This set of Molecular Biology Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

(MCQs) focuses on “DNA Topology – 1”.

1. The two strands of cccDNA can be easily separated without any

breakage of bonds.
a) True
b)-False
Explanation: There are no interruptions in either of the polynucleotide
strands. The two strands of cccDNA cannot be separated from each
other without the breaking of a covalent bond.

2. Passing of one strand through the other in order to get separated is

known as _______
b)-Linking-number
c)Writhing-number
d)Toroid
Explanation: The two circular strands can be separated without
permanently breaking any bonds in the sugar – phosphate backbone by
passing one strand through the other strand repeatedly. The number of
times one strand would have to be passed through the other strand in
order for the two strands to be entirely separate from each other is
called the linking number.
3.Linking-number-is-always-Integer.
a) Whole number
b) Prime number
c) Integer
d) Even number
Explanation: The linking number is always an integer which is an
invariant topological property of cccDNA. It does not depend on the
shape of the DNA molecule.

4. Linking number is the sum of which geometric components?

a)-Twist-and-writhe
b)-Toroid-and-writhe
c)-Twist-and-wrap
d)-Twist-and-crossover
Explanation: Linking number is the sum of two geometric components
twist and writhe. Twist is simply the number of helical turns of one
strand about the other. cccDNA is usually torsionally stressed such that
the long axis of the double helix crosses over itself called writhe.

5. 3 – dimension structure of cccDNA is ___________

a) Nicked
b) Supercoiled
c) Flat
d)Torsionally-stressed
Explanation: 3 – dimension structure of cccDNA is torsionally stressed.
cccDNA is usually torsionally stressed such that the long axis of the
double helix crosses over itself called writhe.

6. Plectonomic writhe is __________

a) Cylindrical axis winding
b) Long axis twisted around itself

7. Interwound writhe and spiral writhe are topologically different.

a) True
b) False
Explanation: Interwound writhe and spiral are topologically equivalent
to each other. They have readily interconvertible geometric properties
of cccDNA.

8. Twist and writhe are interconvertible.

a) True
b) False
Explanation: Twist and writhe are interconvertible. A molecule of
cccDNA can readily undergo distortions that convert some of its twist to
writhe to twist without the breakage of any covalent bonds.

9. What is the relation between linking number (Lk), writing number

(Wr) and twist number (Tw)?
a) Lk = Tw – Wr
b) Lk = Wr – Tw
c) Tw = Lk – Wr
d) Tw = Lk + Wr
Explanation: The sum of the twist number (Tw) and the writhing
number (Wr) must remain equal to the linking number (Lk). This
constraint is described by the equation:
Lk = Tw + Wr =>Tw = Lk – Wr.

10. How can we remove supercoils from cccDNA?

a) Treat with DNase
b) Treat with detergent
c) Treat with endonuclease
d) Application of heat
Explanation: One procedure is to treat the DNA mildly with the enzyme
DNase I, so as to break on average one phosphodiester bond in each
DNA molecule. Once the DNA has been “nicked” in this manner, it is no
longer topologically constrained and the strands can rotate freely.

This set of Molecular Biology Questions and Answers for Experienced

people focuses on “DNA Topology – 2”.

1. How is the extent of supercoiling measured?

a) Lk + Lk0
b) Lk0 – Lk
c) Lk – Lk0
d) Lk + Lk1

Explanation: The extent of supercoiling is measured by the difference

between Lk and Lk0. This is known as the linking difference and is
expressed as ΔLk = Lk – Lk0.
2. If Lk < Lk0 then DNA is ____________
a) Relaxed
b) Negatively coiled
c) Positively coiled

3. What is ΔLk and Lk0 dependent upon?

a) Histone concentration
b) G : A ratio
c) Composition of DNA
d) Length of DNA
Explanation: ΔLk and Lk0 are dependent upon the length of the DNA
molecule thus it is more convenient to refer to a normalized measure of
supercoiling. This is known as the superhelical density and is assigned
the symbol σ.

4. Strand separation is easily accomplished in positively supercoiled

DNA.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Regions of negatively supercoiled DNA has a tendency to
partially unwind. Thus strand separation can be accomplished more
easily in negatively supercoiled DNA than in relaxed DNA.

5. Which of the following organism has been found to have a positively

supercoiled DNA?
a) Saurida tumbil
b) Monarda didyma
c) Thermus aquaticus
d) Cyanobacteria
Explanation: The only organisms that are found to have positively
supercoiled DNA are certain thermophiles, microorganisms living under
conditions of extremely high temperature. Example of one such
bacteria found in hot springs are Thermus aquaticus.

6. Which of the following is not true about positive supercoils?

a) Helps to avoid denaturing
b) Over wounded DNA
c) Strand separations require low energy
d) Rare form of DNA supercoiling
Explanation: The positive supercoils are thought to store free energy
that helps keep the DNA from denaturing at levels of elevated
temperature. Positive supercoils can be converted into more twists and
thus requires a very high amount of energy to separate its DNA strands
than any other type of negatively supercoiled DNA.

7. Packaging of DNA around nucleosome is known as ____________

a) Toroid writhes
b) Twist
c) Plectonemic writhes
d) Supercoils
Explanation: In the nucleosomes the double helix is wrapped almost
two times around the outside circumference of a protein core. This
wrap is recognized as a toroid or spiral form of writhe.

8. The nucleosome is seen to have negative supercoils.

a) True
b) False

9. Which of the following is known to relax supercoiled DNA?

a) Nuclease
b) DNase I
c) Endonuclease
d) Topoisomerase

Explanation: The linking number is an invariant property of DNA that is

topologically constrained. It can only be changed by introducing
interruptions into the sugar-phosphate backbone. Topoisomerases are
able to do the same by introducing transient single or double stranded
breaks.
10. With respect to topoisomerases which of the following is true?
a) Only of one type
b) Never changes linking number
c) Requires ATP
d) Introduces knots

Explanation: Topoisomerases are of two general types. Type II

topoisomerase changes the linking number in two steps. They make
transient double stranded breaks in the DNA through which they pass a
segment of uncut duplex DNA before resealing the break. They require
ATP hydrolysis for this action.

This set of Molecular Biology Interview Questions and Answers for

Experienced people focuses on “DNA Topology – 3”.

1. Topoisomerases I and II differ only on the number of steps required

to change the linking number.
a) True
b) False

2. Which special enzyme introduces negative supercoils in DNA?

a) Type I topoisomerase
b) Type II topoisomerase
c) Gyrase
d) Helicase
Explanation: A special type of type II topoisomerase found in
prokaryotes, known as the DNA gyrase introduces negative supercoils
rather than removing it. DNA gyrase is responsible for the negative
supercoiling of DNA in prokaryotes.
3. Which of the following is not a property of topoisomerase?
a) Removal of supercoil
b) Helps in DNA replication
c) Cannot catenate and decatenate
d) Utilizes ATP to change linking number

Explanation: Topoisomerases promotes several other reactions

important to maintaining the proper DNA structure within the cell. The
enzymes use the same transient break and strand passage reaction for
both catenation and decatenation of circular DNA molecules.
4. Topoisomerases introduces catenation to promote cell division.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Topoisomerases play an essential role for unlinking DNA
molecules and thus allowing them to separate into two daughter cells
promoting cell division. The process of separation of these cccDNA is
known as decatenation. This reaction is readily promoted by type II
topoisomerase.

5. Type I topoisomerase can never decatenate catenated circular DNA?

a) True
b) False
Explanation: Type II topoisomerase can decatenate circular DNA in any
situation. But type I topoisomerase can only decatenate catenated
circular DNA when any one of the strand caries a nick or gap.
6. The promotion of DNA breaking and rejoining by topoisomerase
requires______________
a) High – energy cofactor
b) Ligase
c) DNase I
d) No external enzyme required
Explanation: Topoisomerases are able to promote both DNA cleavage
and rejoining without the assistance of other proteins or high – energy
cofactors. This is because they use a covalent – intermediate
mechanism which stores the energy of phosphodiester bond cleavage
to reseal the backbone later.
7. Attack of the topoisomerase gives rise to ____________
a) Hydroxy – valine linkage
b) Phospho – tyrosine linkage
c) Hydroxy – cystine linkage
d) Phospho – proline linkage
Explanation: DNA cleavage occurs when a tyrosine residue in the active
site of the topoisomerase attacks a phosphodiester bond in the
backbone of the target DNA. This attack generates a break in the DNA
whereby the topoisomerase is covalently joined to one of the broken
ends via a phosphotyrosine linkage.

8. To reseal the DNA backbone where does topoisomerase gets the

energy from?
a) ATP hydrolysis
b) High energy cofactor
c) Phosphodiester cleavage
d) Phosphotyrosine cleavage
Explanation: The Phospho – tyrosine linkage conserves the energy in
the phosphodiester bond that was cleaved. Therefore, the DNA can be
resealed simply by reversing the original reaction: the OH group from
one broken DNA end attack the Phosphotyrosine on reforming the DNA
phosphodiester bond.
9. Which of the following does not occur during cell division in
prokaryotes?
a) Multiple decatenations
b) DNA cleavage
c) DNA rejoining

10. The active site of the topoisomerase contains a tyrosine residue.

a) True
b) False
Explanation: Yes the active site of the topoisomerase contains a
tyrosine residue. This is a major requirement because it is used to
produce the covalent DNA – tyrosine intermediate. This intermediate
thus formed, stores the energy evolved during the phosphodiester
bond breakage to reseal the backbone after the process of
decatenation is complete.

This set of Molecular Biology Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

(MCQs) focuses on “Chromatin Centromere and Telomere”.

1. Nucleosome was first described in 1974 by ___________

a) William Asbury
b) Rosalind Franklin
c) Roger Kornberg
d) John Crick
Explanation: The basic structural unit of chromatin, the nucleosome,
was described by Roger Kornberg in 1974. Two types of experiments
led to Kornberg’s proposal of the nucleosome model. First, partial
digestion of chromatin with micrococcal nuclease was found to yield
DNA fragments approximately 200 bp long. In contrast, similar
digestion of naked DNA yielded a continuous smear of randomly sized
fragments.

2. The extent of chromosome coiling in non – dividing cells is

_________
a) Supercoiled
b) Euchromatin
c) Condensed
d) Heterochromatin
Explanation: In non – dividing or interphase cells most of the chromatin
is decondensed and distributed throughout the nucleus. This form of
chromatin is known as Euchromatin. During this period of the cell cycle,
genes are transcribed and the DNA is replicated in preparation for cell
division.

3. The whole length of DNA is transcriptionally active.

a) True
b) False
Explanation: About 10% of interphase chromatin is in a very highly
condensed state that resembles the chromatin of cells undergo mitosis.
This type of condensed chromatin is known as heterochromatin.
Heterochromatin is transcriptionally inactive and contains highly
repeated DNA sequences, such as those present at centromeres and
telomeres.

4. Why are chromosomes condensed?

a) To facilitate accommodation
b) Always condensed
c) To facilitate cell division
d) To facilitate distribution in daughter cells
Explanation: As the cells enter mitosis, there chromosomes become
highly condensed so that they can be distributed to daughter cells.
5. At which phase do transcription ceases?
a) Interphase
b) Prophase
c) S phase
d) G phase
Explanation: The chromatin in interphase nuclei are organized in loops
that fold upon them to form the compact metaphase chromosomes of
mitotic cells which are condensed nearly upto ten – thousand folds.
Such condensed chromatin can no longer be used as a template for
RNA synthesis and thus transcription ceases during mitosis. As
prophase marks the beginning of mitosis thus it is the right option.

6. The part that plays a critical role in even distribution of parental DNA
during division is ___________
a) Telomere
b) Centromere
c) Spindle fibre
d) Centrioles
Explanation: The centromere plays a critical role in even distribution of
parental DNA during cell division. It is a specialized region on the
chromosome known as the constricted chromosomal region that holds
the sister chromatids together and attaches the chromosomes to the
spindle fibres during metaphase of division.

7. With respect to centromere which of the following is wrong?

a) Constricted chromosomal region
b) Holds the sister chromatids together
c) Attaches to spindle fibres
d) Facilitates even distribution
Explanation: As the cell enters mitosis, chromatin condensation leads to
the formation of metaphase chromosome consisting of two identical
sister chromatids. These sister chromatids are held together at the
centromere, which is known as the constricted chromosomal region. As
mitosis precedes the microtubules of mitotic spindles attaches to the
centromere, and the two sister chromatids separate and move to the
opposite poles of the spindle.

8. The protein that binds to the spindle fibres are known as centromeric
proteins.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: The proteins associated with centromeres form a
specialized structure called the kinetochore. The spindle fibres thus
formed attaches to these proteins which finally lead to the segregation
of the chromosomes to the daughter cells.

9. Centromeric DNA was initially defined in ___________

a) Bacteria
b) Fungi
c) Yeast
d) Human
Explanation: Centromeric DNA sequences were initially identified in
yeasts, where their functions were assayed by following the
segregation of plasmids at mitosis. Plasmids that contain functional
centromeres segregate like chromosomes and are equally distributed
to daughter cells following mitosis.
10. How many satellite sequence elements are present in yeast
centromere?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Explanation: The centromere sequences of the well studied yeast are
contained in approximately 125 base pairs. It has been found to consist
of three sequence elements: two short sequences of 8 to 25 bp
separated by 78 to 86 bp of very A/T rich DNA.
11. The centromere is A/T rich region.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: Yes the centromere is A/T rich region. For example, the
centromere of Drosophila is about 420 kb consisting of two highly
repetitive satellite DNAs, AATAT and AAGAG, in addition to a non-
repetitive region of A/T rich DNA. Again in Arabidopsis, centromeres
consist of 3 million bp of an A/T rich 178 bp satellite DNA. In humans
also, this feature is observable which is a 171 bp A/T sequence
arranged in tandem repeats spanning around 1–5 million base pairs.

12. Which alternate form of histone is seen in centromeric histones of

humans?
a) H2A.z
b) SMC protein
c) H1
d) CENP-A
Explanation: It has been observed that the human chromatin near the
centromere has a unique structure. In particular, histone H3 is replaced
by its variant CENP-A. CENP-A is uniformly present in centromere of all
organisms that have been studied and thus are thought to be of prime
requisite for the assembly of the kinetochore proteins needed for
centromere function.

13. Telomere is not related to __________

a) Maintenance
b) Chromosome degradation
c) Division
d) Replication
Explanation: The sequences at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes are
called the telomeres. They play a critical role in maintenance and
replication of the DNA and also play a part in chromosomal
degradation. Degradation of the telomeres leads to ageing.

14. Which of the following nucleotides is rich I telomere of an

organism?
a) A, T
b) T, G
c) G, C
d) C, A
Explanation: The telomere DNA sequences of a variety of eukaryotes
are similar, consisting of repeats of a simple sequence DNA containing a
cluster of G residues on one strand. For example, the repeat sequence
of telomere in humans and other mammals is TTAGGG, and in
Tetrahymena is TTGGGG. This sequence is repeated over hundreds and
thousands of times and is terminated with a 3’ overhanging DNA.
15. How does telomerase activity depend on age?
a) Directly
b) Inversely
c) Remains the same
d) Does not occur
Explanation: Telomerase activity does not occur in a normal somatic
cell as it is present in inactive form. Thus the ends of the DNA does not
get replicated every time a cell divides which leads to aging.

16. In cancer telomerase activity __________

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Plays no role
Answer: a
Explanation: Cancer cells have high levels of telomerase activity
allowing them to maintain the ends of their chromosomes through
indefinite divisions. Since normal somatic cells lack active telomerase
activity they do not divide indefinitely.

This set of Molecular Biology Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

(MCQs) focuses on “Chromatin Centromere and Telomere”.

1. Nucleosome was first described in 1974 by ___________

a) William Asbury
b) Rosalind Franklin
c) Roger Kornberg
d) John Crick
Explanation: The basic structural unit of chromatin, the nucleosome,
was described by Roger Kornberg in 1974. Two types of experiments
led to Kornberg’s proposal of the nucleosome model. First, partial
digestion of chromatin with micrococcal nuclease was found to yield
DNA fragments approximately 200 bp long. In contrast, similar
digestion of naked DNA yielded a continuous smear of randomly sized
fragments.

2. The extent of chromosome coiling in non – dividing cells is

_________
a) Supercoiled
b) Euchromatin
c) Condensed
d) Heterochromatin
Explanation: In non – dividing or interphase cells most of the chromatin
is decondensed and distributed throughout the nucleus. This form of
chromatin is known as Euchromatin. During this period of the cell cycle,
genes are transcribed and the DNA is replicated in preparation for cell
division.
3. The whole length of DNA is transcriptionally active.
a) True
b) False

4. Why are chromosomes condensed?

a) To facilitate accommodation
b) Always condensed
c) To facilitate cell division
d) To facilitate distribution in daughter cells
Explanation: As the cells enter mitosis, there chromosomes become
highly condensed so that they can be distributed to daughter cells. The
chromatin in interphase nuclei are organized in loops, which are
thought to fold upon themselves to form the compact metaphase
chromosomes of mitotic cells in which the DNA has been condensed
nearly ten – thousand folds.

5. At which phase do transcription ceases?

a) Interphase
b) Prophase
c) S phase
d) G phase
Explanation: The chromatin in interphase nuclei are organized in loops
that fold upon them to form the compact metaphase chromosomes of
mitotic cells which are condensed nearly upto ten – thousand folds.
Such condensed chromatin can no longer be used as a template for
RNA synthesis and thus transcription ceases during mitosis. As
prophase marks the beginning of mitosis thus it is the right option.

6. The part that plays a critical role in even distribution of parental DNA
during division is ___________
a) Telomere
b) Centromere
c) Spindle fibre
d) Centrioles
Explanation: The centromere plays a critical role in even distribution of
parental DNA during cell division. It is a specialized region on the
chromosome known as the constricted chromosomal region that holds
the sister chromatids together and attaches the chromosomes to the
spindle fibres during metaphase of division.

7. With respect to centromere which of the following is wrong?

a) Constricted chromosomal region
b) Holds the sister chromatids together
c) Attaches to spindle fibres
d) Facilitates even distribution
Explanation: As the cell enters mitosis, chromatin condensation leads to
the formation of metaphase chromosome consisting of two identical
sister chromatids. These sister chromatids are held together at the
centromere, which is known as the constricted chromosomal region. As
mitosis precedes the microtubules of mitotic spindles attaches to the
centromere, and the two sister chromatids separate and move to the
opposite poles of the spindle.

8. The protein that binds to the spindle fibres are known as centromeric
proteins.
a) True
b) False

9. Centromeric DNA was initially defined in ___________

a) Bacteria
b) Fungi
c) Yeast
d) Human
Explanation: Centromeric DNA sequences were initially identified in
yeasts, where their functions were assayed by following the
segregation of plasmids at mitosis. Plasmids that contain functional
centromeres segregate like chromosomes and are equally distributed
to daughter cells following mitosis.

10. How many satellite sequence elements are present in yeast

centromere?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Explanation: The centromere sequences of the well studied yeast are
contained in approximately 125 base pairs. It has been found to consist
of three sequence elements: two short sequences of 8 to 25 bp
separated by 78 to 86 bp of very A/T rich DNA.

11. The centromere is A/T rich region.

a) True
b) False
Explanation: Yes the centromere is A/T rich region. For example, the
centromere of Drosophila is about 420 kb consisting of two highly
repetitive satellite DNAs, AATAT and AAGAG, in addition to a non-
repetitive region of A/T rich DNA. Again in Arabidopsis, centromeres
consist of 3 million bp of an A/T rich 178 bp satellite DNA. In humans
also, this feature is observable which is a 171 bp A/T sequence
arranged in tandem repeats spanning around 1–5 million base pairs.

12. Which alternate form of histone is seen in centromeric histones of

humans?
a) H2A.z
b) SMC protein
c) H1
d) CENP-A
Explanation: It has been observed that the human chromatin near the
centromere has a unique structure. In particular, histone H3 is replaced
by its variant CENP-A. CENP-A is uniformly present in centromere of all
organisms that have been studied and thus are thought to be of prime
requisite for the assembly of the kinetochore proteins needed for
centromere function.

13. Telomere is not related to __________

a) Maintenance
b) Chromosome degradation
c) Division
d) Replication
Explanation: The sequences at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes are
called the telomeres. They play a critical role in maintenance and
replication of the DNA and also play a part in chromosomal
degradation. Degradation of the telomeres leads to ageing.

14. Which of the following nucleotides is rich I telomere of an

organism?
a) A, T
b) T, G
c) G, C
d) C, A
Explanation: The telomere DNA sequences of a variety of eukaryotes
are similar, consisting of repeats of a simple sequence DNA containing a
cluster of G residues on one strand. For example, the repeat sequence
of telomere in humans and other mammals is TTAGGG, and in
Tetrahymena is TTGGGG. This sequence is repeated over hundreds and
thousands of times and is terminated with a 3’ overhanging DNA.

15. How does telomerase activity depend on age?

a) Directly
b) Inversely
c) Remains the same
d) Does not occur
Explanation: Telomerase activity does not occur in a normal somatic
cell as it is present in inactive form. Thus the ends of the DNA does not
get replicated every time a cell divides which leads to aging.

16. In cancer telomerase activity __________

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Plays no role
Explanation: Cancer cells have high levels of telomerase activity
allowing them to maintain the ends of their chromosomes through
indefinite divisions. Since normal somatic cells lack active telomerase
activity they do not divide indefinitely.

1. During DNA cloning which of the following is not a crucial

requirement?
a) DNA inserts
b) Vector
c) Protein expression
d) Molecular cutter
Explanation: DNA cloning typically involves a vector that carried the
DNA insert into a host cell. Molecular cutters are important to
incorporate the DNA insert into the vector thus giving rise to the
chimera molecule. Hence cloning is complete if the organism replicates
and the DNA insert replicates along with it.

2. Transformation does not involve ____________

a) Cutting
b) Recombination
c) Propagation
d) Expression
Explanation: Transformation specifically involves the cutting of vector
and gene of interest with specific cutters. These are then ligated and
thus formed molecule is is the recombinant molecule. This molecule is
then propagated into the host cell thereby ending the process of
transformation of the host.
3. Which is the most common organism considered for genetic
manipulations?
a) E. coli
b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
c) Cyanobacteria
d) Bacillus Subtilis
Explanation: The DNA fragment to be cloned needs to be inserted
within the vector to be replicated within the host. By far the most
common host used to propagate DNA and thus genetic manipulations is
E. coli.

4. Which of the following is an essential feature for being a perfect

vector?
a) Origin of replication
b) Selectable marker
c) Restriction site
d) Virulent gene
Explanation: A vector typically has three characteristics:
i. It must contain an origin of replication.
ii. It must contain a selectable marker.
iii. It must have one or more restriction sites for restriction
endonucleases.

5. DNA ligase can ligate restriction site ends produced by EcoRI to the
ends of DNA insert cut by the same enzyme.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: EcoRI generates protruding 5’ ends (sticky ends) that are
complementary to each other. Thus the ends are capable of
reannealing with each other. Thus when both vector the same enzyme
and DNA insert are cut using same cutter the strands anneal themselves
but leaves two nicks in both the strands. Thus treatment with the
enzyme ligase seals the nicks using ATP.

6. The vector and the DNA insert are cut by different enzymes for
convenience.
a) True
b) False
Explanation: A target DNA is cleaved with a restriction enzyme to
generate potential DNA inserts with sticky ends. Vector DNA that has
been cut with the same enzyme produces compatible over hangings
thus making it convenient for the purpose of annealing and ligation.

7. What is the major difference between cloning vectors and primary

vectors?
a) Selectable marker
b) DNA inserts
c) Presence of promoter
d) Presence of two Ori
Explanation: The major difference is the presence of suitable promoter
before the DNA insert. In case of an expression vector the main motto
is the production of protein thus a promoter in essential criteria but in
case of the cloning vector it is mainly used for amplification and/or
production of library.

8. Which of the following is the primary use of an expression vector?

b) DNA purification
c) Protein production
9. Under the influence of which ion does E. coli takes up plasmid from
the environment?
a) Nickel
b) Copper
c) Lead
d) Sulphur
Explanation: The presence of copper (Cu2+) makes the cell wall of E.
coli porous. This facilitates the uptake of external plasmid DNA by
applying little agitation.

10. The process by which every type of transformant can be identified is

__________
a) Replica plating
b) Hybridization
c) Blotting
d) Insertional inactivation
Explanation: Insertional inactivation is the process by which a marker
gene is inactivated by inserting the DNA insert within that gene. This
leads to visual identification if the gene inactivated gives a coloured
product when grown in suitable medium. Also, the marker inactivated
may be an antibiotic resistant gene where the cells are grown in
suitable antibiotics following the process of replica plating.

This set of Molecular Biology Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

(MCQs) focuses on “Chromatin Centromere and Telomere”.

1. Nucleosome was first described in 1974 by ___________

a) William Asbury
b) Rosalind Franklin
c) Roger Kornberg
d) John Crick
Explanation: The basic structural unit of chromatin, the nucleosome,
was described by Roger Kornberg in 1974. Two types of experiments
led to Kornberg’s proposal of the nucleosome model. First, partial
digestion of chromatin with micrococcal nuclease was found to yield
DNA fragments approximately 200 bp long. In contrast, similar
digestion of naked DNA yielded a continuous smear of randomly sized
fragments.

2. The extent of chromosome coiling in non – dividing cells is

_________
a) Supercoiled
b) Euchromatin
c) Condensed
d) Heterochromatin
Explanation: In non – dividing or interphase cells most of the chromatin
is decondensed and distributed throughout the nucleus. This form of
chromatin is known as Euchromatin. During this period of the cell cycle,
genes are transcribed and the DNA is replicated in preparation for cell
division.

3. The whole length of DNA is transcriptionally active.

a) True
b) False

4. Why are chromosomes condensed?

a) To facilitate accommodation
b) Always condensed
c) To facilitate cell division
d) To facilitate distribution in daughter cells
Explanation: As the cells enter mitosis, there chromosomes become
highly condensed so that they can be distributed to daughter cells. The
chromatin in interphase nuclei are organized in loops, which are
thought to fold upon themselves to form the compact metaphase
chromosomes of mitotic cells in which the DNA has been condensed
nearly ten – thousand folds.

5. At which phase do transcription ceases?

a) Interphase
b) Prophase
c) S phase
d) G phase
Explanation: The chromatin in interphase nuclei are organized in loops
that fold upon them to form the compact metaphase chromosomes of
mitotic cells which are condensed nearly upto ten – thousand folds.
Such condensed chromatin can no longer be used as a template for
RNA synthesis and thus transcription ceases during mitosis. As
prophase marks the beginning of mitosis thus it is the right option.

6. The part that plays a critical role in even distribution of parental DNA
during division is ___________
a) Telomere
b) Centromere
c) Spindle fibre
d) Centrioles
Explanation: The centromere plays a critical role in even distribution of
parental DNA during cell division. It is a specialized region on the
chromosome known as the constricted chromosomal region that holds
the sister chromatids together and attaches the chromosomes to the
spindle fibres during metaphase of division.

7. With respect to centromere which of the following is wrong?

a) Constricted chromosomal region
b) Holds the sister chromatids together
c) Attaches to spindle fibres
d) Facilitates even distribution
Explanation: As the cell enters mitosis, chromatin condensation leads to
the formation of metaphase chromosome consisting of two identical
sister chromatids. These sister chromatids are held together at the
centromere, which is known as the constricted chromosomal region. As
mitosis precedes the microtubules of mitotic spindles attaches to the
centromere, and the two sister chromatids separate and move to the
opposite poles of the spindle.

8. The protein that binds to the spindle fibres are known as centromeric
proteins.
a) True
b) False

9. Centromeric DNA was initially defined in ___________

a) Bacteria
b) Fungi
c) Yeast
d) Human
Explanation: Centromeric DNA sequences were initially identified in
yeasts, where their functions were assayed by following the
segregation of plasmids at mitosis. Plasmids that contain functional
centromeres segregate like chromosomes and are equally distributed
to daughter cells following mitosis.

10. How many satellite sequence elements are present in yeast

centromere?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Explanation: The centromere sequences of the well studied yeast are
contained in approximately 125 base pairs. It has been found to consist
of three sequence elements: two short sequences of 8 to 25 bp
separated by 78 to 86 bp of very A/T rich DNA.

11. The centromere is A/T rich region.

a) True
b) False
Explanation: Yes the centromere is A/T rich region. For example, the
centromere of Drosophila is about 420 kb consisting of two highly
repetitive satellite DNAs, AATAT and AAGAG, in addition to a non-
repetitive region of A/T rich DNA. Again in Arabidopsis, centromeres
consist of 3 million bp of an A/T rich 178 bp satellite DNA. In humans
also, this feature is observable which is a 171 bp A/T sequence
arranged in tandem repeats spanning around 1–5 million base pairs.

12. Which alternate form of histone is seen in centromeric histones of

humans?
a) H2A.z
b) SMC protein
c) H1
d) CENP-A
Explanation: It has been observed that the human chromatin near the
centromere has a unique structure. In particular, histone H3 is replaced
by its variant CENP-A. CENP-A is uniformly present in centromere of all
organisms that have been studied and thus are thought to be of prime
requisite for the assembly of the kinetochore proteins needed for
centromere function.

13. Telomere is not related to __________

a) Maintenance
b) Chromosome degradation
c) Division
d) Replication
Explanation: The sequences at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes are
called the telomeres. They play a critical role in maintenance and
replication of the DNA and also play a part in chromosomal
degradation. Degradation of the telomeres leads to ageing.

14. Which of the following nucleotides is rich I telomere of an

organism?
a) A, T
b) T, G
c) G, C
d) C, A
Explanation: The telomere DNA sequences of a variety of eukaryotes
are similar, consisting of repeats of a simple sequence DNA containing a
cluster of G residues on one strand. For example, the repeat sequence
of telomere in humans and other mammals is TTAGGG, and in
Tetrahymena is TTGGGG. This sequence is repeated over hundreds and
thousands of times and is terminated with a 3’ overhanging DNA.

15. How does telomerase activity depend on age?

a) Directly
b) Inversely
c) Remains the same
d) Does not occur
Explanation: Telomerase activity does not occur in a normal somatic
cell as it is present in inactive form. Thus the ends of the DNA does not
get replicated every time a cell divides which leads to aging.

16. In cancer telomerase activity __________

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Plays no role
Explanation: Cancer cells have high levels of telomerase activity
allowing them to maintain the ends of their chromosomes through
indefinite divisions. Since normal somatic cells lack active telomerase
activity they do not divide indefinitely.

1. DNA fingerprinting recognizes the differences in

(a) satellite DNA
(b) bulk DNA
(c) Repetitive DNA
(d) both (a) and (c)

2. This force can stabilize a DNA double-helix 

(a) Hydrophilic sugar-phosphate groups are found on the exterior of the
helix where interaction with water occurs.
(b) Hydrophobic bases are present in the interior of the helix, each
base-pair is stabilized by the same number of hydrogen bonds
(c) covalent base stacking interactions may take place between
neighbouring bases within the same strand in the helix
3. In this type of DNA replication, of the two newly formed molecules,
one is purely a new one and the other is an old one
(a) dispersive
(b) conservative
(c) semiconservative
(d) both (b) and (c)
4. The process of DNA replication is affected by an enzyme known as
(a) Mutase
(b) Ligase
(c) Polymerase I
(d) Ribonuclease
5. A DNA molecule in which both strands have radioactive thymidine is
permitted to replicate in an environment that contains non-radioactive
thymidine. What is the right number of DNA molecules which possess
some radioactive thymidine post three duplications?
(a) one such molecule
(b) two such molecules
(c) four such molecules
(d) eight such molecules
6. If the DNA strand has nitrogenous base sequence ATTGCC, the mRNA
will have?
(a) ATTGCA
(b) UGGACC
(c) UAACGG
(d) ATCGCC
7. The type of coiling in DNA is
(a) Zig-zag
(b) Left-handed
(c) Opposite
(d) Right-handed
8. In DNA, the enzyme which breaks the H2 bonds is
(a) Ligase
(b) Helicase
(c) Topoisomerase
 9. The total DNA comprises what amount of cytoplasmic DNA in cells?
(a) 95-99%
(b) 65-75%
(c) 45-50%
(d) 1-5%
10. The bases are held together in a DNA double helix by hydrogen
bonds. These bonds are
(a) Ionic bonds
(b) Covalent bonds
(c) Non-covalent bonds
(d) Van der Waals forces
1. The accepted hypothesis for DNA replication is
A. conservative theory
B. dispersive theory
C. semi-conservative theory
D
evolutionary theory
.
Answer: Option C

2. When DNA polymerase is in contact with guanine in the parental

strand, what does it add to the growing daughter strand?
A. Phosphate
B. Cytosine
C. Uracil
 D
Guanine
.
Answer: Option B

3. Telomeres are usually rich in which nucleotide?

A. Adenine
B. Guanine
C. Thymine
D
Cytosine
.
Answer: Option B

4. Which is the largest among the followings?

A. Nucleotide
B. Nitrogenous base
C. Phosphate
D
Carbon
.
Answer: Option A

5. The chromosomal DNA complexes with

A. three types of histone as H1, H2A and H4
B. five types of histone as H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4
 C. four types of histone as H1, H2A, H3 and H4
D
two types of histone as H1 and H4
.
Answer: Option B

1. The least level of chromosome organization is

(a) 30nm fibre
(b) solenoid
(c) nucleosome
(d) none of the above
2. This has the largest number of chromosomes
(a) Pisum sativum
(b) Giant redwood tree
(c) Haplopappus gracilis
(d) Ophioglossum reticulatum
3. A chromosome with a very short arm and a very long arm is referred
to as
(a) Metacentric
(b) telocentric
(c) Acrocentric
(d) Sub-metacentric

4. A chromosome is the thickest during

(a) anaphase
(b) prophase
(c) interphase
(d) metaphase
5. The diagrammatic representation of karyotype (morphological
representation of chromosomes) of a species is known as
(a) Cladogram
(b) Ecogram
(c) Chromogram
(d) Idiogram
6. If Bb is a gene pair of an individual then the alleles for this gene pair
are
(a) A and B
(b) a and A
(c) a and b
(d) b and B
7. Euchromatin
(a) stains lightly
(b) is partially condensed
(c) genetically active chromatin with genes
(d) all of the above
8. The point at which polytene chromosomes appear to be attached
together is known as
(a) centriole
(b) centromere
(c) chromomere
(d) chromocenter
9. In which typical stage are Lampbrush chromosomes observed?
(a) meiotic prophase
(b) mitotic metaphase
(c) mitotic prophase
(d) mitotic anaphase
10. Each of the chromosome at the anaphase stage of a bone marrow
cell in our body has
(a) one chromatid
(b) two chromatids
(c) several chromatids
(d) no chromatids
1. The term chromosome was coined by ___________.
(a) Sutton
(b) Boveri
(c) Waldeyer
(d) Hoffmeister
2. In males, the gene for colour blindness is located in________.
(a) X-chromosome
(b) Y-chromosome
(c) Both X and Y chromosome
(d) Either X-chromosome or Y-chromosome
3. Who proposed the chromosomal theory of inheritance?
(a) Sutton
(b) Boveri
(c) Correns
(d) Both (a) and (b)
4. Which of the following is called the sex-linked disease?
(a) Leukemia
(b) Alzheimer’s
(c) Malignancy
(d) Colour blindness
5. Which of the following statements is true about the ends of the
chromosome?
(a) The ends of the chromosome are called Satellites
(b) The ends of the chromosome are called Centromeres
(c) The ends of the chromosome are called Telomeres
(d) The ends of the chromosome are called Kinetochore

6. How many sex chromosomes are present in a human being?

(a) 1 pair
(b) 2 pairs
(c) 3 pairs
(d) 4 pairs
7. Who was the first person to observe the chromosomes?
(a) Fleming
(b) Waldeyer
(c) Strasburger
(d) Hofmeister
8. Which of the following statements is true about the metaphase?
(a) A chromosome is the thickest during the metaphase
(b) A chromosome is the shortest during the metaphase
(c) A chromosome is the longest during the metaphase
(d) Both (a) and (b)
9. A fully expressed allele is referred to as ________.
(a) Dominant
(b) Recessive
(c) Homologous
(d) Heterozygous
10. During the anaphase stage in a bone marrow cell, each of the
chromosomes has_______.
(a) No chromatids
(b) One chromatid
(c) Two chromatids
(d) Several chromatids
11. Most of the genetic disorders are caused due to _________.
(a) Mutation
(b) The gender of an individual
(c) The gross chromosomal abnormalities
(d) All of the above
12. The thread-like structures, which appear inside the nucleus at the
time of cell division, are called __________.
(a) Asters
(b) Centrioles
(c) Chromosomes
(d) Spindle fibers
13. Which of the following statements is true about the chromatin
composition?
(a) DNA
(b) RNA
(c) DNA and proteins
(d) DNA, RNA and proteins
14. How many autosomes are present in a human being?
(a) 20 pairs
(b) 22 pairs
(c) 23 pairs
(d) 44 pairs
15. Which of the following living species comprises more than 200
chromosomes?
(a) Amoeba
(b) Buffalo
(c) Chicken
(d) Giraffe
1. The DNA threads which appear inside the nucleus at the time of cell
division?
a) Spindle fibers
b) Centrioles
c) Asters
d) Chromosomes
Explanation: Chromosome is a thread-like DNA structure carrying
genetic information in the form of genes.
2. Which of the following is not a major class of chromatin proteins?
a) Histones
b) Topoisomerases
c) SMC proteins
d) Cohesins
Explanation: Cohesins are the proteins in the SMC family.

3. Which of the following plays a substantial role in linking together

sister chromatids immediately after replication?
a) Cohesins
b) Condensins
c) Histones
d) Topoisomerases
Explanation: The cohesins play a substantial role in linking together
sister chromatids immediately after replication and keeping them
together as the chromosomes condense to metaphase.

4. Which of the following are essential to the condensation of

chromosomes as cells enter mitosis?
a) Cohesins
b) Condensins
c) Histones
d) Topoisomerases
Explanation: Cohesins are important immediately after replication.

5. Chromatin is composed of ____________

a) DNA
b) DNA and proteins
c) DNA, RNA and proteins
d) None
Explanation: DNA + histones combination is termed as chromatin.

6. Which of the following histones bind to linker DNA?

a) H1
b) H2A
c) H2B
d) H3
Explanation: The bead of each nucleosome contains eight histone
molecules: two copies each of H2A, H2B, H3 and H4.

7. Which of the following has beads on a string structure?

a) Chromosomes
b) Chromatin
c) Nucleosomes
d) Heterochromatin
Explanation: DNA winds around histone proteins forming nucleosomes:
the beads on a string structure.

8. Which of the following histones shows more sequence similarity

among eukaryotic species?
a) H1
b) H2A
c) H2B
d) H3
Explanation: The H3 histones are nearly identical in amino acid
sequence in all eukaryotes, as are the H4 histones.

9. The sister chromatids separate at ____________

a) Prophase
b) Metaphase
c) Telophase
d) Anaphase
Explanation: During anaphase, each chromosomal pair is separated into
two identical and independent chromosomes.

10. Cellular DNA is uncondensed throughout ____________

a) Prophase
b) Interphase
c) Telophase
d) Anaphase
Explanation: During interphase, the cell’s DNA is not condensed.

1. The least level of chromosome organization is

(a) 30nm fibre
(b) solenoid
(c) nucleosome
(d) none of the above

2. This has the largest number of chromosomes

(a) Pisum sativum
(b) Giant redwood tree
(c) Haplopappus gracilis
(d) Ophioglossum reticulatum

Answer
3. A chromosome with a very short arm and a very long arm is referred
to as
(a) Metacentric
(b) telocentric
(c) Acrocentric
(d) Sub-metacentric
Answer
Answer: (c)

4. A chromosome is the thickest during

(a) anaphase
(b) prophase
(c) interphase
(d) metaphase

Answer
Answer: (d)

5. The diagrammatic representation of karyotype (morphological

representation of chromosomes) of a species is known as
(a) Cladogram
(b) Ecogram
(c) Chromogram
(d) Idiogram

Answer
Answer: (d)

6. If Bb is a gene pair of an individual then the alleles for this gene pair
are
(a) A and B
(b) a and A
(c) a and b
(d) b and B
Answer
Answer: (d)

7. Euchromatin
(a) stains lightly
(b) is partially condensed
(c) genetically active chromatin with genes
(d) all of the above

Answer
Answer: (d)

8. The point at which polytene chromosomes appear to be attached

together is known as
(a) centriole
(b) centromere
(c) chromomere
(d) chromocenter

Answer
Answer: (d)

9. In which typical stage are Lampbrush chromosomes observed?

(a) meiotic prophase
(b) mitotic metaphase
(c) mitotic prophase
(d) mitotic anaphase

Answer
Answer: (a)

10. Each of the chromosome at the anaphase stage of a bone marrow

cell in our body has
(a) one chromatid
(b) two chromatids
(c) several chromatids
(d) no chromatids

Answer
Answer: (a)

Which answer choice incorrectly matches the type of chromatin with

the phase of mitosis?

