BV(DU) COLLEGE OF AYURVED, PUNE-411043 (MH- INDIA)

MCQ- PG- Entrance- PRASUTITANTRA & STRIROGA

1 This sutra, is written by “vayaao yaqaasqaUlaBaodona i~aivaQama\ baalama\ maQyama\ jaINa-imaita”

A) Sushrutacharya B) Charakacharya

C) Vagbhatacharya D) Kashyapacahrya

2 Balyavastha lasts for …….

A) 18 years B) 16 years

C) 14 yaers D) 9 years

3. According to Charaka & Vagbhata age limit of maQyamaavasqaa

A) Up to 50 years B) Up to 55 years

C) Up to 60 years D) Up to 70 years

4. According Harita Yuvavastha remains up to…….

A) 25 B) 16

C) 30 D) 18

5. Harita classified the age of female as baalaa up to…….

A) 8 years B) 6 years

C) 5 years D) 11 years

6. According to Sushruta the vistara of {rsa\ in female is

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 A) 11 AMgaUla B) 12 AMgaUla

C) 24 AMgaUla D) 18 AMgaUla

7. How many asthi in Shroni are enumerated by Sushruta?

A) 3 B) 4

C) 5 D) 1

8. EaaoNaIflak , Bagaaisqa are the parts of---------

A) Pelvis B) Rib

C) Skull D) Leg bones

9. How many saMiQa are present in EaaoNaI-- -

A) 4 B) 1

C) 3 D) 1

10. Complete this sutra ------ kiTkpaalaoYau sMaiQa |

A) ~ayaa: B) d\vayaa:

C) catau: D) ek :

11. The size of Baga is-------------

A) 11 AMgaUla B) 14 AMgaUla

C) 16 AMgaUla D) 12 AMgaUla

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12. smaratapa~a is mentioned by---------

A) DlhNa B) kaSyapa

C) cark D) yaaogartnaakr

13. stana is the type of -----------

A) dvaImauKa s~aaotasa B) baihmau-Ka s~aaotasa

C) ekmauKa s~aaotasa D) AMtamau-Ka s~aaotasa

14. yaaonaI resembles ----------------

A) naaBaI B) SaMKanaaBaI

C) SaMKa D) ~yaavataa-

15. samaIrNaa , caMd`mauKaa , gaaOrI are-----------------

A) Garbha nadi B) Hasta nadi

C) Yoni nadi D) Garbhini nadi

16. manaaoBavaagaarmauKa is the term used by ------------------

A) Bhavaprakash B) Charaka

C) Vagbhata D) Kashyapa

17. The term rktapaqa is used in

A) Ashtangsangraha B) Kashyapa

C) Yogratnakar D) Harita

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18. gaBaa-Saya is

A) pa`qamaavata- B) taRtaIyaavata-

C) id\vataIyaavata- D) catauqaa-vata-

19. Which is the eighth ashaya in women?

A) ipattaaSayaa B) maU~aaSaya

C) AamaaSaya D) gaBaa-Saya

20. gaBaa-Saya resemble mouth of

A) Rohit fish B) King fish

C) Lobster fish D) Jaw fish

21. Aata-vavaaih QamanaI is the origin of

A) rktavah s~aaotasa B) rjaaovah s~aaotasa

C) rsavah s~aaotasa D) Aata-vavah s~aaotasa

22. Aata-vanaaSa is the sign of injury to

A) rktavah s~aaotasa B) rjaaovah s~aaotasa

C) rsavah s~aaotasa D) Aata-vavah s~aaotasa

23. maOqaunaasaihYNautva is the sign of injury to

A) rsavah s~aaotasa B) Aata-vavah s~aaotasa

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 C) rktavah s~aaotasa D) rjaaovah s~aaotasa

24. Aata-vavah s~aaotasa ivaQdtaa results into

A) Garbhastrav B) Mrutagarbha

C) Vandhyatva D) Yonivyapada

25. stanaraoihta is the type of

A) pa`aNahr mama- B) maaMsa mama-

C) r]jaakr mama- D) iSara mama-

26 saovanaI is the type of

A) pa`aNahr mama- B) maaMsa mama-

C) r]jaakr mama- D) iSara mama-

27. gaud is the type of

A) pa`aNahr mama- B) maaMsa mama-

C) r]jaakr mama- D) iSara mama-

28 According to Sushruta injury should be avoided to how many mama- during surgery?

A) Six B) Eight

C) Two D) Three

29. How many peshi are extra in women?

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 A) 10 B) 05

C) 20 D) 30

30. How many peshi are present in apatyapatha ?

A) 10 B) 02

C) 05 D) 04

31. The vulva includes

A) mons veneris, labia majora B) labia minora, clitoris,

C) vestibule and conventionally the D) mons veneris, labia majora, labia

perineum minora, clitoris, vestibule and
conventionally the perineum

32. Labia minora are

A) triangular space bounded anteriorly B) small cylindrical erectile body,

by the clitoris, measuring about 2.5 cm

C) two thick folds of skin, devoid of D) the pad of subcutaneous adipose

fat, on either side just within the connective tissue
labia majora

33. The Bartholin’s glands are situated

A) in the posterior end of the vestibule B) in the superficial perineal pouch,

close to the posterior end of the
vestibular bulb.

C) in the midline, just in front of the D) on either side just within the labia
vaginal orifice majora.

34. Clitoris is an analogue

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 A) To the testis in the male B) To the urethra in the male

C) To the scrotum in the male D) to the penis in the male,

35. The internal genital organs in female include

A) vagina, uterus, fallopian tubes, and B) vagina, uterus,

the ovaries

C) fallopian tubes, and the ovaries D) uterus, fallopian tubes, and the
ovaries

36. The vagina is

A) a fibromusculomembranous sheath B) a fibromusculomembranous sheath

communicating the uterine cavity

C) a fibromusculomembranous sheath D) a fibromusculomembranous sheath

communicating with the exterior at communicating the uterine cavity
the vulva with the exterior at the vulva

37. The fornices are

A) the clefts formed at the top of ovary B) the clefts formed at the top of uterus

C) the clefts formed at the top of D) the clefts formed at the top of
vagina (vault) due to the projection fallopian tube
of the uterine cervix through the
anterior vaginal wall, where it is
blended inseparably with its wall.

38. What is the pH of vagina during reproductive period?

A) 1-2 B) 3-4

C) > 7 D) 4-5

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39. The normal position of the uterus is one of the

A) anteversion B) anteversion and anteflexion.

C) anteflexion D) retroversion

40. Layers of the uterus wall are

A) Perimetrium B) Endometrium , myometrium

C) Perimetrium , endometrium , D) Myometrium , perimetrium

myometrium

41. Female urethra measures about

A) 4 cm and has a diameter of about 3 B) 4 cm and has a diameter of about 5

mm. mm.

C) 3 cm and has a diameter of about 6 D) 4 cm and has a diameter of about 6

mm. mm.

42. Pelvic ureter measures about

A) 13 cm in length and has a diameter B) 10 cm in length and has a diameter

of 5 mm. of 5 mm.

C) 15 cm in length and has a diameter D) 13 cm in length and has a diameter

of 2 mm. of 2 mm.

43. Pelvic floor consists of three sets of muscles on either side ( levator ani )

A) pubococcygeus, iliococcygeus B) iliococcygeus and ischiococcygeus

C) pubococcygeus, iliococcygeus and D) Pubococcygeus

ischiococcygeus

44. The obstetrical perineum is

A) The pyramidal-shaped tissue where B) the pelvic floor

the pelvic floor and the perineal
muscles and fascia meet in between
the vaginal and the anal canal

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 C) The pyramidal-shaped tissue of the D) The vaginal and the anal canal
perineal muscles

45. Morphological changes during puberty are (according to Tanner and Marshall)

A) growth in height, and B) breast, pubic and axillary hair

menstruation. growth,

C) breast, pubic and axillary hair D) breast, pubic and axillary hair
growth, and menstruation. growth, growth in height, and
menstruation.

46. The age of rjaaodSa-na according to Sushrutacahrya

A) 12 B) 14

C) 10 D) 16

47. What is the amount of Raja according to Ashtangasangraha

A) 4 anjali B) 6 anjali

C) 3 anjali D) 1 anjali

48. According to Ashtang Hrudaya,duration of rja:kala is

A) 2-3 days B) 3- days

C) 12-16 days D) 20-28 days

49. The character of Aata-va is

A) SaIta B) Aagnaoya

C) maRdU D) maQaur

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50. maasaonaaopaicataM kalao .......

A) QamanaIByaaM B) QamanaIByaaM taadata-vama\

C) QamanaIByaaM vaayauyaao-inamauKaM nayaota\ D) QamanaIByaaM vaayauyaao-inamauKaM

51. According to Sushruta vaasaao na ivarMjayaota\ is a characteristic of

A) rja B) Aata-va

C) rkta D) rsa

52. According to Kashyapa , what should be avoided during rjasvalaa

A) nasya , vamana B) idvaasvaapa

C) snaana D) nasya , vamana idvaasvaapa snaana

53. Complete sutra- rktalaXaNaMmaata-vaM......

A) paMcaSataM ca B) AagnaoyaM

C) SaaoiNataM D) gaBa-kRcca

54. What is the duration of Rutukala according to Sushruta

A) 16 days B) 12 days

C) 14 days D) 21 days

55. Woman who is ready for conception is called as

A) rja:svalaa B) Baalaa

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 C) PtaumataI D) maQyamaa

56. The sutra gatao pauraNao rjaisa navao caavaisqatao......! is mentioned in

A) carksaMihtaa B) vaagBaTsaMihtaa

C) kaSyapasaMihtaa D) SaarMgaQar saMihtaa

57. Anterior colporrhaphy is done to correct

A) Cystocele B) Urethrocele

C) Cystocele & Urethrocele D) Rectocele

58. Kegel exercise is an attempt to

A) Strengthen body muscle B) Strengthen hand muscle

C) Strengthen pelvic muscle D) Strengthen uterine muscle

59. In third degree prolapse

A) The uterine cervix descends to lie B) The uterine cervix and body
outside the introitus. descends to lie outside the introitus.

C) The rectum descends to lie outside. D) No descends of pelvic organ

60. Sevani is ..............in stree.

A) Marma B) Peshi

C) Asthi D) Sandhi

61. Age of the samtvagahirya in female is at ............ years.

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 A) Sixteen B) Twenty Five

C) Eighteen D) Twenty Four

62. According to Sharagdhar, Raj is the updhatu of ................

A) Rakta B) Mansa

C) Shukra D) Rasa

63. According to Sushrut ‘Raj’ is the updhatu of ............... dhatu

A) Rakta B) Mansa

C) Rasa D) Shukra

64. The uterine artery is the branch of .....................

A) Internal iliac artery B) Aorta

C) External iliac artery D) Iliac

65. Meckendrot's ligament is also known as the.

A) Cardinal ligament B) Pubocervical AvAf ligament

C) Vasico cervical ligament D) Uterosacral ligament

66. Proliferative phase is under influence of .......................harmone.

A) L.H B) Progesteron

C) F.S.H D) Oesrogen

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67. The cavity diameter of normal pelvic measures…….cm.

A) 13 cm B) 11 cm

C) 11.5 cm D) 12 cm

68. The widest &longest portion of the fallopian tube is ......................

A) Ampulla B) Interstitial

C) Infundabullum D) Isthums

69. The measurements of ovary is ......................

A) 4*3*1 cm B) 3*2 *1cm

C) 5*4*2cm D) 2*1.5*1cm

70. navarja is get accumulated in the phase of.........

A) Rutuvyatitkal B) Rajkal

C) Rutukal D) Garbhakala

71. ..........dosha is responsible for the discharge of menstruation according to

Ashtangsangraha.

A) Kapha B) Pitta

C) Vata D) Rakta

72. Rutukal is the .................dominant phase.

A) Kaphadosha B) Vatadosha

C) Raktadosha D) Pittadosha

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73. In a twenty-eight days cycle ovulation usually occurs on the :

A) 12th day B) 14th day

C) 11th day D) 15th day

74. The chief source of progesterone is:

A) Corpus luteum B) Granulosa cells

C) Renal cortex D) Theca cells

75. Basal body temperature increase in the ...................... phase.

A) Follicular B) Proliferative

C) Secretory D) Ovulatory

76. What is the long form of D and C

A) Dilatation and cutting B) Dilatation and curttage

C) Dilation and crush D) Dilatation and Culture.

77. What are the types of D & C?

A) Diagnostic B) Therapeutic

C) Diagnostic, Therapeutic & D) Combined

combined

78. Only cervical dilatation is done in

A) Pyometra B) Abdominal pain

C) Vaginal stenosis D) Bartholin cyst

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79. Uterine perforation is the complication

A) Anterior calporrhaphy B) D & C

C) Cervical encirclage D) Genital prolapse repair

80. Diagnostic D & C is done in

A) Infertility B) DUB

C) Endometrial polyp D) Infertility & DUB

81. Lithotomy position is required in

A) D & C B) Abdominal Hysterectomy

C) Abdominal tubectomy D) Cu T insertion & D & C

82. Cervical incompetence is a

A) Immediate complication B) Remote complication

C) Emergency complication D) Both A & B

83. Uterine sound is introduced before D & C

A) To confirm position of uterus B) To note the length of uterocervical

canal

C) To note the vaginal length D) To note both A & B

84. Injury to the lip of cervix during D & C is due to

A) Vulsellum B) Sim's speculum

C) Uterine sound D) Cusco's speculum

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85. To confirm the attempt of perforation during D & C

A) Try to find out perforation by B) Try to find out perforation by

sound dilators

C) Watch BP, Pulse D) Watch BP , Pulse & vaginal

bleeding

86. Cervical cauterization is done in

A) Cervical carcinoma B) Cervical bleeding

C) Cervical discharge D) Cervical prolapse

87. Destruction of eroded area of cervix is called as

A) Cervical dilatation B) Cervical evacuation

C) Cervical cauterization D) Cervical biopsy

88. In cervical cauterization linear radical strokes should be of

A) 2 mm deep at distance of 1 cm B) 5 mm deep at distance of 1 cm

C) 2 mm deep at distance of 3 cm D) 3 mm deep at distance of 3 cm

89. Complete epitheliasation of cervix takes

A) 8-10 weeks B) 1-2 weeks

C) 3-4 weeks D) 6-8 weeks

90. Superficial cauterization can be done

A) Under local anesthesia B) Without anesthesia

C) Under general anesthesia D) Under spinal anesthesia

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91. For cervical cauterization dilatation of cervical canal is done by

A) 1 or 2 small dilators B) 5 or 6 dilators

C) 3 or 4 small dilators D) 6 or 7 small dilators

92. The term precocious puberty is reserved for girls

A) who exhibit any secondary sex B) who exhibit any secondary sex
characteristics before the age of 8 characteristics before the age of 6 or
or menstruate before the age of 7. menstruate before the age of 10.

C) who exhibit any secondary sex D) who exhibit any secondary sex
characteristics before the age of 6 characteristics before the age of 8 or
or menstruate before the age of 8. menstruate before the age of 10.

93. The levels of gonadal steroids and gonadotropins are

A) low until the age of 3–4 years. B) low until the age of 6–8 years.

C) low until the age of 4–5 years. D) low until the age of 1–2 years.

