Work Sheet for BIG BANG EDGE Test FIITJEE CHENNAI CENTRE

CLASS : 8

MATHEMATICS

2
1. 1+
2
3+
2
3+
3
61 39 65 69
(A) (B) (C) (D)
39 61 69 31

( −1) × ( −1) × ( −1) ....... ( −1)

2 3 2015
2. is equal to
(A) −1 (B)1 (C) − 2013 (D) 0

3. What number should be subtracted from -3/4 so as to get 5/6?

(A)-3/10 (B)-5/24 (C)-19/12 (D)9/25

4. The sum of two rational numbers is -7. If one of the numbers is –15/19, the other number is _____
(A)-21/10 (B)-57/16 (C)7/9 (D)-118/19

5. The reciprocal of a negative rational number _____

(A)is a positive rational number (B)is a negative rational number
(C)can be either a positive or a negative rational number (D)does not exist

6. Fill in the blanks: 5/12 ÷ (_____) = -35/18

(A)-21/36 (B)-12/19 (C)-5/18 (D)-3/14

7. A basket contains three types of fruits weighing 58/3 kg in all. If 73/9 kg of these be apples, 19/6 kg be oranges
and the rest pears. What is the weight of the pears in the basket?
(A)148/18kg (B)124/18kg (C)155/18kg (D)145/18kg

8. Find the multiplicative inverse of -11/-15

(A)15/11 (B)-15/11 (C)15/-11 (D)1

9. Name the property of multiplication illustrated -11/13 × -17/5 = -17/5 × -11/13

(A) Commutative property (B) Associative property
(C) Distributive property (D) Property of multiplicative identity
−1 −1
1  −4 
10. By what number should   be multiplied so that the product may be equal to  
2  7 
−7 −7 −2 −8
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 8 7 7
11. A perfect square number can never have the digit ...... at the units place.
(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 9

12. Sum of the first n odd natural numbers is

2 2 2
(A) 2n + 1 (B) n (C) n – 1 (D) 2n + 1

13. What least number must be added to 6072 to make it a perfect square?
(A) 6 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 16

14. 0.00059049 is equal to

(A) 0.243 (B) 0.0243 (C) 0.00243 (D) 0.000243

Regional Head Quarters : FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next Apex Plaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai – 600 034.
 288
15. =?
128
√3 3 3
(A) /2 (B) /√2 (C) /2 (D) 1.49

16. Evaluate √3 up to three places of decimal.

(A) 1.723 (B) 1.741 (C) 1.732 (D) 1.731
2
17. 1234 +1234+1234+1 =?
2 2 2 2
(A) 1233 (B) 1234 (C) 1235 (D)1236

18. Which of the following is correct?

(A) All numbers of the form 7n, 24n, 25n form a Pythagorean triplet.
(B) All numbers of the form 3n, 4n, 5n form a Pythagorean triplet.
(C) All numbers of the form 9n, 40n, 41n form a Pythagorean triplet
(D) All the above

19. Which of the following statement is true?

(A) sum of two rational numbers may or may not be a rational number
(B) Division of a rational number is closed
(C) for any rational number associate property is satisfied under subtraction
(D) none of these
x 162
20. What should come in place of x in the equation = ?
128 x
(A) 12 (B) 14 (C) 144 (D)196

21. The unit digit of the cube of 87 is ____

(A) 9 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 8

22. Which of the following is a perfect cube?

(A) 121000 (B) 163000 (C) 42875 (D) 421873

23. Three numbers are in the ratio 1:2:3. Then the second largest number is
(A) an odd number (B) an even number
(C) Either A or B (D) none of these

24. If 5 × 5 × 2 × 20 = a3 then a =
(A)10 (B)15 (C)25 (D)20

25. The cube root of .000216 is:

(A).6 (B).06 (C)77 (D)87

1
26. What is the value of 3
8+ 3
=
8
(A)2.25 (B)2.025 (C)2.225 (D)2.5

3
27. 0.000064 =?
(A)0.0002 (B)0.002 (C)0.2 (D)0.02

28. Some mangoes are packed into a box in stacks. Each stack has the same number of mangoes in each row as
the number of rows. The number of stacks is also the same as the number of rows. If there are 57 stacks of
mangoes in the box, what is the total number of mangoes in the box?
(A)186776 (B)185241 (C)184877 (D)185193

29. What is the smallest number that can be multiplied with 3773 to make the product a perfect cube?
(A)100 (B)184 (C)11 (D)121

Regional Head Quarters : FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next Apex Plaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai – 600 034.
30. 1729=?
3 3 3 3 3 3
(A)12 +1 (B)9 +8 (C)10 +9 (D)A & C

x 5
31. If − = 6, then x is
3 2
51 52 50 53
(A) (B) (C) (C)
2 2 2 2
8 x 17 5 x
32. If x + 7 − = − then x =
3 6 8
(A)5 (B)6 (C)4 (D)3

x +b x −b
33. = , then x is equal to
a−b a+b
(A)b (B) −b (C)a (D) −a

34. 125x 3
(A) 25 x 5 x (B) 5 x 5 x (C) 5 x 2 5 x (D) 25 x 2 5 x

(
35. Express 5 2 − 5 )( )
2 + 5 in the form of a + b c
(A) 6 + 4 10 (B) 5 + 6 10 (C) 5 + 4 10 (D)none of these

36. 13 + 23 + 33 + 43 + 53 + 63 = ?
(A)440 (B)400 (C)484 (D)441

3
37. 13824 is
(A)24 (B)25 (C)22 (D)26

38. 3
36 × 3 384 =
(A)26 (B)24 (C)22 (D)28

39. 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 …… upto 50 terms is

(A)2650 (B)2550 (C)2500 (D)2600

40. The smallest number of which 1100 must be multiplied so that the product becomes a perfect square is
(A)12 (B)13 (C)10 (D)11

41. 0.0196 is
(A)0.15 (B)0.14 (C)0.16 (D)0.17

5 1
42. Sum of two numbers is . If one of the numbers is , find the other
9 3
2 1 3 4
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9 9 9 9

