ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL GWALIOR

CLASS -XII

ACADEMIC SESSION 2021-22

WORKSHEET (SELF –ASSESSMENT)

Subject: English Assignment No. : 7

Allotment Date: 15 October 2021

S.N QUESTIONS MAR

O KS

Q.1 1. Read the passage given below. 8

1.All of Earth's oceans share one thing in common "plastic pollution. When people
litter, or when the trash is not properly disposed off, things like plastic bags, bottles,
straws, foam and beverage cups get carried to the sea by winds and waterways.
About 80 per cent of ocean plastic originates on land. The rest comes from marine
industries such as shipping and fishing.
2. In 2015, engineer Jenna Lambeck at the University of Georgia and other
researchers calculated that at least 8 million tons of plastic trash are swept into the
ocean from coasts every year. That's the equivalent of a full garbage truck of plastic
being dumped into the sea every minute. If current trends in plastic production and
disposal continue that figure will double by 2025. A report published by the World
Economic Forum last year predicts that by 2050, ocean plastic will outweigh all the
fish in the sea.
3. In today's world, plastic is everywhere. It's found in shoes, clothing, household
items, electronic and more. There are different types of plastics, but one thing they all
have in common is that they are made of polymers, large molecules made up of
repeating units. Their chemical structure gives them a lot of advantages: they are
cheap and easy to manufacture, lightweight, water-resistant, durable and can be
molded into nearly any shape
4 .Sea turtles eat plastic bags and soda-can rings, which resemble jellyfish, their
favourite food Seabird eat bottle caps or chunks of foam cups. Plastic pieces may
make an animal feel full, so it doesn‘t eat enough real food to get the nutrients it
needs. Plastic can also block an animal's digestive system, making it unable to eat.
5. Plastic and its associated pollutants can even make it into our own food supply.
Scientists recently examined fish and shellfish bought at markets in California and
Indonesia. They found plastic in the guts of more than a quarter of samples
purchased at both locations, in organisms that people eat whole, such as sardines
and oysters that means we're eating plastic too. In larger fishes, chemicals from
plastic may seep into their muscles and other issues that people consume.
6.One way to keep the ocean cleaner and healthier is through clean-up efforts. A lot
of plastic waste caught in ocean currents eventfully washes up on beaches.
Removing it prevents it from blowing out to sea again. Beach clean- up is ocean
clean- up.
7.Clean-up efforts can‘t reach every corner of the ‗ocean or track down every bit of
micro-plastic. That mean it‘s critical to cut down all the amount of plastic that reaches
the sea in the first place. Scientists are working towards new materials that are safer
for the environment. For example, Jambeck and her colleagues are currently testing a
new polymer that breaks down more easily in seawater.
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer the given questions by
choosing the most appropriate word.
1. Percentage of ocean plastic that originates from land is………………….
a) 20%
b) 50%
c) 80)
d) 25%

2. Plastic is that biodegradable because it is made up of……………………….

a) Low Atomic particle
b) Tiny particles
c) Strong big particle
d) Large molecule polymers

3. Scientists bought fish and shellfish for examination at markets in:

a) China and Russia
b) Pakistan and Afghanistan
c) California and Indonesia
d) Australia and Brazil

4. Which properties make great plastics for consumer goods

a) Biodegradability
b) Durability
c) The dyes and flame retardation
d) Ability of chemical absorption

5. What is the ultimate way to clean-up an ocean?

a) The beach –clean up
b) Ban of plastic items
c) Prohibition of seabirds
d) No food supply in surrounding area

6. How are the larger fish affected by plastic?

a) They can get entangled in plastic netting
b) Plastic may lead them to starvation
c) Plastic is found in their guts
d) Plastic may go into their muscles and other tissues

7. Which features do all kinds of plastics have?

a) Easy to manufacture and easy to dispose
b) Water resistant
c) Difficult to mould into any shape
d) Non-durability
8. What is the biggest impact of plastic pollution on sea life?
a) Plastic eating makes them feel full
b) Plastic blocks the animals‘ digestive system
c) Plastic cuts sea animal‘s skin
d) All of these
Q2. Choose the correct option to answer the following questions
4
1 .Whichofthefollowingisacharacteristicofaclassifiedadvertisement?
i Beingtoovagueorwording
ii usethesamedescriptivecharacteristicsforeachadvertisement
iii makefullsentences
ivthelanguage shouldbe accordingtotheaudiencewearereferringto

2. What is the correct order for the following sale of property?

i. Advertisement
ii. Available 1st floor DDA flat at Ashok Nagar 2 bedrooms with attached
bathrooms modular kitchen drawing extra
iii. Interested parties contact MLA Ramesh phone 044-2727521
iv. Located near main market metro station at walking distance

options
a) i, iii, ii, iv, v
b) iii, I, ii, v, iv
c) iii, I, v, ii, iv
d) i, ii, iv, iii

3. Which aspect of a product is a customer not required to know in an

advertisement
i. About the product
ii. age of the seller
iii. advantages of the product
iv. value for money

4. Situation wanted advertisement is written by

i. An employer
ii. A job seeker
iii. a candidate looking for a place for accommodation
iv. a person looking for tenants for his or her property

Q3 4
Read the given extracts and answer the questions based on the extracts.
Poor man! It was in honour of this last lesson that he had put on his fine Sunday
clothes, and now I understood why the old men of the village were sitting there in the
back of the room. It was because they were sorry, too, that they had not gone to
school more. It was their way of thanking our master for his forty years of faithful
service and of showing their respect for the country that was theirs no more
i. Why does the narrator refer to M. Hamel as ‗Poor man‘?
a) He empathizes with M. Hamel as he had to leave the village.
b) He believes that M. Hamel‘s ―fine Sunday clothes‖ clearly reflected that he was
 not
rich.
c) He feels sorry for M. Hamel as it was his last French lesson.
d) He thinks that M. Hamel‘s patriotism and sense of duty resulted in his poverty

ii. Choose the option that might raise a question about M. Hamel‘s ―faithful
service‖.
a) When Franz came late, M. Hamel told him that he was about to begin class
without him .
b) Franz mentioned how cranky M. Hamel was and his ―great ruler rapping on the
table‖.
c) M. Hamel often sent students to water his flowers, and gave a holiday when he
wanted to go fishing.
d) M. Hamel permitted villagers put their children ―to work on a farm or at the
mills‖ for
some extra money.

iii. Why were the old men sitting in the back of the room?
a) As a mark of respect for the French master
b) To honour Franz
c) It was an inspection Day
d) It was a gathering of the villagers

iv. Why was the country theirs no more ?

a) It came under the dictator
b) It was split
c) It was captured by the Prussian army
d) They left their country

Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow.
Q4. 4
Sometimes I think Grand Central is growing like a tree, pushing out new
corridors and staircases like roots. There‘s probably a long tunnel that nobody
knows about feeling its way under the city right now, on its way to Times
Square, and maybe another to Central Park. And maybe — because for so many
people through the years Grand Central has been an exit, a way of escape —
maybe that‘s how the tunnel I got into... But I never told my psychiatrist friend
about that idea.
 1 The above extract is NOT an example of .

A) allegory

B) analogy

C) imagery

D) metaphor

2. Charley decided not to tell his psychiatrist friend about his idea. Choose
the option that reflects the reaction Charley anticipated from his friend.

A) ―That‘s such a lovely comparison. Why don‘t you become a writer,

Charley?‖

B) ―Oh Charley. It is so sad to see your desperation to run away! So very

sad.‖

C) ―Maybe that‘s how you entered the third level. Who would have
thought?!‖

D) ―You need help, my raving friend. You are way too invested in this crazy
thought!‖

3. Look at the given expressions that lists some of the ways in which the
symbolism of a tree is employed. Which of the following would represent an
example as used by Charley in the above extract?

A) ‗Stay grounded‘ as the train station is underground.

B) ‗Connect with your roots‘ as he desires to go back to his past.

C) ‗Enjoy the view‘ as the station leads to all tourist sights of the city.

D) ‗Keep growing‘ as the station keeps renovating and expanding.

4. The idiom ‗feeling its way‘ implies movement.

A) swift

B) tentative

C) circular

D) disorganized

i.― The modern world is full of insecurity, fear, war, worry...‖ Signifies that :
Q.5 4
a) the world is full of chaos but at the same time means of happiness also for the
narrator.

b) the narrator is not at all satisfied with his life.

c) the narrator wanted to explore more about the modern world.

 d) the narrator enjoys the feeling of pain and insecurities in his life.

ii. Why did Hana wash the wounded man herself?

a) Because of her servants

b) because her servants ran away

c) because her servants refused to help an American enemy soldier

d) None

iii Why did the servants refuse to help ?

a) out of fears

b) because of superstitions

c) because he was an American Soldier

d) All these

iv How did Dr. Sadao ensure that the American Soldier had left safely?

a) by escorting him

b) by seeing no signal of flashlight

c) by giving him a call

d) none
Q.6 KendriyaVidyalaya, Bilaspur
NOTICE 4
20th August 2021
a) __________________

This is b)______ the students of classes IX to XII that the Britannia quiz
contest is to be held on 21st September 2021. Only c)____ who had participated in
the inter house quiz contest d)_____ . Interested students may give their names to
the house master for selections on 28th August 2021.

Amit
Head boy

Choose the most appropriate option

a.
i. Contest for selection
ii. Selection for quiz contest
iii. Inter house selection
iv. Selections

b.
i. information
ii. for information
iii. to inform
iv. an information
 c.
i. those students
ii. the student
iii. a student
iv. that student

d.
i. student
ii. 12 class head
iii. 12 a mentor
iv. are eligible

With the visual media technology overtaking the print media you have observed a
Q7. decline in the people's interest in reading books. You are disturbed by this excessive 5
dependence of the young on television and computer games as the source of
entertainment. Write a speech in 150 to 200 words for your school magazine on ―the
pleasures of reading‖.

The pleasures of reading

Reading affords pleasure like no other activity. It is deeply fulfilling and satisfying. a)
_______, the reader is in direct communication with the writer however distant
we may be in time or space. The reader is fully focused and enjoys the content as
well as the beauty and power of the language .b)_ ______ according to one's
taste. Knowledge, imagination and the readers own appreciation on the written word
are some of the rewards of reading. c)_____ into unknown cultures through books.
for example reading of Tolstoy or Chekhov gives us an insight into the life of the
Russians as a reading of Dickens gives us of the British, particularly of London
dwellers.Reading makes us more sensitive to human greatness as well as human
sufferings. A reader of Premchand‘s short stories d) _______. The classics of
literature are eternal in their appeal. Unfortunately, e)_____of Sharad Chandra‘s
Devdas three to four times but the original printed one is not even attempted once.

Choose the most appropriate option

a.

i) Though reading.

ii) When reading.

iii) As soon as you read..

iv) While reading.