Possible Answers:

Heterochromatin—prophase

Heterochromatin—metaphase

Euchromatin—interphase
Euchromatin—telophase

Heterochromatin—interphase

Correct answer:

Euchromatin—telophase

Explanation:

DNA is stored in loosely wound euchromatin before mitosis. During

mitosis, the DNA condenses into chromosomes, which are made of
heterochromatin. It becomes more dense during prophase, and stays
that way until the end of mitosis. Euchromatin is more lightly packed
than heterochromatin.

Mitosis follows the following sequence: prophase, metaphase,

anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis. Interphase refers to the time period
between mitotic divisions. During interphase, most DNA is
euchromatin, but some regions remain as heterochromatin to prevent
unwanted transcription; thus DNA exists as both types of chromatin
during interphase, but only as heterochromatin during mitosis.
Matching euchromatin to telophase is the answer, as this is a false
statement.

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Example Question #1 : Chromatin And Chromosomes

What is a nucleosome?

Possible Answers:

A membrane-bound organelle that contains epigenetic information

A complex of proteins that controls nuclear import 

Non-chromosomal DNA that is free floating in the cytosol

A repeating unit of chromatin

Correct answer:

A repeating unit of chromatin

Explanation:

Nucleosomes are the basic, repeating units of eukaryotic chromatin.

They consist of chromosomal DNA wrapped around special DNA-
binding proteins called histones. There are many examples of non-
chromosomal DNA, such as plasmids, but they do not contain
nucleosomes. Nuclear import is controlled by importin proteins.

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Example Question #2 : Chromatin And Chromosomes

__________ are proteins used to package DNA. 
Possible Answers:

Nucleosomes

Chromatins

Telomerases

Histones

Correct answer:

Histones

Explanation:
Histones are proteins that bind and package DNA. The strand of DNA is
wound around histone proteins, condensing it to fit in the nucleus and
acting to moderate gene expression. Chromatin is the term given to the
complex of DNA associated with histones. A nucleosome is the smallest
repeating unit of chromatin, formed from eight histone proteins and
two loops of coiled DNA. Telomerase is an enzyme responsible for
maintaining the integrity of the telomeres.

Report an Error

Example Question #1 : Chromatin And Chromosomes

__________ is also known as "light" chromatin and represents DNA
that can actively undergo __________.
Possible Answers:

Heterochromatin . . . translation

Euchromatin . . . translation

Heterochromatin . . . transcription

Euchromatin . . . transcription

Correct answer:

Euchromatin . . . transcription

Explanation:

Euchromatin is the name given to chromatin that appears lighter when

viewed under a microscope. It is actually relatively decondensed
chromatin that is available for active transcription. Because it is
decondensed it is more accessible to RNA polymerase and, therefore,
easier to transcribe. In contrast, heterochromatin is tightly wound,
dense DNA that is inaccessible by RNA polymerase and is considered
inactive.

Translation is the process of synthesizing proteins from mRNA

transcripts and does not directly involve DNA or chromatin.

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Example Question #2 : Chromatin And Chromosomes

Which of the following is true of chromatin?

Possible Answers:

Chromatin never gets further compacted than the 10nm fiber

Chromatin is present in all eukaryotic and prokaryotic DNA

Patterns of methylation or acetylation of histones can regulate gene

expression

Nucleosomes consist of DNA wrapped in proteins known as

transcriptions factors

Correct answer:

Patterns of methylation or acetylation of histones can regulate gene

expression

Explanation:

Chromatin is not present in all eukaryotic and prokaryotic DNA; most

prokaryotic DNA is circular and does not require the complex folding of
eukaryotic chromatin. Chromatin exists in more compacted states than
10nm. In particular, the 30nm version is commonly recognized as
heterochromatin (DNA that is not being actively transcribed). Packaging
can also be more condensed during certain stages of mitosis.
Nucleosomes are the smallest units of chromatin and are strands of
DNA wrapped in proteins known as histones.

Patterns of methylation and acetylation of these histones have been

shown to repress and activate gene expression, respectively, and are
important factors in regulating gene expression and epigenetics.

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Example Question #3 : Chromatin And Chromosomes

Human beings have diploid cells. What is indicated by this statement?

Possible Answers:

Humans have both sex chromosomes and somatic chromosomes

Humans have two chromosomes in each cell nucleus

Humans have two stages of cell division

Humans have homologous chromosome pairs

Correct answer:

Humans have homologous chromosome pairs

Explanation:

Human beings have somatic (body) cells that are diploid. This means
that each cell has two copies of each of the 23 chromosomes: one from
the father and one from the mother. As a result, the karyotype of a
human being would show 23 pairs of chromosomes, for a total of 46.
Diploid cells contain two non-identical copies of the same genes. All
diploid cells will contain two separate alleles for each gene in the
genome, represented by the two homologous chromosomes.

An important note to make is that human germ (sex) cells are haploid,
meaning that the chromosomes are not paired in sperm cells and egg
cells.

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Example Question #1 : Chromatin And Chromosomes

Which correctly describes eukaryotic histones in a nucleosome

structure?

Possible Answers:

A core histone octamer plus a linker histone

A core histone octamer plus 2 linker histones

A core histone plus a linker histone octamer

A core histone nonamer

A core histone heptamer plus a linker histone

Correct answer:

A core histone octamer plus a linker histone

Explanation:

A nucleosome is defined as a core region of histones plus one stretch of

linker DNA. This gives a "beads on a string" shape, which can be further
packaged into chromatin. These nucleosomes contain a DNA wrapped
histone octamer in the core region, and a linker histone in the linker
DNA region. The histone octamer has 2 each of H2A, H2B, H3, and H4
histones. The linker DNA has an H1 histone. 

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Example Question #1 : Chromatin And Chromosomes

Which of the following are not observed when performing a karyotype?

Possible Answers:

Size of chromosomes

Number of chromosomes

Position of centromeres

Gene loci

Differences in satellite chromosome position and number 

Correct answer:

Gene loci

Explanation:

Karyotypes describe whole chromosome structure, including the

number and size of chromosomes, position of centromeres, distribution
of heterochromatin versus euchromatin, and the presence of satellite
chromosomes that are found near the centromeres. However, a
karyotype is unable to label specific gene sequences and determine
their chromosomal locations. Most karyotypes depict chromosomes of
a cell in metaphase.

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Example Question #1 : Chromatin And Chromosomes

What is the name of the globular protein around which DNA is wrapped
in a chromosome?

Possible Answers:

Nucleolus

Nucleosome

Chromatin

Histone

Correct answer:

Histone

Explanation:

Chromosomes have a great deal of protein involved in their structure so

that DNA can be tightly coiled in order to fit into the nucleus. At the
smallest level of organization, the DNA wraps itself around small
globular proteins called histones. Complexes of histones and DNA form
nucleosomes, which appear as "beads" on the DNA strand.

Chromatin refers to the decondensed DNA that has not formed

separate chromosomes. The nucleolus is a nuclear structure where
ribosomal subunits are synthesized.

Report an Error

Example Question #1 : Chromatin And Chromosomes

Proteins that DNA wraps around to form tightly packaged and
organized structural units are referred to as __________.
Possible Answers:

nucleosomes

chromosomes

None of the other answers 

chromatin

histones

Correct answer:

histones

Explanation:

The correct answer is histones. Histones are alkaline proteins in the

nucleus that organize DNA into structural units called nucleosomes.
Chromatin and chromosomes are more complex structural units
composed of DNA, histones, nucleosomes, and other proteins. 

1. In the beads on a string model, the bead is made up of __________

a) 6 histone proteins
b) 8 histone proteins
c) 6 histone proteins and DNA
d) 8 histone proteins and DNA
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The “beads on a string” model is for the nucleosome. It
consists of the 8 histone protein core or the bead and the DNA wound
around imitating a string.
2. The unpacked stretches of DNA are the extra chromosomal load
found in the eukaryotic genome.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Linker DNA is the stretches of DNA that are not packed
into a nucleosome. Typically these are the regions engaged in gene
expression, replication and recombination and are generally associated
with non – histone proteins.
3. How many types of histone molecules are found in nature?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Eukaryotic cells commonly contain five abundant histone
molecules. They are named as H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4.
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4. Nucleosome is made up of __________
a) DNA, histone core protein
b) DNA, histone core protein, linker H1
c) RNA, histone core protein
d) RNA, histone core protein, linker H1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The core histone proteins are H2A, H2B, H3 and H4, over
which the DNA is wrapped. Histone H1 is not a part of nucleosome core
particle, instead it binds to the linker DNA and thus is referred to as
linker histone. Thus, the histone core, linker histone and DNA are the
components of the nucleosome.
5. Histones have a high content of negatively charged amino acids.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As histones maintain a constant association with
negatively charged DNA thus histone molecules are made up of high
content of positively charged amino acid. Greater than 20% of the
residues in each histone molecules are either lysine or arginine.
6. With respect to assembly of every core histone which of the
following is wrong?
a) A conserved region
b) Histone fold domain
c) Disc shaped structure
d) 2 α helices and an unstructured loop
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The histone fold is composed of 3 α helices and two
unstructured loops. In each of these cases the histone fold mediates
the formation of head to tail heterodimers of specific pairs of histone.
7. Which of the following histone pairs forms tetramers in solution?
a) H1, H2A
b) H2A, H2B
c) H2B, H3
d) H3, H4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: H3 and H4 histone first forms heterodimers then they
come together to form a tetramer with two molecules of each. In
contrast, H2A and H2B form heterodimers only in the solution and
histone H1 only acts as the linker histone.
8. With respect to the “tails” of the histone molecules which of the
following is not true?
a) N – terminal extension
b) Lacks defined structure
c) Required for the association of nucleosome
d) Sites for extensive modifications
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The “tail” of the histone is not required for the association
for the DNA with the histone octamer into a nucleosome. This is proved
when the nucleosome is treated with the protease, trypsin. Trypsin is
known to cleave proteins after positively charged amino acid thus,
when the N – terminal tail is removed no structural variation is
observable in the nucleosome.
9. How many contacts are observed between the DNA and the histone
core protein?
a) 14
b) 21
c) 54
d) 17
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 14 distinct sites of contact are observed, one for each time
the minor grove of the DNA faces the histone octamer. 147 base pairs
of DNA is wound around the histone octamer and each minor grove
occurs after 10 base pairs thus, 14 contacts are observable.
10. Association of DNA and histone is mediated by _________
a) Covalent bonding
b) Hydrogen bonding
c) Hydrophobic bonding
d) Vander Waals interactions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Association of DNA and histone is mediated by a large
number of hydrogen bonds, that is, ≈140 bonds. The majority forms
between the protein and the oxygen of the phosphodiester backbone
near the minor grove. Only 7 hydrogen bonds are made between the
protein side chains and the bases in the minor groves of the DNA.
1. Histone H1 binds two DNA helices.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Upon interacting with a nucleosome, H1 binds to the linker
DNA at one end of the nucleosome and the central DNA helix of the
nucleosome bound DNA. This protects the ≈20 base pair linker DNA
from nuclease digestion.
2. The distinct zig-zag appearance of the chromatin fibre is due to
____________
a) Nucleosome
b) Histone H1
c) Histone core
d) Linker DNA
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Histone H1 binding produces a more defined angle of DNA
entry and exit from the nucleosome. This effect results in the
nucleosomal DNA taking on a distinct zig-zag appearance.
3. With respect to Histone H1 DNA packaging which of the following is
false?
a) H1 induce 10 nm fibre formation
b) H1 binding gives nucleosome a defined angle
c) H1 stabilizes higher order chromatin structures
d) H1 binds to two DNA helices at once
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the salt concentration increases in a test tube, addition
of H1 results in the nucleosomal DNA forming a 30 nm fibre. This
structure formed in vivo is known to be the next level of DNA
compaction.
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4. With respect to the solenoid model of nucleosome, which of the
following is true?
a) Helical model
b) 8 nucleosomes per turn
c) Structure supported by X – ray diffraction
d) Helical pitch of approximately 13 nm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The solenoid model of nucleosomal DNA packaging is
supported by both EM and X – ray diffraction studies. This study
indicated that the 30 nm fibre is composed of nucleosome stacked on
edge in the form of a helix.
5. What marks the difference between the solenoid and the zig-zag
models of 30 nm fibres?
a) Linker histone molecule
b) Linker DNA
c) Nucleosome structure
d) 10 nm fibre
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Unlike the solenoid model, the zig-zag conformation
requires the linker DNA to pass through the central axis of the fibre in a
relatively straight form. Thus, longer linker DNA favors this
conformation. Because the average linker DNA varies between species,
the form of the 30 nm fibre may not always be the same.
6. The histone tails stabilize the 30 nm fibre by interacting with
adjacent nucleosomes.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Core histones lacking their N – terminal tails are incapable
of forming the 30 nm fibre. The tails is to stabilize the 30 nm fibre by
interacting with adjacent nucleosomes. This model is supported by the
three dimensional structure of the nucleosome., which shows that the
amino terminal tails of H2A, H3 and H4 each interact with adjacent
nucleosomes in the crystal lattice.
7. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the nuclear scaffold?
a) Associated with loops of 40 – 90 kb
b) Topoisomerase I
c) SMC protein
d) Proteinacious in nature
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Two classes of protein contributing to nuclear scaffold
have been identified, that are, topoisomerase II and SMC protein.
Presence of Topo II as a protein associated with the structure can be
proved when the cells are treated with drugs which results in DNA
breaks at the sites of Topo II DNA bindings. The treatment generates
DNA fragments of about 50 kb size.
8. Which histone molecule produces novel binding sites for protein
components of the kinetochore?
a) CENP – A
b) H2A
c) H3
d) H4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A histone variant CENP – A, is associated with the
nucleosome that include centromeric DNA. In this region CENP – A
replaces H3 subunit in the nucleosomes. These nucleosomes are
incorporated into the kinetochore which mediates attachment of the
chromosome to the mitotic spindle. The extended tail of CENP – A may
generate these novel binding sites for other binding protein
components of the kinetochore.
9. With respect to remodeling complex of nucleosome, which of the
following is not true?
a) Does not require ATP
b) Favors sliding of histone
c) Favors transfer of histone
d) Favors remodeling of histone
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The stability of the DNA-histone core interaction is
influenced by large protein complexes referred to as nucleosome
remodeling complexes. These multi – protein complexes facilitate
changes in the nucleosome location or interaction with the DNA using
the energy of ATP hydrolysis.
10. The positioning of nucleosome is beneficial.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to dynamic interactions with DNA, most nucleosomes
are not fixed in their locations. But there are occasions when restricting
nucleosome location, called positioning, can be beneficial. Positioning
allows DNA binding site to remain as accessible linker DNA region for
regulatory proteins.
1. In which of the following chromosome compaction is absent?
a) Cellulomonas flavigena
b) Allium sativum
c) Panthera tigris
d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cellulomonas flavigena is a prokaryote, and unlike the rest
which are eukaryotes they don’t have chromosome compaction and
histones.
2. Histones are __________
a) Neutral
b) Positively charged
c) Negatively charged
d) Neutral with positive and negative domains
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: HIstones are rich in positively charged amino acids namely
lysine and arginine. Thus they have a net positive charge. This helps
them to bind to the negatively charged DNA.
3. Which of the following will increase transcription?
a) Shielding positive charge of DNA
b) Shielding positive charge of histones
c) Shielding promoter for polymerase binding
d) Shielding termination region
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Histone binds to the negatively charged DNA due to its
positive charges. On DNA binding those regions of the DNA are not
available for transcription. Thus, shielding the positive charge would
loosen this binding and enable more transcription.
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4. Which histone(s) are acted upon by HAT?
a) H1, H2
b) H3
c) H2A, H2B
d) H3, H4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: These are the two histone residues that are having lysine
side chains available for acetylation. On, HAT action they loosely bind to
DNA allowing transcription.
5. In a substrate X catabolic gene promoter you replace the normal
histones by your experimental histones – ones with arginine side chains
in place of histidine. What will be the effect on the concentration of
substrate X against the control?
a) Concentration will increase
b) Concentration will decrease
c) Concentration will remain constant
d) Concentration will fluctuate and no definite result will be obtained
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Arginine side chains can’t be acetylated, so there is no
regulation. They are always positively charged and never bind loosely
so no gene product is produced. As these gene products are catabolic in
their absence the substance X is not broken down so its concentration
remains constant.
6. You take a crude cell lysate and treat it with DNase. Now wash it and
add protease. Use specific restriction endonuclease to get your desired
fragment and run it on a gel. You see a single band. Which of the
following will be true about the fragment?
a) It is actively transcribed
b) Only part of it is transcribed
c) No part of it transcribed
d) Undefined transcriptional nature
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DNase would only get access to uncondensed DNA.
Uncondensed DNA is transcriptionally active. As the DNase would have
cleaved the fully or partially transcriptionally active DNA, and our
fragment is intact, we can say it was not at all being transcribed.
7. Which of the following is not a common mode of histone
modification in eukaryotes?
a) Methylation
b) Phosphortlation
c) Sulphonation
d) Ubiquitinylation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The positively charged N-termini of histone is modified by
the phosphorylation, ubiquitinylation, methylation and also acetylation
processes in order to shield its positive charges.
8. Which of the following association acts as transcriptional activator?
a) Myc- Max
b) Mad- Max
c) Map- Mad
d) MapK- Myc
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When Max associates with Myc the gene is
transcriptionally active, while when Max associates with Mad the gene
is inactivated. This is because Mad binds to SIN3A which brings about a
HDAC.
9. In an experiment you perform the following- you attach a flag
epitope to HDAC, you over express a mutated Mad1-pro gene within
the experimental cell, you immunoprecipitate the protein complex
using flag epitope and run that on a non-denaturing SDS PAGE and
western blot. Now you add antibodies for HDAC, MAD1 and SIN3A
stripping after each addition. What will you observe?
a) Bands at same position every time
b) 3 bands at different positions one at a time
c) Bands at same position on 2 occasions
d) No band
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As Mad1-pro can’t bind to SIN3A due to the mutation it
will not precipitate with the HDAC-SIN3A complex. Due to non-
denaturing nature of the gel both the proteins migrate together to the
same distance so the band appears at the same position.
10. In presence of Thyroid hormone the receptor TR binds to
____________
a) RXR directly
b) mRPD3 directly
c) NcoR directly
d) mRPD3 indirectly
Answer: a
Explanation: In presence of thyroid hormone the receptor binds to RXR
directly. In absence however, it binds to NcoR directly, which binds to
SIN3 and mRPD3 which is an HDAC, this binding inactivates the genes.

2)

1. DNA fingerprinting recognizes the differences in

(a) satellite DNA
(b) bulk DNA
(c) Repetitive DNA
(d) both (a) and (c)
Answer: (d)
2. This force can stabilize a DNA double-helix 
(a) Hydrophilic sugar-phosphate groups are found on the exterior of the
helix where interaction with water occurs
(b) Hydrophobic bases are present in the interior of the helix, each
base-pair is stabilized by the same number of hydrogen bonds
(c) covalent base stacking interactions may take place between
neighbouring bases within the same strand in the helix
(d) non-covalent N-glycosidic bonds may form between nitrogenous
bases in opposite strands in the helix
Answer: (a)
3. In this type of DNA replication, of the two newly formed molecules,
one is purely a new one and the other is an old one
(a) dispersive
(b) conservative
(c) semiconservative
(d) both (b) and (c)
Answer: (c)
4. The process of DNA replication is affected by an enzyme known as
(a) Mutase
(b) Ligase
(c) Polymerase I
(d) Ribonuclease
Answer: (c)
5. A DNA molecule in which both strands have radioactive thymidine is
permitted to replicate in an environment that contains non-radioactive
thymidine. What is the right number of DNA molecules which possess
some radioactive thymidine post three duplications?
(a) one such molecule
(b) two such molecules
(c) four such molecules
(d) eight such molecules
Answer: (b)
6. If the DNA strand has nitrogenous base sequence ATTGCC, the mRNA
will have?
(a) ATTGCA
(b) UGGACC
(c) UAACGG
(d) ATCGCC
Answer: (c)
7. The type of coiling in DNA is
(a) Zig-zag
(b) Left-handed
(c) Opposite
(d) Right-handed
Answer: (d)
8. In DNA, the enzyme which breaks the H2 bonds is
(a) Ligase
(b) Helicase
(c) Topoisomerase
(d) Polymerase
Answer: (b)
9. The total DNA comprises what amount of cytoplasmic DNA in cells?
(a) 95-99%
(b) 65-75%
(c) 45-50%
(d) 1-5%
Answer: (d)
10. The bases are held together in a DNA double helix by hydrogen
bonds. These bonds are
(a) Ionic bonds
(b) Covalent bonds
(c) Non-covalent bonds
(d) Van der Waals forces
Answer: (c)

This set of Biology Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)

focuses on “Properties of Genetic Material (DNA versus RNA)”.

1. Which of the following criterion needn’t be fulfilled by the genetic

material?
a) Occurrence of replication
b) Should be able to express itself in the form of “Bohr’s characters”
c) Provision of scope for the mutation that is required for evolution
d) It should be chemically and structurally stable
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A genetic material must be both chemically and
structurally stable. It must be able to replicate. It should provide scope
for the evolutionary changes. But it should also be able to express itself
in the form of “Mendelian characters” and not “Bohr’s characters”.
These Mendelian characters refer to the three laws that were proposed
by Gregor Mendel.
2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of RNA?
a) It has ribose sugar molecules in the nucleotides
b) It is a single stranded molecule
c) It is not stable under alkaline conditions
d) All the 3 types of RNA are involved in protein synthesis
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The hydrogen atom which is attached to the hydroxyl
group on the 2’- C atom of the RNA can be easily deprotonated. The
presence of larger grooves in RNA is also a reason for it not being stable
under alkaline conditions. But under the same condition, the DNA
molecule will be stable for it has smaller grooves which cannot be easily
attacked or penetrated.
3. Which of the following criterion cannot be fulfilled by protein?
a) Formation of polypeptide chains
b) Generation of its replica
c) Formation of alpha helix and beta sheets
d) Non covalent bonds are present between amino acids
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Proteins form polypeptide chains by the peptide bond
formation between amino acids. Their different folding statures results
in the formation of non-covalent bonds as well as the different forms of
proteins. Despite these capabilities, proteins lack the ability to generate
their replica.
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4. Stability is not a property of genetic material.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The genetic material of an organism should be stable and
not change during the course of an organism or person’s lifetime. If any
changes are to occur, then variations and problems will arise. It is also
clearly inferred from the “transforming principle” of Griffith from his
experiments revolving around the R and S strains of the bacterium that
stability persists.
5. Stability of the genetic material can also be inferred from the
“transforming principle”.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Heat killed the bacterium but, it didn’t destroy all of its
genetic material characteristics. This was proved by Griffith in his
experiments concerning about the transformation principles. From this
it can be inferred that the stability of the genetic material (either DNA
or RNA) cannot be entirely killed. The stability of the genetic can be
seen.
6. What will happen when the 2 complementary strands of the DNA are
heated up and brought together?
a) They will repel each due to the charges formed
b) They will attract each other due to the charges formed
c) They will become non-complementary to each other
d) They will combine with each other under appropriate conditions
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: From the Griffith’s experiment related to the transforming
principle, we could understand that the genetic material still possessed
some stability. Likewise, the genetic material DNA which is present in
this case also has the capability to join the 2 complementary strands
despite it being heated up under appropriate conditions.
7. Which of the following statements is correct regarding DNA and
RNA?
a) DNA is highly reactive
b) RNA is not catalytic
c) RNA cannot be easily degraded
d) DNA is a better genetic material than RNA
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: DNA is comparatively less reactive than RNA. The 2’-OH
group which is present at the nucleotide of the RNA is the reactive
group. This makes the RNA highly reactive in comparison to the DNA.
RNA is also catalytic and liable. It cannot be easily degraded. Due to
these reasons, the conclusion is that that DNA is the better genetic
material than the RNA.
8. The presence of which base in the place of uracil makes the DNA
more stable?

a) Adenine
b) Cytosine
c) Thymine
d) Guanine
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the case of DNA, thymine is found in the place of uracil.
Uracil is found to make a double hydrogen bond with Adenine in RNA.
The resistance showed by thymine towards all the photochemical
mutations is what makes the DNA more stable.
9. At what rate does the RNA mutate as compared to DNA?
a) Faster rate
b) Slower rate
c) Moderate rate
d) Depending on the medium
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mutations can be seen in both DNA and RNA. But RNA
mutates at a much faster pace in comparison to the DNA. This is due to
the lack of stability that is seen in RNA. Likewise, the viruses which
contain RNA as their genetic material also mutate at a faster rate. Their
life span will stand short on the contrary.
10. RNA codes are used for translation into which of the following?
a) Genes
b) DNA
c) Proteins
d) Carbohydrate
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The three types of RNA are r-RNA, t-RNA and m-RNA.
These 3 different types of RNA are responsible for the process of
translation (translation of RNA into proteins). RNA codes for different
amino acid sequences which finally when combined together forms the
protein.
11. Which of the following is responsible for the transmission of genetic
information?
a) DNA
b) RNA
c) Proteins
d) Mitochondrion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The storage of the genetic information takes place in the
DNA. It carries all the necessary information needed for heredity. The
stability of the DNA is more too, this helps in carrying information.
During the central dogma, DNA in transcripted to RNA after which RNA
will be responsible for the transmission of the genetic material.
12. Which of the following is responsible for the storage of genetic
material?
a) DNA
b) RNA
c) Proteins
d) Ribosome
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DNA is a stable genetic molecule in comparison to the
RNA. So, the carriage of the genetic information will be carried out by
the DNA. The transmission of the genetic material will be done by RNA
as it is comparatively less stable.

This set of Biology Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)

focuses on “The Genetic Material is DNA”.

1. What are the viruses that affect bacteria known as?

a) Virophage
b) Bacteriophage
c) Mimivirus
d) Virology
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The viruses that affect bacteria are known as
bacteriophage. They have the capability to both enter the bacterium
and reproduce inside them. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase worked
with these kinds of viruses.
2. Who proved that DNA was indeed the genetic material through
experiments?
a) Alfred Hershey and Maclyn McCarty
b) Oswald Avery and Maclyn McCarty
c) Oswald Avery and Martha Chase
d) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase in the year of 1952
proved that DNA was the genetic material through experiments. They
worked with bacteriophages. Oswald Avery and Maclyn McCarty
helping in the determination of the biochemical natures from Griffith’s
experiment with regards to the “transforming principle”.
3. The bacteria treats the attached viral particle’s (bacteriophage)
genetic material as its own.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The bacteriophage comes and attaches itself onto the top
of the bacterial cell wall. After attachment, the virus makes contact
with the bacterial cell wall and tries to inject its genetic material (DNA
or RNA) into the bacteria. The bacteria will consider the viral genetic
material to be as its own and will not do anything.
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4. On which medium were the viruses cultivated by Alfred Hershey and
Martha Chase?
a) A medium containing radioactive potassium (K)
b) A medium containing radioactive Uranium (U)
c) A medium containing radioactive phosphorous (P)
d) A medium containing potassium (K)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase wanted to figure out
whether it was the protein from the bacteriophage that was entering
into the bacteria or if it was the DNA. So, they cultured the
bacteriophage in a medium containing radioactive phosphorous. In this
medium they observed that the radioactive DNA was present in the
virus but not the radioactive protein. This is because, protein doesn’t
contain phosphorous but on the contrary, the DNA does.
5. When the viruses are cultivated in the medium containing
radioactive Sulphur, then these viruses possess radioactive DNA but not
radioactive protein.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DNA doesn’t contain Sulphur whereas protein does. So,
when the virus is placed in the culture medium containing radioactive
Sulphur, radioactive protein is produced and not the radioactive DNA.
This is due to the presence of Sulphur in proteins.
6. The virus infected bacterium which contains radioactive proteins are
not radioactive.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The virus infected bacterium which contains the
radioactive DNA, were observed to be radioactive in lab experiments.
But this was not the case for the ones that had the radioactive protein
in them. From this, it could be inferred that the protein molecules did
not enter the bacterium but only DNA molecules did. The genetic
material that is passed on from the virus to bacterium is the DNA.
7. Which of the following is not a stage in the “Hershey-Chase
experiment”?
a) Blending
b) Centrifugation
c) Infection
d) Conjugation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Infection is the first stage where the viral particle attaches
itself to the bacterial coat and starts to inject its genetic material inside
of it. Blending is the second stage where the viral coats were removed
from the bacterium by the act of “blending”. Centrifugation is the third
stage where the viral particles are centrifuged from the bacterium by
spinning.
8. Which stage is depicted in the picture given below from the
“Hershey-Chase experiment”?
a) Infection
b) Blending
c) Centrifugation
d) Injection
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The viral particle leaves the bacterium in a centrifuge by a
spinning movement. It will not be attached to the bacterium in this
stage. The passing on of the genetic material will not occur or happen
during this stage of centrifugation.
9. What will happen when the radioactive DNA is injected into the
bacterium?

a) Non-radioactive DNA components could be found

b) Radioactive DNA components could be found
c) Non-radioactive RNA components could be found
d) Radioactive RNA components could be found
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the radioactive coated DNA (genetic component) is
injected into a bacterium. Radioactive DNA components can be seen
after the three stages such as:
• Infection
• Blending
• Centrifugation
This is observed because DNA is the component that is being
transferred from the virus to the bacterium and not the protein.
10. Which of the following can be observed alongside with radioactive
bacterium as a result of centrifugation?
a) Bacterium starts to produce RNA
b) Radioactivity can be detected in the supernatant
c) Bacterium starts to move slow
d) Radioactivity cannot be detected in the supernatant
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As a result of the process of centrifugation, a radioactive
bacterium will be produced. The virus attached to the bacterium will
leave during the process of blending. It will leave after injecting the
radioactive material inside the bacterium. So, radioactivity will not be
detected in the supernatant.
11. What will happen when the radioactive protein capsule of the virus
is attached onto the bacteria?
a) Radioactivity is detected in the supernatant
b) Radioactivity is absent in the supernatant
c) Radioactive DNA is injected into the bacterium
d) Attachment of the virus to the bacterium doesn’t occur
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The virus attaches itself to the bacterium having a
radioactive protein capsule. The transfer of DNA alone occurs between
the virus and bacteria. The protein capsule or any of its parts is not
involved in the process. So, radioactivity can be observed in the
supernatant after the centrifugation stage.

This set of Biology Assessment Questions for MBBS Entrance Exams

focuses on “The Search for Genetic Material”.

1. Which of the following bacterium is responsible for causing

pneumonia?
a) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
b) Streptococcus pyogenes
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Streptococcus pneumoniae
View Answer
Answer : d
Explanation: Streptococcus pyogenes causes tonsillitis and rheumatic
fever. Staphylococcus aureus causes abscesses. Streptococcus
pneumoniae causes pneumonia. Staphylococcus saprophyticus causes
urinary tract infections.
2. When Streptococcus pneumoniae were cultured in a culture plate by
Frederick Griffith, which among the following were produced?
a) Smooth colonies(S) and Rough colonies (R)
b) Shiny colonies (S) and Rough colonies (R)
c) Smooth colonies (S) and Rigorous colonies (R)
d) Silky colonies (S) and Rigorous colonies (R)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In 1928, Frederick Griffith cultured the pneumococcus
bacterium. He observed that those bacteria were producing different
colonies. These colonies were named as the S and R colonies. The S
colonies are the Shiny colonies because they had the
mucous(polysaccharide) coat. The R colonies are the Rough colonies
because they did not possess the mucous coat.
3. The mice infected with the R strain of the bacterium dies, but when
infected with the S strain, they do not die.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The S strain produced by the bacterium is said to be the
virulent strain. The mice infected with the S strain will die due to its
virulent nature. Whereas, the one infected with the R strain doesn’t die
due to its avirulent.
Mice -> S strain -> Death
Mice -> R strain -> Alive
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4. Which of the following is the wrong sequential order, when the S or
the R strain of the bacterium is injected into the mice?
a) Mice -> S strain -> Dead
b) Mice -> R strain -> Alive
c) Mice -> Heat killed S strain -> Alive
d) Mice -> Heat killed S strain + live R strain -> Alive
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When the heat killed S-strain of the bacterium is given
along with the R strain to the mice, a process of transformation occurs.
The heat killed S strain (avirulent) was able to transform the R strain
(avirulent) to become a virulent strain. During this process of
transformation, the heat killed S strained bacterium, transforms the R
strain to produce the mucous(polysaccharide) and become virulent.
5. Which of the following is responsible for transforming the R strain
into the S strain?
a) Purified bio-chemicals from S-strain
b) Purified bio-chemicals from R-strain
c) Purified bio-chemicals from heat killed S-strain
d) Purified bio-chemicals from heat killed R-strain
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: S-strains are the virulent ones which have the ability to kill
a mouse when injected into it. But, when the heat killed S-strain is
injected into the mouse along with the R-strain, the mouse happens to
die due to transformation. The purified bio-chemicals (protein, DNA
and RNA) from the heat killed S-strain, transforms the R-strain into the
S-strain (virulent).
6. Which of the following is responsible for the inhibition of
transformation in organisms?
a) DNase
b) RNase
c) Protease
d) Nuclease
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The presence of protease (protein digesting enzymes) and
RNase (RNA digesting enzymes) in the presence of the virulent or
avirulent strains will not affect the process of transformation. But on
the contrary, when the DNase is present, the process of transformation
will not occur. This proves that the transformation process cannot
occur as long as the DNase enzyme is present. The role of nuclease is to
cleave the phosphodiester bonds between the nucleotides of nucleic
acids.
7. What happens when S-strain and the biomolecule (Lipid) are
together, when testing the transformation with regards to the R-strain?

a) R-strain
b) S-strain
c) R-strain and S-strain
d) Dead R-strain
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Only DNase has the ability to inhibit transformation. The
other enzymes like RNase and lipase do not possess that ability. The
process of transformation is not seen when the biochemical DNase is
with S-strain. Lipase is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis (H2O
addition) of lipids and fats. The process of transformation will occur in
lipids. As a result, R-strains will be produced in lipids.
8. Which of the following is considered to be as an incorrect difference
between DNA and DNase?
a) Only I
b) Both II and III
c) Both III and IV
d) Only IV
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: DNA is the genetic material of an organism. It contains all
the required information for heredity. DNase will not promote the DNA.
It is used to cleave the phosphodiester bonds by hydrolysis. As a result
of this, the DNA biomolecule is degraded.
9. What will be the state of the mouse that has been injected with the
heat killed S-strain from the Staphylococcus pneumoniae?
a) Alive
b) Dead
c) On the verge of dying
d) Lives with pneumonia
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The mouse fed with the S-strain from the Staphylococcus
pneumoniae, happens to naturally die. This is on an account that the S-
strains are virulent. Under such conditions, the mouse will not be able
to survive. But, when the heat killed S-strains from Staphylococcus
pneumoniae are injected into the mouse, it will live.
11. What will be the outcome when R-strain is injected into the mice?

a) Mice dies as soon as it is injected

b) Mice lives with the bacteria and dies suddenly
c) Mice dies after ejecting out the bacteria
d) Mice lives even after injecting the R-strain of the bacterium
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: R-strains are the non-virulent strains. So, when they are
injected into the mice, they won’t cause any damage to it. As a result,
the mice will be able to live without complications. The bacteria contain
both the S and R strains, but, only the R-strain is being injected in this
scenario.
12. Which was considered to be as the genetic material prior to the
works done by Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty?
a) Nucleoids
b) Nucleons
c) Protein
d) Chromosome
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Prior to the works done by Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod
and Maclyn McCarty, the genetic material was thought to be as the
protein. Nucleoids are the irregular shaped structures in the
prokaryotic cell. They contain nearly all of the genetic material of the
prokaryotes. Nucleons are present inside the nucleus of an atom,
alongside with the protons. Chromosome carries the genetic
information of the genes.
This set of Biochemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Nucleic Acid Chemistry”.

1. What happens in hypochromicity?

a) When DNA is in bound form, there is decrease in absorption of UV
light
b) When DNA is in bound form, there is increase in absorption of UV
light
c) When DNA is in unbound form, it is more stable
d) When DNA is in unbound form, there is decrease in absorption of UV
light
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It describes the decrease in absorbance of UV light in a
double stranded DNA.
2. What happens in hyperchromicity?
a) When DNA is in bound form, there is decrease in absorption of UV
light
b) When DNA is in bound form, there is increase in absorption of UV
light
c) When DNA is in unbound form, it is more stable
d) When DNA is in unbound form, there is increase in absorption of UV
light
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It describes the increase in absorption of UV light in a
single stranded DNA.
3. Which of the following is true about tm?
a) It can be termed as renaturation temperature
b) The higher the content of G ≡ C base pairs, the higher the tm
c) The higher the content of A = T base pairs, the higher the tm
d) The higher the content of G ≡ C base pairs, the lower the t m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tm is the melting temperature or denaturation
temperature.
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4. Which of the following is false?
a) The stability of an RNA-DNA hybrid is generally intermediate
between that of RNA and DNA
b) RNA duplexes are more stable than DNA duplexes
c) DNA duplexes are more stable than RNA duplexes
d) DNA duplexes are less stable than RNA- DNA hybrid
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: RNA duplexes are more stable than DNA duplexes.
5. DNA denaturation is measured by absorbance at ___________
a) 220nm
b) 230nm
c) 250nm
d) 260nm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: At 260nm absorbance, DNA denaturation is measured.
6. Which of the following is false about denaturation?
a) Disruption of hydrogen bonds
b) Disruption of phosphodiester linkage
c) Loss of helical structure of DNA
d) It is resulted as a result of change in pH or increase in temperature
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Phosphodiester linkages are not broken by denaturation.
7. Which of the following nucleotides is not present in RNA?
a) AMP
b) GMP
c) CMP
d) TMP
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Thymidine monophosphate is present in DNA.
8. Which of the following nucleotides is not present in DNA?
a) AMP
b) GMP
c) CMP
d) UMP
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Uridine monophosphate is present in RNA.
9. Which of the following is false?
a) RNA does not obey Chargaff’s rule
b) DNAs can be identified by Orcinol color reaction
c) In RNA OH group is present at 2’ position
d) Alkali hydrolyses RNA to 2’3’-cyclic diesters
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: RNAs can be identified by Orcinol color reaction.
10. Which of the following involves carrying genetic information from
DNA for protein synthesis?
a) m-RNA
b) t-RNA
c) r-RNA
d) sn-RNA
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Messenger RNA carries genetic information from DNA for
protein synthesis.

This set of Organic Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

(MCQs) focuses on “Physical Properties of Amines”.

1. Which of the following compound is expected to be most basic?

a) Aniline
b) Methylamine
c) Hydroxylamine
d) Ethylamine
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Alkyl groups are electron donating (EDG). So, the alkyl
group stabilizes the positive charge on the attached nitrogen atom.
2. A solution of methyl amine shows which type of property with litmus
paper?
a) Turns blue litmus red
b) Turns red litmus blue
c) Does not affect red or blue litmus
d) Bleaches litmus
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Methyl amine changes red litmus blue, this litmus paper
test shows basic nature of methyl amine.
3. Which of the following statement is true about methyl amine?
a) Methyl amine is slightly acidic
b) Methyl amine is less basic than NH3
c) Methyl amine is stronger base than NH3
d) Methyl amine forms salts with alkali
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Presence of alkyl group increases electron density on
nitrogen atom due to +I effect. Thus, basic nature increases.
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4. By the presence of a halogen atom in the ring, what is the effect of
this on basic properties of aniline?
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Unchanged
d) Doubled
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: By the presence of a halogen atom in the ring, basic
properties of aniline is increased because it is more electronegative so
donation of electron will be easy, so basicity increases.
5. What is the characteristic smell of liquid amines?
a) Fish like smell
b) Rotten egg smell
c) Fruity smell
d) Bitter almond smell
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Amines possess a characteristic ammonia smell, liquid
amines have a distinctive “fishy” smell.
6. Which of the following have less melting point than amine?
a) Alcohol
b) Phosphine
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Ether
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydrogen bonding significantly influences the properties
of primary and secondary amines. Thus, the melting points and boiling
points of amines are higher than those of the corresponding
phosphines, but generally lower than those of the corresponding
alcohols and carboxylic acids, ether.
7. Which of the following amine has highest boiling point?
a) Butyl amine
b) Diethylamine
c) Triethylamine
d) Dipropylamine
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Primary and secondary amines have higher boiling
because they can engage in intermolecular hydrogen bonding. The
boiling points of tertiary amines, which cannot engage in hydrogen
bonding because they have no hydrogen atom on the nitrogen atom,
and d is correct option because it has more molar mass than other
primary, secondary and tertiary amine, more +I effect of propyl group.
8. What is the correct decreasing order of the basic character of the
three amines and ammonia?
a) NH3 > CH3NH2 > C2H5NH2 > C6H5NH2
b) C2H5NH2 > CH3NH2 > NH3 > C6H5NH2
c) C6H5NH2 > C2H5NH2 > CH3NH2 > NH3
d) CH3NH2 > C2H5NH2 > C6H5NH2 > NH3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: All of the amines are more basic than ammonia, but
primary and secondary amines are the most basic.
9. Unpleasant smelling carbylamines are formed by heating alkali and
chloroform with which of the following?
a) Any amine
b) Any aliphatic amine
c) Any aromatic amine
d) Any primary amine
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The unpleasant smell is due to formation of isocyanide.