−7 5 −5 1 −1
43. + + + + is
4 3 6 3 2
−11 −10 −13 −14
(A) (B) (C) (D)
12 12 12 12

Regional Head Quarters : FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next Apex Plaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai – 600 034.
  2   2
44.  −5 ×  −  −6 ×  is
 15   9
1 4 5 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 3 3

45. A number is such that it is as much greater than 84 as it is less than 108. The number is
(A)96 (B)94 (C)98 (D)100

46. After 12 years 1 shall be 3 times as old as I was 4 years ago. My present age is
(A)13 years (B)12 years (C)14 years (D)11 years

x − 9 −5
47. A positive value of x for which the given equation is satisfied is =
5+ x 9
(A)3 (B)4 (C)2 (D)5

48. Is 17640 a perfect square?

(A)yes (B)No
(C)cannot be determined (D)None of these

49. If a number ‘x’ has a square root in natural numbers then the unit’s digit of ‘x’ cannot be
(A)0 (B)4 (C)5 (D)7

50. 1712 − 1702 =

(A)341 (B)340 (C)342 (D)343

36 400
51. × is
100 144
(A)2 (B)4 (C)1 (D)3

2 4
 2  7  5 14
52.   ×  
5  2
5 2
(A)1 (B) (C) (D)none of these
2 5

53. ( 20 − 5 × ) ( )
20 + 5 is
(A)10 (B)15 (C)12 (D)20

54.
4 2
5
( 2+ 8 = )
24 5 24 24 6
(A) (B) (C) (D)both A & B
5 5 6

 7 10 
55.  +  × 50 =
 5 25 
(A)90 (B)80 (C)100 (D)none of these

a c  e a c e
56. Which property is illustrated by  ×  × = ×  × 
b d  f b d f 
(A)commutativity (B)Associativity (C)closure property (D)none of these

Regional Head Quarters : FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next Apex Plaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai – 600 034.
 2 9
57. The multiplicative inverse (reciprocal) of × is
3 4
3 4 2 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 3 4

58. What is the smallest number by which 392 must be multiplied so that the product is a perfect cube?
(A)8 (B)9 (C)7 (D)5

59. Cube root of −125 × −3375 is

(A)75 (B)65 (C)55 (D)85

3
60. 1.331 is
11 22
(A) (B) 1.1 (C) (D)All of the above
10 20

61. In a parallelogram the sum of any two adjacent angles is

(A) 180° (B) 190° (C) 170° (D) 160°

62. Two adjacent angles of a parallelogram are equal. What is the measure of each?
(A) 90° (B) 50° (C) 40° (D) 50°

63. In a parallelogram ABCD, ∠D = 115°, determine the measure of ∠A and ∠B

(A) 180° and 150° (B) 65° and 115° (C) 45° and 180° (D) 60° and 180°

64. ABCD is a parallelogram in which the diagonals meet at ‘O’. ∠DAO = 40°, ∠BAO = 35° and
∠COD = 65° then ∠ABO
(A) 70° (B) 30° (C) 20° (D) 80°

65. Number of independent measurements required to construct a quadrilateral is

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

66. ABCD is a parallelogram in which ∠DAB = 75° and ∠DBC = 60° then ∠CDB =
(A) 15° (B) 45° (C) 20° (D) 65°

67. The ratio of two sides of a parallelogram is 3: 5 and its perimeter is 48m. then two adjacent sides of the
parallelogram are
(A) 9m, 15m (B) 10m, 11m (C) 9m, 12m (D) 11m, 15m

68. In a parallelogram ABCD, the bisectors of ∠A and ∠B meet at O. then ∠AOB =

(A) 70° (B) 10° (C) 20° (D) 90°

69. Two opposite angles of a parallelogram are ( 3 x − 2 ) ° and ( 50 − x ) ° then measure of each angle of the
parallelogram is
(A) 37°,143°, 60°, 70° (B) 37°,143°, 37°,143° (C) 37°,143°,144°,55° (D) None

70. If one angle of a parallelogram is two third of its adjacent angle. then the greatest angle of the parallelogram is
(A) 108° (B) 72° (C) 90° (D) None

71. Number of independent measurements required to construct an equilateral triangle is

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

72. Two adjacent angles of a rhombus are in the ratio 1: 2 then the difference between greatest angle and smallest
angle of the rhombus
(A) 65° (B) 80° (C) 60° (D) None

Regional Head Quarters : FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next Apex Plaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai – 600 034.
73. ABCD is a rhombus with ∠ABC = 56° then ∠ACD =
(A) 70° (B) 10° (C) 20° (D) 62°

74. One of the diagonals of a rhombus is equal to one of its sides. Find the angles of the rhombus
(A) ∠A = ∠C = 60°, ∠B = ∠D = 120° (B) ∠A = ∠B = ∠C = ∠D = 60°
(C) ∠A = ∠B = ∠C = ∠D = 90° (D) None

75. If one angle of a rhombus is 900 then it is called __________

(A) square (B) rectangle (C) parallelogram (D) None

76. The diagonals of a rhombus are 6cm and 8cm. Find the length of a side of the rhombus
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 25 (D) 36

77. PQRS is a square. PR and SQ intersect at O, state the measure of ∠ POQ

(A) 60° (B) 90° (C) 70° (D) 50°

78. PQRS is a square. Determine ∠ SRP

(A) 25° (B) 55° (C) 35° (D) 45°

79. ABCD is a rectangle with ∠ BAC = 32° Determine ∠ DBC

(A) 18° (B) 38° (C) 58° (D) 28°

80. The diagonals of a rectangle ABCD meet O. if ∠ BOC = 44° . Find ∠ OAD
(A) 40° (B) 50° (C) 68° (D) 60°

81. The diagonals of a rectangle ABCD intersect in O. if ∠ BOC = 68° find ∠ ODA
(A) 56° (B) 60° (C) 70° (D) 50°

82. The sides of a rectangle are in the ratio 4: 5. find its sides if the perimeter is 90 cm
(A) 20 cm, 25 cm (B) 30 cm, 35 cm (C) 40 cm, 45 cm (D) 50 cm, 55 cm