. b.

i) How can you read.

 ii) As you read

iii) Reading offers an infinite variety.

iv) What to read.

c.

i) Only one can venture.

ii) Reaching.

iii) As one reads.

iv) If one is adventurous one can venture.

d.

i) Takes us to the depths.

ii) Will find that reading is necessary to.

iii) Will enjoy.

iv) acquaints us with the strengths and weaknesses of human character.

e.

i) blogs of.

ii) Today there are more options .

iii) today most of us visit the celluloid version.

iv) Most of us visit the library

Q8 Choose the correct options: 4

. 1._____ letters are sent to people whom we don't know on a personal level

i) chain

ii) informal

iii) formal

iv) reference

2. Which of these is not a part of a letter?

i) date
 ii) greeting

iii) photo

iv) signature

3. When you are writing a formal letter, what information might you need?

A) dates

B) names

C) contact details

D) all of these

4. When we don't know the recipient's name how do we close and end the letter

i) yours sincerely

ii) affectionately yours

iii) yours faithfully

iv) none of these

Read the extract given below and choose the correct option: 3
Q9.
Open-handed map ,Awarding the world its world. And yet, for these Children, these
windows, not this map, their world, Where all their future‘s painted with a fog,

1. Which are the two worlds does the poet is bringing out here?

a) beautiful scenes & slum children

b) The poverty world and the slum children.

c) Map of the rich and slum children

d) The world of poverty of the slum children & the prosperity of the rich.

2. What do the pictures on the wall suggest?

a) happiness, richness, well- being and beauty

b) donations of the rich people.

c) generosity of the rich

d) charity of the rich

3. How are the pictures in contrast to the classroom life of the children?

a) walls are not clean

b) brightness required in the class to see the pictures clearly.

c) sour cream walls are not a good background

d) dull and dim class with weak children.

 ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL GWALIOR

CLASS -XII

ACADEMIC SESSION 2021-22

WORKSHEET (SELF –ASSESSMENT)

Subject: Hindi Assignment No. : 7

Allotment Date: 15 October 2021

S.NO QUESTIONS MARKS

1 प्रस्तुत गदमयॊश को ऩढ़िए औय उचचत विकल्ऩों कय चमन कयके उत्तय 5X2=10
दीजजमे –

ययहे ऩय खडय है , सदय से ठॉ ठ नहीॊ है । ढ़दन थे जफ िह हयय बयय थय औय उस

जनसॊकुर चौययहे ऩय अऩनी छतनयय डयलरमों से फटोढ़हमों की थकयन अनजयने दय
कयतय थय। ऩय भैंने उसे सदय ठॉ ठ ही दे खय है । ऩत्रहीन, शयखयहीन, ननयिरॊफ, जैसे
ऩथ्
ृ िी रूऩी आकयश से सहसय ननकरकय अधय भें ही टॊ ग गमय हो। ययत भें िह
कयरे बत-सय रगतय है , ढ़दन भें उसकी छयमय इतनी गहयी नहीॊ हो ऩयती जजतनय
कयरय उसकय जजस्भ है औय अगय चचतेये को छयमयचचत्र फनयनय हो तो शयमद
उसकय-सय ‘अलबप्रयम’ औय न लभरेगय। प्रचॊड धऩ भें बी उसकय सखय शयीय उतनी
ही गहयी छयमय ज़भीन ऩय डयरतय जैसे ययत की उजजमययी चयॊदनी भें।जफ से होश
सॊबयरय है , जफ से आॊख खोरी है , दे खने कय अभ्मयस ककमय है , तफ से फययफय भुझे
उसकय ननस्ऩॊद, नीयस, अथथहीन शयीय ही ढ़दख ऩडय है।

ऩय वऩछरी ऩीिी के जयनकयय कहते हैं कक एक जभयनय थय जफ ऩीऩर औय फयगद

बी उसके सयभने शयभयते थे औय उसके ऩत्तों से, उसकी टहननमों औय डयरों से
टकययती हिय की सयसययहट दय तक सुनयई ऩडती थी। ऩय आज िह नीयि है , उस
चौययहे कय जियफ जजस ऩय उत्तय-दक्षऺण, ऩयफ-ऩजचचभ चययों औय की ययहें लभरती
हैं औय जजनके सहयये जीिन अवियर फहतय है । जजसने कबी जर को जीिन की
सॊऻय दी, उसने ननचचम जयनय होगय की प्रयणियन जीिन बी जर की ही बयॊनत
विकर, अवियर फहतय है । सो प्रयणियन जीिन, भयनि सॊस्कृनत कय उल्रयस उऩहयय
लरए उन चययों ययहों की सॊचध ऩय लभरतय थय जजसके एक कोण भें उस प्रियह से
लभर एकयॊत शुष्क आज िह ठॉ ठ खडय है । उसके अबयग्मों ऩयॊ ऩयय भें सॊबित् एक
ही सख
ु द अऩियद है – उसके अॊदय कय स्नेहयस सख जयने से सॊख्मय कय रोऩ हो
जयनय। सॊऻय रुप्त हो जयने से कष्ट की अनुबनत कभ हो जयती है ।

1. जनसॊकुर कय क्मय आचम है ?

क) जनसॊऩकक
ख) बीड़बया
ग) जनसभूह
घ) जनजीवन

2. आभ की छतनयय डयलरमों के कययण क्मय होतय थय?

क) मात्रिमों को ठॊ डक मभरती थी
ख) मात्रिमों को ववश्राभ मभरता था
ग) मात्रिमों की थकान मभटती थी
घ) मात्रिमों को हवा मभरती थी

3. शयखयहीन, यसहीन, शुष्क िऺ

ृ को क्मय कहय जयतय है ?

क) नीयस वऺ
ृ
ख) जड़ वऺ
ृ
ग) ठूॉठ वऺ
ृ
घ) हीन वऺ
ृ

4. आभ के िऺ
ृ के सयभने ऩीऩर औय फयगद के शयभयने कय क्मय कययण थय?

क) उसका अधधक हया-बया औय सघन होना

ख) हवा की आवाज सन
ु ाई दे ना
ग) अधधक पर पूर रगना
घ) अधधक ऊॉचा होना

5. आभ केेे अबयगेऩन भें सॊबित् एक ही सुखद अऩियद थय –

क) उसका नीयस हो जाना

ख) सॊऻा रुप्त हो जाना
ग) सूख कय ठूॉठ हो जाना
घ) अनुबूतत कभ हो जाना
. ऐसा है आवेश दे श भें जजसका ऩाय नहीॊ।
दे खा भाता का ऐसा यजततभ श्रग
ॊ ृ ाय नहीॊ।
कॊठ-कॊठ भें गान उभड़ते भाॉ के वॊदन के।
कॊठ-कॊठ भें गान उभड़ते भाॉ के अचकन के।
शीश-शीश भें बाव उभड़ते भाॉ ऩय अऩकण के।
प्राण-प्राण भें बाव उभड़ते शोणणत तऩकण के।
जीवन की धाया भें दे खी ऐसी धाय नहीॊ।
सत्म अहहॊसा का व्रत अऩना कोई ऩाऩ नहीॊ।
ववश्व भैिी का व्रत बी कोई अमबशाऩ नहीॊ।
मही सत्म है सदा असत की हटकती चाऩ नहीॊ।
सावधान हहॊसक! प्रततहहॊसा की कोई भाऩ नहीॊ।
कोई बी प्रस्ताव ऩयाजम का स्वीकाय नहीॊ।
ऐसा है आवेश दे श भें जजसका ऩाय नहीॊ।

प्रचन

(क) उऩयोक्त ऩदमयॊश भें ककसके आिेश’ कय उल्रेख हुआ है ?

(i) भाता के
(ii) दे श के
(iii) शिु के
(iv) इनभें से कोई नहीॊ

(ख) कवि के भतयनुसयय असत्म है

(i) स्थामी
(ii) व्रत
(iii) अमबशाऩ
(iv) अस्थामी

(ग) ‘यजक्त श्ग

ॊ ृ यय’ कय अथथ है
(i) वीय सऩूतों का यतत फमरदान कयना
(ii) यतत फहाना
(iii) शिु का खन
ू फहाना ।
(iv) उऩयोतत भें से कोई नहीॊ

(घ) ‘शोणणत तऩथण’ कय अथथ है

(i) खन
ू फहाकय आक्रभणकायी के वऩतयों का श्राद्ध कयना
(ii) शिु का शोषण कयना
(iii) दख
ु ी होकय श्राद्ध कयना
 (iv) वीय सऩत
ू ों का यतत फमरदान कयना

(ङ) ऩदमयॊश भें ‘भयतय’ कय प्रतीक है –

(i) दे वी की
(ii) ववश्वभैिी की
(iii) सत्म-अहहॊसा की
(iv) याष्ट्र (दे श) की

2 जनसॊचयय भयध्मभ 10
1. इनभें से कौन-सय जनसॊचयय भयध्मभ अनऩि व्मजक्त के लरए उऩमोगी नहीॊ है ?
A. इॊटयनेट
B. सभयचयय-ऩत्र
C. ऩत्रत्रकयएॉ
D. तीनों
2. सियथचधक खचीरय जनसॊचयय भयध्मभ कौन-सय है ?
A. ये डडमो
B. टे रीविज़न
C. सभयचयय ऩत्र
D. इॊटयनेट
3. श्व्म जनसॊचयय भयध्मभ कौन-सय है ?
A. सभयचयय ऩत्र
B. ये डडमो
C. इॊटयनेट
D. टे लरविजन
4. भुद्रण कय आयॊ ब ककस दे श भें हुआ?
A. बययत
B. जयऩयन
C. चीन
D. इॊग्रैण्ड
5. ितथभयन छयऩेखयने कय अविष्कयय ककसने ककमय?
A. गुटेनफगथ ने
B. चचनलभन ने
C. ननहयर लसॊह ने
D. जॉनसन ने
6. श्व्म जनसॊचयय भयध्मभ कौन-सय है ?

Aसभयचयय ऩत्र
B. ये डडमो

C. इॊटयनेट
 D. टे लरविजन
7. बययत भें ऩहरय छयऩयखयनय कफ रगय?

A. सन ् 1556 भें
B. सन ् 1546 भें

C. सन ् 1656 भें
D. सन ् 1576 भें
8. सभयचयय रेखन की प्रबयिशयरी शैरी कौन सी है ?

A. िणथनयत्भक शैरी
B. वििेचनयत्भक शैरी

C. वऩययलभड शैरी
D. उल्टय वऩययलभड शैरी
9. दृचमों कय ककस भयध्मभ भें अचधक भहत्ि होतय है ?

A. सभयचयय ऩत्र
B. ये डडमो

C. टे रीविज़न

D. इॊटयनेट
10. ढ़हन्दी भें नेट ऩत्रकयरयतय ककसके सयथ आयॊ ब हुई?

A. िैफ दनु नमय के सयथ

B. दै ननक जयगयण के सयथ

C. दै ननक बयस्कय के सयथ

D. ययजस्थयन ऩत्रत्रकय के सयथ

3 . ढ़दन ढरने के सयथ फच्चे कहयॉ से झयॉकने रगे होंगे ? 10

A- णखड़की से
B- छत से
C- घयों से
D- नीड़ों से

ककसके फच्चे प्रत्मयशय भें होंगे ?

