NAME MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXIII A (2079 –6 –08)

MECEE BL
Model Entrance Exam 2079
Morning Shift
(Set-XXIII A)

Date: Ashoj 8th, 2079 (Saturday) Duration – 3 hrs

Venue: NAME Time – 8:00 AM

INSTRUCTIONS
There are 200 multiple-choice questions, each having four choices of which only one
. choice is correct.
Fill ( ) the most appropriate one.

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NAME MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXIII A (2079 –6 –08)

1. Match the following

Set-I Set-II
A. Astrocyte 1. Resting macrophages
B. Microglia 2. Precrusors of myelin sheath
C. Oligodendrocytes 3. Set of currents in CSF
D. Ependymal cells 4. Protects brain from toxins
a) A = 4, B = 1, C = 2, D = 3 b) A = 2, B = 3, C = 4, D = 1
c) A = 1, B = 3, C = 2, D = 4 d) A = 3, B = 2, C = 4, D = 1
2. Which one is true for epithelia?
a) They may be derived from any of the three germ layer
b) They are incapable of performing absorptive functions
c) They demonstrate weak adhesive between the cells
d) They lack apical specializations
3. Gristle cartilage is
a) Hyaline b) Fibrous c) Elastic d) Calcified
4. Choose the correct match:
Set-I Set-II
A. Squamous 1. Intestinal glands
B. Cuboidal 2. Trachea
C. Columnar 3. Ovary
D. Ciliated 4. Blood vessels
E. Pseudostratified 5. Bronchioles
a) A = 4, B = 5, C = 1, D = 2, E = 3 b) A = 4, B = 3, C = 1, D = 5, E = 2
c) A = 1, B = 2, C = 4, D = 3, E = 5 d) A = 4, B = 3, C = 1, D = 2, E = 5
5. Respiration is controlled by
a) Pons b) Cerebrum c) Medulla d) both a & c
6. Which of the following represents bile salts?
a) Bilirubin & Biliverdin b) Bilirubin & Haemoglobin
c) Haemoglobin & Biliverdin d) Sodium taurocholate & Glycocholate
7. Correct match is
a) vit. K – fat soluble – beri-beri b) vit. A – fat soluble – beri-beri
c) vit. K – water soluble – pellagra d) vit. A – fat soluble – night blindness
8. When temperature decreases oxy-Hb curve will become
a) straight b) parabola c) more steep d) all
9. How many times a RBC will have to pass through the heart in the journey from
hepatic artery to the Aorta?
a) Two times b) Only once c) Several times d) Four times
10. Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sound produced during cardiac cycle. The second
sound in heard
a) AV valves open
b) ventricular wall vibrate due to gushing in of blood from atria
c) semilunar valves close down after blood flows from ventricles to vessels
d) AV nodes receives signal from SA node
11. Smooth muscles are
a) involuntary, cylindrical, striated b) involuntary, fusiform, non-striated
c) voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical d) voluntary, spindle shaped, uninucleated

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NAME MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXIII A (2079 –6 –08)