94. The onset of first menstruation in life is called

A) menopause B) Climatic

C) menarche. D) Menorrhagea

95. Menarche may occur anywhere years

A) between 9 and 12 years, the peak B) between 10 and 16 years, the peak
time being 13 time being 13

C) between 10 and 16 years, the peak D) between 10 and 12 years, the peak
time being 9 time being 13

96. The uterine body and the cervix ratio is ............ when menarche occurs.

A) 2:3 B) 1 : 2

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 C) 1 : 1 D) 2 : 2

97. Surgical management of prolapse is required if prolapse is

A) Symptomatic B) Non symptomatic

C) First degree D) Non of the above

98. Perinorrhaphy is

A) Repair of prolapse of anterior B) Repair of prolapse of posterior

vaginal wall perineum

C) Repair of prolapse of posterior D) Repair of prolapse of urethra

vaginal wall

99. Enterocele is repaired

A) Transvaginally & abdominally B) Abdominally

C) Per rectal D) Laproscopically

100. Fothergill's operation is done for

A) Urethral repair B) Uterine descend associated with

cystocele and rectocele where
preservation of uterus is desirable.

C) Pelvic floor repair D) Pile repair

101. Vault prolapse occurs

A) Post caeserian B) Post hystrotomy

C) Post tubectomy D) Post hysterectomy

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102. The length of fallopian tube is

A) 5cm B) 10 cm

C) 6cm D) 8 cm

103. Cervix is

A) 2.5cm B) 4 cm

C) 1.5 cm D) 5 cm

104. Endometrium is

A) Outer most layer B) Middle layer

C) Inner most layer D) Uppermost layer

105. Cervix is insensitive to

A) Touch B) Heat

C) Touch, heat, grasp D) Catch

106. Female urethra measures about

A) 2 cm & has diameter of about 6mm B) 4 cm & has diameter of about 6mm

C) 4 cm & has diameter of about 10 D) 1 cm & has diameter of about 2 mm

mm

107. maaisa maaisa rja: s~aINaaM rsajaM s~avaita ~yahM is quotation from

A) Ashtang hrudaya B) Charak samhita

C) Vagbhat samhita D) Kashyapa samhita

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108. Travarta yoni has

A) Three avarta B) Three and half avarta

C) Two avarta D) one avarta

109. Obstetric conjugate is

A) 6 cm B) 10 cm

C) 5 cm D) 14 cm

110. Obstetrical outlet is

A) cannot be precisely measured as the B) measures from the midpoint on the

points lie over the soft tissues posterior surface of the symphysis
covering the sacrosciatic notches pubis to the junction of second and
and obturator foramina. third sacral vertebrae

C) is a mid-perpendicular line drawn D) the segment of the pelvis bounded

to the plane of the inlet above by the plane of least pelvic
dimensions and below by the
anatomical outlet

111. Harita says

A) Female also discharge shukra B) Female also discharge shukra during

during coitus menses

C) Female also discharge shukra D) Female also discharge shukra during

during rutukala rutavyatit kala

112. How many peshi are present at shukra pravesh ?

A) 4 B) 1

C) 3 D) 10

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113. According to Charakacharya , Madhyamavastha remains upto

A) 60 years B) 50 years

C) 55 years D) 70 years

114. Yauvana remains upto 30 years as quoted by

A) Sushruta B) Vagbhat & Sushruta

C) Kashyapa D) Charaka

115. Anatomical pelvic axis is formed by

A) joining the axes of inlet & cavity B) joining the axes of inlet, cavity and
outlet.

C) joining the axes of inlet and outlet. D) joining the axes of cavity and
outlet.

116. Obstetrical pelvic axis is

A) The axis through which the fetus B) Uniformly curved

negotiates the pelvis.

C) The axis through which the fetus D) Not uniformly curved

negotiates the pelvis & not
uniformly curved.

117. Puberty is said to be delayed

A) when the menarche appears as late B) when the breast tissue and/or pubic
as 16 years hair have not appeared by 13–14
years

C) when the menarche appears as late D) when the breast tissue and/or pubic
as 20 years hair have not appeared by 13–14
years or menarche appears as late as
16 years

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118. Midpelvis is the segment of the pelvis

A) bounded above by the plane of B) bounded by he brim of the pelvis,

greatest pelvic dimensions and the circumference of the inlet
below by a plane known as
midpelvic plane.

C) forms the canal through which the D) formed by the iliac portions of the
fetus has to pass innominate bones and is limited
above by the iliac crests

119. How many stanya vaha dhamani present in Women?

A) 6 B) 8

C) 2 D) 10

120. How many Marmas are present in breasts?

A) 4 B) 6

C) 10 D) 8

121. Injury to Phalastrotas causes

A) Anaata-va B) Anaata-va vaMQyatva

C) vaMQyatva D) Vaodnaa

122. The menstrual cycle is regulated by

A) luteinizing hormone, follicle- B) luteinizing hormone, follicle-

stimulating hormone, estrogen and stimulating hormone
progesterone.

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 C) luteinizing hormone, estrogen and D) estrogen and progesterone.
progesterone.

123. Rajakala is dominated by

A) Vata B) Kapha

C) Rakta D) Pitta

124. Sushruta says , Injury to Basti & Guda Marma leads to

A) Painful micturation B) Death

C) Painful defecation D) Painful bleeding

125. In the sutra tata: pauYpaata\ pa`BaRita i~ara~amaaisata....the word " pauYpa " means

A) Ovum B) Menstrual bleeding

C) Vaginal white discharge D) Sperm

126. Garbha means the union of shukra,aartav&-----inside the kukshi

A) mana B) i~agauNa

C) jaIva D) &aanaoind`ya

127 Shukra Aartvasanyog occurs in --------kal

A) Rutu B) Rutuvyatit

C) c)Raj D) Rajnivruti

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128 New raja is accumulated in garbhashaya in-----------kala.

A) Prathama Rajopravritti B) Rutukala

C) Raja kala D) Rutuvyatitkala

129 Garbha formation take place at------- .

A) Garbhashaymukha B) Prathamavarta

C) Dimbgranthi D) Kukshi

130 Shaddhatvatmakgarbha means union of chetana&--------.

A) Panchamahabhut B) Panchdnynendriy

C) Panchtanmatra D) Pancharas

131 Age for garbhadhanvidhi in female is----.

A) 21yrs B) 16yrs

C) 18yrs D) 20yrs

.132 ------------is the garbhajabhav.

A) Matrujbhav B) Rutu

C) Kshetra D) Beej

133 -------is the garbhasambhavhetu.

A) Pitrujbhav B) Matrujbhav

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 C) Ambu D) Satvaj

134 According to Charakacharya all anga-pratyanga-indriya apparent in ………month

A) Third B) Fifth

C) Fourth D) Second

135 ______ is the Pruthvimahabhutpradhanindriy.

A) )Rasendriy B) Sparshendriy

C) Ghranendriy D) Chakshuindriy

136 Varn of baby is under the influence of-----mahabhut.

A) Tej B) Jala

C) Aakash D) Vayu

137 Aasthidhatu having -------mahabhutadikya.

A) Jala B) Agni

C) Pruthvi D) Ambu

138 Ambu resembles with ---------in garbha utpatti samagri .

A) Atmaj bhav B) Matruj ahar ras

C) Satmyaj bhav D) Satvaj bhav

139 Kalala or ‘mass of cells’ is formed in ___ month

A) First B) Third

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 C) Second D) Fourth

140 Formation of compact mass & determination of sex of the fetus is developed in ___
month.
A) First B) Fourth

C) Second D) Fifth

141 The fetal circulation is established in ___ month.

A) Fourth B) Third

C) Second D) Sixth

142 Progressive development of the fetal ____ is in the 5th month

A) Heart B) Mind

C) Liver D) Spleen

143 In the 6th month of pregnancy, the development of _____ is seen.

A) Hruday B) Mind

C) Hasta-pad D) Buddhi

144 In the____ month of pregnancy, the oja is disturbed and unstable.

A) Eight B) Nine

C) Sixth D) Seven

145 The nourishment of the embryo is through____nyaya, before formation of placenta.

A) Upasneha B) Upasveda

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 C) Both A &B D) Kedarkulya

146 Any abnormality in the _____may leads to impairment in nutrition of the foetus.

A) Amniotic fluid B) Uterus

C) Placenta D) Membranes

147 After third month of pregnancy garbhaposhan is by_____nyaya

A) Kedarkulya & Upsneh B) Upswed

C) Khalekapota D) Upsneh

148 Vibhajan is the function of ______, after the formation of garbha.

A) Rakta B) Kapha

C) Vayu D) Pitta

149 Pachana is the function of -----------mahabhuta in garbha.

A) Akasha B) Tej

C) Vayu D) Aap

150 The pruthvi mahabhut is responsible for_______of the garbha.

A) Complexion B) Moisture

C) Shape D) Size

151 Jal mahabhut is responsible for developing __________components in garbha

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 A) Medha B) Sparsh

C) Sneh & kled D) Laghav

152 ______ body components are derived from Agni mahabhut.

A) Medha & varn B) Mardav

C) Prerana D) Shaitya

153 Yakrut & pleeha are derived from _________bhav.

A) Satvaj B) Aatmaj

C) Matruj D) Pitruj

154 Prerana is derived from_____________ bhav

A) Satvaj B) Aatmaj

C) Matruj D) Pitruj

155 Strength or energy is derived from __________bhav

A) Satmyaj B) Rasaj

C) Aatmaj D) Pitruj

156 Rasaj bhav is responsible for ________of garbha.

A) Beej B) Vruddhi

C) Asthi D) Virya

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157 Jarayu (placenta) develops from ___________.

A) Garbhodak B) Sanchit Raja

C) Beej D) Shukra

158 According to Charak Achary in first month of pregnancy garbha becomes____.

A) Kalal B) Khetbhut

C) Budbudakruti D) Sarpil

159 In second month of pregnancy if the shape of the embryo is pinda, then the born child
may be___________.
A) Male B) Female

C) Hermaphrodite D) Girl

160 Fetus becomes stable in the ___________month of pregnancy.

A) Six B) Third

C) Seven D) Fourth

161 According to ______,manifestation of heart & consciousness occurs in the fourth

month of pregnancy.
A) Sushrut Achary B) Charaka Achary

C) Vagbhat Achary D) Bhavmishra Achary

162 Sex of the child depends upon relative predominance of______.

A) Shukra B) Rasa

C) Aartava D) Shukra & aartava

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163 _____is the responsible dosha for multiple pregnancy.

A) Pitta B) Vata

C) Rakta D) Kapha

164 Abnomality in Beej, Atma, Karma, Ashay & doshas are the causes of__________.

A) Garbhavikruti B) Garbhinivyadhi

C) Garbhavyapad D) Yamgarbha

165 ___________is due to vata pradhana diet of mother.

A) Shwitra B) Khalitya

C) Pandurata D) Kubjata

166 ___________is due to kapha pradhana diet of mother.

A) Khalitya B) Palitya

C) Shwitra D) Kubjata

167 Vitiated pitta produces__________vikruti in garbha.

A) Khanj B) Paiglya

C) Muk D) Badhir

168 ________is the sadyogruhita garbhalakshan.

A) Chhardi B) Nishthivika

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 C) Aruchi D) Anartav

169 _____________ is the garbhavyakta lakshan.

A) Hrudvyatha B) Romharsh

C) Trupti D) Shvayathu

170 ________lakshan seen in fourth month of pregnancy.

A) Glani B) Gurugatrata

C) Nidra D) Karsha

171 _________ lakshan is seen in fifth month of pregnancy.

A) Guruta B) Karshya

C) Klantata D) Chhardi

172 During sixth month of pregnancy garbhini suffers from __________

A) Bala varn hani B) Guruta

C) Arochak D) Laghav

173. According to Ayurveda fetus attains sarvanga sampurnata in ___month.

A) 4th B) 5th

C) 7th D) 8th

174 In umbilical cord, oxygenated blood carried by_______from placenta to fetus.

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 A) Internal iliac vein B) Internal iliac artery

C) Umbilical veins D) Umbilical artery

175 According to Sushrut Acharya heart of the fetus develops in____month of pregnancy.

A) 3th B) 4th

C) 6th D) 5th

176 Charak Acharya says that ___ develops after birth.

A) Teeth B) Liver

C) Spleen D) Limbs

177 In the fetus accumulation of flesh & blood is relatively more in _____month of
pregnancy.
A) Third B) Fourth

C) Fifth D) Sixth

178 The normal quantity of amniotic fluid at 38 wks is____________.

A) 400ml B) 500-600ml

C) 450-500ml D) 700-1000ml

179 Use of ___________garments is contraindicated during garbhini avastha.

A) Red B) Yellow

C) Pink D) White

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180 Amniotic fluid maintains the body_______of the fetus.

A) Balance B) Temperature

C) Weight D) Pulse

181 Aim of the garbhini paricharya is____________.

A) Anupghatay B) Paripurntavay

C) Sukha prasavay D) All of the above

182 At term placental weighs (approximately) ______.

A) 450gm B) 500 gm

C) 600gm D) 700 gm

183 In the first three months of pregnancy, Sushruta Acharya advised _________ahar.

A) Tikta,sheet,drava B) KatuUshan,drava

C) Lavan,sheet D) Madhur, shita ,drava

184 Charak Acharya advised _____in the fourth month of pregnancy.

A) Kshirnavaneet B) Jangal mansa

C) Ghruta D) Payas

185 Gokshur sidhda ghrut is advised in the_______month of pregnancy.

A) Third B) Sixth

C) Fifth D) Seventh

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186 In the eighth month of pregnancy Asthapan basti is advised by________.

A) Sushrut Achary B) Charak Achary

C) Kashyap Achary D) Harita

187 Anuvasan basti is advised in _____month of pregnancy.

A) Ninth B) Seventh

C) Sixth D) Tenth

188 Total duration of pregnancy is______.

A) 260days B) 280 days

C) 240 days D) 300 days

189 According to Sharangdhar samhita Mudhgarbha is ________.

A) Garbhopdrav B) Garbha vyapad

C) Garbhini vyapad D) Garbhini makkal

190 Jarayu dosha garbha-vyapad is described by _________.

A) Charak samhita B) Sushrut samhita

C) Ashtang hruday D) Sharangdhar samhita

191 _________ is not described by Sharangdhar samhita.

A) Lingarbha B) Nagodar

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 C) Gudhgarbha D) Upvishtak

192. Expulsion of fetus upto fourth month of pregnancy is termed as_________.

A) Avashesh garbha B) Garbhastrav

C) Aamgarbha D) Garbhapat

193 Expulsion of fetus after fourth month of pregnancy is termed as_________.

A) Lingarbha B) Garbhastrav

C) Garbhakshay D) Garbhapat

194 ________ahar is hetu of garbha strav.

A) Madhur rasatmak B) Tikta, sheeta

C) Katu, tikshna D) Lavan

195 Asthapan chikitsa is given in_____awastha of garbhastrav.

A) Purvarup B) Rupa

C) Anavashesh D) Avashesh

196 Shodhan chikitsa is given in________awastha of garbhastrav.

A) Purvarup B) Rupa

C) Aam D) Anavashesh

197 ____is the cause of second trimester abortion.

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 A) Cervical polyp B) Cervical erosion

C) Cervicitis D) Cervical incompitance

198 Charak samhita has mentioned ____as lakshan of garbhastrav.

A) {drSaula B) kTISaula

C) pauYpama paSyaota D) gaBa_st~MMasa

199 After expulsion of all products of conception in garbhapat, __________should be

given for complete evacuation of uterus & relief of pain.
A) Mand B) Madyapan

C) Vilepi D) Peya

200 Conditions in which miscarriage has started but continuation of pregnancy is

possible, is termed as____abortion.
A) Incomplete B) Threatened

C) Missed D) Inevitable

201 Abortion where the changes have progressed to a state from where continuation of
pregnancy is impossible is called as------------abortion.
A) Missed B) Complete

C) Incomplete D) Inevitable

202 When the fetus is _______& retain inside the uterus for a variable period, it is called
as missed abortion.
A) Live B) Obstructed

C) Dead D) Infected

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203 Growth of fetus remains as it is in ______ garbha-vyapad.