10. Which statement is an incorrect statement?

a) Amines form hydrogen bond
b) Ethyl amine has higher boiling point than propane
c) Methyl amine is more basic than ammonia
d) Dimethyl amine is less basic than methyl amine
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In methyl amine only one electron releasing group is
present but in dimethyl amine two electron releasing groups are
present which increase the basicity higher in dimethyl amine.
11. Which of the following is most basic?
a) C6H5NH2
b) (CH3)2NH
c) (CH3)3N
d) NH3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In dimethyl amine two electron releasing groups are
present which increase the basicity higher in dimethyl amine.
12. If methyl is alkyl group, then which order of basicity is correct?
a) R2NH > RNH2 > R3N > NH3
b) R2NH > R3N > RNH2 > NH3
c) RNH2 > NH3 > R2NH > R3N
d) NH3 > RNH2 > R2NH > R3N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Alkyl groups are electron donating (EDG), so they stabilize
the positively charge ammonium ions, i.e., the methyl ammonium ion is
more stable than the parent ammonium ion because the alkyl group
stabilizes the positive charge on the attached nitrogen atom. In
dimethyl amine two electron releasing groups are present which
increase the basicity higher in dimethyl amine.
13. Among the following, which one is the strongest base?
a) C6H5NH2
b) p−NO2C6H4NH2
c) m−NO2−C6H4NH2
d) C6H5CH2NH2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Alkyl groups are electron donating (EDG) and NO2 group is
electron withdrawing group. So, the alkyl group stabilizes the positive
charge on the attached nitrogen atom.
14. Which of the following is true characteristic feature of aniline?
a) Colourless solid
b) Brown coloured solid
c) Colourless liquid
d) Brown coloured liquid
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pure aniline is a colourless liquid, but the colour of aniline
changes to dark brown on storage due to atmospheric oxidation.
15. The correct order of basicity of amines in water is which of the
following?
a) (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N > CH3NH2
b) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N
c) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2
d) (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Basicity of amines increase with increase in number of
−CH3 groups (or any group which cause +I effect), due to increase in
electron density on N atom. As a rule, the basicity of 3° amine should
be more than that of 2° amine, but actually it is found to be lesser than
2° amines. This is due to more solvation by water in secondary amine.
Hence the correct order of basicity is: (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N > CH3NH2.
This set of Fluid Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers
(MCQs) focuses on “Bouyancy”.

1. Find the position of centre of buoyancy for a wooden block of width

3.5 m and depth 1 m, when it floats horizontally in water. The density
of wooden block id 850 kg/m3 and its length 7.0 m.
a) 0.95
b) 0.85
c) 1.05
d) 1.65
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Weight of the
block=ρ*g*Volume=850*9.81*7*3.5*1=204.29 kN
Volume of
water displaced= Weight of water displaced/weight density of water
= 20.825 m3.
h=20.825/3.5*7=0.85 m.
2. A stone weighs 450 N in air and 200 N in water. Compute the volume
of stone.
a) .025 m3
b) .05 m3
c) .075 m3
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Weight of water displaced=Weight of stone in air – Weight
of stone in water
=250
Volume of water displaced=Volume of stone=250/9.81*1000=0.025 m3.
3. A stone weighs 650 N in air and 275 N in water. Compute its specific
gravity.
a) 1.73
b) 2.45
c) 3.46
d) 0.865
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Weight of water displaced=Weight of stone in air – Weight
of stone in water
=375
Volume of water displaced=Volume of stone=375/9.81*1000=0.038 m3
Density of stone= mass/volume=650/9.81*0.038=1733 kg/m3
specific gravity= Density of stone/Density of water=1.73.
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4. A body of dimensions 2.7 m * 3.8 m * 2.5 m, weighs 2500 N in
water.Find its weight in air.
a) 254.12 kN
b) 508.25 kN
c) 101.65 kN
d) 127.06 kN
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Weight of stone in air = Weight of water displaced+Weight
of stone in water
= 9.81*1000*2.7*3.8*2.5+2500=254.12 kN.
5. Find the density of metallic body which floats at the interface of
mercury of sp.gr 13.6 and water such that 40 % of its volume is sub-
merged in mercury and 60% in water.
a) 6040 kg/m3
b) 12080 kg/m3
c) 24160 kg/m3
d) 3020 kg/m3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Total Bouyant force=Force of bouyancy due to
water+Force of bouyancy due to mercury
For equilibrium, Total bouyant force= Weiht of body
1000*9.81*0.6*V + 13.6*1000*9.81*0.4*V=ρ*g*V
ρ=6040 kg/m3.
6. What is the principal cause of action of buoyant force on a body
submerged partially or fully in fluid?
a) Displacement of fluid due to submerged body
b) Development of force due to dynamic action
c) Internal shear forces mitigating external forces
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The principal cause of action of buoyant force on a body
submerged partially or fully in fluid is the force equal in magnitude to
the weight of the volume of displaced fluid.
7. How can relatively denser object be made to float on the less dense
fluid?
a) By altering the shape.
b) By altering the forces acting on the object
c) By altering the shear forces acting on the object
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: By changing the shape of an object it can be made to float
on a fluid even if it is denser than that fluid. This principle is used in ship
building.
8. What happens to the buoyant force acting on the airship as it rises in
the air?
a) Buoyant force increases
b) Buoyant force decreases
c) Buoyant force remains constant
d) Buoyant force first increases then shows decrease
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Buoyant force acting on the airship decreases as it rises in
the air as air at higher altitude becomes rarer and its density decreases.
9. As a balloon rises in the air its volume increases, at the end it
acquires a stable height and cannot rise any further.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As balloon rises in air, pressure acting on it reduces and
therefore its volume increases. Also, a rising balloon ceases rising when
it and the displaced air are equal in weight.
10. Submarines use principle of ‘neutral buoyancy’ to go into the water.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To dive, the submarine tanks are opened to allow air to
exhaust, while the water flows in. When the weight has been balanced
so the overall density of the submarine is equal to the water around it,
it has neutral buoyancy and hence will go down.
This set of Molecular Biology Multiple Choice Questions & Answers
(MCQs) focuses on “Types of Genetic Mutations”.

1. How many kinds of mutation are found in DNA which includes

mutation of only one base?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two kinds of mutation which is observed in the
DNA that include only one base and are also known as point mutation.
These mutations are transition where the mutation occurs chancing a
purine to purine and pyrimidine to pyrimidine, and transversion where
there purine is converted to purine and vice versa.
2. What is the overall rate at which new mutations arise spontaneously
at any given site on the chromosome per round of replication?
a) ≈ 10-8 – 10-12
b) ≈ 10-7 – 10-9
c) ≈ 10-6 – 10-11
d) ≈ 10-5 – 10-10
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The overall rate at which new mutations arise
spontaneously at any given site on the chromosome ranges from ≈ 10-6
– 10-11 per round of DNA replication. With some sites on the
chromosomes being hot spots, mutations arise at a high frequency in
these sites.
3. The mutation occurs at a random basis within a genome.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The mutation occurs at a particular mutation prone region
known as the hot spots. The hot spots are rich in di- or tri- nucleotide
repeat sequences known as microsatellites.
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4. What is the dinucleotide sequence of microsatellites?
a) CA
b) AT
c) CC
d) GC
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Microsatellites involves the repeats of the dinucleotide
sequence of CA. the CA repeat is found at many widely scattered sites
in the genome of humans and other eukaryotes.
5. By which process miss-incorporated base can change into a
permanent mutation?
a) Replication
b) Transcription
c) Translation
d) Transposition
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A potential mutation may be introduced by
misincorporation in any round of replication. In the next round of
replication if the mutation is not repaired it gets permanently
incorporated in the DNA sequence.
6. Detection of mismatches and fidelity of replication is maintained by
mutation repair system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Proofreading by the polymerase is not always perfect and
some mismatches may escape the detection which can become a
permanent mutation if not corrected. This fidelity check is done by the
mutation repair system; more precisely mismatch repair system, of the
cell itself ensuring that perfect matches occur in the complementary
strands.
7. How many steps are required to attain mismatch repair?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 2
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The mismatch repair system involves two steps. The first
step involves the scanning of the genome for mismatches. The second
step ensures the correction of mismatch that has occurred in the
genome.
8. In E. coli mismatches are detected by which repair protein?
a) Mut H
b) Mut L
c) Mut S
d) Mut D
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Mut S scans the DNA and recognizes mismatches from the
distortion formed by the unpaired bases. Mut S then embraces the
mismatched region introducing a pronounced kink in the DNA and a
conformational change in the enzyme itself.
9. Mut S recruits how many component(s) to the mismatched site?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Mut S on binding with the mismatched region recruits two
more enzymes to form a complex. They are Mut L and Mut H. Mut L
activates Mut H, the enzyme that causes an incision or nick on the
newly synthesized strand near the site of mismatch.
10. The nicking of DNA is followed by the adherence of a helicase
known as __________
a) Uvr D
b) Uvr A
c) Uvr B
d) Uvr C
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Nicking of the DNA is followed by the addition of a specific
helicase for the repair system known as Uvr D. This helicase unwinds
the DNA from the site of mismatch to the mismatched site so that the
endonuclease could excise the mismatch.
11. Mismatch repair system is ATP dependent.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mismatch repair system is an ATP dependent process. The
activation of Mut S enzyme is ATP dependent and even the recruitment
of Mut L and Mut H requires the assistance of ATP hydrolysis to bind
the mismatched sequence.
12. By which enzyme does E. coli tags its parental DNA strand?
a) Methylase
b) Polymerase
c) Phosphorylase
d) Acetylase
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The E. coli enzyme Dam methylase tags the parental DNA
strand by methylation. It methylates adenine residues on both the
strands of DNA in a specific sequence of 5’….GATC….3’ which is
frequently distributed along the whole genome.
13. If the Mut H cuts the DNA at the 5’ side of the mismatch then which
nuclease is activated?
a) Exonuclease VII
b) Exonuclease VIII
c) Exonuclease I
d) Exonuclease IX
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the Mut H cut the DNA at 5’ side then exonuclease
VII or Rec J is activated. Rce J degrades the DNA strand in 5’ – 3’
direction.
14. What are the eukaryotic components of Mut S and Mut L of E. coli?
a) MSH, MLH
b) MHS, MHL
c) MLS, PMS
d) PMS, MHL
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The homologous component of Mut S in eukaryotes is
called MSH. The other homologous component of Mut L in eukaryotic
cells is called MLH or PMS.
15. High level of mutation in the germ cells is acceptable but in somatic
cells can be catastrophic.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Mutations in both somatic and germ cells can be
catastrophic. High rates of mutation in the germ line would destroy the
species and high rate of mutation in the somatic cells would destroy the
individual.
This set of Molecular Biology Multiple Choice Questions & Answers
(MCQs) focuses on “Chemical Mutagens Damage DNA”.

1. Which base undergoes spontaneous damage under physiological

conditions?
a) Thymine
b) Cytosine
c) Uracil
d) Guanine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The most frequent and important kind of hydrolytic
damage is deamination of the base cytosine. Under normal
physiological conditions, cytosine undergoes deamination thereby
generating the unnatural base uracil.
2. With which base uracil pairs in the opposite strand upon replication?
a) Adenine
b) Guanine
c) Cytosine
d) Thymine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Uracil preferentially pairs with adenine and thus
introduces that base in the opposite strand upon replication. This uracil
is generated by the deamination of cytosine.
3. Which base is generated due to the deamination of adenine?
a) Guanine
b) Cytosine
c) Uracil
d) Hypoxanthine
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Deamination converts adenine to hypoxanthine.
Hypoxanthine forms a hydrogen bond to cytosine rather than to
thymine.
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4. Which base is generated by the deamination of guanine?
a) Xanthine
b) Cytosine
c) Hypoxanthine
d) Thymine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Deamination converts guanine to Xanthine. Xanthine
forms a hydrogen bond to cytosine.
5. Bases in the mRNA undergo depurination.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: mRNA does not undergo depurination where as DNA does.
DNA undergoes depurination by spontaneous hydrolysis of the N-
glycosyl linkage, and this produces and abasic site in the DNA.
6. In vertebrate DNA, which base is frequently present in place of
cytosine on which methyl transferase acts?
a) Hypoxanthine
b) 5-methylcytosine
c) Xanthine
d) Adenine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Vertebrate DNA frequently contains 5-methylcytosine in
place of cytosine. This base has a role in transcriptional silencing.
7. Which base is generated by the deamination of 5-methylcytosine?
a) Thymine
b) Adenine
c) Guanine
d) Uracil
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Deamination of 5-methylcytosine generates thymine. This
thymine pairs with the thymine in the next round of replication.
8. Which laboratory mutagen is prone to mutation of DNA?
a) N-methyl, N1-nitro, N-nitrosoguanidine
b) N-methyl, N2-nitro, N-nitrosoguanidine
c) N1-methyl, N1-nitro, N-nitrosoguanidine
d) N-methyl, N-nitro, N-nitrosoguanidine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DNA is vulnerable to damage from adenylation, oxidation
and radiation. The most potent laboratory mutagen is N-methyl, N1-
nitro, N-nitrosoguanidine.
9. Which site of guanine is the site for mutation?
a) C-4
b) C-6
c) C-1
d) C-2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The most vulnerable site of alkylation is the keto-group of
carbon atom 6 of the guanine residue. The product of this alkylation is
C6-methyl guanine.
10. What is the product by mutation by oxidation of DNA?
a) 2,7-dihydro-8-oxoguanine
b) 1,7-dihydro-7-oxoguanine
c) 7,8-dihydro-8-oxoguanine
d) 7,4-dihydro-8-oxoguanine
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The potent oxidizing agents are generated by ionizing
radiation and by chemical agents that generate free radicals. Oxidation
of guanine generates 7,8-dihydro-8-oxoguanine.
11. To which base OXOG base pairs?
a) A, C
b) A, G
c) G, C
d) A, T
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The OXOG highly base pairs with adenine as well as
cytosine. In the second round of replication of gives rise to a G : C to T :
A transversion.
12. In the case of thymine dimer which type of ring compound is
formed?
a) Cyclohexane
b) Cyclobutane
c) Cyclopropane
d) Cycloheptane
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The bonding of two thymine bases generates thymine
dimer. This comprises a cyclobutane ring generated by links between
carbon atom 5 and carbon atom 6 of thymine.
13. 5-bromouracil is the analog of which base?
a) Thymine
b) Guanine
c) Cytosine
d) Uracil
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 5-bromouracil is the analog of thymine. This substitution
allows the base to mispair with guanine via the enol-tautomer.
14. Bleomycin is the anticancer agent.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bleomycin acts as an anticancer agent which causes breaks
in the DNA of the cancer cells. Those agents that cause the DNA to
break are said to be as clastogenic agents.
15. In the following compound which is one of the intercalating agents?
a) Ethidium
b) 5-bromouracil
c) Purine
d) Clastrogen
Answer: a
Explanation: Intercalating agents are flat molecules that bind to the
equally flat purine or pyrimidine base of DNA. This agent causes
deletion or addition of a base pair or even a few base pairs.

This set of Molecular Biology Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

(MCQs) focuses on “Genome Organization – 1”.

1. In the beads on a string model, the bead is made up of __________

a) 6 histone proteins
b) 8 histone proteins
c) 6 histone proteins and DNA
d) 8 histone proteins and DNA
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The “beads on a string” model is for the nucleosome. It
consists of the 8 histone protein core or the bead and the DNA wound
around imitating a string.
2. The unpacked stretches of DNA are the extra chromosomal load
found in the eukaryotic genome.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Linker DNA is the stretches of DNA that are not packed
into a nucleosome. Typically these are the regions engaged in gene
expression, replication and recombination and are generally associated
with non – histone proteins.
3. How many types of histone molecules are found in nature?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Eukaryotic cells commonly contain five abundant histone
molecules. They are named as H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4.
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4. Nucleosome is made up of __________
a) DNA, histone core protein
b) DNA, histone core protein, linker H1
c) RNA, histone core protein
d) RNA, histone core protein, linker H1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The core histone proteins are H2A, H2B, H3 and H4, over
which the DNA is wrapped. Histone H1 is not a part of nucleosome core
particle, instead it binds to the linker DNA and thus is referred to as
linker histone. Thus, the histone core, linker histone and DNA are the
components of the nucleosome.
5. Histones have a high content of negatively charged amino acids.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As histones maintain a constant association with
negatively charged DNA thus histone molecules are made up of high
content of positively charged amino acid. Greater than 20% of the
residues in each histone molecules are either lysine or arginine.
6. With respect to assembly of every core histone which of the
following is wrong?
a) A conserved region
b) Histone fold domain
c) Disc shaped structure
d) 2 α helices and an unstructured loop
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The histone fold is composed of 3 α helices and two
unstructured loops. In each of these cases the histone fold mediates
the formation of head to tail heterodimers of specific pairs of histone.
7. Which of the following histone pairs forms tetramers in solution?
a) H1, H2A
b) H2A, H2B
c) H2B, H3
d) H3, H4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: H3 and H4 histone first forms heterodimers then they
come together to form a tetramer with two molecules of each. In
contrast, H2A and H2B form heterodimers only in the solution and
histone H1 only acts as the linker histone.
8. With respect to the “tails” of the histone molecules which of the
following is not true?
a) N – terminal extension
b) Lacks defined structure
c) Required for the association of nucleosome
d) Sites for extensive modifications
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The “tail” of the histone is not required for the association
for the DNA with the histone octamer into a nucleosome. This is proved
when the nucleosome is treated with the protease, trypsin. Trypsin is
known to cleave proteins after positively charged amino acid thus,
when the N – terminal tail is removed no structural variation is
observable in the nucleosome.
9. How many contacts are observed between the DNA and the histone
core protein?
a) 14
b) 21
c) 54
d) 17
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 14 distinct sites of contact are observed, one for each time
the minor grove of the DNA faces the histone octamer. 147 base pairs
of DNA is wound around the histone octamer and each minor grove
occurs after 10 base pairs thus, 14 contacts are observable.
10. Association of DNA and histone is mediated by _________
a) Covalent bonding
b) Hydrogen bonding
c) Hydrophobic bonding
d) Vander Waals interactions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Association of DNA and histone is mediated by a large
number of hydrogen bonds, that is, ≈140 bonds. The majority forms
between the protein and the oxygen of the phosphodiester backbone
near the minor grove. Only 7 hydrogen bonds are made between the
protein side chains and the bases in the minor groves of the DNA.
This set of Molecular Biology Questions and Answers for Freshers
focuses on “Genome Organization – 2”.

1. Histone H1 binds two DNA helices.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Upon interacting with a nucleosome, H1 binds to the linker
DNA at one end of the nucleosome and the central DNA helix of the
nucleosome bound DNA. This protects the ≈20 base pair linker DNA
from nuclease digestion.
2. The distinct zig-zag appearance of the chromatin fibre is due to
____________
a) Nucleosome
b) Histone H1
c) Histone core
d) Linker DNA
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Histone H1 binding produces a more defined angle of DNA
entry and exit from the nucleosome. This effect results in the
nucleosomal DNA taking on a distinct zig-zag appearance.
3. With respect to Histone H1 DNA packaging which of the following is
false?
a) H1 induce 10 nm fibre formation
b) H1 binding gives nucleosome a defined angle
c) H1 stabilizes higher order chromatin structures
d) H1 binds to two DNA helices at once
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the salt concentration increases in a test tube, addition
of H1 results in the nucleosomal DNA forming a 30 nm fibre. This
structure formed in vivo is known to be the next level of DNA
compaction.
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4. With respect to the solenoid model of nucleosome, which of the
following is true?
a) Helical model
b) 8 nucleosomes per turn
c) Structure supported by X – ray diffraction
d) Helical pitch of approximately 13 nm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The solenoid model of nucleosomal DNA packaging is
supported by both EM and X – ray diffraction studies. This study
indicated that the 30 nm fibre is composed of nucleosome stacked on
edge in the form of a helix.
5. What marks the difference between the solenoid and the zig-zag
models of 30 nm fibres?
a) Linker histone molecule
b) Linker DNA
c) Nucleosome structure
d) 10 nm fibre
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Unlike the solenoid model, the zig-zag conformation
requires the linker DNA to pass through the central axis of the fibre in a
relatively straight form. Thus, longer linker DNA favors this
conformation. Because the average linker DNA varies between species,
the form of the 30 nm fibre may not always be the same.
6. The histone tails stabilize the 30 nm fibre by interacting with
adjacent nucleosomes.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Core histones lacking their N – terminal tails are incapable
of forming the 30 nm fibre. The tails is to stabilize the 30 nm fibre by
interacting with adjacent nucleosomes. This model is supported by the
three dimensional structure of the nucleosome., which shows that the
amino terminal tails of H2A, H3 and H4 each interact with adjacent
nucleosomes in the crystal lattice.
7. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the nuclear scaffold?
a) Associated with loops of 40 – 90 kb
b) Topoisomerase I
c) SMC protein
d) Proteinacious in nature
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Two classes of protein contributing to nuclear scaffold
have been identified, that are, topoisomerase II and SMC protein.
Presence of Topo II as a protein associated with the structure can be
proved when the cells are treated with drugs which results in DNA
breaks at the sites of Topo II DNA bindings. The treatment generates
DNA fragments of about 50 kb size.
8. Which histone molecule produces novel binding sites for protein
components of the kinetochore?
a) CENP – A
b) H2A
c) H3
d) H4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A histone variant CENP – A, is associated with the
nucleosome that include centromeric DNA. In this region CENP – A
replaces H3 subunit in the nucleosomes. These nucleosomes are
incorporated into the kinetochore which mediates attachment of the
chromosome to the mitotic spindle. The extended tail of CENP – A may
generate these novel binding sites for other binding protein
components of the kinetochore.
9. With respect to remodeling complex of nucleosome, which of the
following is not true?
a) Does not require ATP
b) Favors sliding of histone
c) Favors transfer of histone
d) Favors remodeling of histone
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The stability of the DNA-histone core interaction is
influenced by large protein complexes referred to as nucleosome
remodeling complexes. These multi – protein complexes facilitate
changes in the nucleosome location or interaction with the DNA using
the energy of ATP hydrolysis.
10. The positioning of nucleosome is beneficial.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to dynamic interactions with DNA, most nucleosomes
are not fixed in their locations. But there are occasions when restricting
nucleosome location, called positioning, can be beneficial. Positioning
allows DNA binding site to remain as accessible linker DNA region for
regulatory proteins.

This set of Molecular Biology Interview Questions and Answers for

freshers focuses on “Genome Organization – 3”.

1. Which of the following facilitates nucleosome positioning?

a) Nucleosome remodeling complex
b) Topoisomerase II
c) SMC protein
d) DNA – binding protein
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Nucleosome positioning can be directed by DNA – binding
protein or particular DNA sequences. Just as many proteins cannot bind
to DNA within the nucleosome, prior binding of a protein to a site on
DNA can prevent association of the core histone with that stretch of
DNA. If two such DNA – binding proteins are bound to sites closer than
the minimal nucleosomal DNA requirement (≈150 bp) the DNA stretch
between the two proteins will remain nucleosome free.
2. Which of the following regions promote histone – DNA association?
a) A, T
b) A, G
c) G, C
d) C, T
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A:T rich DNA has an intrinsic tendency to bend toward the
minor grove. Thus A:T rich DNA is favored in positions in which the
minor grove faces the histone octamer. G:C rich DNA has the opposite
tendency thus, is favored when the major grove faces away from the
histone octamer.
3. With respect to end terminal modification of the histone tail which of
the following options is true?
a) Lysine – phosphate modification
b) Serine – methylation
c) Acetylation – transcriptionally active
d) Modifications – involvement in gene expression
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Acetylation marks transcriptionally active region whereas
methylation marks both transcriptionally active and repressed regions.
Finally, phosphorylation histone H3 is commonly seen in highly
condensed chromatin. Thus, these modifications result in a code that
can be read by the proteins involved in gene regulation and expression.
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4. Which of the following is a function of a modified histone tail?
a) Association with adjacent nucleosome
b) Interaction with DNA backbone
c) Interaction with chromodomains
d) Formation of 40-fold DNA structure
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Modification of histone tail generates binding sites for
proteins. Specific protein domains called bromodomains and
chromodomains mediate these interactions. Chromodomains
containing proteins interact with methylated histone tails and are
generally associated with tail specific methylating enzymes.
5. Bromodomains of proteins are associated with phosphorylated
histone tails.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bromodomains of proteins interacts with the acetylated
histone tails. These proteins are generally associated with histone tail –
specific acetyl transferases. Such complexes facilitate the maintenance
of acetylated chromatin by further modifying the already acetylated
regions.
6. Which of the following enzymes of transcription commonly contains
a bromodomain?
a) TFIID
b) CDK
c) Pre – RC
d) DNA polymerase
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bromodomain containing proteins are involved in
regulating transcription or formation of heterochromatin. Only TFIID of
the above options is involved in transcription of DNA whereas the
others are involved in DNA replication.
7. Which of the following enzymes is not correctly paired with its
function?
a) Acetyl transferase – adds acetyl group to lysine
b) Methyl transferase – adds methyl group to serine
c) Topoisomerase – associated with nuclear scaffold
d) Deacetylases – removes acetyl groups from serine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Methylation is an N – terminal modification of histone tail
induced by the enzyme methyl transferase. But methylation is induced
in the amino acid lysine. Serine is generally involved with
phosphorylation.
8. Which of the following is not promoted by histone tail modification?
a) Formation of repressive structures
b) Gene expression
c) Nucleosome remodeling
d) Nucleosome sliding
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Nucleosome sliding is a type of Nucleosome remodeling. It
is facilitated by Nucleosome remodeling complex. It cannot be
promoted alone by modifying histone tail unless a nucleosome
remodeling complex comes along.

This set of Life Sciences Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Genome”.

1. C-value in genome represents___________

a) Genetic disorders
b) Phenotypic variation
c) Amount of DNA present in the genome
d) Qualitative traits
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The measure of DNA display in the genome of animal
varieties is known as a C-value, which is characteristics of every species.
2. Eukaryotes and prokaryotes have either DNA genome or RNA
genome.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: All eukaryotes and prokaryotes dependably have a DNA
genome, while viruses may either have a DNA genome or RNA genome.
3. Name the phenomenon which shows the lack of correlation in
genome size and genetic complexity.
a) Histogram
b) Karyogram
c) Dendrogram
d) C-value paradox
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In higher eukaryotes there is no connection between
expanded genome size and multifaceted nature. This absence of the
relationship between genome size and genetic complexity is called C-
value paradox.
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4. What is the genome size of yeast?
a) 12
b) 120
c) 170
d) 3,300
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Genome size of eukaryotes varies accordingly, i.e. genome
size of yeast is 12, mustard plant has size 120kb, fruit fly have 170kb,
and humans have 3,300kb genome.
5. How does genome complexity of denatured DNA measure?
a) Giemsa staining
b) Reverse chromatography
c) Denaturation kinetics
d) Renaturation kinetics
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Genome’s complex nature is the aggregate length of
various arrangements of DNA. It can be estimated through the
renaturation kinetics of denatured DNA.
6. Which of the following equation shows DNA renaturation reaction?
a) Sec 60
b) Cot1/2
c) Tan 30
d) Cot 40
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Renaturation of DNA depends upon the random collision
of the reciprocal strands and follow second order kinetics. A DNA
renaturation (reassociation) response is given by the Cot 1/2.
7. Name the sequences which are present in more than one copy in a
haploid genome?
a) Nonrepetitive DNA
b) Highly repetitive DNA
c) Repetitive DNA
d) Minisatellite
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Repetitive DNA are the sequences that are present in the
haploid genome and are of multiple copies.
8. What is alphoid DNA?
a) Large size DNA
b) Sequences that are unique
c) DNA repeats found in centromere region
d) Highly repetitive DNA
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Alphoid DNA is a human satellite DNA, which is mainly
found in the centromere region.
9. Mark the INCORRECT statement about minisatellites.
a) Tendemly repetited DNA
b) Form clusters up to 20kb in length
c) Shorter clusters
d) Found in the centromere region
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Minisatellites are mainly found at or close to telomere
region. Alphoid DNA is mainly found in the centromere region.
10. Where does microsatellite DNA present in the chromosomes?
a) Dispersed throughout the chromosome
b) At the telomere end
c) At the centromere
d) Mainly at metacentric region
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Microsatellite DNA is less than 150bp and found in a
dispersed condition all over the chromosome.

This set of Life Sciences Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses
on “Eukaryotic Chromatin and Chromosomes”.

1. Structure of DNA and protein found in the nucleus of eukaryotic

cells___________
a) Nucleic acid
b) Nucleosome
c) Chromatin
d) Tetraplex
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Chromatin consists of single dsDNA in a coiled and
condensed form which is an organized structure of DNA and proteins.
2. Centromere is located exactly at the center of the chromosomes.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Centromere is the region in the eukaryotic chromosome
where kinetochore is assembled and sister chromatids are held
together. In some cases, centromere can also be located at the end of
the chromosomes.
3. Which of the following is less condensed, less stained portion of
chromatin?
a) Metaphase
b) Interphase
c) Heterochromatin
d) Euchromatin
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Less stained and less condensed portion of chromatin is
euchromatin while a darkly stained and highly condensed region of
chromatin is heterochromatin.
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4. Name the part of a chromosome where t-loop is found.
a) Telomere
b) Centromere
c) Acromere
d) Tetraplex
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: T-loop is found at the end of the chromosome or at the
telomere region. It is responsible for the stability of the chromosomal
ends.
5. Name the unit of replication?
a) DNA
b) Gene
c) Replicon
d) Chromosome
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Replicon is the unit of replication, which consists of its own
origin of replication. Single chromatin has more than one replicon.
6. Which of the following phase is involved in the conversion of
chromatin to chromosome?
a) S- phase
b) M- phase
c) G2- phase
d) G1- phase
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In G0 phase of non-dividing cells DNA exists as chromatin
while in M-phase chromatin is converted to chromosome which is more
condensed.
7. Name the basic structural unit of chromatin, which is described by
R.Kornberg?
a) Scaffold protein
b) Solenoid
c) 30nm fiber
d) Nucleosome
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Nucleosome is the first level of DNA packing structure
which is composed of beads-on-a-string structure. R.Kornberg in 1974
described the basic structure of chromatin.
8. What are protamines?
a) Large size DNA
b) Sequences that are unique
c) Histone like protein found in fish sperm
d) Highly repetitive DNA
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Protamine is a polypeptide basically composed of arginine
and is present instead of histones in the sperm of fish and some other
organisms.
9. Name the protein, which maintained the condensed structure of
chromosomes.
a) HSP
b) SMC
c) Collagen
d) Elastin
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: SMC stands for structural maintenance of chromosome
protein, which maintained condensed structure of chromosomes.
10. Mark the process which does not involve in histone modification?
a) Acetylation
b) Methylation
c) Phosphorylation
d) Dehydration
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are some chemical modification and structural
changes take place in histones during replication and transcription
called histone modification.
DNA Replication
This set of Life Sciences Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “DNA Replication”.

1. Double-helix structure of DNA is discovered by___________

a) Gobind Khurana
b) Nirenberg
c) Watson and Crick
d) Darwin
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In 1953, Watson and Crick worked out on the double –
helix structure of DNA and find out the complementary nature of two
strands.
2. Base sequence of each parental strand considered to synthesis new
complementary strand.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The two strands of DNA are separated without breakage of
a covalent bond and its base sequence act as the template strand to
synthesize a new complementary strand.
3. What is a mode of replication in E.coli?
a) Intermediate
b) Dispersive
c) Conservative
d) Semiconservative
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Meselson and Stahl in 1958 conducted an experiment and
demonstrated the semiconservative replication of DNA in E.coli.
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4. What is the origin of replication?
a) Particular site at which DNA replication starts
b) Site which prevents initiation
c) Random location on the DNA
d) Site at which replication terminated
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Origin of replication is particular sites on DNA as
replication does not start at random sites. Replication starts from a
particular site and proceeds bidirectionally or unidirectionally till the
terminus site.
5. How many numbers of replicon is found in E.coli?
a) Five replicon
b) Two replicon
c) Single replicon
d) Multiple replicon
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: E.coli is monorepliconic and have single replicon while
eukaryotic cells contain many replication origins on a single
chromosome and called multirepliconic.
6. Which of the following protein does not involve in the initiation of
replication?
a) DnaA
b) SSB (Single strand binding protein)
c) DnaB
d) DnaF
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In eukaryotic replication, more than 20 proteins take part
out of that the initiation of replication takes place in the presence of
helicase, primase, SSB, DnaC, DnaA.
7. Which of the following protein is required for connecting Okazaki
fragments?
a) Scaffold protein
b) Helicase
c) Primase
d) DNA gyrase
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: After initiation, the chain elongation and joining of Okazaki
fragments take place by DNA gyrase, DNA ligase, DNA polymerase.
8. Name the protein, which is used for termination of replication?
a) DnaC
b) SSB
c) Tus protein
d) DNA polymerase
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Tus protein is terminus binding protein which is used for
termination of replication.
9. Which of the following would relax negatively supercoiled DNA?
a) DNA gyrase
b) Type I topoisomerase
c) Collagen
d) Elastin
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Negatively supercoiled DNA can be relaxed by
topoisomerase I. It creates the nick in one strand of DNA and rotates
freely to resolve supercoiling.
10. Name the protein, which is responsible for the formation of RNA
primer?
a) Topoisomerase
b) Gyrase
c) Helicase
d) Primase
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: RNA primers are generated by using protein, primase
which is also known as RNA polymerase. Primers are short RNA
sequences.

1. During replication, Okazaki fragments elongate

(a) leading strand towards the replication fork
(b) lagging strand towards the replication fork
(c) leading strand away from the replication fork
(d) lagging strand away from the replication fork
Answer: (d)
2. Which of the following enzymes separates the two strands of DNA
during replication?
(a) Gyrase
(b) Topoisomerase
(c) Helicase
(d) DNA polymerase
Answer: (c)
3. DNA replication is
(a) conservative
(b) conservative and discontinuous
(c) semi-conservative and discontinuous
(d) semi-conservative and semi-discontinuous
Answer: (d)
4. Which of the following is used in DNA replication studies?
(a) Neurospora crassa
(b) Drosophila melanogaster
(c) Escherichia coli
(d) Pneumococcus
Answer: (c)
5. Which of the following helps in opening of DNA double helix in front
of replication fork?
(a) topoisomerase
(b) DNA polymerase-I
(c) DNA gyrase
(d) DNA ligase
Answer: (c)

6. Termination of replication is triggered by

(a) DNA polymerase
(b) Helicase
(c) SSB
(d) Tus protein
Answer: (d)
7. DNA polymerase synthesizes
(a) DNA in 5’-3’ direction
(b) DNA in 3’-5’ direction
(c) mRNA in 3’-5’ direction
(d) mRNA in 5’-3’ direction
Answer: (a)
8. Association of histones H1 with nucleosome shows
(a) the occurrence of transcription
(b) the occurrence of replication
(c) exposed DNA double helix
(d) the condensation of DNA into chromatin fibre
Answer: (d)
9. The 3’ – 5’ phosphodiester linkage joins
(a) two DNA strands
(b) two nucleotides
(c) a nitrogenous base with pentose sugar
(d) two nucleosides
Answer: (b)
10. The fragments of DNA are joined together by which of the following
enzymes?
(a) Endonuclease
(b) DNA polymerase
(c) Primase
(d) Ligase
Answer: (d)

This set of Biochemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)

focuses on “DNA Replication”.

1. What is DNA replication?

a) Conservative
b) Non-conservative
c) Semi-conservative
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Each DNA strand serves as a template for the synthesis of
a new strand, producing two new DNA molecules, each with one new
strand and one old strand.
2. Semi-conservative DNA replication was first demonstrated in
____________
a) Drosophila melanogaster
b) Escherichia coli
c) Streptococcus pneumonae
d) Drosophila melanogaster
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Semi-conservative DNA replication was first demonstrated
in E. coli.
3. Eukaryotes differ from prokaryote in mechanism of DNA replication
due to ____________
a) Use of DNA primer rather than RNA primer
b) Different enzyme for synthesis of lagging and leading strand
c) Discontinuous rather than semi-discontinuous replication
d) Unidirectional rather than semi-discontinuous replication
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In eukaryotes one strand of DNA is synthesized
continuously but the other one is made of Okazaki fragments.
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4. Which of the following is true about DNA polymerase?
a) It can synthesize DNA in the 5’ to 3’ direction
b) It can synthesize DNA in the 3’ to 5’ direction
c) It can synthesize mRNA in the 3’ to 5’ direction
d) It can synthesize mRNA in the 5’ to 3’ direction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DNA pol can synthesize only a new DNA strand not m-RNA.
It can do this in the 5’ to 3’ direction.
5. What is the reaction in DNA replication catalyzed by DNA ligase?
a) Addition of new nucleotides to the leading strand
b) Addition of new nucleotide to the lagging strand
c) Formation of a phosphodiester bond between the 3’-OH of one
Okazaki fragment and the 5’-phosphate of the next on the lagging
strand
d) Base pairing of the template and the newly formed DNA strand
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DNA ligase catalyzes the formation of a phosphodiester
bond between 3’-OH of one Okazaki fragment and 5’-phosphate of the
next.
6. Which of the following reactions is required for proofreading during
DNA replication by DNA polymerase III?
a) 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity
b) 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity
c) 3’ to 5’ endonuclease activity
d) 5’ to 3’ endonuclease activity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The 3’ → 5’ exonuclease activity removes the mispaired
nucleotide and the polymerase begins again. This activity is known as
proofreading.
7. Which of the following enzymes remove supercoiling in replicating
DNA ahead of the replication fork?
a) DNA polymerases
b) Helicases
c) Primases
d) Topoisomerases
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Strand separation creates topological stress in the helical
DNA structure which is relieved by the action of topoisomerases.
8. DNA unwinding is done by ____________
a) Ligase
b) Helicase
c) Topoisomerase
d) Hexonuclease
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: These enzymes move along the DNA and separate the
strands using chemical energy from ATP.
9. Which of the following enzymes is the principal replication enzyme in
E. coli?
a) DNA polymerase I
b) DNA polymerase II
c) DNA polymerase III
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Only DNA pol III is the principal replication enzyme in E.
coli.
10. Which enzyme used to join bits of DNA?
a) DNA polymerase
b) DNA ligase
c) Endonuclease
d) Primase
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DNA ligase can be used to join the nicked sites.
This set of Biochemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “DNA Repair”.

1. If the mutation has a negligible effect on the function of a gene, it is

known as a ____________
a) Silent mutation
b) Frame shift mutation
c) Substitution mutation
d) Insertion mutation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mutations can involve the replacement of one base pair
with another (substitution mutation) or the addition or deletion of one
or more base pairs (insertion or deletion mutations).
2. Which of the following mechanisms will remove uracil and
incorporate the correct base?
a) Direct repair
b) Base excision repair
c) Mismatch repair
d) Nucleotide excision repair
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Base excision repair is responsible for removing small,
non-helix-distorting base lesions from genome.
3. Which of the following has the self-repairing mechanisms?
a) DNA and RNA
b) DNA, RNA and protein
c) Only DNA
d) DNA and proteins
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Only DNA has a self-repairing mechanism.
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4. What is the function of enzyme involved in base excision repair?
a) Addition of correct base
b) Addition of correct nucleotide
c) Removal of incorrect base
d) Removal of phosphodiester bond
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DNA glycosylases are responsible for the removal of the
incorrect base in base excision repair.
5. The DNA polymerase involved in base excision repair is
____________
a) DNA polymerase α
b) DNA polymerase β
c) DNA polymerase σ
d) DNA polymerase γ
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DNA polymerase β is involved in base excision repair.
6. An alteration in a nucleotide sequence that changes a triplet coding
for an amino acid into a termination codon is ____________
a) Nonsense mutation
b) Mutagenesis
c) Mutation
d) Mutagen
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Nonsense mutation (point mutation) results in a
premature stop codon.
7. A point mutation that replaces a purine with another purine, or a
pyrimidine with another pyramidine ____________
a) Nonsense mutation
b) Silent mutation
c) Transition mutation
d) Transversion
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Nonsense mutation (point mutation) results in a
premature stop codon.
Transversion refers to substitution of a purine for a pyrimidine or vice-
versa.
If the mutation has a negligible effect on the function of a gene, it is
known as a silent mutation.
8. The enzyme of E.coli is a nuclease that initiates the repair of double
stranded DNA breaks by homologous recombination is?
a) DNA glycosylase
b) DNA ligase
c) DNA polymerase
d) RNA polymerase
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DNA glycosylase catalyzes the first step of base excision
repair in DNA.
9. Recombinational repair is often due to ____________
a) Incorporation of many incorrect nucleotides by DNA pol
b) Many cystidine dimer and associated large gaps in a strand
c) Many thymidine dimer formations and associated large gaps in a
strand
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Recombinational repair is often due to many thymidine
dimer formations and associated large gaps in a strand.
10. The enzyme photolyase is used in what method of repair?
a) Base excision
b) Photo reactivation
c) Nucleotide excision
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: They repair the damage caused by exposure to ultraviolet
light. It is used in photo reactivation mechanism.