12. Which of the following is phagocytic?

a) RBC b) Neutrophils c) Monocytes d) Both b & c
13. "Cart-wheel" cells are
a) Mast cells b) Plasma cells c) Fibroblast d) Adipocytes
14. Correctly matched pair is
a) mature RBC : nucleated
b) Strain : ligament
c) Ca2+ : factor IV for blood clotting
d) Adhering junction : intercellular transport
15. Net filtration pressure (NFP) in glomerulus is
a) 10mm of Hg b) 15mm of Hg c) 20mm of Hg d) 55mm of Hg
16. Identify the correct statement on 'inhibin'.
a) is produced by granulosa cells in ovary & inhibits the secretion of LH
b) is produced by granulosa cells in ovary & inhibit s the secretion of FSH
c) is produced by nurse cells in testes & inhibits the secretion of LH
d) inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH & prolactin
17. Miller-Urey's experiment mixture had the following except:
a) CH4 b) CO2 c) H2O d) H2
18. A thorn of Bougainvillea and a tendril of cucurbita indicate
a) vestigial structures b) analogous structures
c) homologous structures d) sedimentary structures
19. Average cranial capacity of Neanderthal man was
a) 950cc b) 1050cc c) 1400cc d) 1650cc
20. The vector of 'Break bone fever' is
a) Culex b) Aedes c) Anopheles d) None
21. Hodgkin's disease is cancer of
a) liver b) WBC c) Lymphoid tissue d) Mammary gland
22. The treatment of snake bite by antivenin is an example of
a) specific natural immunity b) naturally acquired passive immunity
c) artificially acquired active immunity d) artificially acquired passive immunity
23. Iodopsin is present in
a) rod cells b) cone cells c) amacrine cells d) horizontal cells
24. Hyposecretion of thyroid during pregnancy causes
a) Goitre b) Cretinism c) Hypoglycemia d) Diabetes mellitus
25. Which one of the following structures in Pheritima is correctly matched with its
function?
a) Typhosole – storage of extra nutrients b) Clitellum – secretes cocoon
c) Gizzard – absorbs digested food d) Setae – defence against predators
26. Earthworm is kept in 40% KOH for long. The structure left intact is
a) Setae b) Sand particles c) Spermathecae d) Circular muscles
27. The function of Mehlis gland in Taenia is
a) storage of sperm b) lubrication of uterus
c) formation of embryophore d) production of vitelline cells

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NAME MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXIII A (2079 –6 –08)

28. If all the stages of Plasmodium were digested in the stomach of a mosquito after a
blood meal. It means that the concerned mosquito was
a) a male
b) very hungry
c) of a different species
d) the patient had used some mosquito repellent cream
29. Osmoregulation in Paramecium is a function of
a) Cytopyge b) Cytostome
c) Trichocyst d) Contractile vacuole
30. Mesonephric kidney is found in
a) frog b) toad c) rabbit d) both a & b
31. Sinus venosus in frog receives
a) two caval veins b) three caval veins
c) four caval veins d) sometimes 4 caval veins
32. Gemmule formation in sponges is helpful in
a) sexual reproduction b) asexual reproduction
c) only dissemination d) none
33. Aristotle's lantern is found in
a) Sponges b) Echinoderms c) Hydra d) Mollusca
34. "Portuguese man of war" is
a) Obelia b) Aurelia c) Platypus d) Physalia
35. Amphids present in ventrolateral lips of Ascaris are
a) Tango receptors b) Chemo receptors c) Thermo receptors d) Photo receptors
36. Oxygen carrying respiratory pigment of cockroach and other insects is
a) Hemoglobin b) Hemocyanin c) Hemoerythrin d) none
37. In mollusca, eye is present over a stalk called
a) Ostracum b) Operculum c) Osphradium d) Ommatophore
38. Besides Annelida & Arthropoda, the metamerism is exhibited by
a) Acanthocephala b) Chordata c) Mollusca d) Cestoda
39. Retrogressive metamorphosis is present in
a) Herdmania b) Amphioxus c) Balanoglossus d) all of these
40. Scientific name of king cobra is
a) Naja naja b) Vipera russelli c) Bungarus coerulus d) Naja hannah
41. The smallest unit of measurement of cellular structure is
a) mm b) cm c) nm d) 
42. Mycoplasm is
a) bacteria with chitinous cell wall b) bacteria without cell wall
c) cyanobacteria without cell wall d) primitive fungal group
43. DNA polymerase enzyme is absent in
a) bacteria b) cyanobacteria c) virus d) mycoplasm
44. Mycobiont of lichen belongs to
a) ascomycetes b) basidiomycetes c) chlorophyceae d) zygomycetes

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NAME MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXIII A (2079 –6 –08)

