Seat No: _____

Republic of the Philippines

PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
Manila

BOARD OF CRIMINOLOGY

CRIMINOLOGY Licensure Examination

CRIMINALISTICS

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark
only one answer for each item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of
your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil
no. 2 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICE:

1. Prints which are not developed using a conventional method can be developed
using –

A. Iodine Fuming C. Ninhydrin

B. Silver Nitrate D. Argon-ion Laser

2. What is the normal amount of semen per ejaculation of an average built

person?
A. 1.5 to 3.5 cc C. 2.5 to 3.5 cc
B. 3.5 to 5.5 cc D. 3.5 to 4.5 cc

3. A short ridge is one with a limited length of –

A. 1 mm C. 1 cm
B. ½ cm D. 1 and ½ mm

4. Rigor mortis is very important in determining the approximate time of death

for it starts at about 2 to 6 hours and completed at –
A. 36 hours C. 24 hours
B. 12 hours D. 48 hours

5. Delta is a point found in front or near the center of the diverging typeline.
What should be present between the delta and first ridge count?
A. Ridges C. Wide space
B. Imaginary line D. Recurving Ridge

6. An instrument used for recording and preserving developed latent prints is –

A. Finger print lifting tape C. Fingerprint transfer card
B. Fingerprint card D. Fingerprint ink

7. The greater the number of similarities or dissimilarities, the greater is

the probability for the conclusion to be correct. This refers to which
principle of identification?
A. law of multiplicity of evidence C. inclusion-exclusion rule
B. odd-even rule D. law on positive identification

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8. Friction skin component characterized by tiny elevation that forms lines on a
fingerprint impression. Which is being referred?
A. Friction Ridges C. Furrows
B. Sweat pores D. Hill-like structure

9. The Modern method of identification which is the biological equivalent of

fingerprint is –
A. Deocxyribonucleic Acid C. Deoxyribonucleic acid
B. Double helix D. DNA fingerprinting

10. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of tissues and

blackening of the skin, it may be ascertained that it is a near contact
fire, meaning the distance of the body to the gun is approximately ___.
A. 6 inches C. 18 inches
B. 12 inches D. 24 inches

11. Single ridge that splits into two and meet a certain point to form the
original ridge. Which ridge characteristic is illustrated?
A. Bifurcation C. Convergence
B. Enclosure D. Divergence

12. Which type of fingerprint pattern where most of the ridges enter from
one side and flows to the other side with one or more ridge from the
horizontal place making a sufficient rise at the center?
A. Plain Arch C. Tented Arch
B. Arch D. Loop

13. Points to be considered in reporting of wound:

1. character of wound
2. number of wound
3. location of wound
4. measurement of wound
5. position of the attacker when wound is inflicted
6. effects of the wound in the vital organs
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
B. 1, 3 and 4 only D. 2 and 4 only

14. Which term is used that refers to a short ridge found on top or
summit of the recurve?
A. Obstruction C. Appendage
B. Bar D. Rod

15. What is the depth of cut in the friction skin that cause permanent scar
on average skin?
A. More than 1 cm C. More than 1 mm
B. More than 1 inch D. Less than 1 inch

16. The identification of two impressions can be established primarily

through___.
A. formation of different types of pattern
B. formation of the two terminus
C. unexplained similarity of ridges
D. similarity of ridge characteristics in their relative positions

17. Fingerprint impression left by a person accidentally or unconsciously is

known as –
A. Fragmentary prints C. Smudged prints
B. Chance prints D. Latent prints

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18. Which part of the friction skin that will result permanent scar if
injured or damaged?
A. Epidermis C. Malpigian layer
B. Dermis D. Corneous layer

19. In case a person has more than a regular number of fingers, the excess
should be printed at -
A. Side of the card C. The other side of the card
B. Under the plain impression box D. Top portion of the card

20. Strokes characterized by sudden change in pressure associated with

increased in speed is identified as –
A. Pressure C. Pen-lifting
B. Shading D. Emphasis