A- कवव के
B- गाम के
C- धचड़ड़मा के
D- शेय के

भझ
ु से लभरने को कौन विकर ? - ढ़दन जल्दी जल्दी ढरतय है , गीत
कय मह प्रचन उय भें क्मय बयतय है ?

A- चॊचरता
B- ववह्वरता
C- आक्रभकता
D- शित
ु ा

.ककसके फच्चे प्रत्मयशय भें होंगे ?

A- कवव के
B- गाम के
C- धचड़ड़मा के
D- शेय के

'कवितय के फहयने' कवितय के यचनयकयय हैं-

A. कॉु िय लसॊह

B. कॉु िय प्रसयद
C. कॉु िय प्रकयश
D. कॉु िय नयययमण
.कवितय ककस के फहयने एक उडयन है ?

A. अतीत

B. फयरक
C. चचडडमय
D. प्रेलभकय
कैभये भें फॊद अऩयढ़हज' कवितय भें कैभयय एक सयथ क्मय ढ़दखयनय चयहतय है ?

A. सयभयन्म व्मजक्त की दद
ु थ शय औय खुशी
B. सभयचयय औय खेर
C. दशथक औय अऩयढ़हज योते
D. नए औय ऩुययने कयमथक्रभ
'कैभये भें फॊद अऩयढ़हज' कवितय भें सभथथ शजक्तियन' ककसे कहय जयतय है ?

A. कैभययभैन को

B. अऩयढ़हज को
C. दशथकों को
D. दयदशथन ियरों को
.'सहर्थ स्िीकयय है ' कवितय के कवि हैं-

A. गजयकय भयधि भजु क्तफोध

B. गजयनन भयधि भुजक्तफोध

 C. चगयधय भयधि भुजक्तफोध

D. गजभुख भयधि भुजक्तफोध

जजॊदगी भें जो कुछ है , जो बी है उसे कैसे स्िीकययय है ?

A. सहर्थ

B. सभिेत
C. सहज
D. सयोर्
.गयीफी को कैसय फतयमय है ?

A. शभीरी

B. द्ु ख बयी
C. सुखदयमक
D. गयफीरी

4 क्मय इॊदय सेनय आज के मि

ु य िगथ कय प्रेयणय-स्रोत फन सकती है ? 10

A. हयॉ

B. नहीॊ
C. कह नहीॊ सकते

D. इनभें से कोई नहीॊ

इॊदय सेनय दिययय जर कय दयन भयॉगने को रेखक क्मय कहतय है ?

A. अॊधविचियस

B. रोक विचियस
C. धयलभथक विचियस
D. रोक ऩयॊ ऩयय
कयरे भेघय ऩयनी दे ऩयठ सयढ़हत्म की ककस विधय की यचनय है ?

A- एकाॊकी
B- उऩन्मास
C- तनफॊध
D- सॊस्भयण

कयरे भेघय ऩयनी दे भें फच्चे ककस लरए प्रमत्न कय यहे हैं ?

A- धऩ
ू
B- तूफ़ान
C- वषाक
D- फपकफायी
बजक्तन ककस प्रकयय कय बोजन फनयती थी?

A. तीखय औय भसयरेदयय

B. तीखय औय भीठय
C. सीधय-सयर बोजन

D. स्ियढ़दष्ट औय गरयष्ठ
बजक्तन भें कौन-सय बयि प्रफर थय?

A. िीयतय कय बयि

B. स्ियलबभयन कय बयि
C. घण
ृ य कय बयि
D. ईष्मयथ कय बयि
खोटे लसक्कों की टकसयर कय अथथ क्मय है ?

A. ननकम्भे कयभ कयने ियरी ऩत्नी

B. फेकयय ऩत्नी
C. जजस टकसयर से खोटे लसक्के ननकरते हैं

D. कन्मयओॊ को जन्भ दे ने ियरी ऩत्नी

फयज़यय दशथन' के यचनमतय हैं-

A. भहयदे िी िभयथ
B. पणीचिय नयथ ये णु

C. धभथिीय बययती

D. जैनेंद्र कुभयय
फयज़यय दशथन' कय प्रनतऩयदम है -

A. फयज़यय के उऩमोग कय वििेचन

B. फयजयय से रयब

C. फयज़यय न जयने की सरयह

D. फयज़यय जयने की सरयह

रेखक कय लभत्र ककसके सयथ फयज़यय गमय थय?

A. अऩने वऩतय के सयथ

B. लभत्र के सयथ

C. ऩत्नी के सयथ
D. अकेरय
 ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL GWALIOR
CLASS XII
ACADEMIC SESSION 2021-22
WORKSHEET (SELF-ASSESSMENT)

Subject: Mathematics Assignment No. :7

Allotment Date: 15 October 2021

S. QUESTIONS MARKS

NO

1 Set A has 3 elements and the set B has 4 elements. Then the number of injective 1
functions that can be defined from A to B is:
(a) 144 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d) 64

2 Consider the non-empty set consisting of children in a family and a relation R 1

defined as aRb if a is a brother of b. Then R is:
(a)Symmetric but not transitive (b) transitive but not symmetric
(c) neither symmetric nor transitive (d) both symmetric and transitive

3 The value of sin-1(cos is: 1

(a) (b) (c) (d)

4 If sin-1 x+ sin-1 y= , then cos-1 x+cos-1 y is: 1

(a) (b) (c) (d) 0

5 1
The matrix [ ] is a :

(a)diagonal matrix (b)symmetric matrix (c) skew symmetric (d) scalar matrix

6 The number of all possible matrices of order 3x3 with each entry 0 or 1 is : 1
(a) 27 (b) 18 (c) 81 (d) 512
7 1
A root of the equation| | is:

(a) a (b) b (c) 0 (d) 1

8 1
There are two values of a which makes determinant | |= 86, then

the sum of these numbers is:

(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) -4 (d) 9

9 The function f(x) = [x], where [x] denotes the greatest integer function, is 1
continuous at x equals to :
(a) 4 (b) -2(c) 1 (d) 1.5

10 1
The value of m for which the function f(x) ={ is continuous at
every point of its domain is:
(a) -1 (b) 0 (c) 13/3 (d) 1

11 The slope of normal to the curve y= 2x2 +3 sinx, at x=0 is: 1

(a) 3 (b) 1/3 (c) -3 (d) -1/3

12 The maximum value of sinx.cosx is: 1

(a) 1/4 (b) 1/2 (c) (d) 2

13 If the value of a third orders determinants is 12, then the value of the determinant 1
formed by replacing each element by its cofactor will be:
(a) 12 (b) 144 (c) -12 (d) 13

14 1
.If | | + 3 =o, then the value of x is:

(a) 3 (b) 0 (c) -1 (d) 1

15 If y= A e5x + B e-5x, then is: 1

(a) 25y (b) 5y (c) -5y (d) 10y

16 Let A be a square matrix of order 3 . Then | | is equal to: 1

(a) k | | (b) k3| | (c) k2| | (d) 3k | |

17 If xy. yx=16, then at (2,2) is: 1

(a) 1 (b) -1 (c) 0 (d) none of these

18 The point on the curve y2=x, where the tangent makes an angle of π/4 with x-axix 1
is:
(a) (1/2, ¼) (b)(1/4,1/2) (c) (4,2) (d) (1,1)

19 y= x(x-3)2 decreases for all value of x given by: 1

(a) 1 (b) x (c) x (d) 0
20 Which of the following points is not in the feasible region of the constraints: 1
x+y :

(a) (2,5) (b)(0,3) (c) (1,3) (d) (0,0)

21 Let f: [2, be the function defined by f(x)= x2-4x +5, then the range of f is: 1

(a) R (b)[1, (c) [4, (d) [5,

22. If 3 tan-1 x+ cot-1x = then x equals to: 1

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) -1 (d) ½

23. 1
If [ ] [ ], then value of y is:
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 5

24. The area of a triangle with vertices (-3,0), (3,0) and (0,k) is 9 sq units. The value of 1
k will be:
(a) 9 (b) 3 (c) -9 (d) 6

25. If x= a ses3 ,y=a tan3 ,then at = is: 1

(a) 2/√ 3 (b) 1/√ 3 (c) √3 (d) √ (3)/2

26. Let A={1,2} and B={3,4}. How many subsets will A have? 1
(a)2 (b)4 (c) 8 (d) 16

27. If A and B are disjoint sets, then the value of n( ) is: 1

(a)n(A) –n(B) (b)n(A).n(B) (c)n(A)+n(B) (d) 0

28. If tan-1 x = for some x then the value of cot-1x is: 1

(a) (b) (c) (d)

29. If A is a 3x2 matrix, B is a 3x3 matrix and C is a 2x3 matrix , then the elements in A, B and 1
C are respectively :
(a) (6,9,8) (b) 6,9,6 (c) 9,6,6 (d) 6,6,9

30. If A is an invertible matrix of order 2, then det(A-1) is equal to: 1

(a) det(A) (b) (c) 1 (d) 0

31. An advertisement firm is supplied with decorative wire pieces of 34 m each and are asked 5
to cut the wire into two pieces. From one piece a circular sign board is to be made and
from other a square one and the idea is to keep the sum of the areas enclosed by a circle
and square to be minimum for writing slogans.

