Hazardous Materials Operations - Study Guide

Hazardous Materials
- General
- Hazard (a source of risk)
- Contamination (condition of impurity)
- Exposure (contact with a substance)
- Acute (rapid onset / short course)
- Chronic (long term / persistent)
- Mitigate (make less severe)
- Thermal Hazards
- Oxidation (yields oxygen readily)
- Polymerization (molecules bond together, often violent)
- Cryogen (supercooled liquids)
- Radiological Hazards
- Alpha (positive charged ions, dangerous if ingested, stopped by
skin)
- Beta (positive or negative charged ions, stopped by clothing)
- Gamma (high energy photons, stopped by concrete)
- Neutron (free nuetrons, fission reaction)
- Asphyxiation Hazards
- Simple Asphyxiants (displace oxygen in air)
- Chemical Asphyxiants (inhibit body’s ability to use oxygen)
- Chemical Hazards
- Poisons (toxic materials)
- Corrosives (causes damage to tissues)
- Irritants (causes discomfort / inflammation)
- Convulsants (causes seizures / spasms)
- Carcinogens (causes cancer)
- Mutagens (causes changes to DNA)
- Teratogens (effects embryos / fetus)
- Sensitisers / Allergens (causes an allergic reaction)
- Biological / Etiological Hazards
- Viruses (replicate inside a host)
- Bacteria (single celled organisms)
- Rickettsias (transmitted by other living creatures)
- Mechanical Hazards
- Blast-pressure Wave (most damaging)
- Shrapnel Fragmentation
 - Seismic Effects
- Incendiary Thermal Effect
- Routes of Entry
- Inhalation (breathe in)
- Ingestion (eat / swallow)
- Injection
- Skin Contact (absorbed through the skin, more likely with wet skin)
Containers
- Occupancies
- Bulk
- Liquid > 119 gallons
- Solid > 882 pounds
- Gas > 1001 pounds water capacity
- Non-Bulk
- Bags
- Boxes
- Carboys / Jerrycans
- Cylinders
- Drums
- Dewar Flasks
- Ton Containers
- Tanks
- Atmospheric / Non-pressure (0.5 psi)
- Horizontal (flat ends)
- Cone Roof
- Open Top Floating Roof (curved stairs)
- Covered Top Floating Roof (vents near top edge)
- Lifter Roof
- Vapordome
- Underground
- Low Pressure (0.5 - 15 psi)
- Dome Roof
- Spheroid
- Pressure (> 15 psi)
- Horizontal Pressure Vessel (bullet ends)
- Spherical Pressure Vessel
- Cryogenic Liquid (vertical, on legs)
- Rail cars
- Markings
 - Reporting Markings (used to get infor from shipper’s
database)
- Capacity Stencil (volume on ends, weight on sides)
- Specification Markings (DOT standards)
- Low Pressure (< 25 psi) - exposed fittings (ERG 131)
- Pressure (> 25 psi) - covered fittings (ERG 117)
- Cryogenic Liquid - rectangular control box (ERG 117)
- Hopper Car - dry bulk (ERG 140)
- Boxcar- mixed load (ERG 111)
- Trailers
- Non-pressure Liquid (< 4 psi) - oval cross section (ERG 131)
- Low Pressure (< 40 psi) - bullet ends (ERG 137)
- Corrosive Liquid (< 75 psi) - ring stiffeners (ERG 137)
- High Pressure (> 100 psi) - hemisphere ends (ERG 117)
- Cryogenic Liquid (< 22 psi) - rectangular control box (ERG 117)
- Compressed Gas (3000 - 5000 psi) - multiple slender tubes (ERG
117)
- Dry Bulk (< 22 psi), (ERG 134)
- Mixed Cargo (ERG 111)
- Intermodal (ERG 117)
- Reporting Markings (on right side facing)
- Low Pressure
- IM 101 (25.4 - 100 psi)
- IM 102 (14.5 - 25.4 psi)
- Pressure
- IMO Type 5 / Spec 51 (100 - 500 psi)
- Specialized
- IMO Type 7 (3000 - 5000 psi)
- Marine
- Pipelines
- Signal Word (caution, warning, danger)
- Product
- Owner
- Telephone
- Radioactive Materials
- Excepted (no regulations)
- Industrial (low intensity)
- Strong, tight packaging (pallet and banded)
- Type A (medical equipment, robust packaging)
 - Type B (nearly destruction proof)
Labeling
- UN Identification Number
- 4-Digit Code
- DOT Hazard Classes / Divisions
- Class 1 Explosives - orange
- Division 1.1 Mass Explosion Hazard (ERG 112)
- Division 1.2 Projection Hazard (ERG 112)
- Division 1.3 Fire Hazard (ERG 112)
- Division 1.4 No Significant Hazard (ERG 114)
- Division 1.5 Very Insensitive (ERG 112)
- Division 1.6 Extremely Insensitive (ERG 114)
- Class 2 Gases
- Division 2.1 Flammable Gases - red (ERG 118)
- Division 2.2 Nonflammable Gases - green (ERG 121),
Oxygen - yellow (ERG 122)
- Division 2.3 Poison Gases - white (ERG 123)
- Class 3 Flammable Liquids - red (ERG 127)
- Class 4 Flammable Solids, Spontaneously Combustible, Dangerous
When Wet
- Division 4.1 Flammable Solids - red & white stripes (ERG
134)
- Division 4.2 Spontaneously Combustible - white over red
(ERG 136)
- Division 4.3 Dangerous When Wet - blue (ERG 139)
- Class 5 Oxidizers, Organic Peroxide
- Division 5.1 Oxidizers - yellow (ERG 143)
- Division 5.2 Organic Peroxide - yellow over red (ERG 148)
- Class 6 Toxic - white
- Division 6.1 Poison (ERG 153)
- Division 6.2 Infectious Substance (ERG 158)
- Class 7 Radioactive Material - yellow over white (ERG 163)
- Class 8 Corrosive Material - white over black (ERG 153)
- Class 9 Miscellaneous Dangerous Goods - black & white stripes
(ERG 111)
- Canadian / Mexican / GHS
- NFPA 704
- Health (0-4)
- Flammability (0-4)
 - Instability (0-4)
- Special Hazards (OX, W)
- Military
- SDS
- 16 Sections
- Pesticide labels
- Manufacturer
- Chemical Name
- Signal Word (caution, warning, danger)
- Precautionary Statement
- Shipping papers
- Requirements
- UN Identification Number
- Shipping Name
- DOT Hazard Class or Division
- Packing Group
- Quantity
- Location
- Road (Bill of Lading, Driver, Cab)
- Rail (Consist, Conductor, Engine)
- Marine (Manifest, Captain, Bridge)
- Air (Airbill, Pilot, Cockpit)
ERG
- Yellow Pages (UN Number)
- “P” (Polymerization Hazard)
- Blue Pages (Chemical Name)
- “P” (Polymerization Hazard)
- Orange Pages (Guide Pages)
- Green Pages (Toxic Inhalation Hazard)
- Small spill < 55 gallons
- Large spill > 55 gallons
- Initial Isolation Zone (circle of radius shown in ERG)
- Protective Action Zone (square with dimension shown in ERG,
downwind)
Chemical Properties
- Acid (reacts with water to form Hydrogen ions)
- Base (forms hydroxide ions in water, break down fatty tissue, damages
eyes)
- pH (0-6 acid, 7 neutral, 8-14 base)
 -Flash Point (temperature at which vapors ignite)
-Fire Point (temperature at which vapors sustain burning)
-LEL (lower explosive limit, % concentration in air)
-UEL (upper explosive limit, % concentration in air)
-Vapor Pressure (the pressure resulting from vapor evaporating from a
liquid, a measure of liquid’s willingness to become a gas - higher = gas,
lower = liquid)
- Boiling / Freezing Point (temperature of phase changes)
- BLEVE (boiling liquid expanding vapor explosion)
- Vapor Density (weight of vapor or gas compared to air, <1 = lighter than
air, >1 = heavier than air)
- Solubility (ability to dissolve in water)
- Polar Solvent (flammable liquids that dissolve in water, alcohol)
- Miscibility (ability for two liquids to mix together)
- Specific Gravity (weight of liquid compared to water, <1 = floats on
water, >1 = sinks in water)
- Persistence (ability to remain in the environment)
- Dispersion (to be spread widely)
- Reactive Material (may become unstable due to force, heat, light, etc…)
- Activation Energy (energy required to start a chemical reaction)
- Oxidizer (readily supplies oxygen to a chemical reaction)
- Inhibitor (limits or prohibits a chemical reaction)
GHMBO
- Stress
- Thermal
- Chemical (chemical reaction, metal reduction)
- Mechanical
- Breach
- Disintegration (shatter)
- Runaway Cracking
- Attachments Open / Break (relief valves)
- Puncture
- Split or Tear
- Release
- Detonation (explosion)
- Violent Rupture (BLEVE)
- Rapid Relief
- Spill or Leak
- Dispersion / Engulf
 - Gas
- Hemispheric
- Cloud
- Plume (follows topography)
- Cone (directional)
- Liquid
- Stream
- Pool
- Irregular Dispersion
- Solid
- Pile
- Exposure / Contact
- Immediate
- Short-term (minutes, hours)
- Medium-term (days, weeks)
- Long-term (years, generations)
- Harm
Incident Management
- NIMS
- Incident Commander
- Safety Officer
- Operations (tactics), (branches: divisions - geographical, groups -
function)
- Logistics (resources)
- Planning (strategy)
- Finance (costs)
- Incident levels
- I (local responders)
- II (technician level responders)
- III (state / federal assistance)
Strategies / Tactics
- Problem Solving (analyze, plan, implement, evaluate)
- Isolation / Scene Control
- Cold Zone (safe zone)
- Warm Zone (decontamination corridor)
- Hot Zone (technician level and above only)
- Notification
- Protection
- Recovery & Termination
Terrorist Attacks & Criminal Activities
- Low Explosives (flagration - intense burning)
- High Explosives
- Primary
- Secondary
- Chemical
- Nerve Agents (affect nerve impulses) - hazard divisions 2.3 & 6.1
- Blister Agents (affect skin, usually persistent) - hazard division 6.1
- Blood Agents (chemical asphyxiants) - hazard division 6.1
- Choking Agents (affect lungs) - hazard division 2.3
- Riot Control Agents (aerosolized solids, heavier than air) - hazard
division 6.1
- Biological
- Disease Transmission
- Radiological / Nuclear
- Non-Ionizing
- Ionizing Radiation
- Time, Distance, Shielding
- Inverse Square Law (double the distance, one-quarter the
radiation)
- Evidence Preservation
PPE
- Respiratory Protection
- SCBA (self contained breathing apparatus)
- SAR (supplied air respirator)
- APR (air purifying respirator)
- PAPR (powered air purifying respirator)
- Protective Clothing
- Structural Firefighting
- Proximity Suits
- Fire Entry Suits (up to 2000 F)
- EPA Levels Ensembles (CPC Suits)
- A (respiration supply, gas/vapor protection)
- B (respiration supply, liquid spill protection)
- C (respiration filtering, liquid spill protection)
- D (conventional station gear)
- Chemical Hazards
- Permeation (goes through PPE material)
- Degradation (destroys the PPE material)
 - Penetration (through an opening in PPE material)
- Decontamination
- Mass Decon (ambulatory and nonambulatory)
- Technical Decon
- Emergency Decon
Product Control
- Foam
- Fluoroprotein Foam (use on hydrocarbons)
- AFFF (most common)
- AR-AFFF (use on polar solvents)
- High Expansion Foam (uses little water)
- Spill Control
- Absorption (taken into the sorbent)
- Adsorption (adheres to the sorbent)
- Blanket / Cover
- Dike / Dam / Divert
- Vapor Suppression (foam on top of a volatile liquid)
- Vapor Dispersion
- Ventilation
- Dilution
- Dissolution (dissolve gas into water)
- Neutralization
- Leak Control
- Fire Control
- Roll-on
- Bank-down
- Rain-down (use with AFFF)
Air Monitoring
- Concentration / Exposure Limits
- IDLH (immediately dangerous to life and health)
- PEL (permissible exposure limit)
- PEL-C (permissible exposure limit, ceiling limit - instantaneous)
- STEL (short term exposure limit - 15 minutes)
- TVL (threshold value limit)
- TVL-C (threshold value limit, ceiling limit - instantaneous)
- TVL-STEL (threshold value limit, short term exposure limit - 15
minutes)
- TVL-TWA (threshold value limit, time weighted average - 8 hours)
- LD-50 (lethal dose, 50% mortality)
 - LC-50 (lethal concentration, 50% mortality)
- Monitoring Basics
- Detecting Hazards
- Corrosives (pH)
- Oxygen (< 19.5%, > 23.5%)
- Flammables (10% LEL)
- Toxics (PPM)

Chapter 1 - Introduction to Hazardous Materials

Objective 1:
Distinguish between hazardous materials incidents and other
emergencies.
1. How are hazardous materials incidents different from other
emergencies? (9-10)
A. Haz mat incidents are easier to detect.
B. Other emergencies may be difficult to detect.
C. Other emergencies involve specialized equipment.
D. Haz mat incidents may be extremely difficult to contain.