This set of Biochemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)

focuses on “DNA Recombination”.

1. Which of the following involves remarkable capacity of a short

segment of DNA to move from one place to another?
a) DNA transposition
b) DNA replication
c) Translation
d) Transcription
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A short segment of DNA with the remarkable capacity to
move from one location in a chromosome to another.
2. Which of the following process occurs between DNA molecules of
very similar sequences?
a) Homologous genetic recombination
b) Site specific recombination
c) Non-homologous recombination
d) Replicative recombination
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Non-homologous recombination occurs in regions where
no large –scale sequence similarity is apparent.
Site-specific recombination occurs between particular short sequences
present on otherwise dissimilar parental molecules. Replicative
recombination generates a new copy of the transposable element at a
new location of DNA.
3. Which of the following process occurs in regions where no large –
scale sequence similarity is apparent?
a) Homologous genetic recombination
b) Site specific recombination
c) Non-homologous recombination
d) Replicative recombination
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Site-specific recombination occurs between particular
short sequences present on otherwise dissimilar parental molecules.
Replicative recombination generates a new copy of the transposable
element at a new location of DNA.
Homologous genetic recombination occurs between DNA molecules of
very similar sequences.
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4. Which of the following process generates a new copy of the
transposable element at a new location of DNA?
a) Homologous genetic recombination
b) Site specific recombination
c) Non-homologous recombination
d) Replicative recombination
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Homologous genetic recombination occurs between DNA
molecules of very similar sequences.
Site-specific recombination occurs between particular short sequences
present on otherwise dissimilar parental molecules.
Non-homologous recombination occurs in regions where no large –
scale sequence similarity is apparent.
5. Which of the following occurs between particular short sequences
present on otherwise dissimilar parental molecules?
a) Homologous genetic recombination
b) Site specific recombination
c) Non-homologous recombination
d) Replicative recombination
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Homologous genetic recombination occurs between DNA
molecules of very similar sequences.
Non-homologous recombination occurs in regions where no large –
scale sequence similarity is apparent.
Replicative recombination generates a new copy of the transposable
element at a new location of DNA.
6. Which of the following promotes branch migration at higher rates
than does Rec-A?
a) Rec-B
b) Rec-C
c) Rec-D
d) Ruv-A and Ruv-B
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Ruv-A and Ruv-B proteins form a complex that binds to
Holliday intermediates, displays Rec-A protein and promotes branch
migration at higher rates than does Rec-A.
7. Which of the following is called a resolvase?
a) Ruv-C
b) Ruv-A
c) Ruv-B
d) Rec-A
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Nucleases that specifically cleave Holliday intermediates
are often called resolvases, the Ruv-C protein is one of at least two such
nucleases in E. coli.
8. Which of the following does not code for an enzyme having both
helicase and nuclease activity?
a) Rec-A
b) Rec-B
c) Rec-C
d) Rec-D
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In E. coli, rec-B, rec-C and rec-D genes encode the Rec-BCD
enzyme, which has both helicase and nuclease activities.
9. The sequences of the recombination sites recognized by site-specific
recombinases are ____________
a) Partially asymmetric
b) Partially symmetric
c) Symmetric
d) Palindromic
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The sequences of the recombination sites recognized by
site-specific recombinases are partially asymmetric (non-palindromic).
10. Which of the following contains only the sequences required for
transposition and the genes for proteins that promote the process?
a) Insertion sequences
b) Complex transposons
c) Transposons
d) Chromosomes
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Complex transposons contain one or more genes in
addition to those needed for transposition.

This set of Biochemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)

focuses on “DNA-Dependent Synthesis of RNA”.

1. Transcription is catalyzed by ____________

a) DNA-dependent RNA polymerases
b) RNA-dependent DNA polymerases
c) Reverse transcriptases
d) DNA ligases
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Transcription is catalyzed by DNA-dependent RNA
polymerases, which use ribonucleotide 5’-triphosphates to synthesize
RNA complementary to the template strand of duplex DNA.
2. Where does RNA polymerase bind DNA?
a) Promoter
b) Operator
c) Enhancer
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Transcription initiation occurs when RNA polymerase binds
at specific DNA sequences called promoters.
3. Which of the following is true about RNA synthesis?
a) Synthesis of RNA is always in the 5’ to 3’ direction
b) RNA polymerase requires a primer for initiating transcription
c) U is inserted opposite T in transcription
d) New nucleotides are added on the 2’-OH of the ribose sugar
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Unlike DNA polymerase, RNA polymerase does not require
a primer to initiate transcription.
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4. What is the role of sigma factor in bacterial RNA polymerase?
a) Catalyzing RNA synthesis
b) Positioning RNA polymerase correctly on the DNA template
c) Terminating RNA synthesis
d) Unwinding DNA template
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sigma factor enables specific binding of RNA polymerase
to promoter.
5. TBP stands for?
a) TATA box polymerase
b) TATA-box binding protein
c) Transcription associated factor
d) Transcription factor binding protein
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: TBP stands for TATA-box binding protein.
6. Actinomycin D is an inhibitor of ____________
a) Transcription
b) Translation
c) Replication
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The elongation of RNA strands by RNA polymerase in both
bacteria and eukaryotes is inhibited by the antibiotic actinomycin D.
7. Number of hydrogen bonds that form between U and A in a Watson-
Crick base pair interactions?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: According to Watson-Crick base pair interactions, number
of hydrogen bonds between U and A are 2 and between G and C are 3.
8. Repressors bind to ____________
a) Promoter
b) Enhancer
c) Operator
d) Hormone response element
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A repressor molecule binds to the operator.
9. RNA primer is removed from the Okazaki fragment by ____________
a) DNA polymerase I
b) DNA polymerase II
c) DNA polymerase III
d) RNA polymerase
View Answer
10. Binding of the prokaryotic DNA dependent RNA polymerase to
promoter site is inhibited by ____________
a) Rifampicin
b) Tetracycline
c) Puromycin
d) Streptomycin
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Rifampicin inhibits the binding of the prokaryotic DNA
dependent RNA polymerase to the promoter site.

This set of Biochemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)

focuses on “RNA Processing”.

1. Which of the following statements regarding splicing in eukaryotes is

correct?
a) Several reactions in the splicing process involve hydrolysis of ATP
b) Exons are spliced out and introns are retained in the mature mRNA
transcript
c) Splicing takes place in the cytosol
d) Small nuclear RNAs are retained in the mature mRNA transcript
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Splicing takes place within the nucleus.
Introns are spliced out and exons are retained in the mature mRNA
transcript.
2. Which of the following is not involved in the post transcriptional
processing of t-RNA?
a) Base modulation
b) Attachment of CCA arm
c) Splicing
d) Attachment of poly-A tail
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Base modulation, attachment of CCA arm and splicing are
involved in the post transcriptional processing of t-RNA.
3. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about m-RNA?
a) Cap is added to the 5’ end
b) Introns are removed and exons are spliced together
c) Histone mRNAs lack 5’ cap
d) Poly-A tail is added to the 3’ end
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Introns are removed and exons are ligated.
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4. Which is the first nucleic acid synthesizing enzyme discovered?
a) Polynucleotide phosphorylase
b) DNA polymerase
c) RNA polymerase
d) DNA ligase
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Polynucleotide phosphorylase is the first nucleic acid
synthesizing enzyme discovered.
5. 70S prokaryotic ribosome is the complex of ____________
a) 30S + 50S
b) 30S + 40S
c) 20S + 60S
d) 20S + 30S
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 70S prokaryotic ribosome is the complex of 30S and 50S
subunits.
6. 80S eukaryotic ribosome is the complex of ____________
a) 60S and 40S
b) 40S and 20S
c) 60S and 50S
d) 30S and 20S
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 80S eukaryotic ribosome is the complex of 60S and 40S
subunits.
7. What is the main function of t-RNA?
a) Proof reading
b) Inhibits protein synthesis
c) Identifies amino acids and transport them to ribosomes
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: t-RNA identifies amino acids and transports them to
ribosomes.
8. Which one of the following best describes the cap modification of
eukaryotic mRNA?
a) Modified guanine nucleotide added to the 3’ end of the transcript
b) Modified guanine nucleotide added to the 5’ end of the transcript
c) String of adenine nucleotides added to the 3’ end of the transcript
d) String of adenine nucleotides added to the 5’ end of the transcript
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Modified guanine nucleotide added to the 5’ end of the
transcript, this best describes the cap modification of eukaryotic mRNA.
9. The largest class of introns which are found in nuclear mRNA primary
transcript is?
a) Spliceosomal introns
b) Group I introns
c) Group II introns
d) Group IV introns
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Spliceosomal introns are the largest class of introns which
are found in nuclear mRNA primary transcript.
10. Which type of splicing reaction requires a guanine nucleoside or
nucleotide cofactor that is not used as a source of energy?
a) Spliceosomal
b) Group I
c) Group II
d) Group IV
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Group I type of splicing reaction requires a guanine
nucleoside or nucleotide cofactor that is not used as a source of energy.
his set of Cytogenetics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “DNA Replication Prokaryotes”.

1. You grow a bacterial culture in a media containing N 15 and transfer it

to a media with N14. After two rounds of replication you perform a CsCl
density gradient centrifugation of the DNA. How many bands will you
observe what will be their intensity?
a) One, very intense
b) Two, equally intense
c) Three with middle one more intense than upper and lower
d) Three equally intense
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In semi conservative replication initially the DNA was N15-
N15. After 1st round of replication both strands were N14-N15, making
only a single band as they have same density. In the next round we will
get N14N14, and N14-N15 making two bands which are equally intense for
having 1:1 concentration.
2. What will be the fate of a Seq A mutant E. Coli?
a) DNA replication will occur less frequently
b) Replication will be error prone
c) Replication will not occur
d) Uncontrolled replication
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Seq A ( Seq standing for sequestering) blocks the newly
produced DNA stand from Methylase. This plays an important role in
Mis-Match repair. In its absence Mis-match repair will be non
functional producing erroneous DNA.
3. At which end are the new DNA bases added?
a) 5’ triphosphate end
b) 3’ triphosphate end
c) 5’ OH end
d) 3’ OH end
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: DNA replication proceeds from 5’ -> 3’ direction with new
bases being added to 3’-OH end. 5’-P is at the beginning of DNA Strand.
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4. How many prokaryotic DNA polymerases have 5’->3’ proofreading
activity?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Only DNA polymerase I has 5’->3’ proofreading activity.
Other polymerases like pol II and III have 3’ -> 5’ proofreading activity.
There are mainly 3 prokaryotic DNA polymerases.
5. Which is the most processive of prokaryotic DNA polymerases?
a) pol I
b) pol II
c) pol III
d) klenow fragment
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DNA pol III holoenzyme has a processivity of >500,000
which is highest among prokaryotic polymerases. Pol I,II and Klenow
fragment has no beta clamp resulting in their lesser processivity.
6. Bacterial polymerases are slower than eukaryotic polymerases.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Prokaryotic polymerases can add about 50,000 bases per
minute while eukaryotic polymerases can add only 2000 bases per
minute. This slower rate is compensated by more number of origins of
replication.
7. In an experiment you take a DNA in vitro and attempt to replicate it.
Which combination will you add to your DNA to get the maximum
replication product?
a) Dna a, Dna b, HU, SSB, topoisomerase I, polymerase I
b) Dna a, Dna b, HU, SSB, polymerase III
c) Dna a, Dna b, Dna c, HU ,SSB polymerase I
d) Dna a, Dna b, Dna c, HU, SSB, polymerase III
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DNA pol I has primase activity which is mandatory for
starting DNA replication. As pol III lacks primase activity it will not be
able to initiate replication. Also in vitro(specially in open DNA strand)
topoisomerase doesn’t have much role to play but Dna c is a must for
replication as it loads the helicase.
8. In an experiment you use DNA pol I – Klenow fragment. When all
other requisites for replication are added, then what will be the effect
on the newly replicated DNA? Consider leading strand only.
a) No difference from intact DNA pol I replication
b) Replication will be slower
c) Replication will be error prone
d) DNA produced will be shorter
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Klenow fragment provides the 5’ -> 3’ exonuclease activity
used to remove the primer. In its absence the primer remains and
hence DNA produced is shorter (i.e. original length-length of primer).
9. You take a circular ssDNA and to it you attach a small labeled
complimentary fragment. You add different reagents and try to get free
labeled probe. Which of this reagent will give you your desired result?
a) Dna b
b) Dna c
c) Dna G
d) Dna a
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dna b has helicase activity which can separate two
complementary DNA strands, this will break the link between labeled
fragment and circular DNA rendering it free. Dna G mainly has primase
activity while Dna a and Dna c are required for replication initiation
which don’t give the desired result.
10. Which of this subunit is not a part of core DNA polymerase?
a) Alpha
b) Beta
c) Theta
d) Eta
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Beta is the clamp which helps to provide polymerase with
higher processivity, however even in its absence DNA replication will
take place although processivity of polymerase would be slow. Alpha is
the centre for polymerase activity and it along with theta and eta forms
the core polymerase.
11. Rolling circle mode of replication is ________
a) Conservative
b) Non Conservative
c) Semi – Conservative
d) Dispersed
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: One cycle of replication results in an inner parent circular
strand and outer daughter circular strand making the process semi-
conservative. It would have been conservative if resultant parent and
daughter strand would be on different molecules and dispersed if both
strands would have some part of parent and daughter.
12. What constitutes Primosome?
a) Dna a, Dna b, Dna c, Dna G
b) Dna b, Dna G
c) Dna c, Dna b
d) Dna a, Dna c
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Dna b, the helicase, and Dna G, the primase, constitutes
the primosome necessary for initiation. Dna a mainly generates a strain
allowing Dna c to load the helicase Dna b.
13. If we mutate the DNA ligase and observe the length of the
replicated strands in different time slots after replication initiation,
what will we observe?
a) The DNA will gradually increase in length till it is fully replicated
b) Small fragments of DNA will be obtained increasing in number with
time
c) Mixture of small and long Fragments of definite length from the start
whose concentration simply increases with time
d) At first small fragment, then two separate bands showing long
fragment with increasing length and short fragments of definite length.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The small fragments are the Okazaki fragments of lagging
strand while the longer is the leading stand DNA. While leading strand
grows in length the Okazaki fragments in absence of ligation to each
other results in small fragments of definite length.
14. Acyclovir is a drug used to treat viral infection by impairing its
replication. Why will it not effect bacterial replication as well?
a) Bacteria under viral attack don’t replicate
b) Viral polymerase binds to it and thus can’t perform its function
c) Virus uses it in a polymerization
d) Cellular mechanism deactivates it
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Acyclovir is a GMP analogue that cellular mechanism
activates to GTP analogue, which the virus uses as a substrate while
polymerizing. However, as it lacks 3’-OH it terminates the replication
process. Thus, cellular processes activate this drug, yet its specificity to
viral polymerase protects the cell.
15. DNA replication in the two strands proceed in opposite direction as
they are aligned oppositely with respect to 3’ and 5’ ends
( 5’——————————-3’
3’——————————-5’).
In this context which of the following is true.
a) The two arms of the DNA Pol are exactly same with same orientation
b) The two arms of the DNA Pol are exactly same with opposite
orientation
c) The two arms of the DNA Pol have different catalytic mechanism i.e.
one polymerizes 3’ -> 5’ other 5’ -> 3’
d) The two arms are isomers i.e. they have different arrangement of the
subunits.
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The two arms have the core subunits and beta clamp in
the same orientation. The DNA strand loops through the lagging strand
synthesizing arm to allow polymerization in the same direction (say
right to left). However, both arms would polymerize from 5’->3’
direction only.

This set of Cytogenetics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)

focuses on “DNA Replication Eukaryotes – 1”.

1. In case of eukaryotes replication initiates at ________

a) TATA
b) CpG islets
c) AUG
d) ARS
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Replication begins at ARS – Autonomous Replicating
Sequences. While TATA and CpG islets are characteristics of promoter
elements which controls transcription. Translation initiates at AUG
codon.
2. Here are names of some factors necessary for prokaryotic
replication. Which of these or their homologue is unnecessary for
eukaryotes?
a) Dna G
b) Dna b
c) Beta clamp
d) SSB
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DNA G (gyrase) is not needed for eukaryotes. While Dna b
homologue MCM, Beta clamp homologue PCNA and SSB homologue
RPA are necessary.
3. You wanted to find out the importance of the DNA polymerases. So,
you mutated the polymerases one by one and checked for survival. In
which of these mutant cases will you see least survival rate?
a) Alpha
b) Beta
c) Delta
d) Eta
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Alpha has primase activity. Without a primer DNA
synthesis can’t initiate thus Alpha polymerase is indispensible. While
the beta is mainly needed for repair mechanisms it doesn’t make much
difference. However, delta and eta are main polymerases for
eukaryotes and their mutation will have major effects as well.
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4. You design a circular ssDNA with a labeled RNA primer (alpha-
P32 labeling). You add polymerase epsilon and required enzymes for
replication to the fragment. What will you expect to see on
autoradiography after gel electrophoresis?
a) Single labeled band with some labeling at the bottom region
b) Two labeled band one much lower than the other with labeling at
the bottom region
c) No band but labeling at the bottom
d) Two labeled band one much lower than the other with no labeling at
the bottom
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Alpha-P32 incorporated the label in the entire RNA primer
fragment. As polymerization will take place the 5’->3’ exonuclease
activity of pol eta will produce labeled oligomers of that RNA. One band
will correspond to unreplicated DNA, the lower one to oligomer. No
labeled monomer is produced.
5. You design a plasmid with a gene for Histidine synthesis and a
fragment containing ARS. You introduce it yeast culture and try to grow
then in Histidine deficit media. What will be your observation?
a) No growth
b) One or two colonies
c) Rapid growth with many colonies
d) Normal growth with countable colonies
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: ARS promotes replication of the yeast. Even if the plasmid
was initially taken up by few cells due to rapid replication brought
about by ARS the number of colony massively increases. If the same
experiment was done with any random stretch of DNA none or few
colonies would be seen.
6. Deletion of which domain of ARS would give the least replication rate
in eukaryotes?
a) A domain
b) B1 domain
c) B2 domain
d) B3 domain
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The 11bp ‘A domain’ is the primary functional area of the
ARS. Mutation in this domain gives 0% functionality of ORC so lease
replication. Other mutations also reduce replication rate but not to
such extent.
7. Which subunit in MCM is not phosphorylated in MCM after initiation
is triggered?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 7
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: MCM has 6 subunits numbered from 2 to 7. After initiation
of replication is triggered all subunits other than 2 are phosphorylated.
8. You are given a DNA fragment with a CBD lesion. Which
polymerase(s) will you use to replicate this fragment without taking
care of the error?
a) ζ (zeta), η (eta)
b) η (eta), ) θ (theta)
c) θ (theta), κ (kappa)
d) κ (kappa),θ (theta)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Eta introduces two random base against the lesion say AA
or TT. However, it is very error prone and requires zeta to carry out the
remaining replication. Kappa and theta also participate in repair but by
other ways.
9. We know that Beta clamp in bacteria has two subunits and takes the
shape of a ring. Which of this will be characteristic of PCNA which is a
beta clamp homologue for eukaryotes?
a) Two subunits forming ring
b) Three subunits forming ring
c) Four subunits forming figure 8 like structure
d) Four subunits forming a larger ring
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: PCNA has three subunits but its structure is similar (ring)
like two subunit beta clamp. Larger ring formation would be
unreasonable as the basic structure of DNA is exactly the same for both
prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
10. What is the function of RFC in eukaryotic replication?
a) Catalytic subunit
b) SSB
c) Clamp loader
d) Primase
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: RFC or Replication Factor C is the eukaryotic homologue of
clamp loader. It loads the PCNA clamp. Eukaryotic replication primer is
formed by alpha polymerase while RPA acts as SSB.

his set of Cytogenetics Interview Questions and Answers focuses on

“DNA Replication Eukaryotes – 2”.

1. Cyclin-CDK complex (here considering S cyclin) when active is

responsible for phosphorylating several proteins and this often marks
then for destruction by ubiquitination. What would be its effect on Cdt
activity?
a) Activation
b) Inactivation
c) Destruction
d) Increased synthesis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cdt a protein necessary for initiation of replication is
sequestered by geminin. S-cyclin-CDK phosphorylates and marks
geminin for ubiquitination which makes Cdt free to express its activity.
However, it has no effect on Cdt concentration or synthesis.
2. Which of these would you use as a competitive inhibitor for Cdt?
a) MCM 1
b) MCM 2
c) MCM 7
d) MCM 10
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: MCM 10 replaces Cdt from pre-replication complex
triggering the phosphorylation in the next step. Thus, it must have a
similar structure to Cdt and can act as a competitive inhibitor. While
there is no MCM 1, MCM 2-7 form a member helicase.
3. What is the fate of phosphorylated Cdc 6?
a) It is transported outside nucleus
b) It is ubiquitinylated
c) It gets activated
d) It forms a complex with Cdt
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cdc 6 after triggering initiation dissociates from ORC and is
phosphorylated to prevent re-initiation. It undergoes ubiquitination and
destruction while MCM is phosphorylated and transported outside the
nucleus. It ensures that Cdc 6 and MCM remain inactive and can’t re-
initiate replication.
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4. Pre-replication complex is necessary to initiate replication. It
assembles in______________
a) Late Anaphase
b) G1 phase
c) S phase
d) Early Anaphase
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pre-replication complex assembles on ORC in G1 phase. It
is triggered in S phase when no new Pre-RC assembly takes place. Even
during early Anaphase and late Anaphase this complex assembly is
prevented.
5. Which Cyclin-CDK complex will you find most active in M phase?
a) Cyclin A- CDK 2
b) Cyclin B- CDK 1
c) Cyclin D- CDK 2
d) Cyclin E- CDK 1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cyclin B – CDK 1 is corresponding to the yeast M-Cyclin-
CDK complex which is active during M phase and leads to Anaphase.
Cyclin D is G1-S cyclin, Cyclin A is S cyclin and Cyclin E is G1 cyclin
respectively.
6. What is the DNA composition of ARS?
a) A-T rich
b) G-C rich
c) Repeating A-T, G-C sequence
d) No specific sequence speciality
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A-T bases bound by 2 hydrogen bonds unlike G and C,
which are bound by 3 hydrogen bonds. In such region DNA strand
separation is easier as compared to G-C rich regions. Hence, ARS which
requires DNA melting to initiate replication is A-T rich.
7. In an experiment, you are working on mitochondrial chromosomes.
Which polymerase will ensure accurate replication?
a) pol beta
b) pol delta
c) pol iota
d) pol gamma
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Pol gamma is the mitochondrial DNA polymerase, while
pol beta is mainly necessary for repair. Pol iota associates with
translesion DNA synthesis. Pol delta is the primary nuclear DNA
polymerase.
8. To your cultured cell lines, you add growth factors like cytokines
which act through MAPK cascade pathway. Which transition will it
trigger?
a) S->G2
b) M->Anaphase
c) G1->S
d) G2->M
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: One of the primary checkpoints to overcome incase of
proliferation is G1 -> S check point. MAPK cascade leads to transcription
of genes required to increase the CDK activity that leads to this
transition. Once S phase is completed the cell must undergo mitosis
although there is another checkpoint before Anaphase.

This set of Cytogenetics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)

focuses on “Transcription in Prokaryotes : Initiation”.

1. Which protein mentioned below can reverse central dogma?

a) Ribosome
b) Restriction Endonuclease
c) Reverse Transcriptase
d) RNA Polymerase
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Reverse transcriptase helps in cDNA synthesis from RNA,
which is opposite to the central dogma, where RNA is synthesized from
DNA. Ribosome and RNA polymerases obey central dogma, while
Restriction Endonuclease is unrelated as it simply cleaves DNA at a
specific site.
2. The catalytic activity resides in which subunit of RNA polymerase?
a) β′ (156 kDa)
b) β (151 kDa)
c) α (37 kDa)
d) σ70 (70 kDa)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: β′ and β subunits are mainly associated with the
transcription start site where β′ subunit mainly confers the catalytic
activity. The sigma subunit provides specificity while alpha subunit
interacts with regulatory proteins.
3. What is the direction in which the transcript produced by RNA
polymerase grows?
a) 3’->5’ direction on 3’->5’ strand
b) 5’->3’ direction on 5’->3’ strand
c) 3’->5’ direction on 5’->3’ strand
d) 5’->3’ direction on 3’->5’ strand
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In the process of RNA synthesis there is a short phase of
hybrid DNA-RNA formation. This is possible only when two strands are
oppositely oriented. As 3’-OH is necessary for adding new nucleotides,
RNA is synthesized from 5’->3’ direction, so the template must be 3’->5’
oriented.
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4. In an experiment you use RNA polymerase without its sigma factor
for transcription. What will be the result that you observe?
a) More transcription
b) Less transcription
c) More specific transcription
d) More random transcription
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Sigma subunit is responsible for recognizing the
transcription start site. In its absence the RNA pol will transcribe at non-
specific random sites. Sigma plays no role in the rate of transcription so
there is no chance in transcription rate in its absence.
5. In an experiment you mutate the consensus sequence at the -10 box.
You observe the rate of transcription reduces. Now you make
complementary mutation to the sigma factor. What will you observe?
a) Further decrease in transcription rate
b) Increase in transcription rate
c) Original transcription rate
d) Increase in rate of random transcription
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Complementary mutation in sigma factor helps to restore
its -10 box recognition capacity which restores normal transcription
rate. However, to improve the rate further both the -10 and -35 box
sequences should be made more like the consensus.
6. You wanted to isolate active RNA polymerase (with a part of the
transcript associated with it ) from cellular mix. For this, you perform an
immunoprecipitation with anti sigma antibody. Then you check the
precipitate. What will you observe?
a) RNA polymerase with transcript
b) RNA polymerase without transcript
c) Only antibody
d) DNA with associated RNA polymerase and a transcript
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sigma factor dissociates after initiation so anti sigma
antibody will only pull down RNA polymerase prior to promoter
clearance. Thus, the polymerases so obtained have no transcript
associated.
7. Which part of sigma factor associates with -10box?
a) 1.2
b) 2.4
c) 4.4
d) 4.2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: the 2.4 i.e. (4th part of 2nd subunit) associates with the -
10box in promoter. While 4.2 associates with -35box of the promoter.
1.2 sub unit doesn’t associate with DNA; and there is no 4.4 unit in
sigma factor.
8. You want to find out which of the consequent gene X or Y is being
transcribed. For this you do a hybridization competition analysis and
plot the radioactivity curve with increasing concentration of the
competitor unlabelled mRNA. If the transcribed gene was X, which
observation fits your result?
a) The radioactivity of y decreases while that of x remains the same
b) The radioactivity of x decreases while that of y remains the same
c) The radioactivity of x and y decreases
d) The radioactivity of y decreases while x increases
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the unlabelled mRNA against X will compete with the
labeled one for hybridization the intensity of radioactivity will gradually
decrease with increased concentration. But as it will not bind to Y gene
the Y labeled mRNA faces no competition and its intensity remains
same.
9. Which of these is the 1st event to take place during transcription
initiation?
a) Formation of a closed initiation complex
b) Formation of open initiation complex
c) Formation of absorptive transcript
d) Promoter clearance
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the RNA pol is attached to DNA strands that have
still not melted the complex so formed is called open initiation
complex. When the DNA melts it is known as open initiation complex.
This follows the formation of abortive transcript and promoter
clearance.
10. The catalytic unit of RNA polymerases when placed properly during
initiation is just over _________
a) -1 site
b) 0 site
c) +1 site
d) – 10 site
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The catalytic subunit is exactly over the first nucleotide of
mRNA which is at +1 site. -1 signifies one site upstream to initiation
while there is no 0 site. -10 box is recognized by sigma factor.
11. In an experiment you mutate the C terminal domain of alpha
subunit of the RNA polymerase. What will you expect to see?
a) Transcription is absent
b) Transcription is at random sites
c) Transcription is less
d) Transcription is more
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The C terminal domain of the alpha subunit is responsible
for binding to the UP elements of the promoter. Such binding helps to
enhance transcription so in absence of the binding transcription will be
slower. However, still transcription will occur due to the presence of
core promoter.
12. Mutations as far as 100 base pairs upstream to +1 site will also
affect the transcription rate.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Fas elements are located as far as -60 to -150 base
pairs upstream to +1 site. Although these are not true promoter
elements, mutations in the Fas site also effects transcription.
13. In an experiment you add increasing amount of sigma factor to a
mixture of DNA fragment and core polymerase in vitro. You also add
[14C]ATP and [γ-32P]ATP in the mixture and check the rate of
incorporation. Results show that the incorporation of both of this labels
increase on adding more sigma factor. What will you conclude from
your observation?
a) Sigma confers specificity and increases transcription rate
b) Sigma increases initiation and elongation rate
c) Sigma increases initiation of transcription rate
d) Sigma causes faster elongation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: [γ-32P]ATP incorporation marks more initiation while
[14C]ATP incorporation indicates elongation. As on adding sigma factor
both incorporations seems to increase, sigma must increase both
initiation and elongation rate.
14. In an experiment, you wanted to see which mutation will have
worse effect on transcription. In the 1st set you deleted 94 amino acids
from the C-terminus and in the 2nd set you replace the 265th C-terminal
arginine to cystine. Which in your opinion will have the worst effect?
a) 94 amino acid mutant
b) 265th amino acid mutant
c) Both will have similar negative effect
d) No visible effect on rate of transcription
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This is because the 265th arginine is most important for
recognition of the up element. Thus, its deletion alone can have a
similar negative effect on transcription to the deletion of 94 amino
acids from C terminal end.
15. Which cation is placed in the catalytic subunit of RNA polymerase?
a) Zn2+
b) Mn2+
c) Mg2+
d) Fe3+
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Magnesium ion is mandatory for the catalytic action as it
shields the negative charge of the phosphate groups of rNTPs and also
promotes the nucleophilic attack by the 3’-OH group. Manganese, zinc
and iron are part of other biologically important enzymes.

his set of Cytogenetics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)

focuses on “Transcription in Prokaryotes : Elongation”.

1. While studying the transcripts in vitro you observe that other than
the longer transcripts there are some short stretches of RNA oligomer
produced as well. You repeat the experiment several times but these
oligomers seem to persist. What is the possible explanation?
a) Procedural error
b) They are the un-ligated oligomers of lagging strand
c) Experimental artifact
d) Normal occurrence
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: These short oligomers are abortive transcripts produced
by the RNA polymerase before it leaves the promoter. There is no
lagging strand in RNA and since the experiment is repeated several
times with caution the other justifications are rules out.
2. Capping of RNA is necessary as_______
a) It helps us distinguish 5’ from 3’ end
b) It has a rolling action and condenses the transcript as it is produced
c) To protect the transcript from exonuclease
d) To prevent the transcript from sticking to DNA
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are several free exonuclease in the nucleus and the
5’ cap protects the mRNA from them. In its absence, valuable
information will be lost from the transcript and abnormal proteins
would result after translation. RNA normally font stick to DNA and
absence of ATPase activity rules out 2nd option.
3. What is the 1st nucleotide of a completely synthesized transcript?
a) A
b) G
c) C
d) T
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The 5’ cap can be considered as the 1st nucleotide of the
complete transcript. And as it is ppGpp the nucleotide is Guanine or G.
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4. Processivity of RNA polymerase is ________
a) Very high
b) High
c) Low
d) Very low
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: RNA polymerase is highly processive as when the sigma
subunit dissociates the DNA binding arm of RNA polymerase clamps
shut around the DNA prevents it from falling off. DNA polymerase I on
the other hand has low processivity.
5. Which antibiotic inhibits transcription elongation?
a) Rifampicin
b) Streptolydigin
c) Penicillin
d) Tetracyclin
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Streptolydigin prevents elongation while Rifampicin
prevents initiation. Penicillin and Tetracyclin act on the ribosome and
not on RNA polymerase although even they ultimately inhibit protein
synthesis.
6. You design a reconstructive RNA polymerase where you take the
beta and alpha subunit from a rifampicin resistant strain and beta
prime and sigma subunit from rifampicin sensitive strain. You check the
rate of transcription by this RNA polymerase after the addition of the
antibiotic. What will be your observation?
a) No transcription
b) Reduced transcription
c) Normal transcription
d) Improved transcription
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The beta subunit of the RNA polymerase is mainly
sensitive to Rifampicin. Thus the re-constructed RNA pol is overall
Rifampicin resistant and transcription rate will be normal.
7. You add labeled Uridine analogue to the mixture of DNA and RNA pol
in vitro. What are you trying to determine?
a) Catalytic subunit of RNA pol
b) Processivity of RNA pol
c) Presence of DNA – RNA hybrid
d) Length of DNA already transcribed
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The Uridine analogue can base pair with the RNA pol
enzyme when there is a presence of a complementary strand (here
DNA). Thus, its incorporation and cross linking will confirm the presence
of RNA-DNA hybrid. We use labeled NTP to detect the other processes
mentioned.
8. Which of these is not a part of RNA polymerase elongation
machinery?
a) NTP entry channel
b) RNA entry channel
c) DNA entry channel
d) Clamp
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the RNA is synthesized there is an RNA exit channel but
there is no need of RNA entry channel. Clamp and flap on the other
hand help to stabilize the polymerase structure.
9. Melting of DNA would lead to _________________
a) Increase in UV absorption
b) Increase in Fluorescence
c) Decrease in UV absorption
d) Decrease in fluorescence
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Melting is the separation of the two strands of DNA which
causes an increase in the amount of UV rays absorbed by the DNA. This
is known as Hyperchromic shift. It has no effect on florescence of DNA.
10. In a stretch of DNA being transcribed, the region forward to the
Elongation is __________
a) Positively supercoiled
b) Negatively supercoiled
c) Uncoiled
d) Forms a secondary structure
View Answer
Answer: a
This set of Cytogenetics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “DNA Replication Eukaryotes – 1”.

1. In case of eukaryotes replication initiates at ________

a) TATA
b) CpG islets
c) AUG
d) ARS
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Replication begins at ARS – Autonomous Replicating
Sequences. While TATA and CpG islets are characteristics of promoter
elements which controls transcription. Translation initiates at AUG
codon.
2. Here are names of some factors necessary for prokaryotic
replication. Which of these or their homologue is unnecessary for
eukaryotes?
a) Dna G
b) Dna b
c) Beta clamp
d) SSB
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DNA G (gyrase) is not needed for eukaryotes. While Dna b
homologue MCM, Beta clamp homologue PCNA and SSB homologue
RPA are necessary.
3. You wanted to find out the importance of the DNA polymerases. So,
you mutated the polymerases one by one and checked for survival. In
which of these mutant cases will you see least survival rate?
a) Alpha
b) Beta
c) Delta
d) Eta
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Alpha has primase activity. Without a primer DNA
synthesis can’t initiate thus Alpha polymerase is indispensible. While
the beta is mainly needed for repair mechanisms it doesn’t make much
difference. However, delta and eta are main polymerases for
eukaryotes and their mutation will have major effects as well.
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4. You design a circular ssDNA with a labeled RNA primer (alpha-
P32 labeling). You add polymerase epsilon and required enzymes for
replication to the fragment. What will you expect to see on
autoradiography after gel electrophoresis?
a) Single labeled band with some labeling at the bottom region
b) Two labeled band one much lower than the other with labeling at
the bottom region
c) No band but labeling at the bottom
d) Two labeled band one much lower than the other with no labeling at
the bottom
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Alpha-P32 incorporated the label in the entire RNA primer
fragment. As polymerization will take place the 5’->3’ exonuclease
activity of pol eta will produce labeled oligomers of that RNA. One band
will correspond to unreplicated DNA, the lower one to oligomer. No
labeled monomer is produced.
5. You design a plasmid with a gene for Histidine synthesis and a
fragment containing ARS. You introduce it yeast culture and try to grow
then in Histidine deficit media. What will be your observation?
a) No growth
b) One or two colonies
c) Rapid growth with many colonies
d) Normal growth with countable colonies
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: ARS promotes replication of the yeast. Even if the plasmid
was initially taken up by few cells due to rapid replication brought
about by ARS the number of colony massively increases. If the same
experiment was done with any random stretch of DNA none or few
colonies would be seen.
6. Deletion of which domain of ARS would give the least replication rate
in eukaryotes?
a) A domain
b) B1 domain
c) B2 domain
d) B3 domain
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The 11bp ‘A domain’ is the primary functional area of the
ARS. Mutation in this domain gives 0% functionality of ORC so lease
replication. Other mutations also reduce replication rate but not to
such extent.
7. Which subunit in MCM is not phosphorylated in MCM after initiation
is triggered?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 7
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: MCM has 6 subunits numbered from 2 to 7. After initiation
of replication is triggered all subunits other than 2 are phosphorylated.
8. You are given a DNA fragment with a CBD lesion. Which
polymerase(s) will you use to replicate this fragment without taking
care of the error?
a) ζ (zeta), η (eta)
b) η (eta), ) θ (theta)
c) θ (theta), κ (kappa)
d) κ (kappa),θ (theta)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Eta introduces two random base against the lesion say AA
or TT. However, it is very error prone and requires zeta to carry out the
remaining replication. Kappa and theta also participate in repair but by
other ways.
9. We know that Beta clamp in bacteria has two subunits and takes the
shape of a ring. Which of this will be characteristic of PCNA which is a
beta clamp homologue for eukaryotes?
a) Two subunits forming ring
b) Three subunits forming ring
c) Four subunits forming figure 8 like structure
d) Four subunits forming a larger ring
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: PCNA has three subunits but its structure is similar (ring)
like two subunit beta clamp. Larger ring formation would be
unreasonable as the basic structure of DNA is exactly the same for both
prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
10. What is the function of RFC in eukaryotic replication?
a) Catalytic subunit
b) SSB
c) Clamp loader
d) Primase
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: RFC or Replication Factor C is the eukaryotic homologue of
clamp loader. It loads the PCNA clamp. Eukaryotic replication primer is
formed by alpha polymerase while RPA acts as SSB.

This set of Cytogenetics Interview Questions and Answers focuses on

“DNA Replication Eukaryotes – 2”.

1. Cyclin-CDK complex (here considering S cyclin) when active is

responsible for phosphorylating several proteins and this often marks
then for destruction by ubiquitination. What would be its effect on Cdt
activity?
a) Activation
b) Inactivation
c) Destruction
d) Increased synthesis
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cdt a protein necessary for initiation of replication is
sequestered by geminin. S-cyclin-CDK phosphorylates and marks
geminin for ubiquitination which makes Cdt free to express its activity.
However, it has no effect on Cdt concentration or synthesis.
2. Which of these would you use as a competitive inhibitor for Cdt?
a) MCM 1
b) MCM 2
c) MCM 7
d) MCM 10
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: MCM 10 replaces Cdt from pre-replication complex
triggering the phosphorylation in the next step. Thus, it must have a
similar structure to Cdt and can act as a competitive inhibitor. While
there is no MCM 1, MCM 2-7 form a member helicase.
3. What is the fate of phosphorylated Cdc 6?
a) It is transported outside nucleus
b) It is ubiquitinylated
c) It gets activated
d) It forms a complex with Cdt
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cdc 6 after triggering initiation dissociates from ORC and is
phosphorylated to prevent re-initiation. It undergoes ubiquitination and
destruction while MCM is phosphorylated and transported outside the
nucleus. It ensures that Cdc 6 and MCM remain inactive and can’t re-
initiate replication.
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4. Pre-replication complex is necessary to initiate replication. It
assembles in______________
a) Late Anaphase
b) G1 phase
c) S phase
d) Early Anaphase
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pre-replication complex assembles on ORC in G1 phase. It
is triggered in S phase when no new Pre-RC assembly takes place. Even
during early Anaphase and late Anaphase this complex assembly is
prevented.
5. Which Cyclin-CDK complex will you find most active in M phase?
a) Cyclin A- CDK 2
b) Cyclin B- CDK 1
c) Cyclin D- CDK 2
d) Cyclin E- CDK 1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cyclin B – CDK 1 is corresponding to the yeast M-Cyclin-
CDK complex which is active during M phase and leads to Anaphase.
Cyclin D is G1-S cyclin, Cyclin A is S cyclin and Cyclin E is G1 cyclin
respectively.
6. What is the DNA composition of ARS?
a) A-T rich
b) G-C rich
c) Repeating A-T, G-C sequence
d) No specific sequence speciality
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A-T bases bound by 2 hydrogen bonds unlike G and C,
which are bound by 3 hydrogen bonds. In such region DNA strand
separation is easier as compared to G-C rich regions. Hence, ARS which
requires DNA melting to initiate replication is A-T rich.
7. In an experiment, you are working on mitochondrial chromosomes.
Which polymerase will ensure accurate replication?
a) pol beta
b) pol delta
c) pol iota
d) pol gamma
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Pol gamma is the mitochondrial DNA polymerase, while
pol beta is mainly necessary for repair. Pol iota associates with
translesion DNA synthesis. Pol delta is the primary nuclear DNA
polymerase.
8. To your cultured cell lines, you add growth factors like cytokines
which act through MAPK cascade pathway. Which transition will it
trigger?
a) S->G2
b) M->Anaphase
c) G1->S
d) G2->M
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: One of the primary checkpoints to overcome incase of
proliferation is G1 -> S check point. MAPK cascade leads to transcription
of genes required to increase the CDK activity that leads to this
transition. Once S phase is completed the cell must undergo mitosis
although there is another checkpoint before Anaphase.
DNA damage and repair
This set of Biochemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “DNA Repair”.

