SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR AIIMS S60 & NEET MPL (AP, TS & KARNATAKA) DATE: 07-03-2022
Sub: BOTANY NEET UNIT TEST – 4 Max.Marks: 720
Guidelines:
In every subject:
a) In Section-A, 35 Questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from Section-A
b) In Section-B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which answer 10 questions

BOTANY 4. Elements that are reversibly oxidized

SECTION – A during electron transfer are
1. Which one among the following help in (1) Iron & Nitrogen
binding the two subunits of ribosomes (2) Copper & Nitrogen
during protein synthesis ? (3) Calcium & Magnesium
(1) Magnesium (2) Calcium (4) Iron & Copper
(3) Sulphur (4) Nitrogen 5. Which of the following is not a method to
2. Which among the following is a introduce alien DNA into host cells ?
beneficial element ? (1) Elution (2) Micro-injection
(1) Mg (2) Na (3) Gene gun (4) Heat shock
(3) Zn (4) Mo 6. An element is absorbed as bivalent cation,
3. Match the column I with column II and its deficiency is induced by manganese
toxicity, present in the middle lamellum
choose the correct option
and needed for the formation of mitotic
Column I Column II spindle. It gets accumulated in older
a) Joseph Priestley 1) Purple and green leaves and involved in normal functioning
of cell membranes. The above
bacteria
explanation is about
b) T.W. Engelmann 2) Algae (1) Ca (2) K
c) Cornelius van Niel 3) Cladophora (3) Mg (4) Fe
d) Melvin Calvin 4) Mint plant 7. Which colour of light gives maximum
(1) a – 3, b – 4, c – 2, d – 4 absorption peak of chlorophyll a & b?
(2) a – 1, b – 2, c – 3, d – 4 (1) Red (2) Blue
(3) a – 4, b – 3, c – 2, d – 1 (3) Green (4) Yellow
(4) a – 4, b – 3, c – 1, d – 2

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8. A stirred-tank bioreactor is usually (3) As compounds having high carbon to
cylindrical or with a curved base to nitrogen ratio
(1) Facilitate mixing of reactor contents (4) Ammonia
(2) Control the temperature of the reactor 12. Purified DNA ultimately precipitate out
H
(3) Control the p of the reactor after the addition of chilled ethanol. This
DNA that separates out can be removed
(4) All of the above
by
9. Match the following (1) Electrophoresis
I N 2 fixer in A Frankia (2) Downstream processing
legumes (3) PCR
II Symbiotic N 2 B Anaebana (4) Spooling

fixer in Alnus 13. Oxygen scavenger in the root nodules of

legumes is
III N2 fixer in C Rhizobium
(1) Nitrogenase enzyme
Cycas
(2) Lectin protein
IV Non- D Rhodospirillum
(3) Leg – haemoglobin
symbiotic
(4) IAA hormone
green N 2 fixer
14. Which is responsible for controlling the
(1) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV - D
copy number of the linked DNA in
(2) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV - D
plasmid?
(3) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV - D
(1) Cloning sites
(4) I-C, II-B, III-A, IV – D
(2) Ori
10. In legume roots, nodule formation is due
(3) Restriction endonuclease
to the division of
(4) Insertional inactivation
(1) Vascular tissues
15. Process of oxidizing ammonia into nitrate
(2) Cortical and pericycle cells
is called
(3) Root hair cell
(1) Biological nitrogen fixation
(4) Epidermal cells
(2) Ammonification
11. Nodules of soyabean exports the fixed
(3) Denitrification
nitrogen as
(4) Nitrification
(1) Amides
(2) Ureides

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16. ATP synthesis occurs in light phase when (1) Sodium chloride
two protons (H+) are passed through
(2) Calcium chloride
CF0 − CF1 from
(1) Thylakoid to cytosol (3) Chilled ethanol

(2) Thylakoid membrane to lumen (4) Ethidium bromide

(3) Lumen of thylakoid to stroma 22. Non mineral essential elements are
(4) Stroma to thylakoid lumen (1) Fe, Cu, Zn (2) Ca, Mg, S
17. Differential mobility of DNA fragments (3) Na, K, Cl (4) C, H, O
in Gelelectrophoresis depends upon 23. Major limiting factor for the
(1) Helical nature of DNA photosynthesis on a sunny day is
(2) Double stranded nature of DNA (1) Temperature (2) CO2
(3) Charge and size of DNA fragments (3) H2O (4) Light
(4) Hydrogen bonds between bases 24. Tetracycline resistance gene of pBR322
18. Which element help in photolysis of consists of recognition site for this
water ? restriction enzyme
(1) Magnesium (2) Nitrogen
(1) ECoRI (2) BamHI
(3) Manganese (4) Boron
(3) PstI (4) Hind III
19. An organism which does not release
25. Choose the correctly matched set of
oxygen during photosynthesis is
elements
(1) Blue-green alga
(1) N, P, K – Critical elements
(2) Green sulphur bacterium
(2) C, H, O, N – Structural elements
(3) Green alga
(3) Mg, P – Energy related compounds
(4) Angiosperm
(4) All the above
20. The products of the light reaction are
26. PCR proceeds in three distinct steps
(1) ATP and CO2
governed by temperature. They are in
(2) ATP, NADPH and O2
order of
(3) ATP, CO 2 and O2
(1) Annealing, synthesis, denaturation
(4) NADPH only
(2) Annealing, denaturation, synthesis
21. In order to force bacteria to take up the r-
(3) Denaturation, annealing, extension
DNA the bacterial cells must be made
‘competent’ to take up DNA. This is done (4) Synthesis, annealing, denaturation
by treating bacterial cell with