Objective 2:
Discuss the roles of Awareness-Level personnel and
Operations-Level responders.
2. Which OSHA requirements pertain to training of hazardous
materials responders? (11)
A. CFR 311
B. CFR 411
C. Title 29 CFR
D. Title 40 CFR

3. Which NFPA​®​ standards pertain to the training of hazardous

materials responders? (12)
A. NFPA​®​ 472
B. NFPA​®​ 1001
C. NFPA​®​ 1021
D. NFPA​®​ 1030
 4. Which NFPA​®​ level of training includes the core
competencies or beyond? (13)
A. Awareness
B. Operations
C. Technician
D. Branch Officer

5. Which of the following is an OSHA level of hazardous

materials responders? (13)
A. Hazardous Materials Specialist
B. Hazardous Materials Branch Officer
C. Hazardous Materials Branch Safety Officer
D. Hazardous Materials Incident Commander

6. Which of the following levels can perform ONLY defensive

tasks? (13)
A. Specialist
B. Technician
C. Operations Core
D. Operations Mission-Specific

7. Which of the following is a responsibility of Awareness-Level

personnel? (13-14)
A. Identify actions to protect themselves and others from
hazards
B. Analyze an incident to determine the nature and extent of
the problem
C. Develop a defensive plan of action to address the problems
presented by the incident
D. Evaluate the progress of the actions taken to ensure that
response objectives are safely met

8. Which of the following is a responsibility of Operations-Level

personnel ONLY? (15)
A. Recognize the type of container at a site
B. Recognize the presence or potential presence of hazardous
materials
C. Transmit information to an appropriate authority and call for
appropriate assistance
D. Implement the planned response to mitigate or control a
release from a safe distance and keep it from spreading

Objective 3:
Describe the various types of hazardous materials hazards.
9. Cold temperatures are a danger when working with: (16)
A. cryogenic gases.
B. combustible liquids.
C. flammable materials.
D. radiological materials.

10. The U.S. DOT defines elevated-temperature materials as

those in a liquid phase at a temperature at or above: (17-18)
A. 38°F (3°C).
B. 100°F (38°C).
C. 212°F (100°C).
D. 464°F (240°C).

11. What are alpha particles? (18)

A. High-energy photons
B. Ultrahigh energy particles that have a physical mass but
have no electrical charge
C. Energetic, positively charged particles emitted from the
nucleus during radioactive decay
D. Fast-moving, positively or negatively charged electrons
emitted from the nucleus during radioactive decay

12. Which radiological hazards are usually completely blocked by

the outer dead layer of human skin? (20)
A. Neutrons
B. Gamma rays
C. Beta particles
D. Alpha particles

13. Which radiological hazards are capable of penetrating skin

and can travel appreciable distances in air? (20)
A. Neutrons
B. Gamma rays
C. Beta particles
D. Alpha particles
 14. Which radiological hazards have neither a charge nor
a mass and require at least two feet of concrete or earth to stop?
(20)
A. Neutrons
B. Gamma rays
C. Beta particles
D. Alpha particles

15. Which radiological hazards are produced by fission reactions

and are difficult to measure in the field? (21)
A. Neutrons
B. Gamma rays
C. Beta particles
D. Alpha particles

16. Which of the following is an exposure to radiation received

in a short period of time? (22)
A. Acute radiation doses
B. Atomic radiation doses
C. Chronic radiation doses
D. Carcinogenic radiation doses

17. Which of the following are gases that displace the oxygen
necessary for breathing? (23)
A. Toxic asphyxiants
B. Simple asphyxiants
C. Chronic asphyxiants
D. Chemical asphyxiants

18. The likelihood of an adverse health effect occurring depends

on the ___ of the chemical. (23)
A. size
B. toxicity
C. proximity
D. corrosivity

19. Which types of poisonous chemicals disrupt nerve impulses?

(24)
A. Irritants
B. Neurotoxins
C. Simple asphyxiants
D. Chemical asphyxiants
20. Which of the following chemicals comprise the largest usage
class in the industry? (25)
A. Irritants
B. Corrosives
C. Toxic chemicals
D. Poisonous chemicals

21. Which of the following is a chemical that ionizes to yield

hydrogen ions in water? (25)
A. Acids
B. Bases
C. Neutrals
D. Oxidizers

22. Which corrosives can cause severe eye damage? (26)

A. Acids
B. Bases
C. Neutrals
D. Oxidizers

23. Which of the following are toxins that cause temporary but
sometimes severe inflammation of the eyes, skin, or respiratory
system? (27)
A. Irritants
B. Corrosives
C. Convulsants
D. Carcinogens

24. Which of the following is a known carcinogen? (27)

A. Urushiol
B. Strychnine
C. Carbamates
D. Polyvinyl chloride

25. Which types of etiological hazards are the simplest types of

microorganisms that can only replicate themselves in the living cells
of their hosts? (29)
A. Rickettsias
B. Viral agents
C. Bacterial agents
D. Biological toxins
 26. Which of the following etiological hazards are poisons
produced by living organisms? (30)
A. Rickettsias
B. Viral agents
C. Bacterial agents
D. Biological toxins

27. Which of the following mechanical hazards is the result of an

explosion, bomb, or IED? (31)
A. Striking hazards
B. Friction hazards
C. Trauma hazards
D. Abrasive hazards

28. Which explosion hazard is the primary reason for injuries

and damage? (31)
A. Seismic effect
B. Blast pressure wave
C. Shrapnel fragmentation
D. Incendiary thermal effect

Objective 4:
Explain each of the routes of entry.
29. Which route of entry includes taking in materials by
breathing through the nose or mouth? (32)
A. Injection
B. Ingestion
C. Inhalation
D. Skin contact

30. Entry through skin contact is easier if the skin is: (32)
A. dry.
B. wet.
C. sensitive.
D. sunburned.
Objective 5:
Describe the U.S., Canadian, and Mexican hazardous materials
regulations and definitions.
31. Title 49 CFR is sometimes referred to as: (38)
A. .
B. .
C. .
D. .

32. Which of the following created a tax on chemical and

petroleum industries? (39)
A. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
B. Occupational Safety and Health Association (OSHA)
C. Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act (SARA)
D. Comprehensive, Environmental Response, Compensation,
and Liability Act (CERCLA)

33. Which of the following is a characteristic of SARA? (40)

A. Gave the EPA the authority to control hazardous waste
B. Increased the focus on human health problems posed by
hazardous waste sites
C. Required each state to appoint a State Emergency Response
Commission (SERC)
D. Established a trust fund to provide for cleanup when no
responsible party could be identified

34. Who enables the EPA to address environmental problems

that could result from underground tanks storing hazardous
substances? (41)
A. Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA)
B. Local Emergency Planning Committee (LEPC)
C. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)
D. Environmental Protection and Community Right-to-Know Act
(EPCRA)

35. Which of the following was designed to ensure that

information about chemical hazards and associated protective
measures is disseminated to workers and employers? (41)
A. HAZWOPER
B. Department of Labor (DOL)
C. Process Safety Management (PSM)
D. Hazardous Communication Standard (HCS)
36. Which of the following information is included in Title 10 ​
20, ​ ? (42)
A. Requirements for notifying the public about radiation areas
B. Radiation dose limits for workers and members of the public
C. Distances for housing additions from nuclear storage
facilities
D. Requirements for shipping/transporting of radioactive
materials

37. Which of the following agencies ensures that emergency

response professionals are prepared for any situation in the event of
a terrorist attack, natural disaster, or other large-scale emergency?
(43)
A. Department of Energy (DOE)
B. Department of Defense (DoD)
C. Department of Homeland Security (DHS)
D. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)

38. Which of the following agencies enforces the federal laws

and regulations relating to alcohol, tobacco products, firearms,
explosives, and arson? (43)
A. Department of Treasury
B. Department of Justice (DOJ)
C. Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
D. Department of Defense Explosives Safety Board (DDESB)

39. Which Canadian agency is the focal point for a national

program to promote public safety during the transportation of
dangerous goods? (44)
A. Health Canada
B. Environment Canada
C. Transport Canada (TC)
D. Canadian Nuclear Safety Commission (CNSC)

40. Which of the following evaluates potential risks of

environmental pollutants and toxic substances? (44)
A. Hazardous Products Act
B. Pest Control Products Act
C. Transport Dangerous Goods (TDG) Directorate
D. Canadian Environmental Protection Act (CEPA)
 41. Which Mexican regulation is responsible for labor?
(47)
A. Secretaria del Trabajo y Prevision Social
B. Secretaria de Comunicaciones y Transportes
C. Secretaria de Medio Ambiente y Recursos Naturales
D. Regulation for Safety, Health, and Environment in the
Workplace

Objective 6:
Discuss hazardous materials incident statistics.
42. Which of the following materials is MOST likely to be
involved in hazardous materials incidents and accidents? (51)
A. Allergens
B. Corrosives
C. Sensitizers
D. Poisonous chemicals

43. Which of the following materials is LEAST likely to be

involved in hazardous materials incidents and accidents? (51)
A. Chlorine
B. Irritants
C. Anhydrous ammonia
D. Flammable/combustible liquids

44. Which mode of transportation is MOST likely to have a

hazardous materials transportation incident? (51)
A. Air
B. Rail
C. Water
D. Highway

45. Which agency maintains a database for hazardous

substances emergency events? (53)
A. U.S. Department of Transportation
B. U.S. Department of Homeland Security
C. U.S. Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry
D. U.S. Agency for Dangerous Goods and Hazardous Materials

Chapter 2 - Hazardous Materials Identification

Objective 1:
Identify the seven clues to the presence of hazardous materials.
1. Which of the following is NOT one of the clues to the presence of
hazardous materials? (64)
A. Container sizes
B. Occupancy types
C. Written resources
D. Transportation placards

Objective 2:
Discuss the occupancy types, locations, and pre-incident surveys
that may indicate hazardous materials.
2. Which of the following can reduce the number of on-site decisions
for first responders? (66)
A. Pre-incident surveys
B. Accurate witness accounts
C. Correct information from dispatch
D. Effective use of the incident management system
3. Which of the following should be identified in pre-incident surveys?
(66)
A. Locations of all means of egress
B. Dangers of the hazardous materials
C. List of responding organizations in the area
D. Twenty-four-hour telephone numbers of all workers
 4. Which of the following is LEAST likely to have large amounts of
hazardous materials? (66-67)
A. Dry cleaners
B. Lumberyards
C. Fast-food restaurants
D. Pest control companies
5. In which of the following roadway locations are hazardous
materials accidents MOST likely to occur? (68)
A. Wide turns
B. Steep grades
C. Poorly paved roads
D. Lightly traveled roads
6. In which of the following railway locations are hazardous materials
accidents MOST likely to occur? (68)
A. Straight-aways
B. Over roadways
C. Sections of new tracks
D. Steep grades and severe curves
7. In which of the following airway locations are hazardous materials
accidents MOST likely to occur? (69)
A. Runways
B. Terminals
C. Fueling ramps
D. Charter plane storage
8. Which of the following statements regarding water level in rivers
and tidal areas is MOST accurate? (69)
A. Tidal and flow conditions remain basically the same throughout the day.
B. Many accidents occur because flow volume and tidal conditions were not
considered.
C. Once a material reaches an outside water source, it is much easier to
contain, confine, and mitigate.
D. Occupancies in low-lying areas should have a contingency plan to remove
or destroy hazardous materials in case of flood.
 9. Harm regarding terrorist targets should be defined in terms of all of
the followingEXCEPT: (69-70)
A. destroying property.
B. damaging the economy.
C. causing panic and/or disruption.
D. affecting power and water supply.
10. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a potential terrorist
target? (70-71)
A. Campsite areas
B. Mass transportation
C. Critical infrastructure
D. Areas of public assembly
11. Which of the following is MOST likely a potential terrorist target?
(70-71)
A. Boathouse
B. Wildlife refuge
C. Residential house
D. Educational facility