A) Nagodar B) Upvishtak

C) Garbhkshaya D) Jarayudosha

204 Upvishtak occurs at _________ awastha of garbha.

A) Sanjatsar B) Aam

C) Asanjatsar D) Asar

205 Growth of fetus is decreased in ____ garbhavyapad.

A) Garbhakshay B) Nagodar

C) Lingarbha D) Upvishtak

206 According to Ashtang Sangrah cause of nagodar is__________.

A) Excessive bleeding either daily or B) Leucorrhoea

monthly

C) Purulent vaginal discharge D) Foul smelling discharge

207 ____________dravyas are used for the growth of fetus in Nagodar & Upvishtak.

A) Bruhaniy B) Jeevaniy

C) Adhibhoutik D) All of above

208 Garbha hrudspandan is absent in_________.

A) Mrutagarbh B) Upvishak

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 C) Garbhakshay D) Garbhavrudhdi

209 Udarsparsh is ___________ in Mrutagarbha

A) Khar B) Kathin & sheeta

C) Shethil D) Ushan

210 In Upavishtak & nagodar, when fetus does not attain growth __________drugs are
used for abortion.
A) Madhur B) Sheet

C) Tikshan D) Guru

211 For expulsion of Mrutagarbha ________chikitsa is advised.

A) Mudhgarbha B) Jaraudosha

C) Garbhastrav D) Jarayupatan

212 Due to absence of __________,Raktagulma does not develop in young girls.

A) Dauhruda B) Raja

C) Stana D) Romraji

213 In Raktagulm, raja gets accumulated in ________.

A) Gud B) Basti

C) Udar D) Garbhashay

214 Raktagulma develops only in ______.

A) Rajaswala B) Adhirudha

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 C) Vrudhha D) Bala

215 ______is the cardinal symptom of Raktagulm.

A) Sanvrutta garbhashay mukh B) Artava avrodha

C) Mutrasanga D) Mutra daha

216 Raktagulma shall be treated after__________month of its onset.

A) 9th B) 12th

C) 8th D) 10th

217 Kashyap Samhita advised,use of________yantra in the treatment of Raktagulm.

A) Nadi B) Ghatika

C) Swastik D) Tal

218 Serum B-hCG is increases more than normal in_______condition.

A) I.U.D B) Vesicular mole

C) Ectopic pregnancy D) I.U.G.R

219 Chances of development of__________is high in vesicular mole.

A) CaCX B) Carcinoma of vagina

C) Choriocarcinoma D) Ca.ovary

220 _______is benign neoplasm of the chorionic villi.

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 A) Chorionic cleavage B) Hydatiform mole

C) Chorionic membranes D) Blighted ovum

221 Yama garbha develops due to vitiated _________dosha.

A) Vata B) Kaph

C) Pitta D) Vat-kaph

222 Cause of yamagarbha is_______.

A) Adharma B) Purvakarm

C) Dwesha D) Irsha

223 Death of yamagarbha is seen in ____________.

A) Jatharini B) Vadvamukhi

C) Revati D) Indravadva

224 Death of one fetus is seen in_________.

A) Indravadva B) Revati

C) Jatharini D) Vadvamukhi

225 Division of _______is done by vata dosha in yamagarbha.

A) Rakta B) Aartva

C) Streebeej D) Falit beej

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226 Dizygotic twins develop from fertilization of ___ ova.

A) Four B) Two

C) Three D) One

227 Monozygotic twins develop from fertilization of _________ova.

A) Two B) Three

C) Single D) Four

228 Sex of fetus are differs in____________twins.

A) Monozygotic B) Diamniotic

C) Dichorionic D) Dizygotic

229 97% of ectopic pregnancy occurs at _______site.

A) Tubal B) Ovarian

C) Cervical D) Angular

230 Termination of ectopic pregnancy occurs within _______in isthmus part.

A) 10 wks B) 2 to 3 wks

C) 12 wks D) 6 to 8 wks

231 Confirmed diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy could be done by____.

A) Abdominal examination B) Ultrasonography

C) Blood investigations D) P.V. Examination

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232 Ectopic pregnancy defined as, fertilized ovum implanted & developed outside
the_____ cavity.
A) Abdominal B) Cervical

C) Bladder D) Uterine

233 Causes of ectopic pregnancy are______.

A) P.I.D B) Tuboplasty

C) Tubal spasm D) All of these

234 _____________is positive in 95% of ectopic pregnancy.

A) HBsAg B) COVID-19

C) HIV D) UPT

235 ____________presentation may lead to locking of Twins.

A) Both vertex B) First vertex & second breach

C) Both breach D) First breach & second vertex

236 “{r]stana{drvalaIivaSaoYaroKaa…..” in sagarbhawastha is called as ____.

A) Kikkisa B) Vaivarna

C) Pidaka D) Pitika

237 Sneha pichu is advised during_______month, in garbhini paricharya.

A) 10th B) 8th

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 C) 9th D) 7th

238 “Pruthakparnyadi siddha ghrita is advised during________ month, in garbhini

paricharya.
A) Sixth B) Second

C) Eighth D) Seventh

239 Upshushak garbha is also called as________garbha.

A) Mrut B) Lina

C) Upvishtak D) Nagodar

240 According to Madhukosha tika, expulsion of garbha till________month of pregnancy

is called as Garbhastrav.
A) Fourth B) Third

C) Fifth D) Sixth

241 One of the following is not the type of abdominal hysterectomy.

A) Total B) Pan

C) Lower segment D) Subtotal

242 What could be the synonym for vandhytvikaran shastrakarma in modern science?

A) Appendisectomy B) Vasectomy

C) Hysterectomy D) Tubectomy

243 Types of Tubectomy are____________.

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 A) Laparoscopy B) Laparotomy

C) Vaginal D) All of the above

244 ___________is the indication of vaginal hysterectomy.

A) Fibroid uterus B) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding

C) Uterine Prolapse D) Carcinoma of Cervix

245 The surgery performed to remove uterus via abdomen is______

A) Hysterectomy B) Hysteroscopy

C) Hysterotomy D) None of the above

246 Cervical polyp can be removed________.

A) Per Rectum B) Abdominally

C) Through Pouch of Duglas D) Vaginally

247 ______is the benign type of Polyp.

A) Wart B) Dermoid

C) Mucous D) Cervicitis

248 ______is the indication of Abdominal hysterectomy.

A) Large uterine fibroid B) Cystocele

C) Prolapse of uterus D) Rectocele

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249 -----------method is the modified method for female sterilization.

A) Uchida B) Madlener’s

C) Pomeroy’s D) Irving’s

250 Tubectomy is done through small abdominal incision called as__________.

A) Mini lap B) Pomeroy

C) Uchida D) Irving

251. Harita described _ _ _ _ _ Garbhasya Upadrava.

A) 2 B) 4

C) 6 D) 8

252. ------ is advised for Garbhini Chardi in Harita Samhita.

A) Bhunimba kalka with Sharkara B) Kutaki

C) Shantavari D) Ashvagandha

253. Bilva majja with Lajambu is given for Garbhini Chardi is quoted by _ _ _ _ _.

A) Charaka B) Yoga Ratnakar

C) Sushruta D) Vagbhata

254. According to Yoga Ratnakar, Decoction (Quatha) of Shunti & Bilva with Yava sattu
is given for Garbhini _-----.
A) Kasa B) Shwasa

C) Chardi & Atisara D) Arbuda

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255. In Garbhini Chardi, Kustumbari Kalka with Tandulodaka & sharkara is mentioned by
_ _ _ _ _.
A) Charaka B) Sushruta

C) Vagbhata D) Yoga Ratnakar

256. According to Kashyapa samhita, Matulunga Rasa, Laja, Kola Majja, Anjana, Dadima
Sara with Sharkara & Kshaudra is given in _ _ _ _ _ chardi in Garbhini.
A) Vataja B) Pittaja

C) Kaphaja D) Sannipatika

257. According to Kashyapa Samhita, amla-Dadima Rasa with Mahisha Mansa Rasa
without Lavana is given in _ _ _ _ _ chardi in Garbhini.
A) Vataja B) Pittaja

C) Kaphaja D) Sannipatika

258. According to Kashyapa Samhita Madhu & Chaturjata Kalka with Tandulodaka is
given in _ _ _ _ _ chardi in Garbhini.
A) Vataja B) Pittaja

C) Kaphaja D) Sannipatika

259. According to Kashyapa Samhita, Decoction of Aamra & Jambu with madhu is given
in _ _ _ _ _ chardi in Garbhini.
A) Vataja B) Pittaja

C) Kaphaja D) Sannipatika

260. According to Kashyapa Samhita, Decoction of root of Punaranava & Bhadradaru

mixed with honey should be given in _ _ _ _ _ Garbhini chardi.
A) Vataja B) Pittaja

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 C) Kaphaja D) Krimija

261. According to _ _ _ _ _ Aacharya, Bhunimba kalka with Madhu is given for Garbhini
Hritkleda.
A) Harita B) Charaka

C) Sushruta D) Vagbhata

262. According to Kashyapacharya, _ _ _ _ _ is most troublesome in Garbhini.

A) Atisara B) Jwara

C) Chardi D) Kasa

263. According to _ _ _ _ _ Acharya, excessive hunger, exertion, massage, dryness, heat,

retention of feces are the causative factors of Garbhini Jwara.
A) Charaka B) Sushruta

C) Kashyapa D) Vagabhata

264. One day fast followed by peya without sneha & lavana is advised in Garbhini---------.

A) Kasa B) Shwasa

C) Shotha D) Jwara

265. Lone Yavagu, is advised for Garbhini jwara in _ _ _ _ _samhita.

A) Kashyapa B) Charaka

C) Sushruta D) Vagabhata

266. Medicine shall not be given in Garbhini----------before 4th month of pregnancy.

A) Kasa B) Jwara

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 C) Shwasa D) Shotha

267. Abhyanga is contraindicated in taruna jwara is mentioned in -------.

A) Charaka B) Sushruta

C) Kashyapa D) Vagbhata

268. According to Yoga Ratnakar, _ _ _ _ _ kwath is given for Garbhini Atisara,

A) Kutaki B) Shatavari

C) Ashwagandha D) Hriberadi.

269. The treatment of Garbhini Jwaratisara, Aamatisara & Raktatisara is--------------.

A) Samanga, Madhuka Lodhra, Phanita B) Samanga, with sharkara

with sharkara

C) Madhuka Lodhra, with sharkara D) Lodhra, Phanita with sharkara

270. The treatment of Garbhini _ _ _ _ _ is cold milk medicated with Madhurasa & mixed
with honey.
A) Atisara B) Parikartika

C) Pravahika D) Grahani

271. Daruna Virechana is contraindicated in Garbhini -----------.

A) Pandu B) Chardi

C) Shopha D) Kasa

272. Chandana, Madhuka, Ushira, Nagapushpa etc. is described by ----- Acharya as

Shophahara Lep in Garbhini.
A) Charaka B) Sushruta

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 C) Vagbhata D) Yoga Ratnakar

273. The massage of powdered Shrungabera, Katuka, & Keshara (saffron) of ‘Matulunga
over teeth (gums) & tongue, followed by retention of mouthful hot water in Garbhini-
------.
A) Aruchi B) Kasa

C) Shwasa D) Shopha

274. Cooled decoction of ‘Triphala, mixed with Haritaki, Nagara, & Guda is advised in
Garbhini ----------------.
A) Pandu B) Vibandha

C) Shopha D) Kasa

275. Quadrilateral area of the foetal head, bounded anteriorly by the anterior fontanelle &
coronal sutures, posteriorly by posterior fontanelle & lambdoidal suture, & Laterally
by arbitrary lines through the parietal eminences, is called as _ _ _ _ _.
A) Vertex B) Brow

C) Face D) Bregma

276. The area from the junction of the chin or floor of the mouth & neck to the root of the
nose & supraorbital ridges, is called as _ _ _ _ _.
A) Vertex B) Brow

C) Face D) Bregma

277. The area from the root of the nose & supra orbital ridges to the anterior fontanelle &
coronal sutures, is called as _ _ _ _ _.
A) Vertex B) Brow

C) Face D) Bregma

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278. _ _ _ _ _ suture lies between two halves of the frontal bones.

A) Sagittal B) Frontal

C) Coronal D) Lambdoidal

279. _ _ _ _ _ suture lies across the vault of the skull in the midline between the parietal
bones.
A) Sagittal B) Frontal

C) Coronal D) Lambdoidal

280. _ _ _ _ _ suture separates the frontal bone from the parietal bones on either side.

A) Sagittal B) Frontal

C) Coronal D) Lambdoidal

281. _ _ _ _ _ sutures separate the parietal bones from the occipital bone on either side.

A) Sagittal B) Frontal

C) Coronal D) Lambdoidal

282. According to Ashtanga Sangraha -------------is advised in the 8th month, for Garbhini
Udavarta.
A) Vaman B) Virechana

C) Anuvasan Basti D) Nasya

283. The paste of Chandan & Mrinala is applied in------------.

A) Kikkisa B) Pandu

C) Kushta D) Vaivarnya

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284. ------------------are the Lakshana of Garbhini Kikkisa.

A) Kandu & Vidaha B) Hrullasa, Jwara

C) Aruchi , Sweda D) Vibandha, Atisar

285. Kartanvata Shula is the characteristic of Garbhini _ _ _ _ _.

A) Atisara B) Pravahika

C) Parikartika D) Grahani

286. “ dSamaasaM gaBa-vaasa:” is mentioned in ---------.

A) Charaka B) Sushruta

C) Kashyapa D) Vagbhata

287. According to Sushruts Aacharya, Prakruta Prasava Kala varies from _ _ _ _ _ masa.

A) 5th to 6th B) 8th to 9th

C) 7th to 8th D) 9th to 12th

288. The door of Sutikagara shall face towards _ _ _ _ _ as quoted in Charaka.

A) Purva or Uttara B) Pashchima

C) Dakshina D) Pashchima/Dakshina

289. Colour of Sutikagar Bhumi for Brahman is _ _ _ _as per Sushruta Aacharya.

A) Shweta B) Rakta

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 C) Pita D) Krushna

290. Colour of Sutikagar Bhumi for Kshatriya is _ _ _ _as per Sushruta Aacharya.

A) Shweta B) Rakta

C) Pita D) Krushna

291. Colour of Sutikagar Bhumi for vaishya is _ _ _ _as per Sushruta Aacharya.

A) Shweta B) Rakta

C) Pita D) Krushna

292. Colour of Sutikagar Bhumi for shudra is _ _ _ _as per Sushruta Aacharya.

A) Shweta B) Rakta

C) Pita D) Krushna

293. The door of Sutikagara shall face towards _ _ _ _ as quoted in Sushruta.

A) Purva/Dakshin B) Pashchim

C) Uttar D) Pashchim/Uttar

294. Dimensions of sutikagar are _ _ _ _ _hasta.

A) 8×4 B) 7 × 5

C) 9×6 D) 10 × 7

295. Entry of garbhini in Sutikagara is advised during _ _ _ _ _ masa.

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 A) 7th B) 8th

C) 9th D) 10th

296. -------- is responsible for Garbha Nishkramana.

A) Prana B) Prasut maruta

C) Udana D) Vyana

297. ‘स योन _िं _ _ _ _ यानि स्वभावाि ् प्रसविं प्रनि| (सु॰ सिं॰ शा॰ ५\४५)
A) शशरसा B) हस्िसा

C) पादसा D) स्स्िकसा

298. Punarvasu Atreya opines that------being heaviest comes first.

A) Breech B) Head

C) Leg D) Cord

299. ‘जािे हह शशथिले कुक्षौ…….| occurs in _ _ _ _ _ prasava Avashtha.