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27. Identify A, B and C from the following 31. This reaction is called
diagram α − Ketoglutaric acid + NH +4 + NADH
↓ Glutamate dehydrogenase
Glutamate + H 2 O + NADP
(1) Reductive amination
(2) Transmination
(3) N2 – fixation
(4) Nitrification
A B C 32. Radioactive isotopes used in the study of
(1) Funnel Cotton Aerating photosynthesis are
15
(1) N, 35S (2) 32
P, 35S
tube
18
(2) Cotton Funnel Aerating (3) O, 14C (4) 15
N, 18O
tube 33. Construction of recombinant DNA
(3) Aerating tube Cotton Funnel involves
(1) Cleaving and rejoining of DNA
(4) Funnel Aerating Cotton
segments with endonuclease
tube
(2) Cleaving DNA segments with
28. Which amino acid act as amino donor to
keto acids and help in the formation of endonuclease and rejoining with ligase
aspartic acid and many other amino acids ? (3) Cleaving and rejoining DNA
(1) Glutamic acid (2) Glutamine segments with ligase
(3) Malic acid (4) Asparagine (4) Cleaving DNA segments with ligase
29. The reaction centres for PSI and PSII and rejoining with endonuclease
respectively 34. Stroma lamellae lack
(1) P700 and P680 (2) P680 and P700 (1) Cytochrome b-f complex
(3) P700 and P660 (4) P680 and P660 (2) NADP reductase
30. For isolation of DNA from the plant cell, (3) PSII
which of the following enzyme is NOT (4) Both 2 and 3
used ? 35. Hydroponics medium contain
(1) Deoxyribonuclease (1) Organic matter & water
(2) Cellulase (2) Organic matter & inorganic matter
(3) Ribonuclease (3) Organic matter, water & hormones
(4) Protease (4) Inorganic matter & water

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 SECTION – B 41. Sulphur containing amino acid is / are
36. PEP-carboxylase is associated with (1) Methionine (2) Asparagine
photosynthesis during (3) Cysteine (4) Both 1 and 3
(1) C3 plants 42. Which statement is incorrect w.r.t
(2) C4 plants restriction endonucleases ?
(1) They belongs to the class nucleases
(3) Light phase
(2) They is isolated from virus
(4) Photorespiration
(3) They recognizes a palindromic
37. Sampling ports in a bio-reactor are useful
nucleotide sequence
for
(4) They produces sticky ends in DNA
(1) Foam control
molecules
(2) Oxygen delivery
43. In plants, flowering is delayed due to the
(3) Periodic withdrawl of culture deficiency of
(4) Periodic addition of small volumes of (1) Mo, N and S

culture (2) Mo, N, S and K

(3) Ca, Mg, Cu and K
38. Discovery of Emerson’s effect has clearly
(4) Mg, Zn, Mn and K
shown the existence of
44. Which of the following is a
(1) Light and dark phases
biotechnological process?
(2) Two distinct photosystems
(1) IVF leading to ‘test tube’ baby
(3) Photorespiration
(2) Developing a DNA vaccine
(4) Photophosphorylation
(3) Synthesising a gene and using it
39. For every CO2 molecule entering into
Calvin cycle, the number of ATP and (4) All of the above
NADPH+H+ required in regeneration 45. Assertion (A) : Most minerals enter roots
phase is by passive absorption
(1) 18ATP & 12 NADPH+H+ Reason (R) : In soil mineral concentration
(2) 2ATP & 2 NADPH+H+ is always more than that of root cells
(1) Both A and R are true R can explain
(3) 2ATP & 1 NADPH+H+
A
(4) 1ATP & 0 NADPH+H+
(2) Both A and R are true R can’t explain
40. Which is widely used to clone desairable
A
genes into plants ?
(3) Only A is true, R is false
(1) Micro-injection (2) Retroviruses
(4) Both A and R are false
(3) Ti-plasmid (4) PUC-19

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46. Clinical trials are done during 50. Nitrogen pools occurring in nature are
(1) Gelelectrophorosis (1) Atmospheric pool
(2) Southern blotting (2) Biomass pool

(3) Bioprocess engineering (3) Soil pool

(4) Downstream processing (4) All the above

ZOOLOGY
47. Find out the correct sequence of steps
involved in rDNA technology SECTION – A
(a) Separation and selection of desired 51. Arrange the following anatomical layers
DNA fragment of gut wall from outer surface to lumen
(b) culturing of host cell A) Sub-mucosa B) Circular muscles
(c) isolation of DNA
C) Serosa D) Mucosa
(d) fragmentation of DNA
(e) ligation of DNA fragment into vector E) Longitudinal muscles
(f) extraction of desired product (1) C-B-E-A-D (2) C-E-B-A-D
(g) transferring the rDNA into host
(3) C-E-B-D-A (4) D-B-A-E-C
(1) a→b→c→d→e→f→g
52. Match the following
(2) c→d→a→e→g→b→f
A) Jejunum (1) Stomach
(3) a→c→d→e→g→b→f
B) Caecum (2) Ameloblasts
(4) g→c→a→b→f→d→e
C) Rugae (3) Small intestine
48. Statement-I: No reaction in the light
D) Enamel (4) Large intestine
phase is enzyme mediated.
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
Statement-II: All reactions in the dark
(2) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
phase are enzyme mediated
(3) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(1) Statements I & II both are correct
(4) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(2) Only statement I is correct
53. Statement I: Human can’t breath while
(3) Only statement II is correct
chewing food
(4) Statement I & II both are incorrect
Statement II: Buccal cavity and nasal
49. Events not common to cyclic and
chamber are separated by palate in
noncyclic phosphorylation are humans
(1) Formation of ATP (1) S-I is correct, S-II is incorrect
(2) Evolution of O2 (2) S-I is incorrect, S-II is correct
(3) NADPH + H+ formation (3) Both S-I & S-II are incorrect
(4) 2 & 3 (4) Both S-I, S-II are correct