83. Find the length of the diagonal of a rectangle whose sides are 12cm and 5cm
(A) 13cm (B) 15cm (C) 20cm (D) 22cm

84. If ABCD is a rhombus then which of the following statement is not true?
A B

D C

(A) AB = AD (B) BC = DC (C) ∆ ABC = ∆ ADC (D) ∆ ABC = ∆ ABD

85. The diagonals of a quadrilateral are equal. The quadrilateral is

(A) Parallelogram (B) Rhombus (C) Trapezium (D) Rectangle

86. Diagonals of a rectangle ABCD meet at O. If AC = 14cm, BO is equal to

(A) 6 cm (B) 7cm (C) 8cm (D) 14cm

87. The sides of a quadrilateral are equal but, the angles are not equal. The quadrilateral is a
(A)Square (B) Rectangle (C) Rhombus (D) None of these

88. The angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 2: 3: 6: 7. The smallest angle is
(A) 30° (B) 40° (C) 50° (D) 60°

Regional Head Quarters : FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next Apex Plaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai – 600 034.
89. Diagonals of a rhombus are 10cm and 18cm. its area is equal to
2 2 2 2
(A) 90 cm (B) 180 cm (C) 28 cm (D) 18 cm

90. Length and breadth of a rectangle are 10cm and 5cm respectively. The length of diagonal is equal to
(A)50cm (B)25cm (C)5cm (D) 5 5 cm

Direction (91 to 94) Study the graph carefully and answer the questions given below it

Wheat Im port ( InThousandTonnes ) 7016

5832
4203
3465 2500
2413
2000
1811

1971 1972 1973 1974 1975 1976 1977 1978

Years

91. In which year did the import register highest increases over its preceding year?
(A) 1973 (B) 1974 (C) 1975 (D) 1982

92. The import in 1976 was approximately how many times that of the year 1972?
(A) 0.31 (B) 1.68 (C) 2.41 (D) 3.22

93. The increase in import in 1978 was what percent of the import in 1977?
(A) 25% (B) 5% (C) 125% (D) 80%

94. The import in 1974 is approximately what percent more than the import for the given years 1973 is
(A) 128% (B) 74% (C) 72% (D) 85%

95. The degree of the polynomial x2 + 4 is

(A) 4 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 1
2
96. Find the Remainder when 2x + 4 is divided by x + 2
(A) 21 (B) 2 (C) 14 (D) 12

97. The degree of zero polynomial is

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) does not exist

98. If (x- 2) is a factor of 2x 2 + 4x − k . Then the value of k

(A) 6 (B)8 (C)12 (D)16

99. The minimum number of measurements required to construct a quadrilateral is

(A)1 (B)5 (C)4 (D)3

100. The minimum number of measurements required to construct a square is

(A)4 (B)5 (C)1 (D)3

101. The minimum number of measurements required to construct a Rhombus is

(A)2 (B)5 (C)4 (D)3

Regional Head Quarters : FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next Apex Plaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai – 600 034.
102. The degree of constant polynomial is
(A)1 (B)2 (C)0 (D)3

103. If ABCD is an isosceles trapezium ∠C is equal to

(A) ∠B (B) ∠A (C) ∠D (D) 90°

104. If a pair of opposite sides of a quadrilateral are equal and parallel, it is

(A) Kite (B) Trapezium (C) Parallelogram (D) None of these

105. In a parallelogram ABCD if ∠A = 45° then the other angles are

(A) 45°,120°,120° (B) 45°,135°,135° (C) 60°,135°,135° (D) 60°,120°,120°

106. ABCD is rhombus if ∠ACB = 40° then ∠ADB is

(A) 40° (B) 45° (C) 50° (D) 60°

107. In the given figure line RT is drawn parallel to SQ. If ∠QPS = 100°, ∠PQS = 40°, ∠PSR = 85° and
∠QRS = 70° then ∠QRT is
P Q
0
40

T
0 0 650
40 70
450
S 450 R

(A) 45° (B) 65° (C) 85° (D) 90°

108. Four angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 3: 5: 7: 9 the greatest angles is
(A) 125° (B) 75° (C) 135° (D) 120°

109. If a quadrilateral has two pair of equal adjacent sides equal and the unequal opposite sides, it is called
(A)Parallelogram (B)Square (C)Rectangle (D)Kite

110. A trapezium in which non parallel sides are equal is said to be

(A)Right trapezium (B)Equilateral trapezium
(C)Isosceles trapezium (D)none of these

111. The given quadrilateral EFGH is

H F

(A)A parallelogram (B)A concave quadrilateral

(C)A convex quadrilateral (D)A trapezium

Regional Head Quarters : FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next Apex Plaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai – 600 034.
Direction (22 to 23) the following pie chart shows the number of students admitted in different faculties of a
college. If 1000 students are admitted in science answer the following.

Education

Law 30°
45° Arts
120°
65°
Commerce 100°

Science

112. The total number of students are

(A) 2200 (B) 2600 (C) 3600 (D) 4000

113. What is the ratio of the students in science and arts

(A) 5: 6 (B) 6: 5 (C) 11: 5 (D) 5: 11

114. What is class mark of class interval 10 – 15

(A) 10 (B) 15 (C) 12.5 (D) 5

115. What is abscissa of the point ( 5, 7 )

(A) 7 (B) 2 (C) 6 (D) 5

116. The y – coordinate of every point on x − axis is

(A) One (B) Two (C) Zero (D) None of these

117. The point where the two axes intersected is called

(A) Origin (B) Co – ordinate (C) Initial point (D) None of these

118. The number of variables required to draw a graph is

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

119. In a simultaneous throw of two dice, what is the probability of getting a total of 7?
1 1 2 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 4 7 4
120. A straight line is represented by
(A) Quadratic equation (B) Polynomial (C) Linear equation (D) None of these

Regional Head Quarters : FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next Apex Plaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai – 600 034.
Direction (1 to 3) Adjoining pie chart gives the expenditure (in percentage) on various items and savings of
a family during month

House Re nt (10%) EducationForChildren(15%)

Transport (5%)


