right of retribution
(c) Is a right of defense as well as a right of retribution
(d) Is neither a right of defense nor a right of retribution
71. Z, under the influence of-madness attempts to kill A. In this case which of the following is correct?
(a) Z is guilty of attempt to murder, but A has right of private defense
(b) Z is guilty of no offence, but a has the right of private defense
(c) Z is guilty of no offence, but A has no right of private defense
(d) None of the above is correct
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72. ‘X' enters in his house in the night in which he is legally entitled to enter. ‘Y' in good faith taking 'X’ for a house breaker,
attacks ‘X’. 'X' in his private defense attacks 'Y' and causes hurt. Which statement of the following is correct:
(a) ‘X' has no right of private defense of person against 'Y' because the act of 'Y' is no offence
(b) 'X' has a right of private defense of person against 'Y’ even though ‘Y' has acted under the mistake of fact and
thus committed no offence
(c) 'X' and 'Y' both do not have right of private defense against each other
(d) None of the above is correct
73. '‘A' picked up a match box belonging to 'B and lighted his cigarette with it. 'B' charged ‘A' with the offence of theft of
his match box. In these circumstances ‘A’ can defend him with the help of which one of the following maxims?
(a) Non compos mentis
(b) Dole Incapax
(c) Deminimis non curat lex
(d) Ignorantia juris non excusat
74. Point out the correct answer - The right of private defense under Indian Penal Code, 1860, is:
(a) Subject to no restriction
(b) Subject to restrictions given under Section 99
(c) Subject to restrictions given under Section 106
(d) Subject to restrictions given under Section 82
75. H and W were married recently but W preferred to stay mostly at her parental place. This conduct of W made H angry.
H came to take W back from her parental place. When W refused to go he tried to take her forcibly. At this F, the
father of W, became angry and gave H two blows with a lathi which landed on the head of H who died soon thereafter.
F is being tried for murder. He pleads right of private defense against the act of H which he says amounts to
‘abduction’. Prosecution pleads ‘abduction’ is not an offence and therefore there can be no exercise of right of private
defense. Which one among the following statements gives the correct legal position in the matter?
(a) F cannot plead right of private defense against the act of abduction as ‘abduction’ per se is not an offence
(b) F can plead right of private defense as abduction in this case involves an assault and assault with intention to
abduct or kidnapping falls in Section 100 of the IPC in which case right of private defense can extend to causing
of death
(c) F cannot plead right of private defense as no offence had been committed against his person
(d) F cannot plead right of private defense as he had not called the police to protect his daughter
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Answer key
1. d 2. a 3. d 4. b 5. d 6. a 7. b 8. c 9. d 10. b
11. c 12. a 13. d 14. b 15. b 16. b 17. c 18. c 19. b 20. c
21. d 22. b 23. d 24. d 25. a 26. c 27. a 28. d 29. c 30. b
31. a 32. b 33. b 34. c 35. c 36. c 37. d 38. a 39. a 40. a
41. d 42. d 43. d 44. b 45. c 46. d 47. b 48. b 49. c 50. c
51. b 52. d 53. a 54. c 55. c 56. c 57. a 58. d 59. b 60. d
61. a 62. c 63. b 64. d 65. d 66. d 67. c 68. d 69. b 70. b
71. b 72. b 73. c 74. b 75. b
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