45. In Spirogyra the meiosis take place during

a) zygote formation b) zoospore germination
c) zygospore germination d) oospore germination
46. Yeast breaks foods
a) within cytoplasm b) by lysosomes c) outside the body d) by mitochondria
47. The algal thread like structure of advance bryophytes is
a) gametophore b) protonema c) prothallus d) sporogonium
48. Mesarch is vascular system found in
a) leatlets of ferns b) roots of ferns c) rhizome of ferns d) rachis of ferns
49. At pollinating stage, the number of gametes in Cycas pollen grains is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 0 d) 3
50. Flat swollen petiole responsible for photosynthesis is
a) cladode b) phyllode c) phylloclade d) bulbous
51. A berry fruit is common in
a) Malvaceae b) Cruciferae c) Solanaceae d) Compositae
52. Mycorrhiza looks like
a) commensalism b) epiphytism c) parasitism d) symbiosis
53. Conversion of complex food material into cellular energy is
a) photosynthesis b) sun light c) respiration d) mitochondria
54. Common pyrophytic plants belong to
a) Gymnosperms b) Pteridophytes c) Bryophytes d) Angiosperms
55. Pyramid of biomass deals with fresh dry weight of
a) species in an area b) individual in a community
c) individual in a trophic level d) sub-species in a community
56. Treeless ecosystem is
a) savanna b) taiga c) tropic d) chapparal
57. Simplest amino acid present in plant cell is
a) leucine b) glycine c) albumin d) serine
58. Photosystem I and II occurs at
a) oxysome b) grana c) cristae d) thylakoids
59. Golgi bodies is also called as
a) Porter particle b) Robertson particle c) Baker bodies d) Palade particle
60. The term heterochromatin and euchromatin were given by
a)Hooker b) Pasteur c) Darlington d) Emil Heitz
61. What is Chargaff's law?
a) A + C = G + T b) A + T = G + C c) A + G = C + T d) A = G, T = C
62. Ina tetrad of microspores, all spores are joined together by
a) sporopollenin b) pecto-cellulose c) callase d) callose
63. The prime function of m-RNA molecules is to
a) manufacture new ribosomes
b) synthesize new DNA molecules
c) convert DNA molecules into RNA
d) act as a template for synthesis of proteins

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NAME MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXIII A (2079 –6 –08)

64. Genetic material is made from

a) histones b) hydrocarbons c) polynucleotides d) glycoproteins
65. Most common form of DNA (B-DNA) contains………... base pair per turn.
a) 9 b) 11 c) 10 d) 12
66. An offspring of two homozygous parents differing from one another by alleles at only
gene locus is called
a) monohybrid b) dihybrid c) trihybrid d) back cross
67. Well-developed xylary elementsare found in
a) halophytes b) mesophytes c)xerophytes d) hydrophytes
68. Heterogenous pericycle is present in
a) monocot stem b) monocot root c) dicot stem d) dicot stem
69. During imbibition
a) pressure decreased b) concentration increased
c) pressure increased d) concentration decreased
70. The path of ascent of sap in higher plants is
a) phloem b) cambium c) leptome d) hadrome
71. Universal pigment of photosynthesis is
a) C55H72O5N4Mg b) C55H70O6N4Mg c) C40H56 d) C40H56O2
72. The CO2 acceptor in CAM plants during night time is
a) PGA b) PEP c) OAA d) RuBP
73. During photorespiration, CO2 is produced in
a) peroxisome b) lysosome c) chloroplast d) mitochondria
74. Fermentation is
a) exothermic c) endothermic b) anabolic d) amphibolic
75. Promotion of lateral branching and suppressing of apical growth is due to
a) auxin b) ethylene c) gibberellin d) cytokinin
76. Porogamy is the entry of pollen tube through
a) integument b) micropyle
c) chalaza d) other than micropyle
77. Aleurone layer of maize is
a) lipids b) carbohydrate c) carbohydrate d) protein
78. Megagametogenesis produce
a)megaspore b) embryo c) ovules d) embryo sac
79. Undifferentiated mass of cell formed during tissue culture is
a) explant b) callose c) callus d) embryon
80. Commercial production of antibiotics is possible from
a) secretion b) decomposition c) DNA technology d) fermentation
81. Lassaigne's test is used in qualitative analysis to detect
a) nitrogen b) sulphur c) chlorine d) all of these
82. The IUPAC name for
CH3CH = CHCH2CHCH2COOH is
|
NH2
a) 3-amino-5-heptenoic acid b) -amino--heptenoic acid
c) 5-amino-2-heptenoic acid d) 5-amino-hex-2-enecarboxylic acid