Keeping the above under consideration answer the following:

(i) If wire is cut at x m from one end and made a circle then if r represents radius of
a circle then,
(a) r2=x (b) =x (c) = x (d) r =2x
(ii) Area enclosed by the circular ring is:
(a) m2 (b) x2 m2 (c) x2 m2 (d) m2
(iii) Area enclosed by the square frame is:
(a) (x-34) m2 (b) m2 (c) m2 (d)
2
m
(iv)For what value of x, combined area is minimum?
(a) m (b) m (c) m (d) m
 (v) What is the ratio of area of a circle to the area of a square, when combined are
is minimum?
(a) (b) (c) (d)

32. In an LPP, the objective function Z= 3x+4y +370 is to be optimised subject to the 5
constraints: x+y x+y x .
The shaded bounded region ABCDEF is the feasible region of the given LPP.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:

(i) The maximum value of Z occurs at:

(a) B(40,0) (b) C (40,20) (c) D(20,40) (d)E(0,40)
(ii) The minimum value of Z is equal to:
(a) (b) 400 (c) 500 (d)600
(iii) The value of Z at C(40,20) is:
(a) (b) 530 (c) 550 (d)570
(iv) The value of (Maximum Z- Minimum Z) is equal to:
(a) (b)210 (c) 230 (d)250
(v) The area of feasible region ABCDEF (in square units) is:
(a) (b) 1250 (c) 1350 (d)1450
 ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL GWALIOR

CLASS - XII

ACADEMIC SESSION 2021-22

WORKSHEET (SELF –ASSESSMENT)

Subject: Biology Assignment No. :7

Allotment Date: 15 October 2021

SN QUESTIONS M
1. Choose the odd one with respect to RNA 1
i. TMV ii. Cauliflower mosaic virus
iii. Influenza virus iv. Reo virus
2. In polycarpic plants the period between two flowering phase is used for building 1
up resources hence called
i. Intephase ii. Recovery phase
iii. Aeging phase iv. Senescent phase
3. Source of testosterone hormone are
i. Sertoli cells ii. Acinal cells
iii. Lutein cells iv. Leydig cells
4. The degenerative process by which eggs are lost from the ovary is called 1
i. Hypoplasia ii. Regression
iii. Atresia iv Hyperplasia
5. The ovum released from the ovary is received by 1
i. Uterus ii. Vagina
iii.sthmus iv. Ostium
6. Which of the following is not associated with the human male? 1
i. Prostrate gland ii. Perineal gland
iii. Cowper‘s glands iv. Seminal vesicles
7. Sperm entry in the ovum is assisted by 1
i. Hyaluronidase ii. Hyaluronic acid
iii. Fertilizin iv. Antifertilizin
8. Female heterogamety is 1
i. two different types of gametes are produced by females.
ii. four different types of gametes are produced – by males.
iii. Can be both (a) and (b)
iv. None of the above
9. Failure of segregation of chomatids during cell division cycle results in the gain or loss 1
of a chromosome(s) is called
i. Female heterogamety ii. Male heterogamety
iii. Aneuploidy iv. None of these
10 An analysis of traits in several generation of a family is called the 1
i. Pedigree analysis ii. Mendel analysis
iii. Punneet analysis iv. None of the above
11. Haemophilia is a 1
i. Mendalian disorder ii. Chromosomal disorder
iii. Can be (a) or (b) iv. None of the above
12. Who introduced chromosomal theory of inheritance? 1
i. Mendel ii. Sutton
iii. Reginald iv. Boyen
13. Down‘s syndrome is a 1
i. Mendelian disorder ii. Chromosomal disorder
 iii. Can be (a) or (b) iv. None of the above
14. Nucleic acids are polymer of 1
i. Nucleosides ii. Proteins
iii. Glycoproteins iv. Nucleotides
15. DNA structure was discovered by 1
i. Weismann ii. Watson and Crick
iii. Har Gobind Khorana iv. Sutton
16. Enzyme responsible for DNA replication 1
i. Polymerase ii. Proteolytic
iii. Ligase iv. Carboxylase
17. Cistron is 1
i. Functional unit of RNA ii. Non-functional unit of RNA
iii. Functional unit of DNa that specifies a polypeptide chain
iv. Non-functional unit of DNA
18. Synthesis of any protein in a cell is determined by 1
i. Types of ribosomes ii. Mitochondria
iii. Sequence of nucleotides in DNA iv. Sugar and phosphate of DNA
19. Regulated unit of genetic material is called 1
i. Operon ii. Operater gene
iii. Regulator gene iv. Promoter gene
20. Sickle cell anaemia is caused by change in 1
i. A single base ii. a chain of haemoglobin
iii. Frame shift mutation iv. Whole ß chain of haemoglobin
21. The experimental system used in studies of discovery of replication of DNA has been 1
i. Drosophila melanogaster iii. Pneumococcus
iii. Escherichia Coli iv. Neurospora crassa
22. Antigen binding site in an antibody is found between 1
i. two light chain ii. two heavy chains
iii. one heavy chain and one light chain
iv. either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain
depending upon the nature of antigen.
23. Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foef‘s across placenta or through 1
mother‘s milk to the infant is categorised as
i. Active immunity ii. Passive immunity
iii. Cellular immunity iv. Innate non-specific immunity
24. T-lymphocytes first mature in 1
i. Thymus ii. Pancreas
iii. Liver iv. Spleen
25. The major phagocytic cells are 1
i. Lymphocytes ii. Mast cells
iii. Macrophages iv. Plasma cells
26. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a drug and its category? 1
i. Amphetamines-Stimulant ii. Lysergic acid Dimethylamide-Narcotic
iii. Heroin-psychotropic iv. Benzodiazepan-pain killer
27. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiations than normal cells because they 1
are
i. undergoing rapid division ii. different in structure
iii. non-dividing iv. starved of mutation
28. A person is injected with gamma-globulin against hepatitis. This is 1
i. Artificially acquired active immunity ii. Artificially acquired passive immunity
iii. Naturally acquired active immunity iv. Naturally acquired passive immunity
29. Feathery stigma occurs in 1
i. pea ii. wheat
iii. Datura iv. Caesalpinia
30. Polyembryony commonly occurs in 1
i. banana ii. tomato
iii.Potato iv. citrus.
31. Assertion: Testies is located in the scrotum, outside the body. 1
Reason : A vaginal coelom partly surrounds the testies in scrotum.
i. A ii. B iii. C iv. D
32. Assertion: In the testies sperem production takes place inside the seminiferous tubules 1
and testosterone production occurs in Leyding cells.
Reason : Testosterone brings growth and maturation of primary sex organs and also
development of accessory sex charactersitics.
i. A ii. B iii. C iv. D
33. Assertion: On true breeding lines, Mendel performed cross pollination experiments. 1
Reason : For several generation, true breeding lines have stable trait inheritance.
i. A ii. B iii. C iv. D
34. Assertion: A good example of multiple alleles is ABO blood group system. 1
Reason : When IA and IB alleles are present together in ABO blood group system,
they both express their own type.
i. A ii. B iii. C iv. D
35. Assertion: Phenylketonuria is an inborn error of metabolism. 1
Reason : Phenylalanine is not converted into alanine in individuals suffering from this
disease.
i. A ii. B iii. C iv. D
36. Assertion: A single mRNA strand is capable of forming a number of different 1
polypeptide chains.
Reason : The mRNA strand has terminator codons.
i. A ii. B iii. C iv. D
37. Assertion: Meiosis is the cell division which occurs in the sexually reproducing 1
organisms.
Reason : Meiotic cell division results into two cells having exactly same genetic
makeup.
i. A ii. B iii. C iv. D
38. Assertion: Overpopulation has become a serious problem in the developing countries. 1
Reason : It does not exhaust natural resources, causes unemployment and pollution.
i.A ii. B iii. C iv. D
39. Assertion: In human, the gametes contributed by the male determine whether the child 1
produced will be male or female.
Reason : Sex in human is a polygenic trait depending upon a cumulative effect of
some genes on X-chromosome and some on Y-chromosome.
I. A ii. B iii. C iv. D
40. Assertion: Adenine cannot pair with cytosine. 1
Reason : Adenine and cytosine do not have a perfect match between hydrogen
donor and hydrogen acceptor sites. Hence, they cannot pair.
i. A ii. B iii. C iv. D
 ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL GWALIOR

CLASS -XII

ACADEMIC SESSION 2021-22

WORKSHEET (SELF –ASSESSMENT)

Subject: Physics Assignment No. : 7

Allotment Date: 15 October 2021

S.No QUESTIONS MARKS

1 Quantization of charge implies that 1

a) charge does not exist

b) charge exist on particles

c) there is a minimum permissible magnitude of charge

d) charge cannot be created

2 The conservation of electric charge implies that 1

a)charge cannot be created

b)charge cannot be destroyed

c)the number of charged particles in the universe is constant

d) simultaneous creation of equal and opposite charges is permissible.

3 The number of electrons contained in one coulomb of charge is 1

a)6.25 x 10 18

b)6.25 x 10 19

c)6.25 x 10 17

d)6.25 x 10 -19

4 The number of lines of force that radiate outward from one coulomb of positive 1
charge is

infinite

negligibly small

ϵ0( epsilon not)

 1/ ϵ0

ϵ0( epsilon not)

1/ ϵ0

5 The minimum amount of charge observed so far is 1

1C

4.8 x 10 -3 C

1.6 x 10 -19 C

1.6 x 10 -19 C

6 Three charges ,each equal to Q are placed at the corners of an equilateral 1

triangle, If the force between any two charges is F,then the net force on the
triangle will be

a)2F

b)3
F

d) Zero

7 A dipole moment p is kept in a uniform electric field E .then pxE represent 1

a)Torque

b) Force

c)Capacity

d)Charge

8 The product of charge (Q) and electric potential(V) gives 1

a)Work done

b)force applied

c)momentum

d)none of these

9 When placed in uniform electric field, a dipole experiences 1

a)a net force

b)a torque

c)both a net force and a torque

d) neither a net force nor a torque

10 A parrot comes and sit on a bare high power line. It will 1

a)experience a mild stock

 b)experience a strong shock

c)get lilted instantaneously

d)not be affected at all

11 The force between two charges, when placed in free space is 5 Newton.If they 1
are in a medium of relative permittivity 5 ,the force between them will be

a)1 Newton

b)25 Newton

c)2.5 Newton

d)1/5 Newton

12 When electrons are added to an uncharged body ,then the body 1

a)gets negatively charged

b)gets positively charged

c)remains unchanged

d)gets negatively or positively charged depending upon its size

13 When electrons are removed from an uncharged body, the body 1

a)gets negatively charged

b)gets positively charged

c))remains uncharged

d)gets negatively or positively charged depending upon its size

14 Two charges are placed a certain distance apart .A metallic sheet is placed 1
between them .What will happen to the force between the charges?

a) Increase

b) Decrease

c) remains the same

d) may increase or decrease upon the nature of the metal

15 Two charges are placed at a certain distance apart. If a dielectric slab iis placed 1
between them, what happens to the force between the charges?

a) Decreases

b)Increases

c)remains unchanged

d)may increase or decrease depending on the nature of the dielectric.

16 A positively charged glass rod is brought near the disc of an uncharged gold leaf 1
electroscope. The leaves diverge. Which of the following statement is correct?
 a) no charge is present on the leaves

b)a positive charge induced on the leaves

c)A negatively charged is induced on the leaves

d)a positive charge is induced on one leaf and a negative charge is induced on
the other leaf

17 When a person standing barefoot on the ground comes in contact with a high 1
power line ,he is likely to

a)experience a total shocks

b)experience a mild shock

c)experience a moderate shocks

d)remains unaffected

18 Two identical metal spheres are given equal but opposite charges of + q coulomb 1
and –q coulomb respectively. After charging .

a)both the spheres still have identical masses

b)the positively charged sphere has a smaller mass than the negatively charged
sphere

c)the negatively charged sphere has a smaller mass than the positively charged
sphere

d)the variation in their masses depends on the magnitude of q

19 Two charges of 2 μC and 5 μC are placed 2.5 cm apart .The ratio of the 1
coulomb‘s force experienced by them is

a)1:1√

b)2:5

c)√2: √5

d)4:25

20 The ratio of the force between two charges in vacuum kept a certain distance 1
apart to that between the same charges, the same distance apart in a medium of
permittivity ϵ(epsilon) is

a)ϵ:1

b)1: ϵ

c)ϵo: ϵ

d)none of these

21 If Q represents the charge on a particle and V the potential difference between 1

two points, then QV represents the magnitude of
 a)Momentum

b)Power

c)Force

d)Energy

22 As one penetrates a uniformly charged sphere, the electric field strength 1

a)Increase

b)Decrease

c)is zero at all point

d)remains the same at the surface

23 Two balls carrying charges of 3 μC and - 3 μC attract each other with a force F. If 1
a charge of + 3 μC is added to both the balls then the force between them will
become

a) F/2

b)2F

c)F

d)Zero

24 Two balls carrying charges - 5 μC and + 8 μC attract each other with a force F.If 1
a charge of - 3 μC is added to both the balls, then the force between them will
become

a)2F

b)F/2

c)F

d)Zero

25 The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor depends on 1

a)the type of metal used

b)the thickness of the plates

c)The potential applied across the plates

d)The separation between the plates.