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54. Which of the following terms describes 60. Protein deficiency disorder in which
human dentition extensive edema and swelling of body
(1) Diphyodont, Thecodont, Homodont parts seen in
(2) Diphyodont, Thecodont, Heterodont (1) Marasmus (2) Beriberi
(3) Pleurodont, Thecodont, Homodont (3) Kwashiorkor (4) Both 1 and 3
(4) Pleurodont, Thecodont, Heterodont 61. Vomiting reflex is control by vomiting
55. Oesophagus opens into center in the _____ of brain
(1) Cardiac stomach (1) Cerebrum
(2) Body of the stomach (2) Cerebellum
(3) Fundic region of stomach (3) Pons
(4) Pyloric region of stomach (4) Medulla oblongata
56. The duct of gallbladder known as 62. Gross calorific values of carbohydrates
(1) Cystic duct and fats respectively
(2) Pancreatic duct (1) 4.1 & 5.65 (2) 4.1 & 9.45
(3) Stenson’s duct (3) 9.45 & 4.1 (4) 5.65 & 9.45
(4) Ampulla of vater 63. Exchange nutrients and gases between
57. Emulsification of fat is brought about by blood and cells occurs through
(1) Bile pigments (2) Bile salts (1) Lymph (2) Serum
(3) HCl (4) Pancreatic juice (3) Plasma (4) Interstitial fluid
58. Find out the correct sequence of substrate 64. Complete double circulation is found in
enzyme and product (1) Calotes, Crocodilus
(1) Fats 
Lipases
→ Amino acids (2) Corvus, Camelus
(2) Proteins 
Pepsin
→ Fatty acids (3) Carcharodon, Catla
α − Amylase (4) Chamaeleon, Columba
(3) Starch  → Maltose
(4) Triglycerides 
Trypsin
→ Mono 65. Oxygenated blood is carried by _____ in

glycerids human

59. Location of the Brunner’s glands (1) Pulmonary artery

(1) Sub mucosa of ileum (2) Pulmonary vein

(2) Mucosa of ileum (3) Hepatic portal vein

(3) Sub mucosa of duodenum (4) Coronary veins

(4) Mucosa of duodenum

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66. Which of the following ions play 70. Select the wrong statement from among
important role in blood clotting the following
(1) Ca+2 (2) K+ (1) Atherosclerotic disease is caused by
(3) Mg+2 (4) Na+ deposits of calcium, fat, cholesterol and
67. The blood vessels of human beings that fibrous tissue in the coronary veins
carry relatively large amount of urea and (2) Angina pectoris is symptamised by
least amount of urea respectively are acute chest pain
(1) Hepatic vein & Hepatic portal vein (3) High blood pressure leads to heart
(2) Hepatic vein & renal artery diseases and affects vital organs
(3) Hepatic vein & renal vein (4) Normal blood pressure of human
(4) Hepatic portal vein & Hepatic vein 120mmHg/80 mmHg
68. Match the following regarding ECG 71. Statement I : LUB heart sound is
i) Depolarization of associated with the closure of semi lunar
A) T-Wave
ventricles valves
B) P-Wave ii) End of systole Statement II : DUB heart sound is
iii) Repolarization of associated with the closure of Atrio
C) QRS complex
ventricle ventricular valves
iv) Depolarization of (1) S-I is correct, S-II is incorrect
D) End of T-Wave
Atria (2) S-I is incorrect, S-II is correct
(1) A – iv, B – iii, C – i, D – ii (3) Both S-I & S-II are correct
(2) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv (4) Both S-I, S-II are incorrect
(3) A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D – ii 72. Blood group without antigen is
(4) A – iii, B – iv, C – ii, D - i (1) AB− (2) AB+
69. In adult human heart, the valves that (3) O − (4) O+
allow flow of deoxygenated blood are 73. Which of the following components of
(1) Valves of Thebesius and mitral value ECG are counted to determine the heart
(2) Mitral valves and Aortic valves beat rate of an individual
(3) Tricuspid valves and Pulmonary (1) P – wave (2) QRS complex
valves (3) T – wave (4) P – R interval
(4) Aortic valves & Pulmonary valves

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74. For conversion of prothrombin in to (1) Sweet potato and potato
thrombin which of the following is (2) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils
required of Cucurbita
(1) Fibrinogen (2) Thrombokinase (3) Eyes of octopus and man
(3) Vitamin K (4) Both 2 and 3 (4) Flippers of penguins and dolphins
75. Which one of the following is incorrect 79. Bacteria evolve faster than human
about the conditions on the earth at the because
time of origin of life (1) Bacteria have short life span
(1) High temperature (2) Bacteria respire an aerobically
(2) Volcanic storms (3) Bacteria microscopic in size
(3) Oxidising atmosphere (4) Bacteria reproduce asexually
(4) Atmosphere with hydrogen, CH4, NH3 80. The two key concepts of Darwinian
and water vapor theory are
76. Alfred Wallace who worked in (1) Natural selection & Abiogenesis
Malay Archipelago, is the co author of (2) Natural selection & Inheritance of
(1) Biogenetic law acquired characters
(2) Laws of embryology (3) Branching decent & adaptive
(3) Use and disuse theory radiation
(4) Natural selection theory (4) Branching decent & natural selection
77. According to the theory of spontaneous 81. According to Hardy-Weinberg principle
generation the sum total of all the allele frequencies
(1) Life comes only from pre-existing life will be
(2) Units of life called spores were (1) Zero
transferred to the earth (2) One
(3) Life originates from decaying and (3) Infinite
rotting matter (4) Remains changeable
(4) All living organisms are created by 82. The frequency of homozygous
God as such individuals of population in Hardy
78. Among the following sets of examples for Weinberg equilibrium is expressed as
Analogous organs select the incorrect (1) p + q (2) p2 + q2
option (3) 2 pq (4) p2 + 2 pq + q2