21. What instrument will be used in examining handwriting’s degree of slant?

A. Magnifier C. Handwriting slope measuring test plates
B. Ruler D. Hand lends

22. Which of the following is a sign of genuine guided writing?

A. Good pen control C. Abrupt change in direction
B. Penlift D. Smooth unbroken strokes

23. Which filter should you use to improve the contrast of a latent
fingerprint impression dusted with gray powder on a yellow background?
A. Violet filter C. Red filter
B. Green filter D. Blue filter

24. To develop latent prints found in the crime scene, the best method
you should used to collect is the –
A. iodine fuming C. ninhydrin method
B. silver nitrate method D. dusting method

25. In the event that same fingers of both hands are missing what will be
the pattern interpretation of the two missing fingers?
A. Plain Whorl C. Plain Whorl With Meeting Tracing
B. Dash D. Same as the pattern of the next fingers

26. The lens opening also known as the relative aperture is the indicator
for light transmitting capability of the lens. Which of the following lens
opening will admit more light to pass through its medium?
A. F-4 C. F-8
B. F 5.6 D. F-11

27. The key division is obtained by getting the _____ .

A. ridge count of the ulnar Loop
B. ridge trace of the plain whorl
C. ridge count of the first Loop
D. first radial loop among the fingerprint patterns in the fingerprint card

28. To count the ridges of a plain whorl or a central pocket loop whorl,
the fingerprint patterns should be treated as ___.
A. Loop C. Ulnar Loop
B. Radial Loop D. The least number of count

29. Which division in the classification formula is place at extreme

right of the fingerprint card represented by a numerical value?
A. Key C. Final
B. Major D. Primary

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30. These occurs when light falls in any material, EXCEPT:
A. Light is transmitted C. Light is reflected
B. Light is absorbed D. Light is produced

31. Taking photograph at night will not be a problem using _________.

A. Fast shutter C. Moderate
B. Slow shutter D. B-shutter

32. Range through which the image place and the emulsion surface of the film
can be moved on the edge can be moved backward and forwards with respect to
the camera lens.
A. Follow shot C. Medium shot
B. Depth of focus D. Lens opening

33. Which of the following that refers to jacketed bullet?

A. Flat base bullet with a gilding metal jacket used for light vehicle
B. A cylindrical ball propelled by firearms
C. A bullet that emits a bright flame from its base showing the gunner its
path and striking point
D. A bullet covered with thick coating of a copper alloy to prevent leading

34. The purpose of adding 1/1 to the sum of the numerator and the
denominator in the Primary Division is ____.
A. to provide equal value
B. to complete the primary division
C. to have a complete 32 numerical value
D. for formality

35. Which fingerprint pattern is the double loop whorl?

A B C D

36. There are three stages in the conduct of the polygraph test. Which stage
of the polygraph test where the subject consent was taken?
A. Initial interview C. Actual test
B. Pre-test interview D. Post-test interview

37. Under the Backster Zone Comparison Test Technique. What is the color
zone for symptomatic question?
A. Black C. Yellow
B. Red D. Green

38. Polygraph examiner may intend to probe in the course of examination. It

should be conducted –
A. After the actual test C. After the post-test
B. Every after taking each chart D. Before the actual test

39. Terminal ballistics is that branch of ballistics which –

A. refers to the science of firearm identification by means of the
ammunition fired through the firearms
B. deals with the effects of the impact of the bullet on the target.
C. treats of the motion of the projectile while it is still inside the
firearm
B. treats of the attributes or movement of the projectile after leaving the
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40. What is an ancient smooth bore military weapon designed to fire a

single projectile?
A. Rifle C. Shotgun
B. Carbine D. Musket

41. Which condition that cartridge misfired?

A. Cartridge totally fails to discharge
B. Bullet tumbled in its flight and hit the target sideways as a result of
not spinning on its axis
C. Bullet bounced off from its original trajectory
D. Discharge of the firearm is delayed