×

× ×

×


× × ×
Food ( 25% )
•
Other (20%) •
•
•
• • •

Saving (15% ) Clothes (10%)

121. Expenditure is maximum on

(A) Others (B) Education for children(C) Clothes (D)Food

122. The item on which expenditure is equal to the total savings of the family is
(A)Food (B) Other (C) Clothes (D)Education for children

123. If the monthly saving of the family is Rs 30000, then the monthly expenditure on clothes is
(A) Rs 1000 (B) Rs 20000 (C) Rs 3000 (D) Rs 4000

124. A trapezium in which non parallel sides are equal is said to be

(A) Right trapezium (B) Equilateral trapezium
(C) Isosceles trapezium (D) none of these

125. The given quadrilateral EFGH is

H F

E
(A) A parallelogram (B) A concave quadrilateral
(C) A convex quadrilateral (D) A trapezium

Regional Head Quarters : FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next Apex Plaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai – 600 034.
 PHYSICS
1. A ball dropped from a height of 15 m and bounced back again with same speed. It was in contact with the
ground for 10 milli second and change in momentum is −7.5m / s. Find the mass
(A) 0.35 kg (B) 1.75 kg (C) 0.75 kg (D) 0.25 kg

2. A car starts from rest and travels some distance in 5 seconds and acceleration 12 m/s2. Force acting on the car
is 14400 N. Find mass of the car and distance travelled?
(A) 1000 kg, 150 m (B) 1200 kg, 150 m (C) 1000 kg, 100 m (D) 1200 kg, 150 m

3. A long – jumper runs before jumping because

(A) He covers a greater distance (B) he maintains momentum conservation
(C) He gains energy by running (D) he gains momentum

4. An iron ball and a wooden ball of the same radius are released from a height H in vacuum. The times taken by
both of them to reach the ground are
(A) Roughly equal (B) unequal
(C) In the inverse ratio of their diameters (D) exactly equal

5. A body of mass M collides against a wall with velocity V and rebounds with the same speed. Its change of
momentum is (magnitude alone )
(A) Zero (B) MV (C) 2 MV (D) – MV

6. If the same force acts on two bodies of different masses, which are initially at rest and gain same displacement,
then
the ratio of times of action of force is
(A) m1 m2 (B) m2 / m1 (C) m1 / m2 (D) m1 m2
−1
7. A machine gun of mass 24 kg fires 20 g bullets at the rate of 8 bullets per second, with a speed of 250ms . The
force required to hold the gun in position is
(A) 10 N (B) 20 N (C) 30 N (D) 40 N

8. The height of mercury which exerts the same pressure as 20 cm of water column, is
(A) 1.47 cm (B) 14.8 cm (C) 148 cm (D) none of these

9. An ice cube is floating in a glass of water. What happens to the water level when the ice melts?
(A) Rises (B) Falls
(C) Remains same (D) First rises and then falls.
1 3
10. A body floats with rd of its volume outside water and th of its volume outside liquid, then the density of the
3 4
liquid is
3 8 9 4
(A) g / cc (B) g / cc (C) g / cc (D) g / cc
8 3 4 9
2
11. To lift an automobile of 1600 kg, a hydraulic pump with a larger piston 800 cm in area is employed. If the area
2
of the smaller piston is 10 cm , the force that must be applied on it is
(A) 20 N (B) 200 N (C) 2 N (D) 2000 N

−3 −3
12. The density of ice is 0.918 g cm and that of water is 1.03 g cm . An iceberg floats with a portion of 224 cm3
outside the surface of water. The total volume of the ice berg is
(A) 1030 m3 (B) 1545 m3 (C) 2060 m3 (D) 2575 m3

13. Frictional force can’t be measured in

(A) Kg wt (B) Newton (C) dyne (D) kg ms -1

14. _________ friction is a self adjusting force

(A) Kinetic (B) static (C) rolling (D) None

Regional Head Quarters : FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next Apex Plaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai – 600 034.
15. Lubricants helps to reduce
(A) Force (B) acceleration (C) friction (D) Velocity

16. The force acting along 2 surfaces in contact which opposes the motion of body is called
(A) Frictional force (B) force (C) force of gravity (D) Up thrust

17. Buoyant force is ________________

(A) Up thrust (B) action (C) reaction (D) down thrust

18. When one object moves over another object, friction between them shows
(A) Friction opposes motion (B) friction produces heat
(C) Friction causes wear & tear (D) all the above

19. The friction that exists between 2 surfaces in contact is called

(A) Kinetic (B) static (C) dynamic (D) none of these

20. ___________ Force does not depend on the velocity of the body.
(A) Static friction (B) rolling friction (C) Kinetic friction (D) none of these

21. A boy is sitting in a travelling bus and facing the driver. He tosses up a coin and the coin falls behind him.
It can be concluded that the bus is:
(A) Moving backward with uniform speed (B) moving forward with uniform speed
(C) Moving forward and losing speed (D) moving forward and gaining speed

22. Newton’s second law gives the measure of

(A) Acceleration (B) force (C) momentum (D) angular momentum

23. A gun of mass 20 kg fires 4 bullets per second. The mass of each bullet is 25 g and the velocity of the bullet
when it leaves the gun is 300 m/s. The force required to hold the gun when firing is:
(A) 6 N (B) 8 N (C) 30 N (D) 240 N

24. When we jump out of a boat standing in water it moves

(A) Forward (B) backward (C) sideways (D) None of the above

25. A man of mass 90 kg is standing in a elevator whose cable broke suddenly. If the elevator falls freely, the force
exerted by the floor on the man is:
(A) 90 N (B) 90 g N (C) 0 N (D)None of these

26. The momentum of a system is conserved

(A) Always (B) Never
(C) In the absence of an external force on the system (D) None of the above

27. In which of the following cases forces may not be required to keep the
(A) particle going in a circle (B) particle going along a straight line
(C) Acceleration of the particle constant (D) the momentum of the particle constant

28. A body of mass m collides against a wall with a velocity V and rebounds with the same velocity. The change in
momentum of the wall is
(A) Zero (B) mv (C) – 2 mv (D) – mv

29. Two equal forces act on bodies of masses m1 and m2 . Their accelerations in the ratio of:
1 1
(A) : (B) m1 : m2 (C) m1 m2 :1 (D) 1: m1 m2
m1 m2
30. When an object undergoes acceleration:
(A) Its speed always increases (B) its velocity always increases
(C) It always falls towards Earth (D) a force always acts on it.