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83. Dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the 87. Statement I: North American mammals
earth in about resembling horse, hippopotamus, bear,
(1) 65 mya (2) 200 mya rabbit
(3) 320 mya (4) 2000 mya Statement II: North American mammals
84. Match the column-I and column-II and were overridden by South American
choose the correct combination from the Fauna
option given (1) S-I is correct, S-II is incorrect
Column – I Column – II (2) S-I is incorrect, S-II is correct
A) Neanderthal man i) 650-800CC (3) Both S-I & S-II are correct
B) Homo habilis ii) 1400 CC (4) Both S-I & S-II are incorrect
C) Homo erectus iii) 900 CC 88. Correct match is
D) Modern man iv) Omnivores (1) Invertebrates were formed and active -
(1) A – iii, B – i, C – ii, D – iv 200 mya
(2) A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D – iii (2) Jawless fish probably evolved around
(3) A – ii, B – i, C – iv, D – iii - 500 mya
(4) A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – iv (3) Dinosaurs suddenly disappeare - 350
85. Australopithecus probably lived in east mya
African grasslands (4) Sea weeds and few plants existed –
(1) 2 mya (2) 3 – 4 mya 320 mya
(3) 15 mya (4) 50 mya 89. Which polypeptide chain is removed
SECTION - B during the maturation of pro Insulin into
86. The correct evolutionary sequence of Insulin
mammals is (1) A – chain (2) B – chain
(1) Pelycosaurus → Therapsida → (3) C – chain (4) A and B chains
Synapsids → Mammals 90. Which of the following techniques is
(2) Synapsids → Pelycosaurs → based on the principle of antigen –
Therapsids → Mammals antibody interaction
(3) Sauropsids → Thecodont → (1) PCR
Synapsids → Mammals (2) ELISA
(4) Sauropsids → Pelycosaurs → (3) Recombinant DNA Technology
Therapsids → Mammals (4) Genetherapy

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91. Number of recombinant therapeutics have 96. Transgenic models exist for all of the
been approved for human use throughout following diseases except
the world is (1) Hypertension
(1) 12 (2) 20 (2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(3) 300 (4) 30
(3) Alzheimer’s disease
92. The genetic defect – Adenosine.
(4) Cancer
Deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be
97. Which protein is used to treat emphysema
cured permanently by
(1) Periodic Infusion of genetically (1) α − lactalbumin

engineered lymphocytes having (2) α − 1 – antitrypsin

functional ADA c DNA (3) β − 1 – antitrypsin
(2) Administering adenosine deaminase
(4) β − lactalbumin
activators
98. First clinical gene therapy was given to
(3) Introducing ADA producing gene into
(1) ADA Deficiency
cells at early embryonic stages
(2) Sickle cell anemia
(4) Enzyme replacement therapy
(3) Phenyl ketonuria
93. Human insulin is being commercially
(4) Haemophilia
produced from a transgenic species of
99. Which of the following techniques are not
(1) E.Coli (2) Mycobacterium
used for early diagnosis of a disease
(3) Rhizobium (4) Saccharomyces
(1) r.DNA technology
94. Maximum number of existing transgenic
(2) Serum and urine analysis
animals is of
(3) PCR method
(1) Fish (2) Pig
(4) ELISA
(3) Cow (4) Mice
100. Which of the following cause reduction in
95. ADA deficiency is caused due to ___ of
the absorption of food
the gene for Adenosine deaminase
(1) Jaundice
(1) Addition (2) Change
(2) Vomiting
(3) Deletion (4) Multiplication
(3) Constipation
(4) Diarrhoea

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 PHYSICS (1) + 50 (2) -50
SECTION – A (3) +200 (4) -200
101. In a concave mirror experiment, an object 105. Two lenses of power +12D and -2D are
is placed at a distance x1 from focus and placed in contact, the combined focal
the image is formed at a distance x2 from length of the combination will be

the focus. The focal length of the mirror (1) 8.33 cm (2) 1.66cm
would be (3) 20 cm (4) 10 cm

(1) x1 x2 (2) x1 x2 106. A person suffering from hypermetropia

requires which type of spectacle lenses ?
x +x x1
(3) 1 2 (4) (1) Concave lens
2 x2
(2) Plano concave lens
102. A concave mirror of focal length 10cm (in
(3) Convexo concave lens
air) is immersed in water ( µ = 4 / 3) . The
(4) Convex lens
focal length of the mirror in water will be
107. A transparent solid cylindrical rod has a
(1) 10 cm (2) 40 cm
2
(3) 5 cm (4) 20 cm refractive index of . It is surround by
3
103. A fish is little away below the surface of air. A light ray is incident at the midpoint
lake, then the fish could see things above of one end of the rod as shown is the
the water surface within an angular range figure. The incident angle θ for which
of θ where (if critical angle is 49 )
0 0
the light ray grazes along the wall of the
0
(1) θ = 490 (2) θ =  24 1  rod is
 2 