Objective 3:
Describe the container shapes that may contain hazardous
materials.
12. What terms are used to define capacity by the U.S. DOT and TC?
(71)
A. Bulk and nonbulk
B. Pressure and nonpressure
C. Bulk-capacity and transportation-capacity
D. Fixed-facility and transportation packaging
13. To be considered bulk packaging, the maximum capacity is greater
than ___ gallons (L) as a receptacle for a liquid. (72)
A. 100 (380)
B. 119 (450)
C. 154 (585)
D. 196 (740)
 14. What is the definition of nonbulk packaging? (72)
A. Packaging that is lighter than the criteria for bulk packaging
B. Packaging that is heavier than the criteria for bulk packaging
C. Packaging that is larger than the maximum criteria for bulk packaging
D. Packaging that is smaller than the minimum criteria for bulk packaging
15. Which of the following is a container found at fixed facilities?
(72-73)
A. Railroad cars
B. Cargo tanks
C. Intermodal containers
D. Aboveground storage tanks
16. Nonpressure storage tanks have a maximum pressure of ___ psi
(kPa) {bar}. (74)
A. 0.5 (3.45) {0.03}
B. 1 (7) {0.07}
C. 1.5 (10) {0.1}
D. 2 (14) {0.14}
17. Pressure vessels hold materials at pressures of ___ psi (kPa) {bar}
or greater. (74)
A. 5 (34) {0.34}
B. 10 (69) {0.69}
C. 15 (103) {1.03}
D. 20 (138) {1.38}
18. Low-pressure tank cars transport what kind of materials? (79)
A. Only hazardous materials
B. Only nonhazardous materials
C. Only liquid nonhazardous materials
D. A variety of hazardous and nonhazardous materials
19. What shape are low-pressure tank cars? (80)
A. Cylindrical with flat ends
B. Cylindrical with rounded ends
C. Cylindrical with concave ends
D. Cylindrical, noncompartmentized, with concave ends
20. Pressure tank cars typically transport hazardous materials at
pressures greater than ___ psi (kPa) {bar}. (80)
A. 10 (69) {0.69}
B. 15 (103) {1.03}
C. 20 (138) {1.38}
D. 25 (172) {1.72}
21. Which of the following statements regarding pressure tank cars is
MOST accurate? (81)
A. Their fittings are visible at the sides of the car.
B. Their fittings are visible at the top and/or bottom of the car.
C. Their fittings are in ground-level cabinets on sides of the car.
D. Their fittings are out of sight under protective housing on top of the tank.
 22. What types of materials may be carried in a cryogenic liquid tank
car? (82)
A. Oxidizers
B. Flammable solids
C. Dry bulk materials
D. Liquefied natural gas
23. Which of the following government tank-safety specifications are
most cargo tanks designed to meet? (84)
A. MC and DOT/TC standards
B. DOT/TC and NFPA​®​ standards
C. DOT/TC and OSHA standards
D. International and domestic standards
24. Cargo tanks not meeting government tank-safety specifications are
called ___ tanks. (84)
A. unspec
B. nonspec
C. unrequired
D. unconditioned
 25. Which of the following is the definition of an intermodal container?
(92)
A. Freight container used to transport hazardous materials via railroad
B. Freight container used to transport hazardous materials via highway
C. Freight container used interchangeably in multiple modes of transport
D. Refrigerated container used to transport low-temperature materials via
water
26. Which of the following is the most common intermodal tank? (93)
A. Pressure intermodal tank
B. Dry bulk intermodal container
C. Low-pressure intermodal tank
D. Cryogenic liquid tank container
27. Which of the following vessel cargo carriers are not required to
carry placards? (97)
A. Chemical carriers
B. Petroleum carriers
C. Cryogenic liquid carriers
D. Liquefied flammable gas carriers
28. Which type of cargo vessel has large holds to accommodate a wide
range of products? (99)
A. Bulk carrier
B. Container vessel
C. Break bulk carrier
D. Roll-on/roll-off vessel
29. Intermediate bulk containers have a maximum capacity of not more
than ___ cubic meters (L; gal; ft​3​). (100)
A. 1 (1,000; 264; 35)
B. 2 (2,000; 528; 70)
C. 3 (3,000; 793; 106)
D. 4 (4,000; 1 056; 141)
 30. Ton containers are typically stored on: (102)
A. their ends.
B. their sides.
C. large barges.
D. top of one another.
31. Which of the following is a container classified as nonbulk
packaging? (102)
A. Pipeline
B. Building
C. Cylinder
D. Machinery
32. Which type of container is used for radioactive materials that have
very limited radioactivity and that present no risk to public or environment? (104)
A. Type B
B. Type C
C. Excepted
D. Industrial
33. Which type of container is used to ship radioactive materials with
relatively high specific activity levels? (105)
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Excepted
D. Industrial

Objective 4:
Identify placards, labels, and markings that designate the
presence of hazardous materials.
34. Which of the following provides a uniform basis for development of
harmonized regulations for all modes of transport? (106)
A. U.S. DOT
B. Transport Canada
C. UN Recommendations
D.
 35. Which UN hazard class includes oxidizing substances and organic
peroxides? (106)
A. Class 4
B. Class 5
C. Class 6
D. Class 7
36. What is included in UN Class 8? (106)
A. Explosives
B. Corrosive substances
C. Radioactive materials
D. Toxic and infectious substances
37. The UN Recommendations on the Transport of Dangerous Goods
assign a ___-digit identification number to each individual hazardous material. (107)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
38. In North America, UN numbers must be displayed on: (107)
A. pipelines.
B. military vehicles.
C. cargo tank trucks.
D. all nonbulk packages.
39. A key to the UN identification numbers is provided in the
___-bordered pages of the ​ . (108)
A. blue
B. green
C. yellow
D. orange
40. DOT placards are ___-shaped. (110)
A. oval
B. circular
C. diamond
D. rectangular
 41. DOT placards are required on which of the following items? (110,
119)
A. MOTs
B. ORM-Ds
C. Flammable liquids
D. Infectious substances
42. What size are DOT labels? (119)
A. 3.9 inch (100 mm) squares
B. 3.9 inch (100 mm) diamonds
C. 9.3 inch (236 mm) squares
D. 9.3 inch (236 mm) diamonds
43. Which of the following is a difference between Mexican
transportation regulations and the U.S. HMR? (129)
A. Mexican placards will be written only in Spanish.
B. The HOT mark used in the U.S. is not authorized in Mexico.
C. Mexican standards require the use of the DANGEROUS placard.
D. The United States does not authorize the ORM-D description as package
marking.
44. Where are reporting marks found on railroad tank cars? (130)
A. Stamped into the tank heads
B. Only on the ends of the tank car tank
C. Only on the sides of the tank car tank
D. Both sides and both ends of the tank car tank

Objective 5:
Describe the other markings and colors that may indicate the
presence of hazardous materials.
45. NFPA​®​ 704 is designated for which of the following situations?
(133)
A. Transportation
B. General public use
C. Indicating presence of hazardous materials at commercial facilities
D. Explosives and blasting agents, including commercial explosive materials
 46. On an NFPA​®​ 704 marking, blue indicates: (134)
A. health.
B. instability.
C. flammability.
D. special hazards.
47. The Federal Hazardous Substances Act (FHSA) requires the signal
word WARNING to indicate which degree of hazard? (137)
A. Minor health effects
B. Highest degree of hazard
C. Moderate hazards such as significant health effects
D. In addition to DANGER on labels of highly toxic materials
48. Chemical Abstract Service​®​ Numbers are assigned to which of the
following products? (138)
A. Polymers
B. Flammable liquids
C. Combustible liquids
D. Radioactive materials
49. Which of the following encourages the use of compatible hazard
labels, SDSs, and other hazard communication information? (139)
A. NFPA​®​ 704
B. ISO Safety System
C. Globally Harmonized System (GHS)
D. Canadian Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System (WHMIS)
50. Which of the following statements regarding military markings is
MOST accurate? (140)
A. Military markings are always uniform.
B. Military markings are found on all buildings within a military base.
C. Military markings are interchangeable with DOT and TC transportation
markings.
D. Military markings are used on fixed facilities and may be seen on military
vehicles.
 51. Where are pipeline markers required? (141)
A. Where pipelines cross under roads
B. Where pipelines come near waterways
C. Where pipelines run parallel to railroads
D. Where pipelines run for stretches longer than 1 mile (1.6 km)
52. Pesticide labels must contain the signal word CAUTION for
pesticides with: (141)
A. low toxicity.
B. moderate toxicity.
C. highly toxic materials.
D. flash points below 80°F (27°C).
53. What does the color orange indicate in the ANSI Z535.1 standard?
(144)
A. Stop
B. Danger
C. Caution
D. Warning

Objective 6:
Explain the written resources available to indicate the presence
of hazardous materials.
54. Which of the following must be found on shipping papers?
(144-145)
A. First aid information
B. Manufacturer of material
C. Proper shipping name of material
D. Requirements for storage and disposal
55. Which written resources are often the best sources of detailed
chemical information to which firefighters have access? (148)
A. Shipping papers
B. Inventory records
C. Safety data sheets (SDSs)
D.
 56. Which of the following is required on safety data sheets (SDSs)?
(148)
A. Manufacturer point of contact
B. Radiological exposure hazards
C. Physical and chemical properties
D. Manufacturer address and phone number
57. Which of the following statements regarding the ​
is MOST accurate? (149)
A. The ​ was developed by OSHA and TC.
B. The ​ is primarily designed for use at air and waterway incidents.
C. The ​ addresses all possible circumstances that may be associated with
a hazardous materials incident.
D. The ​ is designed for use by those who may be the first to arrive at the
scene of a hazardous materials incident.

Objective 7:
Discuss the limitations of using the senses to determine the
presence or absence of hazardous materials.
58. Which of the following is a visual clue that PHYSICAL actions and
reactions are taking place? (151)
A. Exothermic heat
B. Extraordinary fire conditions
C. Rainbow sheen on water surfaces
D. Unusual or unexpected temperature drop
59. Which of the following is a visual clue that CHEMICAL actions and
reactions are taking place? (152)
A. Frost or ice buildup near a leak
B. Distinctively colored vapor clouds
C. Wavy vapors over a volatile liquid
D. Containers deformed by the force of an accident
60. Which of the following is a physical sign and symptom of chemical
exposure to hazardous materials? (152)
A. Hair loss
B. Hearing disturbances
C. Foaming of the mouth
D. Changes in respiration

Objective 8:
Discuss monitoring and detection devices.
61. Which of the following statements regarding the use of monitoring
and detection devices is MOST accurate? (152)
A. Detection devices require actual contact with the material.
B. Detection devices are extremely unreliable and should be used sparingly.
 C. Detection devices are not often used to determine the presence of
hazardous materials.
D. Detection devices are often used by Awareness-Level personnel to
determine the concentrations of particular hazardous materials.

Objective 9:
Analyze scenarios to detect the presence of hazardous materials.

Objective 10:
Interpret representative shipping papers.

Objective 11:
Interpret a safety data sheet (SDS).

Objectives 9-11 are measured in Learning Activities 2-1 through 2-3.

Objective 12:
Explain how to identify terrorist attacks and illicit laboratories.
62. Which of the following is the difference between hazardous
materials incidents and terrorist incidents? (153)
A. Hazardous materials incidents specifically target people.
B. Terrorist incidents have a lower risk of contaminated victims.
C. Terrorists specifically target the public, first responders, or both.
D. Hazardous materials incidents typically have a higher level of risk from
structural collapse hazards.
 63. Which of the following is a cue to the possibility of a terrorist
attack? (153-154)
A. Large number of sick people in one area of town
B. Report of medical emergency in a public location
C. Reported explosion at office building or government building
D. Large number of people arriving at physicians’ offices or medical
emergency rooms
64. Which of the following is an indicator of a chemical attack?
(154-155)
A. Presentation of specific unusual diseases
B. Dissemination of unscheduled or unusual spray
C. Illnesses associated with a common source of food, water, or location
D. Unexplained odors or tastes that are out of character with the
surroundings
65. Which of the following is an indicator of a biological attack? (156)
A. Casualty distribution aligned with wind direction
B. Unusual security, locks, bars on windows, or covered windows
C. Suspicious packages that appear to weight more than they should
D. Surfaces exhibiting oily droplets or films and unexplained oily film on
water surfaces
66. Which of the following is an indicator of a radiological attack? (157)
A. Mushroom cloud
B. Incendiary device or bomb components
C. Presence of propane or other flammable gas cylinders in unusual locations
D. Material that is hot or seems to emit heat without any sign of an external
heat source
67. Which of the following is an indicator of a nuclear attack? (158)
A. Craters
B. Glowing material
C. Unusually fast burning fires
D. Exceptionally large/powerful explosion
 68. Which of the following is an indicator of an explosive/incendiary
attack? (158-159)
A. Electromagnetic pulse
B. Abandoned spray devices
C. Fragmentation damage/injury
D. Individuals exhibiting signs and symptoms of radiation exposure
69. Which of the following is an exterior clue to the presence of illicit
laboratories? (160)
A. Discarded chemical containers
B. Excessive numbers of vehicles at the residence
C. Large number of storage sheds behind main residence
D. Large quantities of dead shrubs, trees, and flowers in the area
70. Which of the following is a way to protect against possible
secondary attacks at terrorist attacks? (161-162)
A. Remove all items that may be used to conceal an explosive device
B. Search for a secondary device after the incident has been resolved
C. Evacuate victims and nonessential personnel as quickly as possible
D. Remove all personnel from the area until the bomb squad can search the
area

Chapter 3 - Awareness-Level Actions at Hazardous Materials

Incidents

Objective 1:
Discuss predetermined procedures and emergency response
plans.
1. What is the purpose of predetermined procedures? (169)
A. To spell out the role of personnel at emergency incidents
B. To provide a place for critiques and follow-up of responses
to an emergency services
C. To detail the security issues that may be encountered at a
hazardous materials incident
D. To specify the training that must be done before personnel
can respond to emergency incidents

2. Which of the following statements regarding predetermined

procedures is MOST accurate? (169)
A. The principles are similar for every predetermined
procedure.
B. The procedures are similar for every predetermined
procedure.
 C. The principles are exactly the same for every predetermined
procedure.
D. The procedures are exactly the same for every
predetermined procedure.

3. Predetermined procedures must be ___ to be effective.

(169)
A. written
B. verbalized
C. unchanging
D. directed by Command
 4. Which of the following is a function of predetermined
plans? (170)
A. They are usually initialized by the first officer on the scene.
B. They must be unchanging and without flexibility to be
effective.
C. They prevent duplication of effort and uncoordinated
operations.
D. They are based on those things that are different about each
hazardous materials incident.