A) Upasthita Prasava B) Prajayini

C) Pajanayishyamana D) Aasanna Prasava

300. ‘कटीपष्ृ ठिं प्रनि समन्िाव्दे द ा’ occurs in _ _ _ _ _ prasava Aavashtha.

A) Upasthita Prasava B) Prajayini

C) Prajanayishymana D) Kumari

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301. ---------strava presents at ‘Putra Janmani’.

A) Tantri varna B) Kinshukodaka

C) Nimbodaka D) Sharkarodaka

302. ---------strava presents at ‘Putrika Janmani’.

A) Tantri varna B) Kinshukodaka

C) Nimbodaka D) Sharkarodaka

303. yaaonaOmauKaacClaoSmaaca…. Is the sign of ---------

A) Prajayini B) Upasthita Prasava

C) Prajanayishyamana D) Kumari

304. kRtamaMgalaisvastaIvaacanaaM kaumaarpairvaRtaaM……. is advised in -----

A) Prajayini B) Upasthita Prasava

C) Prajanayishyamana D) Aasanna Prasava

305. _ _ _ _ _ churna inhalation is indicated for shighra prasava.

A) Vacha, Langli B) Shatavari

C) Ashwagandha D) Sharkara

306. Drinking of ---------is advised in Prajanayishyamana Aavastha.

A) Jal B) Ghruta yukta Yavagu.

C) Narikel jal D) Dugdha

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307. Yonidhupan of-------- is advised in Prajanayishyamana Aavastha for shigra prasava.

A) Bhurjapatra, Shinshipa B) Ajamoda

C) Nimbapatra D) Sarshap

308. -------------is a multisystem disorder of unknown etiology characterized by

development of hypertension to the extent of 140/90 mm Hg or more with proteinuria
after the 20th week in a previously normotensive and nonproteinuric woman.
A) Jaundice B) Preeclampsia

C) APH D) PPH

309. An absolute rise of blood pressure of at least ---------mm of Hg. if the previous blood
pressure is not known or a rise in systolic pressure of at least 30 mm Hg, or a rise in
diastolic pressure of at least 15 mm Hg over the previously known blood pressure is
called pregnancy-induced hypertension.
A) 120/ 80 B) 130/70

C) 140/90 D) 100/70

310. In Severe PIH, A persistent systolic blood pressure above or equal to

A) 160 mm Hg or diastolic pressure B) 140 mm Hg or diastolic pressure

above 90 mm Hg. above 110 mm Hg.
C) 100 mm Hg or diastolic pressure D) 160 mm Hg or diastolic pressure
above 90 mm Hg. above 110 mm Hg.

311. Pre-eclamptic state in pregnancy complicated with _ _ _ _ _ is called as eclamsia.

A) convulsion B) Jaundice

C) Cough D) Breathlessness

312. Haemorrhage from the genital tract occurring after 28 weeks of pregnancy but before
birth of the baby is called as _ _ _ _ _.
A) Abortion B) APH

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 C) PPH D) Vesicular Mole

313. Placenta is implanted partially or completely on the lower Uterine segment is called
as _ _ _ _ _.
A) Abruptio Placenta B) Battledore Placenta

C) Placenta Praevia D) Placenta succenturiata

314. In Placenta praevia, only the lower margin of the placenta covers the upper part of the
lower uterine segment, but the rest lies at the upper uterine segment, in _ _ _ _ _
degree.
A) 1st B) 2nd

C) 3rd D) 4th

315. In Placenta Praevia, the edge of the Placenta reaches the margin of the internal OS,
but Placenta does not cover it, in _ _ _ _ _ Degree.
A) 1st B) 2nd

C) 3rd D) 4th

316. In Placenta Praevia, the Placenta covers the internal OS, when it is closed, but
partially covers it, when fully dilated in _ _ _ _ _ Degree.
A) 1st B) 2nd

C) 3rd D) 4th

317. In Placenta Praevia, the placenta completely covers the internal OS, even after it is
fully dilated, in _ _ _ _ _ Degree.
A) 1st B) 2nd

C) 3rd D) 4th

318. Vaginal bleeding is revealed, bright red, painless & recurrent in _ _ _ _ _

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 A) Placenta Praevia B) Abruptio Placentae

C) Vomiting in pregnancy D) Jaundice in pregnancy

319. Vaginal bleeding is either concealed or revealed but dark red, painful & continuous in
_ _ _ _ _.
A) Placenta Praevia B) Abruptio placentae

C) Vomiting in pregnancy D) Jaundice in pregnancy

320. Pain in abdomen is absent in _ _ _ _ _.

A) Placenta Praevia B) Abruptio placentae

C) Vomiting in pregnancy D) HIV in pregnancy

321. Pain in abdomen is present in _ _ _ _ _.

A) Placenta Praevia B) Abruptio placentae

C) Vomiting in pregnancy D) Diabetes in pregnancy

322. The mechanisms of spontaneous control of bleeding are:

A) Thrombosis of the open sinuses, B) Thrombosis of the open sinuses,

Mechanical pressure by the
presenting part, Placental infarction.
C) Thrombosis of the open sinuses, D) Mechanical pressure by the
Placental infarction. presenting part, Placental infarction.

323. Foetus felt with difficulty & absence of foetal heart sound is in _ _ _ _ _.

A) Vaginal bleeding B) Abruptio placentae

C) Gestational diabetes D) Intrauterine growth retardation

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324. Pregnancy at & above the age of _ _ _ _ _ years is called as High Risk Pregnancy

A) 20 B) 25

C) 27 D) 35

325. Pregnancy at & below the age of _ _ _ _ _ years, is termed as High Risk Pregnancy.

A) 19 B) 25

C) 30 D) 32

326. Grand multipara if more than _ _ _ _ _ pregnancies is called as High Risk Pregnancy

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4

327. All gravidae with height less than _ _ _ _ _ cm is called as High Risk Pregnancy.

A) 145 B) 150

C) 155 D) 160

328. The process of expulsion, per vagina of mature foetus, presented by vertex, followed
by that of after births, where parturition is uncomplicated, spontaneous & not delayed,
is called as _ _ _ _ .
A) Abnormal Labour B) Normal Labour

C) Abnormal Puerperium D) Normal Puerperium

329. A woman who is pregnant for the -------- time is primigravida.

A) 1st B) 2nd

C) 3rd D) 4th

330. The basic elements involved in the uterine contractile systems are: (a) actin, (b)
myosin, (c) adenosine
triphosphate (ATP), (d) the enzyme myosin light chain kinase (MLCK), and (e)
Ca++.
A) (a) actin, (b) myosin, B) (a) actin, (b) myosin, (c) adenosine

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 triphosphate (ATP), (d) the enzyme
myosin light chain kinase (MLCK),
and (e) Ca++.

C) (a) actin, (b) myosin, (c) adenosine D) (a) actin, (b) myosin, (c) adenosine
triphosphate (ATP), (d) the enzyme triphosphate (ATP),
myosin light chain kinase (MLCK),
and

331. The Labour becomes easy when the woman passes through the 1st Labour between the
age of _ _ _ _ _ years.
A) 19- 23 B) 25- 30

C) 30- 35 D) 35- 40

332. The labour becomes more difficult in primigravida over _ _ _ _ _ years of age.

A) 20 B) 25

C) 28 D) 30

333. The labour becomes more difficult in multipara over _ _ _ _ _ years of age.

A) 35 B) 30

C) 25 D) 20

334. Risk of labour increases with the _ _ _ _ _ labour onwards.

A) 1st B) 2nd

C) 3rd D) 5th

335. From the onset of labour to the full dilatation of the cervix, is called as _ _ _ _ _ stage
of labour.

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 A) 1st B) 2nd

C) 3rd D) 4th

336. The duration of 1st stage of labour is about _ _ _ _ _ hours, in primigravida.

A) 5 B) 10

C) 15 D) 20

337. The duration of 1st stage of labour is about _ _ _ _ _ hours, in multigravida.

A) 1 B) 2

C) 5 D) 7

338. The stage from the full dilatation of the cervix, to the expulsion of the baby, is called
as _ _ _ _ _ stage of labour.
A) 1st B) 2nd

C) 3rd D) 4th

339. The duration of 2nd stage of labour is about _ _ _ _ _ hours, in primigravids.

A) ½ B) 1

C) 3 D) 5

340. The duration of 2nd stage of labour is about _ _ _ _ _ hours, in multigravida.

A) ½ B) 2

C) 3 D) 4

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341. The stage from the birth of the baby to the expulsion of the placenta, umbilical cord &
membranes is called as _ _ _ _ _ stage of labour.
A) 1st B) 2nd

C) 3rd D) 4th

342. After separation of placenta it takes about ------ minutes in conventional management
for the placenta to separate.
A) 5 B) 30

C) 35 D) 38

343. Total duration of normal labour in primigravida is about _ _ _ _ _ hours.

A) 10 B) 12

C) 14 D) 18

344. Total duration of normal labour in multigravida is about _ _ _ _ _ hours.

A) 2 B) 4

C) 6 D) 10

345. With the onset of labor pain,

A) The cervical canal begins to dilate B) The cervical canal begins to dilate
more in the upper part than in the more in the upper part than in the
lower, the former being lower.
accompanied by corresponding
stretching of the lower uterine
segment.
C) The cervical canal begins to dilate D) The cervical canal begins to dilate
by corresponding stretching of the in the lower.
lower uterine segment.

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346. Full dilatation of the cervix means the diameter of the cervical canal at external OS is
_ _ _ _ _ cm.
A) 6 B) 8

C) 10 D) 12

347. In _ _ _ _ _ cm, dilatation of the OS, cervical lip cannot be felt & the cervix becomes
almost continuous with vaginal wall.
A) 8 B) 10

C) 12 D) 14

348. Vis-a-tergo means

A) Cervical dilatation B) Uterine rupture

C) Lower segment formation D) The final phase of dilatation and

retraction of the cervix is achieved
by downward thrust of the
presenting part of the fetus and
upward pull of the cervix over the
lower segment.

349. The process of Lower uterine segment formation is

A) The wall of the upper segment B) The wall of the upper segment
becomes progressively thickened becomes progressively thin
with progressive thinning of the
lower segment.

C) The wall of the upper segment D) Progressive thickening of the lower

becomes progressively thickened segment.

350. Entire cervical canal merging with lower segment during labour is called as _ _ _ _ _
% effacement.
A) 30 B) 50

C) 80 D) 100

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351. --------- pain is defined as “During second stage of labour woman ‘Urges to Push’
during each painful contraction”
A) Bearing Down B) Abdominal

C) Vaginal D) Anal

352. Gradual shortening of cervical canal with thinning of cervix is called as _ _ _ _ _.

A) Dilatation B) Effacement

C) Contraction D) Retraction

353. The series of movements, adopted by foetus, in its birth passage, during expulsion in
normal Labour, called as _ _ _ _ _ of labour.
A) Causes B) Symptoms

C) Mechanism D) Signs

354. In normal Labour _ _ _ _ _ is the presenting part which is either on LOA or ROA
position.
A) Breech B) Brow

C) Face D) Vertex

355. In ROA engagement of Vertex, occurs in the _ _ _ _ _ diameter of pelvis with occiput
lying at right anterior quadrant.
A) Right Oblique B) Left Oblique

C) Right transverse D) Left transverse

356. After birth of foetal head in LOA position occiput rotates ⅛th of a circle, on the left
side, to undo the twist in the neck, called as _ _ _ _ _.
A) Internal Rotation B) Extension

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 C) Restitution D) External Rotation

357. Shoulders & trunk of foetus are born by _ _ _ _ _ movement.

A) Extension B) Lateral Flexion

C) Restitution D) External Rotation

358. When cervix slowly dilates from 2 cm. to 3 cm. is called as _ _ _ _ _.

A) Latent phase B) Active phase

C) Acceleration D) Deceleration

359. The discharge of blood stained cervical mucus, during Labour is called as _ _ _ _ _.

A) Abortion B) APH

C) PPH D) Show

360. During the time of Labour, Episiotomy of taken just before _ _ _ _ _.

A) Stage of crowing B) Extenion

C) Restitution D) Lateral Flexion

361. After expulsion of anterior shoulder, injection _ _ _ _ _ is given.

A) Epidosin B) Methergin

C) Atropine D) Compose

362. Normal Foetal Heart Rate is _ _ _ _ _.

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 A) 80-90/min B) 90-100/min

C) 160/170/min D) 120-160/min

363. Decrease of Haemologin below 11 gm% is called as _ _ _ _ _ in pregnancy

A) Anaemia B) Jaundice

C) Heart Disease D) Diabetes Mellitus

364. Severe vomiting of pregnancy, causing effect on mother’s health, is called as _ _ _ _

A) Pyrexia B) Jaundice

C) Hyper Emesis Gravidarum D) Ectopic pregnancy

365. In Eclampsia, the head may be drawn to one side & there are twitching of the hands &
face with rolling of the eyes, the patient lies unconscious, in _ _ _ _ _ stage.
A) Tonic B) Pre Monitory

C) Clonic D) Coma

366. In Eclampsia, the entire body lies in a state of spasm & rigidity with clenching of the
hands, the respiration ceases, the tongue protrudes between the teeth, the patient
becomes cyanosed in _ _ _ _ _ stage.
A) Pre Monitory B) Tonic

C) Clonic D) Coma

367. In Eclampsia, convulsions occurs, the muscles of the body spasmodically contract &
relax the biting of tongue occurs, blood-stained secretion come out of the mouth &
nose, light respiratory movements occurs & cyanosis passes off in _ _ _ _ _ stage.
A) Clonic B) Pre monitory

C) Tonic D) Coma

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368. The term eclampsia is derived from a Greek word, meaning

A) “like a flash of cloud”. B) “like a flash of thunder”.

C) “like a flash of lightening”. D) “like a flash of rainbow”.

369. In pregnancy retinal changes may be seen in _ _ _ _ _.

A) Placenta Praevia B) Abruption Placenta

C) Anemia D) Pre Eclampsia

370. Cervical biopsy is done to exclude cervical _ _ _ _ _.

A) Carcinoma B) Fibroid

C) Endometriosis D) Ovarian Cyst

371. Endometrial biopsy is done to detect _ _ _ _ _.

A) Ovarian cyst B) HEELP syndrom

C) Hormonal status, Endometrial D) Sub mucous Fibroid

carcinoma, Endometrial
Tuberculosis

372. _ _ _ _ _ is used for early detection of cervical malignancy.

A) PAP smear, cervical biopsy, B) HSG

colposcopy

C) USG D) CT Scan

373. Marsupilisation operation is done for _ _ _ _ _ cyst.

A) Ovarian B) Bartholin

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 C) Broad ligament D) Pancreatic

374. In the Mechanism of normal labour, in internal rotation, the occiput rotates through _
_ _ _ _ of a circle, to lie under the pubic arch.
A) ½ B) ¼

C) 1/6 D) ⅛

375. The presenting part lies at the level of ischial spine, is called as _ _ _ _ _ station in
normal labour.

A) 0 B) -1

C) -2 D) +1

376 According to Harit Samhita………. is the cause of ‘Akal-Prasav’

A) Dosh bala B) Garbhopadrav

C) Garbhavriddhi D) Garbhapat

377 Expulsion of foetus before Prakrut-prasavkal is termed as………..

A) Kalatit prasav B) Akal prasav

C) Vikrut prasav D) Vilambit prasav

378 Aggravated Vayu located in Shukra is the cause of ……….

A) Vilambit prasav B) Akal prasav

C) Kalatit prasav D) Post maturity

379 According to Yogratnakar and Bhavmishra…….. is the cause of Kalatit prasav

A) Kaphadosha B) Mrutgarbha

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 C) Mudhgarbha D) Prasav-marg sankoch

380 According to Charak Samhita intrauterine stay of foetus after tenth month is

A) Normal B) Abnormal

C) Common D) Rare

381 -----is the cause of Vilambit prasav.