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NAME MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXIII A (2079 –6 –08)

83. Isomers of a substance must have the same

a) structural formula b) physical properties
c) chemical properties d) molecular formula
84. Which of the following is correct with respect to –I effect of the substituent?
a) – NH2 < –OR < –F b) – NR2 < –OR > – F c) –NH2 > – OR > –F d) –NR2 > –OR > –F
+
85. What is the hybridization of benzyl carbonium ion CH2 ?

a) sp2 b) spd2 c) sp2d d) sp3

86. Reactivity of hydrogen atoms attached to different carbon atoms in alkanes has the
order:
a) tertiary > primary > secondary b) primary > secondary > tertiary
c) tertiary > secondary > primary d) both a & b
87. The compound that reacts most readily with gaseous bromine has the formula
a) C3H6 b) C2H2 c) C4H10 d) C2H4
reagent
88. R – CH2 – CCl2 – R ⟶ R – C  C – R. The reagent is
a) Na b) HCl in H2O c) KOH in C2H5OH d) Zn in alcohol
89. Two possible stereo-structure of CH3CHOHCOOH, which are optically active are
called
a) atropisomers b) enantiomers c) mesomers d) diastereomers
90. Chlorobenzene reacts with Mg in dry ether to give a compound (A) which further
reacts with ethanol to yield?
a) Phenol b) Benzene c) Ethylbenzene d) Phenyl benzene
91. The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-bromo pentane is
pent-2-ene. This product formation is based on
a) Saytzeff's rule b) Hund's rule c) Hoffmann rule d) Huckel's rule
92. In the following sequence of reaction;
KCN H3O+ LiAlH4
CH3 – Br ⟶ A ⟶ B ⟶ C the end product 'C' is
ether
a) Acetone b) Methane c) Acetaldehyde d) Ethyl alcohol
93. 10 dm3
of N2 gas and 10 dm3 of gas X at the same temperature contain the same number
of molecules, the gas X is
a) CO2 b) CO c) H2 d) NO
94. One mole of a gas occupies a volume of 22.4 L. This is derived from
a) Berzelius’ hypothesis b) Gay-Lussac’s law
c) Avogadro’s law d) Dalton’s law
95. Volume of water needed to mix with 10 mL 10N HNO 3 to get 0.1 N HNO3 is :
a) 1000 mL b) 990 mL c) 1010 mL d) 10 mL
96. One kilogram of a sea water sample contains 6 mg of dissolved O 2. The concentration
of O2 in the sample in ppm is
a) 0.6 b) 6.0 c) 60.0 d) 16.0
97. Which of the following does not contain number of neutrons equal to that of 18Ar40 ?
41 43 40 42
a) K
19 b) 21Sc c) 21Sc d) 20Ca

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NAME MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXIII A (2079 –6 –08)

98. An electron from one Bohr stationary orbit can go to next higher orbit
a) by emission of electromagnetic radiation
b) by absorption of any electromagnetic radiation
c) by absorption of electromagnetic radiation of particular frequency
d) without emission or absorption of electromagnetic Radiation
99. Which of the following metals requires the radiation of highest frequency to cause the
emission of electrons?
a) Na b) Mg c) K d) Ca
100. In any period the valency of an element with respect to oxygen
a) Increases one by one from IA to VIIA
b) Decreases one by one form IA to VIIA
c) Increases one by one from IA to IVA and then decreases from VA to VIIA one by one
d) Decreases one by one from IA to IVA and then increases from VA to VIIA one by one
101. The effect of more electronegative atom on the strength of ionic bond
a) increases b) decreases c) remains the same d) decreases slowly
102. Identify the non-polar molecule in the following compounds
a) H2 b) HCl c) HF and HBr d) HBr
103. Which of the following is not a type of van der Waal's forces?
a) Dipole - dipole forces b) Dipole - induced dipole forces
c) Ion - dipole forces d) London forces
104. The lowest hypothetical or imaginary temperature at which gases are supposed to
occupy zero volume is called _________
a) Kelvin temperature b) absolute zero
c) Charle's temperature d) constant temperature
105. Adiabatic expansions of an ideal gas is accompanied by
a) decrease in E
b) increase in temperature
c) decrease in S
d) no change in any one of the above properties
106. Which is conducting?
a) NaCl(s) b) Fused AlBr3 c) Fused sulphur d) Na(s)
107. If a system is at equilibrium, the rate of forward to the reverse reaction is :
a) less b) equal c) high d) at equilibrium
108. A base, as defined by Bronsted theory, is a substance which can
a) lose a pair of electrons b) donate protons
c) gain a pair of electrons d) accept protons
109. Which of the following pKa value represents the strongest acid?
a) 10–4 b) 10–8 c) 10–5 d) 10–2
110. Aqueous solution of ferric chloride is acidic due to
a) ionization b) polarization c) dissociation d) hydrolysis
111. In which of the following compounds the oxidation number of carbon is not zero?
a) HCHO b) CH3COOH c) C12H22O11 d) CH3CHO