Objective 2:
Describe notification requirements.
5. Which of the following statements regarding notification
requirements is MOST accurate? (170)
A. Notification requirements are the same regardless of facility
type.
B. Notification requirements should be defined in
predetermined procedures.
C. Notification requirements can only be initialized by the fire
chief or chief officer.
D. The first call at a hazardous materials incident should always
be to the bomb squad.

Objective 3:
Discuss the use of the ​
6. Which of the following is a function of the ​ ? (171)
A. Designed for use at incidents occurring at fixed-facilities
B. Based on conditions commonly associated with fixed-facility
locations
C. Addresses all possible circumstances associated with a
dangerous goods/hazardous materials incident
D. Aids emergency responders in quickly identifying specific or
generic hazards of materials involved in an emergency incident

7. Which pages of the ​ provide an index list of hazardous

materials in numerical order of ID number? (172)
A. Blue pages
B. Green pages
C. Yellow pages
D. Orange pages
8. Which pages of the ​ provide an index of dangerous
goods in alphabetical order by material name? (172)
A. Blue pages
B. Green pages
C. Yellow pages
D. Orange pages

9. Which pages of the ​ provide safety recommendations

and general hazards information? (172)
A. Blue pages
B. Green pages
C. Yellow pages
D. Orange pages

10. Which pages of the ​ contain a table that lists toxic

inhalation hazard (TIH) materials? (177)
A. Blue pages
B. Green pages
C. Yellow pages
D. Orange pages

11. What does it mean if the material in the yellow or blue index
of the ​ is highlighted? (172)
A. It is radioactive.
B. It is extremely flammable.
C. It releases gases that are TIH materials.
D. It should never be handled by Awareness-Level personnel.

12. Which of the following is located on the lefthand page of the

orange pages of the ​ ? (172)
A. First aid
B. Safety related information
C. Guidance for fire situations
D. Guidance for spill or leak incidents

13. Which section of the orange pages of the ​ should be

consulted first? (173)
A. First aid section
B. Public safety section
C. Potential hazards section
D. Emergency response section
14. Which section of the orange pages provides general
information regarding immediate isolation of the incident site and
recommended type of protective clothing and respiratory protection?
(173)
A. Fire section
B. Spill or leak section
C. Public safety section
D. Potential hazards section

15. The initial isolation distance is the distance within which all
persons should be considered for evacuation in which direction?
(173)
A. North of the incident
B. Upwind of the incident
C. Downwind of the incident
D. In all directions from the incident

16. Small spills are defined as those that involve a single, small
package of up to ___ gallons (L). (177)
A. 25 (95)
B. 35 (132)
C. 45 (170)
D. 55 (208)

17. Initial isolation distances will always be at least ___ feet (m).
(179)
A. 50 (15)
B. 100 (30)
C. 150 (45)
D. 200 (60)

18. Which of the following is the national, bilingual advisory

response center used in Canada? (179)
A. SETIQ
B. CANUTEC
C. CENACOM
D. CHEMTREC​®

19. Which of the following emergency response centers is not

government operated? (179)
A. SETIQ
B. CANUTEC
 C. CENACOM
D. CHEMTREC​®

20. Which of the following must be provided when calling an

emergency response center? (179)
A. Exact time of incident
B. Manufacturer of material involved
C. Location and nature of the problem
D. Color/density of the material released

21. Which of the following responses would be provided by an

emergency response center? (180)
A. Confirm that a chemical emergency exists
B. Refer the caller to the shipper or manufacturer
C. Transfer the call to the shipper of the material
D. Provide technical assistance to the caller at a later time or
date

Objective 4:
Obtain information about a hazardous material using the ​ .

This objective is measured in Skill Sheet 3-1.

Objective 5:
Describe isolation and discuss denial of entry.
22. Which of the following defines isolation? (181)
A. Does not include defending in place or sheltering in place
B. Evacuating personnel and citizens in all directions from the
haz mat spill or leak source
C. Evacuating all contaminated or potentially contaminated
individuals to the local hospital or medical center.
D. Physically securing and maintaining the emergency scene by
establishing isolation perimeters and denying entry to
unauthorized persons
 23. Which of the following statements regarding the
isolation perimeter is MOST accurate? (181-182)
A. Once set, the isolation perimeter may not be moved.
B. The isolation perimeter is used to control access, but not
egress.
C. The isolation perimeter can only be set up by the superior
officer.
D. The isolation perimeter may be set up with ropes, cones, or
barrier tape.

Objective 6:
Discuss terrorist incidents.
24. Which of the following statements regarding terrorist
incidents is MOST accurate? (182)
A. Terrorist incidents may require unique actions.
B. Terrorist incidents are similar to hazardous materials
incidents.
C. Terrorist incidents do not fall under the protection of
hazardous materials responders.
D. Terrorist incidents must be treated similarly to ordinary
hazardous materials incidents.

25. Which of the following is a duty of Awareness-Level

personnel and Operations-Level responders at terrorist incidents?
(182-183)
A. Collecting evidence at the crime scene
B. Taking witness accounts and statements at the scene
C. Allowing only hazardous materials responders entry to the
incident
D. Preventing contaminated persons and animals from leaving
the scene

Chapter 4 - Chemical Properties and Hazardous Materials

Behavior

Objective 1:
Discuss the three states of matter.
1. Which state of matter is a fluid that has neither independent
shape nor volume? (193)
A. Gas
 B. Solid
C. Vapor
D. Liquid

2. Which state of matter is a fluid that has no independent

shape but does have a specific volume? (193)
A. Gas
B. Solid
C. Vapor
D. Liquid

3. Which state of matter is a substance that has both a specific

shape and volume? (193)
A. Gas
B. Solid
C. Vapor
D. Liquid

4. Gas potentially presents a (an) ___ hazard. (193)

A. contact
B. ingestion
C. inhalation
D. penetration
 5. Which state of matter is difficult, if not impossible, to
contain for mitigation purposes? (193)
A. Gas
B. Solid
C. Vapor
D. Liquid

6. Liquids flow in accordance with the laws of: (193)

A. inertia.
B. gravity.
C. physics.
D. conservation.

7. Liquids are primarily a (an) ___ hazard. (194)

A. contact
B. ingestion
C. inhalation
D. penetration

8. Which state of matter will typically remain in place unless

acted upon? (194)
A. Gas
B. Solid
C. Vapor
D. Liquid

Objective 2:
Discuss the flammability of various hazardous materials.
9. Which of the following is the minimum temperature at which
a liquid or volatile solid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable
mixture with air near its surface? (194)
A. Fire point
B. Flash point
C. Vapor pressure
D. Autoignition temperature
 10. Which of the following is the minimum temperature to
which the fuel in the air must be heated to initiate self-sustained
combustion without initiation from an independent ignition source?
(197)
A. Fire point
B. Flash point
C. Boiling point
D. Autoignition temperature

11. The autoignition temperature of a material is ___ than its

flash and fire point. (197)
A. the same
B. slightly higher
C. considerably lower
D. considerably higher

12. Which of the following is NOT a term for the percentage of

gas or vapor concentration in air that will burn or explode if ignited?
(198)
A. Ignition range
B. Explosive range
C. Flammable range
D. Combustible range

Objective 3:
Describe vapor pressure.
13. Vapor pressure is the: (200)
A. pressure at which a chemical ignites or explodes.
B. pressure exerted by a saturated vapor above its own liquid
in a closed container.
C. temperature at which a liquid within a container is heated,
causing the material inside to boil or vaporize.
D. temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid is equal
to or greater than atmospheric pressure.

14. Vapor pressure can be viewed as the measure of the

tendency of a substance to: (200)
A. boil.
B. explode.
C. combust.
D. evaporate.
 15. The higher the temperature of the substance, the ___ the
vapor pressure will be. (200)
A. lower
B. higher
C. less explosive
D. more explosive

Objective 4:
Explain boiling point.
16. Boiling point is the: (202)
A. pressure at which a chemical ignites or explodes.
B. pressure exerted by a saturated vapor above its own liquid
in a closed container.
C. temperature at which a liquid within a container is heated,
causing the material inside to boil or vaporize.
D. temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid is equal
to or greater than atmospheric pressure.

17. Which of the following can occur when a liquid within a

container is heated, causing the material inside to boil or vaporize?
(202)
A. Boiling expanding vapor explosion (BEVE)
B. Catastrophic expanding liquid explosion (CELE)
C. Boiling liquid expanding vapor explosion (BLEVE)
D. Catastrophic liquid expanding vapor explosion (CLEVE)

Objective 5:
Define melting point, freezing point, and sublimation.
18. Which of the following is the temperature at which a solid
substance changes to a liquid state at normal atmospheric pressure?
(202)
A. Sublimation
B. Boiling point
C. Melting point
D. Freezing point
 19. Which of the following is the temperature at which
liquid becomes solid at normal atmospheric pressure? (203)
A. Sublimation
B. Boiling point
C. Melting point
D. Freezing point

20. Which of the following is a change directly from solid to gas

without going into a liquid state in between? (203)
A. Boiling
B. Melting
C. Freezing
D. Sublimation

Objective 6:
Describe vapor density.
21. Vapor density is the weight of a given volume of pure vapor
or gas compared to the weight of an equal volume of ___ at the
same temperature and pressure. (204)
A. dry air
B. humid air
C. boiling water
D. freezing water

22. Vapor density ___ indicates a vapor lighter than air. (204)
A. less than 1
B. less than 10
C. greater than 1
D. greater than 10
Objective 7:
Define solubility and miscibility.
23. Which of the following is the percentage of a material (by
weight) that will dissolve in water at ambient temperature? (205)
A. Solubility
B. Miscibility
C. Vapor solubility
D. Specific miscibility

24. Which of the following affects whether the substance mixes

with water? (205)
A. Solubility
B. Miscibility
C. Vapor solubility
D. Specific miscibility

25. Which of the following is the degree or readiness to which

two or more gases or liquids are able to mix with or dissolve into
each other? (205)
A. Solubility
B. Miscibility
C. Vapor solubility
D. Specific miscibility

Objective 8:
Discuss specific gravity.
26. Specific gravity is the: (205)
A. weight of a given volume of pure vapor or gas.
B. ability of a substance to remain in the environment.
C. relative ability to undergo a chemical reaction with another
material.
D. ratio of the density of a material to the density of some
standard material at standard conditions of pressure and
temperature.
Objective 9:
Define persistence.
27. Which of the following is persistence? (207)
A. The weight of a given volume of pure vapor or gas
B. The ability of a substance to remain in the environment
C. The relative ability to undergo a chemical reaction with
another material
D. The ratio of the density of a material to the density of some
standard material at standard conditions of pressure and
temperature

Objective 10:
Define reactivity and describe the reactivity triangle.
28. Reactivity is the: (207)
A. weight of a given volume of pure vapor or gas
B. ability of a substance to remain in the environment
C. relative ability to undergo a chemical reaction with another
material
D. ratio of the density of a material to the density of some
standard material at standard conditions of pressure and
temperature

29. Which of the following is NOT a result of reactivity? (207)

A. BLEVE
B. Pressure buildup
C. Temperature increase
D. Formation of toxic byproducts

30. Which of the following is NOT a part of the reactivity

triangle? (207-208)
A. Oxidizing agent
B. Reducing agent
C. Chemical chain reaction
D. Activation energy source
 Objective 11:
Describe the General Hazardous Materials Behavior Model.
31. The General Hazardous Materials Behavior Model (GEBMO)
explains that all hazardous materials incidents: (211)
A. are the same.
B. are very different.
C. have common elements.
D. require the same mitigation actions.

32. According to GEBMO, which of the following is a question

that should be asked by first responders at haz mat incidents? (214)
A. What resources are nearby?
B. How long will the incident last?
C. What is stressing the container?
D. What type of foam is necessary?