A) Grahishool B) Vyan vayu

C) Vilambit Aavi D) Apan vayu

382 -------- is mentioned in dhupan chikitsa for the treatment of Garbhsang.

A) Nimb churn B) Ashok churn

C) Slough of black snake D) Sarshap

383 ------is tied over arms or legs for easy delivery.

A) Balamool B) Pippali mool

C) Hiranyapushpi mool D) Shatavari

384 An ointment of Krishna and vacha pestled with water and mixed with castor oil is for -
-------
A) Vedanaharyoga B) Shothahar lepa

C) Sukhprasav yoga D) Pachanyoga

385 ----------- is one of the important causes of Mudhagarbha

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 A) Pittaprakop B) Dushta Kapha

C) Vigun Apan D) Aavi

386 The etiology of abortions and Mritagarbha should be considered as causative factor for
……….
A) Mudhagarbha B) Garbhapat

C) Aparsang D) Prasav

387 --------- is also the cause of Garbhasang.

A) Yoni samvaran B) Yonivivrutata

C) Yonikandu D) Yonidaha

388 --- has been enlisted under clinical features of bad prognosis of Mudhagarbha.

A) Yoniarsha B) Yoni bhransha

C) Yonidaha D) Yonikandu

389 The foetus getting obstructed in its passage and having absence of further progress is
known as ……………
A) Garbhastrav B) Garbhapat

C) Mudhagarbha D) Aparsang

390 Vagbhatachary has described only -------------in relation to treatment of Mudhagarbha.

A) Different positions B) Different gatis

C) Different factors D) Apan vayu

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391 Mudhagarbha are of ---------------categories according to Sushrutacharya.

A) Four B) Six

C) Three D) Eight

392 As per doshabheda, Harita describes ---------------types of Mudhagarbha.

A) Two B) Four

C) Seven D) Eight

393 Harita describes seven types of Mudhagarbha on ------------ basis.

A) Position B) Gati

C) Dosha pradhanya D) Kal

394 Different gatis are explained in relation to treatment of Mudhagarbha by--------

A) Harit B) Bhel

C) Charak D) Vagbhata

395 Madhavnidan also described Mudhagarbha in ----------- categories.

A) Two B) Three

C) Four D) Six

396 The foetus obstructs like a wedge having both hands, feet and head upwards is….. .

A) Pratikhur B) Keel

C) Bijak D) Parigha

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397 Foetus gets obstructed by body presenting with head, hands and feet all together is
……. .
A) Keel B) Pratikhur

C) Prijak D) Parigha

398 Foetus gets obstructed head along with one hand is ……. .

A) Keel B) Pratikhur

C) Bijak D) Parigha

399 In this position the foetus obstructs the passage just like rod or beam used for shutting
the doors is…… .
A) Keel B) Pratikhur

C) Bijak D) Parigha

400 Bastishul, Aadhman are found in ----------type of Mudhagarbha

A) Vatik B) Paitik

C) Shlaishmik D) Raktaj

401 Jwar, Daha, Trishna are observed in----------- type of Mudhagarbha.

A) Vatik B) Paitik

C) Shlaishmik D) Raktaj

402 Aalasya, Tandra are observed in ------type of Mudhagarbha

A) Vatik B) Paitik

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 C) Shlaishmik D) Raktaj

403 How many “gaita” of maUZgaBa- are explained by Sushrut.

A) Two B) Three

C) Five D) Four

404 ----------, Makkal and Yonisamvaran are incurable characteristics of Mudhagarbha.

A) Garbhakosh parasanga B) Vilambitaavi

C) Shul D) Daha

405 --------is mentioned as asadhya Mudhagarbha by Vagbhatachary.

A) Keel B) Pratikhur

C) Bijak D) Vishkambha

406 Vishkambha is mentioned as asadhya Mudhgarbha by---------------

A) Sushrut B) Harit

C) Vagbhata D) Charak

407 According to Indutika -------- is required in surgical treatment of Mudhgarbha.

A) Consent B) Money

C) Medicines D) Guardian

408 Consent of guardian before surgical intervention in the treatment of Mudhagarbha is

advised by.----------------------------

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 A) Indutika B) Yogratnakar

C) Charak D) Kashyap

409 Parigha Mudhgarbha can be correlated with ……. malpresentation according to

modern science.
A) Longitudinal lie B) Transverse lie

C) Vertex D) Breech

410 Keel Mudhagarbha is also termed as ……..according to Madhavnidan.

A) Sankilak B) Pratikhur

C) Bijak D) Parigh

411 ----------- type of Mudhgarbha can be correlated with compound presentation of foetus
according to modern science.
A) Pratikhur B) Parigha

C) Sankilak D) Paitik

412 ‘असम्यक् आगिम ् अपत्यपिम ् ......’ is the characteristic of ……..

A) Leengarbha B) Mritgarbha

C) Mudhgarbha D) Nagodara

413 ‘ऊर्धववबाहुशशरोपादो.....’ means type of Mudhagarbha

A) Keel B) Parigh

C) Pratikhur D) Bijak

414 According to Kashyapa samhita, in sutikavastha, ---------sneha is used for snehpana

specially after the birth of male baby.

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 A) Ghrit B) Tail

C) Vasa D) Majja

415 --------- is one of the hetus of sutikaroga according to Yogratnakar.

A) Apatarpan B) Yonigat raktastrav

C) Mithyopchar D) Snehan

416 According to Kashyap samhita sutikarogas are-------- in number.

A) 10 B) 25

C) 64 D) 4

417 64 sutikarogas are mentioned in -------- samhita.

A) Ashtang sangrah B) Kashyap

C) Sushrut D) Bhavmishra

418 In sutika, stanyaj jwar appears on --------- day after prasav.

A) 5th & 2nd B) 3rd & 4th

C) 8th & 9th D) 15th

419 In ------------desh, Snehpan is contraindicated in sutikavastha.

A) Sadharan desh B) Jangal

C) Anup D) Marupradesh

420 In Sutikamakkal----------- of the following is responsible.

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 A) Pitta B) Kapha

C) Vata and Rakta D) Pitta and Kapha

421 The normal puerperium period is --------------------

A) 2 weeks B) 6 weeks

C) 4 weeks D) 10 weeks

422 Lochia is of ------------- types.

A) 3 B) 2

C) 4 D) 5

423 When involution of uterus is impaired or retreated, it is called -------

A) Sub involution B) Hyper involution

C) Retraction D) Contraction

424 -----------is the most common site of puerperal infection.

A) Breast B) Uterus

C) Chest D) Brain

425 Stanyadushti is of ---------- types.

A) 8 B) 2

C) 4 D) 6

426 ----------type of Kshirdoshas are described in Harit samhita

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 A) Four B) Three

C) Five D) Two

427 Phenyl type of stanya is observed in ------------- stanyadushti.

A) Vataj B) Pittaj

C) Kaphaj D) Raktaj

428 Picchil stanya is observed in--------- type of stanyadushti.

A) Vataj B) Pittaj

C) Kaphaj D) Raktaj

429 Stanya is of ------------ varna in stanyasampat.

A) Dugdha B) Madhu

C) Shankha D) Haridra

430 Shankha varna of stanya is mentioned in -----------------

A) Stanyasampat B) Stanyadushti

C) Stanyavikruti D) Stanyavaivarnya

431 Doyen’s retractor is used specially to retract ----------------in LSCS.

A) Abdominal wall B) Vaginal wall

C) Bladder D) Cervix

432 Swab/Sponge holder is --------------type of yantra according to Ayurveda.

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 A) Swastik B) Nadi

C) Tal D) Sadansha

433 Yonivranekshan yantra is mentioned by.------------

A) Charak B) Vagbhat

C) Bhel D) Bhavmishra

434 According to Kashyap Samhita, sutika-kal is of---------------------

A) 6 months B) 2 months

C) 1 months D) 12 months

435 According to Kashyap Samhita, ---------snehpan is advised after the birth of female
baby.
A) Tail B) Ghrit

C) Vasa D) Majja

436 According to Ashtang sangrah sutika-snan is advised on-------- day.

A) 4th& 5th B) 10th & 12th

C) 7th& 8th D) 1st & 2nd

437 Sutikarogas are considered as----------- according to Madhavnidan.

A) Sadhya B) Sahaj sadhya

C) Darun D) Asadhya

438 The puerperal woman suffers from-------- types of jwaras classified under Nija and
Agantuja groups.

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 A) 4 B) 6

C) 8 D) 10

439 As per Kashyap Samhita, stanya pravartan in sutika is on------------- day.

A) 3rd& 4th B) 10th& 12th

C) 2nd D) 9th

440 In sutikajwar, Grahaj jwar is of---------------- type.

A) Nija B) Agantuja

C) Doshaj D) Stanyaj

441 Initiation of uterine contractions after the period of viability by any methods
(medical/surgical/combined), for the purpose of vaginal delivery is ----------
A) Normal labour B) Abnormal labour

C) Induction of labour D) Augmentation of labour

442 The process of stimulation of uterine contractions that are already present but found to
be inadequate is known as.----------------
A) Normal labour B) Abnormal labour

C) Induction of labour D) Augmentation of labour

443 ------------is the clear contraindication for induction of labour.

A) CPD B) Multipara

C) Primigravida D) Postdated patient

444 -------------is used for induction and augmentation of labour.

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 A) Oxytocin B) Methergin

C) Salbutamol D) Isoxsuprine

445 --------------is the surgical method for augmentation of labour.

A) ARM B) Oxytocin drip

C) Prostaglandins application D) Castor oil application

446 ‘बस्स्िद्वारे ववपन् ाया कुक्षक्ष: प्रस्पन्दिे यहद .....’ this shloka indicates ----------
operative.
A) LSCS B) Female sterlization

C) laparoscopy D) Hysteroscopy

447 The labour is said to be prolonged when the combined duration of 1 st and 2nd stage is
more than the arbitrary time limit of-------- hrs.
A) 24 B) 18

C) 12 D) 10

448 ---------is one of the causes of prolonged labour.

A) Uterine inertia B) Proper contractions

C) Correct lie of the foetus D) Adequate pelvis

449 ------------is the foetal risk factor in prolonged labour.

A) PPH B) Purperal sepsis

C) Sub involution D) Hypoxia

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450 --------------is the sign of foetal distress.

A) Exhausted mother B) PPH

C) Meconium stained liquor D) Cervical tear

451 A surgically planned incision on the perineum and posterior vaginal wall during the
2nd stage of labour is known as.
A) Perineorrhaphy B) Perineoplasty

C) Episiotomy D) Vaginoplasty

452 ------------is the advantage of episiotomy in maternal perspective.

A) Avoid injuries to rectum and peri B) Reduce foetal asphyxia

urethral region

C) Avoid intracranial injury D) Reduce strain over foetal head

453 --------is commonly used type of episiotomy.

A) Median B) J shaped

C) Lateral D) Mediolateral

454 Injury to Bartholin’s duct may occur in --------type of episiotomy.

A) Lateral B) Median

C) Mediolateral D) J shaped

455 ------------is the remote complication of episiotomy.

A) Hernia B) Non healing wound

C) Dyspareunia D) Dysmenorrhea

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456 ------------is the immediate complication of episiotomy.

A) Wound dehiscence B) Dyspareunia

C) Vaginal stricture D) Endometriosis

457 Application of ---------- is the type of assisted labour.

A) Cerviprime B) Oxytocin

C) NST D) Ventouse

458 ----------is the modification of outlet forceps technique in labour.

A) Ventouse B) Keijland’s forceps

C) NST D) Doppler

459 Obstetric forceps can be correlated with -----------ayurvedic entity.

A) Garbhopadrav B) Garbhavyapad

C) Garbhashanku D) Garbhapida

460 -----------is one of the causes of Aparasang.

A) Garbhashay shaithilya B) Prakrut shroni

C) Vitapched D) Mudhgarbha

461 --------------chikitsa is advised in Aparasang.

A) Shaman B) Snehan

C) Swedan D) Trasan

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462 Bhurjpatra is used for Yonidhupan in -------------chikitsa.

A) Garbhini shoth B) Prameha

C) Aparasang D) Rajovriddhi

463 ----------lepa is used over abdomen in the treatment of Aparasang.

A) Langali mul B) Ashwagandha mul

C) Kumari D) Atasi mul

464 If placenta is not expelled within 30 min after delivery of foetus, it is considered as-----
----------- of placenta.
A) Abruption B) Retention

C) Previa D) Separation

465 -------------treatment is advised by modern science for retention of placenta.

A) MRP B) CRP

C) HSG D) MTP

466 -------------may be one of the causes for retention of placenta.

A) Morbid adherent placenta B) Placenta previa

C) Abruptio placentae D) PIH

467 ………is defined as‘सुिायाश्चावप ित्रस्याि ् अपराचेन् न गविा ......’

A) Garbhini B) Prasavotsuka

C) Sutika D) Vandhya

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468 ------------- is advised by Kashyap acharya after Aparapatan in sutika paricharya.

A) Patta bandhan B) Vaman

C) Nasya D) Virechan

469 Pattabandh is advised after Aparapatan by……. samhita.

A) Charak B) Sushrut

C) Kashyap D) Bhavprakash

470 'गिसुिाशभधा ास्याि ् पु रािववदशव ाि ् ....' is mentioned by ------------------

A) Vagbhat B) Sushrut

C) Charak D) Bhel

471 -------------is used as rakshoghna in sutikavastha.

A) Kushtha , guggulu B) Shatavari , bala

C) Pippali , vacha D) Chandan, lodhra

472 Maharshi Kashyap explained sutikopchar according to……….

A) Parity B) Gravida

C) Prasavkal D) Desh and kul satmya

473 ------------type of Mudhagarbha is daranyogya according to Vagbhatacharya.

A) Vishkambha B) Keel

C) Pratikhur D) Parigha

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474 --------------is one of the specific hetu for sutikaroga as quoted by Yogaratnakar.

A) Dosh vaigunya B) Dhatukshay

C) Mithyopchara D) Vaivarnya

475 Kashyapacharya explaines sutikaroga in--------------- adhyaya.

A) Sutika B) Garbhini

C) Dushprajata D) Streerog

476 Manipulative procedures to change the abnormal foetal presentation in favourable one
, is known as ---------------------- .
A) Caesarian section B) Version

C) Restitution D) Crowning

477 External cephalic version is manipulation of foetus to bring it into --------------

presentation.
A) Breech B) Oblique

C) Vertex D) Legs

478 Manipulative procedure ,……….. should be done during labour .

A) External cephalic version B) Internal podalic version

C) Vertex version D) Transverse version

479 ------------is the contraindication for manipulative procedures of labour.

A) Antepartum haemorrhage B) Oblique lie

C) Vertex presentation D) Transverse lie

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480 --------is the complication of manipulative procedures of labour.

A) High foetal mortality B) Uterine rupture

C) Haemorrhage D) All of the above

481 ---------------is the rare complication in third stage of labour in which the uterus is
turned inside out.
A) Involution B) Twisting

C) Version D) Inversion

482 In………..inversion, uterus turns inside out & fundus passes through the cervix but
lies inside the vagina.
A) First degree B) Second degree

C) Third degree D) Fourth degree

483 ------------------is the cause which leads to the inversion of uterus.