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NAME MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXIII A (2079 –6 –08)

112. The standard electrode potentials of four elements A, B, C and D are –3.05, –1.66, –0.40
and +0.80. The highest chemical reactivity will be exhibited by
a) A b) B c) C d) D
113. Hydrogen can behave as a metal
a) at very high temperature b) at very low temperature
c) at very high pressure d) at very low pressure
114. Water possesses a high dielectric constant, therefore :
a) it always contains ions b) it is a universal solvent
c) can dissolve covalent compounds d) can conduct electricity
115. Caprolactam polymerises to give
a) terylene b) teflon c) glyptal d) nylon-6
116. In which of the following the hydration energy is higher than the lattice energy?
a) MgSO4 b) RaSO4 c) SrSO4 d) BaSO4
117. Gypsum on heating at 120 – 130°C gives
a) anhydrous salt b) hemihydrate c) monohydrate d) dihydrate
118. Buckminster fullerene is
a) pure graphite b) C-60 c) diamond d) C-90
119. Producer gas, a fuel and also a source of nitrogen is obtained by
a) passing a mixture of steam and air over incandescent coke.
b) spraying oil into hot retorts.
c) restricted supply of air through a bed of incandescent coke.
d) passing steam over incandescent coke.
120. Which of the following chemical, harmful to ozone, is released by chlorofluoro
carbon?
a) Sulphur dioxide b) Fluorine c) Chlorine d) Nitrogen dioxide
121. Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is
a) 0.1770 b) 0.0177 c) 0.0344 d) 1.7700
122. Half-life of a first order reaction is 4s and the initial concentration of the reactant is
0.12 M. The concentration of the reactant left after 16 s is
a) 0.0075 M b) 0.06 M c) 0.03 M d) 0.015 M
123. After partial roasting the sulphide of copper is reduced by
a) cyanide process b) electrolysis
c) reduction with carbon d) self reduction
124. Hydro-metallurgical process of extraction of metals is based on
a) complex formation b) hydrolysis c) dehydration d) dehydrogenation
125. Extraction of zinc from zinc blende is achieved by
a) electrolytic reduction
b) roasting followed by reduction with carbon
c) roasting followed by reduction with another metal
d) roasting followed by self-reduction
126. Which gives lactic acid on hydrolysis after reacting with HCN?
a) HCHO b) CH3CHO c) C6H5CHO d) CH3COCH3

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NAME MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXIII A (2079 –6 –08)