(3) θ = 900 (4) θ = 980

104. If the focal power of objective and eye
lens are 100D and 16D respectively and
the object is put 1.1 cm away from the
 3  2 
objective lens and the final image is (1) sin −1   (2) sin −1  
 2   3
formed at least distance of distinct vision
25cm. The magnifying power of the  1  1
(3) sin −1   (4) sin −1  
 3  
2
microscope is

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108. Two thin convex lenses of focal lengths (3) 2.5A (4) 2A
20cm and 5 cm respectively are placed at 113. The current gain in common emitter
a distance ‘x’. If a parallel beam of light amplifier mode of a transistor is 10. The
input resistance is 20kΩ and load
incident on the first lens emerges as a
resistance is 100kΩ . The power gain is
parallel beam from the second lens, then (1) 300 (2) 200
value of ‘x’ is (3) 500 (4) 100
(1) 5 cm (2) 15cm 114. In the figure, VZ = 5.6V . then the current
(3) 20 cm (4) 25cm I Z through the diode is
0
109. A thin prism of 4 angle gives a deviation
of 2.40 . What is the value of refractive
index of the material of the prism ?
(1) 1.6 (2) 1.5
(3) 1.3 (4) 1.2
110. A full wave rectifier is used to convert ‘n’
Hz a.c. into d.c., then the number of (1) 17 mA (2) 15 mA
pulses per second present in the rectified (3) 10 mA (4) 7mA
voltage is
115. For a transistor, the current gain α = 0.8 .
(1) n (2) n/2
If it is connected in common emitter
(3) 2n (4) 4n
configuration, the change in collector
111. Which of the following gate is called
current when the base current changes by
universal gate
6mA is
(1) NOT gate (2) OR gate
(1) 6 mA (2) 4.8 mA
(3) AND gate (4) NAND gate
(3) 24 mA (4) 8 mA
112. In the given circuit current through the
116. Write down the output at Y for the inputs
battery is (all diodes are ideal)
i) A = 0, B = 0 and ii) A = 1, B = 1
A
Y
B
(1) y = 0 and 0 (2) y = 0 and 1
(3) y = 1 and 0 (4) y = 1 and 1

(1) 0.5A (2) 1A

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117. The junction diode shown in figure is what frequency does maximum current
ideal. The current in the circuit is flow ?
+4V 100Ω +1V (1) 11.25 kHz (2) 23.76 kHz
(3) 35.46 kHz (4) 46.72 kHz
(1) 50 A (2) 40 A
122.A series LCR circuit is connected to a
−2 −2
(3) 5 ×10 A (4) 3 ×10 A
source of alternating emf 50 V and if the
118. For a L-C-R series circuit List-I with List-
potential differences across inductor and
II (Terms have their usual meaning)
List-I List-II capacitor are 90V and 60Vrespectively,
a) X L = X C d) Current leads voltage the potential difference across resistor is
b) X L > X C e) Current lags voltage (1) 400 V (2) 40 V
c) X L < X C f) Current and voltage are (3) 80V (4) 160 V
in phase
123.A magnet is brought towards a coil (i)
(1) a → e, b → d , c → f
speedily (ii) slowly then the induced
(2) a → f , b → e, c → d
(3) a → e, b → f , c → d e.m.f./induced charge will be respectively
(4) a → f , b → d , c → e (1) More in first case/More in first case

119. An alternating current is given by (2) More in first case/Equal in both case
i = i1 cos ωt + i2 sin ωt . The rms current is (3) Less in first case/More in second case
given by (4) Less in first case/Equal in both case
i +i i1 + i2
(1) 1 2 (2) 124. A magnet with its north pole pointing
2 2
downwards along the axis of an open ring
i +i
2
1
2
2 i +i
2
1
2
2
(3) (4) as shown. As the magnet reaches close to
2 2
the centre of the ring
120. In a series LCR series circuit, R = 100Ω
and impedance Z = 200Ω . Then the phase
difference between the current and the
voltage is
(1) 600 (2) 300
(3) 450 (4) 900 (1) its acceleration becomes greater than
121. A resistance of 10Ω , a capacitance of g
0.1µ F and an inductance of 2mH are (2) its acceleration becomes less than g
connected in series across a source of
(3) its acceleration remains equal to g
alternating emf of variable frequency. At
(4) none of these

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125. The wing span of an aeroplane is 50
metre. It is flying in a field, where the
vertical component of earth’s magnetic
field is 4 ×10−4 T, with velocity 360
km/hour. The potential difference (1) 2 ∈0 A (2) 3 ∈0 A
produced between the edges of its wings d d
will be (3) 3 ∈0 A (4) ∈0 A
(1) 12 mV (2) 2V 2d d
(3) 40 mV (4) 25V 129. A 20F capacitor is charged to 5V and
isolated. It is then connected in parallel
126. An e.m.f. of 5 volt is produced by a self- with an uncharged 30F capacitor. The
inductance, when the current changes at a decrease in the energy of the system will
steady rate from 3A to 2A in be
(1) 25 J (2) 100 J
1 millisecond. The value of self -
(3) 125 J (4) 150 J
inductance is
130. Determine the charges on each of the
(1) Zero (2) 5H
capacitors shown in figures.
(3) 5000 H (4) 5 mH
127. Two conducting circular loops of radii
R 1 and R 2 are placed in the same plane
with their centres coinciding. If R1 > R2 ,

the mutual inductance M between them

will be directly proportional to (1) 12µC , 12µC (2) 24 µ C , 24 µ C
(1) R1 (2) R 2 (3) 6 µ C , 8 µ C (4) 8µ C , 6 µ C
R2 R1
2
131. The work done in increasing the P.D.
2
(3) R 1 (4) R 2 across the plates of a capacitor from 4V
R2 R1
to 6V is W. The further work done in
128. Four plates of the same area of cross
increasing the P.D. from 6V to 8V is
section are joined as shown in figure. The
distance between each plate is d. The (1) 4W (2) 3W
3 4
equivalent capacity across A and B will
be (3) 7W (4) 5W
5 7