A) Pulling the cord B) Massaging the uterus

C) Extended episiotomy D) Cervical tear

484 When placenta is directly anchored to the myometrium, it is termed as -----------------

A) Placenta previa B) Placenta abruptio

C) Placenta accreta D) Placenta inverta

485 The classic symptom of---------- is, sudden collapse with acute chest pain or air hunger
after labour.
A) Haemorrhagic shock B) Vertigo

C) Hypertension D) Pulmonary embolism

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486 The haemorrhage that occurs within 24 hours following the birth of baby is known as--
-----
A) Blood coagulopathy B) Primary PPH

C) Secondary PPH D) Mixed

487 -----------is the cause of primary PPH.

A) Trauma to birth canal B) LSCS

C) Premature labour D) Postmature labour

488 ------------is the cause of primary PPH.

A) LSCS B) Premature labour

C) Atonicity of uterus D) Postmature labour

489 Per vaginal profuse bleeding that occurs between ------------- day of delivery is termed
as secondary PPH.
A) 4th to 5th B) 2nd to 3rd

C) 8th to 14th D) 30th to 40th

490 हहङ्गुयुक्ििं ससवपवष्किं भक्

ु ििं --------------- ुि ् |
A) ज्वर B) शशरःशूल

C) मक्कलशूल D) प्रमेह

491 Varipariksha is advised in ----------------- parikshan.

A) Stanya B) Rakta

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 C) Rasa D) Sweda

492 Vagbhat has mentioned to arrange------------- for stanyapan.

A) dwau dhatris B) Ajadugdha

C) Mahishidugdh D) Godugdha

493 स्िन्याभावे पयः -------------- गव्यिं वा िद्गुणिं वपबेि ् |

A) अजिं B) छागिं

C) गौ D) शसद्धिं

494 According to Sushrut Samhita, ‘एवमशक्ये शस्त्रमवचारयेि ्’ is mentioned in -------------

chikitsa.
A) Garbhastrav B) Garbhapat

C) Mudhagarbha D) Mritgarbha

495 Udarpatan purvaka garbha nirharan is done at--------------------------

A) Janmkale B) Chaturth mas

C) Pancham mas D) Shashtam mas

496 ----------------is given for Koshta shodhan of sutika.

A) Shunthi kwath B) Pippali churn

C) Erand sneh and Ajmoda D) Pippali latakaraj

497 -----------is used for Garbhashay shodhan in sutikavastha.

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 A) Krishnabol B) Isabgol

C) Erandsneha D) Shatavari

498 ----------------is used for Garbhashay shodhan in sutikopkram according to

Yogratnakar.
A) Shunthi + dugdha B) Shatavari dugdha

C) Ghrit + hingu D) Pimpalmul + Takra

499 -------------is used as stanya vriddhikar.

A) Methika B) Pippali

C) Chandrashur D) Danti

500 -----------is the cause of foetal distress during pregnancy.

A) Abruptio placentae B) Mild anaemia

C) Twins D) Proteinuria

501 Acording to Charakacharya vataj yonipyavad are…

A) 4 B) 8

C) 11 D) 10

502 ‘’Nidana ‘’ of yonivyapad is……..

A) Mithya aahar B) Mithya vihara

C) A,B & D D) Daiva

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503. …………… is the yonidoshahara chikitsa.

A) madhyampanchamula B) trunapanchamula

C) laghupanchamula D) brihatpanchamula

504. ‘’SaUla inastaaod’’ are the lakshanas of……….yonivyapada.

A) Vataj B) Kaphaj

C) karnini D) Sannipataj

505. “ ga`amyaQamao- r]jaaBaRSaM’’ is seen in……………. yonivyapad

A) Uadavart B) Kaphaj

C) Paripluta D) Pittaj

506. ……..dosha is involved in karnini yonivyapad.

A) tridosha B) Vata,Kapha

C) vatapittaj D) Vata, kapha & rakta

507. ‘’Pain in back, groins and thighs’’ found in ……….yonivyapad

A) Uadavarta B) Kaphaj

C) Karnini D) Prakcharna

508. ‘’ Anaata-va’’ is found in ……….. yonivyapad

A) Pittaj B) Kaphaj

C) Udavarta D) Shandhi

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509. ‘’Kashmari and Kutaja kwatha siddha ghrita Uttar Basti’’ is given in……

A) Pittaj B) Shandhi

C) Arajaska D) All

510. “ kNDuga`sta Alpavaodnaa” is found in------------------yonivyapada.

A) Kaphaj B) Uadavarta

C) Arajaska D) Mahayoni

511. “i~avaRta klk QaarNa’’ is the chikitsa of ….. yonivyapad

A) Paripluta B) Shandhi

C) Kaphaj D) Mahayoni

512. …………..yonivyapada is observed in sagarbhawastha.

A) Paripluta B) Sannipataj

C) Kaphaj D) Upapluta

513. Which of the following yonivyapad related with “ labQao gaBao- Aipa sa..’’

A) Udavarta B) Vamini

C) Asruja D) Mahayoni

514. Putraghni and Jataghni can be correlated with

A) Ectopic pregrancy B) Pseudocyst

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 C) Habitual abortion D) Missed abortion

515. Management of Putraghni and Jataghni yonipyavad is

A) Shatavari kalpa B) Goghruta

C) Kashmari and kutaja kwathsiddha D) Kantakari Ghruta

ghrita & Phalaghruta

516. Turner’s Syndrome can be correlated with………………..

A) Shandhi B) Paripluta

C) Upapluta D) Suchimukhi

517. “ AitasaMvaRta yaaoina’’is found in………………

A) Paripluta B) Vataj

C) Pittaj D) Suchimukhi

518. According to Sushruta classification, number of Kaphaja yonivyapadas

are………….

A) 6 B) 10

C) 5 D) 4

519. Thick curdy white discharge is observed in ………. Type of vaginitis.

A) Trichomonal B) Monilial

C) Candida D) Herpes

520. ‘’Dysmenorrhea’’ can be correlated with

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 A) Upapluta B) Paripluta

C) Arajaska D) Udavarta

521. In Udavarta yonivyapad is………….dosha pradhana.

A) Vata B) Pitta

C) Kapha D) Vatakapha

522. Infertility can be correlated with…………..

A) Vandhya B) Uadavarta

C) Paripluta D) Mahayoni

523. ’Prakcharana’’ is not mentioned by …………..acharya

A) Charak B) Sushrut

C) Vagbhata D) Kashyap

524. ’Vipluta’’ is not mentioned by……………. Acharya chikitsa sthana Adhyaya 30.

A) Sushruta B) Vagbhata

C) Vriddha vagbhata D) Charaka

525. ‘’Amenorrhea’’ is found in………….. yonivyapad

A) Suchimukhi B) Karnini

C) Arajaska D) Pittaja

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526 Vaginal secretion and itching found in …………. yonivyapad

A) Uapapluta B) Acharana

C) Vipluta D) All

527. “SlaoYmarktaona mauicC-ta:’’ is found in…………. yonivyapad

A) Acharana B) Arajaska

C) Upapluta D) Karnini

528 Dhatakyadi Taila is the management of…………..yonivyapad.

A) Aticharana B) Acharana

C) Vipluta D) Mahayoni

529. “na saMtaaoYaM ga`amyaQamao-Na” is found in………………

A) Vandhya B) Uadavarta

C) Aatyananda D) Arajaska

530. “ vak`yaita AananaM yaaonyaa:” is found in……………

A) Suchimukhi B) Uadavarta

C) Arajaska D) Antramukhi

531. ‘’ ku r]tao ivavaRtaaM s~astaaM.. ’’ is a description of…………..

A) Upapluta B) Acharana

C) Mahayoni D) Suchimukhi

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532. Shuddha shukra is quoted in --------sthana of Charak Samhita

A) Sharir B) Sutra

C) Nidan D) Viman

533. Teratospermia is………………………..

A) Abnormal sperm morphology B) Abnormal semen

C) Normal sperm morphology D) Normal semen

534. “daObalyaM mauKaSaaoYa:” is quoted context with………… dhatukshay.

A) Rasa B) Mamsa

C) Shukra D) Majja

535. According to Charaka Samhita, pramana of shukra dhatu is…………………..

A) ½ anjali B) 1 anjali

C) 2 anjali D) 3 anjali

536. Eight types of Shukra dushti quoted by……………..acharya.

A) Kashyap B) Bhel

C) Bhavprakash D) Harit

537. Shukla & Retas as synonym of shukra quoted in………… samhita

A) Bhela B) Kashyap

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 C) Harit D) Bhavprakasha

538. “sFiTkaBaM d`vaM isnagQaM..” is lakshana of………………

A) Shuddha Aartava B) Shukra Dushti

C) Shuddha Shukra D) Aartava Dushti

539. “Azoospermia” is…….

A) Normal sperm count B) Immotile Sperms

C) Abnormal sperm count D) Zero sperm count

540. “Rativardhan yogas” are described in……………..

A) Bhavaprakash B) Charak

C) Kashyap D) Bhel

541. “majjaasamuadBaava” is synonym of…………..

A) Shukra B) Majja

C) Asthi D) Meda

542. ---- dhatu is compared as androgen

A) Rasa B) Majja

C) Shukra D) Meda

543. “saaOmyagauNayaukta” is composition of ……………..

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 A) Shukra B) Rasa

C) Rakta D) Mamsa

544. Normal sperm count is…………..million/ml

A) 20 B) 1

C) 2 D) 4

545. ………………..is the 7th kala

A) Mamasadhara B) Shukradhara

C) Purishdhara D) Medodhara

546. According to …………….acharya shukra is present in whole body

A) Charak B) Sushruta

C) Both A & B D) Kashyapa

547. Pramana of Shukra according to Bhel is ………

A) 1 anjali B) 2 anjali

C) 3 anjali D) 4 anjali

548. According to Sharangdhar, which of the following is an upadhatu of shukra

A) oja B) Kesha

C) loma D) Asthi

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549. ……………acharya quoted, shukra is devoid of mala

A) Charaka B) Sushrut

C) Both D) Bhavaprakash

550. Oligospermia is………………………

A) Low sperm count B) More sperm count

C) Low sperm motility D) More sperm motility

551. ……………… is normal colour of semen

A) Whitish B) Grey

C) Both D) Red

552. Normal pH of “semen” is…………..

A) 7.2 – 7.8 B) 6.2 - 6.8

C) 8 D) 9

553. ………..is not used in “Punsawan”

A) Dhanyamash B) Mudgayush

C) Sarshap D) Nyagrodha shrung

554. ……………..is advised in shukra dushti chikitsa

A) Vaman B) Raktamokshan

C) Virechan D) Basti

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555. According to Vagbhatacharya,……… is the “varna” of baby if the shukra is
“madhusaman”

A) Awadat B) Shyam

C) Krushna D) Gaurshyam

556. If shukra falls on …..nadi, the sex of fetus born is male.

A) Chandramasi B) Gauri

C) Samiran D) None

557. According to Charakacharya………….is the“beejdoshaj” yonivyapada.

A) Vamini B) Shandhi

C) Upapluta D) Acharna

558. According to Charakachaya in………….. shukra dusthi“Abhaya-amalaki rasayan”

is used

A) Vataj B) Pittaj

C) Kaphaj D) None

559. …………………..dhatu is formed from kapha & shukra (a/c to Harita Samhita )

A) Rasa B) Meda

C) Asthi D) Majja

560. According to Bhavprakash, if shukra falls on…………nadi it becomes nishphala .

A) Samirana B) Chandramasi

C) Gauri D) None

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561. According to Sushrutacharya, “samatvaagatavaIya- o occurs at---------age in purush.

A) 12 B) 16

C) 25 D) 20

562. According to ……………… Aacharya streeshukra is a dhatu.

A) Sushrut B) Vabghat

C) Sharangdhar D) Bhavprakash

563. Amount of Aartava according to Vagbhatacharya is…………..anjali.

A) 2 B) 3

C) 1 D) 4

564. …………….doshadushti is observed in “XaINaata-va” .

A) Vatapitta B) Pittarakta

C) Kaphapitta D) Sannipataj

565. ……….of the following is the content of “rajapravartini vati” :

A) Trikatu B) Tankan

C) Ela D) Hingu

566. Spasmodic dysmenorrhea is seen most prominently in…………… age group

A) 15-35 yr B) 30-45 yr

C) 45 – 50 yr D) Any age group

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567. According to Ashtangsangraha……………kashaya is used for yoniprakshalana in
kaphaja aartavadushti.
A) Mudgaparni B) Sarala

C) Madhuka D) Lodhra-tinduka

568. According to Vrudha Vagbhat in ………type of rajodusthi “gaOirkairYT kYaaya” is used for
yoniprakshalan .

A) Vataj B) Pittaj

C) Kaphaj D) Kunipagandhi

569. “Vistrut varnan” of “Pradar” is descrtibed by………Acharya.

A) Charak B) Sushrut

C) Vagbhat D) Kashyap

570. “pa`idGa- Ptaukala” is observed in……………prakruti.

A) Vataj B) Pittaj

C) Kaphaj D) Sama

571. According to Ashtangsangrahakara, ……………is “Rajaswala kal”

A) vdyaM B) paMcama

C) M catauqaM D) ~yahM

572. ………………..is the chikitsa of Artavkshay.

A) Vamana B) Sheeta dravya

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 C) Sanshodhana & agneya dravya D) Lekhana

573. According to Sushrutacharya, ……….are the types of rajodushti

A) 7 B) 5

C) 8 D) 2

574. …………….. are the lakshanas of aratvavriddhi.

A) Angamarda B) Atipravritti

C) Daurgandhya D) All of the above.

575. “tattad Òasakr AaharivaharpairYaovanaata.” this sutra is related in ……..chikitsa.

A) Aartava dushti B) Aartava kshaya

C) Aartava vruddhi D) Aartava nasha

576. …………is the chikitsa of kunap rajodushti.

A) Triphala kalka dharan B) Lodhratinduka

C) Gairika D) None

577. Mutrapurishagandhi aartava is the lakshana of ………..aartavadushti.

A) Sannipataja B) Vataja

C) Pittaja D) Kaphaja

578. Moolasthan of aartvavahastrotas….

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 A) Aantaphala B) Tryavarta yoni

C) Garbhashaya & aartavavahini D) Apatyapatha

579. “japaakusauma saMkaSaM ...” is lakshana of yonistrava in…………aartavadushti.

A) Pittaja B) Vataja

C) Kaphaja D) Sannipataja

580. Atyartava can be correlated with….

A) Menorrhagia B) Dysmenorrhoea

C) Amenorrhea D) Dyspareunia

581. Oligomenorrhoea means …..

A) Infrequent menstruation B) Frequent menstruation

C) Delayed menstruation D) Excessive menstruation

582. The result of prolactinoma is ………….

A) Oligomenorrhea B) Amenorrhea

C) Menorrhoea D) menopause

583. In PCOS ……………..secretions are excessive.

A) Androgen B) LH

C) TSH D) Progesterone

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584. ……………. is not the type of Pradar..

A) Vataj B) Pittaj

C) Raktaj D) Sannipataj

585. “parM itaktaO: {paacarota\” is the treatment advised for…………….

A) Yonivyapad B) Vandhyatwa

C) Shwetapradara D) Asrugdar

586. Treatment for rajakshinata is….

A) Swayonivardhan dravya B) Shukrajanan dravya

C) Pittahar dravya D) Vatahar dravya

587. Pariman of aartva (stree beej) is…

A) 8 bindu B) 6 bindu

C) 4 bindu D) 2 bindu

588. Menorrhagia is defined in relation to blood loss…

A) > 50ml B) >40ml

C) >60ml D) > 80ml

589. Raktapradar are of…………types.

A) 2 B) 3

C) 4 D) 5

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590. …………….. dosh is involved in aaratavavriddhi

A) Pitta B) Vata

C) Vatapitta D) Kaphapitta

591. Line of treatment is similar in raktarsha, raktatisra & …………

A) Asruja yonivyapada B) Shwetapradara

C) Raktagulma D) Raktapradara

592. According to Sushrutacharya,………….doshas are involved in putipuya

aartavadushti.