31. Force that can produce an acceleration of 2 m/s2 in a body of mass 25 kg is :

(A) 50 N (B) 25 N (C) 12.5 N (D) 100 N

Regional Head Quarters : FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next Apex Plaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai – 600 034.
32. A gun of mass 5 kg fires a 50 g bullet with a velocity of 200 m/s. The recoil velocity of the gun is:
(A) 2 m/s (B) 20 m/s (C) 0.2 m/s (D) zero

33. At sea level, atmospheric pressure is

(A) 76m of Hg column (B) 76cm of Hg column
(C) 0.76cm of Hg column (D) 76cm of water column

34. If two masses A and B have their masses in the ratio 1:4 and their volumes are equal. Then the densities have
the ratio
(A) 1:4 (B) 4 : 1 (C)2 : 1 (D) 3 : 1

35. A body is floating in a liquid weight of the body

(A) Equal to weight of the body
(B) Equal to weight of the liquid displaced by the body
(C) less than the weight of the body
(D) Zero
2
36. A force of 40 N is applied on a nail, whose tip has an area of cross – section of 0.001 cm . The pressure on the
tip of the nail is
(A) 8 × 108 N / m 2 (B) 2 × 108 N / m 2 (C) 4 × 108 N / m 2 (D) none of these

37. Two vessels A and B of different shapes have the same base
area and are filled to a height ' h ' . The forces exerted by
water on the bases are FA and FB respectively and the h
weights of the liquids are WA & WB respectively. Then :
(A) FA > FB ; WA > WB (B) FA = FB ; WA > WB A B

(C) FA = FB ; WA < WB (D) FA > FB ; WA = WB

38. Which of the following has the maximum momentum?

(A) A 100 kg vehicle moving at 0.02 m/s (B) A 4 g weight moving at 10,000 m/s.
(C) A 200 g weight moving with 100 m/s (D) A 20 g weight moving with 4000 m/s

39. A bullet is fired by a light rifle and the other with a heavy rifle by the same force. Which rifle will cause more
injury to the shoulder?
(A) Light rifle (B) heavy rifle
(C) Both cause same injury (D) enough information not available

40. A boat full of iron nails is floating on water in a lake. When the iron nails are removed, the water level
(A) Rises (B) falls (C) remains the same (D) none of the above

41. Speed of sound at constant temperature depends on .

(A) Pressure (B) Volume of gas (C) Density of gas (D) None of theabove

42. Which of the following is the longitudinal wave .

(A) Sound waves (B) Water waves
(C) Waves on plucked string (D) Light waves

43. If velocity of sound in a gas is 360 m/s and the distance between a compression and the nearest rarefaction is
1m, then the frequency of sound is .
(A) 90 Hz (B) 360 Hz (C) 180 Hz (D) 720 Hz

44. When sound waves travel from air to water, which of the following remains constant .
(A) Velocity (B) Wavelength (C) Frequency (D) All the above

45. When a wave travels through a medium ______.

(A) particles are transferred from one place to another (B) energy is transferred in a periodic manner
(C) energy is transferred at a constant speed (D) none of the above statements is applicable

Regional Head Quarters : FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next Apex Plaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai – 600 034.
46. Bats detect the obstacles in their path by receiving the reflected ______.
(A) infrasonic waves (B) radio waves
(C) electro-magnetic waves (D) ultrasonic waves

47. When sound travels through air, the air particles ______.
(A) vibrate along the direction of wave propagation (B) vibrate but not in any fixed direction
(C) vibrate perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation (D) do not vibrate

48. An example for mechanical wave.

(A) Radio wave (B) Light wave (C) Infrared radiation (D) Sound wave

49. The minimum distance between the source and the reflector, so that an echo is heard is approximately equal to
in air medium ______.
(A) 10 m (B) 17 m (C) 34 m (D) 50 m

50. The relation between wave velocity 'v', frequency 'f ', and wavelength 'l' is ______.
λ f 1
(A) V = (B) V = (C) V = fλ (D) V =
f λ fλ

51. The frequency of a wave travelling at a speed of 500 ms-1 is 25 Hz. Its time period will be ______.
(A) 20 s (B) 0.05 s (C) 25 s (D) 0.04 s

52. The physical quantity, which oscillates in most waves, is

(A) mass (B) energy (C) amplitude (D) wavelength

53. The frequency which is audible to the human ear is

(A) 5000 Hz (B) 50000 Hz (C) 500000 Hz (D) 5000000 Hz

54. A sound source sends waves of 400 Hz. It produces waves of wavelength 2.5 m. The velocity of sound waves
is
(A) 100 m/s (B) 1000 m/s (C) 10000 m/s (D) 3000 km/s

55. Sound and light waves both

(A) have similar wavelength (B) obey the laws of reflection
(C) travel as longitudinal waves (D) travel through vacuum

56. If a vibrator strikes the water 10 times in one second, then the frequency of wave is _________.
(A) 10 Hz (B) 0.5 Hz (C) 5 Hz (D) 0.1 Hz

57. The technique used by bats to find their way or to locate food is _______.
(A) SONAR (B) RADAR (C) Echolocation (D) Flapping

58. S. I. unit of sound is __________.

(A) joule (B) erg (C) dyne (D) angstrom

59. Of these properties of a wave, the one that is dependent of the others is
(A) amplitude (B) wavelength (C) speed (D)All the above

60. In a sinusoidal wave, the time required for a particular point to move from maximum displacement to zero
displacement is 0.170 second. The frequency of the wave is .
(A) 1.47 Hz (B) 0.73 Hz (C) 0.36 Hz (D)2.94 Hz