1. If the mutation has a negligible effect on the function of a gene, it is

known as a ____________
a) Silent mutation
b) Frame shift mutation
c) Substitution mutation
d) Insertion mutation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mutations can involve the replacement of one base pair
with another (substitution mutation) or the addition or deletion of one
or more base pairs (insertion or deletion mutations).
2. Which of the following mechanisms will remove uracil and
incorporate the correct base?
a) Direct repair
b) Base excision repair
c) Mismatch repair
d) Nucleotide excision repair
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Base excision repair is responsible for removing small,
non-helix-distorting base lesions from genome.
3. Which of the following has the self-repairing mechanisms?
a) DNA and RNA
b) DNA, RNA and protein
c) Only DNA
d) DNA and proteins
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Only DNA has a self-repairing mechanism.
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4. What is the function of enzyme involved in base excision repair?
a) Addition of correct base
b) Addition of correct nucleotide
c) Removal of incorrect base
d) Removal of phosphodiester bond
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DNA glycosylases are responsible for the removal of the
incorrect base in base excision repair.
5. The DNA polymerase involved in base excision repair is
____________
a) DNA polymerase α
b) DNA polymerase β
c) DNA polymerase σ
d) DNA polymerase γ
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DNA polymerase β is involved in base excision repair.
6. An alteration in a nucleotide sequence that changes a triplet coding
for an amino acid into a termination codon is ____________
a) Nonsense mutation
b) Mutagenesis
c) Mutation
d) Mutagen
View Answer
7. A point mutation that replaces a purine with another purine, or a
pyrimidine with another pyramidine ____________
a) Nonsense mutation
b) Silent mutation
c) Transition mutation
d) Transversion
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Nonsense mutation (point mutation) results in a
premature stop codon.
Transversion refers to substitution of a purine for a pyrimidine or vice-
versa.
If the mutation has a negligible effect on the function of a gene, it is
known as a silent mutation.
8. The enzyme of E.coli is a nuclease that initiates the repair of double
stranded DNA breaks by homologous recombination is?
a) DNA glycosylase
b) DNA ligase
c) DNA polymerase
d) RNA polymerase
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DNA glycosylase catalyzes the first step of base excision
repair in DNA.
9. Recombinational repair is often due to ____________
a) Incorporation of many incorrect nucleotides by DNA pol
b) Many cystidine dimer and associated large gaps in a strand
c) Many thymidine dimer formations and associated large gaps in a
strand
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Recombinational repair is often due to many thymidine
dimer formations and associated large gaps in a strand.
10. The enzyme photolyase is used in what method of repair?
a) Base excision
b) Photo reactivation
c) Nucleotide excision
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: They repair the damage caused by exposure to ultraviolet
light. It is used in photo reactivation mechanism.
This set of Biochemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “DNA Recombination”.

1. Which of the following involves remarkable capacity of a short

segment of DNA to move from one place to another?
a) DNA transposition
b) DNA replication
c) Translation
d) Transcription
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A short segment of DNA with the remarkable capacity to
move from one location in a chromosome to another.
2. Which of the following process occurs between DNA molecules of
very similar sequences?
a) Homologous genetic recombination
b) Site specific recombination
c) Non-homologous recombination
d) Replicative recombination
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Non-homologous recombination occurs in regions where
no large –scale sequence similarity is apparent.
Site-specific recombination occurs between particular short sequences
present on otherwise dissimilar parental molecules. Replicative
recombination generates a new copy of the transposable element at a
new location of DNA.
3. Which of the following process occurs in regions where no large –
scale sequence similarity is apparent?
a) Homologous genetic recombination
b) Site specific recombination
c) Non-homologous recombination
d) Replicative recombination
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Site-specific recombination occurs between particular
short sequences present on otherwise dissimilar parental molecules.
Replicative recombination generates a new copy of the transposable
element at a new location of DNA.
Homologous genetic recombination occurs between DNA molecules of
very similar sequences.
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4. Which of the following process generates a new copy of the
transposable element at a new location of DNA?
a) Homologous genetic recombination
b) Site specific recombination
c) Non-homologous recombination
d) Replicative recombination
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Homologous genetic recombination occurs between DNA
molecules of very similar sequences.
Site-specific recombination occurs between particular short sequences
present on otherwise dissimilar parental molecules.
Non-homologous recombination occurs in regions where no large –
scale sequence similarity is apparent.
5. Which of the following occurs between particular short sequences
present on otherwise dissimilar parental molecules?
a) Homologous genetic recombination
b) Site specific recombination
c) Non-homologous recombination
d) Replicative recombination
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Homologous genetic recombination occurs between DNA
molecules of very similar sequences.
Non-homologous recombination occurs in regions where no large –
scale sequence similarity is apparent.
Replicative recombination generates a new copy of the transposable
element at a new location of DNA.
6. Which of the following promotes branch migration at higher rates
than does Rec-A?
a) Rec-B
b) Rec-C
c) Rec-D
d) Ruv-A and Ruv-B
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Ruv-A and Ruv-B proteins form a complex that binds to
Holliday intermediates, displays Rec-A protein and promotes branch
migration at higher rates than does Rec-A.
7. Which of the following is called a resolvase?
a) Ruv-C
b) Ruv-A
c) Ruv-B
d) Rec-A
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Nucleases that specifically cleave Holliday intermediates
are often called resolvases, the Ruv-C protein is one of at least two such
nucleases in E. coli.
8. Which of the following does not code for an enzyme having both
helicase and nuclease activity?
a) Rec-A
b) Rec-B
c) Rec-C
d) Rec-D
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In E. coli, rec-B, rec-C and rec-D genes encode the Rec-BCD
enzyme, which has both helicase and nuclease activities.
9. The sequences of the recombination sites recognized by site-specific
recombinases are ____________
a) Partially asymmetric
b) Partially symmetric
c) Symmetric
d) Palindromic
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The sequences of the recombination sites recognized by
site-specific recombinases are partially asymmetric (non-palindromic).
10. Which of the following contains only the sequences required for
transposition and the genes for proteins that promote the process?
a) Insertion sequences
b) Complex transposons
c) Transposons
d) Chromosomes
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Complex transposons contain one or more genes in
addition to those needed for transposition.
This set of Biochemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “DNA-Dependent Synthesis of RNA”.
1. Transcription is catalyzed by ____________
a) DNA-dependent RNA polymerases
b) RNA-dependent DNA polymerases
c) Reverse transcriptases
d) DNA ligases
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Transcription is catalyzed by DNA-dependent RNA
polymerases, which use ribonucleotide 5’-triphosphates to synthesize
RNA complementary to the template strand of duplex DNA.
2. Where does RNA polymerase bind DNA?
a) Promoter
b) Operator
c) Enhancer
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Transcription initiation occurs when RNA polymerase binds
at specific DNA sequences called promoters.
3. Which of the following is true about RNA synthesis?
a) Synthesis of RNA is always in the 5’ to 3’ direction
b) RNA polymerase requires a primer for initiating transcription
c) U is inserted opposite T in transcription
d) New nucleotides are added on the 2’-OH of the ribose sugar
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Unlike DNA polymerase, RNA polymerase does not require
a primer to initiate transcription.
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4. What is the role of sigma factor in bacterial RNA polymerase?
a) Catalyzing RNA synthesis
b) Positioning RNA polymerase correctly on the DNA template
c) Terminating RNA synthesis
d) Unwinding DNA template
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sigma factor enables specific binding of RNA polymerase
to promoter.
5. TBP stands for?
a) TATA box polymerase
b) TATA-box binding protein
c) Transcription associated factor
d) Transcription factor binding protein
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: TBP stands for TATA-box binding protein.
6. Actinomycin D is an inhibitor of ____________
a) Transcription
b) Translation
c) Replication
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The elongation of RNA strands by RNA polymerase in both
bacteria and eukaryotes is inhibited by the antibiotic actinomycin D.
7. Number of hydrogen bonds that form between U and A in a Watson-
Crick base pair interactions?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: According to Watson-Crick base pair interactions, number
of hydrogen bonds between U and A are 2 and between G and C are 3.
8. Repressors bind to ____________
a) Promoter
b) Enhancer
c) Operator
d) Hormone response element
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A repressor molecule binds to the operator.
9. RNA primer is removed from the Okazaki fragment by ____________
a) DNA polymerase I
b) DNA polymerase II
c) DNA polymerase III
d) RNA polymerase
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DNA polymerase I remove RNA primer from Okazaki
fragment.
10. Binding of the prokaryotic DNA dependent RNA polymerase to
promoter site is inhibited by ____________
a) Rifampicin
b) Tetracycline
c) Puromycin
d) Streptomycin
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Rifampicin inhibits the binding of the prokaryotic DNA
dependent RNA polymerase to the promoter site.

This set of Biochemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)

focuses on “RNA Processing”.

1. Which of the following statements regarding splicing in eukaryotes is

correct?
a) Several reactions in the splicing process involve hydrolysis of ATP
b) Exons are spliced out and introns are retained in the mature mRNA
transcript
c) Splicing takes place in the cytosol
d) Small nuclear RNAs are retained in the mature mRNA transcript
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Splicing takes place within the nucleus.
Introns are spliced out and exons are retained in the mature mRNA
transcript.
2. Which of the following is not involved in the post transcriptional
processing of t-RNA?
a) Base modulation
b) Attachment of CCA arm
c) Splicing
d) Attachment of poly-A tail
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Base modulation, attachment of CCA arm and splicing are
involved in the post transcriptional processing of t-RNA.
3. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about m-RNA?
a) Cap is added to the 5’ end
b) Introns are removed and exons are spliced together
c) Histone mRNAs lack 5’ cap
d) Poly-A tail is added to the 3’ end
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Introns are removed and exons are ligated.
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4. Which is the first nucleic acid synthesizing enzyme discovered?
a) Polynucleotide phosphorylase
b) DNA polymerase
c) RNA polymerase
d) DNA ligase
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Polynucleotide phosphorylase is the first nucleic acid
synthesizing enzyme discovered.
5. 70S prokaryotic ribosome is the complex of ____________
a) 30S + 50S
b) 30S + 40S
c) 20S + 60S
d) 20S + 30S
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 70S prokaryotic ribosome is the complex of 30S and 50S
subunits.
6. 80S eukaryotic ribosome is the complex of ____________
a) 60S and 40S
b) 40S and 20S
c) 60S and 50S
d) 30S and 20S
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 80S eukaryotic ribosome is the complex of 60S and 40S
subunits.
7. What is the main function of t-RNA?
a) Proof reading
b) Inhibits protein synthesis
c) Identifies amino acids and transport them to ribosomes
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: t-RNA identifies amino acids and transports them to
ribosomes.
8. Which one of the following best describes the cap modification of
eukaryotic mRNA?
a) Modified guanine nucleotide added to the 3’ end of the transcript
b) Modified guanine nucleotide added to the 5’ end of the transcript
c) String of adenine nucleotides added to the 3’ end of the transcript
d) String of adenine nucleotides added to the 5’ end of the transcript
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Modified guanine nucleotide added to the 5’ end of the
transcript, this best describes the cap modification of eukaryotic mRNA.
9. The largest class of introns which are found in nuclear mRNA primary
transcript is?
a) Spliceosomal introns
b) Group I introns
c) Group II introns
d) Group IV introns
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Spliceosomal introns are the largest class of introns which
are found in nuclear mRNA primary transcript.
10. Which type of splicing reaction requires a guanine nucleoside or
nucleotide cofactor that is not used as a source of energy?
a) Spliceosomal
b) Group I
c) Group II
d) Group IV
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Group I type of splicing reaction requires a guanine
nucleoside or nucleotide cofactor that is not used as a source of energy.

This set of Molecular Biology Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

(MCQs) focuses on “Overview of DNA Repair”.

1. What is the correct definition of excision repair?

a) Repair of a single damaged nucleotide
b) Repair of a damaged oligonucleotide
c) Removal of a single damaged nucleotide
d) Removal of a damaged oligonucleotide
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the excision repair damaged nucleotide is not repaired
but removed from the DNA. The other undamaged strand serves as the
template for reincorporation of the correct nucleotide by DNA
polymerase.
2. How many types of excision repair systems are known?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two types of excision repair systems. One
involves the removal of only the damaged nucleotide. The other
involves the removal of a short stretch of single stranded DNA
containing the lesion.
3. Why recombinational repair system is called double strand break
repair?
a) Both strands are broken
b) One strand is broken
c) No strand is broken
d) Both strand act as template
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Recombinational repair system is used when both strands
are damaged such as when the DNA is broken. In such situation one
strand cannot serve as a template for the repair of the other.
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4. Which enzyme is activated during double stranded break?
a) DNA polymerase
b) Translesional polymerase
c) RNA polymerase
d) Klenow fragment
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In double strand break repair when damaged bases block
progression of a replicating DNA polymerase a special translesional
polymerase copies the bases across the damaged site. This process
does not depend on base pairing between the template and the newly
synthesized DNA strand.
5. What is the main enzyme that plays a major role in formation of
thymine dimer?
a) DNA glycosylase
b) DNA photolyase
c) DNA gyrase
d) DNA ligase
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In photoreactivation DNA photolyase captures energy
from light and uses it to break the covalent bond linking the adjacent
pyrimidines. In this process the damaged bases are mended directly.
6. Which two Uvr component molecules scan the DNA during
nucleotide excision repair?
a) UvrC, UvrA
b) UvrA, UvrB
c) UvrB, UvrC
d) UvrD, UvrA
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In nucleotide excision repair complex of two UvrA and
UvrB molecules scan the DNA with two UvrA subunits being responsible
for detecting the distortions to the helix. Upon encountering a
distortion, UvrA exits the complex and create a single stranded bubble
with UvrB.
7. After creation of the bubble which Uvr component are recruited?
a) Uvr B
b) Uvr A
c) Uvr C
d) Uvr D
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: After creation of the single stranded bubble Uvr B recruits
Uvr C. Uvr C creates two incisions in the double stranded DNA.
8. Which complex in E. coli performs in translesion synthesis?
a) DNA polymerase IV, DNA polymerase V
b) DNA polymerase II, DNA polymerase III
c) DNA polymerase III, DNA polymerase IV
d) DNA polymerase V, RNA polymerase I
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DNA polymerase IV (Din B) and DNA polymerase V (Umv C)
performs translesional synthesis. Din B and Umv C are members of a
distinct family of DNA polymerases found in many organisms known as
the family of DNA polymerases.
9. In humans which DNA polymerase is involved?
a) DNA polymerase ƞ
b) DNA polymerase α
c) DNA polymerase β
d) DNA polymerase ν
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DNA polymerase ƞ correctly inserts two A residues
opposite a thymine dimer. The active site of DNA polymerase ƞ is better
at accommodating a thymine dimer than is the active site of another
translesional DNA polymerase.
10. The genes encoding the translesional polymerases are expressed as
part of a pathway known as the SOS response.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The gene encoding the translesional polymerases are
expressed as a part of a repair mechanism known as the SOS pathway.
The damage leads to the proteolytic destruction of a transcriptional
repressor.
11. In eukaryotes the other name of PCNA is __________
a) Sliding clamp
b) Sliding clamp loader
c) Replicative DNA polymerase
d) Translesional DNA polymerase
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sliding clamp which is known as PCNA in eukaryotes,
anchors the replicative polymerase to the DNA template. The chemical
modification is the covalent attachment to the sliding clamp of a
peptide known as ubiquitin in a process known as ubiquitinisation.
12. In SOS repair system cleavage of LexA and UmuD is mediated by
___________
a) RecB
b) RecA
c) RecC
d) UvrA
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: LexA and UmuD complex is cleaved by a protein called
RecA. This process is activated by single stranded DNA resulting from
DNA damage.
13. What are the two fundamental components of NHEJ?
a) KU70, KU80
b) KU50, KU70
c) KU40, KU50
d) KU30, KU40
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: KU70 and KU80 are the most fundamental components of
NHEJ. They constitute heterodimers that binds to the DNA ends.
14. NHEJ is ubiquitin independent in eukaryotic organisms.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: NHEJ mechanism is ubiquitin dependent in eukaryotic
organisms. The occurrence of NHEJ in prokaryotic cells is less frequent
and is predominantly found in eukaryotic cells.
15. In the following compounds which are involved in nucleotide
excision repair?
a) UvrA, UvrB, UvrC
b) UvrC, UvrD
c) Uvr C, XPA, XPD
d) XPA, XPC, XPD, XPG
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In the nucleoside excision repair, damage occurs in
pyrimidine dimer. In humans XPA, XPC, XPD and XPG are activated to
repair the damage.

Which of the following is NOT a DNA repair mechanism?

Possible Answers:

Binding-protein excision repair

Base excision repair

Nucleotide excision repair

Mismatch repair

Correct answer:

Binding-protein excision repair

Which of the following enzymes adds DNA to the ends of chromosomes

to avoid loss of genetic material with duplication?

Possible Answers:

Primase

Helicase

Telomerase

Polymerase

Correct answer:

Telomerase

What is the role of helicase?

Possible Answers:

Facilitates formation of phosphodiester bonds

Nicks the DNA backbone to relieve supercoils

Unwinds DNA template at the replication fork

Prevents DNA strands from reannealing

Correct answer:

Unwinds DNA template at the replication fork

Which of the following structures indicates where DNA replication

begins?

Possible Answers:

Origin of replication

Helicase

DNA polymerase III

Replication fork

Correct answer:

Origin of replication

During DNA replication, single-stranded DNA is kept from reannealing

due to the function of __________. 

Possible Answers:

histones

DNA topoisomerase 
single-strand binding proteins

helicase

Correct answer:

single-strand binding proteins

A select mutation is causing a cell lineage to be unable to replicate DNA

successfully. When observed under a microscope, researchers observe
that the DNA is able to be separated, but the template strands keep
coming back together before the new strands can be replicated.

Based on this observation, which protein involved in DNA replication is

most likely mutated?

Possible Answers:

DNA polymerase

DNA primase

Single-stranded binding protein

DNA helicase

Correct answer:

Single-stranded binding protein

What 3' functional group must be free in order to add the next
nucleotide during DNA synthesis?
Possible Answers:

Amine

Carboxylic acid

Phosphate

Hydroxyl

Magnesium is a necessary component of DNA polymerization, but is not

found in the DNA molecule. What is the purpose of magnesium in the
polymerization of DNA?

Possible Answers:

None of these answers are correct

It is a cofactor for DNA polymerase III

It binds to the two leaving groups during the DNA polymerization

reaction

It binds nucleotides in the cytosol and helps import them into the
nucleus

Correct answer:

It binds to the two leaving groups during the DNA polymerization

reaction
Which enzyme is responsible for removing the RNA primers added
during DNA replication? 

Possible Answers:

DNA polymerase I

Primase

DNA polymerase III

DNA ligase

Correct answer:

DNA polymerase I

This set of Cell Biology Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “DNA Repair”.

1. Mutations in the DNA may be passed to the next generation.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mutations in the DNA of a germ cell (gamete) can pass to
the next generation and may even give rise to genetic disorders that
are inherited. This forms the basis of diseases and abnormalities that
run in the family.
2. How many pathways of nucleotide excision repair exist?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Nucleotide excision repair (NER) operates by excising the
lesions and then repairing it. There are two pathways of this repair
system – transcription coupled pathway and global genomic pathway.
3. Which repair system operates to remove the altered bases generated
by reactive chemicals present in the diet?
a) Base excision repair
b) Nucleotide excision repair
c) Mismatch repair
d) Double-stranded breakage repair
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Base excision repair system (BER) operates to remove or
rectify the altered nucleotides generated as a result of action of
reactive chemicals presented in the diet or generated by the
metabolism.
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4. Which repair system operates to repair DNA strands that are actively
transcribed?
a) Double-strand breakage repair
b) Nucleotide excision repair
c) RNA repair
d) Messenger RNA repair
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The template strands of genes that are actively being
transcribed are repaired by the transcription coupled pathway of the
nucleotide excision repair (NER) system.
5. A mismatched base pair can cause ________________ in the double
helix.
a) change in geometry
b) change in location
c) change in size
d) change in alkalinity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A mismatched base pair can cause a distortion in the
geometry of the double helix, which is recognizable by a repair enzyme.
This process of repairing is called mismatch repair.
6. Which of the following does not introduce double-strand breaks in
the DNA?
a) Gamma rays
b) Cancer drugs
c) Free radicals
d) Inherited mutations
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Many internal and external agents cause double-stranded
breaks in the DNA double helix. Ionizing radiations, certain chemicals
and free radicals are examples of the causative agents of these breaks.
7. The NHEJ pathway is used to rectify __________________ in the
DNA.
a) nucleotide substitutions
b) double-strand breaks
c) single-strand breaks
d) mismatched basepairs
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The nonhomologous end joining pathway (NHEJ) is a
pathway to repair double-strand breaks in the DNA. These are
introduced by agents such as ionization radiations, cancer drugs etc.
8. Xeroderma pigmentosum is caused by ______________________
a) UV radiations
b) X-rays
c) Gamma radiations
d) Beta-rays
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Xeroderma pigmentosum (XP) is a rare genetic disorder
due to deficiency in nucleotide excision repair system that cannot
remove segments of DNA damaged by ultraviolet radiations.
9. How many types of skin cancers can develop by overexposure to
ultraviolet rays?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Three types of cancer – basal cell carcinoma, squamous
cell carcinoma and malignant melanoma. The first two types are the
most common and can be excised in a clinic, while the third type is a
potential killer.

This set of Cytogenetics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)

focuses on “DNA Replication Eukaryotes – 1”.

1. In case of eukaryotes replication initiates at ________

a) TATA
b) CpG islets
c) AUG
d) ARS
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Replication begins at ARS – Autonomous Replicating
Sequences. While TATA and CpG islets are characteristics of promoter
elements which controls transcription. Translation initiates at AUG
codon.
2. Here are names of some factors necessary for prokaryotic
replication. Which of these or their homologue is unnecessary for
eukaryotes?
a) Dna G
b) Dna b
c) Beta clamp
d) SSB
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DNA G (gyrase) is not needed for eukaryotes. While Dna b
homologue MCM, Beta clamp homologue PCNA and SSB homologue
RPA are necessary.
3. You wanted to find out the importance of the DNA polymerases. So,
you mutated the polymerases one by one and checked for survival. In
which of these mutant cases will you see least survival rate?
a) Alpha
b) Beta
c) Delta
d) Eta
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Alpha has primase activity. Without a primer DNA
synthesis can’t initiate thus Alpha polymerase is indispensible. While
the beta is mainly needed for repair mechanisms it doesn’t make much
difference. However, delta and eta are main polymerases for
eukaryotes and their mutation will have major effects as well.
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4. You design a circular ssDNA with a labeled RNA primer (alpha-
P32 labeling). You add polymerase epsilon and required enzymes for
replication to the fragment. What will you expect to see on
autoradiography after gel electrophoresis?
a) Single labeled band with some labeling at the bottom region
b) Two labeled band one much lower than the other with labeling at
the bottom region
c) No band but labeling at the bottom
d) Two labeled band one much lower than the other with no labeling at
the bottom
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Alpha-P32 incorporated the label in the entire RNA primer
fragment. As polymerization will take place the 5’->3’ exonuclease
activity of pol eta will produce labeled oligomers of that RNA. One band
will correspond to unreplicated DNA, the lower one to oligomer. No
labeled monomer is produced.
5. You design a plasmid with a gene for Histidine synthesis and a
fragment containing ARS. You introduce it yeast culture and try to grow
then in Histidine deficit media. What will be your observation?
a) No growth
b) One or two colonies
c) Rapid growth with many colonies
d) Normal growth with countable colonies
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: ARS promotes replication of the yeast. Even if the plasmid
was initially taken up by few cells due to rapid replication brought
about by ARS the number of colony massively increases. If the same
experiment was done with any random stretch of DNA none or few
colonies would be seen.
6. Deletion of which domain of ARS would give the least replication rate
in eukaryotes?
a) A domain
b) B1 domain
c) B2 domain
d) B3 domain
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The 11bp ‘A domain’ is the primary functional area of the
ARS. Mutation in this domain gives 0% functionality of ORC so lease
replication. Other mutations also reduce replication rate but not to
such extent.
7. Which subunit in MCM is not phosphorylated in MCM after initiation
is triggered?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 7
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: MCM has 6 subunits numbered from 2 to 7. After initiation
of replication is triggered all subunits other than 2 are phosphorylated.
8. You are given a DNA fragment with a CBD lesion. Which
polymerase(s) will you use to replicate this fragment without taking
care of the error?
a) ζ (zeta), η (eta)
b) η (eta), ) θ (theta)
c) θ (theta), κ (kappa)
d) κ (kappa),θ (theta)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Eta introduces two random base against the lesion say AA
or TT. However, it is very error prone and requires zeta to carry out the
remaining replication. Kappa and theta also participate in repair but by
other ways.
9. We know that Beta clamp in bacteria has two subunits and takes the
shape of a ring. Which of this will be characteristic of PCNA which is a
beta clamp homologue for eukaryotes?
a) Two subunits forming ring
b) Three subunits forming ring
c) Four subunits forming figure 8 like structure
d) Four subunits forming a larger ring
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: PCNA has three subunits but its structure is similar (ring)
like two subunit beta clamp. Larger ring formation would be
unreasonable as the basic structure of DNA is exactly the same for both
prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
10. What is the function of RFC in eukaryotic replication?
a) Catalytic subunit
b) SSB
c) Clamp loader
d) Primase
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: RFC or Replication Factor C is the eukaryotic homologue of
clamp loader. It loads the PCNA clamp. Eukaryotic replication primer is
formed by alpha polymerase while RPA acts as SSB.
Transcription
This set of Life Sciences Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Transcription”.

1. The process of formation of RNA is known as___________

a) Replication
b) DNA repair
c) Translation
d) Transcription
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Transcription is a process of formation of the transcript or
RNA with the help of RNA polymerase.
2. Like replication, transcription also occurs bidirectionally.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Transcription occurs unidirectionally and synthesized RNA
chain from 5’ to 3’ direction.
3. Mark the statement which is INCORRECT about the transcription
unit?
a) It is a transcribed segment of DNA
b) Eukaryotes have monocistronic transcription unit
c) Prokaryotes also have a monocistronic transcription unit
d) Immediate product of transcription is primary transcript
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Transcription unit is the transcribed segment of DNA. If the
transcription unit carries information of one gene, it is called
monocistronic while a set of adjacent genes when transcribed as a unit
called polycistronic.
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4. Name the site where upstream sequences located?
a) Prior to start point
b) After the startpoint
c) Right border of DNA
d) In the middle of DNA
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Start point is the first base pair from which transcription
starts. Upstream sequences are located prior to the start point while
sequences after the start point are called downstream of it.
5. Which of the following is TRUE for the RNA polymerase activity?
a) DNA dependent DNA synthesis
b) Direct repair
c) DNA dependent RNA synthesis
d) RNA dependent RNA synthesis
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: RNA polymerase is also known as DNA dependent RNA
polymerase enzyme and it involves a synthesis of RNA from DNA.
6. Who discovered RNA polymerase?
a) Samuel B. Weiss
b) Nirenberg
c) Watson and Crick
d) Darwin
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Samuel B. Weiss and Jerard Hurwitz in 1960 discovered
RNA polymerase. RNA polymerase is also known as DNA dependent.
7. Which of the following ensure stable binding of RNA polymerase at
the promoter site?
a) DNA photolyase
b) Sigma factor
c) DNA glycosylase
d) RecA
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sigma factor decreases the binding of the core enzyme to
non-specific DNA sequences and increases binding to the promoter.
8. What is the work of the sigma factor in transcription?
a) Helicase action
b) Transcription initiation
c) Transcription elongation
d) Transcription termination
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sigma factor is only involved in transcription initiation not
in elongation. The sigma factor is released from the core enzyme when
the transcript reaches more than 8-9 nucleotide.
9. Name the sigma factor which is used for promoter recognition?
a) Sigma 32
b) Sigma 70
c) Sigma 60
d) Sigma 40
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are 7 different types of sigma factors have been
reported in E. coli but the most common is sigma 70.
10. Which of the following is used to describe the time taken by RNA
polymerase to leave the promoter?
a) Promoter clearance time
b) Abortive initiation
c) Elongation factor
d) Mean time
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Promoter clearance time is the time taken by RNA
polymerase core enzyme to leave the promoter. More the efficient
promoter sequences, lesser would be the promoter clearance time.
11. How many base pairs of DNA is transcribed by RNA polymerase in
one go?
a) 5-6
b) 3
c) 4
d) 7-8
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The RNA polymerase core enzyme moves along the
template strand at uneven base i.e, moves over 7-8 base pairs in one
go.
12. Which of the following transcription termination technique has RNA
dependent ATPase activity?
a) Intercalating agents
b) Rho dependent
c) Rho independent
d) Rifampcin
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The rho factor functions as a Hexamer and has an RNA
binding site and is responsible for the termination of transcription. It
has RNA dependent ATPase activity.
13. Name the one intrinsic terminator of transcription.
a) Intercalating agents
b) Rho independent
c) Rho dependent
d) Acridine orange
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Rho independent transcription termination is also known
as intrinsic terminators and about 50% of E. coli genes have these types
of terminators.
14. Mark the one, which is NOT the transcription inhibitor in
eukaryotes.
a) Rifampicin
b) Acridine dye
c) Actinomycin D
d) Rho factor
Answer: d
Explanation: Rifampicin inhibits beta subunit of RNA polymerase II
while acridine orange and actinomycin D is used to block elongation.
This set of Cell Biology Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Gene Expression – Transcription”.

1. When was the link between enzymes and inherited disease first
elucidated?
a) 1708
b) 1808
c) 1908
d) 2008
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Archibald Garrod was a Scottish physician who in 1908
reported that the absence of an enzyme led to an inherited disorder
Alcaptonuria.
2. Which organism was used for experiments that led to “one gene –
one enzyme” hypothesis?
a) Neurospora
b) Nematode
c) Mus musculus
d) Drosophila
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In 1940s George Beadle and Edward Tatum of the
California Institute of Technology studied Neurospora, a tropical bread
mold which led to the proposal of “one gene – one enzyme”
hypothesis.
3. Which proteolytic enzyme was used in the experiments aimed at
elucidating the mutation that causes sickle cell anemia?
a) papain
b) rennin
c) pepsin
d) trypsin
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In 1956 Vernon Ingram of Cambridge University
discovered the molecular consequence of mutation that causes sickle
cell anemia. He used the proteolytic enzyme, trypsin, to cleave the
hemoglobin.
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4. In patients of sickle cell anemia, the hemoglobin contains a
substitution for ____________________
a) glutamic acid
b) ascorbic acid
c) carboxylic acid
d) quinone
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There is valine in sickle cell hemoglobin, in place of
glutamic acid in normal cell hemoglobin.
5. What is the intermediate between a gene and its polypeptide?
a) mRNA
b) tRNA
c) rRNA
d) siRNA
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Messenger RNA (mRNA) is the intermediate between a
gene and its polypeptide, discovered in 1961. The other types of RNA
play diverse roles in a cell.
6. Transcription is the synthesis of ______________________
a) RNA
b) DNA
c) Protein
d) Polypeptide
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A messenger RNA is a complimentary copy of one of the
two strands of DNA that make up a gene. Transcription is the process of
synthesis of RNA from a DNA template.
7. After transcribing into RNA, the gene is spliced out of the genome.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: After transcription of the gene, i.e. production of a
messenger RNA from the DNA sequence of the gene, the gene stays in
place stored away as genetic information.
8. RNA is a mobile nucleic acid.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: RNA is a mobile nucleic acid that moves from the nucleus
to the cytoplasm after transcription from the gene.
9. Which of the following play a role in structural support?
a) rRNA
b) mRNA
c) tDNA
d) tRNA
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) plays a role in structural support
and catalyzes the reaction in which amino acids are linked to one
another.
10. Which of the following enzymes are used in the process of
transcription?
a) DNA polymerases
b) RNA polymerases
c) DNA helicase
d) DNA topoisomerase
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: RNA polymerases or DNA-dependent RNA polymerases are
the enzymes responsible for transcription in both eukaryotes and
prokaryotes.
11. Promoter is a ____________________
a) gene
b) site on DNA
c) site on RNA
d) toxin
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Promoter is sequence on the DNA which is the site of
binding for RNA polymerase, prior to initiation of transcription.
12. Which of the two strands of DNA will be transcribed is determined
by the _______________
a) RNA polymerase
b) DNA polymerase
c) Promoter sequence
d) Inducer sequence
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In addition to being a binding site for RNA polymerase,
promoter sequences contain the information that determines which of
the two strands is transcribed and the site where transcription is
initiated.
13. The transcription factors assist the RNA polymerase in locating
________________
a) stop codon
b) mutation
c) active site
d) promoter
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The RNA polymerases are not capable of recognizing the
promoters located on the DNA to be transcribed. Transcription factors
assist the RNA polymerase in doing so.
14. Which enzyme makes the transcription, an essentially irreversible
process?
a) pyrophosphatase
b) amylase
c) glucamylase
d) topoisomerase
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Reactions leading to the synthesis of nucleic acids must
occur under irreversible conditions. These conditions are met during
transcription with the aid of enzyme called pyrophosphatase.
15. In bacteria, binding of _________ factor to the RNA polymerase
increases its affinity for promoter sites in the DNA.
a) alpha
b) sigma
c) rho
d) beta
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In bacteria, binding of the sigma factor to RNA polymerase
enzyme increases the latter’s affinity for promoter sequences in the
DNA.
his set of Cell Biology Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Gene Expression – Ribosomal RNA and tRNA”.

1. In a mammalian cell, which is the most abundant type of RNA?

a) rRNA
b) mRNA
c) siRNA
d) tRNA
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ribosomal RNA (called rRNA) is the most abundant type of
RNA in a cell. More than 80 percent of the RNA in a cell consists of
ribosomal RNA. Other types of RNAs are transfer RNA and messenger
RNA among others.
2. The human genome consists of _____ rDNA.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 5
d) 7
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The human genome has five different clusters of ribosomal
DNA, each on a different chromosome. Ribosomal DNA is the part of
DNA that codes for ribosomal RNA, the most abundance type of RNA in
a cell.
3. Aggregated clusters of rDNA in a cell are called _______________
a) nucleoli
b) chromatin
c) chromosome
d) ribosome
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a non-dividing cell (the cell which is in interphase), the
clusters of rDNA come together to form irregularly shaped nuclear
structures called nucleolus (plural nucleoli). The nucleoli are dense with
primary RNA transcripts.
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4. Which of the following are ideal subjects for the study of rRNA
synthesis and processing?
a) spermatocytes
b) mitochondria
c) oocytes
d) amphibians
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Oocytes are the ideal candidates for the study of rRNA
synthesis and processing. Amplification of rDNA is required by the
fertilized egg to begin embryonic development; therefore oocytes
contain hundreds of nucleoli that actively manufacture ribosomal RNA.
5. Nontranscribed spacer is not transcribed.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Nontranscribed spacer is that region of the ribosomal gene
cluster that is not transcribed into RNA. Transcription is the first step in
genetic expression and regulation.
6. How many types of distinct ribosomal RNAs are present in eukaryotic
ribosomes?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Eukaryotic ribosome or the 80S ribosome is made up of 2
unequal subunits(40S and 60S). The 40S subunit contains a 18S rRNA
and the 60S subunit contains the 28S, 5S and the 5.8S rRNAs. Therefore
the eukaryotic ribosomes have 4 rRNAs.
7. How many post-translational modifications occur in the pre-rRNA
(primary transcript)?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Two types of post-translational modifications are
characteristic of pre-rRNA, large number of methylated nucleotides and
pseudouridine residues. These make the pre-rRNA peculiar and
contrasting from other primary RNA transcripts.
8. Which of the following is a pre-rRNA?
a) 5S
b) 5.8S
c) 45S
d) 18S
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The 45S RNA molecule is a pre-rRNA, of length 13,000
nucleotides. It is cleaved into 18S, 5.8S and 28S mature rRNA. Most of
the pre- rRNA is spliced and reduced in length before turning into
mature rRNA.
9. The processing of pre-rRNA is done using __________
a) nucleolus
b) mRNA
c) snoRNA
d) siRNA
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The processing of pre- rRNA is done using the small
nucleolar RNAs (called snoRNA) along with some proteins. Processing of
pre- rRNA includes removal of non-coding sequences and
posttranscriptional modifications.
10. 5S rRNA is present only in eukaryotes.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 5s rRNA is present as part of the large ribosomal subunit in
both eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms. Unlike other types of rRNA,
5S rRNA is transcribed from a separate primary transcript.
11. Which among the following have the largest number of tRNA
genes?
a) humans
b) bacteria
c) yeast
d) fruit flies
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Transfer RNAs (called tRNAs) play an important role in
peptide synthesis. Humans contain about 1300 tRNA genes greater
than other organisms mentioned. Bacteria has least number of tRNA
genes.
12. Transfer RNAs (tRNA) are transcribed by _________________
a) pre-RNA
b) rDNA
c) tDNA
d) siRNA
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Clusters of tDNA located within the genome are
responsible for the transcription of transfer RNAs. Transfer RNAs
primarily function in the translation of proteins.
13. Ribonuclease P is involve in the processing of
___________________
a) sno RNA
b) rRNA
c) pre-tRNA
d) pre-mRNA
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Ribobuclease P is an endonuclease present both in
eukaryotes and prokaryotes. It is involved in the processing of pre-
tRNA. Transfer RNA is synthesized from the processed primary
transcript.

This set of Cell Biology Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Gene Expression – Messenger RNA”.

1. When were the first structures of ribosomal subunits made by

scientists?
a) 1980
b) 1990
c) 2000
d) 2010
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The first structures of ribosomal subunits were made in
the year 2000 by scientists Venkatraman Ramakrishnan, Thomas A.
Steitz and Ada E. Yonath, which is available in the Protein Data Bank.
2. The “S” in the 80S ribosomes stands for _______________
a) Svedberg’s units
b) Sedimentation coefficient
c) Sulphur-labeled
d) Supersonic
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: “S” stands for Svedbergs, a measure of how fast the
molecule moves in a centrifuge. The rate of sedimentation is related to
the shape and size of the molecule.
3. Which of the following are precursors for mRNAs?
a) snoRNA
b) hnRNA
c) siRNA
d) tRNA
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Heterogeneous nuclear RNAs (hnRNA) are large molecular
weight RNA molecules, present exclusively in the nucleus. They are
precursors to the cytoplasmic mRNAs.
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4. Which of the following has the smallest half life?
a) hnRNA
b) mRNA
c) tRNA
d) siRNA
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA) has the smallest half,
it is processed into mRNAs shortly after or even during synthesis.
5. All mRNA precursors are synthesized by ___________________
a) RNA polymerase I
b) RNA polymerase II
c) RNA polymerase III
d) RNA polymerase IV
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: All eukaryotic mRNA precursors are synthesized by RNA
polymerase II, it is conserved from yeast to mammals.
6. Which of the following gene encodes for the white of a chicken egg?
a) ovalbumin
b) globulin
c) troponin
d) dystrophin
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The gene that codes for the white of a chicken is
ovalbumin. The promoter of this gene is located between 24 and 32
bases upstream in the region called TATA box.
7. TFIID is a ___________
a) protein complex
b) rRNA
c) endonuclease
d) ribonuclease
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: TFIID is a transcription factor in eukaryotes but essentially
it is a multiprotein complex made up of many smaller proteins which
also includes the TATA binding protein.
8. Which enzyme unwinds the DNA?
a) helicase
b) topoisomerase
c) nuclease
d) endonuclease
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The enzymes that unwind the DNA are known as DNA
helicases. Unwinding of DNA enables the access of polymerase.
9. More than one RNA polymerase can attach to the promoter site.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For as long as a transcription factor for polymerase II,
fraction D (TFIID), remains bound to the promoter additional RNA
polymerase molecules are able to attach.
10. The RNA polymerase engaged in transcription is ____________
a) acidic
b) alkaline
c) phosphorylated
d) non-phosphorylated
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The RNA polymerase engaged in transcription is heavily
phosphorylated while the same enzyme assembled into the pre-
initiation complex (PIC) is not phosphorylated.
11. Messenger RNAs are found in the ________________
a) nucleus
b) cytoplasm
c) nucleolus
d) lysosome
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Messenger RNAs (mRNAs) are present in the cytoplasm
and are attached to ribosomes where they are translated.
12. Eukaryotic mRNAs have special modifications, not present in
prokaryotic mRNAs.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Eukaryotic mRNAs have special modifications on 5’ and 3’
termini, which are not present in prokaryotic mRNAs or on rRNAs or
tRNAs. These include poly(A) tail on 3’ end and methylated guanosine
cap on 5’ end.
13. Genes with intervening (non-coding) sequences are called
___________________
a) axons
b) exons
c) split genes
d) jumping genes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The genes with intervening, non-coding regions are called
spit-genes. The coding part is called exon and non-coding part is called
intron.
14. Which technique was used to find the relationship between 15S and
10S globin RNAs?
a) S-loop formation
b) R-loop formation
c) Pulsed-field gel electrophoresis
d) Polymerase chain reaction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The technique known as R-loop formation was employed
by Shirley Tilghman, Philip Leder, and their co-workers at the National
Institutes of Health for discerning the relationship between 15S and 10S
globin RNAs.
15. Which of the following prevents the digestion of mRNA by
exonucleases?
a) methyl-guanosine cap
b) methylene blue
c) poly(A) tail
d) bromophenol blue
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The methylguanosine cap at the 5’ end of the mRNA
prevents its digestion by the exonucleases 

1. The enzyme required for transcription is

(a) RNAase
(b) DNA polymerase
(c) RNA polymerase
(d) Restriction enzymes
Answer: (c)
2. Transcription is the transfer of genetic information from
(a) DNA to RNA
(b) DNA to mRNA
(c) mRNA to tRNA
(d) tRNA to mRNA
Answer: (b)
3. Sigma factor is a component of
(a) DNA ligase
(b) DNA polymerase
(c) Endonuclease
(d) RNA polymerase
Answer: (d)
4. The main function of tRNA with regards to protein synthesis is
(a) Proofreading
(b) identifies amino acids and transports them to ribosomes
(c) Inhibits protein synthesis
(d) all of the above
Answer: (b)
5. One end of tRNA matches genetic code in three-nucleotide
sequences known as
(a) codon
(b) genetic code
(c) blunt ends
(d) anticodon
Answer: (d)
6. The longest primary transcript is generated by
(a) dystrophin gene
(b) Tintin gene
(c) neuromedin u
(d) centromere protein A
Answer: (a)
7. A DNA sequence is read by an RNA polymerase that produces
complementary antiparallel RNA strand known as
(a) Hexa transcript
(b) secondary transcript
(c) primary transcript
(d) tertiary transcript
Answer: (c)
8. Which of these subunits of RNA polymerase is totally required to
initiate transcription?
(a) alpha (α)
(b) sigma (σ)
(c) omega (ω)
(d) beta (β)
Answer: (b)
9. In both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, the synthesis of protein
chains is initiated with
(a) Arginine
(b) Methionine
(c) Serina
(d) Valine
Answer: (b)
10. In eukaryotes, in order to initiate transcription
(a) RNA strand must be present
(b) RNA polymerase must be present
(c) Core promoter sequence must be present
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)

Multiple Choice Question on Transcription (RNA synthesis) and RNA

processing

1) Identify the correct statement regarding the function of ribonucleic

acid (RNA)
a) messenger RNA serves as a template for synthesis of proteins
b) tRNA serves as the adapter molecule for the addition of amino acids
and elongation of the peptide chain
c) ribosomal RNA serves as machinery for protein synthesis
d) All of the above

2) Which of the following RNA serves the regulatory functions including

splicing, gene silencing?
a) mRNA
b) tRNA
c) rRNA
d) small RNA

3) Which of the following statement is NOT true regarding

transcription/RNA synthesis?
a) RNA synthesis occurs in the nucleus
b) Unlike DNA synthesis, the only selective sequence of DNA is
transcribed to RNA
c) RNA synthesis requires a short stretch of RNA primers

d) DNA sequences, specific proteins, and small RNAs regulate RNA

synthesis.