A) Vata rakta B) Kapha vata

C) Vata kapha D) Pitta kapha

593. “ivarocanaM mahaitaktaM……….. AsaRgadro ipaboata\”

A) vaaitako B) SlaoiYmako

C) paOitako D) saainnapaaitako

594. Hysteroscopy means visualization of…………….

A) Genital tract B) Fallopian tube

C) Uterine cavity D) cervix

595. ………….is used for achievement of uterine distension in hysteroscopy.

A) Distilled water B) Air

C) Glycine D) Nitrogen

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596. Hysteroscopy can diagnose all, except……………

A) Asherman’s syndrome B) Septate uterus

C) Adenomyosis D) TB endometritis

597. Hysteroscopy is used in all except………….

A) Uterine syneachia B) Abnormal vaginal bleeding

C) Infertility D) Recurrent still birth

598. Best gas used for creating pneumoperitoneum in laparoscopy

is……………….
A) N2 B) O2

C) CO2 D) N2O

599. Laparoscopy should be avoided in patients with………….

A) Hypertension B) Diabetes

C) Obesity D) COPD

600. Laparoscopy is contraindicated in……………

A) Ectopic pregnancy B) PID

C) Endometriosis D) Peritonitis

601. Young lady comes with mild erosion of cervix and pap

smear shows dysplasia, next step is………….

A) Antibiotics B) Colposcopy

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 C) Cryosurgery D) USG

602. Uterine perforation is the complication of-----------

A) Pap smear B) Cervical Cauterization

C) Hysteroscopy D) Cone biopsy

603. …………………is a procedure that allows the direct visualization inside the uterus.

A) Hysteroscopy B) Laparoscopy

C) Colposcopy D) Culdoscopy

604. ……………..procedure is done for direct visualization of endometriosis.

A) Laparoscopy B) USG

C) X ray pelvis D) CT scan

605. Submucosal fibroid is detected by except :

A) Hysteroscopy B) Hysterosalpingography

C) USG (transabdominal ) D) Laparoscopy

606. NT scan done at :

A) 11-13 week B) 20 week

C) 5 week D) 25 week

607. Signs of anencephaly on ultrasonography :

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 A) Frog eye sign B) Mickey mouse sign

C) Both A & B D) Spalding’s sign

608. Signs of IUD on Xray :

A) Robert sign B) Spalding sign

C) Both A & B D) Mickey mouse sign

609. 1st sign of pregnancy on ultrasonography :

A) Gestational sac B) Yolk sac

C) Cardiac activity D) All of the above

610. Instrument used to open up the vaginal canal for HSG is ……….

A) Spillage B) Speculum

C) Uterine sound D) Tenaculum

611. Fallopian tube patency is checked by…………….

A) Hysterosalpingography B) Colposcopy

C) X ray D) USG

612. To diagnose uterus didelphys, procedure of choice is:………………….

A) Laparoscopy B) IVP

C) HSG D) USG

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613. X ray’s radiation maximum danger to fetus in…………. trimester

A) 1st B) 2nd

C) 3rd D) All of the above

614. The cervical length is accurately measured by-----------------

A) TAS B) TVS

C) Per speculum examination D) Per vaginal examination

615. Abdominal circumference of fetus is measured at the level of …….in

ultrasonography .
A) Fetal liver B) Fetal umbilicus

C) Fetal chest D) Fetal head

616. Amniocentesis is performed under……………guidance .

A) HSG B) USG

C) Colposcopy D) ALL

617. HSG is contraindicated in ……….

A) PID B) Uterine bleeding

C) Recent curettage D) All of the above

618. Verres needle use in……………..

A) Hysteroscopy B) HSG

C) Laparoscopy D) Colposcopy

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619. Fetal 2D ECHO is performed at ……….…..of pregnancy.

A) 24 week B) 16 week

C) 18 week D) 20 week

620. Diagnostic hysteroscopy is performed in………..period.

A) Ovulatory B) Pre menstrual

C) Menstrual D) Post menstrual

621. Mass in pelvis detected clinically,

following investigations should be done except :

A) CT B) Laparoscopy

C) Pap smear D) USG

622. Colposcope is focused on external os at a distance of

A) 20 cm B) 15 cm

C) 5 cm D) 30 cm

623. Which of the following sound frequencies would include obgyn ultrasound?

A) 10 hz B) 10khz

C) 100khz D) 10mhz

624. The fundamental operating principle of medical ultrasound transducers is

A) Snell’s law B) ALARA principle

C) Piezoelectric effect D) Impedance effect

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625. Anomaly scan done at ………….of pregnancy

A) 26week B) 30 week

C) 18 week D) 10 week

626 Upanaha Sweda is contraindicated for......................

.

A) Padashotha B) Stana Vidradhi

C) Vidradhi D) None of these

627 Yoni pichu is kept in vagina for period of --------

.

A) During two mutravega B) Overnight

C) Before malavega D) 8 hours

628 ---------is the action of senha pichu on Prathamavarta.

.

A) Kharatva B) Rukshtva

C) Chalatva D) Snehana

629 ------- Drugs are used for stambhan.

.

A) Vacha B) Kutaki, Trikatu

C) Lodhra, Nagkeshar D) Avipattikar churna

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630 Uttarbasti can be administered by---------------
.

A) Yoni & Basti marg B) Guda & Mukha marga

C) Mukha & Yoni marga D) Yoni & Guda marga

631 Gudvarti is used to treat ----------------.

.

A) Malavashthambha B) Unmad

C) Apasmar D) Chardi

632 In Vilambita Prasava dhoopana of -------is advised by Yoga-ratnakara for

. avipradurbhava.

A) Nimbapatra B) Kushta

C) Dashmoola D) Krushna sarpanirmoka

633 The purpose of the lekhan karma is ---------

.

A) Bruhana B) Langhan

C) Vrushya D) Shodhan

634 In Stana roga, Yogaratnakara mentioned -----------lepa as Shoolaghna.

.

A) Vandhyakarkotaki moola B) Vidanga moola

C) Ushira kalka D) Langali moola

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635 National Family Welfare Programme launched in -------------year in India
.

A) 1993 B) 1990

C) 1962 D) 1952

636 “saMvaRttaa vaQa-yaota\ pauna:”is the chikitsa for ------------ yonivyapada

.

A) Suchimukhi B) Udavarta

C) Aantarmukhi D) Karnini

637 -----------instrument is used for dilatation of cervix.

.

A) Sim’s speculum B) Babcock’s forcep

C) Hegar’s dilator D) Doyen’s retractor

638 Infertility is failure to conceive within--------------------of regular unprotected

. coitus.

A) 8 months B) One or more years

C) 6 months D) 9 months

639 Kshara karma is indicated in----------

.

A) Karnini yoni B) Bahya yoni arsha

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 C) Prathamavarta arsha D) All of the above

640 Primary infertility means patient -------------conceived.

.

A) Never B) Once

C) Twice D) Thrice

641 Sim’s speculum is used to retract-------------

.

A) Cervix B) Bladder

C) Urethra D) Posterior vaginal wall

642 Foley’s catheter is --------------

.

A) Non retaining B) Bladder guiding

C) Self retaining D) Dilating bladder

643 Parts of the uttarbasti yantra are ---------

.

A) Basti putaka B) Basti putaka & basti netra

C) Basti netra D) Eshani

644 {ttarbaista is given in ----kala

.

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 A) vaata B) Ptau

C) ipatta D) rja:kala

645 Yogaratnakara mentioned -------- kalka for garbhanirodhana.

.

A) Dhatoora mula churna B) Chandana churna

C) Madanaphala churna D) Pancha valkala

646 According to Charak Acharya, ----------- is the matra of uttarbasti

.

A) 1/2 pala sneha B) 1 pala sneha

C) 3/4thpala sneha D) 2 pala sneha

647 “Qaavayaita SauÔyaita Jita Qaavana” is mentioned by -----------Acharya.

.

A) Charak B) Sushruta

C) Vagbhat D) Kashyap

648 According to Charakacharya -------- Varti is used in Kaphaja yonivyapad?

.

A) Phala Varti B) Dhooma Varti

C) Pippalyadi Varti D) Vrana Varti

649 According Charakacharya ,in Aticharana Yonivyapada- ----------yonidhavana is

. advised.

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 A) Guduchi, Triphala, Danti kwatha B) Gomutra

C) Panchavalkala kwatha D) Triphala kwatha

650 The sutra-"{ttar maaga_dIyamaanatayaa "|| is mentioned in----------- sthana of Charak Samhita.
.

A) Sutra B) Nidan

C) Sharer D) Siddhi

651 Uttarbasti is given after---------------, as per Charakacharya.

.

A) 3 aasthapana basti B) Aasthapana and niruha basti

C) Niruha basti D) Yoga basti

652 According to Sharangdhara , matra of uttarbasti through yoni marga is--------

.

A) AQa_paailaka B) ekpaailaka

C) i~apaailaka D) ivdpaailaka

653 Panchavalkala kalkadharana is advised in-------------- yonivyapada, according to

. Ashtang sangraha

A) Vataja B) Pittaja

C) Kaphaja D) Mahayoni

654 Yoni dhoopana is indicated in…………

.

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 A) Garbha sanga B) Apara sanga

C) Sutika Awastha D) All of above

655 According to Sushruta quantity of kwatha for uttarbasti in females is………..

.

A) One Prasruta B) Two Prasruta

C) Three Prasuta D) Four Prasruta

656 Basti Netra is inserted ……… angula in Apatya-patha, according to Charakacharya.

.

A) 4 B) 6

C) 2 D) 5

657 ---------- & Kashyapa have not described uttarbasti.

.

A) Charaka B) Vagbhata

C) Bhavaprakash D) Bhela

658 ________ pinda is used in Mahayoni, according to Charaka Acharya.

.

A) Veshwara B) Ghruta

C) Majja D) Taila

659 Sushruta Acharya advised---------- lepa for the treatment of Aparasanga.

.

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 A) Nimbapatra B) Palasha patra

C) Langalimoola D) Chandana kashta

660 According to Ashtanasangraha, ----------- varti is used for anulomana in Garbhini

. Vibandha.

A) Vrana varti B) Dhoomavarti

C) Yoni varti D) Phala varti

661 ----------is the cause of stanakilaka.

.

A) Vajra B) Gandhak

C) Yashad D) Parada

662 ---------- dushti is observed in stanarog.

.

A) Mamsa, rakta B) Majja, rasa

C) Meda, asthi D) Rasa, meda

663 “va`NaivaQaana{pacaar” are done in---------- , according to Ashtang sangraha

.

A) Stana arbuda B) Stana keelaka

C) Stana shopha D) Stana vidradhi

664 Panduta, sheetata,alpavedana & stabdhata are observed in---------- stana vidradhi.
.

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 A) Pittaj-vataja B) Vataj-kaphaja

C) Kaphaj D) Raktaj

665 ------------ is Vajra.

.

A) Kasha B) Nakha, Asthi, kastha

C) Kha-mala D) Danta

666 According to Vagbhataacharya stana rogas are not observed in--------------

.

A) Kanya B) Garbhini

C) Prasuta D) Prasavotsuka

667 Sushrutacharya mentioned--------- types of stana vidradhi.

.

A) 2 B) 5

C) 4 D) 9

668 -------------should be given in stanakeelaka, according to Kashyapacharya.

.

A) Majja pana B) Ghrutapana

C) Vasapana D) Tailapana

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669 In case of stana roga, the treatment prescribed for ------------- should be given
.

A) Vidradhi B) Granthi

C) Arbuda D) Vrana

670 Causes of infertility are---------------

.

A) Tubal factors B) Uterine factor

C) Ovarian factors D) All of the above

671 “Peau D’Orange” sign is seen in which disease?

.

A) Mastitis B) Fibroadenoma

C) CA breast D) Galactocoele

672 “naanaavaNa_ r]jaa st~MMaavaGaatalaaoivaYamaamahna” is seen in------------ abscess?

.

A) Vataj B) Pittaj

C) Kaphaj D) Sannipataj

673 Kashyapacharya explained stanakilak in -----------sthana.

.

A) Sutra B) Khila

C) Sharir D) Nidan

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674 “r]paainaipatavaja`ayaa pa`vaXyaamyata {ttarma |
.
AjaaINa_M Arita_glaainarinaimattaM vyaqaa Ar]ica”|| is quoted in -----------------------Samhita

A) Vagbhat B) Charak

C) Sushruta D) Kashyap

675 “kRYNa sfaoTavaRttaaSyaava taIva`dahr]jaajvar” is a characteristic of------------- vidradhi.

.

A) Vataj B) Pittaj

C) Kaphaj D) Raktaj

676 Stanakilak affects----------

.

A) Childhood B) Lactating mothers

C) Age more than 45 D) None of the above

677 Stanagranthi should be treated like ------------

.

A) Satna kilaka B) Stana vidradhi

C) Shopha D) Arsha

678 Mastitis is -----------------

.

A) Inflammation of Muscle B) Inflammation of Mammary gland

C) Inflammation of Mandible D) Inflammation of mouth

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679 Cause of Breast abscess is---------------
.

A) Bacterial infection B) Viral infection

C) Bacterial infection & Viral D) Fungal Infection

infection

680 According to Sharangshar Samhita , stanya is upadhatu of

.

A) Rakta B) Rasa & Rakta

C) Rasa D) Ahar

681 Pittaja Stanavidradhi resembles like------------

.

A) Pakwa bilwa Phala B) Pakwa Udumbara Phala

C) Pakwa Jambu Phala D) Pakwa Badara Phala

682 “Sarava sadRSa paaNDuSaItastabQaaolpavaodnaa” are the characteristics of -------type of Stanavidradhi.

.

A) Pittaja B) Vataja

C) Kaphaja D) Raktaja

683 Age of menopause according to Sushruta is……………years.

.

A) 45 B) 50

C) 55 D) 40

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684 Shape of the Yonikanda resembles with…………. Phala.
.

A) Amra B) Pooga

C) Lakucha D) Bilva.

685 “ dah raga jvaryautaMivaQyaata\ ipattaatmakM tau tama\” are the lakshana of----------.
.

A) Pittaja Yoniarsha B) Pittaja Yonikanda

C) Pittaja Yonivyapada D) Pittaja Granthi

686 ------------ is not a type of Yoni Kanda According to Sharangdhara samhita.

.

A) Vataja B) Raktaja

C) Pittaja D) Sannipataja

687 Treatment of Bartholin cyst is -----------.

.

A) Marsupilization B) Cauterization

C) Medicinal D) Radiation.

688 Excision of endometrial polyp is done through…………..

.

A) Laparoscope B) Hysteroscope

C) Urethroscope D) Endoscope

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689 ------------is the Asadhya granthi According to Sushrutacharya.
.

A) Vataj B) Pittaj

C) Kaphaj D) Siraj.

690 Acharya-------------described Arbuda in Shotha Sangraha Aadhya.

.

A) Vagbhat B) Bhavprakash

C) Charak D) Sushrut.

691 Pushpaghni jataharini is mentioned in---------------samhita.

.

A) Kashyapa B) Sushruta

C) Charaka D) Vagbhata

692 What is HRT?

.

A) Hormonal Reducing Therapy B) Hormonal Rising Therapy

C) Hormonal Replacement Therapy D) Hormonal Resisting Therapy

693 Growth of fibroid is predominantly an-------------dependent tumour.

.