61. The speed of sound in Air medium at room temp is

(A) 3 X 108 ms −1 (B) 1500 ms −1 (C) 330 ms −1 (D) 100 ms −1

Regional Head Quarters : FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next Apex Plaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai – 600 034.
62. The speed of sound in a medium depends on
(A) the elastic property but not on a inertia property
(B) the inertia property but not a he elastic property
(C) the elastic property as well as the inertia property
(D) neither the elastic property no the inertia property

63. When you speak to your friend, which of the following parameter have a unique value in the sound produced?
(A) Frequency (B) wavelength (C) amplitude (D) Wave velocity

64. The minimum distance between the source and flector, so that an echo is heared is approximately equal to in
air medium_________
(A) 10 M (B) 17 M (C) 34 M (D) 50 M

65. When a wave travels through a medium

(A) particle are transferred from one place to another
(B) energy is transferred in a periodic manner another
(C) energy is transferred at a constant speed -
(D) None of the above

66. Bat detect, the obstacles in their path receiving the reflected______________
(A) Infrasonic (B) Radio waves
(C) Electromagnetic waves (D) Ultrasonic waves

67. Sound waves do not travel through

(A) Solids (B) Liquid (C) Gases (D) Vaccum

68. Sound waves are

(A) longitudinal
(B) transverse
(C) Party longitudinal and party transverse
(D) Sometimes longitudinal and sometimes transverse

69. The frequency which is not audible to the human ears is

(A) 50 Hz (B) 500 Hz (C) 5000 Hz (D) 50000Hz

70. If a vibrator strikes the water 10 times in one second, then the frequency of wave is
(A) 10 Hz (B) 0.5 Hz (C) 5 Hz (D) 0.1 Hz

71. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a musical sound ?

(A) pitch (B) wavelength (C) quality (D) loudness

72. Sound and light waves both

(A) have similar wavelength (B) obey law of reflection
(C) travel as longitudinal waves (D) travel through vaccum

73. An ultrasonic wave is sent from a ship towards the bottom of the sea. It is found that the time internal between
the sending and receiving of the wave is 1.6 s. What is the depth of the sea. If the velocity of sound in the
+
seawater is 1400 ms ?
(A) 1120 M (B) 560M (C) 1400M (D) 112M

74. An example for mechanical wave

(A) Radio wave (B) Light wave (C) Infrared radiation (D) Sound wave

75. Which of the following quantities is transferred during wave propagalian ?

(A) Speed (B) Mass (C) Matter (D) Energy

Regional Head Quarters : FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next Apex Plaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai – 600 034.
 CHEMISTRY

1. Which of the following is a polyamide?

(A) Rayon (B) Orlon (C) Nyloncv (D) Terylene

2. The monomer present in orlon is

(A) vinyl chloride (B) acrylonitrile (C) Terylene (D) ethane

3. Intermolecular forces of attraction between polymers is higher in

(A) Bakelite (B) Melamine
(C) PAN (D) Urea-formaldehyde

4. The polymer used in preparing windows for trains and aircraft is

(A) polythene (B) polypropylene (C) polystyrene (D) Perspex

5. Electrical switches in our houses are usually made up of

(A) PVC (B) polythene (C) Bakelite (D) Melamine

6. Which one of the following is used to decorate sweets?

(A) Aluminium (B) silver (C) copper (D) tin

7. Rubber is made up of
(A) Isoethylene (B) Isoprene (C) Neoprene (D) All the above

8. The monomer unit of nylon-6 is

(A) Caprimide (B) caproacetate (C) caprolactam (D) caproamines

9. Which of the following is currently used as a tyre cord?

(A)Bakelite (B) Nylon-6 (C) polyethylene (D) polypropylene

10. Teflon is obtained from the monomer

(A) Tetrafluoroethene (B) Trifluoroethene
(C) Tetrafluoroethane (D) Trifluoroethane

11. Which of the following are used for making toys

(A) thermoplastics (B) thermosetting plastics
(C) nylon (D) rayon

12. Example of thermosetting plastic

(A) PVC (B) Bakelite (C) polythene (D) both B & C

13. Which of the following can be recycled

(A) plastic toys (B) wires (C)telephone instruments (D) both A& B

14. The following is used to make non-stick cookwares

(A) polyester (B) nylon (C) teflon (D) rayon

15. What type of polymer units arrangement are found in plastics

(A) linear arrangement (B) cris – cross arrangement
(C) cross - linker arrangement (D) both A& C

16. Silk is an example of

(A) semi – synthetic fibres (B) synthetic fibres
(C) natural fibres (D) man – made fibres

17. Sodium metal is stored in

(A) water (B) kerosene (C) alcohol (D) both B & C

18. Metals reacts with HCL to give

(A) salt (B) water (C) hydrogen (D) both A & C

Regional Head Quarters : FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next Apex Plaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai – 600 034.
19. Metal + sodium hydroxide = X (gas), the gas X is
(A)hydrogen (B) oxygen (C) water (D) all the above

20. Non – metals exist in

(A) solid state (B) liquid state (C) gaseous state (D) all the above

21. Which of the following is natural resources?

(A) Tea (B) Cooked food (C) Air (D) Toffee

22. Resources which are limited in nature are known as

(A) Exhaustible (B) Inexhaustible (C) Unnatural (D) None of these

23. Sunlight is which type of natural resource?

(A) Inexhaustible (B) Exhaustible (C) Both a & b (D) None of these

24. From which of the following coal can be formed

(A) Sunlight (B) Steam (C) Fossils (D) Plants

25. Other uses of fuel includes

(A) Produce steam to run engine (B) Produce electricity in thermal power plants
(C) Fuel in various industries (D) All of these

26. Which of the following coal contains?

(A) Hydrogen (B) Oxygen (C) Carbon (D) Sodium

27. Petroleum is mixture of

(A) Petrol (B) Diesel (C) Petroleum gas (D) All of these

28. LPG is used in/as

(A) Home (B) Solvent (C) Aviation Fuel (D) Road surfacing

29. Burning of fossil fuel causes

(A) Air pollution (B) Global warming (C) Both a and b (D) None of these

30. Useful substances obtained from petroleum & natural gases are called
(A) Chemicals (B) Petroleum products (C) Petrochemicals (D) None of these