4) The pentose sugar moieties are the primary structural difference

between DNA and RNA. In addition which of the following is primarily
associated with RNA molecule?
a) RNA consist of thymine instead of uracil
b) RNA molecules are highly branched structure
c) RNA molecules have higher structural complexities
d) RNA molecules are anti-parallel and double-stranded

5) In prokaryotes, RNA polymerase catalyzes the synthesis of:

a) mRNA
b) rRNA
c) tRNA
d) All of the above

6) The RNA polymerase is a multi-subunit enzyme that recognizes a

consensus nucleotide sequence (promoter region) upstream of the
transcription start site. In prokaryotes, the consensus promoter
sequence consists of 5-TATAAT-3' also known as
a) Enhancer box
b) Pribnow box
c) Transcription unit
d) None of the above

7) RNA polymerase catalyzes the synthesis of RNA by addition

nucleotide monophosphate and release of pyrophosphate for
nucleotide triphosphate. RNA polymerase
a) consists of 5'-3' exonuclease activity
b) lacks 3'-5' endonuclease activity
c) is a high fidelity enzyme
d) All of the above

8) In prokaryotes, a holoenzyme RNA polymerase consists of four core

subunits namely 2α, 1β, 1β' and a promoter recognizing σ subunit. It
may also require a termination factor for termination of the
transcription factor. Which of the following is a transcription factor?
a) gamma factor
b) delta factor
c) epsilon factor
d) rho factor

9) In prokaryotes, TTGACA is an upstream consensus nucleotide

sequence that is required for transcription ....... step
a) Initiation
b) Elongation
c) Termination
d) Capping

10) The termination of transcription occurs in both rho-dependent and

rho-independent manner. Which of the following is NOT true regarding
the termination of transcription
a) rho proteins recognize C-rich region near 3'end of the newly
synthesized RNA

b) rho-independent termination occurs when the transcription reaches

the palindromic structure leading to the formation of hairpins
c) rho protein competes with RNA polymerase for binding to
nucleotides
d) None of the above

11) Rifamycin is an antibiotic used for the treatment of tuberculosis. It

binds to .... subunit of RNA polymerase and inhibits the initiation of
transcription.
a) α,
b) β
c) σ
d) ζ

12) In eukaryotes, the RNA synthesis process is more complex than

prokaryotes. The RNA synthesis process is regulated by chromatin
structure, upstream and downstream sequences, binding partners, etc.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the transcription process in
eukaryotes:
a) Most actively transcribed genes are found in a loosely relaxed form
of chromatin called euchromatin
b) The most inactive segment of DNA is found in compact chromatin
structure called heterochromatin
c) Histone modification such as methylation, acetylation regulate the
RNA transcription by modulating chromatin structure
d) All of the above

13) In eukaryotes, three different RNA polymerases are involved in the

synthesis of a different class of RNAs namely: rRNA, tRNA, and mRNA.
The RNA polymerase that is required for the synthesis of mRNA is
a) RNA polymerase I
b) RNA polymerase II
c) RNA polymerase III
d) None of the above

14) In eukaryotes, the consensus promoter sequences (TATA box) that

are required for initiation of transcription is generally present
a) 10 nucleotide upstream of transcription start site (TSS)
b) 25 nucleotide upstream of TSS
c) 10 nucleotide downstream of TSS
d) 25 nucleotide downstream of TSS

15) Enhancers are special cis-acting DNA sequences that increase the
rate of transcription by RNA polymerase. Which of the following is true
regarding enhancers?
a) 10 nucleotide upstream elements
b) 25 nucleotide downstream elements
c) present closer or 1000s nucleotide upstream or downstream of TSS
d) All of the above

16) The capping of nucleotide prevents the rapid cleavage of mRNA and
catalyzed by guanylyltransferase. Identify the nucleotide cap that is
attached at the 5'end of mRNA.
a) 5-methyl guanosine
b) 7- methyl guanosine
c) 5- acetyl guanosine
d) 7- acetyl guanosine

17) The polyadenylation is a post transcription modification that

stabilizes the mRNA and prevent from the cleavage. The consensus
PolyA sequence is
a) (AAGAAA)n
b) (AACAAA)n
c) (AATAAA)n
d) (AAUAAA)n

18) In eukaryotes, the primary transcripts are processed to remove

intervening sequence resulting in mRNA and the process is known as
splicing. The complex of RNA, nucleoproteins that execute splicing
process is called:
a) Primosome
b) Splicing fork
c) Spliceosome
d) None of the above

19) The role of small nuclear ribonucleoprotein particles (snRNPs) is

a) to bind intronic sites and exon segments
b) facilitate the looping of the two exons into the correct alignment for
splicing
c) All of the above
d) None of the above

20) The auto-antibodies against the small nucleoproteins are present in

a) beta thalassemia
b) systemic lupus erythematosus
c) Phenylketonuria
d) None of the above

21) The antibody binding diversity is a result of a type splicing that

produces mRNA variants and protein variants by processing different
segment of exons. The process is known as
a) Diversity splicing
b) Alternative splicing
c) Conservative splicing
d) None of the above

22) CAAT box is present in many

a) Prokaryotic promoters upstream of TATA box
b) Prokaryotic promoters are downstream of TATA box
c) Eukaryotic promoters are upstream of TATA box
d) Eukaryotic promoters are downstream of TATA box

Multiple Choice Answers

1-d) All of the above
2-d) small RNA
3- c) RNA synthesis requires a short stretch of RNA primers
4- a) RNA consist of thymine instead of uracil
5- d) All of the above
6-b) Pribnow box
7-b) lacks 3'-5' endonuclease activity
8- d) rho factor
9-a) Initiation
10)-c) rho protein competes with RNA polymerase for binding to
nucleotides
11- b) β
12- d) All of the above
13-b) RNA polymerase II
14-b) 25 nucleotide upstream of TSS,
15-c) present closer or 1000s nucleotide upstream or downstream of
TSS,
16-b) 7- methyl guanosine
17-d) (AAUAAA)n
18-c) Spliceosome
19-c) All of the above
20-b) systemic lupus erythematosus, 21- b) Alternative splicing
22-a)Prokaryotic promoters upstream of TATA box

1. The complex of RNA polymerase, DNA template and new RNA

transcript is called
A. transcription bubble

B. replication bubble

C. a translation bubble
 D
none of these
.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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2. RNA polymerase in prokaryotes has a removable

A. alpha subunit

B. beta subunit

C. both (a) and (b)

D
sigma subunit
.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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3. Promoters for tRNAs are located

A. upstream from the start codon
 B. downstream from the start codon

C. both (a) and (b)

D
none of these
.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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4. The binding of lac repressor to DNA could be considered to be

analogous to
A. competitive inhibition of an enzyme

B. mixed-type inhibition of an enzyme

C. uncompetitive inhibition of an enzyme

D
allosteric effects in enzyme regulation
.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.
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5. Rho-dependent termination of transcription in E. coli

A. requires ATP

B. requires about 50 nucleotides of uncomplexed mRNA

C. both (a) and (b)

D
removes mRNA and holoenzyme from the DNA
.

Answer: Option C

6. Enhancers are regions that

A. bind RNA polymerase

B. are adjacent to the TATA box

C. are CAT box binding proteins

D
modulate transcription
.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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7. Transcription by E. coli polymerase occurs in
four phases known as initiation, propagation, elongation and
A.
termination

B. three phases known as initiation, elongation and termination

C. two phases known as initiation and termination

D
none of the above
.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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8. Which of the following is necessary for transcription to occur?

A. DNA molecule

B. RNA polymerase

C. DNA polymerase

D
Both DNA & RNA polymerase
.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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9. Multiple copies of 5S genes, located at a chromosomal site distinct

from the other rRNA genes
A. are transcribed by rRNA polymerase III and the 5S rRNA

B. are transcribed by rRNA polymerase II

C. are transcribed by rRNA polymerase I and the 5S rRNA

D
are transcribed by DNA polymerase I
.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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10. Each tRNA molecule has a cloverleaf secondary structure consisting

of
A. three stem loops

B. two stem loops

C. four stem loops

 D
either (a) or (b)
.

Answer: Option A

11. What is a promoter?

A specific sequence of DNA to which a catabolic repressor
A.
binds

B. A specific sequence of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds

A specific DNA sequence to which a restriction endonuclease

C.
binds

D
None of the above
.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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12. The function of the sigma factor of RNA polymerase is to

A. assure that transcription begins at the proper point

B. assure that transcription ends at the proper point

C. assure that translation begins at the proper point

 D
assure that translation ends at the proper point
.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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13. In both eukaryotes and prokaryotes, a promoter region that is rich

in AT bases is called as
A. CATT

B. Shine Dalgarno region

C. TATA box

D
SV40 region
.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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14. The RNA polymerases that transcribe bacterial DNA are

A. multisubunit enzymes
 B. only active inside the cell

C. interchangable with DNA polymerases

D
highly glycosylated in their active forms
.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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15. Immediately after transcription

a methylated guanine cap is added to the 51 end of the
A.
transcript

a methylated guanine cap is added to the 31 end of the

B.
transcript

C. both (a) and (b)

D
a poly adenylation signal is added
.

Gene regulation and expression

1. Eukaryotic entities
(a) in the presence of a cAMP molecule, it carries out protein synthesis
(b) have only operons assisting in gene expression
(c) transcription takes place in the nucleus and translation in the
cytoplasm
(d) transcription occurs in the cytoplasm and translation in nucleus
Answer: (c)
2. A genomic DNA possesses functioning units, a group of genes under
the influence of promoters known as
(a) genes
(b) operons
(c) anticodon
(d) codon
Answer: (b)
3. All regulatory proteins possess a common DNA binding motif that is
specific flexes in their protein chains permitting them to interlock with
(a) the outside groove of DNA helix
(b) the major groove of DNA helix
(c) the minor groove of DNA helix
(d) the inner groove of DNA helix
Answer: (b)
4. Regulatory proteins turn transcription off through binding to a site
rapidly at the front of the promoter and many times even overlaps the
promoter, this site is the
(a) regulatory site
(b) operator site
(c) suppressor site
(d) transcriptional control site
Answer: (b)
5. Seemingly, the vertebrate cells contain a protein which binds to
clusters of 5-methylcytosine ensuring that the bound gene stays in the
“off” position. This regulation on the role of gene regulation is an
outcome of
(a) Methylation
(b) Translation
(c) Enhancer expression
(d) operator suppression
Answer: (a)
6. The transcriptional gene control in eukaryotes is mediated by
(a) metabolites that bind to the cis-acting elements
(b) trans-acting factors failing to bind to cis-acting elements
(c) trans-acting factors binding to cis-acting elements
(d) repressor proteins that bind to operator sites
Answer: (c)
7. Basic tools of genetic regulation are the ability of some proteins to
bind to specific
(a) regulatory DNA sequences
(b) regulatory RNA sequences
(c) enzymes of cells
(d) promoter portions of genes
Answer: (a)
8. In the regulation of gene expression, this is an incorrect statement
(a) in the bacteria, it permits to replicate with no control
(b) in the bacteria, it permits to adapt to changing environments
(c) permits the maintenance of homeostasis in multicellular entities
(d) permits the functioning of multicellular entities on the whole
Answer: (a)
9. There are these many histones in the core of a nucleosome
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 2
Answer: (a)
10. In eukaryotes and bacteria, the most common form of regulation is
(a) promoter control
(b) translation control
(c) repressor control
(d) transcriptional control
Answer: (d)
This set of Biochemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Regulation of Gene Expression in Prokaryotes-1”.

1. Which of the following statements is not correct?

a) Bacteria possess only one type of RNA polymerase
b) Attenuation is a regulatory process used by bacteria to control the
initiation of transcription
c) Repressor binds to operator
d) Bacterial genes are polycistronic
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Attenuation results in premature termination of
transcription.
2. Which of the following bacterial operon is not controlled by
attenuation?
a) Arabinose
b) Tryptophan
c) Leucine
d) Histidine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Arabinose is a carbohydrate.
3. Which of the following is the most appropriate definition of an
operator?
a) A non-coding, regulatory DNA sequence that is bound by RNA
polymerase
b) A non-coding, regulatory DNA sequence that is bound by a repressor
protein
c) A DNA-binding protein that regulates gene expression
d) A cluster of genes that are regulated by a single promoter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A repressor binds to the operator.
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4. To which class of transcription factor do nuclear receptors belong?
a) Zinc finger proteins
b) Leucine zipper proteins
c) Helix-turn-helix proteins
d) Helix-loop-helix proteins
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Nuclear receptors belong to the zinc finger motif.
5. Which of the following statements about lac operon in e.coli is true?
a) Promoter is the binding site for the lac repressor
b) Operon is only switched on in the absence of lactose in the growth
medium
c) β-galactosidase is only produced in large quantities when the lac
repressor is bound to the operator
d) Lac operon mRNA is a polycistronic mRNA
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Bacterial genes are polycistronic and genes in eukaryotes
are monocistronic.
6. Which of the following statements regarding the regulation of trp
operon expression by attenuation is correct?
a) Rapid translation of the leader peptide prevents completion of mRNA
transcript
b) Rapid translation of the leader peptide allows completion of mRNA
transcript
c) The leader peptide sequence encodes enzymes required for
tryptophan synthesis
d) The leader peptide sequence contains no tryptophan residues
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Attenuation results in premature termination of
transcription.
7. Which of the following increases gene expression as much as 200-
fold?
a) TATA box
b) Insulator
c) Enhancer
d) CAAT box
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Only enhancers can increase gene expression as much as
200-fold.
8. The mechanism by which CBP activates transcription is?
a) CBP has DNA methyl transferase activity
b) CBP has histone acetyl transferase activity
c) CBP interacts with the basal transcription complex
d) CBP interacts with the basal transcription complex and has histone
acetyl transferase activity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: CBP interacts with the basal transcription complex and
activates transcription.
9. RNAi stands for ____________
a) RNA inducer
b) RNA interference
c) RNA intron
d) RNA insertion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: RNAi stands for RNA interference.
10. Which of the following about mRNA stability is not correct?
a) Regulation of mRNA stability is a way of regulating gene expression
b) Prokaryotic mRNAs have a half-life of only a few minutes
c) Histone mRNAs have especially long poly-A tails and are stable
d) It is thought that poly-A tails stabilize eukaryotic mRNAs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Histone mRNAs lack poly-A tails so they are unstable.
This set of Biochemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Principles of Gene Regulation”.

1. Which of the following is not an example of housekeeping genes?

a) RNA polymerase
b) r-RNA genes
c) Beta galactosidase
d) Enzymes required for basic metabolic pathways common to most
cells
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Enzymes required for basic metabolic pathways common
to most cells are housekeeping genes; RNA polymerase and r-RNA
genes are the examples.
2. Lactose utilization by E. coli requires ____________
a) Lac-Z
b) Lac-A
c) Lac-Y
d) Lac-l
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Lactose utilization by E. coli requires lac-Y.
3. The lactose repressor is encoded by ____________
a) Lac-l
b) Lac-A
c) Lac-Y
d) Lac-Z
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Lac-l encodes lactose repressor.
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4. Where does a repressor bind an operon?
a) Operator
b) Promoter
c) Inducer
d) Catabolite activator site
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Repressor binds an operon at the operator.
5. Lac repressor dissociates from its operator when the repressor binds
to ____________
a) Heat shock module
b) Promoter
c) Inducer
d) Catabolite activator site
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The Lac repressor dissociates from its operator when the
repressor binds to its inducer, allolactose.
6. The lac repressor has which of the following DNA-binding motif?
a) Helix-turn-helix
b) Zinc finger
c) Homeodomain
d) Leucine zipper
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The lac repressor has helix-turn-helix DNA-binding motif.
7. Which of the following are the structural motifs that mediate
protein-protein interactions?
a) Leucine zipper and basic helix-loop-helix
b) Homeodomain
c) Zinc finger
d) Helix-turn-helix
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Regulatory proteins contain domains not only for DNA
binding but also for protein-protein interactions. Homeodomain, zinc
finger and helix-turn-helix are DNA-binding domains.
8. If lactose and glucose are provided in the growth medium of a
culture of E. coli ____________
a) Lactose operon is not transcribed
b) Lactose metabolism is favored
c) Both lactose and glucose are metabolized at same rate
d) Adenylate cyclase is activated
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If lactose and glucose are provided in the growth medium
of a culture of E. coli lactose operon is not transcribed.
9. Which of the following is not required for the expression of genes in
the lactose operon?
a) lacl gene product
b) cAMP
c) Allolactose
d) Adenylate cyclase
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: cAMP, allolactose and adenylate cyclase are required for
the expression of genes in the lactose operon.
10. Which out of the following is not an example of an inducible
operon?
a) Lactose operon
b) Galactose operon
c) Maltose operon
d) Tryptophan operon
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Lactose operon, galactose operon and maltose operon are
examples of the inducible operon.

This set of Biochemistry Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)

focuses on “Regulation of Gene Expression in Prokaryotes-1”.

1. Which of the following statements is not correct?

a) Bacteria possess only one type of RNA polymerase
b) Attenuation is a regulatory process used by bacteria to control the
initiation of transcription
c) Repressor binds to operator
d) Bacterial genes are polycistronic
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Attenuation results in premature termination of
transcription.
2. Which of the following bacterial operon is not controlled by
attenuation?
a) Arabinose
b) Tryptophan
c) Leucine
d) Histidine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Arabinose is a carbohydrate.
3. Which of the following is the most appropriate definition of an
operator?
a) A non-coding, regulatory DNA sequence that is bound by RNA
polymerase
b) A non-coding, regulatory DNA sequence that is bound by a repressor
protein
c) A DNA-binding protein that regulates gene expression
d) A cluster of genes that are regulated by a single promoter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A repressor binds to the operator.
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4. To which class of transcription factor do nuclear receptors belong?
a) Zinc finger proteins
b) Leucine zipper proteins
c) Helix-turn-helix proteins
d) Helix-loop-helix proteins
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Nuclear receptors belong to the zinc finger motif.
5. Which of the following statements about lac operon in e.coli is true?
a) Promoter is the binding site for the lac repressor
b) Operon is only switched on in the absence of lactose in the growth
medium
c) β-galactosidase is only produced in large quantities when the lac
repressor is bound to the operator
d) Lac operon mRNA is a polycistronic mRNA
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Bacterial genes are polycistronic and genes in eukaryotes
are monocistronic.
6. Which of the following statements regarding the regulation of trp
operon expression by attenuation is correct?
a) Rapid translation of the leader peptide prevents completion of mRNA
transcript
b) Rapid translation of the leader peptide allows completion of mRNA
transcript
c) The leader peptide sequence encodes enzymes required for
tryptophan synthesis
d) The leader peptide sequence contains no tryptophan residues
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Attenuation results in premature termination of
transcription.
7. Which of the following increases gene expression as much as 200-
fold?
a) TATA box
b) Insulator
c) Enhancer
d) CAAT box
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Only enhancers can increase gene expression as much as
200-fold.
8. The mechanism by which CBP activates transcription is?
a) CBP has DNA methyl transferase activity
b) CBP has histone acetyl transferase activity
c) CBP interacts with the basal transcription complex
d) CBP interacts with the basal transcription complex and has histone
acetyl transferase activity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: CBP interacts with the basal transcription complex and
activates transcription.
9. RNAi stands for ____________
a) RNA inducer
b) RNA interference
c) RNA intron
d) RNA insertion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: RNAi stands for RNA interference.
10. Which of the following about mRNA stability is not correct?
a) Regulation of mRNA stability is a way of regulating gene expression
b) Prokaryotic mRNAs have a half-life of only a few minutes
c) Histone mRNAs have especially long poly-A tails and are stable
d) It is thought that poly-A tails stabilize eukaryotic mRNAs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Histone mRNAs lack poly-A tails so they are unstable.

his set of Biochemistry online quiz focuses on “Regulation of Gene

Expression in Prokaryotes – 2”.

1. CAP is ____________
a) Catabolite gene activator protein
b) Catabolite gene repressor protein
c) Anabolite gene activator protein
d) Anabolite gene repressor protein
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: cAMP receptor protein or CRP is sometimes called CAP,
catabolite gene activator protein.
2. Trp repressor is a ____________
a) Homodimer
b) Homotrimer
c) Heterodimer
d) Heterotrimer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Trp repressor is formed by two identical molecules, each
subunit containing 107 amino acid residues.
3. Attenuator sequences base-pair to form a stem-and-loop structure
rich in ____________
a) A = T
b) G ≡ C
c) A = C
d) G = C
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Attenuator sequences base-pair to form a G≡C rich stem-
and-loop structure closely followed by a series of U residues.
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4. Which of the following regulatory sequence allows transcription to
continue?
a) Sequence 1
b) Sequence 2
c) Sequence 3
d) Sequence 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Regulatory sequence 1 is crucial for a tryptophan sensitive
mechanism.
Sequence 2 is an alternative complement for sequence 3.
Sequence 4 is for attenuating transcription.
5. Formation of the attenuator stem-and-loop structure depends on the
events that occur during translation of ____________
a) Regulatory sequence 1
b) Regulatory sequence 2
c) Regulatory sequence 3
d) Regulatory sequence 4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Formation of the attenuator stem-and-loop structure
depends on the events that occur during translation of regulatory
sequence 1, which encodes a leader peptide.
6. Which of the following takes place when tryptophan levels are low?
a) Ribosomes quickly translates sequence 1
b) Sequence 2 is blocked before sequence 3 is transcribed
c) Ribosomes pauses at the Try codons in sequence 1
d) Attenuation at the attenuator structure formed by sequences of 3
and 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: a, b and d take place when tryptophan levels are high.
7. Which of the following takes place when tryptophan levels are high?
a) Attenuation at the attenuator structure formed by sequences of 3
and 4
b) Ribosomes pauses at the Try codons in sequence 1
c) Formation of paired structure between 2 and 3 sequences prevents
attenuation
d) 2:3 structures, unlike the 3:4 attenuator, does not prevent
transcription
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: b, c and d take place when tryptophan levels are low.
8. Whose interaction with Lex-A facilitates the repressor’s self-cleavage
reaction?
a) Rec-A
b) Rec-B
c) Rec-C
d) Rec-D
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This type of function of Rec-A is called co-protease activity.
9. When DNA segment is in one orientation ____________
a) The gene for FljB and gene encoding FljA are expressed
b) The gene for FliC are expressed
c) The gene for FljB and gene encoding FljA are not expressed
d) The gene for FljB and gene encoding FljC are not expressed
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When DNA segment is in one orientation, the gene for FljB
and gene encoding FljA are expressed; the repressor shuts down
expression of the gene for FliC.
10. Which of the following encodes recombinase?
a) fliC
b) fljB
c) hin
d) fljA
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The hin gene encodes the recombinase that catalyzes the
inversion of the DNA segment containing fljB promoter and the hin
gene.

1. Sex lethal (sxl) in Drosophila is transcribed when

A. the X autosome balance is less than 0.5

B. the X autosome balance is 1 or greater

C. the X autosome balance equals 0.5

D
none of the above
.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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2. A mutation in the tip binding site of the repressor would result in

A. constitutive trp operon expression

B. inducible trp operon expression

C. no operon expression
 D
none of the above
.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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3. The first protein complex to bind to the TATA box is

A. transcription factor IIA

B. transcription factor IIB

C. transcription factor IID

D
all of these
.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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4. Which of the following is not part of the lac operon?

A. I

B. O
 C. P

D
none of these
.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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5. The lac operon is transcribed in which segments?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D
4
.

Answer: Option A
6. A frameshift mutation occurs in the sigma subunit gene transcribed
as part of SPOl early genes. What will be the immediate result?
A. Early genes will not be translated

B. Middle genes will not be transcribed

 C. The bacterial host will lyse immediately

D
Infection will proceed as usual
.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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7. In the presence of high levels of tryptophan

A. attenuator allows transcription of trp structural genes

B. attenuator propogates transcription

C. attenuator terminates transcription

D
none of the above
.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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8. Tubulin is regulated by
A. binding of tubulin to tubulin mRNA
 B. splicing of the tubulin transcript

C. binding of tubulin to the tubulin translational product

D
binding of tubulin to DNA
.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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9. Transcription factors are

A. regions of DNA in the promoter area

B. regions of DNA in the enhancer area

C. any protein which binds to DNA

D
proteins which bind DNAand initiate transcription
.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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10. Genes which need to be coordinately regulated but are not in
operons may be regulated by
A. common transcription factor binding domains

B. TATA boxes

C. CAAT regions

D
GC regions
.

Answer: Option A
11. What are genes?
A. The functional unit of inheritance

B. A fragment of DNA

C. A portion of a chromosome

D
All of the above
.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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12. Which of the following is not a transcription factor?

 A. Helix-turn-helix proteins

B. Zinc finger proteins

C. Leucine zipper proteins

D
Steroid hormones
.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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13. Sex determination in Drosophila involves

A. alternate splicing

B. methylation

C. gene amplification

D
none of these
.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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14. Enhancers differ from promoters in that
A. they initiate transcription

B. they are adjacent to the start codon

C. their orientation can be inverted without effect

D
they are restricted to a specific gene
.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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15. Methylated gene are

A. active

B. silent

C. dynamic

D
either (a) or (b)
.

Answer: Option B
16. Which of the following occur in the presence of glucose?
 A. lac Z gene expression is increased

B. cAMP increases

C. Binding of CAP-cAMP complex to the promoter area decreases

D
none of the above
.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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17. Sex hormones activate transcription of specific genes by

A. binding to a transcription factor

B. binding to RNA polymerase

C. binding to DNA enhancer region

D
binding to DNA promoter region
.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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18. The lac operon is translated into __________ proteins.
A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D
4
.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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19. In the presence of tryptophan in the cell, the repressor is

__________
A. bound to tryptophan

B. bound to DNA

C. bound to both DNA and tryptophan

D
bound to neither tryptophan nor DNA
.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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20. Catabolite activating protein exerts __________ control on

transcription of the lac operon genes.
A. positive

B. negative

C. may be positive or negative

D
none of these
.

Answer: Option A

Protein Synthesis

1. On the ribosome, mRNA binds

A. between the subunits

B. to the large subunit

C. to the small subunit

D
none of these
.

Answer: Option C
 Explanation:
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2. Type I proteins (plasma membrane) have a

cleavage N- terminal signal sequence and a hydrophobic stop
A.
transfer sequence

cleavaged N- terminal signal sequence that doubles as the

B.
membrane anchoring sequence

multiple signal sequence and a hydrophobic stop transfer

C.
sequence

D multiple signal sequence that doubles as the membrane

. anchoring sequence

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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3. Which of the following is not a necessary component of translation?

A. Anticodon

B. mRNA
 C. Ligase

D
Amino acid
.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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4. A polysome could be best described as

A. an active site of DNA synthesis.

B. an active site of protein synthesis.

C. an active site of lipid synthesis.

D
all of the above.
.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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5. Eukaryotic mRNA binding to the ribosomes is facilitated by

__________ .
 A. the Shine Dalgarno sequence

B. the 7-methyl guanosine cap

C. tRNA

D
poly A tail
.

Answer: Option B
6. Amino acids are joined together into a protein chain by which of the
following?
A. Transfer RNA

B. DNA polymerase

C. Hydrogen bonds

D
Messenger RNA
.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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7. Phosphorus is taken up by the cell during the process of

A. carbohydrate synthesis.
 B. protein synthesis,

C. lipid synthesis.

D
ATP synthesis.
.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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8. Protein synthesis rates in prokaryotes are limited by the rate of

mRNA synthesis. If RNA synthesis occurs at the rate of 50
nucleotides/sec, then rate of protein synthesis occurs at
A. 10 amino acids/sec

B. 17 amino acids/sec

C. 25 amino acids/sec

D
50 amino acids/sec
.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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9. The site of protein synthesis is
A. Ribosome

B. Nucleus

C. Endoplasmic reticulum

D
Chromosome
.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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10. The structure in a bacterium that indicates an active site for protein
synthesis is
A. a chromosome.

B. a cell membrane,

C. a flagellum.

D
a polysome.
.

Answer: Option D
11. The lac operon contains the z, y and a structural genes
 encoding p-galactosidase, galactose permeases and thio-
A.
galactosidase transacetylase respectively

B. encoding p-galactosidase and galactose permeases

C. encoding P-galactosidase only

D
None of the above
.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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12. Proteins contain __________ different amino acids, whereas DNA

and RNA are composed of __________ different nucleotides
A. 20,64

B. 3,20

C. 4,20

D
20,4
.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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13. Which of the following is not necessary for protein synthesis to

occur, once transcription is completed?
A. tRNA

B. Ribosomes

C. mRNA

D
DNA
.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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14. Ribosomes select the correct tRNAs

A. then bind to the appropriate mRNA

B. solely on the basis of their anticodons

C. depending on their abundance in the cytosol

D with the least abundant anticodons

 .

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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15. Signal peptide protein removal that is translocated across a

membrane is accomplished by
A. fMet aminopeptidase

B. trypsin

C. signal peptidase

D
chymotrypsin
.

Answer: Option C
16. The direction of amino acid transfer to the growing polypeptide
chain is
from the A (aminoacyl tRNA site) site to the P (peptidyl tRNA
A.
site) site on the ribosome

B. from the P site to the A site on the ribosome

C. from the A site to the E (exit tRNA site) site on the ribosome

D from the P site to the E site on the ribosome

 .

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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17. The pathway of a tRNA during polypeptide elongation on the

ribosome is
A. A site → P site → E site

B. P site → entry site → exit site

C. A site → P site → entry site

D
P site → A site → E site
.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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18. Which of the following has unusual bases?

A. mRNA

B. tRNA
 C. rRNA

D
hnRNA
.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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19. The site on a bacterial chromosome that marks the termination

point for chromosome replication is called
A. ter

B. a stop codon.

C. a stem-loop

D
pau
.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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20. Degenerated codon differs mostly in

 A. the identities of their second base

B. the identities of their third base

C. the wobble position

D
both (b) and (c)
.

Answer: Option D
21. Translation in prokaryotes begins by the formation of a 30S
initiation complex between the
30S ribosomal subunit, mRNA, initiation factors and N-fMet
A.
tRNA

B. 30S ribosomal subunit, tRNA and initiation factors

C. 30S ribosomal subunit and mRNA only

D
30S ribosomal subunit, mRNA and initiation factors
.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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22. The anticodon of tRNA

 A. binds to rRNA

B. binds to an amino acid

C. binds to the Shine Dalgarno sequence

D
binds to an mRNA codon
.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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23. The peptidyl transferase reaction occurs

A. on the large subunit

B. on the small subunit

C. between the subunit

D
none of these
.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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24. Processive synthesis is a characteristic feature of
A. all DNA polymerases.

B. DNA Pol III at a replication fork.

C. removal of RNA primers on Okasaki fragments.

D
DNA mismatch repair
.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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25. Which site of the tRNA molecule binds to the mRNA molecule?
A. Anticodon

B. Codon

C. Amino acid

D
5 prime end
.

Answer: Option A
26. The first step in translation is
 A. binding of the two ribosomal subunits to each other

B. binding of mRNA to the two ribosomal subunits

C. binding of tRNA to the small ribosomal subunit

D
binding of mRNA to the small ribosomal subunit
.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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27. Which of the following amino acid starts all proteins synthesis?
A. Glycine

B. Proline

C. Thymine

D
Methionine
.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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28. The growing polypeptide chain is released from the ribosomes
when
A. a chain terminating codon is reached

B. a chain terminating tRNA binds to the ribosome

C. the 7-methyl guanosine cap is reached

D
the poly A tail is reached
.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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29. Which of the following RNAs bind to an amino acid?

A. mRNA

B. tRNA

C. rRNA

D
hnRNA
.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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30. How many bases of nucleic acid determine a single amino acid?
A. Four

B. One

C. Two

D
Three
.

Answer: Option D
31. The ribosomes are composed of
A. proteins

B. RNA

C. both (a) and (b)

D
lipids
.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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32. Which is required for protein synthesis?
A. tRNA

B. mRNA

C. rRNA

D
All of these
.

Answer: Option D

This set of Life Sciences Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Protein Synthesis”.

1. Conversion of messages carried by mRNA into amino acid sequences

is called___________
a) Replication
b) DNA repair
c) Translation
d) Transcription
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Translation is the process of conversion mRNA base
sequences into amino acid sequences.
2. tRNA has peptidal transferase activity.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Peptidal transferase activity is performed by rRNA. tRNA
functions in bringing amino acid to the ribosome.
3. The following set of RNA is required in the translation process except
one, mark the INCORRECT?
a) Si RNA
b) rRNA
c) mRNA
d) tRNA
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Three types of RNA are required to perform cooperative
functions in protein synthesis i.e, mRNA carries a genetic message,
tRNA, and rRNA.
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4. What is the size of the prokaryotic ribosome?
a) 80S
b) 70S
c) 40S
d) 60S
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The size of prokaryotic ribosome is 70S and it consists of
two subunits large (50S) and small (30S).
5. Name the sequence of RNA, which is recognized by a small subunit of
the ribosome.
a) Rho utilization site
b) Downstream sequence
c) Upstream sequence
d) Shine Dalgarno sequence
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In prokaryotes, Shine Dalgarno sequences are found near
the initiation codon and it is complementary to the sequences present
on the small subunit of the ribosome.
6. Which of the following is considered as a start codon?
a) AUG
b) GUG
c) UAG
d) AGG
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Start codon refers to the first base of sequences from
which reading begins and proceed 3 nitrogenous bases at a time.
7. Mark the one, which is NOT a stop codon?
a) UAA
b) UAG
c) UGA
d) GGA
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Out of total codons, there are three non-sense codons or
stop codon i.e, UAA (ochre), UAG (Amber), and UGA (opal).
8. Which of the following is not true to the nature of the genetic code?
a) Codon is triplet
b) Codons are commaless
c) Codons are overlapping
d) Codons are universal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Codons are non-overlapping in nature, commaless, and
there is no punctuation mark between them. Codons are universal as
well, except mammalian mitochondria and some bacteria.
9. Who explained the wobble hypothesis?
a) Darwin
b) Watson and Crick
c) Samuel B. Weiss
d) Nirenberg
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In 1966, Watson and Crick proposed the degeneracy
wobble hypothesis. Wobble hypothesis explained the ability of an
anticodon to base pair with more than one codon.
10. Which of the following recognize a specific amino acid and its
cognate t-RNA molecule?
a) t-RNA synthetase
b) Ribososme
c) r-RNA
d) Topoisomerase
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The t-RNA synthetase enzyme recognizes a specific amino
acid and its cognate t-RNA molecules. There are 20 different enzymes,
which are categorized into 2 classes.
11. Name the inhibitor which blocks translation in both prokaryotes as
well as eukaryotes?
a) Chlorophenicol
b) Tetracycline
c) Puromycin
d) Streptomycin
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Puromycin is an analog of the amino acyl t-RNA, which
causes premature termination of polypeptide.
12. Which of the following inhibitor block translation in eukaryotes?
a) Cyclohexamine
b) Tetracycline
c) Puromycin
d) Streptomycin
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cyclohexamine inhibits peptidal transferase activity in
eukaryotes while chlorophenicol inhibits peptidal transferase in
prokaryotes.
13. Name the drug which inhibits the initiation step of translation.
a) Cyclohexamine
b) Tetracycline
c) Ricin
d) Streptomycin
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Streptomycin binds 16S r-RNA and interferes proof reading
thus it causes m-RNA misreading and inhibits the initiation step.

This set of Life Sciences Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Mutation”.

1. Damage and errors in DNA cause___________

a) Mutation
b) DNA repair
c) Translation
d) Transcription
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: All the types of errors during DNA replication and damages
caused by exposure to radiation or carcinogens leads to mutation.
2. All types of mutations are transferable among generations.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Somatic mutation is not transmitted to sexual progeny
while germinal mutation transmitted to sexual progeny.
3. Mark the INCORRECT statement about mutation?
a) Mutation is predestined
b) Major source of evaluation
c) Usually deleterious and recessive
d) It is a reversible process
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mutations are the ultimate source of all genetic variations
and without which all the genes could exist in only one form.
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4. Which of the following is NOT a type of reverse mutation?
a) Back mutation
b) Intergenic suppressor mutation
c) Intragenic suppressor mutation
d) Missense mutation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Reverse mutation occurs at the same or different sites of
forward mutation and restores wild phenotype.
5. Which of the following is NOT true for loss of function mutation?
a) Usually recessive
b) Most common mutation
c) Increases the activity of the gene
d) Null allelic mutation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Loss of function mutation either reduce or abolishes the
activity of a gene. On the contrary mutation that increases the activity
of the gene is called a gain of function mutation.
6. Name the term given to the type of mutation which depends on the
conditions of the environment?
a) Forward mutation
b) Reverse mutation
c) Conditional lethal mutation
d) Gain of function mutation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In conditional lethal mutation, lethality depends on the
conditions of the environment. Examples of conditional lethal
mutations are auxotrophs, temperature sensitive mutants, and
suppressor mutation.
7. What is the detection technique of auxotrophs?
a) Spread plating
b) Replica plating
c) Streaking
d) Pouring
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Auxotrophs is a conditional lethal mutation in which
mutants need essential metabolites for proper growth.
8. Name the type of mutation in which the cause of mutation is not
known?
a) Spontaneous mutation
b) Suppressor mutation
c) Nonsense mutation
d) Mis-sense mutation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Spontaneous mutation is those for which the cause of
mutation is not known. These types of mutations arise due to a
tautomeric shift in nitrogenous bases of DNA.
9. Addition or deletion of bases causes which kind of mutation?
a) Transversion
b) Frameshift mutation
c) Transition
d) Transcription
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Frameshift mutation is a point mutation involves the
addition or deletion of bases while substitution of bases causes
transition or transversion.
10. Which of the following chemical mutagen affects only replicating
DNA?
a) Acridine dye
b) Alkylating agent
c) Deaminating agent
d) Base analog
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Base analog is mutagenic only for replicating DNA while
acridine dye, alkylating, and deaminating agents are mutagenic to both
replicating and non-replicating DNA.