33. Hazardous materials incidents generally follow which

sequence? (214-215)
A. Stress-Breach-Release-Dispersion-Exposure-Harm
B. Breach-Release-Stress-Exposure-Dispersion-Harm
C. Harm-Stress-Breach-Dispersion-Release-Exposure
D. Release-Exposure-Breach-Stress-Dispersion-Harm

34. Stress causes almost ___ of all reported haz mat incidents.
(215)
A. ⅛
B. ¼
C. ½
D. ⅝

35. Which of the following is NOT a common stressor?

(215-216)
A. Thermal
B. Chemical
C. Biological
D. Mechanical

36. Which of the following is a clue of thermal stress? (215)

A. Visible corrosion
B. Physical damage
C. Mechanism of injury
D. Operation of a relief device
37. Which of the following is a clue of mechanical stress? (216)
A. Operation of relief devices
B. Degradation of container surfaces
C. Observation of flame impingement
D. Changing environmental conditions

38. A breach is dependent on the: (216)

A. type of container.
B. size of the container.
C. ambient temperatures.
D. hazardous materials involved.

39. Which type of breach occurs when a container suffers a loss

of integrity? (216)
A. Split
B. Puncture
C. Disintegration
D. Runaway cracking

40. Which type of breach is caused by corrosive action of an

acid on steel? (217)
A. Puncture
B. Split or tear
C. Metal reduction
D. Runaway cracking

41. Which of the following is NOT one of the things that may
release when a container fails? (217)
A. Energy
B. Product
C. Container
D. Vapor pressure

42. Which type of release is an instantaneous and explosive

release of stored chemical energy of a hazardous material? (217)
A. Spill/leak
B. Detonation
C. Rapid relief
D. Violent rupture
 43. Which type of release is a fast release of pressurized
hazardous material through properly operating safety devices? (218)
A. Spill/leak
B. Detonation
C. Rapid relief
D. Violent rupture

44. Dispersion depends on all of the following EXCEPT: (218)

A. physical laws.
B. chemical laws.
C. time of release.
D. type of release.

45. Which dispersion pattern is a semicircular or dome-shaped

pattern of airborne hazardous material that is still partially in contact
with ground or water? (219)
A. Cone
B. Cloud
C. Stream
D. Hemispheric

46. Which dispersion pattern is an irregularly shaped pattern of

an airborne hazardous material where wind and/or topography
influence the downrange course from the point of release? (220)
A. Pool
B. Plume
C. Stream
D. Irregular

47. Which dispersion pattern is a three-dimensional,

slow-following liquid dispersion? (222)
A. Pool
B. Cone
C. Cloud
D. Stream

48. Which of the following is NOT a type of exposure? (224)

A. People
B. Animals
C. Property
D. Environment
 49. Deflagration is generally associated with a (an) ___
exposure timeframe. (224)
A. immediate
B. short-term
C. medium-term
D. long-term

50. Which exposure timeframe includes days, weeks, or months?

(224)
A. immediate
B. short-term
C. medium-term
D. long-term

Chapter 5 - Incident Management

Objective 1:
Describe incident priorities.
1. What is the FIRST priority for all haz mat incidents? (233)
A. Life safety
B. Incident stabilization
C. Protection of property
D. Protection of the environment

2. Which of the following statements regarding life safety is

MOST accurate? (234)
A. Life safety always has the lowest priority.
B. Life safety is only a consideration during size-up.
C. Life safety of the public comes before life safety of
responders.
D. Life safety must be a consideration from the incident report
until termination.

3. Which of the following is NOT a variable in weighing the life

safety of responders vs. the life safety of the public? (234)
A. Difficulty of rescue
B. Probability of rescue
C. Risk to general public
D. Constraints of time and distance
Objective 2:
Discuss various incident management systems.
4. Incident management systems enable emergency personnel
to effectively manage: (235)
A. any emergency incident.
B. most emergency incidents.
C. most hazardous materials incidents.
D. emergency incidents without injuries.

5. Incident management systems require a span of control of:

(235)
A. 3 to 5.
B. 3 to 7.
C. 5 to 10.
D. 7 to 10.

6. Which of the following provide the means to communicate

the overall incident strategies, tactics, and tasks? (236)
A. Pre-incident plans
B. Predetermined procedures
C. Incident Action Plans (IAPs)
D. Standard operating procedures (SOPs)

7. Which of the following statements regarding U.S. NIMS is

MOST accurate? (238)
A. NIMS builds from the ground up.
B. NIMS is only applicable to small incidents.
C. NIMS is only applicable to large-scale incidents.
D. NIMS was adopted after the Oklahoma City bombing in
1995.

8. The National Response Framework (NRF) incorporates the

best practices and procedures from all of the following disciplines
EXCEPT: (238-239)
A. fire fighting.
B. law enforcement.
C. homeland security.
D. environmental agencies.
 9. What is the basic premise of the NRF? (239)
A. Incidents build from the ground up.
B. Incidents progress from small-scale to large-scale.
C. Incidents are generally handled at the lowest jurisdictional
level possible.
D. Incidents are generally handled at the highest jurisdictional
level possible.

10. Which of the following NRF groups is responsible for

coordinating federal assistance and supporting incident management
activities locally? (240)
A. Homeland Security Council
B. Unified Coordination Group
C. Regional Response Coordination Center
D. Interagency Incident Management Group

11. Which of the following NRF resources provide medical care

following a nuclear, biological, and/or chemical incident? (242)
A. Disaster Medical Assistance Teams
B. Disaster Mortuary Operational Response Teams
C. Weapons of Mass Destruction-Civil Support Teams
D. National Medical Response Team-Weapons of Mass
Destruction

12. Which of the following is a duty of the Weapons of Mass

Destruction-Civil Support Teams? (241)
A. Provide mass casualty decontamination
B. Provide emergency medical care to the injured
C. Provide an extensive communications capability
D. Provide full logistical support for receiving and distribution
centers

13. Which IMS function directs, orders, and controls resources

by virtue of explicit legal, agency, or delegated authority? (243)
A. Planning
B. Logistics
C. Command
D. Operations
 14. Which Command level identifies the objectives that
must be achieved to meet the strategic goals? (243)
A. Task level
B. Tactical level
C. Strategic level
D. Objective level

15. Which of the following is a function of the incident

commander (IC) at a haz mat incident? (244)
A. Perform decontamination
B. Establish a site safety plan
C. Revise the IAP as necessary
D. Review the IAP for safety issues

16. Which of the following is a function of the safety officer?

(246)
A. Establish a site safety plan
B. Establish a decontamination plan and operation
C. Identify hazardous situations at the incident scene
D. Ensure that all emergency responders wear appropriate PPE

17. Safety briefings at typical incidents should include:

(246-247)
A. availability of supplies.
B. identification of hazards.
C. type and location of resources.
D. correct communications guidelines.

18. Which of the following is the area to which information flows

and from which orders are issued? (247)
A. Safety post
B. Staging area
C. Incident post
D. Command post

19. Which of the following is a unit of the planning section?

(248)
A. Support Unit
B. Supplies Unit
C. Resources Unit
D. Equipment Unit
 20. Which of the following is the area where personnel
and equipment awaiting assignment to the incident are held? (249)
A. Staging area
B. Resource area
C. Command post
D. Operations post

21. Which of the following can assume command of an incident?

(250)
A. Highest EMS officer on scene
B. First driver/operator on scene
C. Highest ranking officer en route to the scene
D. Ranking individual of first company on scene

22. At a hazardous materials incident, the IC must be trained to:

(250)
A. Fire Officer II.
B. Fire Fighter II.
C. Awareness Level.
D. Operations Level.

23. Which of the following statements regarding the transfer of

command is MOST accurate? (250)
A. Command may be transferred by radio.
B. Command must be transferred face-to-face.
C. In dire situations, command can be transferred to someone
en route to the scene.
D. Command is automatically transferred when a
higher-ranking officer arrives on scene.

24. Which of the following accomplishes control of an incident

involving multiple agencies with overlapping authority and
responsibility? (251)
A. Unified Command
B. Incident Command
C. Unified management system
D. Incident management system

25. Which actions should be taken by all agencies that have a

jurisdictional responsibility at a multijurisdictional incident? (251-252)
A. Use only local resources
B. Ensure integrated tactical operations
C. Create contact lists for emergency response centers
 D. Determine specific steps for mitigating each type of incident

26. Which of the following is NOT an agency that may be

involved in controlling hazardous material incidents? (252)
A. Fire service
B. Utilities and public works
C. Private insurance agencies
D. Privately contracted cleanup and salvage companies

27. In Unified Command, the responsible or lead agency should

be identified: (252)
A. upon arrival at the scene.
B. before the incident happens.
C. while en route to the incident.
D. after the strategic goals have been determined.

28. Which IMS haz mat position supervises all companies and
personnel operating in the hazardous area? (254)
A. Entry leader
B. Assistant Safety Officer
C. Site Access Control Leader
D. Hazardous Materials Branch Director/Group Supervisor

Objective 3:
Identify communication procedures and guidelines for use at
hazardous materials incidents.
29. Which of the following should be used for radio traffic? (255)
A. 10-codes
B. Signal codes
C. Plain language
D. Technical jargon

30. Which of the following is a CORRECT radio procedure?

(255-256)
A. Transmit only essential information
B. Use a single channel for large incidents
C. Use several channels for routine incidents
D. Speak over the telecommunicator when transmitting
important information
 31. Which of the following may be used to order an
evacuation? (257)
A. Sound audible warning devices
B. Use a bullhorn to broadcast the message
C. Transmit the message by pager or cell phone
D. Transfer the message through the Safety Officer

32. An external communication system facilitates communication

between: (258)
A. onsite personnel.
B. the IC and group leaders.
C. onsite and offsite personnel.
D. the command post and the IC.

Chapter 6 - Strategic Goals and Tactical Objectives

Objective 1:
Describe each of the steps of the basic problem-solving formula.
1. Which of the following is the first step in most
problem-solving models? (267)
A. Analysis
B. Processing
C. Implementation
D. Information gathering

2. In hazardous materials incidents, what key piece of

information is most critical? (270)
A. Identity of the hazardous materials
B. Quantity of hazardous material spilled
C. Emergency response center contact number
D. Location of the nearest hazardous material response team

3. Which of the following is the mental process of considering

all available factors that will affect an incident during the course of
the operation? (271)
A. Size-up
B. Scene analysis
C. Risk assessment
D. Hazard assessment

4. Which of the following is necessary size-up information that

can be obtained at the time the incident is reported? (273)
A. Unusual signs
B. Product travel
C. Amount of product involved
D. Number and type of injuries
 5. When should the incident level be determined? (275)
A. After initial size-up
B. Before initial size-up
C. After establishing strategic goals
D. After establishing tactical objectives

6. Which incident level is within the capabilities of the fire and

emergency services organization? (275)
A. Level I
B. Level II
C. Level III
D. Level IV

7. Strategic goals and tactical objectives should be based on all

of the following EXCEPT their ability to: (279)
A. be achieved.
B. utilize the least number of resources.
C. prevent further injuries and/or deaths.
D. minimize environmental and property damage.

8. Which of the following is a principle of risk-based response?

(280)
A. Activities that present a significant safety risk are never
acceptable
B. Activities that present a significant safety risk shall be limited
to situations involving property protection
C. No risk to the safety of members shall be acceptable when
there is no possibility to save lives or property
D. No risk to the safety of members shall be acceptable unless
property or the environment is endangered

9. The selection of a mode of operation is based on: (280)

A. level of training.
B. risk to the public.
C. risk to the environment.
D. number of potential victims involved.
 10. Which factor in determining modes of operation is
stated in terms of YES or NO? (281)
A. Size
B. Time
C. Value
D. Life safety

11. Which of the following circumstances calls for defensive

operations? (282)
A. Explosions are imminent
B. Serious container damage threatens a massive release
C. The situation is clearly beyond the capabilities of responders
D. Responders have the training and equipment necessary to
confine the incident to the area of origin

12. In which of the following modes of operation do responders

take aggressive, direct action? (283)
A. Offensive
B. Defensive
C. Intervening
D. Nonintervening

13. Which of the following is NOT an element of an incident

action plan (IAP)? (284-285)
A. Accomplishments
B. After-action analysis
C. Resource assignment
D. Safety plan and message

14. When should the IAP be implemented? (285)

A. After evaluating the progress
B. After terminating the incident
C. After selecting strategic goals
D. Before selecting tactical objectives
Objective 2:
Discuss isolation and scene control.
15. Which of the following statements regarding the isolation
perimeter is MOST accurate? (286)
A. The isolation perimeter is static and cannot be changed.
B. The isolation perimeter is comprised of three separate
circles.
C. The isolation perimeter is used only to control egress from
the incident site.
D. The isolation perimeter is determined by the outcome of an
on-site risk assessment.

16. Which of the following zones includes the area surrounding

an incident that is potentially very dangerous because it presents a
threat in the form of a hazardous material or the effects thereof?
(288)
A. Hot
B. Cold
C. Warm
D. Scene-control

17. The work performed within the hot zone is limited to: (288)
A. command staff.
B. first responders.
C. highly trained personnel.
D. emergency medical personnel.

18. Which of the following zones is used to carry out all logistical
support functions of the incident? (290)
A. Hot
B. Cold
C. Warm
D. Scene-control

19. Where should the staging area be located? (290)

A. Outside of all three hazard zones
B. At an isolated spot in the cold zone
C. At a point of egress in the warm zone
D. At a central location within the hot zone
Objective 3:
Explain the notification process.
20. Notification involves contacting ___ whenever a terrorist or
criminal incident is suspected. (292)
A. law enforcement
B. federal authorities
C. emergency medical services
D. the authority having jurisdiction

21. In the U.S., the notification process is described in: (293)

A. NFPA​®​ 1001.
B. a local emergency response plan (LERP).
C. the National Response Framework (NRF).
D. the ​ .

22. Which of the following should be the first response a U.S.

responder should turn to if they need to request outside assistance?
(293)
A. The local emergency response plan (LERP)
B. The National Response Framework (NRF)
C. The Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG)
D. The Department of Homeland Security (DHS)

Objective 4:
Discuss protection of responders, the public, the environment,
and property.
23. Protection goals are accomplished by: (293-294)
A. providing decontamination.
B. making arrests when necessary.
C. collecting evidence at the scene.
D. keeping all personnel within the hot zone.