31. Which one of the following is called as biogas?

(A)Producer gas (B) Natural gas (C) Coal gas (D) Water gas

32. The main constituent of L.P.G is?

(A)Methane (B) propane (C) Ethane (D) Butane

33. Which of the following is a characteristic of a good fuel?

(A)Low calorific value (B) High ignition temperature
(C) High calorific value (D) High Pollution

34. Which one of the following has the highest calorific value
(A)Wood (B) Bituminous coal (C) Anthracite coal (D) Lignite coal

35. Which one of the following forms of coal has the lowest percentage of carbon
(A)Peat (B) Lignite (C) Bituminous (D) Anthracite

36. A man slept in a closed room with a coal fire burning in the room. He became unconscious due to the formation
of
(A) CO2 in the room (B) coke
(C) Carboxy hemoglobin in his blood (D) charcoal

Regional Head Quarters : FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next Apex Plaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai – 600 034.
37. Which of the following fractions of petroleum has the lowest boiling point
(A)Kerosene (B) Diesel (C) Petrol (D) L.P.G

38. The fuel used in jet engine is

(A)Kerosene (B) Diesel (C) Petrol (D) L.P.G

39. Which one of the following substance gives the highest amount of energy on burning?
(A)Methane (B)Biogas (C)propane (D)Hydrogen gas

40. Kerosene oil is the mixture of

(A) Alkanes (B)Aromatic hydrocarbons
(C)alcohol (D)Aliphatic compounds

41. The main constituent of natural gas is

(A) Methane (B) Ethane (C) Propane (D) Butane

42. A solid fuel is used in

(A) Diesel engine (B) Rockets (C) Motor engine (D) Boiler

43. A gaseous fuel

(A) Gives a high ash content on burning (B) have low calorific value
(C) can not passed into pipe line (D) can be burn at any moment

44. Petrol can be extracted from

(A) Petroleum (B) Coal (C) Wood (D) Fuel oil

45. Which form of energy released from fuel?

(A) Sound (B) Heat
(C) Light (D) both heat and light

46. Which of the following is the correct combination of L.P.G?

(A) Butane (B) isobutene (C) both a & b (D) propane & butane

47. Diesel is obtained from

(A) petrol (B) coal (C) petroleum (D) coal bar

48. Out of which combination is Inexhaustible combination

(A) petrol & diesel (B) sun & petrol (C) wind power & diesel (D) wind power & sun

49. What is the petroleum refinery

(A) Filtering of petrol (B) Distillation of petrol
(C) Separation of fractions from petroleum (D) Filtering of petroleum

50. In which of the following natural process coal is form

(A) Carbonisatiion (B) Compression (C) Condensation (D) Carbonylation

Biology

1. The human activity that is responsible for loss of biodiversity is

(A) Urbanization (B) Afforestation
(C) Establishment of biosphere reserve (D) Respiration

2. An example of extinct species is

(A) The Royal Bengal tiger (B) The giant Panda (C) The African elephant (D) The Dinosaur

3. The variety of forms of life found in a region is

(A) Biodiversity (B) Flora (C) Fauna (D) Endemic

Regional Head Quarters : FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next Apex Plaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai – 600 034.
4. The one-horned rhinoceros is specific to which of the following National Park?
(A) Bihar Kanika (B) Bandipur (C) Kaziranga (D) Jim Corbett Park

5. In a National Park, protection is provided to

(A) Flora & Fauna (B) Entire ecosystem (C) Fauna only (D) Flora only

6. Biosphere reserves differ from National Parks & Wildlife sanctuaries because in the former
(A) Human beings are not allowed to enter
(B) People are an integral part of the system
(C) Plants are paid greater attention than the animals
(D) Living organisms are brought from all over the world & preserved for posterity.

7. Organization responsible for maintaining Red Data Book is

(A) IUCN (B) WWF (C) CITES (D) IBUL

8. Which is not a consequence of deforestation?

(A) Desertification (B) Global Warming (C) Poaching (D) Floods

9. Decrease in population size over few years and decrease in the size of its habitat indicates that an organism is
(A) Threatened (B) Vulnerable (C) Extinct (D) Endemic

10. An exotic species that is introduced to a new area, spreads rapidly & eliminate native species is called
(A) Immigrant species (B) Invasive species (C) Destructive species (D) None of these

11. A man made ecosystem is

(A) Less in diversity (B) More in diversity
(C) Man does not make ecosystem (D) More stable than natural ecosystem

12. Spot out the zone of our country considered as the hot spot of biodiversity and regarded as the ‘Cradle of
speciation’.
(A) Western ghats (B) North east (C) Himalayan base (D) Deccan plateau

13. The management of forest or woodlands is known as

(A) Sericulture (B) Silviculture (C) Apiculture (D) Pisciculture

14. An example of people’s participation in conservation of forest & wildlife is

(A) Silent Valley, Kashmir (B) Flower Valley, Himachal Pradesh
(C) Silent Valley, Kerala (D) Flower Valley, Uttaranchal
15. Which of the following is not vanishing wild annual of India?
(A) Leopard (B) Nilgiri langur (C) Sloth (D) Fox

16. Bacillus thuringenesis (Bt) strains have been used for designing novel.
(A) Biofertilizers (B) Bio-metallurgical techniques
(C) Bio-mineralization (D) Bio-insecticidal plants

17. The chemical substances produced by some microbes which can kill or retard the growth of other microbes are
called
(A) Antiseptics (B) Antacids (C) Antibiotics (D) All of these

18. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:-
Column-I Column-II
P Azotobacter i) Lactic acid
Q Streptomyces ii) Nitrification
R Nitrosomonas iii) Free living nitrogen giving bactaria
S Lactobacillus iv) Source of antibiotic
(A) P-ii; Q-iii; R-iv; S-i (B) P-iii; Q-iv; R-ii; S-I (C) P-iv; Q-ii; R-i; S-iii (D) P-i; Q-iv; R-ii; S-iii

19. Amoeba and Paramecium belong to the group

(A) Bacteria (B) Algae (C) Fungi (D) Protozoan

Regional Head Quarters : FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next Apex Plaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai – 600 034.
20. Which disease is caused by virus?
(A) Tuberculosis (B) Common cold (C) Typhoid (D) Malaria