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132. If a charged conducting shell has is obtained. If refractive index of material
potential V at its centre. What is electric
of the prism is 2 , then the angle of
potential at a point 30cm from its surface,
is radius of shell is 10 cm ? prism will be
(1) 3V (2) 2V (1) 300 (2) 400
V V (3) 500 (4) 600
(3) (4)
4 2
137. A plane glass slab is kept over various
133. Two electric charges of 9 µ C and −3µC
coloured letters, the letter which appears
are placed 0.16 m apart in air. There will least raised is
be a point P at which electric potential is (1) blue (2) violet
zero on the line joining the two charges (3) green (4) red
and in between them. The distance of P 138.Two prisms A and B in contact with each
from 9 µ C charge is other. The dispersive power of A and B is
(1) 0.14 m (2) 0.12 m 0.04 and 0.03 respectively. The angular
(3) 0.08m (4) 0.06m dispersion produced by the combination,
134. Electric charges q, q, -2q are placed at the if combination does not produce a net
corners of an equilateral triangle ABC of deviation is
side 1. The magnitude of electric dipole (1) 60 (2) 20
moment of the system is (3) 140 (4) 80
(1) ql (2) 2ql 139. A plano convex lens fits exactly into a
(3) 3 ql (4) 4ql plano concave lens. Their plane surfaces
135. Inside a hollow charged spherical are parallel to each other. If the leases are
conductor, the potential is made of different materials of refractive
(1) Constant indices µ1 and µ2 and R is the radius of
(2) Varies directly as the distance from curvature of the curved surfaces of the
the centre lenses then the focal length of the
(3) Varies inversely as the distance from combination is
the centre R 2R
(1) (2)
(4) Varies inversely as the square of the µ1 − µ2 µ1 − µ2
distance from the centre R R
(3) (4)
136. When light rays are incident on a prism at 2 ( µ1 − µ2 ) µ1 + µ 2

an angle of 450 , the minimum deviation

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140. The electrical conductivity of a (1) 0.1 V (2) 0.25 V
semiconductor increases when (3) 0.5V (4) 0.7
electromagnetic radiation of a wavelength
144. In a series LCR circuit shown the
shorter than 2480 nm is incident on it.
The bandgap (in eV) for the impedence is
semiconductor is [take hc = 12400 eVA0 ] 1H 20 µ F
300Ω
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.7
(3) 1.1 (4) 2.5 L R

141. The output y of the combination of logic

gates shown is equal to
50
Y 50V , Hz
A π
B
(1) 200Ω (2) 100Ω
(1) A (2) A
(3) 300Ω (4) 500
(3) A + B (4) AB
145. A copper rod of length 2m. is rotated with
142. The following arrangement performs the
a speed of 10 rps, in a uniform magnetic
logic function of
field of 1 tesla. about a pivot at one end.
Y The magnetic field is perpendicular to the
plane of rotation, then the emf induced
(1) AND (2) OR
across its ends is (in volts)
(3) NAND (4) NOR
(1) 40π (2) 20π
143. In the circuit shown in the figure, the base
(3) 10π (4) 60π
current I B is 10 µ A and collector current
146. The network shown in the figure is a part
is 5.2 mA. The voltage (VBE ) is of a complete circuit. If at a certain
instant the current i is 5A and is
decreasing at the rate of 103 A / s then
VB − VA is

(1) 5V (2) 10V

(3) 15 V (4) 20 V

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147. Two spheres of radii 16cm and 12cm (3) +2q (4) −2q
have equal charge, find ratio of their 2+ 2 2+ 2

energy 150. In the circuit given below potential

(1) 3 : 4 (2) 4 : 3 difference across 6 µ F capacitor is

(3) 1: 2 (4) 2 :1 3µ F
4.5µ F
148.The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are
charged upto 200 Volts. A dielectric slab
of thickness 4mm is inserted between its 6µ F
plates. Then to maintain the same
potential difference between the plates of
12V
the capacitor, the distance between the
plates is increased by 3.2 mm. The (1) 8V (2) 4V
dielectric constant of the dielectric slab is (3) 6V (4) 3V
(1) 1 (2) 4 CHEMISTRY
(3) 5 (4) 6 SECTION – A
149.Three charges Q, +q and +q are placed at 151. The IUPAC name of the given compound
the vertices of a right angle triangle is
(isosceles triangle) as shown. If the net
electrostatic potential energy of the
configuration is zero, value of Q is

(1) 3-bromo-2-methylbutane
(2) 4-bromo-3-methylpent -2-ene
(3) 1-brome-2-methylbut-2-ene
(4) None of these
152. Which of the following alkyl halides is
hydrolysed by S N 2 mechanism ?
(1) C6 H 5CH 2 Br (2) CH 3 Br
(1) + q (2) −q
(3) CH 2 = CHCH 2 Br (4) ( CH 3 )3 CBr
2+ 2 2+ 2