24. Which of the following is the FIRST priority at any incident?

(295)
A. Protection of property
B. Protection of the public
C. Protection of responders
D. Protection of the environment
 25. Which of the following is NOT a measure to protect
responders? (295)
A. Assigning safety officers
B. Wearing appropriate PPE
C. Evacuating all personnel from the hazard zone
D. Staying uphill, upwind, and upstream of hazardous materials

26. Who is primarily responsible for an accountability system?

(295)
A. First responders
B. The Safety Officer
C. The officer in charge
D. The Incident Commander

27. Which of the following measures to protect responders

provides rapid help in the event of an emergency? (296)
A. Buddy systems
B. Backup personnel
C. Accountability systems
D. Time, distance, and shielding

28. Which of the following statements regarding backup

personnel is MOST accurate? (296)
A. Backup personnel should include at least five members.
B. Backup personnel should include advanced life support
personnel.
C. Backup personnel should be dressed in PPE at least one level
above entry personnel.
D. Backup personnel shall be standing by with equipment ready
to provide assistance if needed.

29. Which protection strategy places a physical barrier between

a responder and the hazard? (297)
A. Time
B. Distance
C. Shielding
D. Hazard-control zone
 30. What is the FEMA US&R signal for evacuation?
(297-298)
A. One long blast
B. Two long blasts
C. Three short blasts
D. One long and one short blast

31. Protection of the public is based on which of the following

factors? (298)
A. Time of day
B. Location of victims
C. Probability of rescue
D. Material considerations

32. Which of the following should be used to determine who is

most threatened by the incident? (299)
A. Age of victims
B. Status of victims
C. Standard operating procedures (SOPs)
D.

33. Which means of protecting the public means to direct people

to go quickly inside a building and remain inside until danger passes?
(301)
A. Rescue
B. Evacuation
C. Sheltering in place
D. Defending in place

34. Protection of property and the environment is what type of

control tactic? (303)
A. Offensive
B. Defensive
C. Intervention
D. Non-intervention

35. In order to protect the environment, all released materials

and runoff need to be confined until: (304)
A. the incident is over.
B. their effect can be determined.
C. wildlife in the area can be removed.
D. at least one week after the initial incident.
Objective 5:
Describe recovery and termination.
36. Which of the following deals with returning the incident
scene and responders to a pre-incident level of readiness? (304)
A. Analysis
B. Recovery
C. Debriefing
D. Termination

37. What information should be included in an on-scene

debriefing? (305)
A. Important observations
B. Proper documentation of costs
C. Signs and symptoms of an exposure
D. Exposure documentation procedures

38. Which of the following is mandated by OSHA? (305)

A. On-scene recovery
B. On-scene debriefing
C. After-action analysis
D. Hazardous communication briefing

39. Which of the following involves documenting the incident

and using this information to evaluate the response? (306)
A. Analysis
B. Recovery
C. Evaluation
D. Termination

40. Which of the following is the purpose of a critique? (306)

A. To place blame
B. To identify operational deficiencies
C. To determine operational strengths
D. To compile information obtained from reports and
debriefings

41. Which of the following forms the basis for improved

response? (306)
A. On-scene critique
B. On-scene debriefing
C. After-action analysis
D. Hazardous communication briefing
Chapter 7 - Terrorist Attacks, Criminal Activities, and Disasters

Objective 1:
Define terrorism.
1. Which of the following is NOT an element of terrorism?
(313)
A. Actions intend to intimidate or coerce
B. Activities are illegal and involve the use of force
C. Activities are performed by large groups of extremists
D. Actions are committed in support of political or social
objectives

2. Which of the following is a characteristic of terrorism? (313)

A. Performed only by individuals
B. Have an emotional effect on the target population
C. Designed to draw attention to the target population
D. Used to form an alliance with the official government

Objective 2:
Distinguish between a terrorist attack and a routine emergency.
3. Which of the following is a key difference between routine
emergencies and a terrorist attack? (314-315)
A. Location
B. Affected population
C. Length of response
D. Command structure

4. In which of the following ways are routine emergencies

different from terrorism attacks? (314)
A. Routine emergencies may involve secondary contamination.
B. Terrorist attacks do not require a unified command
structure.
C. Terrorist attacks intend to cause damage, inflict harm, and
kill.
D. Routine emergencies may include a larger number of
casualties.
 Objective 3:
Discuss terrorist tactics and types of attacks.
5. Which of the following is a newer tactic being used by
terrorists? (316)
A. Bombings
B. Assassination
C. Agroterrorism
D. Armed assault

6. Which of the following statements regarding weapons of

mass destruction (WMDs) is MOST accurate? (317)
A. They are easily manufactured.
B. They are inexpensively created.
C. They are created with easy-to-acquire materials.
D. They require high levels of technical expertise to construct.

7. Which of the following presents the HIGHEST WMD threat

reality? (318)
A. Explosives
B. Biological toxins
C. Industrial chemicals
D. Radiological materials

Objective 4:
Discuss explosive attacks.
8. Explosive devices are: (319)
A. difficult to construct.
B. expensive to construct.
C. designed to kill, maim, or destroy property.
D. designed to poison people or the environment.

9. Which of the following results when a material undergoes a

physical or chemical reaction that releases rapidly expanding gases?
(319)
A. Explosion
B. Shock front
C. Pressure shock
D. Blast-pressure wave
 10. Which of the following occurs when expanding gases
move outward in a circle, compressing the surrounding atmosphere?
(319-320)
A. Explosion
B. Shock front
C. Positive-pressure blast
D. Negative-pressure blast

11. Which of the following is created when displaced

atmosphere rushes in to fill the vacuum left at the center of the
explosion? (320)
A. Shock front
B. Pressure blast
C. Positive-pressure phase
D. Negative-pressure phase

12. High explosives decompose: (322)

A. slowly.
B. rapidly.
C. slowly, but with no explosive effect.
D. rapidly, but with no explosive effect.

13. Which types of explosives are easily initiated and highly

sensitive to heat? (322)
A. Primary
B. Tertiary
C. Secondary
D. Military-grade

14. Which types of explosives are designed to detonate only

under specific circumstances? (322)
A. Primary
B. Tertiary
C. Secondary
D. Military-grade

15. Which of the following statements regarding homemade

explosive materials is MOST accurate? (323)
A. They are very difficult to create.
B. They typically use commercial explosives.
C. They require very little technical expertise to create.
D. They are typically made by combining an oxidizer with an
inert substance.
 16. Which homemade explosive materials are very
dangerous to make and handle and are very unstable during the
manufacturing process? (323)
A. Urea nitrate
B. Peroxide nitrate
C. Peroxide-based explosives
D. Potassium chlorate explosives

17. Which of the following statements regarding improvised

explosive devices (IEDs) is MOST accurate? (328)
A. They are difficult to create.
B. They are a fertilizer-based explosive.
C. They are commercially manufactured.
D. They are usually constructed for a specific target.

18. IEDs are typically categorized by their: (329)

A. container.
B. size and shape.
C. type of explosive.
D. detonating device.

19. Which of the following are perhaps the most devastating of

all IEDs? (329)
A. Pipe bombs
B. Vehicle bombs
C. Package bombs
D. Person-borne bombs

20. Which of the following can come in any style, color, or size
of container and is used often because of commonality of items?
(330)
A. Pipe bombs
B. Backpack bombs
C. Vehicle bombs
D. Package bombs

21. Which of the following is an indicator of a mail or package

bomb? (331-333)
A. Postmark out of country
B. Professionally wrapped packages
C. Typed name and address on label
D. Restricted endorsements such as Personal or Private
 22. Which of the following statements regarding plastic
bottle bombs is MOST accurate? (333)
A. They are usually initiated by a fuse.
B. They may appear to have multiple layers of liquids.
C. They should be moved immediately by responders.
D. They are usually built by religious extremist groups.

23. Which of the following IEDs are constructed of cardboard

tubes filled with flash powder and sealed at both ends? (333)
A. M-devices
B. Pipe bombs
C. Tennis ball bombs
D. Carbon dioxide grenades

24. Which of the following could be an indicator of an IED?

(334)
A. Materials that appear worn
B. Multiple containers of an item
C. Containers with excessive labeling
D. Materials attached to or surrounding an item

25. Which of the following is NOT an indicator of a person-borne

improvised device? (335-336)
A. Unseasonable attire
B. Keeping hands in pockets
C. Repeated visits to a location
D. Walking quickly toward the target

26. Which of the following is NOT an indicator of a vehicle

bomb? (337-338)
A. A vehicle with paper plates
B. A vehicle with blackened windows
C. A vehicle with an unusually large battery
D. A vehicle parked suspiciously for an extended period of time

27. Which of the following should be done when responding to

explosive/IED events? (338)
A. Establish control zones
B. Defuse or deactivate the device immediately
C. Move the suspected device as soon as possible
D. Use only two-way radios in the area of the device
 Objective 5:
Discuss chemical attacks.
28. Which of the following statements regarding chemical
attacks is MOST accurate? (340)
A. They are usually unintentional.
B. They harm only the environment.
C. They always involve toxic industrial materials.
D. They include agents intended for use in warfare or terrorist
activities.

29. Which of the following are the most toxic of the known
chemical warfare agents? (340)
A. Blood agents
B. Nerve agents
C. Blister agents
D. Choking agents

30. Nerve agents do which of the following? (340)

A. Burn and blister the skin
B. Temporarily make people unable to function
C. Interfere with the body’s ability to use oxygen
D. Attack the nervous system by affecting the transmission of
impulses

31. Which nerve agent is a volatile, nonpersistent chemical

agent that is mainly inhaled? (342)
A. Sarin
B. Tabun
C. Soman
D. V-agent

32. Which part of the body is acted upon by blister agents?

(343)
A. Red blood cells
B. Nervous system
C. Hearing and vision
D. Mucous membranes
 33. Which of the following statements regarding blister
agents is MOST accurate? (343)
A. They usually evaporate within a few hours.
B. They produce more fatalities than casualties.
C. They damage the respiratory tract when inhaled.
D. They are easily removed during decontamination.

34. Which of the following is TRUE of blood agents? (344)

A. Burn and blister the skin
B. Temporarily make people unable to function
C. Interfere with the body’s ability to use oxygen
D. Attack the nervous system by affecting the transmission of
impulses

35. Which blood agent is formed when arsenic comes in contact

with an acid? (344)
A. Arsine
B. Hydrogen cyanide
C. Cyanogen chloride
D. Potassium chloride

36. Which blood agent dissolves readily in organic solvents?

(344)
A. Arsine
B. Hydrogen cyanide
C. Cyanogen chloride
D. Potassium chloride

37. Hydrogen cyanide has what type of smell? (344)

A. Freshly cut hay
B. Mild garlic odor
C. Like bitter almonds
D. Pungent, biting odor

38. Choking agents are chemicals that attack the: (347)

A. eyes.
B. lungs.
C. nervous system.
D. mucous membranes.
 39. Which of the following statements regarding chlorine
is MOST accurate? (348)
A. It is odorless.
B. It is usually colorless.
C. It can react explosively.
D. It is a lighter-than-air gas when released.

40. Riot control agents are: (349)

A. all solids.
B. lighter than air.
C. more lethal than nerve agents.
D. dangerous for the nervous system.

41. Which category of toxic industrial materials is not likely to be

a hazard unless specific operational factors indicate otherwise?
(352)
A. No hazard
B. Low hazard
C. Medium hazard
D. High hazard

42. How do operations at chemical attack incidents differ from

other incidents? (352)
A. Mass casualties
B. Lack of secondary devices
C. Administration of antibiotics
D. Need for emergency decontamination

Objective 6:
Discuss biological attacks.
43. Which types of biological agents are the simplest types of
microorganisms? (352)
A. Viruses
B. Bacteria
C. Rickettsias
D. Biological toxins
 44. Which type of biological agents are poisons produced
by living organisms? (354)
A. Viruses
B. Bacteria
C. Rickettsias
D. Biological toxins

45. Which biological agent category can cause high mortality

and subsequently have a major public health effect? (354)
A. Category A
B. Category B
C. Category C
D. Category D

46. Which of the following statements regarding operations at

biological attack incidents is MOST accurate? (360)
A. They can be handled by the local jurisdiction.
B. They do not require the use of universal precautions.
C. They usually include large numbers of casualties but no
fatalities.
D. They require that responders acquire necessary training and
equipment.

Objective 7:
Discuss radiological and nuclear attacks.
47. Which of the following is TRUE of radiological attacks? (362)
A. Will necessitate outside assistance
B. Will overwhelm local first responders
C. May include large number of casualties
D. Will have a response similar to other emergency incidents

48. Which types of devices are intended to disperse radioactive

material and typically use the force of explosives to scatter the
material? (363)
A. Radiation-emitting devices
B. Radiation-emitting weapons
C. Radiological-dispersal devices
D. Radiological-dispersal weapons
 49. Which type of fissile material is used to fabricate
improvised nuclear devices? (364)
A. Beryllium
B. Cadmium
C. Plutonium
D. Ammonium nitrate

50. Which of the following statements about suitcase bombs is

MOST accurate? (364)
A. They are very heavy.
B. They are relatively easy to acquire.
C. They are very difficult to construct.
D. They have very limited destructive power.