42. Its mechanism is so arranged that it can fire continuously when

trigger is pressed. This refers to____
A. Repeating arms C. Automatic gun
B. Automatic bullet D. Breech action weapon

43. Maximum effective range refers to the farthest distance in which a

bullet when fired -
A. can still be consider lethal C. can still hit the target as sighted
B. bullet travels straight D. can still reach the target

44. Firing distance at which the gunner has the control of his shots is
known as____.
A. Maximum range C. Maximum effective range
B. Accurate range D. Effective range

45. A belted cartridge is -

A. An ammunition which does not have bullet used in film-making
B. A cartridge with a rim diameter which is smaller than the diameter of the
body of the cartridge
C. A cartridge which the priming mixture is not found at the cavity rim of
the cartridge case
C. A cartridge which has a protruding metal around its body near the rim
usually used for high power arms

46. Gun presented hereunder is known as___

A. Sumpak C. Paradox gun

B. Cane gun D. Zip gun

47. In the examination of questioned documents, one of the suggested

requirements for the validity and reliability of findings is
contemporaneousness which means the standard document must:
A. Be more than 5 years before and after
B. Not be more than 5 years before and after
C. Be more than 30 years
D. Be not more than 20 years

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48. Among the following which is NOT a public documents?
A. Written official acts, or records of the official acts of the sovereign
authority, official bodies and tribunals and public officers, whether of the
Philippines, or of a foreign country.
B. Documents acknowledged before a notary public.
C. Last will and testaments.
D. Public records, kept in the Philippines, of private documents required by
law to be entered therein.

49. Before any private document can be offered in evidence, its

authenticity and due execution must be proved first. How?
A. By anyone who saw the document executed or written
B. By evidence of the genuineness of the signature or handwriting of the
maker.
C. Ancient document
D. By expert opinion of a questioned document examiner whose expertise
must be duly proved first

A. 1 and 4 C. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2 and 4 D. 4 only

50. To minimize the chance of a successful forgery by erasure, mechanical

or chemical features are added in the documents called_____.
A. Security measures C. Tested paper
B. Safety paper D. Polyethylene coated paper

51. An executive consulted you on what writing instrument he will use in

order to easily detect a forgery of his signature. What will be your
advice?
A. Use blue ball-point pen C. Use a Fountain pen
B. Use pink gel pen D. Use a unique sign pen

52. In the examination of a questioned personally written, dated and

signed last will and testament, previously handwritten materials executed
by the testator played a very important role to detect forgery. As
document examiner, what will be your first step in the procurement of
handwriting exemplars?
A. Request for standard specimen
B. Study of the questioned specimen
C. Determine the writing instrument and paper used
D. Arrange for normal writing condition

53. What marks you observe in the cartridge case presented below?

A. Striations C. Breech face marks

B. Firing pin marks D. Extractor marks

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54. In a sale of a car, Joey is asked to acknowledge the transaction
through a deed of sale which he must write something to indicate his
acceptance and recognition of its contents. Which of the following should
Joey writes?
A. His acknowledgment of the sale through writing his signature in each
page of the deed of sale
B. His penmanship
C. His greetings, name and autograph
D. His name and signature

55. In the commission of a simulated or traced forgery, a genuine

signature for its execution is needed. This is what we called____.
A. Authentic signature C. Standard signature
B. Model signature D. Evidential signature

56. Handwriting is consists of various strokes which made possible by the

group of muscles. Muscles responsible for the formation of the upward
strokes are_____.
A. Flexor C. Lumbrical
B. Cortex D. Extensor

57. Due to its great freedom of movement, ____________ writing movement

is considered as the most skillful type writing movement.
A. finger C. hand
B. forearm D. whole arm

58. Which of the following is NOT FALSE about traced forgery of signature?
A. It is a writing using model signature
B. It is not a writing but a drawing
C. It is the most skillful type of forgery
D. It is not a drawing but definitely a writing

59. Assume that you are a Criminologist- Questioned Document Examiner.

Which of the following will you AGREE with about sign of forgery in guided
hand signature?
A. It has good pen control
B. Writing alignment is even
B. There is an abrupt change of direction in the writing
D. Strokes are slanted