127. The most appropriate reagent to distinguish between acetaldehyde and formaldehyde
is :
a) Fehling’s solution b) Tollen’s reagent
c) Schiff’s reagent d) Iodine in presence of base
128. Toluene can be oxidised to benzoic acid by
a) KMnO4 (alk.) b) K2Cr2O7 (alk.) c) Both (a) and (b) d) none of these
129. All three amines 1°, 2°, 3° react with
1. H2O 2. R–X 3. HCl 4. (CH3CO)2O
a) 1, 2 b) 4 only c) 1, 2, 4 d) 1, 2, 3
130. Amine that cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is
a) aniline b) benzylamine c) methylamine d) iso-butylamine
131. Which of the following pairs of physical quantities has the same dimensions?
a) Work and power b) Momentum and energy
c) Force and power d) Work and energy
132. At what point of a projectile motion acceleration and velocity are perpendicular to each
other
a) At the point of projection
b) At the point of drop
c) At the topmost point
d) Anywhere in between the point of projection and topmost point
133. A heavy mass is attached to a thin wire and is whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is
most likely to break
a) When the mass is at the highest point of the circle
b) When the mass is at the lowest point of the circle
c) When the wire is horizontal
d) At 45º from the upward vertical
134. A jet plane flies in the air because
a) The gravity does not act on bodies moving with high speeds
b) The thrust of the jet compensates for the force of gravity
c) The flow of air around the wings causes an upward force, which compensates for the
force of gravity
d) The weight of air whose volume is equal to the volume of the plane is more than the
weight of the plane
135. Maximum value of static friction is called
a) Limiting friction b) Rolling friction
c) Normal reaction d) Coefficient of friction
136. If a shell fired from a cannon, explodes in mid air, then
a) Its total kinetic energy increases b) Its total momentum increases
c) Its total momentum decreases d) None of these
137. The distance of a geo-stationary satellite from the centre of the earth (Radius R = 6400
km) is nearest to
a) 5 R b) 7 R c) 10 R d) 18 R
138. The longitudinal strain is only possible in
a) Gases b) Fluids c) Solids d) Liquids

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NAME MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXIII A (2079 –6 –08)

139. Which of the fact is not due to surface tension

a) Dancing of a camphor piece over the surface of water
b) Small mercury drop itself becomes spherical
c) A liquid surface comes at rest after stirring
d) Mercury does not wet the glass vessel
140. A particle executes simple harmonic motion along a straight line with an amplitude A.
The potential energy is maximum when the displacement is
A A
a) ± A b) zero c) ± 2 d) ±
2
141. If one mole of an ideal gas at STP is heated through 1K, the work done by the gas in
heat unit will be
a) 1.98 cal b) 8.31 cal c) 0.831 cal d) 83.1 cal
142. Heat required to convert one gram of ice at 0°C into steam at 100°C is (given Lsteam =
536 cal/gm)
a) 100 calorie b) 0.01 kilocalorie c) 716 calorie d) 1 kilocalorie
143. An adiabatic process occurs at constant
a) Temperature b) Pressure
c) Heat d) Temperature and pressure
144. The root means square velocity of a gas molecules of mass m at a given temperature is
proportional to
a) m0 b) m c) √𝑚 d) 1/√𝑚
145. The efficiency of Carnot's engine operating between reservoirs, maintained at
temperatures 270C and –1230C, is
a) 50% b) 24% c) 0.75% d) 0.4%
146. Hot water kept in a beaker placed in a room cools from 70ºC to 60ºC in 4 minutes. The
time taken by it to cool from 69ºC to 59ºC will be
a) the same 4 minutes b) more than 4 minutes
c) less than 4 minutes d) we cannot say definitely
147. Which parameter does not change on reflection from the surface of denser medium?
a) Velocity b) Frequency c) Wavelength d) Phase
148. A deviation of 5º is observed from a thin prism. The refractive index of prism material
is 1.5. The angle of prism is
a) 7.5º b) 10º c) 5º d) 3.3º
149. The power of a plane glass plate is
a) 0 b)  c) 1 d) less than 1
150. In Young's double slit experimental set up, if the wave length alone is doubled, the
fringe width  becoms

a) 2 b) 2 c) 3 d) 

151. The half angular width of the central bright maximum in the diffraction pattern of a
slit of width 12 × 10–7 m when the slit is illuminated by monochromatic light of
wavelength 6000Å is
a) 20º b) 30º c) 40º d) 50º

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NAME MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXIII A (2079 –6 –08)

152. The velocity of light in water is 1.5 × 10 8 m/s. The polarizing angle of incidence is
a) 47.23º b) 51.02º c) 53.74º d) 63.43º
153. Two waves of frequencies 20 Hz and 30 Hz. Travels out from a common point. The
phase difference between them after 0.6 sec is
 3
a) zero b) 2 c)  d) 4