51. Which of the following is a tactic at radiological and nuclear

attack incidents? (366)
A. Monitor oxygen levels
B. Use full PPE including SCBA
C. Detain or isolate injured people
D. Position apparatus downwind of the incident

Objective 8:
Identify hazards of illegal haz mat dumps.
52. Which of the following is NOT a significant problem
associated with illegal haz mat dumps? (368)
A. Aged chemicals
B. Mixed chemicals
C. Vandalism of containers
D. Environmental contamination
 Objective 9:
Describe proper evidence preservation.
53. Which of the following can be done by first responders to
assist law enforcement? (369-370)
A. Remove fatalities immediately
B. Remove all evidence as quickly as possible
C. Document observations as quickly as possible
D. Secure all areas not directly involved in the incident

Objective 10:
Discuss hazardous materials during and after disasters.
54. During and after disasters, haz mat situations: (373)
A. do not involve local jurisdictions.
B. must include only offensive operations.
C. must be handled by the local jurisdiction.
D. may limit defensive and offensive actions.

Chapter 8 - Personal Protective Equipment

Objective 1:
Discuss respiratory protection.
1. Why is respiratory protection a primary concern for first
responders? (381)
A. Respiratory protection has no limitations.
B. Inhalation is the most significant route of entry.
C. The use of respiratory protection is required by NIMS.
D. Respiratory protection protects responders from chemical
burns.

2. The U.S. Department of Homeland Security has adopted

respiratory equipment standards developed by: (382)
A. OSHA and NFPA​®​.
B. NIOSH and NFPA​®​.
C. OSHA and NIOSH.
D. NIOSH and MSHA.

3. Which standard specifies requirements for the selection,

care, and maintenance of open-circuit SCBA and combination
SCBA/SAR used for respiratory protection during hazardous
operations? (382)
A. NFPA​®​ 1001
B. NFPA​®​ 1500
C. NFPA​®​ 1852
D. NFPA​®​ 1981

4. Which of the following is a major requirement of OSHA

Regulation 29 CFR 1910.134 Respiratory Protection? (383)
A. Approval labels
B. Certificates of approval
C. Selection of respirators
D. Applications for approval

5. Which of the following is an atmosphere-supplying respirator

for which the user carries the breathing-air supply? (383)
A. Supplied-air respirators (SARs)
B. Air-purifying respirators (APRs)
C. Powered air-purifying respirators (PAPRs)
D. Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)

6. Which of the following is a component of SCBA? (383)

A. Emergency escape pack
B. Compressed air cylinder
C. Facepiece-mounted regulator
D. 300 feet (91 m) of air supply hose

7. Which type of SCBA is allowed in incidents where personnel

are exposed to hazardous materials? (384)
A. Positive-pressure open-circuit
B. Negative-pressure open-circuit
C. Pressure-demand low-pressure
D. Negative-pressure closed-circuit

8. Which of the following is an advantage of SCBA? (384)

A. Independence
B. Light weight of units
C. Extended air-supply duration
D. Expanded communication abilities

9. Certification programs for SCBA used in emergency response

to terrorist attacks must be compliant with: (384-385)
A. MHSA 375.
 B. NFPA​®​ 1981.
C. OSHA 1910.
D. NIOSH 1910.120.

10. Which of the following are atmosphere-supplying respirators

where the user does not carry the breathing air source? (385)
A. Supplied-air respirators (SARs)
B. Air-purifying respirators (APRs)
C. Powered air-purifying respirators (PAPRs)
D. Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)
 11.
Which of the following is a component of SARs? (385)
A. Pressure regulator
B. Harness assembly
C. End-of-service-time indicators
D. A voice communications system

12. Which of the following is a limitation of SARs? (386)

A. Change in profile
B. Weight of the unit
C. Length of the airline
D. Limited air-supply duration

13. Which of the following statements regarding air-purifying

respirators is MOST accurate? (388)
A. They protect against all types of contaminants.
B. They supply oxygen or air from a separate source.
C. They protect against all concentrations of contaminants.
D. They must not be used in immediately dangerous to life and
health (IDLH) atmospheres.

14. Which of the following questions should be answered before

deciding to use APRs? (387-388)
A. Is the hazard a vapor or gas?
B. Will the use of APRs hinder operations?
C. What is the tolerance to hazards of the user?
D. Do the benefits of wearing APRs outweigh costs involved?

15. Which of the following is a limitation of APRs? (388)

A. Weight of the units
B. Limited air-supply duration
C. Limited life of filters and canisters
D. Restricted vision and communications

16. What precaution should be taken before using an APR?

(388)
A. Ensure that the oxygen level is below 19.5 percent
B. Know what chemicals/air contaminants are in the air
C. Know the ambient temperatures of the air in the area
D. Ensure that atmospheric hazards are above IDLH conditions
 17. Particulate-removing filters: (388)
A. protect against specific vapors and gases.
B. use sorbent material to remove particulates.
C. may be used to protect against chemical hazards.
D. protect the respiratory system from large-sized particulates.

18. Which of the following uses a blower to remove the

contaminants and supply the purified air to the facepiece? (389)
A. Supplied-air respirators (SARs)
B. Air-purifying respirators (APRs)
C. Powered air-purifying respirators (PAPRs)
D. Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)

19. Which of the following statements regarding PAPRs is MOST

accurate? (389)
A. They should be used during initial emergency operations.
B. They offer a greater degree of safety than standards APRs.
C. They are only used where at least 20.5 percent oxygen is
present.
D. They are safe to wear in atmospheres where potential
respiratory hazards are unidentified.

20. PAPRs must not be used in ___ atmospheres. (389)

A. nuclear
B. explosive
C. hazardous
D. radiological

21. Which of the following extend work duration in hazardous

areas? (390)
A. Escape respirators
B. Supplied-air hoods
C. Combined respirators
D. Air-purifying respirators

22. Which of the following is NOT a limitation of respiratory

equipment? (392)
A. Limited visibility
B. Not chemical specific
C. Inadequate oxygen levels
D. Decreased ability to communicate
Objective 2:
Discuss protective clothing and ensembles.
23. The use of protective clothing prevents all of the following
EXCEPT: (392)
A. chemical burns.
B. allergic reactions.
C. physical exhaustion.
D. absorption of toxic materials into the body.

24. Which of the following statements regarding protective

clothing is MOST accurate? (392)
A. Most have limitations.
B. They cannot be worn in IDLH atmospheres.
C. They can be worn to protect against ballistic hazards.
D. Several ensembles are able to protect against all hazards.

25. NFPA​®​ 1994 classifies ensembles for use at terrorism

incidents involving low levels of vapor or liquid chemical or
particulate hazards where the concentrations are below IDLH as:
(395)
A. Class 1.
B. Class 2.
C. Class 3.
D. Class 4.

26. Which standard specifies the minimum selection, care, and

maintenance requirements for structural fire fighting protective
ensembles? (395)
A. NFPA​®​ 1851
B. NFPA​®​ 1975
C. NFPA​®​ 1992
D. NFPA​®​ 1999

27. Which of the following statements regarding structural

firefighters’ protective clothing is MOST accurate? (397)
A. It provides no protection against hazardous materials.
B. It is an acceptable substitute for chemical protective
clothing.
C. It provides some protection against many hazardous
materials.
D. The coat and pants provide long-term exposure protection
from liquid chemicals.
28. Which of the following is a limitation of structural firefighters’
protective clothing? (398)
A. It is neither corrosive-resistant nor vapor tight.
B. It does not protect against thermal damage in an explosive
attack.
C. It does not provide adequate protection against radiological
materials.
D. It cannot be used at haz mat/WMD incidents involving
chemical weapons.

29. Structural firefighters’ protective clothing may be appropriate

for use at haz mat/WMD incidents involving chemical weapons when:
(398-399)
A. there is no chance of fire.
B. it is the only PPE available.
C. CBR hazards have not yet been identified.
D. contact with splashes of extremely hazardous material is
likely.

30. Which of the following statements regarding

high-temperature protective clothing is MOST accurate? (400)
A. It has limited use with biological hazards.
B. It has limited use with radiological hazards.
C. It is designed for long-term high-temperature exposures.
D. It is designed for short-term, high-temperature exposures.

31. Which of the following is a limitation of high-temperature

protective clothing? (401)
A. It has a short service life.
B. It contributes to heat stress.
C. It must be decontaminated before disposal.
D. It is too lightweight to provide adequate coverage.

32. Chemical protective clothing (CPC) is designed to shield

individuals from all the following EXCEPT: (401)
A. physical hazards.
B. chemical hazards.
C. biological hazards.
D. total flame environments.
 33. Which type of CPC protects users from chemical liquid
splashes but not against chemical vapors or gases? (402)
A. Vapor-protective clothing
B. Liquid-splash protective clothing
C. Gas-permeable protective clothing
D. Chemical-liquid protective clothing

34. Which of the following statements regarding

nonencapsulating suits is MOST accurate? (402)
A. They trap body heat.
B. They provide full body coverage.
C. They protect against gases and vapors.
D. They are resistant to heat or flame exposure.

35. Which type of CPC is primarily used as part of an EPA Level

A protective ensemble? (403)
A. Vapor-protective clothing
B. Liquid-splash protective clothing
C. Gas-permeable protective clothing
D. Chemical-liquid protective clothing

36. Which of the following occurs when a hazardous material

enters an opening or a puncture in a protective material? (406)
A. Permeation
B. Penetration
C. Degradation
D. Neutralization

37. Which of the following occurs when a chemical passes

through a fabric on a molecular level? (405)
A. Permeation
B. Penetration
C. Degradation
D. Neutralization

38. Which of the following provide full body protection against

fragmentation, overpressure, impact, and heat? (407)
A. Body armor
B. Bomb disposal suits
C. Structural firefighting gear
D. Chemical protective clothing (CPC)
39. Which U.S. EPA level of protection is used when chemical
hazards are unknown or unidentified? (409-410)
A. Level A
B. Level B
C. Level C
D. Level D

40. Which U.S. EPA level of protection is worn when the highest
level of respiratory protection is necessary but a lesser level of skin
protection is needed? (410)
A. Level A
B. Level B
C. Level C
D. Level D

41. Which U.S. EPA level of protection consists of typical work

uniforms, street clothing, or coveralls? (412)
A. Level A
B. Level B
C. Level C
D. Level D

42. Which of the following is a PPE selection factor? (413)

A. Age of PPE
B. Available protective clothing
C. Responders’ level of training
D. Number of responders on the scene

43. What question should be asked before selecting PPE? (414)

A. Is the material fireproof?
B. What color are the garments?
C. What is the temperature at the incident?
D. Will the material resist tears, punctures, cuts, and abrasions?

44. Which response personnel ensembles consist of a

high-quality respirator, butyl rubber gloves, and a commercial
chemical overgarment? (415-416)
A. EMS ensembles
B. Fire service ensembles
C. Law enforcement ensembles
D. Mission-Oriented Protective Posture
 45. Which response personnel ensembles protect against
chemical, biological, and radiological hazards? (418)
A. EMS ensembles
B. Fire service ensembles
C. Law enforcement ensembles
D. Mission-Oriented Protective Posture

46. Heat disorders: (420)

A. can result in health effects.
B. are not of concern to first responders.
C. can be prevented by protective clothing.
D. are the leading cause of first responder deaths.

47. Which of the following statements regarding heat-exposure

prevention is MOST accurate? (420-421)
A. Cooling vests can be bulky and cumbersome.
B. After a work period, drinking chilled water is best.
C. Water cooling is most effective when humidity is high.
D. Long cotton undergarments should not be used under PPE.

48. Medical monitoring will: (422)

A. measure height, weight, and blood sugar.
B. measure electrolyte levels for dehydration.
C. be conducted after responders exit the cold zone.
D. be provided for responders who are at risk due to
environmental hazards.

49. Air management must calculate all of the following EXCEPT:

(422)
A. rehabilitation time.
B. decontamination time.
C. time taken to walk to the incident.
D. time taken to return from the incident.

Objective 3:
Don and doff different types of personal protective equipment
(PPE).

Objective 3 is measured in Skill Sheet 8-1.

Objective 4:
Discuss inspection, storage, testing, and maintenance of PPE.
50. Who must take all necessary steps to ensure that the
protective ensemble performs as expected? (423)
A. End user
B. Initial user
C. SCBA officer
D. Safety officer

Objective 5:
Given hazardous materials scenarios, determine proper PPE for
each incident and report and document the decision.

Objective 5 is measured in Learning Activity 8-1.

Chapter 10 - Product Control

Objective 1:
Describe each of the various spill control tactics.
1. Which spill control tactic is a physical and/or chemical event
occurring during contact between materials that have an attraction
for each other? (480)
A. Absorption
B. Adsorption
C. Vapor suppression
D. Blanketing/covering

2. Adsorption is primarily used to control: (480)

A. gas leaks.
B. vapor dispersion.
C. large liquid spills.
D. shallow liquid spills.

3. Which spill control tactic is performed with tarps, plastic

sheeting, and salvage covers? (480)
A. Absorption
B. Adsorption
C. Vapor suppression
D. Blanketing/covering
4. Which spill control tactic is an action taken to control the
flow of liquid hazardous materials away from the point of discharge?
(481)
A. Retention
B. Ventilation
C. Vapor dispersion
D. Vapor suppression
 5. Which spill control tactic reduces the emission of
vapors at a hazardous materials spill? (482)
A. Retention
B. Ventilation
C. Vapor dispersion
D. Vapor suppression

6. Which fire-fighting foam is used in storage tank and

subsurface fire fighting? (484)
A. Fluoroprotein foam
B. High-expansion foam
C. Alcohol-resistant AFFF (AR-AFFF)
D. Aqueous film forming foam (AFFF)

7. Fluoroprotein foam maintains: (484)

A. low viscosity at low temperatures.
B. high viscosity at low temperatures.
C. low viscosity at high temperatures.
D. high viscosity at high temperatures.