1 . Which part of DNA stores the biological info of a cell?

A. sugar B. phosphate group
C. bases D. all of the above
2. What are the fundamental building blocks of a protein?
A. lipids B. carbohydrates
C. amino acids D. fatty acids
3. What is the function of proteins?
A. makes structural element of body B. biochemical process
C. makes structural element of enzymes D. all of the above
4. What is the full form of mRNA?
A. making ribonucleic acid B. messenger ribose acid
C. messenger ribonucleic acid D. marking ribonucleic acid
5. Match the following-
a. DNA 1. This process occurs on ribosomes
b. RNA 2. Process for the synthesis of mRNA
c. transcription 3. It contains ribose sugar
d. translation 4. It contains deoxyribose
6. Synthesis of RNA is done through which process?
A. transcription B. hemostasis
C. homeostasis D. translation
7. Which of the following statement is NOT true?
A. DNA has 2 strands
B. translation occurs in cytoplasm
C. gene expression is specific for each type of cell
D. RNA contains adenine, guanine, uracil and thymine
8. Which base is not the part of RNA?
A. adenine B. cytosine
C. guanine D. none of the above
9. Where the synthesis of protein takes place?
A. mitochondria B. ribosomes
C. cytosol D. nucleus
10. A protein is made up of how many amino acids?
A. 20 B. 22
c. 25 D. 30
ANSWERS:-

1. bases
2. amino acids
3. messenger ribonucleic acid
4. all of the above
5. a – 4 b – 3 c – 2 d – 1
6. transcription
7. RNA contains adenine, guanine, uracil and thymine
8. none of the above
9. ribosomes
10. 20

1. This best describes a polysome

(a) active site for synthesis of lipids
(b) active site for synthesis of proteins
(c) active site for synthesis of DNA
(d) all of these
Answer: (b)
2. In protein synthesis, translocation is initiated with the movement of
(a) tRNA from P-site to the A-site
(b) dipeptidyl tRNA from A-site to P-site
(c) tRNA from A-site to P-site
(d) tRNA from P-site to E-site
Answer: (b)
3. The process by which protein synthesis from genetic code occurs is
best described by
(a) transcription
(b) translation
(c) replication
(d) reproduction
Answer: (b)
4. This is incorrect about the nature of genetic code.
Codons are
(a) universal
(b) overlapping
(c) commaless
(d) triplet
Answer: (b)
5. This elongation factor is known as translocase
(a) EFG
(b) EF2
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) EF-Tu and EF-Ts
Answer: (c)
6. This drug inhibits the initiation step of translation
(a) ricin
(b) tetracycline
(c) streptomycin
(d) cyclohexylamine
Answer: (c)
7. In translation, this is not an essential component
(a) amino acid
(b) ligase
(c) mRNA
(d) anticodon
Answer: (b)
8. This identifies a particular amino acid and its cognate tRNA molecule
(a) topoisomerase
(b) rRNA
(c) Ribosome
(d) tRNA synthetase
Answer: (d)
9. Protein synthesis corresponds to the process of
(a) duplicating required DNA for synthesis of proteins
(b) formation of amino acids from mRNA
(c) formation of mRNA from DNA template
(d) formation of amino acids from DNA template directly
Answer: (b)
10. This is considered to be the start codon
(a) AGG
(b) UAG
(c) GUG
(d) AUG
Answer: (d)

Mobile DNA elements

This set of Molecular Biology Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

(MCQs) focuses on “Most Mobile DNA Consists of Transposable
Elements”.

1. Pick the odd one out.

a) Introns
b) Cassettes
c) Jumping genes
d) Insertion sequences
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Introns are intervening sequences found within the gene
itself which divides the gene into several exons and are spliced off from
the hnRNA to produce the intact mRNA. The rest, cassettes, jumping
genes and insertion sequences are the different names for transposable
elements and are short sequences of DNA that have the ability to move
from one location to the other within the genome.
2. Transposable elements are often found once in a gene and have a
unique sequence for its own.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Transposable elements have the ability to move from one
location to the other within the genome and often make duplicate
copies of them in this process. The process by which they are copied
and inserted into a new site in the genome is called transposition.
3. Junk DNA are also a type of transposable element that can jump from
one location to another within the genome.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Transposable elements are considered as selfish DNA that
replicates but is of no use to the host cell. Defective selfish DNA which
is no longer capable of either moving or expressing its gene is termed
as junk DNA.
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4. On the mechanism of the movement of transposable elements they
are of ___________ types.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: On the mechanism of the movement of transposable
elements they are of two types. They are transposons or type II
elements and retrotransposons or type I elements.
5. The type of mutation that is imposed by transposons is ___________
a) Silent mutation
b) Reverse mutation
c) Polar mutation
d) Frame shift mutation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Transposable elements may contain transcription and/or
translation termination signals. This blocks the expression of other
genes downstream of the insertion site. This one-way mutational effect
is known as polar mutation.
6. Transposons were first discovered in ___________
a) Rice
b) Bacteria
c) Mice
d) Maize
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The first transposons were discovered in maize in 1948.
For this discovery Barbara McClintock was awarded a Nobel Prize in
1983.
7. Transposons are able to move by ___________ mechanism(s).
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Transposons can move by conservative or replicative
process. In the conservative process the copy number of the
transposons remains same but in replicative process the copy number
increases.
8. The transposons are more abundant than retrotransposons in higher
eukaryotes.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Transposable elements make upto 10% of higher
eukaryotic genomes. Although retrotransposons are much more
abundant in higher eukaryotes such as LINE, SINE, etc.
9. Silencing of transposons cannot be achieved by which of the
following mechanisms?
a) RNAi
b) DNA methylation
c) DNA phosphorylation
d) Chromatin remodeling
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As the movement of transposons can be destructive it is
important to make the transposons silent to maintain the stability of
the genome. They are kept inactive by epigenetic mechanisms such as
RNA interference, DNA methylation and chromatin remodeling.
10. Pick the odd one out.
a) T4 phage
b) Mu phage
c) Coli phage
d) T2 phage
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Mu is an unusual E. coli bacteriophage. It is both a
virus and a transposon. It is a temperate phage having both lytic and
lysogenic growth cycles. It integrates into the bacterial genome by
transpositional mechanism rather than site-specific recombination.

This set of Molecular Biology Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

(MCQs) focuses on “The Multitude of Transposable Elements – 1”.

1. The transposable elements of bacteria are generally

retrotransposons.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Most transposable elements in bacteria transpose directly
as DNA. In contrast, most mobile elements in the eukaryotes are
retrotransposons.
2. The IS elements can be identified by the presence of __________
a) Antibiotic resistance gene
b) Endonuclease cleavage site
c) 50 bp inverted repeat
d) Integrase site
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The IS elements are the most common type of transposons
present in the bacterial genome. An inverted repeat of usually 50 bp is
the hallmark of such elements present at each end of an insertion
sequence.
3. Direct repeats in the IS element are present __________
a) Within the transposon
b) Upstream the inverted repeat
c) Within the inverted repeat
d) Downstream the inverted repeat
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A set of two direct repeats flank the IS element on either
side. They are not transposed with the insertion element and are found
within the inverted repeat sequence on either sides.
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4. The direct repeat within the IS element has a length of __________
a) 20 bp
b) 11-15 bp
c) 5-11 bp
d) 3-7 bp
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The direct repeat on either side of the insertion element is
a hallmark of IS element. They are 5 to 11 bp long sequences
immediately adjacent to both ends of the inserted element.
5. The enzyme that catalyzes the transposition of an IS element is called
__________
a) Transposase
b) Integrase
c) Transcriptase
d) Polymerase
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The enzyme that catalyzes the transposition of an IS
element is called a transposase. The transposase recognizes the
inverted repeats and moves the segment of DNA bound by them from
one site to another.
6. Transposase restriction mechanism of the IS element restricts the
transposon and the target DNA in a combination of which of the
following?
a) Blunt end cut for transposon and sticky end cut for target DNA
b) Blunt end cut for both transposon and target DNA
c) Sticky end cut for transposon and blunt end cut for target DNA
d) Sticky end cut for both transposon and target DNA
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The transposase is encoded by the IS element itself. The
transposase on production makes blunt-ended cut in the transposable
element and staggered/sticky-ended cut in the target DNA.
7. Which of the following functions is not performed by transposase?
a) Restriction of the IS element
b) Integration of the transposon
c) Formation of the RNA intermediate
d) Restriction of the host genome
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The transposase performs three functions in the
transposition of the IS element. First, it precisely excises the IS element
from the transposon. Second, it makes staggered cut in the target DNA
segment. Last, it ligates the IS element within the target site.
8. The central block of the composite transposable element consists a
gene for __________
a) Transposase
b) Antibiotic resistance
c) Integrase
d) Lactamase
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Composite transposons contain one or more protein-
coding genes in addition to those required for transposition. Many of
the well known composite transposons carry genes for antibiotic
resistance. Two of the best known elements are Tn9 (chloramphenicol
resistance) and Tn10 (tetracycline resistance).
9. Which of the following is a non-composite transposon?
a) Tn5
b) Tn10
c) Tn3
d) Tn9
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Tn5, Tn10 and Tn9 are examples of composite
transposons. Tn3 and Tn21 are examples of non-composite
transposons.
10. Which of the following about the P-element is false?
a) 25 bp inverted repeats
b) 2907 bp long element
c) Encodes for transposase
d) DNA transposon
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The P-element in Drosophila is one of the best examples of
transposable elements in eukaryotes. This element is 2907 bp long and
features a 31 bp inverted repeat at each end. This element encodes a
transposase. P-element does not utilize an RNA intermediate during
transposition and are able to insert at many different positions.
11. Hybrid dysgenesis is caused by which of the following transposable
element?
a) Non-composite transposon
b) LINE
c) P-element
d) Ac-element
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Interbreeding of two incompatible strains of Drosophila
displays dysgenic traits. These include a series of defects including
mutations, chromosomal aberrations, distorted segregation at meiosis
and sterility. This genetic phenomenon is called hybrid dysgenesis.
This set of Molecular Biology Multiple Choice Questions & Answers
(MCQs) focuses on “The Multitude of Transposable Elements – 2”.

1. Dysgenesis occurs in every cell of the Drosophila.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hybrid dysgenesis is principally a phenomenon of the germ
cells. In crosses involving the P-M system, the F1 generation hybrid flies
have normal somatic tissues. Their gonads, however, do not develop.
2. P-strains of the Drosophila have active P-elements.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: P-elements reside passively in the P-strains because they
express a repressor of transposition that keeps the transposons silent.
The repressor is also inherited maternally through the egg cytoplasm
thus the offspring thus produced will be normal.
3. Hybrid dysgenesis occurs in which of the following cases?
a) Crossing between P-female and P-male
b) Crossing between M-female and M-male
c) Crossing between P-female and M-male
d) Crossing between M-female and P-male
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hybrid dysgenesis is observed when crossing P-males with
M-females. The eggs of M-strain do not contain the repressor protein
that prevents the transposition. This leads to a transposition of the P-
elements from the sperm of the P-strain leading to hybrid dysgenesis in
the progeny.
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4. Retrotransposons transposes through the RNA intermediates.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The elements that transpose through an RNA intermediate
utilizing a reverse transcriptase are called the retrotransposon. They
are primarily found in eukaryotic organisms.
5. Retrotransposons are of how many types?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Retrotransposons can be divided into two types on the
basis of the presence of long terminal repeats. If the LTR is present on
either side of the transposon they are known as LTR-transposons and if
they are absent then it is known as non LTR-Transposons.
6. LTR-retrotransposons are abundantly found in __________
a) Bacteria
b) Virus
c) mammals
d) Yeast
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: LTR-retrotransposons are also known as viral
retrotransposons. They are most abundantly found in lower eukaryotes
such as yeast and Drosophila.
7. LINE and SINE are examples of __________
a) LTR retrotransposon
b) Composite transposon
c) Non-LTR retrotransposon
d) Ac-element
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: LINE and SINE are the most abundantly found non LTR-
retrotransposons in the vertebrates. They lack the terminal LTR
sequences and have a stretch of A/T at one end.
8. Which of the following about the L1 LINE family is correct?
a) Highly accumulated in autosomes
b) About 37% of the total human genome
c) Presence of short direct repeats on either end
d) Approximately 2 kb in length
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The corrected characteristics are:
i) Highly accumulated in sex chromosomes than autosomes
ii) Makes up about 17% of the total human genome
iii) Approximately 6 kb in length.
9. The consensus sequence of the L1 LINE family has three open reading
frames.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The consensus sequence co the L1 LINE family contains
two long open reading frames. ORF1 encodes an RNA-binding protein
and ORF2 encodes a protein with both endonuclease and reverse
transcriptase activity.
10. SINES are transcribed by __________
a) Klenow fragment
b) Polymerase I
c) Polymerase II
d) Polymerase III
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: SINEs are transcribed by RNA polymerase III. They require
the machinery of the LINE elements as they are around 100-400 bp long
non-autonomous sequences.
11. The SINE commonly contains the restriction site for the
endonuclease __________
a) Pvu I
b) Spa I
c) Alu I
d) Xma I
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The most common SINE elements are Alu elements in the
human genome. These are about 300 bp long sequences that are
scattered throughout the human genome, constituting of almost 10%
of the total DNA.

Bioinformatics

1. Which of the following is an example of Homology and similarity

tool?
(a) BLAST
(b) RasMol
(c) EMBOSS
(d) PROSPECT
Sol:(a) BLAST.
2. In which year did the SWISSPROT protein sequence database begin?
(a) 1988
(b) 1985
(c) 1986
(d) 1987
Sol: (d) 1987.
3.Which of the following scientists created the first Bioinformatics
database?
(a) Dayhoff
(b) Pearson
(c) Richard Durbin
(d) Michael.J.Dunn
Sol:(a) Dayhoff.
4. The human genome contains approximately__________.
(a) 6 billion base pairs
(b) 5 billion base pairs
(c) 3 billion base pairs
(d) 4 billion base pairs
Sol: (c) 3 billion base pairs.
5. Which of the following tools is used for the identification of motifs?
(a) BLAST
(b) COPIA
(c) PROSPECT
(d) Pattern hunter
Sol: (b) COPIA.
6. The first molecular biology server expasy was in the year
__________.
(a) 1992
(b) 1993
(c) 1994
(d) 1995
Sol: (b) 1993.
7. What is the deposition of cDNA into the inert structure called?
(a) DNA probes
(b) DNA polymerase
(c) DNA microarrays
(d) DNA fingerprinting
Sol: (c) DNA microarrays.
8. The identification of drugs through the genomic study is
called__________.
(a) Genomics
(b) Pharmacogenomics
(c) Pharmacogenetics
(d) Cheminformatics
Sol: (b) Pharmacogenomics.
9. Which of the following compounds has desirable properties to
become a drug?
(a) Fit drug
(b) Lead
(c) Fit compound
(d) All of the above
Sol:(b) Lead.
10. Proteomics refers to the study of __________.
(a) Set of proteins in a specific region of the cell
(b) Biomolecules
(c) Set of proteins
(d) The entire set of expressed proteins in the cell
Sol: (d) The entire set of expressed proteins in the cell.
11. The process of finding the relative location of genes on a
chromosome is called __________.
(a) Gene tracking
(b) Genome walking
(c) Genome mapping
(d) Chromosome walking
Sol:(c) Genome mapping.
12. The computational methodology that tries to find the best matching
between two molecules, a receptor and ligand are called __________.
(a) Molecular fitting
(b) Molecular matching
(c) Molecular docking
(d) Molecule affinity checking
Sol: (c) Molecular docking.
13. Which of the following are not the application of bioinformatics?
(a) Drug designing
(b) Data storage and management
(c) Understand the relationships between organisms
(d) None of the above
Sol: (d) None of the above.
14. The term “invitro” is the Latin word which refers to__________.
(a) Within the lab
(b) Within the glass
(c) Outside the lab
(d) Outside the glass
Sol: (b) Within the glass.
15. The stepwise method for solving problems in computer science is
called__________.
(a) Flowchart
(b) Algorithm
(c) Procedure
(d) Sequential design
Sol:(b) Algorithm.
16. The term Bioinformatics was coined by __________.
(a) J.D Watson
(b) Pauline Hogeweg
(c) Margaret Dayhoff
(d) Frederic Sanger
Sol: (b) Pauline Hogeweg.
17. The laboratory work using computers and associated with web-
based analysis generally online is referred to as __________.
(a) In silico
(b) Dry lab
(c) Wet lab
(d) All of the above
Sol: (c) In silico.
18. Which of the following is the first completed and published gene
sequence?
(a) ΦX174
(b) T4 phage
(c) M13 phage
(d) Lambda phage
Sol: (a) ΦX174.
19. The laboratory work using computers and computer-generated
models generally offline is referred to as __________.
(a) Insilico
(b) Wet lab
(c) Dry lab
(d) All of the above
Sol: (c) Dry lab.
20. The computer simulation refers to __________.
(a) Dry lab
(b) Invitro
(c) In silico
1. Which of the Following Statements is Incorrect about the RNA
Secondary Structure’s Prediction?
a. Every base is compared first to every other base by a type of
analysis quite similar to that of dot matrix analysis
b. A matches row in the RNA matrix indicates a complementary
nucleotides succession that can potentially produce a double-
stranded region
 c. The sequence is listed across the side of the page, top and down,
G/C, G/U, and A/U base pairs are scored
d. A row of matches in the RNA matrix represents a failure of
complementary nucleotides that can potentially produce a
double-stranded region
Answer: (d)
Explanation
The energy of each structure, which is predicted, is estimated by the
nearest-neighbor rule by summing the negative base-stacking energies
for each base pair in the double-stranded regions. By adding the
estimated positive energies of destabilizing regions like loops at the
hairpins end, internal bulges, bulges within hairpins, and other
unpaired regions.

2. Identify the following statement, either True or False?

Evaluation of all the different possible configurations is done through a
single scoring matrix.
a. False
b. True
Answer: (a)
Explanation
To find the most energetically favorable, and to evaluate all the
different possible configurations, different types of scoring matrices are
used. The complementary regions are then evaluated by a dynamic
programming algorithm to predict the most energetically stable
molecule. The method is similar compared to the dynamic
programming method that is used for sequence alignment.

3. Which Regions in Sequences, Similar to those in RNA that will Form

the Secondary Structures, are the Examples of Such Kinds of Context-
Free Sequences.
a. Non-Complementary
b. Complementary
c. Non-interlocking
d. Non-compatible
Answer: (c)
Explanation
Stochastic Context-Free Grammars (SCFG) introduce into the definition
of such regions’ uncertainty. It also allows them to use alternative
symbols, as found in the evolution of RNA molecules.

4. Identify the Following Statement, either True or False?

The SCFGs application to RNA secondary structure analysis is so similar
in form to the probabilistic covariance models. Is this statement True or
False?
a) False
b) True
Answer: (b)
Explanation
The alphabet symbols for RNA are A, C, G, and U. The Context-Free
Grammar establishes a set of rules that are known as productions for
generating the sequence from the alphabet, and in this case, an RNA
molecule with sections that can base-pair and others that cannot base-
pair.

5. Identify the Following Statement, either True or False?

The SCFGs that are used in the production analysis of RNA secondary
structure are very similar compared to that of the covariance model,
with the grammatical productions resembling the nodes in the ordered
binary tree.
a. False
b. True
Answer: (b)
Explanation
According to the hidden Markov models, the probability distribution of
each production must be derived by training with the known
sequences. The algorithms used in SCFG training and for the sequence
aligning with the SCFG are a bit different from those which are used
with Markov models that are hidden, and the memory requirements,
time are greater.

6. The Human Genome Approximately Contains ______ Pairs.

a. 3 billion base pairs
b. 5 billion base pairs
c. 6 billion base pairs
d. 4 billion base pairs
Answer: (a)

7. The SWISSPROT Protein Sequence Database has begun in the Year

______?
a. 1988
b. 1987
c. 1986
d. 1988
Answer: (b)

8. Which of These Following are not Bioinformatics Applications?

a. Data storage and management
b. Understand the relationships between organisms
c. Drug designing
d. None of the above
Answer: (d)

9. The Laboratory Work is Done using the Computers and Associated

with Web-Based Analysis Online is Generally referred to as
__________?
a. Insilico
 b. Wet lab
c. Dry lab
d. All of the above
Answer: (b)

10. The Laboratory Work is Done using the Computers and Computer-
Generated Models Offline Generally is referred to as _______?
a. Dry lab
b. Wet lab
c. Insilico
d. All of the above
Answer: (a)

11. The Latin Term “Invitro” refers to_______ ?

a. Outside the lab
b. Outside the glass
c. Within the lab
d. Within the glass
Answer: (d)
12. The computational methodology that tries to identify the best
matching between two molecules, a ligand and receptor are known as
_______?
a. Molecular matching
b. Molecule affinity checking
c. Molecular docking
d. Molecular fitting
Answer: (c)
Related Questions
Who is known as the father of microscopy?
(a) Leeuwenhoek
(b) T. Schwann
(c) H.G Khorana
(d) M.J. Schleiden
What is biology?
Show More Questions
FAQ (Frequently Asked Questions)
1. Which of the Below-Given Names is an Example of a Homology and
Similarity Tool?
1. BLAST
2. EMBOSS
3. PROSPECT
4. RasMol
Answer: (a)
2. On the Following Scientists, Who Created the First Bioinformatics
Database?
1. Dayhoff
 2. Pearson
3. Richard Durbin
4. Michael.J.Dunn
Answer: (a)
3. Identify the Following Statement, either True or False?
A general theory for modeling symbol strings, like bases in the DNA
sequences, has been developed by linguists. These so-called
transformational grammars have a hierarchy that deals with situations
of increasing complexity.
1. True
2. False
Answer: (a)
4. Identify the Following Statement, either True or False?
Each non-terminal of SCFGs symbol production has an associated
probability for giving rise to the resulting product, and also, there is a
defined set of productions, each giving a different result.
1. True
2. False
Answer: (a)
5. Identify the Following Statement, either True or False?
The increase always depends on the type and length of the loop that is
introduced by a non-complementary base pair, whether internal loop,
hairpin loop, or bulge loop.
a) True
b) False

Answer: (a)
This set of Bioinformatics MCQs focuses on “Iterative Methods of
Multiple Sequence Alignment”.

1. Iterative methods include repeatedly realigning subgroups of the

sequences and then by aligning these subgroups into a local alignment
of all of the sequences.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Subgroups are aligned into a global alignment of all of the
sequences. The objective is to improve the overall alignment score,
such as a sum of pairs score. Selection of these groups may be based on
the ordering of the sequences on a phylogenetic tree predicted in a
manner similar to that of progressive alignment, separation of one or
two of the sequences from the rest, or a random selection of the
groups.
2. Which of the following is incorrect regarding PRRP?
a) The program PRRP uses iterative methods to produce an alignment
b) An initial pair-wise alignment is made to predict a tree
c) Only one cycle is performed
d) The whole process is repeated until there is no further increase in
the alignment score
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As mentioned, an initial pair-wise alignment is made to
predict a tree, the tree is used to produce weights for making
alignments in the same manner as MSA except that the sequences are
analyzed for the presence of aligned regions that include gaps rather
than being globally aligned, and these regions are iteratively
recalculated to improve the alignment score. The best scoring
alignment is then used in a new cycle of calculations to predict a new
tree, new weights, and new alignments.
3. In the program DIALIGN, pairs of sequences are aligned to locate
aligned regions that do not include gaps, much like continuous
diagonals in a dot matrix plot.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The program DIALIGN finds an alignment by a different
iterative method. Pairs of sequences are aligned to locate aligned
regions that do not include gaps, much like continuous diagonals in a
dot matrix plot. Diagonals of various lengths are identified. A consistent
collection of weighted diagonals that provides an alignment which is a
maximum sum of weights is then found.
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4. The Genetic Algorithm method has been recently adapted for
MSA(Multiple Sequence Alignment) by Corpet (1998).
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The genetic algorithm is a general type of machine-
learning algorithm that has no direct relationship to biology and that
was invented by computer scientists. The method has been recently
adapted for MSA (Multiple Sequence Alignment) by Notredame and
Higgins (1996) in a computer program package called SAGA (Sequence
Alignment by Genetic Algorithm).
5. An approach for obtaining a higher-scoring MSA (Multiple Sequence
Alignment) by rearranging an existing alignment uses a probability
approach called simulated annealing.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The program MSASA (Multiple Sequence Alignment by
Simulated Annealing) starts with a heuristic MSA (Multiple Sequence
Alignment). Further, it changes the alignment by following an algorithm
designed to identify changes that increase the alignment score.
6. The first step in Genetic Algorithm is arranging the sequences to be
aligned in rows.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The sequences to be aligned are written in rows, as on a
page, except that they are made to overlap by a random amount of
sequence, up to 50 residues long for sequences about 200 in length.
The ends are then padded with gaps. A typical population of 100 of
these MSAs is made, although other numbers may be set.
7. The second step in the Genetic Algorithm comprises of scoring of the
100 initial MSAs by the sum of pairs method.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The 100 initial MSAs are scored by the sum of pairs
method, except that both natural and quasi-natural gap-scoring
schemes are used. Recall that the best SSP score for a MSA is the
minimum one and the one that is closest to the sum of the pair-wise
sequence alignment. Standard amino acid scoring matrices and gap
opening and extension penalties are used.
8. In Genetic Algorithm, in the mutation process _______
a) sequence is changed
b) gaps are not inserted
c) sequence is not changed
d) gaps are not rearranged
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the mutation process, the sequence is not changed (else
it would no longer be an alignment), but gaps are inserted and
rearranged in an attempt to create a better-scoring MSA. In the gap
insertion process, the sequences in a given MSA are divided into two
groups based on an estimated phylogenetic tree, and gaps of random
length are inserted into random positions in the alignment.
9. The HMM is a statistical model that considers few combinations of
matches and gaps to generate an alignment of a set of sequences.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The HMM is a statistical model that considers all possible
combinations of matches, mismatches, and gaps to generate an
alignment of a set of sequences. A localized region of similarity,
including insertions and deletions, may also be modeled by an HMM.
Analysis of sequences by an HMM is discussed on page 185 along with
other statistical methods.
10. Which of the following is not true about iterative methods?
a) Genetic Algorithm is method used for under this
b) Hidden Markov Models are used for Multiple Sequence Alignment
c) The objective is to improve the overall alignment score
d) MultAlin recalculates global scores
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: MultAlin (Corpet 1988) recalculates pair-wise scores
during the production of a progressive Alignment. In addition, it uses
these scores to recalculate the tree, which is then used to refine the
alignment in an effort to improve the score.

1. Which of the following is incorrect about the prediction of RNA

secondary structure?
a) Every base is first compared to every other base by a type of analysis
very similar to the dot matrix analysis
b) A row of matches in the RNA matrix indicates a succession of
complementary nucleotides that can potentially form a double-
stranded region
c) A row of matches in the RNA matrix indicates a failure of
complementary nucleotides that can potentially form a double-
stranded region
d) The sequence is listed across the top and down the side of the page,
and G/C, A/U, and G/U base pairs are scored
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The energy of each predicted structure is estimated by the
nearest- neighbor rule by summing the negative base-stacking energies
for each pair of bases in double-stranded regions. By adding the
estimated positive energies of destabilizing regions such as loops at the
end of hairpins, bulges within hairpins, internal bulges, and other
unpaired regions.
2. Through a single scoring matrix, evaluation of all the different
possible configurations is done.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: To evaluate all the different possible configurations and to
find the most energetically favorable, several types of scoring matrices
are used. The complementary regions are evaluated by a dynamic
programming algorithm to predict the most energetically stable
molecule. The method is similar to the dynamic programming method
used for sequence alignment.
3. The object is to find a diagonal row of matches that goes from upper
left to lower right.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The object is to find a diagonal row of matches that goes
from upper right to lower left. In general, each matrix value is obtained
by considering the minimum energy values, obtained by all previous
complementary pairs, decreased by the stacking energy of any
additional complementary base pairs or increased by the destabilizing
energy associated with non-complementary bases.
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4. The increase depends on the type and length of loop that is
introduced by the non-complementary base pair, whether internal
loop, bulge loop, or hairpin loop.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This comparison of all possible matches and energy values
is continued until all nucleotides have been compared. There is a
pattern followed in comparing bases within the RNA molecule.
5. The sequence is listed down the first column of base comparisons’
table and free energy calculations’ table in the 5’→3’ orientation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The first four bases of the sequence are also listed in the
first row of the tables in the 5’→3’ direction. Several complementary
base pairs between the first and last four bases that could lead to
secondary structure are shown in the tables.
6. A general theory for modeling strings of symbols, such as bases in
DNA sequences, has been developed by linguists. There is a hierarchy of
these so-called transformational grammars that deal with situations of
increasing complexity.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The application of these grammars to sequence analysis
has been extensively discussed elsewhere. The context-free grammar is
suitable for finding groups of symbols in different parts of the input
sequence that thus are not in the same context.
7. ______ regions in sequences, such as those in RNA that will form
secondary structures, are an example of such context-free sequences.
a) non-interlocking
b) non-Complementary
c) complementary
d) non-compatible
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Stochastic context-free grammars (SCFG) introduce
uncertainty into the definition of such regions. It allows them to use
alternative symbols as found in the evolution of RNA molecules.
8. The use of SCFGs in RNA secondary structure production analysis is in
fact very similar to that of the covariance model, with the grammatical
productions resembling the nodes in the ordered binary tree.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As with hidden Markov models, the probability
distribution of each production must be derived by training with known
sequences. The algorithms used for training the SCFG and for aligning a
sequence with the SCFG are somewhat different from those used with
hidden Markov models, and the time and memory requirements are
greater.
9. In a SCFG, each production of a non-terminal symbol has an
associated probability for giving rise to the resulting product, and there
are a set of productions, each giving a different result.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For example, the production S1 → C S2 G could also be
represented by 15 other base-pair combinations, and each of these has
a corresponding probability. Thus, each production can be considered
to be represented by a probability distribution over the possible
outcomes.
10. The application of SCFGs to RNA secondary structure analysis is very
similar in form to the probabilistic covariance models.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For RNA, the symbols of the alphabet are A, C, G, and U.
The context-free grammar establishes a set of rules called productions
for generating the sequence from the alphabet, in this case an RNA
molecule with sections that can base-pair and others that cannot base-
pair.

hydrophobicity.
7. In Needleman-Wunsch algorithm, the gaps are scored -2.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In Needleman-Wunsch algorithm, the gaps are ignored.
Amount of gap penalty is zero here. A gap corresponds to an insertion
or a deletion of a Residue.
8. The number of possible global alignments between two sequences of
length N is _____
a) 2NπN√
b) 22NπN√
c) 2(N−1)πN√
d) 22NN√
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: By the total number of permutations and combinations
option b gives the accurate number of possible global alignments
between two sequences of length N. For two sequences of 250 residues
this is 10149.
9. Which of the following is untrue about Needleman-Wunsch
algorithm?
a) It is an example of dynamic programming
b) Basic idea here is to build up the best alignment by using optimal
alignments of larger subsequences
c) It was first used by Saul Needleman and Christian Wunsch
d) It was first used in 1970
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In case of Needleman-Wunsch algorithm, the basic idea
here is to build up the best alignment by using optimal alignments of
smaller subsequences. It is based on dynamic programming, a discipline
invented by Richard Bellman in 1953.
10. There are two types matrices involved in the study- score matrices
and trace matrices.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Needleman-Wunsch algorithm consists of three steps
where these matrices play their role as follows:
i. Initialization of the score matrix
ii. Calculation of scores and filling the traceback matrix
iii. Deducing the alignment from the traceback matrix

This set of Bioinformatics Quiz focuses on “Progressive Methods of

Multiple Sequence Alignment”.
1. Progressive alignment methods use the dynamic programming
method to build an MSA starting with the most related sequences and
then progressively adding less related sequences or groups of
sequences to the initial alignment.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The progressive alignment methods use the dynamic
programming method. Relationships among the sequences are
modeled by an evolutionary tree in which the outer branches or leaves
are the sequences. The tree is based on pair-wise comparisons of the
sequences using one of the phylogenetic methods.
2. Progenitor sequences represented by the ______ branches of the
tree are derived by alignment of the _______ sequences.
a) outer, outermost
b) inner, outermost
c) inner, innermost
d) outer, innermost
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Progenitor sequences represented by the inner branches
of the tree are derived by alignment of the outermost sequences. These
inner branches will have uncertainties where positions in the outermost
sequences are dissimilar.
3. CLUSTALW is a more recent version of CLUSTAL with the W standing
for ________
a) weakening
b) winding
c) weighting
d) wiping
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The W in CLUSTALW stands for ‘weighting’ to represent
the ability of the program to provide weights to the sequence and
program parameters. CLUSTAL has been around for more than 10 years
and lots of improvements in the program have been made.
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4. The CLUSTALX provides a graphic interface.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Two examples of programs that use progressive methods
are CLUSTALW and the Genetics Computer Group program PILEUP.
CLUSTALX provides a graphic interface.
These changes provide more realistic alignments that should reflect the
evolutionary changes in the aligned sequences and the more
appropriate distribution of gaps between conserved domains.
5. Which of the following is untrue about CLUSTAL program?
a) CLUSTAL performs a global-multiple sequence alignment by a
different method than MSA (Multiple Sequence Alignment)
b) The initial heuristic alignment obtained by MSA is calculated in a
different way
c) The initial step includes performing pair-wise alignments of all of the
sequences
d) The intermediate step includes use the alignment scores to produce
a phylogenetic tree
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The initial heuristic alignment obtained by MSA is
calculated the same way, although it performs a global-multiple
sequence alignment by a different method than MSA (Multiple
Sequence Alignment). As the mentioned options are first two steps, the
last is aligning the sequences sequentially, guided by the phylogenetic
relationships indicated by the tree.
6. The initial alignments used to produce the guide tree may be
obtained by various methods. Which of the following is not one of
them?
a) Fast k-tuple
b) pattern-finding approach similar
c) FASTA
d) Faster, full dynamic programming method
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The methods used, might be fast k-tuple or pattern-finding
approach similar to FASTA that is useful for many sequences and the
full dynamic programming method as well. But the option d becomes
incorrect as full dynamic programming method is slower as compared
to rest of the methods in options.
7. The scoring of gaps in a MSA (Multiple Sequence Alignment) has to
be performed in a different manner from scoring gaps in a pair-wise
alignment.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As more sequences are added to a profile of an existing
MSA, gaps accumulate and influence the alignment of further
sequences. CLUSTALW calculates gaps in a novel way designed to place
them between conserved domains.
8. Like other alignment programs, CLUSTAL uses a null score for
opening a gap in a sequence alignment and a penalty for extending the
gap by one residue.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: CLUSTAL uses a penalty for opening a gap in a sequence
alignment and an additional penalty for extending the gap by one
residue. These penalties are user-defined. Gaps found in the initial
alignments remain fixed. New gaps introduced as more sequences are
added also receive this same gap penalty, even when they occur within
an existing gap, but the gap penalties for alignment are then modified
according to the average match value in the substitution matrix, the
percent identity between the sequences, and the sequence lengths.
9. Which of the following is untrue about PILEUP program?
a) It is the MSA program that is a part of the Genetics Computer Group
package of sequence analysis programs
b) It is owned since 1997 by Oxford Communications and is widely used
due to the popularity and availability of this package
c) It uses a method for MSA that is polar opposite to CLUSTALW
d) The sequences are aligned pair-wise using the Needleman- Wunsch
dynamic programming algorithm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: PILEUP uses a method for MSA that is very similar to
CLUSTALW. The sequences are aligned pair-wise using the Needleman-
Wunsch dynamic programming algorithm, and the scores are used to
produce a tree by the unweighted pair-group method using arithmetic
averages. The resulting tree is then used to guide the alignment of the
most closely related sequences and groups of sequences. The resulting
alignment is a global alignment produced by the Needleman-Wunsch
algorithm.
10. The resulting tree is then used to guide the alignment of the most
closely related sequences and groups of sequences. The resulting
alignment is a global alignment produced by the Needleman-Wunsch
algorithm.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The very first sequences to be aligned are the most closely
related on the sequence tree. If these sequences align very well, there
will be few errors in the initial alignments. However, the more distantly
related these sequences, the more errors will be made, and these
errors will be propagated to the MSA. There is no simple way to
circumvent this problem. A second problem with the progressive
alignment method is the choice of suitable scoring matrices and gap
penalties that apply to the set of sequences.

This set of Bioinformatics online test focuses on “Database Searching

with the Smith – Waterman Method”.

1. The rigorous dynamic programming method is normally not used for

database searching because it is slow and computationally expensive.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Heuristics such as BLAST and FASTA are developed for
faster speed. However, the heuristic methods are limited in sensitivity
and are not guaranteed to find the optimal alignment. They often fail to
find alignment for distantly related sequences.
2. FASTA and BLAST are __________ but __________ for larger
datasets.
a) faster, more sensitive
b) faster, less sensitive
c) slower, less sensitive
d) slower, more sensitive
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Empirical tests have indeed shown that the exhaustive
method produces superior results over the heuristic methods like
BLAST and FASTA. But heuristic methods are better and practical when
it comes to assess larger datasets with comparatively low sensitivity.
3. Scan PS is a web-based program that implements a modified version
of the Needleman-Wunsch algorithm.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: ScanPS (Scan Protein Sequence) is a web-based program
that implements a modified version of the Smith–Waterman algorithm
optimized for parallel processing. The major feature is that the program
allows iterative searching similar to PSI-BLAST, which builds profiles
from one round of search results and uses them for the second round
of database searching. Full dynamic programming is used in each cycle
for added sensitivity.
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4. Par Align is a web-based server that uses parallel processors to
perform exhaustive sequence comparisons using either a parallelized
version of the Smith–Waterman algorithm or a heuristic program for
further speed gains.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The heuristic subprogram first finds exact ungapped
alignments and uses them as anchors for extension into gapped
alignments by combining the scores of several diagonals in the
alignment matrix. The search speed of ParAlign approaches to that of
BLAST, but with higher sensitivity.
5. In Smith–Waterman algorithm, in initialization Step, the _________
row and ________ column are subject to gap penalty.
a) first, first
b) first, second
c) second, First
d) first, last
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Smith–Waterman algorithm, first row and first column
are set to 0. In the Needleman Wunsch algorithm, First row and first
column are subject to gap penalty.
6. Local sequence alignments are necessary for many cases out of
which one is repeated.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It can also be used for modular organization of genes and
proteins (exons, domains, etc.) Also it can be used in cases of
sequences diverged so that similarity was retained, or can be detected,
just in some sub-regions.
7. In SW algorithm, to align two sequences of lengths of m and n
_________ time is required.
a) O(mn)
b) O(m2n)
c) O(m2n3)
d) O(mn2)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Smith–Waterman algorithm is quite demanding of
time. Hence if two sequences of lengths of m and n have to be aligned,
the required time is O(m2n). It requires O(mn) calculation steps.
8. One of the challenges in SWA is obtaining correct alignments in
regions of low similarity between distantly related biological sequences.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is because mutations have added too much ‘noise’ over
evolutionary time to allow for a meaningful comparison of those
regions. Local alignment avoids such regions altogether and focuses on
those with a positive score, i.e. those with an evolutionarily conserved
signal of similarity.
9. Score can be negative in Smith–Waterman algorithm.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Negative score is set to 0. In Needleman–Wunsch
algorithm, the Score can be negative. Also, in Smith–Waterman
algorithm, in tracing back step, it begins with the highest score, ends
when 0 is encountered.
10. The function of the scoring matrix is to conduct one-to-one
comparisons between all components in two sequences and record the
optimal alignment results.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The scoring process reflects the concept of dynamic
programming. The final optimal alignment is found by iteratively
expanding the growing optimal alignment.
This set of Bioinformatics Quiz focuses on “Progressive Methods of
Multiple Sequence Alignment”.