60. As Criminologist, simulated forged signature to you means:

A. Forged signature made by the forger through free hand movement and
constant practice
B. Forged signature which the forger exerts no effort to effect
resemblance or facsimile between the forged and the genuine signatures
C. Forged signature which the forger executed by actually following the
outline of a genuine signature with a writing instrument
D. Forged signature which the forger compelled the writer to sign under
duress

61. A document examiner who scrutinizes a check and aims to examine its
water markings and fiber arrangement where the source of light is coming
either from the back or at the bottom of the paper surface should
utilize____.
A. oblique light examination C. side light
B. ultra-violet light D. transmitted light

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62. Slant or degree of writing inclination relative to the baseline can
sometimes be called______.
A. Slope of the writing C. Scale
B. Proportion D. Alignment

63. Which letters diacritics are added to complete its characters?

A. z and y C. i and t
B. a and o D. c and k

64. In the examination of indented writing and erasure cases, a light

examination which the source of light is coming from one side hitting the
surface of the paper/object at a very low angle is considered the best
method to use. This method is called -
A. direct light examination C. side light examination
B. oblique light examination D. transmitted light examination

65. Infra-red light examination is best used in:

A. the examination of forgery
B. detecting mechanical erasures in the writing
C. detecting mechanical and chemical erasures in the writing
D. deciphering obliterated and addition in the writing

66. In questioned document examination jargons, collation means:

A. the process of making clear what is otherwise is illegible or that which
is not visible to the naked eye
B. the process of blotting over or smearing over an original writing
C. the process of making a critical study of a given thing so as to discover
facts about them
D. the critical side by side examination of two or more specimen.

67. Pointed part of the letters shown in the presentation is known as___.

A. Hitch C. Hook
B. Hump D. Knob

68. Which action of light that produces photographs?

A. Light reflection consists of the bouncing of light once it hits a certain
object
B. Light absorption consists of absorbing the light by the object hit by it
C. Light refraction consists of bending of light when it hits the object
D. Light transmission consists of passing the light through the objects

69. Once light hits a certain medium, its action can be characterized as
either :
1. light is transmitted
2. light is reflected
3. light is absorbed
4. light is produced
5. light is exterminated

A. 1, 2, 3 C. 2, 4
B. 1, 3, 5 D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

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70. Short duration artificial light commonly attached to a camera is_____.
A. Incandescent lamp C. fluorescence lamp
B. photo flood lamp D. flash bulb

71. Which artificial light that has the wavelength of 700- 1000
millimicron and is best used in deciphering obliterated and charred
document?
A. infra-red C. visible rays
B. ultra-violet D. x-rays

72. Images are formed as reaction to light through the following methods:
1. pin hole method
2. shadowing
3. lens method
4. shadow method
5. press button method
A. 1, 2, 3 C. 1, 4, 5
B. 1, 3, 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

73. Sidelight photography is usually done to show ________in a questioned

document.
A. Stamped out writing C. Watermarks
B. Faded writing D. Erasures

74. Problem usually encountered by a photographer in using a flash unit

is_____.
A. neutral density C. synchronization
B prospective D. parallax

75. Basically, what is the specific use of camera in photography?

A. to record the image hit by light
B. to exclude all unwanted and unnecessary lights
C. to make the image hit by light visible
D. to make the image recorded permanent

76. Which of the following notion about polygraph machine is WRONG?

A. it is capable of detecting lies
B. it is incapable of drawing or interpreting any conclusions
C. it is a sensitive machine like an x-ray which needs interpretation
D. it is a potent aid in investigation

77. The Reed polygraph differs from the Keeler’s in the following respect
EXCEPT:
A. An adjustable and portable chair is employed wherein metal bellows are
inserted in
the chair arm rests.
B. The chair seat is directly attached to recording bellows in the machine
to form
closed pneumatic systems.
C. Three additional recordings are made by this method
D. There is no need of using corrugated rubber tubing