26 Two identical metal plates, separated by a distance d, from a parallel plate 1

capacitor. A metal sheet of thickness d/2,of the same area as that of either of
the plates, is inserted between them .The ratio of the capacitance after the
insertion of the sheet to that before insertion is

a)2:1

b)√ 2:1
 c)1:2

d)1: √2

27 From where the electric line of force assumed to originate? 1

a)positive charge

b)negative charge

c)both from positive and negative charge

d)neither from the positive charge nor from the negative charge

28 Which of the following has no unit? 1

a)electric intensity

b)atomic polarizability

c)electric susceptibility

d)electric dipole moment

29 A charge q is placed at the centre of a line joining two equal charges Q.The 1
system of these three charges will be in equilibrium if q equals

a)-Q/2

b)-Q/4

c)Q/4

d)Q/2

30 The magnetic field due to a current element is independent of 1

a) its length

b)distance for it

c)current through it

d)none of these

31 The unit of a current element is 1

a)Am

b)Am-1

c)Am-2

d)Am2

32 The magnetic field (B) on the axis of a circular coil and a far away distance r from 1
the centre of the coil are related as

a)B α r-1
 b)B α r-2

c)B α r-3

d)B α r

33 What happens to the magnetic field at the centre of a circular current carrying coil 1
if we double the radius of the coil keeping the current unchanged?

a)Halved

b)Doubled

c)Quadrupled

d)Remains unchanged

34 When we double the radius of a coil keeping the current through it unchanged. 1
What happens to the magnetic field, directed along its axis, at far off points?

a)Halved

b)Doubled

c)Quadrupled

d)Remains unchanged

35 The strength of the magnetic field around and infinite current carrying conductor is 1

a) same everywhere

b)inversely proportional to the distance

c)directly proportional to the distance

d)none of these

36 A current carrying power line carries current from west to east. Then the direction 1
of the magnetic field through 2m above it is

a)West to east

b)South to north

c)north to south

d)none of these

37 A metallic pipe carries a direct current. Which of the following statement is true 1
about

a) the existence of a magnetic field ?

b) the field exists only inside the pipe

c) the field exists only outside the pipe

d) the field exist inside as well as outside the pipe

the field exist neither inside nor outside the pipe

38 The magnetic field due to a current carrying toroidal solenoid does not depend on 1
the

a)radius

b)current

c)number of turns

d)none of these

39 What will be the Magnetic field in the empty space enclosed by a toroidal 1
solenoid of radius r?

a)0

b)Infinity

c)μoI/2πr

d)μoI/2r

40 No force acts on a charge sent through a magnetic field when the angle between 1
its velocity and the magnetic field is

a)45 °

b)90°

c)135°

d)180°
 ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL GWALIOR

CLASS -XII

ACADEMIC SESSION 2021-22

WORKSHEET (SELF –ASSESSMENT)

Subject: Chemistry Assignment No. : 7

Allotment Date: 15 October 2021

S.NO QUESTIONS MARKS

1 Among the following a chiral amino acid is: 1
(a) Ethylalanine
(b) Methylglyane
(c) 2-Hydroxymethylresfne
(d) Triptophane.

2 The helical structure of protein is stabilised by 1

(a) dipeptide bonds
(b) hydrogen bonds
(c) ether bonds
(d) peptide bonds

3 During acetylation of glucose it needs ,v moles of.acetic anhydride. The value 1

of x would be
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 1

4 On oxidation with a mild oxidising agent like Br2/H20, the glucose is oxidized 1
to
(a) saccharic acid
(b) glucaric acid
(c) gluconic acid
(d) valeric acid

5 Invert sugar is 1
(a) a type of cane sugar
(b) optically inactive form of sugar
(c) mixture of glucose and galactose
(d) mixture of glucose and fructose in equimolar quantities

6 Which of the following compounds is found abundatly in nature? 1

(a) Fructose
(b) Starch
 (c) Glucose
(d) Cellulose
7 Glycosidic linkage is an 1
(a) amide linkage
(b) ester linkage
(c) ether linkage
(d) acetyl linkage
8 Starch is composed of two polysaccharides which arc 1
(a) amylopectin and glycogen
(b) amylose and gtycogen
(c) amylose (20%) and amylopectin (80%)
(d) cellulose and glycogen

9 Which reagent is used to convert glucose into saccharic acid? 1

(a) Br2/H2O
(b) Nitric acid
(c) Alkaline solution of iodine
(d) Ammonium hydroxide

10 Maltose is made up of 1
(a) two α-D-glucose
(b) normal β-D-glucose
(c) α- and β-D-glucose
(d) fructose
11 What is the basic formulae for starch? 1
(a) (C6H12O6)n
(b) (C6H10O5)n
(c) C12O12O11
(d) (C6H12O4)n

12 Whicn of the following is an example of an aldopentose? 1

(a) D-Ribose
(b) Glyceraldehyde
(c) Fructose
(d) Erythrose
13 Which of the following treatment will convert starch directly into glucose? 1
(a) Heating with dilute H2SO4
(b) Fermentation by diastase
(c) Fermentation by zymase
(d) Heating with dilute NaOH
14 The general formula of carbohydrates is 1
(a) CnH2n+1O
(b) CnH2nO
(c) Cx(H2O)
(d) Cn(H2,O)2n

15 The a-and p-forms of glucose are 1

(a) isomers of D (+) glucose and L (-) glucose respectively
(b) diastereomers of glucose
(c) anomers of glucose
(d) isomers which differ in the configuration of C-2
16 What are the hydrolysis products of sucrose? 1
(a) Fructose + Fructose
(b) Glucose + Glucose
(c) Glucose + Galactose
 (d) D-Glucose + D-Fructose
17 Carbohydrates are stored in human body as the polysaccharide 1
(a) starch
(b) glycogen
(c) cellulose
(d) amylose

18 The glycosidic linkage involved in linking the glucose units in amylose part of 1
starch is
(a) C1-C4 β-linkage
(b) C4-C6 β-linkage
(c) C1-C6 α-linkage
(d) C1-C4 α-linkage

19 . The conversion of maltose into glucose is possible by the enzyme 1

(a) zymase
(b) lactase
(c) maltase
(d) diastase
20 Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar? 1
(a) Glucose
(b) Sucrose
(c) Maltose
(d) Lactose
21 Which one of the following is not correct? 1
(a) D(-) Fructose exist sin furanose structure
(b) D (+) Glucose exists in pyranose structure
(c) In sucrose the two monosaccharides are held together by peptide linkage
(d) Maltose is a reducing sugar

22 In cellulose, D-glucose units are joined by 1

(a) α-1, 4 glycosidic linkage
(b) β-1, 6 glycosidic linkage
(c) β-1, 4 glycosidic linkage
(d) peptide linkage
23 The anomeric carbon in D (+) glucose is 1
(a) C-1 carbon
(b) C-2 carbon
(c) C-5 carbon
(d) C-6 carbon
24 1
Glucose Product is
(a) hexanoic acid
(b) gluconic acid
(c) saccharic acid
(d) bromohexane

25 How many C-atoms are there is a pyranose ring? 1

(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
26 Cellulose is a 1
(a) hexapolysaccharide
(b) pentapolysaccharide
 (c) tripolysaccharide
(d) None of these
27 The letter ‗D‘ in carbohydrates signifies 1
(a) dextrorotatory
(b) configuration
(c) diamagnetic nature
(d) mode of synthesis

28 A diabetic person carries a packet of glucose with him always, because 1

(a) glucose increases the blood sugar level slowly
(b) glucose reduces the blood sugar level
(c) glucose increases the blood sugar level almost instantaneously
(d) glucose reduces the blood sugar level slowly

29 Among the naturally occurring carbohydrates, furanose ring is found in the 1

(a) Glucose unit of cane sugar
(b) Glucose unit of cellulose
(c) Fructose unit of cane sugar
(d) Galactose unit of lactose

30 The given structure (I) and (II) represent configuration of the simplest sugar 1
glyceraldehyde. Which of the following statements is not correct for the
structures?

(a) I represents D-form while II represents L-form of glyceraldehyde

(b) The sugars having same configuration as D- glyceraldehyde are
designated as D-sugars
(c) Natural glucose and fructose are D-forms
(d) D is dextrorotatory while L is laevorotatory enatiomer

31 Globular proteins are present in 1

(a) blood
(b) eggs
(c) milk
(d) all of these

32 1

33 Amino acids generally exist in the form of Z witter ions. This means they 1
contain
(a) Basic – NH2 group and acidic – COOH group
(b) The basic – NH3 group and acidic – COO– group
(c) Basic -NH2 and acidic – H+ group
(d) Basic – COO– group and acidic – NH3 group

34 Which one of the amino acids can be synthesised in the body? 1

(a) Alanine
 (b) Lysine
(c) Valine
(d) Histidine
35 Which of the following is not true about amino acids? 1
(a) They are constituents of all proteins
(b) Alanine having one amino and one carboxylic group
(c) Most naturally occurring amino acids have D-configuration
(d) Glycine is the only naturally occuring amino acid which is optically inactive.