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153. Fluorobenzene ( C6 H 5 F ) can be sythesised (2) Hg ( OAc ) 2 / H 2O followed by NaBH 4

in the laboratory (3) B2 H 6 followed by H 2O2

(1) By heating phenol with HF and KF (4) CH 3CO2 H / H 2 SO4
(2) From aniline by diazotization 157. Which one can differentiate between
followed by heating the diazonium salt
C2 H 5OH and CH 3OH ?
with HBF4
(1) H 2O (2) Na2CO3 + I 2
(3) By direct fluorination of benzene with
(3) NH 3 (4) HCl
F2 gas
158. Reaction of phenol with
(4) By reacting bromobenzene with NaF
chloroform/sodium hydroxide to give o-
solution
hydroxy benzaldehyde involves the
154. Chlorination of toluene in presence of
formation of
light and heat followed by treatment with
(1) Chlorine molecules
aqueous NaOH gives
(2) Trichloro carbene
(1) o-cresol
(3) Chlorine atoms
(2) p-cresol
(4) Dichloro carbene
(3) Mixture of o-cresol and p-cresol
159. Isopropylbenzene on air oxidation in the
(4) Benzoic acid presence of dilute acid gives
155. Match the compounds given in Column I (1) C6 H 5OH (2) C6 H 5COCH 3
(3) C6 H 5CHO (4) C6 H 5COOH
with the effects given in Column II.
160. Methylphenyl ether can be obtained by
Column I Column II reacting
(1) Bromobenzene and methyl bromide
i) Chloramphenicol a) Malaria
(2) Methanol and phenol
ii) Thyroxine b) Anaesthetic
(3) Sodium Methoxide and bromo
iii) Chloroquine c) Typhoid fever
benzene
iv) Chloroform d) Goiter
e) Blood substituent (4) Sodium Phenoxide and methyl Iodide
161. The oxidation of toluene to benzaldehyde
(1) i-c,ii-d,iii-a,iv-b (2) i-c,ii-a,iii-d,iv-b
by chromyl chloride is called
(3) i-c,ii-b,iii-a,iv-b (4) i-a,ii-d,iii-c,iv-b
(1) Cannizzaro reaction
156. Propan-1-ol can be prepared from
(2) Etard reaction
propene by
(3) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(1) H 2O / H 2 SO4
(4) Wurtz reaction

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162. The reagent with which both 168. Consider the nitration of benzene using
acetaldehyde and acetone react is mixed conc H 2 SO4 and HNO3 . If a large
(1) Fehling’s solution 2) Carbonic acid amount of KHSO4 is added to the
(3) Tollen’s reagent 4) I 2 / NaOH mixture, the rate of nitration will be
163. One of the following named reaction is an (1) Unchanged (2) Doubled
example of “disproportionation reaction”. (3) Faster (4) Slower
Identify it 169. If relative decrease in vapour pressure is
(1) Birch reduction 0.4 for a solution containing 1 mol NaCl
(2) Aldol condensation in 3 mol of H 2O , then % ionization of
(3) Reimer-Tiemann reaction NaCl is
(4) Cannizzaro reaction (1) 60 % (2) 80 %
164. Which one of the following pairs is not (3) 40% (4) 100%
correctly matched ? 170.Which of the following pair of aqueous
(1) −C ≡ N 
→ CHO
Stephen ' s reduction
solutions can be expected to be isotonic at
(2) −COCl 
Rosenmund ' s reduction
→ CHO
the same temperature ? (Consider each
electrolyte according to its 100%
Wolff − Kishner reduction
(3) > C = O  → CHOH dissociation)
(4) > C = O 
Clemensen ' s reduction
→ CH 2 (1) 0.1 M urea and 0.1 M NaCl

165. When a mixture of methane and oxygen (2) 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M Na2 SO4

is passed through heated molybdenum (3) 0.1 M Ca ( NO3 ) 2 and 0.1 M Na2 SO4
oxide, the main product formed is (4) 0.1 M glucose and 0.2 M MgCl2
(1) Methanal (2) Ethanal 171. 75g ethylene glycol is dissolved in 500
(3) Methanol (4) Methanoic acid gram water. The solution is placed in a
166. Which of the following is not formed by refrigerator maintained at a temperature
the reaction of Cl2 on CH 4 in sunlight ? of 263.7 K. What amount of ice will
(1) CHCl3 (2) CH 3CH 3 separate out at this temperature ?
(3) CH 3Cl (4) CH 3CH 2CH 3 ( K f water = 1.86 K molality −1 )
167. Anti-Markownikoff’s rule addition (1) 300g (2) 200g
reaction is not observed in (3) 178 g (4) 258g
(1) But-2-ene (2) Propene 172. When mercuric iodide is added to an
(3) 1-butene (4) Pent-2-ene aqueous solution of Kl the

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 (1) Boiling point increases gets halved, then ratio of percentage
(2) Boiling point decreases voids in hcp and bcc structures is
(3) Freezing point decreases 34 21
(1) (2)
(4) Osmotic pressure increases 27 22
22 37
173. The vapour pressure of pure liquid A is (3) (4)
21 34
70 torr at 27 0 C . It forms an ideal solution
with another liquid B. The mole fraction 177. If nickel oxide has the formula Ni0.98O ,
of B is 0.2 and total vapour pressure of then what fraction of nickel exists as
the solution is 84 torr at 27 0 C . The
Ni 3+ ?
vapour pressure of pure liquid B at 27 0 C
is (1) 96% (2) 4%
(1) 140 torr (2) 50 torr (3) 98% (4) 2%
(3) 14 torr (4) 70 torr 178. Which of the following is a covalent
174. 2.56 g of sulphur in 100g of CS 2 has solid?
depression in freezing point of (1) Dry ice (2) P4O10