78. Which of the following statement/s about polygraph machine is CORRECT?

1. It rings a bell
2. It has a dial indicator
3. It flash a light
4. It detect the truth
A. 1 and 3 A. Only 1
B. 2 and 4 D. None

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79. Generally speaking, all persons subjected to lie detector examination
are all ___ and this creates a set of distortion.
A. terrified C. convenient
B. nervous D. confident

80. The sum total of the dissimulation which the child acquires from his
surrounding once he learned to go out and socialized with his neighborhood
is known as___.
A. Personality C. Heredity
B. Environment D. Education

81. The investigator should avoid asking witnesses long complicated

questions because this will:
A. Give the witness a chance to formulate desired answer.
B. Enable him to ascertain the purpose of the interviewer.
C. Renders difficulty in obtaining the facts for conviction
D. Embraces him and cause him to answer he does not know

82. The best way to conduct a thorough interview is for the investigator
to:
A. allow himself sufficient time for adjustment
B. permit the interviewee to give narrative statement
C. be guided by a pre-arranged checklist
D. Devote adequate time for an interviewee’s evaluation

83. What usually set the tone or condition and creates the atmosphere
during the interrogation?
A. interrogator’s behavior
B. the type of crime involved
C. questioning style of the interrogator
D. the subject’s personal history

84. Of the following, which is a kind of polygraph machine?

1. Stoelting polygraph 3. Keeler's polygraph
2. Laffayette polygraph 4. Singer polygraph
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 3 and 4

85. As a rule, lie detector test should be conducted in____.

A. a noisy place C. quiet private room
B. crowded place D. dark private room

86. What type of test designed to overly responsive subject, consisting of

questions that are purely fictitious incident of a similar nature to the one
that is under investigation?
A. general question test C. peak of tension test
B. guilt complex test D. silent answer test

87. Series of relevant and irrelevant questions answerable by either yes

or no are called____.
A. general question test C. peak of tension test
B. guilt complex test D. silent answer test

88. Test consisting of series of irrelevant questions with only one

relevant question is____.
A. general question test C. peak of tension test
B. guilt complex test D. silent answer test

89. What questions are asked to established normal response from the
subject?
A. relevant C. irrelevant
B. control D. knowledge
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90. What questions are asked to determine information known, or the
subject possess regarding the crime or the criminal or his whereabouts?
A. evidence connecting question C. sacrifice questions
B. knowledge question D. control questions

91. “Did you shoot Rose last night” is an example of what question?
A. irrelevant question C. control question
B. relevant question D. none of the above

92. A type of question designed to obtain a response from an innocent

subject is_____.
A. irrelevant question C. control question
B. relevant question D. peak of tension question

93. The following are the types of mechanical asphyxia EXCEPT one:
A. Strangulation C. Smothering
B. Crushing D. Cyanide poisoning

94. Pink color of blood and tissue of a gunshot wound of entry is caused
by____.
A. carbon monoxide C. carbon dioxide
B. cellulose nitrite D. Hydrogen disulfide

95. Smothering means ________

A. blockage of the external air-passages C. deprivation of oxygen
B. blockage of the upper airways D. burning of the flesh

96. The following are importance of cadaveric lividity, EXCEPT:

A. sign of death
B. determines whether the position of the body has been changed
C. may indicate the cause of death
D. determines how the person was murdered

97. Maggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in warm countries within
how many day/s from the moment of death.
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4

98. If post-mortem rigidity would suggest approximate time of death,

cadaveric spasm will suggest _____.
A. duration of death C. age of the victim
B. cause of death D. position of the person at the time of death

99. The following are signs of death EXCEPT one. Which one?
A. cessation of respiration C. cessation of heart function and circulation
B. cooling of the body D. heating of the body

100. To confirm the presence of blood we look for____.

A. white crystalline C. dark brown rhomboid crystal
B. Salmon pink, haemochromogen D. white cloudy precipitate

-ooOoo-

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