36 A compound which contains both ………… and ………… is called amino acid. 1
The amino acids is polypeptide chain are joined by ………/ bonds.
(a) amino, carboxylic group, ester
(b) amino, carboxylic group, peptide
(c) nitrogen, carbon, glycosidic
(d) hydroxy, carboxylic group, peptide
37 Denaturation of protein leads to loss of its biological activity by 1
(a) formation of amino acids
(b) loss of primary structure
(c) loss of both primary and secondary structure
(d) loss of both secondary and tertiary structures

38 Proteins are condensation polymers of 1

(a) α-amino acids
(b) β-amino acids
(c) α-hydroxy acids
(d) β-hydroxy acids
39 Mark the wrong statement about denaturation of proteins 1
(a) The primary structure of the protein does not change
(b) Globular proteins are converted into fibrous proteins
(c) Fibrous proteins are converted into globular proteins
(d) The biological activity of the protein is destroyed

40 Secondary structure of protein refers to 1

(a) sequence of amino acids in polypeptide chain
(b) bonds between alternate polypeptide chains
(c) folding patterns of polypeptide chain
(d) bonding between NH+3 and COO– of two peptides
 ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL GWALIOR

CLASS -XII

ACADEMIC SESSION 2021-22

WORKSHEET (SELF –ASSESSMENT)

Subject: Economics Assignment No. : 7

Allotment Date: 15 October 2021

S. NO. QUESTIONS MARKS

1 Poverty index developed by Nobel Laureate Amartya Sen was named as: 1
(a) poverty gap index
(b) Sen‘s index
(c) squared poverty gap
(d) None of the above
2 Which programme is restricted as ―National Rural livelihood Mission‖? 1
(a) National Food for Work Programme
(b) Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
(c) Rural Employment Generation programme
(d) Prime Minister‘s Rozar Yojana
3 Which of the following is not source of Human Capital Formation? 1
(a) Education
(b) Saving
(c) Health
(d) Information
4 In India, education sector is regulated by: 1
(a) Ministry of education
(b) NCERT
(c) UGC and AICTE
(d) All the above
5 Give the two basis on which the economists identify the poor. 1

6 Gender bias in India is a hindrance to the process of skill formation.(True/False) 1

7 Who was the first one to discuss the concept of a poverty line? 1

8 Give the full form of NCERT. 1

9 The calorie requirement is higher in the rural areas because: 1

(a) they do not enjoy as much as people in the urban areas
(b) food items are expensive
(c) they are engaged in mental work
(d) People are engaged in physical labour
10 Which of the following is an indicator of poverty in India? 1
(a) Income level
(b) Illiteracy level
(c) Employment level
(d) All of these.
11 Assertion (A): Absolute poverty is prevalent in developed economics. 1
Reason (R): Most developed economics are industrialized economy.
a) Both assertion (A)and Reason(R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion(A).
b) Both assertion (a) and reason(R)are true, and Reason(R)is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
12 Assertion (A): The Average per capita daily requirement of 2400 calories in rural 1
areas and 2100 calories in urban areas.
Reason (R): Because rural areas people do more labour in comparison to urban
areas, that‘s why more calories is required in rural areas.
a) Both assertion (A)and Reason(R) ARE true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion(A).
b) Both assertion (a) and reason(R) are true and Reason(R)is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
13 Assertion (A): Absolute poverty is prevalent in developed economics. 1
Reason (R): Most developed economics are industrialized economy.
a) Both assertion (A)and Reason(R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion(A).
b) Both assertion (a) and reason(R) are true, and Reason(R)is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
14 Assertion (A): Migration lowers poverty. 1
Reason (R): People migrate to those areas which offer better opportunities of
employment. Getting employment or getting better employment leads to
improvement in the quality of life. It may help people shift above the poverty line.
a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct 1
explanation of Assertion (A).
b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason(R) are true and Reason(R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason(R) are is true.
15 Assertion (A): Although there is a steady decline in poverty over the last two 1
decades but total number of the poor people have remained constant.
Reason (R): There has been a considerable growth in population.
a) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
c) Assertion is true but reason is false
d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
16 In 2011-12, poverty line was defined worth ________ as consumption per 1
person a month for rural areas and _______ for urban areas.
(a) ₹816 and ₹1,000
(b) ₹1,012 and ₹1,210
(c) ₹550 and ₹860
(d) ₹860 and₹673
17 Who conducts the periodical sample survey for estimating the poverty line in 1
India?
(a) National Survey Organisation
(b) National Sample Survey Organisation
(c) Sample Survey Organisation
 (d) None of the above
18 Which of the following is not an example of physical capital? 1
(a) machinery
(b) raw material
(c) building
(d) education and knowledge in people.
19 .............five-year plan recognised the importance of human capital? 1
(a) seventh
(b) third
(c) eight.
(d) sixth
20 Which one of the following is a reason for poor human capital formation in India? 1
(a)Brain drain
( b) insufficient resources
(c) high growth of population
(d) all of these
21 How much educational cess has been imposed by the government on all union 1
taxes?
(a) 1 percent
(b) 2 percent
(c) 4 percent
(d) 5 percent
22 The objective of the mid-day meal scheme is.......................? 1
(a) to boost universalisation of primary education
(b) to boost nutritional status of children in schools
(c) to increase enrollment, attendance and retention.
(d) to boost universalisation of upper primary level of education
23 Which one of the following is a major sources of human capital formation in the 1
country?
(a) Expenditure on education
(b) Expenditure on infrastructure
(c) expenditure on defences
(d) expenditure on energy
24 Assertion (A): Indian economy is predominantly rural economy. 1
Reason (R): As per 2011 census, the country's rural population is almost 83.25
crore (68.8% of total population)
(a)(A) is True but (R) is False
(b) (A) is False but (R) is True
(c) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct of A
(d) Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
25 Assertion (A): Literacy is a powerful instrument of socio-economic change. 1
Reason (R): Empowerment of women helps to reduce gender disparity. Options :
(a) (A) is True, but (R) is False
(b) (A) is False, but (R) is True
(c) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
26 Assertion (A): India became self-reliant in the agricultural production after 1
introducing green revolution.
Reason(R): shortage of food grains due to drought and lack of irrigation facilities
in the early 1960‘s.
(a) Both assertion(A) and reason(R) are true and reasons (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
27 CASE STUDY-1: 1
Prior to independence, farmers, while selling their produce to traders, suffered
from faulty weighing and manipulation of accounts. Farmers who did not have
the required information on prices prevailing in markets were often forced to sell
at low prices. They also did not have proper storage facilities to keep back their
 produce for selling later at a better price. Measures that were initiated to improve
the marketing aspect.
Question: (Any One)
1.Government improve agriculture marketing system through (Control/Regulate)
2. Agricultural marketing is a process that involves the
(a) Transportation
(b) Packaging
(c)Grading
(d) All of these
3. The first step was regulation of markets to create orderly and transparent
marketing conditions (True/Falls)
28 CASE STUDY-2: 1
Rural Development is the key issue with the government. Without the
development of rural areas India cannot increase its growth to desired level.
Rural development does not mean only to develop its agriculture marketing and
credit but also to develop education, training, and infrastructure in rural areas.
The government has launched many programs especially of provision of credit
and marketing facilities. The farmers often have shortage of funds. Farmers
generally go to non-institutional sources for their short term and longterm loans.
But farmers are generally exploited. To help them government started provided
loan through commercial banks and an apex bank named NABARD was
established in 1982. Government is also making efforts to improve agricultural
marketing by removing the role of intermediaries where farmers can directly sell
their produce to seller without involving any commission agent or middlemen.
(Answer any one)
1.Name the Non-institutional sources of credit
(a) Landlords
(b) Moneylenders
(c)Traders and commission agents
(d) All of above
2.NABARD is established in the year
a) 1982
b) 1992
3. Non-farm activities are promoted by government for: (a)regular income to
farmer
(b) addressing the problem of disguised unemployment (c) reducing pressure on
land
(d) All of the above
29 ASSERTION (A): Rural development is an action plan for complete and 1
comprehensive development of rural area. REASONING (R): In required to
increase the standard of living of Indians as two third of the population of India
lives in rural area.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
30 ASSERTION (A): Rapid expansion of the banking system had a positive effect 1
on rural farm and non-farm output, income and employment.
REASONING (R): The institutional credit arrangement continues to be
inadequate as they have failed to cover the entire rural farmers of the country.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the
correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
31 Rural development means:- 1
(a) Providing education to rural people
(b) Providing health facilities to rural people
 (c) Development of agriculture
(d) Which raises quality of life or standard of living of rural people
32 Rural people require long term loans…… 1
(a) To purchase agriculture machinery
(b)To buy fertilizers and seeds
(c) TO improve the land
(d) All of the above
33 Rural people require short term loans…… 1
(a) To buy factors and cattle
(b) To pay old debits
(c) To meet consumption expenditure
(d) All of the above
34 Rural marketing is related to………. 1
(a) Regulated markets
(b) Storage
(c) Transportation Less use of pesticide
(d) All of the above
35 Three tire system of rural co-operative credit societies is……… 1
(a) Primary agricultural credit societies (PACS)
(b) Central co-operative banks
(c) State co-operative banks
(d) All of these
36 Multi-agency approach……….. 1
(a) co-operatives
(b) Commercial Banks
(c) Regional Rural Banks
(d) All of these
37 Different type of production included in Agriculture………….. 1
(a) Animal husbandry
(b) Production of milk
(c) Goods related to animal produce
(d) All of these
38 The main function of co-operative marketing societies is to improve…. 1
(a) Agricultural marketing
(b) Industrial marketing
(c) Both(A+B)
(d) None of these
39 Institutional sources are…… 1
(a) Money lenders, relatives and land owners.
(b) Rural co-operative societies commercial banks and regional rural banks
(c) Central Banks
(d) Primary agricultural credit societies
40 The farmers in rural area require credit for agricultural development. This credit 1
is known as:--
(a) Rural /Agricultural credit
(b) Urban credit
(c) Both A &B
(d) None of these
 ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL GWALIOR

CLASS -XII

ACADEMIC SESSION 2021-22

WORKSHEET (SELF –ASSESSMENT)

Subject: Accountancy Assignment No. : 7

Allotment Date: 15 October 2021

S.NO QUESTIONS MARK

S
CASE 1
Read the hypothetical text and answer the following questions.
Arun, Varun and Tarun were partners in a firm sharing profits equally. On 1st April, 2020,
their capitals stood at Rs. 2, 00,000, Rs. 1, 50,000 and Rs. 1, 00,000 respectively. As per
the provisions of Partnership Deed:
1) Arun was entitled to a salary of Rs. 2,500 p.m.
2) Partners were entitled to interest on capital @ 10% p.a.
The net profit for the year ended 31st March, 2021, Rs. 1,50,000 was distributed among
the partners without providing for the above items.