1. Progressive alignment methods use the dynamic programming

method to build an MSA starting with the most related sequences and
then progressively adding less related sequences or groups of
sequences to the initial alignment.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The progressive alignment methods use the dynamic
programming method. Relationships among the sequences are
modeled by an evolutionary tree in which the outer branches or leaves
are the sequences. The tree is based on pair-wise comparisons of the
sequences using one of the phylogenetic methods.
2. Progenitor sequences represented by the ______ branches of the
tree are derived by alignment of the _______ sequences.
a) outer, outermost
b) inner, outermost
c) inner, innermost
d) outer, innermost
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Progenitor sequences represented by the inner branches
of the tree are derived by alignment of the outermost sequences. These
inner branches will have uncertainties where positions in the outermost
sequences are dissimilar.
3. CLUSTALW is a more recent version of CLUSTAL with the W standing
for ________
a) weakening
b) winding
c) weighting
d) wiping
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The W in CLUSTALW stands for ‘weighting’ to represent
the ability of the program to provide weights to the sequence and
program parameters. CLUSTAL has been around for more than 10 years
and lots of improvements in the program have been made.
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4. The CLUSTALX provides a graphic interface.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Two examples of programs that use progressive methods
are CLUSTALW and the Genetics Computer Group program PILEUP.
CLUSTALX provides a graphic interface.
These changes provide more realistic alignments that should reflect the
evolutionary changes in the aligned sequences and the more
appropriate distribution of gaps between conserved domains.
5. Which of the following is untrue about CLUSTAL program?
a) CLUSTAL performs a global-multiple sequence alignment by a
different method than MSA (Multiple Sequence Alignment)
b) The initial heuristic alignment obtained by MSA is calculated in a
different way
c) The initial step includes performing pair-wise alignments of all of the
sequences
d) The intermediate step includes use the alignment scores to produce
a phylogenetic tree
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The initial heuristic alignment obtained by MSA is
calculated the same way, although it performs a global-multiple
sequence alignment by a different method than MSA (Multiple
Sequence Alignment). As the mentioned options are first two steps, the
last is aligning the sequences sequentially, guided by the phylogenetic
relationships indicated by the tree.
6. The initial alignments used to produce the guide tree may be
obtained by various methods. Which of the following is not one of
them?
a) Fast k-tuple
b) pattern-finding approach similar
c) FASTA
d) Faster, full dynamic programming method
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The methods used, might be fast k-tuple or pattern-finding
approach similar to FASTA that is useful for many sequences and the
full dynamic programming method as well. But the option d becomes
incorrect as full dynamic programming method is slower as compared
to rest of the methods in options.
7. The scoring of gaps in a MSA (Multiple Sequence Alignment) has to
be performed in a different manner from scoring gaps in a pair-wise
alignment.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As more sequences are added to a profile of an existing
MSA, gaps accumulate and influence the alignment of further
sequences. CLUSTALW calculates gaps in a novel way designed to place
them between conserved domains.
8. Like other alignment programs, CLUSTAL uses a null score for
opening a gap in a sequence alignment and a penalty for extending the
gap by one residue.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: CLUSTAL uses a penalty for opening a gap in a sequence
alignment and an additional penalty for extending the gap by one
residue. These penalties are user-defined. Gaps found in the initial
alignments remain fixed. New gaps introduced as more sequences are
added also receive this same gap penalty, even when they occur within
an existing gap, but the gap penalties for alignment are then modified
according to the average match value in the substitution matrix, the
percent identity between the sequences, and the sequence lengths.
9. Which of the following is untrue about PILEUP program?
a) It is the MSA program that is a part of the Genetics Computer Group
package of sequence analysis programs
b) It is owned since 1997 by Oxford Communications and is widely used
due to the popularity and availability of this package
c) It uses a method for MSA that is polar opposite to CLUSTALW
d) The sequences are aligned pair-wise using the Needleman- Wunsch
dynamic programming algorithm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: PILEUP uses a method for MSA that is very similar to
CLUSTALW. The sequences are aligned pair-wise using the Needleman-
Wunsch dynamic programming algorithm, and the scores are used to
produce a tree by the unweighted pair-group method using arithmetic
averages. The resulting tree is then used to guide the alignment of the
most closely related sequences and groups of sequences. The resulting
alignment is a global alignment produced by the Needleman-Wunsch
algorithm.
10. The resulting tree is then used to guide the alignment of the most
closely related sequences and groups of sequences. The resulting
alignment is a global alignment produced by the Needleman-Wunsch
algorithm.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The very first sequences to be aligned are the most closely
related on the sequence tree. If these sequences align very well, there
will be few errors in the initial alignments. However, the more distantly
related these sequences, the more errors will be made, and these
errors will be propagated to the MSA. There is no simple way to
circumvent this problem. A second problem with the progressive
alignment method is the choice of suitable scoring matrices and gap
penalties that apply to the set of sequences.
This set of Bioinformatics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Statistical Significance of Sequence Alignment”.

1. The truly statistically significant sequence alignment will be able to

provide evidence of homology between the sequences involved.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When given a sequence alignment showing a certain
degree of similarity, it is often important to determine whether the
observed sequence alignment can occur by random chance or the
alignment is indeed statistically sound. When a statistically significant
sequence alignment is under consideration, it will be able to provide
evidence of homology between the sequences involved.
2. By calculating alignment scores of a large number of ______
sequence pairs, a distribution model of the ______ sequence scores can
be derived.
a) related, randomized
b) unrelated, randomized
c) unrelated, unrandomized
d) related, unrandomized
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Solving the statistical significance problem requires a
statistical test of the alignment scores of two unrelated sequences of
the same length. From the distribution, a statistical test can be
performed based on the number of standard deviations from the
average score.
3. Many studies have demonstrated that the distribution of similarity
scores assumes a peculiar shape that resembles a highly skewed normal
distribution with a long tail on one side. The distribution matches the
_______
a) Gumble elective value distribution
b) Gumble extreme void distribution
c) Gumble end value distribution
d) Gumble extreme value distribution
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The mentioned Distribution pattern matches the Gumble
extreme value distribution for which a mathematical expression is
available. This means that, given a sequence similarity value, by using
the mathematical formula for the extreme distribution, the statistical
significance can be accurately estimated.
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4. Which of the following is a part of the statistical test of sequences?
a) An optimal alignment between two chosen sequences is obtained at
the end
b) Unrelated sequences of the same length are then generated through
a randomization process
c) Unrelated sequences of the different length are then generated
through a randomization process
d) Related sequences of the same length are then generated through a
randomization process
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Unrelated sequences of the same length are then
generated through a randomization process in which one of the two
sequences is randomly shuffled. And the next step is that a new
alignment score is computed for the shuffled sequence pair.
5. In the statistical test, randomization process in which one of the two
given sequences is randomly shuffled.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: After the mentioned step, computation for the alignment
score for the shuffled sequence pair is done. Further, More such scores
are similarly obtained through repeated shuffling.
6. What is used to generate parameters for the extreme distribution?
a) The pool of alignment scores from the shuffled sequences
b) A single score of a shuffled sequence
c) The pool of alignment scores from the unshuffled sequences
d) The basic optimal score computed at the beginning of the test
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Maximum scores are obtained through repeated shuffling.
Then the pool of alignment scores from the shuffled sequences is used
to generate parameters for the extreme distribution. The original
alignment score is then compared against the distribution of random
alignments to determine whether the score is beyond random chance.
7. If the score is located in the extreme margin of the distribution, that
means that the alignment between the two sequences is ______ due to
random chance and is thus considered ______
a) unlikely, significant
b) unlikely, insignificant
c) unlikely, insignificant
d) very likely, significant
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The extreme margin of the distribution denotes the
likeliness and thus significance. A P-value is given to indicate the
probability that the original alignment is due to random chance.
8. It is not known whether the Gumble distribution applies equally well
to gapped alignments.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statistics in the test were derived from ungapped local
sequence alignments. Hence, it is not known whether the Gumble
distribution applies equally well to gapped alignments. However, for all
practical purposes, it is reasonable to assume that scores for gapped
alignments essentially fit the same distribution. A frequently used
software program for assessing statistical significance of a pairwise
alignment is the PRSS program.
9. Which of the following is untrue about the PRSS program?
a) It stands for Probability of Random Shuffles
b) It is a web-based program that can be used to evaluate the statistical
significance of DNA or protein sequence alignment
c) It first aligns two sequences using the Needleman-Wunsch algorithm
and calculates the score
d) It holds one sequence in its original form and randomizes the order
of residues in the other sequence.
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It first aligns two sequences using the Smith–Waterman
algorithm and calculates the score. The shuffled sequence is realigned
with the unshuffled sequence. The resulting alignment score is
recorded. This process is iterated many (normally 1,000) times to help
generate data for fitting the Gumble distribution.
10. The major disadvantage of the PRSS program is that it doesn’t allow
partial shuffling.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The major feature of the program is that it allows partial
shuffling. For example, shuffling can be restricted to residues within a
local window of 25–40, whereas the residues outside the window
remain unchanged.

This set of Bioinformatics test focuses on “Sequence Homology Versus

Sequence Similarity and Identity”.

1. Which of the following is incorrect regarding pair wise sequence

alignment?
a) The most fundamental process in this type of comparison is
sequence alignment
b) It is an important first step toward structural and functional analysis
of newly determined sequences
c) This is the process by which sequences are compared by searching
for common character patterns and establishing residue-residue
correspondence among related sequences
d) It is the process of aligning multiple sequences
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Pair wise sequence alignment is the process of aligning
two sequences and is the basis of database similarity searching and
multiple sequence alignment. As new biological sequences are being
generated at exponential rates, sequence comparison is becoming
increasingly important to draw functional and evolutionary inference of
a new protein with proteins already existing in the database.
2. Which of the following is incorrect about evolution?
a) The macromolecules can be considered molecular fossils that encode
the history of millions of years of evolution
b) The building blocks of these biological macromolecules, nucleotide
bases, and amino acids form linear sequences that determine the
primary structure of the molecules
c) DNA and proteins are products of evolution
d) The molecular sequences barely undergo changes
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: During this time period, the molecular sequences undergo
random changes, some of which are selected during the process of
evolution. As the selected sequences gradually accumulate mutations
and diverge over time, traces of evolution may still remain in certain
portions of the sequences to allow identification of the common
ancestry.
3. The presence of evolutionary traces is because some of the residues
that perform key functional and structural roles tend to be preserved
by natural selection; other residues that may be less crucial for
structure and function tend to mutate more frequently.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The residues that perform key functional and structural
roles tend to be preserved by natural selection. For example, active site
residues of an enzyme family tend to be conserved because they are
responsible for catalytic functions. Therefore, by comparing sequences
through alignment, patterns of conservation and variation can be
identified.
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4. The degree of sequence variation in the alignment reveals
evolutionary relatedness of different sequences, whereas the
conservation between sequences reflects the changes that have
occurred during evolution in the form of substitutions, insertions, and
deletions.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The degree of sequence conservation in the alignment
reveals evolutionary relatedness of different sequences, whereas the
variation between sequences reflects the changes that have occurred
during evolution in the form of substitutions, insertions, and deletions.
Identifying the evolutionary relationships between sequences helps to
characterize the function of unknown sequences. When a sequence
alignment reveals significant similarity among a group of sequences,
they can be considered as belonging to the same family.
5. If the two sequences share significant similarity, it is extremely
______ that the extensive similarity between the two sequences has
been acquired randomly, meaning that the two sequences must have
derived from a common evolutionary origin.
a) unlikely
b) possible
c) likely
d) relevant
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sequence alignment provides inference for the
relatedness of two sequences under study. Regions that are aligned but
not identical represent residue substitutions; regions which residues
from one sequence correspond to nothing in the other represent
insertions or deletions that have taken place on one of the sequences
during evolution.
6. Sometimes, it is also possible that two sequences have derived from
a common ancestor, but may have diverged to such an extent that the
common ancestral relationships are not recognizable at the sequence
level.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are examples of such paralogous genes that have
distinct functions but similar origin. In that case, the distant
evolutionary relationships have to be detected using other methods.
7. Which of the following is incorrect regarding sequence homology?
a) Two sequences can homologous relationship even if have do not
have common origin
b) It is an important concept in sequence analysis
c) When two sequences are descended from a common evolutionary
origin, they are said to have a homologous relationship
d) When two sequences are descended from a common evolutionary
origin, they are said to share homology
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Homologous relationships are more certain when the
sequences have common evolutionary origin. A related but different
term is sequence similarity, which is the percentage of aligned residues
that are similar in physiochemical properties such as size, charge, and
hydrophobicity.
8. Sequence similarity can be quantified using ________ homology is a
______ statement.
a) percentages, quantitative
b) percentages, qualitative
c) ratios, qualitative
d) ratios, quantitative
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Similarity is a direct result of observation from the
sequence Alignment. For example, one may say that two sequences
share 40% similarity. It is incorrect to say that the two sequences share
40% homology. They are either homologous or nonhomologous.
9. Shorter sequences require higher cutoffs for inferring homologous
relationships than longer sequences.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For determining a homology relationship of two protein
sequences, for example, if both sequences are aligned at full length,
which is 100 residues long, an identity of 30% or higher can be safely
regarded as having close homology. If their identity level falls between
20% and 30%, determination of homologous relationships in this range
becomes less certain.
10. Sequence similarity and sequence identity are synonymous for
nucleotide sequences and protein sequences as well.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sequence similarity and sequence identity are
synonymous for nucleotide sequences. For protein sequences,
however, the two concepts are very different. In a protein sequence
alignment, sequence identity refers to the percentage of matches of
the same amino acid residues between two aligned sequences.
Similarity refers to the percentage of aligned residues that have similar
physicochemical characteristics and can be more readily substituted for
each other.

Predictive application using DNA and protein sequences

1. The force that initiates evolution is ______

a. Variation
b. Mutation
c. Extinction
d. Adaptation
2. ___________ is a vestigial organ
a. Intestinal villi
b. Papillae
c. Vermiform appendix
d. None of the above
3. The earliest geological time period among the following is
_______
a. Cambrian
b. Permian
c. Jurassic
d. Quaternary
4. The experiment that simulated conditions thought to be present
on the early earth
a. Hershey–Chase experiment
b. Geiger–Marsden experiment
c. Miller–Urey experiment
d. Schiehallion experiment
5. Example of a homologous organ
a. The arm of a human, wing of a bird
b. Wing of an insect, wing of a bird
 c. Leg of a dog, leg of a spider
d. None of the above
6. Primordial soup is a set of hypothetical conditions on ancient
earth first proposed by______
a. Dmitri Ivanovsky
b. Alexander Oparin
c. Dmitry Anuchin
d. Nikolay Shatsky
7. Which condition can be explained by Lamarckism?
a. How giraffes got their long neck
b. How humans lost their tail
c. How humans became bipedal
d. All of the above
8. Observation of species on ___________ heavily inspired Darwin’s
theory of evolution.
a. Ilha da Queimada Grande
b. Guatemala
c. Faroe Islands
d. Galapagos Islands
9. _____________ was considered as a missing link between reptiles
and birds.
a. Archaeopteryx
b. Pteranodon
c. Avimimus
d. Caudipteryx
10. The oldest mineral discovered so far was __________, which
dates back to 4.4 billion years.
a. Iron
b. Zircon
c. Cadmium
d. Silicon
11. Pidgeon, platypus and panda are _______
a. Homeothermic
 b. Poikilothermic
c. Hyperthermic
d. None of the above
12. The last common ancestor of humans is
a. Pan troglodytes
b. Homo neanderthalensis
c. Lemuroidea
d. Dromaeosaurus
13. An example of convergent evolution is
a. Wing of Hawkmoths, the wing of hawks
b. Teeth of domestic dog, teeth of a wolf
c. Wings of Geospiza magnirostris, wings of Geospiza fortis
d. None of the above
14. On the Origin of Species was written by ______
a. Charles Darwin
b. Ludmila Kuprianova
c. Mikhail A. Fedonkin
d. None of the above
15. When did dinosaurs die off?
a. 105.1 million years ago
b. 65.5 million years ago
c. 75.5 million years ago.
d. None of the above

Answer Key

1 a

2 c

3 a

4 c
 5 a

6 b

7 d

8 d

9 a

10 b

11 a

12 a

13 a

14 a

15 b

uestion 1
The term "phylogeny" derives from the German Phylogenie, introduced
by Haeckel in?
A. 1853
B. 1859
C. 1863
D. 1866
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: The term "phylogeny" derives from the German Phylogenie,
introduced by Haeckel in 1866, and the Darwinian approach to
classification became known as the "phyletic" approach

Question 2
A phylogenetic diagram can be rooted or unrooted.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. Can be true or false
D. Can not say
View Answer
Ans : A

Explanation: True, A phylogenetic diagram can be rooted or unrooted.

Question 3
A __________ indicates the hypothetical common ancestor, or ancestral
lineage, of the tree.
A. unrooted tree diagram
B. rooted tree diagram
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: A rooted tree diagram indicates the hypothetical common
ancestor, or ancestral lineage, of the tree.

Question 4
A phylogenetic tree also known as?
A. phylogeny
B. evolutionary tree
C. Both A and B
D. inferred tree
View Answer
Ans : C

Explanation: A phylogenetic tree also known as phylogeny or

evolutionary tree

Question 5
Which of the following is incorrect regarding the advantages of
Molecular data for phylogenetics study?
A. They are more numerous than fossil records
B. They are easier to obtain as compared to fossil records
C. Sampling bias is involved
D. More clear-cut and robust phylogenetic trees can be constructed with
the molecular data
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: There is no sampling bias involved, which helps to mend the
gaps in real fossil records. Therefore, they have become favorite and
sometimes the only information available for researchers to reconstruct
evolutionary history. The advent of the genomic era with tremendous
amounts of molecular sequence data has led to the rapid development
of molecular phylogenetics.

Question 6
Which of the following is incorrect regarding the terminologies of
phylogenetics?
A. The connecting point where two adjacent branches join is called a
node
B. At the tips of the branches are long lost species or sequences
C. Node represents an inferred ancestor of extant taxa
D. The lines in the tree are called branches
View Answer
Ans : B

Explanation: At the tips of the branches are present-day species or

sequences known as taxa (the singular form is taxon) or operational
taxonomic units. The bifurcating point at the very bottom of the tree is
the root node, which represents the common ancestor of all members of
the tree.

Question 7
Evolution of a particular sequence _______ correlate with the
evolutionary path of the species.
A. does not
B. invariably
C. always
D. does not necessarily
View Answer
Ans : D

Explanation: The sequence may evolve more or less rapidly than other
genes in the genome or may have a different evolutionary history from
the rest of the genome owing to horizontal gene transfer events. Thus,
the evolution of a particular sequence does not necessarily correlate
with the evolutionary path of the species

Question 8
An unrooted tree diagram (a network) makes no assumption about the
ancestral line, and does not show the origin or "root" of the taxa in
question or the direction of inferred evolutionary transformations.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. Can be true or false
D. Can not say
View Answer
Ans : A

Explanation: True, An unrooted tree diagram (a network) makes no

assumption about the ancestral line, and does not show the origin or
"root" of the taxa in question or the direction of inferred evolutionary
transformations.
Question 9
The species evolution is the ______ of evolution by _____ in a genome.
A. result, sole genes
B. result, single genes
C. combined result, multiple genes
D. distinct results, single gene
View Answer
Ans : C

Explanation: In a species tree, the branching point at an internal node

represents the speciation event whereas, in a gene tree, the internal
node indicates a gene duplication event. The two events may or may not
coincide

Question 10
A rooted phylogenetic tree is a _____________ with a unique node
A. undirected tree
B. directed tree
C. binary tree
D. red black tree
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: A rooted phylogenetic tree is a directed tree with a unique
node — the root — corresponding to the (usually imputed) most recent
common ancestor of all the entities at the leaves of the tree.

1. This phenomena can be induced in those responsible for the

horizontal elements of this phylogeny
(a) mitosis
(b) point mutations
(c) S phase of the cell cycle
(d) endosymbiosis
Answer: (d)
2. If cladistics were used to build a phylogenetic tree of cats, this would
be the most appropriate outgroup
(a) tiger
(b) leopard
(c) wolf
(d) domestic cat
Answer: (c)
3. To construct a phylogenetic tree in order to apply parsimony, choose
(a) tree with fewest branch points
(b) tree representing fewest evolutionary changes either in morphology
or DNA sequences
(c) tree in which branch points are based on as many shared characters
possible
(d) tree assuming all evolutionary changes with equal probability
Answer: (b)
4. This is used to know the phylogeny
(a) mRNA
(b) rRNA
(c) DNA
(d) none of these
Answer: (b)
5. On the basis of cladistics, this eukaryotic kingdom is polyphyletic and
hence unacceptable
(a) Monera
(b) Protista
(c) Animalia
(d) Fungi
Answer: (b)
6. Possessing four appendages when comparing mammals with birds is
(a) a character used to sort bird species
(b) example of analogy rather than homology
(c) a shared derived character
(d) a shared ancestral character
Answer: (d)
7. Pick the incorrect statement concerning the terminologies of
phylogenetics
(a) branches are the lines in the tree
(b) tips of the branches have long lost sequences or species
(c) node indicate inferred ancestor of extant taxa
(d) connecting point joining two adjacent branches is a node
Answer: (b)
8. This is not a vestigial organ in man
(a) coccyx
(b) nails
(c) third molar
(d) homologous
Answer: (b)
9. Pick the incorrect option for the blank
Recent uses of phylogenetic analysis is to analyse ________ in addition
to tracing the evolutionary history of specific genes
(a) physical separation methods
(b) proteomes
(c) genomes
(d) gene families
Answer: (a)
10. This is incorrect about the merits of molecular data for
Phylogenetics study
(a) sampling bias is involved
(b) with the help of molecular data more robust and clear-cut
phylogenetic tree can be constructed
(c) much easier to obtain in comparison to fossil records
(d) more in number compared to fossil records
This set of Bioinformatics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Maximum Parsimony Method”.

1. Which of the following is untrue regarding the maximum parsimony

method?
a) This method predicts the evolutionary tree
b) It minimizes the number of steps required to generate the observed
variation in the sequences
c) The method is also sometimes referred to as the minimum evolution
method
d) Only a pairwise sequence alignment is required to predict which
sequence positions are likely to correspond
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A multiple sequence alignment is required to predict
which sequence positions are likely to correspond. These positions will
appear in vertical columns in the multiple sequence alignment. For each
aligned position, phylogenetic trees that require the smallest number of
evolutionary changes to produce the observed sequence changes are
identified.
2. Which of the following is untrue regarding the maximum parsimony
method?
a) The analysis steps are continued for every position in the sequence
alignment
b) This method is used for large numbers of sequences
c) Those trees that produce the smallest number of changes overall for
all sequence positions are identified
d) This method is used for sequences that are quite similar
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The algorithm followed is not particularly complicated, but
it is guaranteed to find the best tree, because all possible trees relating
a group of sequences are examined. For this reason, the method is
quite time-consuming and is not useful for data that include a large
number of sequences or sequences with a large amount of variation.
3. Which of the following is untrue regarding the programs for analysis
of nucleic acid sequences?
a) DNAPARS treats gaps as a fifth nucleotide state
b) DNAPENNY performs parsimonious phylogenies by branch-and-
bound search
c) DNAPENNY can analyze sequences up to 11 or 12
d) Compatibility criterion is not involved in DNACOMP
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: DNACOMP performs phylogenetic analysis using the
compatibility criterion.
Rather than searching for overall parsimony at all sites in the multiple
sequence alignment, this method finds the tree that supports the
largest number of sites. This method is recommended when the rate of
evolution varies among sites.
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4. PROTPARS counts the minimum number of mutations to change a
codon for the first amino acid into a codon for the second amino acid,
but only scores those mutations in the mutational path that actually
change the amino acid.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: PROTPARS is used For analysis of protein sequences. As
mentioned, Silent mutations that do not change the amino acid are not
scored on the grounds that they have little evolutionary significance.
5. Parsimony can give ________ information when rates of sequence
change _______ in the different branches of a tree that are represented
by the sequence data.
a) misleading, vary
b) useful, change
c) misleading, are constant
d) sometimes contradicting, are constant
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: These variations produce a range of branch lengths, long
ones representing more extended periods of time and short ones
representing shorter times. Although other columns in the sequence
alignment that show less variation may provide the correct tree, the
columns representing greater variation dominate the analysis.
6. Which of the following is untrue regarding the distance methods?
a) The sequence pairs that have the largest number of sequence
changes between them are termed ‘neighbors’
b) On a tree, these sequences share a node or common ancestor
position and are each joined to that node by a branch
c) It produces a phylogenetic tree of the group
d) It employs the number of changes between each pair in a group of
sequences
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The goal of distance methods is to identify a tree that
positions the neighbors correctly and that also has branch lengths
which reproduce the original data as closely as possible. Finding the
closest neighbors among a group of sequences by the distance method
is often the first step in producing a multiple sequence alignment.
7. Which of the following is untrue regarding the distance methods?
a) The distance method was pioneered by Feng and Doolittle
b) A collection of programs by authors Feng and Doolittle will produce
both an alignment and tree of a set of protein sequences
c) The program CLUSTALW uses the neighbor-joining distance method
as a guide to multiple sequence alignments
d) Among the Programs of the PHYLIP package, DNADIST is not one of
them
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: DNADIST and PROTDIST are the Programs of the PHYLIP
package that perform a distance analysis. They automatically read in a
sequence in the PHYLIP in file format and automatically produce a file
called outfile with a distance table.
8. Which of the following is untrue regarding the Distance analysis
programs in PHYLIP?
a) FITCH estimates a phylogenetic tree assuming additivity of branch
lengths
b) FITCH uses the Fitch-Margoliash method
c) FITCH assumes a molecular clock but KITSCH does not
d) NEIGHBOR estimates phylogenies using the neighbor-joining or
unweighted pair group method with arithmetic mean (UPGMA)
View Answer
9. Which of the following is untrue regarding the neighbor-joining
method?
a) It is very much like the Fitch-Margoliash method
b) It is totally dissimilar than the Fitch-Margoliash method
c) It is especially suitable when the rate of evolution of the separate
lineages under consideration varies
d) When the branch lengths of trees of known topology are allowed to
vary in a manner that simulates varying levels of evolutionary change, it
is the most reliable method
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The neighbor-joining method is very much like the Fitch-
Margoliash method except that the choice as to which sequences to
pair is determined by a different algorithm. In the situation mentioned
in option d, the neighbor-joining method and the Sattath and Taversky
method, are the most reliable in predicting the correct tree.
10. Neighbor-joining chooses the sequences that should be joined to
give the best least squares estimates of the branch lengths that most
closely reflect the actual distances between the sequences.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is not necessary to compare all possible trees to find the
least squares fit as in the Fitch-Margoliash method. The method pairs
sequences based on the effect of the pairing on the sum of the branch
lengths of the tree.

This set of Bioinformatics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)

focuses on “Protein – Protein Interactions”.

1. The physical contacts between domains are crucial for the

functioning of the cellular machinery.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Interactions between domains occur in multidomain
proteins, in stable complexes and in transient interactions between
proteins that also exist independently. Experimental approaches for the
large-scale determination of protein interactions are emerging.
Theoretical analyses based on protein structures have unraveled some
of the overall principles and features of the way domains evolved to
interact with each other.
2. There exist three types of interactions between domains. Which of
the following is not one of them?
a) Stable complex
b) Transient interaction
c) Multi-domain protein
d) Unstable interaction
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Interactions between domains determine the structure of
multidomain proteins, in which there are several domains on one
polypeptide chain. Given that all proteins consist of domains,
interactions between domains also occur between the proteins that are
permanently associated in stable complexes and proteins that interact
transiently, but also exist independently of each other.
3. Stable complexes consist of proteins that are _____ associated with
each other, like many ____ proteins for instance.
a) temporarily, oligomeric
b) temporarily, monomeric
c) permanently, oligomeric
d) permanently, monomeric
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Well-known stable complexes include the histone
octamer, the ribosome and DNA and RNA polymerases. Transient
interactions on the other hand are all those protein-protein interactions
that occur between proteins that also exist independently.
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4. Sets of proteins that are part of stable complexes and sets of
proteins involved in transient interactions ____ in terms of the
similarity in gene expression among the set of proteins.
a) are similar
b) differ
c) are same
d) show similar function
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Proteins permanently associated in a stable complex need
to be present or absent in the cell at the same time. Analysis of
microarray data by Gerstein and co-workers by methods along the
lines, has shown that the members of stable complexes in the yeast
Saccharomyces cerevisiae have highly correlated gene expression
patterns.
5. Correlation of gene expression for pairs of transiently interacting
proteins is ______ compared to randomly chosen pairs of proteins.
a) not significant
b) only marginally significant
c) totally significant
d) significant to much extent
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In prokaryotes, genes are co-regulated if they are a
member of the same operon, and many proteins that are members of
the same stable complex are part of the same operon. For instance,
Ouzounis and Karp determined that over 90% of the enzymes that are
in stable complexes in E. coli metabolic pathways are adjacent on the E.
coli chromosome.
6. Membership in a stable complex also differs from transient
interaction in terms of evolutionary constraints upon sequence
divergence.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Thus the proteins in stable complexes are more similar
across species, having higher sequence identity between orthologs,
than the proteins in transient interactions. A calculation by Teichmann
showed that there are significant differences between the average
values for sequence identities between S. cerevisiae and S. pombe
orthologs in stable complexes, transient interactions and monomers.
7. For proteins in stable complexes the average sequence identity is
46%, while for proteins in transient interactions it is 41%.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: (Proteins not known to be involved in any type of
interaction have an average sequence identity of 38 %) One of the main
reasons for this is the surface area involved in interfaces of stable
complexes which is larger than in transient complexes. Sequence
divergence may be slower in order to conserve these extensive
interfaces.
8. Which of the following is incorrect about Yeast-two-hybrid screens?
a) The yeast-two-hybrid system uses the transcription of a reporter
gene driven by the Gal4 transcription factor to monitor whether or not
two proteins are interacting
b) The DNA-binding domain chimeric protein will not bind upstream of
the reporter gene
c) If the activation domain chimeric protein interacts with the DNA-
binding domain chimeric protein, the reporter gene will be transcribed
d) Disadvantages of the method are that only pairwise interactions are
tested, and not interactions that can only take place when multiple
proteins come together, as well as a high false positive rate
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the interaction between two proteins, A and B, is being
tested, one of their genes would be fused to the DNA-binding domain
of the Gal4 transcription factor (Gal4-DBD) while the other would be
fused to the activation domain (Gal4-AD). The DNA-binding domain
chimeric protein will bind upstream of the reporter gene. This
experiment can be carried out hundreds or even thousands of times on
microassay plates, as in the case of the study by Uetz and colleagues on
S.cerevisiae (yeast) interactions. Each array element on these plates
contains yeast cells transformed with a particular combination of two
plasmids, one carrying the DNA-binding domain chimeric protein and
the other the activation domain chimeric protein.
9. Which of the following is incorrect about Purification of protein
complexes followed by mass spectrometry?
a) Isolating protein complexes from cells allows identification of
interactions between ensembles of proteins instead of just pairs
b) Systematic purification of complexes on a large scale is done by
tagging hundreds of genes with an epitope
c) UnLike in the yeast-two-hybrid assay, this does not involve chimeric
genes
d) Affinity purification based on the epitope will then extract all the
proteins attached to the bait protein from cell lysates
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Like in the yeast-two-hybrid assay, this is done by making
chimeric genes that are introduced into cells. The principle of mass
spectrometric identification of proteins is that the protein is chopped
into fragments by tryptic digestion, and the mass of each fragment is
measured by matrix-assisted laser desorption/ ionization-time-of-flight
mass spectrometry (MALDI-TOF MS). This measurement is so accurate
that the combination of amino acids in each fragment can be calculated
and compared to a database of all the proteins in the proteome of the
organism in order to find the correct one.
novel vaccines, drugs, treatments, devices or new ways of using known
interventions, generating safety and efficacy data. These trials are to
test the safety and efficacy of a newly invented drug.
2. What are the different types of clinical trials according to the U.S.
National Institutes of Health?
a) 6
b) 5
c) 4
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The U.S institutes of health organize trials into 6 different
types and these are prevention trial, screening trial, diagnostic trial,
treatment trial and quality of life trials. One way of classifying clinical
trials is, by the way, the researchers behave that is an observational
study and other is interventional study.
3. What do you mean by a randomized design?
a) The subjects do not know which study treatment they receive
b) Patients injected with placebo and active doses
c) Randomly assigning subjects either for placebo or active dose
d) Signed document of the recruited patient for the clinical trial
procedures
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Randomized design is when each study subject is randomly
assigned to receive either the study treatment or a placebo. The
subjects involved in the study do not know which study treatment they
receive. If the study is double-blind, the researchers also do not know
which treatment is being given to any given subject.
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4. What is meant by a blind subject?
a) The subjects do not know which study treatment they receive
b) Patients injected with placebo and active doses
c) Fake treatment
d) Signed document of the recruited patient for the clinical trial
procedures
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The subjects involved in the study do not know which
study treatment they receive. If the study is double-blind, the
researchers also do not know which treatment is being given to any
given subject. In this kind of study the subjects or the patients will not
be knowing which study treatment they receive.
5. Which one of the following describes “double dummy”?
a) The subjects do not know which study treatment they receive
b) Patients injected with placebo and active doses
c) Fake treatment
d) Signed document of the recruited patient for the clinical trial
procedures
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A form of double-blind study called a “double-dummy”
design allows additional insurance against bias or placebo effect. In this
kind of study, all patients are given both placebo and active doses in
alternating periods of time during the study. The use of a placebo (fake
treatment) allows the researchers to isolate the effect of the study
treatment.
6. What is placebo?
a) The subjects do not know which study treatment they receive
b) Patients injected with placebo and active doses
c) Fake treatment
d) Signed document of the recruited patient for the clinical trial
procedures

Answer: c
Explanation: The use of a placebo (fake treatment) allows the
researchers to isolate the effect of the study treatment. It allows the
researchers to see the effect on the patients or the healthy individual
when they don’t get the drug rather they get a fake treatment. In this
kind of study, all patients are given both placebo and active doses in
alternating periods of time during the study.
7. What is informed consent in a clinical trial?
a) The subjects do not know which study treatment they receive
b) Patients injected with placebo and active doses
c) Fake treatment
d) Signed document of the recruited patient for the clinical trial
procedures
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: An essential component of initiating a clinical trial is to
recruit study subjects following procedures using a signed document
called “informed consent.” Fake treatment or placebo allows the
researchers to isolate the effect of the study treatment. Patient
injected with active dose and placebo is also known as a double
dummy.
8. Which one of the following is the last step of a clinical trial process?
a) Investigator selection
b) Patient recruitment
c) Statistical Analysis
d) Data filed and registration
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The last step of the clinical trial is when the data are filed
and registration from the FDA is obtained and the product is ready to
be marketed. FDA approves the New Drug Application. Now the drug
appears in the market and post-marketing studies, inspection starts.
9. Which one of the following will perfectly fit on the marked place?

a) Investigator selection
b) Patient recruitment
c) Statistical Analysis
d) Data filed and registration
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This step involves checking the ratios, checking the
number of patients who are showing which symptom, who are not so
that they can have a proper count of how many patients may get
benefited from the dosage. The statistical analysis is an important part
which also involves dosage, age, patient details, study details etc.
10. Which one of the following will perfectly fit on the marked place?

a) Investigator selection
b) Patient recruitment
c) Statistical Analysis
d) Data filed and registration
Explanation: After FDA has approved the IND the manufacturer
company has to choose groups of patients and healthy people with
their informed consent to start the procedure of the phase I trial. This
the patient recruitment phase. Once the healthy individual for phase I
trial are selected and the phase I trial is successful they have to again
recruit for phase II trial.

11. Which one of the following will perfectly fit on the marked place?

a) Investigator selection
b) Patient recruitment
c) Statistical Analysis
d) Data filed and registration
Explanation: After the laboratory studies are over the company submits
IND and thus FDA if approves the IND will start the clinical trial phases.
In this time the manufacturing company have to choose the
Investigator who will investigate and keep a report of the whole
process of phase I, II, III, IV.

12. How many people will be selected for phase I trial?

a) The whole market will be under surveillance
b) 300-3000 people
c) 20-300 people
d) 20-50 people
Explanation: Phase I trials are the first stage of testing in human
subjects. Normally, a small group of 20-50 healthy volunteers will be
selected. This phase includes trials designed to assess the safety
(pharmacovigilance), tolerability, pharmacokinetics, and
pharmacodynamics of a drug. Phase 2 trial will be done on 20-300
people. Phase 3 trial will be done on 300-3000 people.
13. How many people will be selected for phase II trial?
a) The whole market will be under surveillance
b) 300-3000 people
c) 20-300 people
d) 20-50 people
Explanation: Once the initial safety of the study drug has been
confirmed in Phase I trials, Phase II trials are performed on larger
groups 20-300 and are designed to assess how well the drug works, as
well as to continue Phase I safety assessments in a larger group of
volunteers and patients. Phase 1 trial will be done on 20-50 people.
Phase 3 trial will be done on 300-3000 people. Phase 4 trial is post-
marketing surveillance.

14. How many people will be selected for phase III trial?
a) The whole market will be under surveillance
b) 300-3000 people
c) 20-300 people

15. Which one of the following will be checked under phase IV

surveillance?
a) The whole market will be under surveillance

1. Which one of the following is a protein database?

Ans. Swissport.
2. EBI store a sequence of DNA.
3. Structures database of protein is PDB.
4. Which database is Japan located at?
Ans. DDJB.
5. EMBL stores the sequences of DNA.
6. Which one of the following is a protein database?
Ans. EBI.
7. Which is data retrieving tool?
Ans. ENTREZ.
8. Evolutionary relationship deals with the Phylogenetic analysis.
9. Swissport is the example of Primary database.
10. Two sequences alignment is called as Pair wise.
11. Algorithm is used in scoring mutation data
Ans. PAM matrix.
12. MODBASE tool is used for 3D structure prediction.
13. All the following are same sequence database except
A) PIR B) PSD C) SWISS PROT D) Genebank
Ans. D) Genebank
14. The alignment procedure that is tries to align the entire sequence
is GLOBAL Alignment.
15. The most common secondary structure is α-helix.
16. ClustalW is Multiple sequence alignment tool.
17. A compound that has desirable properties to become a drug is
called Lead.
18. Which one of the following is not visualization software?
FASTA.
19. Which software is used for drug desiring? Discovery studio.
20. Modeling of protein structure can be done using Modeller.
21. Comparative genomics is Analysis and comparison of genome
from different species.
22. Which is not bioinformatics company? NOKIA.
23. The study of location, structure and function of entire protein
content of Proteomics.
24. Which one of the following is not sequence alignment tools? 
Rasmol.
25. NCBI stands for National center for Bioinformatics Information.
26. Step wise method for solving problems in computer science is
called as algorithm.
27. Biological database contains DNA, PROTEIN, STRUCTURE.
28. The function of β subunit of E, coli RNA polymerase is Catalytic
bindings.
29. Which of the σ factors is heat stable?  σ 32
30. True replication of DNA is due to Complementary base pairing
rule.
31. Mode of DNA replication is Semiconservative and bidirectional.
32. Which enzyme is used to join nicks in the DNA stand?  DNA
ligase.
33. Which enzyme is used in the unwinding of DNA? Helicase.
34. DNA synthesis can be measured by estimating the incorporation
of radiolabeled thymine.
35. How many RNA polymerases are present in a bacterial system 1
36. For DNA replication short strands of primer are required which
are composed of  RNA
37. The repair enzyme DNA polymerase 1 is involved in 3 activities
except3`-5` polymerase activity.
38. Prokaryotic transcription proceeds in 3 enzymatically catelised
steps except  assembly.
39. The transcribed RNA (pre – mRNA) processing to convert it into
mature RNA does not include acylation.
40. A statement not applicable to the transcription promoter
sequences  located downstream at the 3`end of the mRNA
sequence.
41. Who discovered DNA? Johannes Fredric’s Miescher.
42. Each nucleotide is composed of 3 different components accept
amino acid.
43. There is no direct complementarity In between one of the
following but by the genetic code amino acid and mRNA
44. The entire machinery of polypeptide formation during translation
is present in the ribosome
45. Charging of tRNA is also known as amino acylation.
46. The tRNA for serine bears anticodon  UCA.
47. The tRNA was earlier was called soluble RNA.
48. The codon AUG has dual function as it codes for methionine and
also act as initiator codon.
49. Sum amino acids are coded by more than 1 codon hence the
genetic code exhibit  degeneracy.
50. The call free system for protein synthesis was the work of the
following to finally decipher the genetic code marshal Nirenberg.
51. The mRNA is in fact  processes hnRNA destined for cytoplasm.
52. In a post transcriptional modification called tailing Guanylate
residual are added at the 5` ends of mRNA.
53. Additional post transcriptional processing like caping ang telling
characteristics to hnRNA.
54. The intervening sequences in the primary transcript of mRNA are
removed by splicing.
55. in eukaryotes RNA polymerase 3 is responsible for synthesis of 
tRNA, 5sRNA, snRNA.
56. in eukaryotes the RNA polymerase 1 transcribes-rRNA.
57. In bacteria in contexts of mRNA which of the following is not
truepost transcriptional modification are required for most
transcript.
58. In bacterial transcription the RHO factor is in bacteria is also
known as termination factor.
59. The components required for the initiation of transcription in
bacteria are promotor, RNA polymerase ρ-factor.
60. In bacteria which of the following plays a structure as well as
catalytic roll in the translation process rRNA.
61. Post translational modification of many eukaryotic protein begins
in the endoplasmic reticulum.
62. During construction of a phylogenetic tree a group of organism’s
net belonging to the group whose evolutionary relationship are
being investigated is called as an outgroup.
63. The application of swiss PDB viewer is for molecular modeling.
64. The algorithm used by default in a BLAST sequences analysis is
Smith-Waterman.
65. Multiple sequence alignment can be done by Clustal
programme.
66. Which of the following is the structure and sequences data
alignment visualization software CN3D?
67. Homologous genes where a gene diverges after a speciation event
but the and its orthologous.
68. Secretory protein is synthesized by  ribosome and endoplasmic
reticulum.
69. Biomolecular structure information is stored in secondary
database.
70. The recognition sequence is at time palindromic in nature. Which
of the following statements is correct with respect to it? there are
increased chances of annealing if the recognition sequence is
palindromic in nature.