154. When a tuning fork A of unknown frequency is sounded with another tuning fork B
of frequency 256 Hz, then 3 beats per second are observed. After that A is loaded with
wax and sounded, the again 3 beats per second are observed. The frequency of the
tuning fork A is
a) 250 Hz b) 253 Hz c) 259 Hz d) 262 Hz
155. Standing waves are produced in a 10 m long stretched string. If the string vibrates in 5
segments and the wave velocity is 20 m/s, the frequency is
a) 2 Hz b) 4 Hz c) 5 Hz d) 10 H
156. The electric field intensity at the surface of a charged conductor is
a) zero b) directed normally to the surface
c) directed tangentially to surface d) directed along 450 to surface
157. The state that has greatest potential energy is :
a) Solid b) Liquid c) Gas d) Powder
158. In a charged capacitor the energy resides:
a) On the positive plate b) On both positive and negative plates
c) In the field between the plates d) Around the edge of capacitor plates
159. Masses of 3 wires of same metal are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 and their lengths are in the ratio
3 : 2 : 1. The electrical resistances are in ratio
a) 1 : 4 : 9 b) 9 : 4 : 1 c) 1 : 2 : 3 d) 27 : 6 : 1
160. A strip of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 80 K.
The resistance of
a) Each of these increases
b) Each of these decreases
c) Copper strip increases and that of germanium decreases
d) Copper strip decreases and that of germanium increases
161. A current of two amperes is flowing through a cell of e.m.f. 5 volts and internal
resistance 0.5 ohm from negative to positive electrode. If the potential of negative
electrode is 10V, the potential of positive electrode will be
a) 5 V b) 14 V c) 15 V d) 16 V
162. Sensitivity of potentiometer can be increased by
a) Increasing the e.m.f. of the cell
b) Increasing the length of the potentiometer wire
c) Decreasing the length of the potentiometer wire
d) None of the above
163. In a current carrying long solenoid, the field produced does not depend upon
a) Number of turns per unit length b) Current flowing
c) Radius of the solenoid d) All of the above three

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NAME MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXIII A (2079 –6 –08)

164. An electron and a proton enter a magnetic field perpendicularly. Both have same
kinetic energy. Which of the following is true?
a) Trajectory of electron is less curved b) Trajectory of proton is less curved
c) Both trajectories are equally curved d) Both move on straight-line path
165. A ferromagnetic material is heated above its curie temperature. Which one is a correct
statement?
a) Ferromagnetic domains are perfectly arranged
b) Ferromagnetic domains becomes random
c) Ferromagnetic domains are not influenced
d) Ferromagnetic material changes itself into diamagnetic material
166. Lenz's law is consequence of the law of conservation of
a) Charge b) Momentum c) Mass d) Energy
167. In a circuit, the value of the alternating current is measured by hot wire ammeter as 10
ampere. Its peak value will be
a) 10 A b) 20 A c) 14.14 A d) 7.07 A
168. The ratio of specific charge of an α-particle to that of a proton is
a) 2 : 1 b) 1 : 1 c) 1 : 2 d) 1 : 3
169. Wave is associated with matter
a) When it is stationary
b) When it is in motion with the velocity of light only
c) When it is in motion with any velocity
d) None of the above
170. Einstein's photoelectric equation states that E K = hv – . In this equation EK refers to
a) Kinetic energy of all the emitted electrons
b) Mean kinetic energy of the emitted electrons
c) Maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons
d) Minimum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons
171. Work function of a metal is 251 eV. Its threshold frequency is
a) 5.9 × 1014 cycle/sec b) 6.5 × 1014 cycle/sec
c) 9.4 × 1014 cycle/sec d) 6.08 × 1014 cycle/sec
172. Hydrogen atom does not emit X-rays because
a) Its energy levels are too close to each other b) Its energy levels are too apart
c) It is too small in size d) It has a single electron
173. When cathode rays strike a metal target of high melting point with very high velocity,
then
a) X-rays are produced b) Alpha-rays are produced
c) TV waves are produced d) Ultrasonic waves are produced
174. No bias is applied to a P-N junction, then the current
a) Is zero because the number of charge carriers flowing on both sides is same
b) Is zero because the charge carriers do not move
c) Is non-zero
d) None of these
175. Zener diode is used as
a) Half wave rectifier b) Full wave rectifier
c) ac voltage stabilizer d) dc voltage stabilize