1. What is the amount of interest on capital of Varun? 1

a)Rs. 20,000
b)Rs. 15,000
c)Rs. 10,000
d)Rs. 30,000

2. What is the amount of distribute able profit for the partners after providing salary and 1
interest on capitals to the partners?
a)Rs. 50,000 each
b)Rs. 25,000 each
c)Rs. 10,000 each
d)Rs. 15,000 each

3. Arun‘s Capital A/c will be credited with Rs…………….for giving the adjustment to above 1
omissions.
a) Rs. 20,000
b) Rs. 15,000
c) Rs. 25,000
d) Rs. 10,000
4. Capital Account/Accounts of …………………… will be debited to give the effect of above 1
adjustments.
a) Varun
b) Tarun and Arun
c) Arun and Varun
d) Varun and Tarun
CASE 2
Read the hypothetical text and answer the following questions .
Sonu and Monu are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:1. Their capital
Accounts as at 1st April, 2015 wereRs. 10,00,000 andRs. 8,00,000 respectively. The
partners are allowed interest on capital @ 5% p.a. Drawings of the partners during the
year ended 31st March, 2016 wereRs. 1,44,000 andRs. 1,00,000 respectively. Monu is
entitled to get a salary ofRs. 10,000 p.m. Profit for the year before allowing interest on
 capital and salary wasRs. 16,00,000. 10% of the net profit is to be transferred to General
Reserve.
5. Find the amount which is to be transferred to General Reserve Account? 1
a) Rs. 80,000
b) Rs. 1,20,000
c) Rs. 1,60,000
d) Rs. 2,00,000
6. What is the distribute able amount of profit which is to be credited to Partners‘ Capital 1
Accounts?
a) Rs. 16,00,000
b) Rs. 14,40,000
c) Rs. 12,30,000
d) Rs. 10,00,000
7. Find the closing capital of Sonu? 1
a) Rs. 12,70,000
b) Rs. 17,26,000
c) Rs. 16,00,000
d) Rs. 10,00,000
8. What is the share of Monu‘s profit to be credited to his Capital Account? 1
a) Rs. 14,40,000
b) Rs. 12,30,000
c) Rs. 4,10,000
d) Rs. 8,20,000
CASE 3
A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. Their Balance
Sheet
as at 31st March, 2019 stood as follows:

They decided to share profits equally w.e.f. 1st April, 2019. They also agreed that:
(i) Value of Land and Building be decreased by 5%.
(ii) Value of Machinery be increased by 5%.
(iii) A Provision for Doubtful Debts be created @ 5% on Sundry DebtoRs.
(iv) A Motor Cycle valued atRs. 20,000 was unrecorded and is now to be recorded in the
books.
(v) Out of Sundry Creditors,Rs. 10,000 is not payable.
(vi) Goodwill is to be valued at 2 years' purchase of last 3 years profits. Profits being for
2018-19 −Rs. 50,000 (Loss); 2017-18 −Rs. 2,50,000 and 2016-17 −Rs. 2,50,000.
(vii) C was to carry out the work for reconstituting the firm at a remuneration (including
expenses) ofRs. 5,000. Expenses came toRs. 3,000.
Answer the following questions:
9. Remuneration expenses will be: 1
 (a) Rs. 3000 Debited to Revaluation A/c
(b) Rs. 5000 Debited to Revaluation A/c
(c) Rs.3000 Shown on Liability side of the Balance Sheet
(d) Rs.3000 Shown on Asset side of the Balance Sheet
10. What journal entry will be passed for Investment Fluctuation Reserve? 1
(a) Dr. Investment Fluctuation Reserve A/cRs. 30,000, Cr. InvestmentRs. 10,000; Cr. A‘s
Capital A/cRs. 10,000; Cr. B‘s Capital A/cRs. 6,000; Cr. C‘s Capital A/cRs. 4,000
(b) Dr. Investment Fluctuation Reserve A/cRs. 30,000, Cr. A‘s Capital A/cRs. 10,000; Cr.
B‘sCapital A/cRs. 10,000; Cr. C‘s Capital A/cRs. 10,000
(c) Dr. A‘s Capital A/cRs. 10,000; Dr. B‘s Capital A/cRs. 10,000; Dr. InvestmentRs.
10,000; Cr. Workmen‘s Compensation Reserve A/cRs. 30,000
(d) Dr. RevaluationRs. 10,000; Cr. InvestmentRs. 10,000
11. What journal entry is passed for goodwill? 1
(a) B‘s Capital A/c Dr.10,000; C ‘s Capital A/c Dr.40,000; A‘s Capital A/c Cr. 50,000
(b) Dr. Goodwill A/cRs. 3,00,000; Cr. A‘s Capital A/cRs. 1,50,000; Cr. B‘s Capital A/cRs.
90,000; Cr. C‘s Capital A/cRs. 60,000
(c) A‘s Capital A/c Cr.50,000; B‘s Capital A/c Cr.10,000; C ‘s Capital A/c Dr.60,000;
(d) Dr. Goodwill A/cRs. 50,000; Cr. Revaluation A/cRs. 50,000
12. Profit (gain) on Revaluation of Assets and Reassessment of Liabilities is: 1
(a) Rs. 17,000

(b) Rs. 22,000

(c) Rs. 57,000

(d) Rs. 2,000

CASE 4
Read the following hypothetical text and answer the given questions on the basis of the
same:
Jacob and Joseph are friends and they are doing manufacturing toys car. Their profit
sharing ratio was 3:2. They got a new project of making electronic toys and they needed
additional fund for doing that project. So, they decided to admit their common friend,
James for raising the additional fund and he broughtRs.5, 00,000 as capital for 2/7th
share.
The goodwill of the firm is valued at Rs.14, 00,000.
At the time of James admission their balance sheet as follows:

At the time of revaluation of assets and reassessment of liabilities the following

things was found:
a) Provision for bad and doubtful debts should be increased to Rs.3,000
Unexpired insurance of Rs.1, 500 should be brought into record
13. What will be the amount of premium or goodwill is credited to Joseph‘s A/c 1
a)4,00,000
b) 2,40,000
c)1,60,000
d)7,00,000
14. What will be the correct journal entry for unexpired insurance brought into record? 1
a)
Unexpired Insurance A/c Dr 1500
To Revaluation A/c 1500
 b)
Revaluation A/c Dr 1500
To Unexpired Insurance A/c 1500
c)
Revaluation A/c Dr 1500
To Insurance 1500
d)
Insurance A/c Dr 1500
To Revaluation A/c 1500

15. What is the treatment of Provision for doubtful debts at the time of James 1
admission?
a)Rs.3000 debited to Revaluation A/c
b)Rs.2000 debited to Revaluation A/c
c)Rs.1000 debited to Revaluation A/c
d)Rs.4000 debited to Revaluation A/c
16. What will be the new ratio between Jacob, Joseph and James 1
a) 3:2:2

b) 1:1:1

c) 5:3:2

d) 15:10:5

CASE 5
Read the following text. Based on the information given ,you are required to answer
Q.No.1 to Q No.4:
Janta Ltd. had an authorized capital of 2,00,000 equity shares ofRs. 10 each. The
company offered to the public for subscription 1,00,000 shares. Applications were
received for 97,000 shares. The amount was payable as follows on application was
Rs. 2 per share,Rs. 4 was payable each on allotment and first and final call. Shankar, a
shareholder holding 600 shares failed to pay the allotment money. His shares were
forfeited.
The company did not make the first and final call.

17. Name the type of share capital which is shown in the Memorandum of Association of 1
the company-
(A) Issued capital
(B) Subscribed Capital
(C) Authorised Capital
(D) Paid up capital
18. The amount forfeited on forfeiture of Shankar‘s shares is --- 1
(A)Rs.6,000
(B)Rs.1,200
(C)Rs.3,600
(D)Rs.2,400
19. Janta Ltd is--- 1
(A)Private Company
(B)Public Company
(C)Government Company
(D)Public Corporation
20. When shares are forfeited, the Share Capital Account is debited with ___________ and 1
the Share Forfeiture Account is credited with ____________.
(A) Paid up capital of shares forfeited; Called up capital of shares forfeited
(B) Called up capital of shares forfeited; Calls in arrear of shares forfeited
(C) Called up capital of shares forfeited; Amount received on shares forfeited
(D) Calls in arrears of shares forfeited; Amount received on shares forfeited
 CASE 6
Read the following text. Based on the information given , you are required to
answer Q.No.5 to Q No.8:
X Ltd. invited applications for issuing 80,000 equity shares ofRs. 10 each at a premium of
20%. The amount was payable as follows:
On application Rs. 6 (including premium) per share.
On allotment Rs. 3 per share and
The balance on first and final call.
Applications for 90,000 shares were received. Applications for 5,000 shares were rejected
and pro-rata allotment was made to the remaining applicants. Over payments received on
application was adjusted towards sums due on allotment. All Calls were made and were
duly received except the allotment and first and final call on 1,600 shares allotted to Vijay.
These shares were forfeited and the forfeited shares were re-issued forRs. 18,400 fully
paid up.
21. Name the kind of subscription in the above case. 1
(A)Minimum subscription
(B)Under subscription
(C)Over subscription
(D)Full subscription
22. State the total over payments received on application adjusted towards sums due on 1
allotment-
(A)Rs.60,000
(B)Rs.30,000
(C)Rs.15,000
(D)Rs.50,000
23. Number of shares applied by Vijay is- 1
(A) 2000
(B) 1600
(C) 1800
(D) 1700
24. How much is the share forfeited amount transferred to Capital Reserve? 1
(A)Rs.2,400
(B)Rs.7,000
(C)Rs.6,400
(D)Rs.18,400
CASE 7
Read the following Arun is appointed as Accountant in a leading company manufacturing
consumer products. For all these years he served as an accountant in a partnership firm.
He come across a company‘s Balance sheet and he find to it difficult to understand which
item will come in the balance sheet under major head and sub head. He took the format of
a balance sheet as per schedule III of the companies Act 2013. He come across
some items. You are required to inform him the major heads and sub heads to enter the
items in the company‘s balance sheet. Answer the following Questions.
25. The Long term borrowings of the company will appear under the major head - 1
----------------------
a) Non -current liabilities
b) current liabilities
c) shareholders‘ funds
d)other non-current liabilities
26. The debentures will appear under sub head ------------------------------- 1
a) long term borrowings
b) long term provisions
c) other long term liabilities
d) deferred tax liabilities
27. Goodwill will appear under the sub head___________________ 1
a) Intangible assets
b) Tangible assets
c) Fixed assets
d) Non current assets
28. Current investments will come under the major head_______________ 1
a)current assets
 b) fixed assets
c) tangible assets
d) intangible assets
CASE 8
Pharma Ltd is engaged in the manufacturing of low cost generic medicines. Its
management and employees are hardworking and motivated. The net profit of the
company increased during the year ended 31st March 2020. Encouraged by its
performance, the company decided to pay bonus to all employees at a higher rate.
Following is the Statement of Profit & Loss for the year ended 31st March 2020
Statement of Profit & Loss for the year ended 31st March 2020