8. Which fire-fighting foam is premixable in portable fire

extinguishers and apparatus water tanks? (484)
A. Fluoroprotein foam
B. High-expansion foam
C. Alcohol-resistant AFFF (AR-AFFF)
D. Aqueous film forming foam (AFFF)

9. When applied to polar solvent fuels, which fire-fighting foam

creates a membrane between the fuel and the finished foam? (484)
A. Fluoroprotein foam
B. High-expansion foam
C. Alcohol-resistant AFFF (AR-AFFF)
D. Aqueous film forming foam (AFFF)

10. Which of the following is an application of high-expansion

foam? (485)
A. Baled storage fuels
B. Concealed spaces
C. Class B fire applications
D. High surface-tension fuels
 11. High-expansion foam concentrates have: (485)
A. poor heat resistance.
B. good heat resistance.
C. poor water retention.
D. good water retention.

12. Drainage time is the time required for ___ of the total liquid
solution to drain from the foam. (485)
A. ⅛
B. ¼
C. ½
D. ¾

13. Which of the following is a consideration when using foam

for vapor suppression? (486-487)
A. Water will solidify a foam blanket.
B. The material must be above its boiling point.
C. Water destroys and washes away foam blankets.
D. The film preceding a foam blanket is a reliable vapor
suppressant.

14. Which spill control tactic directs the course of airborne

hazardous materials? (487)
A. Dilution
B. Dispersion
C. Ventilation
D. Vapor dispersion

15. Which spill control tactic removes harmful airborne particles,

vapors, or gases when spills occur inside a structure? (487)
A. Dispersion
B. Ventilation
C. Dissolution
D. Neutralization

16. Which spill control tactic is the breaking up of hazardous

materials that spilled on a solid or liquid surface? (488)
A. Dilution
B. Dispersion
C. Neutralization
D. Vapor dispersion
 17. Which spill control tactic is the application of water to a
water-soluble material to reduce the hazard? (488)
A. Dilution
B. Dispersion
C. Dissolution
D. Vapor dispersion

18. Which spill control tactic is only used on water-soluble

gases? (488)
A. Dispersion
B. Ventilation
C. Dissolution
D. Neutralization

19. Which spill control tactic is raising or lowering the pH of

corrosive materials to render them neutral? (488)
A. Dilution
B. Neutralization
C. Vapor dispersion
D. Vapor suppression

Objective 2:
Perform absorption/adsorption.

Objective 3:
Perform damming operations.

Objective 4:
Perform diking operations.

Objective 5:
Perform diversion operations.

Objective 6:
Perform retention operations.

Objective 7:
Perform vapor suppression.
Objective 8:
Perform vapor dispersion.

Objective 9:
Perform dilution operations.

Objectives 2 through 9 are measured in Skill Sheets 10-1 through 10-8.

Objective 10:
Discuss leak control.
20. What is the goal of leak control? (489)
A. To suppress the product’s escape
B. To safely disperse the product’s escape
C. To ventilate a structure after a product release
D. To contain the release in the original container

21. Leak control is considered a (an) ___ action. (489)

A. offensive
B. defensive
C. intervention
D. nonintervention

22. Leak control puts personnel at great risk because they enter
the: (490)
A. hot zone.
B. cold zone.
C. hazardous materials area.
D. decontamination corridor.

Objective 11:
Perform remote valve shutoff.

Objective 11 is measured in Skill Sheet 10-9.

Objective 12:
Explain fire control.
23. What effect does fire control have on the damage, harm,
and effect of fire at hazardous materials incidents? (492)
A. Minimizes all aspects
B. Maximizes all aspects
C. Has no effect on any aspects
D. Completely eliminates all aspects

24. Gas-fed fires burning around relief valves or piping should:

(492)
A. be extinguished immediately.
B. only be extinguished by technician-level responders.
C. NOT be extinguished unless the leaking can be stopped.
D. be flooded with copious amounts of high-expansion foam.

25. A burning tank should be cooled on the: (493)

A. upwind side.
B. entire surface.
C. downwind side.
D. top and bottom.

Chapter 11 - Air Monitoring and Sampling

Objective 1:
Discuss air monitoring and sampling.
1. Which of the following statements regarding air monitoring
and sampling is MOST accurate? (512)
A. Few devices are able to detect all hazardous materials.
B. Responders should only use one type of instrument for
monitoring.
C. Air monitoring and sampling may be performed by
Awareness-Level personnel.
D. Air monitoring and sampling can assist in determining
perimeters and the scope of the incident.

2. Which of the following is an air monitoring and sampling

responsibility of responders? (513)
A. Repair devices as necessary
B. Service devices at the scene
C. Analyze samples in a laboratory setting
 D. Interpret the data provided by detection devices

3. Air monitoring and sampling must include: (513)

A. search warrants.
B. chain of custody.
C. crime scene preservation.
D. analysis of hazardous materials at the scene.
Objective 2:
Discuss concentrations and exposure limits.
4. Which of the following is used for expressing the
concentration of a gas or vapor in the air? (514)
A. Parts per million (ppm)
B. Grams per kilogram (g/kg)
C. Milligrams per kilogram (mg/kg)
D. Milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m​3​)

5. Which of the following is usually used to express extremely

low concentrations of unusually toxic gases or vapors? (514)
A. Parts per billion (ppb)
B. Milligrams per liter (mg/L)
C. Milligrams per kilogram (mg/kg)
D. Micrograms of material per liter of air (µg/L)

6. Which of the following is a unit for expressing concentrations

of dusts, gases, or mists in air? (514)
A. Parts per billion (ppb)
B. Parts per million (ppm)
C. Grams per kilogram (g/kg)
D. Milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m​3​)

7. Which of the following is a unit for expressing concentrations

of chemicals in water? (514)
A. Parts per million (ppm)
B. Milligrams per liter (mg/L)
C. Micrograms per liter (µg/L)
D. Grams per kilogram (g/kg)

8. Concentrations that are high enough to kill or cause serious

injury or illness are expressed in terms of: (514)
A. threshold limit value (TLV®).
B. permissible exposure limit (PEL).
C. short-term exposure limit (STEL).
D. immediately dangerous to life or health (IDLH).
Objective 3:
Explain the basics of air monitoring.
9. Which of the following dictate detection and monitoring
strategies? (518)
A. Hazards
B. Oxygen levels
C. Training levels of responders
D. Standard order of procedures (SOPs)

10. A monitoring plan should consider which of the following

questions? (519)
A. What equipment is available?
B. What type of hazard is present?
C. Why is monitoring being conducted?
D. Which readings are most important?

11. Monitoring should be performed: (519)

A. only by the Incident Commander.
B. only by Operations-Level responders.
C. under the direction of the Safety Officer.
D. under the direction of a haz mat technician.

12. What should be done with damaged devices? (519)

A. Taken out of service
B. Used only as back-up
C. Repaired at the scene
D. Used only sporadically

13. Which of the following is a safety precaution while

monitoring? (519)
A. Move quickly.
B. Always work alone.
C. Approach the hazard area from downwind.
D. Monitor at ground level, waist level, and above the head.
Objective 4:
Describe the selection and maintenance of detection and
monitoring devices.
14. Which of the following is a consideration when selecting
detection and monitoring devices? (522-523)
A. Usability
B. Instrument reaction time
C. Fire department’s mission
D. Quantity of hazards involved

15. Most instruments need to be calibrated: (523)

A. prior to use.
B. every two months.
C. every six months.
D. at least once a year.

Objective 5:
Explain how to detect specific hazards.
16. Which property of corrosives is the degree to which the
chemical is diluted? (524)
A. pH
B. Strength
C. Intensity
D. Concentration

17. Which detection equipment is designed to change color

when in contact with corrosive materials? (526)
A. pH paper
B. Fluoride test paper
C. Combustible gas indicators
D. Colorimetric indicator tubes

18. Which detection equipment is used to protect responders in

situations where the hazardous materials are unknown? (528)
A. pH paper
B. Oxygen meters
C. Fluoride test paper
D. Photoionization detections

19. Oxygen levels below ___ are considered deficient. (528)

 A. 19.5%
B. 20.9%
C. 21.5%
D. 22.9%

20. Combustible gas indicators (CGIs) measure the amount of:

(530)
A. organic peroxides.
B. combustible gases in the air.
C. organic and inorganic gases or vapors.
D. flammable vapors and gases in the atmosphere.

21. CGIs will sound an alarm at ___ of the lower explosive limit
(LEL) of gas. (530)
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%

22. Which of the following are designed to detect a single

chemical and are prone to degrade over time? (535)
A. Raman spectrometers
B. Photoionization detectors
C. Chemical specific detectors
D. Colorimetric indicator tubes

23. Which of the following use an ultraviolet lamp to ionize

samples of gaseous materials? (536)
A. Raman spectrometers
B. Photoionization detectors
C. Flame ionization detectors
D. Colorimetric indicator tubes

24. Which of the following are useful for confirming the

presence of a suspected material, but not very useful for determining
or detecting unidentified products? (538)
A. Raman spectrometers
B. Flame ionization detectors
C. Chemical specific detectors
D. Colorimetric indicator tubes

25. Which of the following are used when small concentrations

of contaminants are suspected? (540)
 A. Raman spectrometers
B. Photoionization detectors
C. Flame ionization detectors
D. Colorimetric indicator tubes

26. Which of the following make identification by comparing

unique signatures to a library of known signatures? (541)
A. Raman spectrometers
B. Flame ionization detectors
C. Chemical specific detectors
D. Colorimetric indicator tubes

27. Oxidizers can be detected by: (542)

A. pH paper.
B. oxygen monitors.
C. photoionization detectors.
D. potassium iodide starch paper.

28. What is a limitation of oxidizer detectors? (542)

A. High error rate
B. Will NOT detect inorganic compounds
C. Responder must be in close proximity
D. Too much oxygen can damage sensors

29. Roentgen applies only to ___ radiation. (543)

A. beta
B. alpha
C. gamma
D. neutron

30. Which unit is used to measure the amount of radiation

energy absorbed by a material? (543)
A. Roentgen (R)
B. Radiation absorbed dose (rad)
C. Radiation absorbed in man (ram)
D. Roentgen equivalent in man (rem)
 31. Radiation cannot be: (543)
A. felt.
B. tested.
C. measured.
D. contained.

32. Which of the following is NOT a group of radiation tools?

(544)
A. Instruments detecting contamination
B. Instruments measuring oxygen levels
C. Instruments measuring radiation exposure
D. Instruments used for dose monitoring and personal
dosimetry

33. Which of the following detectors uses regular ambient air as

the detection gas? (545)
A. GM detector
B. Ion chamber
C. Dosimetry device
D. Scintillation detector

34. Which of the following detectors is most useful when

detection of very small amounts of radiation is required? (545)
A. GM detector
B. Ion chamber
C. Dosimetry device
D. Scintillation detector

35. Which of the following detectors is useful for keeping track

of the wearer’s total accumulated radiation dose? (546)
A. GM detector
B. Ion chamber
C. Dosimetry device
D. Scintillation detector
 36. Which of the following statements regarding detection
of reactives is MOST accurate? (547)
A. There is no meter or device designed to detect reactive
materials.
B. Responders need to look for oxygen levels that cannot be
accounted for.
C. Responders can use infrared cameras to detect the presence
of reactives.
D. Chemical reactions of concern to emergency responders will
emit extremely low temperatures.

Objective 6:
Perform a pH test on an unknown liquid.

Objective 7:
Perform air monitoring with a multi-gas meter.

Objective 8:
Perform air monitoring with a photoionization detector.

Objective 9:
Perform air monitoring with colorimetric indicator tubes.

Objective 10:
Detect radiation using a gas-filled detector.

Objectives 6 through 10 are measured in Skill Sheets 11-1 through 11-5.

Objective 11:
Describe other technologies used to detect hazardous materials.
37. Which of the following utilize various technologies to
specifically detect chemical warfare agents? (547)
A. Mass spectrometers
B. Ion-mobility spectrometers
C. Chemical agent monitors (CAMs)
D. Gas chromatography (CG) detectors

38. Which technology uses a highly sensitive microphone to

listen to the sound made when a material absorbs infrared radiation?
(548)
 A. Gas chromatography (CG)
B. Thermoelectric conductivity
C. Photoacoustic IR spectroscopy (PIRS)
D. Surface acoustical wave (SAW) technology

39. Which of the following are chemical analysis instruments

used to separate and identify chemicals in a complex sample? (549)
A. DNA fluoroscopy devices
B. Wet chemistry testing kits
C. Biological immunoassay indicators
D. Gas chromatography (CG) detectors

40. Which of the following are used to detect nerve agents and
blister agents? (550)
A. Mass spectrometers
B. Chemical agent monitors (CAMs)
C. Surface acoustical wave devices (SAWs)
D. Polymerase chain reaction devices (PCRs)