0.0100 C K f = 0.10 C ( molal ) .

−1
Hence (3) SiC (4) NaCl

atomicity of sulphur in the solution is 179. A tetrahedral void in fcc is formed by

(1) 2 (2) 4 atoms at

(3) 6 (4) 8 (1) 3 corners + 1 face centre

175. The Henry’s law constant for the (2) 3 face centres + 1 corner

solubility of N 2 gas in water at 298 K is (3) 2 face centres + 2 corners

(4) 2 face centres + 1 corner + 1 body
1.0 × 105 atm. The mole centre
fraction of N 2 in air is 0.8. The number 180. An ionic solid crystallize as rock salt
structure (NaCl) and the edge length of
of moles of fcc unit cell is 508 pm. If the radius of
N 2 from air dissolved in 10 moles of cation is 110 pm, then radius of the anion
is
water at 298 K (1) 144 pm (2) 288 pm
and 5 atm pressure is (3) 398 pm (4) 618 pm
(1) 4.0 ×10 −4 (2) 4.0 × 10−5 181. Which of the following statements is
(3) 5.0 × 10−4 (4) 4.0 × 10−6 incorrect ?
176. If the total number of atoms per unit cell (1) Crystalline solids have sharp melting
and boiling points
in an hcp structure and a bcc structure

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 (2) FCC possesses closest packing of (2) Pyrophosphoric acid
atoms in it (3) Orthophosphorus acid
(3) Increase in pressure in ionic solids
(4) Hypophosphorus acid
may decrease coordination number
187. In brown ring test for nitrate ions, brown
(4) NaCl has 6 : 6 coordination number
ring is formed having composition
182. HNO2 on disproportionation gives HNO3
2+
(1)  Fe ( H 2O )6 
and
2+
(1) NO2 (2)  Fe ( H 2O )5 NO 

(2) N 2O5 3+
(3)  Fe ( H 2O )5 NO 
(3) NO 2+
(4)  Fe ( H 2O )5 NO2 
(4) All of these can form
183. The correct order of acidic character is 188. The one with lowest negative electron

(1) P4O10 > P4O6 affinity in group 16 is

(1) Oxygen
(2) N 2O5 > N 2O3
(2) Sulphur
(3) N 2O3 > P4O6
(3) Selenium
(4) All of these
(4) Tellurium
184. In which of the following reactions,
189. S-S bond is present in
products given are not correct ?
(1) H 2 S 2O7 (2) H 2 S 2O8
(1) ( NH 4 )2 Cr2O7 
∆
→ N 2 + 4 H 2O + Cr2O3
(3) H 2 S 2O6 (4) H 2 SO5
(2) Ba ( N 3 )2 
∆
→ Ba + 3 N 2
190. Form of sulphur which shows
∆
(3) 3Mg + N 2  → Mg 3 N 2 paramagnetic behaviour
(4) NH 4Cl + NaNO2 → NaCl + NH 3 + NO2 (1) S8 -Rhombic
185. Cyclotrimeta phosphoric acid has total (2) S8 -Monoclinic
(3) S2 in vapour state
number of P=O & P–O bonds
(4) Not possible
respectively
191. The incorrect statement regarding
(1) 5, 3 (2) 3,9
structure of ozone
(3) 3,6 (4) 5,6
(1) The two oxygen-oxygen bond length
SECTION-B
in ozone are identical
186. Which is dibasic?
(2) It is linear
(1) Orthophosphoric acid

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 (3) Bond angle is less than 1200
(4) Both (2) & (3)
192. Dioxygen can be prepared by
(1) Heating KClO3
(2) Thermal decomposition of oxides like
Ag 2O, Pb3O4 etc

(3) Electrolysis of water

(4) All of these
193. Correct order of boiling point of group 16
hydrides
(1) H 2O < H 2 S < H 2 Se < H 2Te
(2) H 2Te < H 2 Se < H 2 S < H 2O
196. Arrange the following compounds in
(3) H 2 S < H 2 Se < H 2Te < H 2O
order of decreasing acidity
(4) H 2O < H 2Te < H 2 Se < H 2 S
194. A mixture of benzaldehyde and
formaldehyde in heating with aqueous
NaOH solution gives
(1) Benzyl alcohol and sodium formate
(2) Sodium benzoate and methyl alcohol
(3) Sodium benzoate and sodium formate
(4) Benzyl alcohol and methyl alcohol
195. Which of the following aromatic acids is
most acidic?
(1) II > IV > I > III (2) I > II > III > IV
(3) III > I > II > IV (4) IV > III > I > II
197. Match the starting materials given in
Column I with the products formed by
these (Column II) in the reaction with HI.
Column I Column II

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 1) HgSO4 2) NaBH 3) ZnBH 4
X 4 Product gives
H 2 SO4 HCl

i) CH 3 − O − CH 3 turbidity in five minutes. Compound X is

(1) CH 3 − CH = CH 2
(2) CH 3 − C ≡ CH
(3) H − C ≡ CH
(4) H 2C = CH 2
200.

i) O3
A dil NaOH B, B is
ii ) Zn / H 2O ∆

CHO

(1)
CHO

(2)

CHO
(1) i-d, ii-e, iii-b, iv-a
(2) i-f, ii-e, iii-c, iv-d (3)
(3) i-f, ii-e, iii-d, iv-c CHO
(4) i-e, ii-d, iii-f, iv-a
198. Consider the reaction,
CH 3CH 2CH 2 Br + NaCN → CH 3CH 2CN + NaBr (4)

This reaction will be the fastest in

(1) Ethanol
(2) Methanol
(3) N,N’ – dimethylformamide (DMF)
(4) Water
199.

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