A) Oxytocin B) Prostaglandins

C) Prolactin D) Oestrogen

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694 High prevalence of Ca cervix is due to infection of -----------.
.

A) HIV B) HSV

C) HPV D) CMV

695 Screening test for Ca ovary is --------.

.

A) ESR B) CA – 125

C) Haemogram D) CRP.

696 About 75% Prevalence of Ca endometrium is observed in ---------period.

.

A) Reproductive B) Adolescent

C) Perimenopausal D) Peripubertal

697 Treatment for Stage IA1 Ca cervix, where invasion is less than or equal to 3mm is --
. -------.

A) Surgery + radiation B) Radical hysterectomy

C) Cobalt therapy D) Chemotherapy

698 Risk of Ca cervix is rare in---------------.

.

A) Nullipara B) Sexually inactive women

C) Primi para D) Multipara

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699 According to Sushruta Acharya ------is asadhya arbuda.
.

A) Vataja arbuda ,Pittaja arbuda B) Kaphaja arbuda, Vataja arbuda

C) Pittaja arbuda, Kaphaja arbuda D) Rakta arbuda, Mamsa arbuda

700 Causative factor of Genital Herpes is ------------ .

.

A) HPV B) HIV

C) HSV D) HDV.

701 Sexually transmitted infection during pregnancy can cause -------.

.

A) Anaemia B) PIH

C) GDM D) Still birth.

702 Menopause is the result of cessation of ------------ function

.

A) Renal B) Ovarian

C) Endometrial D) Thyroid

703 There are ----------types of Yonikanda.

.

A) 4 B) 6

C) 3 D) 5

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704 Without ----------dosha dushti Yonirog did not develope.
.

A) Vataj B) Pittaj

C) Kaphaj D) Sannipataj

705 Yoniarsha treatment is similar to -----------.

.

A) Raktagulma B) Upapluta

C) Upadansha D) Vataja Yonivyapada

706 According to Yogaratnakara ----------siddha taila is used to treat yonikanda

.

A) Mushak mansa B) Kukkuta mansa

C) Go mansa D) Aja mansa

707 Rajonivritti is a change due to--------

.

A) Agni B) Desha

C) Bala D) Vaya

708 Shashtra, Kashara, Agni, Aushadhi is Chikitsa for -----------

.

A) Pandu B) Prameha

C) Kamala D) Yoni arsha

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709 “C~aakar maaMsaikla” is characteristic of-------------.
.

A) Garbhashaya arbuda B) Yonikanda

C) Granthi D) Yoniarsha

710 Harita Mentioned ------------- types of vandhytwa.

.

A) 2 B) 4

C) 5 D) 6

711 Vandhya yoni is included in Vinshati Yonivyapada according to ---------------

. acharya.

A) Sushruta B) Charaka

C) Kashyapa D) Vagbhata

712 According to Harita ‘Mritvatsa vandhya’ means ……..

.

A) Secondary infertility B) Primary infertility

C) Repeated still births or neonatal D) Tubal block

death

713 Patient unable to conceive after giving birth to one child is -------- vandhya.
.

A) Garbhastravi B) Kakvandhya

C) Arajaska D) Mritvatsa

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714 Repeated first trimester abortions means ………. Vandhya.
.

A) Mritvatsa B) Kakavandhya

C) Garbhastravi D) Bala

715 The incidence of uterine perforation occurs mostly -----------of IUCD.

.

A) At the time of insertion B) 15th day after insertion

C) At the time of removal D) 30th day after insertion

716 -------------refers to a condition in which woman in her active reproductive age does
. not conceive after giving birth to one or more children.

A) Garbhastravi B) Sapraja

C) Mritvatsa D) Apraja.

717 “gaBa_kaoSaBaMga” is mentioned by ------------.

.

A) Charak B) Bhavprakash

C) Harita D) Vagbhat

718 Shukra falling over---------- nadi becomes futile.

.

A) Chandramasi B) Gauri

C) Rohini D) Sameerana

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719 -------------- is beneficial for the garbhadharana
.

A) Rutukala B) Raja kala

C) Rituvyatitakala D) All of these

720 …. are the major factors for infertility in women?

.

A) Age, Anaemia B) Anovulation, Diabetes

C) Weight , Hypertension D) Age, weight and Anovulation

721 Which of the following are the causes of vandhyatva?

.

A) Kshetra vikruti B) Ritu vikriti

C) Beeja vikriti D) All of the above

722 Stambhini jataharanni means-------

.

A) yasya na spandtao gaBa_: B) jaayatao tau maRtaM inatyaM

C) spandtao gaBa_: D) saMpaUNaaM_gaM yada gaBa_M hrtao

723 Types of vandhya according to Charaka?

.

A) 6 B) 5

C) 4 D) 2

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724 ----------- ghrita is praja vardhak.
.

A) Phala B) Kalyanaka

C) Mahatiktaka D) Narayana

725 Ovular pain is termed as-----------------

.

A) Mittleschmerz syndrome B) Asherman’s syndrome

C) Sheren’s syndrome D) Morri’s syndrome

726 Premenstrual D & C is done to diagnose -----------.

.

A) Vaginal polyp B) Cervical erossion

C) Ovulation D) Tubal patency.

727 Stein & Leventhal described -----------------

.

A) IUGR B) PCOS

C) PIH D) GDM

728 ------is the test for Tubal patency .

.

A) UPT B) HCG

C) HSG D) GTT

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729 Structurally abnormal sperms in semen are termed as ---------.
.

A) Necrospermia B) Asthenospermia

C) Oligospermia D) Teratozoospermia.

730 The female partner is responsible for infertility in about ------ % of cases.
.

A) 40 – 55 B) 20 – 30

C) 60 – 70 D) 80 – 90.

731 The male partner is responsible for infertility in about ------ % of cases.
.

A) 60-70 B) 70-80

C) 80-90 D) 30 – 40.

732 “vanQyaa ----------- ivad\yaata\”

.

A) Anaata_vaa B) naYTata_vaa

C) Aata_va D) kYTata_va

733 Tubal Patency is confirmed by-------

.

A) CT scan B) MRI

C) Hysterolaparoscopy D) X-ray

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734 Necrozoospermia means------------
.

A) Dead spermatozoa B) Less sperm count

C) No spermaooa D) Immotile spermatozoa

735 According to Yogaratnakara, garbhanirodhana is achieved by dharana of -------------

. at Katipradesha .

A) Pippali B) Dhatura moola

C) Vidanga D) Nimba kashta

736 --------------------is used pervaginally as garbhanirodhaka yoga.

.

A) Shatavari & ashwagandha churna B) Trikatu churna

C) Tankan with Saindhav D) Triphala churna

737 “gaBa_kaoSaBaMga” is a type of -----------

.

A) Vandhya B) Rajodushti

C) Yonivyapada D) Kushtha

738 --------- & Norplant are the subdermal contraceptive implants.

.

A) Lippes loop B) Mirena

C) DMPA D) Implanon

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739 --------is the hormonal IUCD.
.

A) Multiload Cu-T 250 B) Lippes loop

C) Mirena D) Multiload 375

740 Cu-T 200 releases ----------microgram copper per day.

.

A) 50 B) 20

C) 35 D) 60

741 Tubectomy can be performed through -------------route.

.

A) Vaginal B) Vaginal & Abdominal

C) Abdominal D) None of the above.

742 Natural contraception includes---------

.

A) Diaphragm B) IUCD

C) Mirena D) Coitus interruptus

743 -----------is the permanent contraceptive method in males.

.

A) Tubectomy B) Vasectomy

C) Mini Lap D) POP

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744 Absence of spermatozoa in the semen is termed as-----.
.

A) Nerozoospermia B) Aspermia

C) Azoospermia D) Oligospermia

745 The method of tubal ligation is--------------.

.

A) Mcdonald’s B) Pomeroy’s

C) Shirodkar’s D) Fothergill’s

746 Tubectomy is performed minimum after -------- hrs of delivery in puerperium.

.

A) 8 B) 12

C) 24 D) 48

747 Tibolone is used for the treatment of-----------------.

.

A) Menopause B) Infertility

C) Leucorrhea D) Cervicitis

748 Family welfare programme is important for ----------

.

A) Poverty control B) Traffic control

C) Population control D) Pollution control

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749 Rhythm method is----------- type of contraception
.

A) Barrier B) Natural

C) Surgical D) Hormonal

750 Which of the following is barrier method of contraception?

.

A) OC Pills B) Rhythm

C) Condom D) Calender

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 KEY ANSWERS
1 A 26 C 51 B 76 B 101 D

2 B 27 B 52 A 77 C 102 B

3 C 28 B 53 D 78 A 103 A

4 A 29 C 54 B 79 B 104 C

5 C 30 D 55 C 80 D 105 C

6 D 31 D 56 A 81 D 106 B

7 C 32 C 57 C 82 B 107 A

8 A 33 B 58 C 83 D 108 A

9 C 34 D 59 B 84 A 109 B

10 A 35 A 60 A 85 D 110 D

11 D 36 D 61 D 86 C 111 A

12 A 37 C 62 A 87 C 112 C

13 B 38 D 63 C 88 A 113 A

14 B 39 B 64 A 89 D 114 B

15 C 40 C 65 A 90 B 115 B

16 A 41 D 66 D 91 A 116 C

17 A 42 A 67 D 92 D 117 D

18 B 43 C 68 A 93 B 118 A

19 D 44 A 69 B 94 C 119 C

20 A 45 D 70 C 95 B 120 A

21 D 46 A 71 B 96 C 121 B

22 D 47 A 72 A 97 A 122 A

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23 B 48 B 73 B 98 C 123 A

24 C 49 B 74 A 99 A 124 B

25 B 50 B 75 C 100 B 125 B

126 C 151 C 176 A 201 D 226 B

127 A 152 A 177 C 202 C 227 C

128 B 153 C 178 D 203 B 228 D

129 D 154 B 179 A 204 A 229 A

130 A 155 A 180 B 205 B 230 D

131 B 156 B 181 D 206 A 231 B

132 A 157 B 182 B 207 D 232 D

133 C 158 B 183 D 208 A 233 D

134 A 159 A 184 A 209 B 234 D

135 C 160 D 185 B 210 C 235 D

136 A 161 A 186 A 211 D 236 A

137 C 162 D 187 A 212 B 237 C

138 B 163 B 188 B 213 D 238 D

139 A 164 A 189 B 214 A 239 D

140 C 165 D 190 D 215 B 240 B

141 A 166 C 191 A 216 D 241 C

142 B 167 B 192 B 217 B 242 D

143 D 168 B 193 D 218 B 243 D

144 A 169 D 194 C 219 C 244 C

145 C 170 B 195 A 220 B 245 A

146 C 171 B 196 B 221 A 246 D

147 A 172 A 197 D 222 A 247 C

148 C 173 C 198 C 223 B 248 A

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 149 B 174 C 199 B 224 A 249 C

150 C 175 B 200 B 225 D 250 A

A
251 D 276 C 301 A 326 D 351
B
252 A 277 B 302 B 327 A 352
C
253 B 278 B 303 B 328 B 353
D
254 C 279 A 304 C 329 A 354
B
255 D 280 C 305 A 330 B 355
C
256 A 281 D 306 B 331 A 356
B
257 A 282 C 307 A 332 D 357
A
258 B 283 A 308 B 333 A 358
D
259 C 284 A 309 C 334 D 359
A
260 D 285 C 310 D 335 A 360
B
261 A 286 C 311 A 336 B 361
D
262 B 287 D 312 B 337 C 362
A
263 C 288 A 313 C 338 B 363
C
264 D 289 A 314 A 339 B 364
B
265 A 290 B 315 B 340 A 365
B
266 B 291 C 316 C 341 C 366
A
267 C 292 D 317 D 342 A 367
C
268 D 293 A 318 A 343 B 368
D
269 A 294 A 319 B 344 C 369
A
270 B 295 C 320 A 345 A 370

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 C
271 C 296 B 321 B 346 C 371
A
272 D 297 A 322 A 347 B 372
B
273 A 298 B 323 B 348 D 373
D
274 B 299 B 324 D 349 A 374
A
275 A 300 A 325 A 350 D 375

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 376 A 401 B 426 C 451 C 476 B

377 B 402 C 427 A 452 A 477 C

501
378 CB 526
403 D
B 551
428 C C 453 576 D A 478 601B B

502
379 CD 527
404 D
A 552
429 C A 454 577 A A 479 602A C

503
380 BB 528
405 C
D 553
430 A B 455 578 C C 480 603A A
381
504 AC 406
529 C
C 431
554 C D 456 579 A A481 604 D A
382 C 407 A 432 A 457 D 482 B
505 C 530 D 555 B 580 A 605 D
383 C 408 A 433 B 458 A 483 A
506 D 531 C 556 B 581 A 606 A
384 C 409 B 434 A 459 C 484 C
507 D 532 A 557 B 582 A 607 C
385 C 410 A 435 B 460 A 485 D
508 D 533 A 558 B 583 A 608 C
386 A 411 A 436 B 461 D 486 B
509 C 534 C 559 B 584 C 609 D
387 A 412 C 437 C 462 C 487 A
510
388 AB 535
413 A
A 560
438 B A 463 585 A D 488 610C B

511
389 CC 536
414 A
B 561
439 A C 464 586 B A 489 611C A

390
512 DB 415
537 C
A 440
562 B D 465 587 A D 490 612C D
391
513 CA 416
538 C
C 441
563 C D 466 588 A D 491 613A A
392 C 417 B 442 D 467 C 492 A
514 C 539 D 564 A 589 C 614 B
393 C 418 B 443 A 468 A 493 B
515 C 540 A 565 A 590 A 615 A
394 D 419 C 444 A 469 C 494 C
516 A 541 A 566 A 591 D 616 B
395 C 420 C 445 A 470 A 495 A
517 D 542 C 567 D 592 D 617 D
396 B 421 B 446 A 471 A 496 C
518 C 543 A 568 B 593 C 618 C
397 B 422 A 447 B 472 D 497 A
519
398 CC 544
423 A
A 569
448 A A 473 594 A C 498 619D A

520
399 DD 545
424 B
B 570
449 D C 474 595 C C 499 620C D

400
521 AA 425
546 A
C 450
571 C D 475 596 C C 500 621A B

522 A 547 A 572 C 597 D 622 A

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523 B 548 A 573 C 598 C 623 A

524 D 549 C 574 D 599 D 624 C

525 C 550 A 575 C 600 D 625 C

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 626 B 651 A 676 B 701 D 726 C

627 A 652 D 677 C 702 B 727 B

628 D 653 B 678 B 703 A 728 C

629 C 654 D 679 A 704 A 729 D

630 A 655 B 680 C 705 C 730 A

631 A 656 A 681 B 706 A 731 D

632 D 657 D 682 C 707 D 732 B

633 D 658 A 683 B 708 D 733 C

634 A 659 C 684 C 709 D 734 A

635 D 660 D 685 B 710 D 735 B

636 A 661 A 686 B 711 A 736 C

637 C 662 A 687 A 712 C 737 A

638 B 663 D 688 B 713 B 738 D

639 D 664 C 689 D 714 C 739 C

640 A 665 B 690 C 715 A 740 A

641 D 666 A 691 A 716 B 741 B

642 C 667 B 692 C 717 C 742 D

643 B 668 B 693 D 718 D 743 B

644 B 669 A 694 C 719 A 744 C

645 A 670 D 695 B 720 D 745 B

646 A 671 C 696 C 721 D 746 D

647 B 672 D 697 B 722 A 747 A

648 C 673 A 698 B 723 D 748 C

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 649 A 674 D 699 D 724 A 749 B

650 D 675 D 700 C 725 A 750 C

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