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NAME MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXIII A (2079 –6 –08)

176. Which gate is an inverter?

a) NOT gate b) OR gate c0 NAND gate d) AND gate
177. A logic gate is an electronic circuit which
a) Makes logic decisions
b) Allows electrons flow only in one direction
c) Works binary algebra
d) Alternates between 0 and 1 values
178. Speed of recession of galaxy is proportional to it's distance
a) Directly b) Inversely c) Exponentially d) None of these
179. Sun radiates continuously and maintains its brightness because
a) Helium is converted into iron in its core
b) Of fusion of hydrogen nuclei into helium
c) Fusion of helium in hydrogen
d) Burning of carbon, in its core
180. Mesons are made up of ,
a) One quark and antiquark b) two quarks
c) two antiquarks d) three quarks
181. Two ships are sailing in the sea on the two sides of a lighthouse. The angle of
elevation of the top of the lighthouse is observed from the ships are 30° and 45°
respectively. If the lighthouse is 100 m high, the distance between the two ships is:
a) 173 m b) 200 m c) 273 m d) 300 m
182. If selling price is doubled, the profit triples. Find the profit percent.
1
a) 50 b) 100 c) 105 3 d) 120

183. What will be the day of the week 15th August, 2010?
a) Sunday b) Monday c) Tuesday d) Friday
184. The difference of two numbers is 1365. On dividing the larger number by the smaller,
we get 6 as quotient and the 15 as remainder. What is the smaller number?
a) 240 b) 270 c) 295 d) 360
185. A father said to his son, "I was as old as you are at the present at the time of your
birth". If the father's age is 40 years now, the son's age six years back was:
a) 14 years b) 19 years c) 33 years d) 38 years
186. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.
1. Income 2. Status 3. Education 4. Well-being 5. Job
a) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 b) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4 c) 1, 2, 5, 3, 4 d) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4
187. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Parents, Mother
and Father?

a) b) c) d)
188. Complete the given analogy: Letter : Word
a) Page : Book b) Product : Factory
c) Club : People d) Home work : School

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NAME MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXIII A (2079 –6 –08)

189. Which one will replace the question mark ?

a) 184 b) 210 c) 241 d) 425

190. Which one will replace the question mark ?
4 9 7
13 5 2
8 1 ?
a) 9 b) 6 c) 15 d) 11
191. A student got twice as many sums wrong as he got right. If he attempted 48 sums in all,
how many did he solve correctly?
a) 12 b) 16 c) 18 d) 24
192. In a caravan, in addition to 50 hens, there are 45 goats and 8 camels with some keepers.
If the total number of feet be 224 more than the number of heads in the caravan, the
number of keepers is
a) 5 b) 8 c) 10 d) 15
193. Pointing a photograph X said to his friend Y, "She is the only daughter of the father of
my mother." How X is related to the person of photograph?
a) Daughter b) Son c) Nephew d) Can't be decided
194. 2, 15, 4, 12, 6, 7, ?, ?
a) 8, 8 b) 8, 0 c) 3, 8 d) None of these
195. One morning after sunrise, Kamal started to walk. During this walking he met
Stephen who was coming from opposite direction. Kamal watch that the shadow of
Stephen to the right of him (Kamal). To Which direction Kamal was facing?
a) East b) West c) South d) Data inadequate
196. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series
as established by the five Problem Figures.
Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
197. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

a) 1 b) 2 c) 5 d) 4

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NAME MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXIII A (2079 –6 –08)

198. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when
the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
199. What is the minimum number of different colours required to paint he given figure
such that no two adjacent regions have the same colour?

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
200. Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

a) 1 and 4 only b) 3 and 4 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 2 and 3 only

Best of Luck

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