21. Most bacteria can be killed by

(A) Cooking (B) Refrigeration (C) Freezing (D) Salting

22. Which of the following microbes causes food poisoning?

(A) Penicillium notatum (B) Salmonella (C) Pneumococcus (D) Mycobacterium

23. Baker’s yeast is

(A) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (B) S. Ludwingii (C) S. Octosporus (D)
Schizosaccharomyces
24. Spirulina is
(A) Biofertilizer (B) Biopesticide (C) Edible fungus (D) Single cell protein

25. Pasteurization makes foodstuffs free from

(A) All living organisms (B) Vegetative forms
(C) All vegetative forms of bacteria (D) All bacteria

26. The microorganism used in production of biogas

(A) Methanobacterium (B) Chlorella (C) Nostoc (D) Saccharomyces

27. Cheese and Yoghurt are products of

(A) Pasteurization (B) Fermentation (C) Dehydration (D) Distillation

28. Which one acts as a biofertilizer?

(A) E.Coli (B) Yeast (C) Rhizobium (D) Chlamydomonas

29. Formation of vinegar from alcohol is caused by

(A) Bacillus Subtilis (B) Clostridium (C) Acetobacter aceti (D) Azotobacter

30. A free living nitrogen fixing cyanobacterium which can also form symbiotic association with water fern Azolla is
(A) Chorella (B) Nostoc (C) Anabena (D) Tolypothrix

31. Pencillin is obtained from

(A) Aspergillus fumigatus (B) Penicillium Chrysogenum
(C) Penicillium griseofulrum (D) Streptomyces griseus

32. Bacteriophage gets attached to the host cell with the help of
(A) Tail Sheath (B) Tail fibres (C) Spikes (D) Collar

33. Study of fungi is known as

(A) Phycology (B) Mycology (C) Ecology (D) None of these

34. Cocci are ___________ shaped bacteria

(A) Rod (B) Round (C) Spiral (D) Comma

35. Which of the following is not a rabi crop?

(A) Wheat (B) Mustard (C) Sugarcane (D) Peas

36. Cutting of mature crops with sickle is called

(A) Threshing (B) Harvesting (C) Winnowing (D) None of these

37. Falling of mature crops due to excessive irrigation is known as

(A) Water logging (B) Water lodging (C) Transplantation (D) None of these

38. Which of the given nutrients is used in minute quantity by plants?

(A) Potassium (B) Iron (C) Calcium (D) Nitrogen

Regional Head Quarters : FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next Apex Plaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai – 600 034.
39. Which chemical given below is a insecticide?
(A) 2, 4-D (B) Malathion (C) MCPA (D) Butachlor

40. Sprinkler system of irrigation is very advantageous because it

(A) helps the fields to get water logged (B) Controls the water supply
(C) increases the evaporation of water (D) decrease the fertility of soil

ANSWER KEY
MATHEMATICS

1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. B

6. D 7. D 8. A 9. A 10. B

11. C 12. B 13. C 14. B 15. C

16. C 17. C 18. D 19. D 20. C

21. B 22. C 23. B 24. A 25. B

26. D 27. C 28. D 29. D 30. D

31.A 32.C 33.D 34.B 35.C

36.D 37.A 38.B 39.C 40.D

41.B 42.A 43.C 44.D 45.A

46.B 47.B 48.B 49.D 50.A

51.C 52.A 53.B 54.D 55.A

56.B 57.C 58.C 59.A 60.D

61. A 62. A 63. B 64. D 65. C

66. B 67. A 68. D 69. B 70. A

71. A 72. C 73. D 74. A 75. A

76. B 77. B 78. D 79. C 80. C

81. A 82. A 83. A 84. D 85. D

86. B 87. C 88. B 89. A 90. D

91. C 92. D 93. A 94. B 95. C

96. C 97. D 98. D 99. B 100. C

101. A 102. C 103. C 104. C 105. B

106. C 107. B 108. C 109. D 110. C

111. B 112. C 113. A 114. C 115. D

116. C 117. A 118. C 119. A 120. C

121.D 122.D 123.B 124.C 125.A

Regional Head Quarters : FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next Apex Plaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai – 600 034.
 Physics

1. D 2. D 3. D 4.D 5.C

6. C 7.D 8. A 9.C 10.B

11. B 12.C 13.D 14. B 15.C

16. A 17.A 18.D 19. B 20.C

21. D 22.B 23.C 24.B 25.C

26. C 27.D 28.C 29.A 30.D
31. A 32.A 33.B 34.A 35.B
36. C 37.B 38.D 39.C 40.B
41.D 42.A 43.C 44.C 45.C

46.D 47.A 48.D 49.B 50.C

51.D 52.C 53.A 54.B 55.B

56.A 57.C 58.A 59.D 60.A

61.C 62. C 63.D 64.B 65.C

66.D 67.D 68.A 69.D 70.A
71.B 72.B 73.A 74.D 75.D

CHEMISTRY

1.C 2.B 3.D 4.B 5.C

6.A 7.B 8.C 9.B 10.A

11.A 12.B 13.A 14.C 15.A

16.C 17.B 18.D 19.A 20.D

21.C 22.A 23.A 24.D 25.D

26.C 27.D 28.C 29.C 30.C

31.B 32.D 33.C 34.C 35.A

36.C 37.D 38.A 39.D 40.A

41.A 42.B 43.D 44.A 45.D

46.D 47.C 48.D 49.C 50.A

Regional Head Quarters : FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next Apex Plaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai – 600 034.
 BIOLOGY

1. A 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. B

6. B 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. B

11. A 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. D

16. D 17. C 18. B 19. D 20. B

21. A 22. B 23. A 24. D 25. B

26. A 27. B 28. C 29. C 30. C

31. B 32. B 33. B 34. B 35. C

36. B 37. B 38. B 39. B 40. B

PRACTICE MAKES MAN PERFECT

ALL THE BEST

Regional Head Quarters : FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next Apex Plaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai – 600 034.