Answer the following questions

29. Under which head the Profit on sale of asset will be shown in the Statement 1
of Profit & Loss as per Companies Act 2013?
a) Revenue from Operation
b) Other income
c) Finance cost
d) Other expenses
30. Employee Benefit expenses does not include which of the following/ 1
a) Wages
b) Conveyance expenses
c) Salaries
d) Bonus
31. Finance cost includes which of the following? 1
a) Discount on issue of debentures & premium payable on redemption of
debentures
b) Interest received on fixed deposits
c) Bank charges
d) Repayment of loan
32. Under which schedule of Companies Act 2013, the Statement of Profit & Loss 1
is prepared?
a) Schedule III Part I Of Companies Act 2013
b) Schedule VI of Companies Act 2013
c) Schedule III Part II of Companies Act 2013
d) Section 52 of Companies Act 2013.
CASE 9
Read the following and answer the questions give below
 Answer the following questions :
33. Operating Ratio for the year 31st March 2021 is 1
i) 55%
ii)52%
iii) 55.05%
iv) 54.85
34. Net profit ratio for the year 31st March 2020 is 1
i) 28.25%
ii) 26.25%
iii) 26%
iv) 26.50%
35. State True or False. A higher Operating Profit Ratio is better for the firm. 1
i) True
ii) False
CASE 10
A firm had a Current Assets ofRs. 4,00,000. It then paid a current liability ofRs.
80,000. After this payment the current ratio was 2 :1.
Answer the following (Q. 36 to 39)
36. How much is Current liabilities after payment ofRs. 80,000? 1
i) Rs. 3,20,000
ii) Rs. 1,60,000
iii) Rs. 80,000
iv) Rs. 2,00,000
37. Determine working capital before and after payment ofRs. 80,000? 1
i) Rs. 3,20,000 and Rs. 1,60,000
ii) Rs. 3,20,000 and Rs. 3, 20,000
iii)Rs. 1,60,000 and Rs. 1,60,000
iv)Rs. 2,40,000 and Rs. 1,60,000
38. Liquid asset does not include the following 1
i) Trades receivables
ii) Short term loans and advances
iii) Inventory and pre-paid expenses
iv) Current investments
39. What is the ideal current ratio and quick ratio? 1
i) 3 : 1 and 2 : 1
ii) 2 : 1 and 1 : 1
iii) 1 : 1 and 2 : 1
iv) 2 : 1 and 2 : 1
40. Proprietory Ratio indicates the relationship between proprietor‘s funds and…. 1
(a) Reserve
(b) Share Capital
(c) Total Assets
(d) Debentures
 ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL GWALIOR

CLASS -XII

ACADEMIC SESSION 2021-22

WORKSHEET (SELF –ASSESSMENT)

Subject: Business Studies Assignment No. : 7

Allotment Date: 15 October 2021

S. No Question Marks
.
1. To meet the objectives of the firm, the management of Angora Ltd. offers 1
employment to physically challenged persons. Identify the objective it is trying to
achieve.
(a) Organisational objective
(b) Personal objective
(c) Social objective
(d) None of these
Or
Under which concept the companies push for the betterment of the quality of
their products in their efforts for marketing?
(a) Production concept
(b) Product concept
(c) Marketing concept
(d) Selling concept
2. Planning results in decreasing _____________ . 1.
(a) Coordination
(b) Proper use of resource
(c) Future uncertainties
(d) Control
3. With the introduction of Photostat Machines in the market, the carbon paper 1
industry was adversely affected. Which component of environment was
responsible for it?
(a) Economic
(b) Political
(c) Technological
(d) All the above
Or
__________ removes doubts immediately.
(a) Advertisement
(b) Personal Selling
(c) Sales Promotion
(d) Publicity

4. In which situation the divisional structure happens to be appropriate? 1

(a) Where the number of major products is more than one
(b) Where the size of the organisation is quite large
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Where primarily only one product is sold
5. Which of the following statements is false about Taylor and Fayol? 1
(a) Fayol was a mining engineer, whereas Taylor was a mechanical engineer.
(b) Fayol‘s principles are applicable in specialised situations, whereas Taylor‘s
principles have universal application.
(c) Fayol‘s principles were formed through personal experience, whereas
Taylor‘s principles were formed through experimentation.
(d) Fayol‘s principles are applicable at the top level of management, whereas
Taylor‘s principles are applicable at the shop floor.
6. Which of the following is the function of marketing? 1
(a) Promotion
(b) Physical Distribution
(c) Transportation
(d) All the above
Or
Span of management refers to:
(a) Number of managers
(b) Length of term for which a manager is appointed
(c) Number of subordinates under a superior
(d) Number of members in top management

7. Mr Anmol Batra is working in a well reputed company of USA. In the company 1

he is responsible for all the activities of the business and for its impact on
society. Identify the management level at which he is working.
(a) Top Management
(b) Middle Management
(c) Operational Management
(d) None of these
Or
Planning is helpful in increasing _____________ .
(a) Cost
(b) Loss
(c) Efficiency
(d) None of these
8. It is the nature of the organising function of management to establish 1
_____________ among all the activities/departments/positions of the enterprise.
(a) Revolt
(b) Coordination
(c) Stability
(d) Dynamism

9. __________ is the central point in the marketing philosophy. 1

(a) Customer‘s satisfaction
(b) Customer‘s welfare
(c) Quality of the Product
(d) Quantity of Product
Or
Under which philosophy of marketing, efforts are made to bring down the cost of
production to the minimum?
(a) Production concept
(b) Product concept
(c) Marketing concept
(d) Selling concept
10. ―Coordination is not a separate function of management but it happens to be the 1
final truth of all functions.‖ In what context this observation has been made?
(a) Coordination is the essence of management
(b) Coordination is not established automatically
 (c) Coordination is a continuously moving process
(d) None of these

11. Business environment is the sum total of all things external to business firms 1
and, as such, is aggregate in nature.
Which feature of business environment is highlighted by this statement.
(a) Specific and general forces
(b) Dynamic nature
(c) Inter-relatedness
(d) Totality of external forces
Or
The principles of management are those basic truths which bring out the
relationship of managerial activities between _____________
(a) Cause and effect
(b) Profit and loss
(c) Income and expenditure
(d) All the above
12. Which of the following is a factor of marketing mix? 1
(a) Product
(b) Price
(c) Promotion
(d) All the above
Or
Authority-responsibility relationship binds individuals as superiors and
subordinates and give rise to different _____________ in an organisation.
(a) functions
(b) levels
(c) objectives
(d) policies
13. Plans are drawn up by the _____________ . 1
(a) Lower Level Management
(b) Middle Level Management
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Top Level Management
Or
With the onset of the thought of producing a thing the process of __________
starts.
(a) Buying
(b) Selling
(c) Marketing
(d) Producing

14. Match the points of ‗Importance of Business Environment‘ in Column-I with their 1
respective statements in Column-II:

(a) (ii), (i), (iii)

(b) (iii), (i), (ii)
(c) (iii), (ii), (i)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii)
15. Which of the following is not a Principle of Management given by Taylor? 1
(a) Science, not rule of the thumb
 (b) Functional foreman ship
(c) Maximum not restricted output
(d) Harmony, not discord
Or
increases employees‘ participation in the management which gives them an
identity in the organisation.
(a) Decentralisation
(b) Centralisation
(c) Both the above
(d) Delegation

16. Malwa company‘s target production is 5000 units in a year. To achieve this 1
target the manager has to operate on double shifts due to power failure most of
the time. The manager is able to produce 5000 units but at a higher production
cost.
In the above case tell the status of the manager.
(a) Manager was effective
(b) Manager was efficient
(c) Manager was effective but not efficient
(d) Manager was efficient but not effective
Or
The employees of Alfa Ltd. deserve fair and just remuneration. But what is just
and fair is determined by multiple factors. They include contribution of the
employee, paying capacity of the employer and also prevailing wage rate for the
occupation under consideration.
Identify the ‗feature of principles of management‘ to which the above case is
related.
(a) Contingent
(b) General guidelines
(c) Formed by practice and experimentation
(d) Flexible
17. Two friends—Ramesh Singh and Krishan Gopal—are working as managers in 1
different companies. One Sunday, both of them together set off on travelling.
Both of them began talking about the activities going on in their respective
companies. Mr Ramesh said that during those days he was busy with the job of
planning function of management. Also he told that he was planning in such a
way that the other managerial functions should be completed under the
framework of plans prepared by him.
Identify the feature of planning described in the above discussion.
(a) Planning focuses on achieving objectives.
(b) Planning is a primary function of management.
(c) Planning is pervasive.
(d) Planning is continuous
Or
Suhasini plans her winter collection in the month of June itself. She has to then
ensure that there is adequate workforce and continuously monitor whether
production is proceeding according to plans. Her marketing department also has
to be briefed in time to prepare their
promotional and advertising campaigns.
Identify the characteristic of coordination to which the above case is related.
(a) Coordination is an all pervasive function
(b) Coordination is a deliberate function
(c) Coordination is a continuous process
(d) Coordination ensures unity of action

18. Mr Bhushan is working as a marketing manager in Swastic Colour TV Ltd. which 1

 has 20 per cent of the current market share in the country, aims at enhancing
his market share to 30 per cent, in the next three years. He will have to develop
a complete marketing plan covering
various important aspects including the plan for increasing the level of
production, promotion of the products, etc. and specify the action programmes
to achieve these objectives.
Identify the function of marketing highlighted in the above case:
(a) Marketing Planning
(b) Packaging and Labelling
(c) Product Designing and Development
(d) Standardisation and Grading
Or
Jyoti Ltd. decided to give more stress on the following: to use environmental
friendly methods of production, to provide employment opportunities to the
disadvantaged section of the society and to make available basic amenities like
schools and creches to the employees.
Identify the objective of management discussed above.
(a) Organisational objective
(b) Social objective
(c) Personal objective
(d) None of the above
19. Beauty Products Ltd‘ is a natural and ethical beauty brand famous for offering 1
organic beauty products for men and women. The company uses plant based
materials for its products and is the No. 1 beauty brand in the country. It not only
satisfies its customers but also believes in overall protection of the planet.
Identify the marketing management philosophy being followed by ‗Beauty
Products Ltd.‘
(a) Product concept
(b) Production concept
(c) Societal Marketing concept
(d) Selling concept
Or
Alliance Ltd. is engaged in manufacturing plastic buckets. The objective of the
company is to manufacture 100 buckets a day. To achieve this, the efforts of all
departments are coordinated
and interlinked and authority responsibility relationship is established among
various job
positions. There is clarity on who is to report to whom.
Name the function of management discussed above.
(a) Organising
(b) Planning
(c) Staffing
(d) Directing
20. Generally, it is thought that planning is related to the planning cycle. It means
that a plan is framed, it is implemented and it is followed by another plan and so 1
on. The above statement is related to a feature of planning, identify it.
(a) Planning is continuous.
(b) Planning is futuristic.
(c) Planning involves decision making.
(d) Planning is pervasive.
Or
Mr Ankit is working as a manager in ‗Nandini Designer Candles Ltd.‘ For Diwali
festival his company wants to launch a unique variety of candles. Arrange the
following activities of Mr Ankit regarding this in the correct sequence:
(i) He recruits more skilled artistic workers.
(ii) He determines what activities and resources are required.
 (iii) He plans a special festive collection for Diwali.
(iv) He ensures that deadlines regarding delivery of goods are met.
Choose the correct option:

(a) (i); (ii); (iv); (iii)

(b) (iii); (ii); (i); (iv)
(c) (iii); (ii); (iv); (i)
(d) (ii); (iii); (i); (iv)
21. Maruti Vega Ltd.‘ entered into the market with coloured television and have now 1
introduced products like audio systems, air-conditioners washing machines, etc.
The company is not only offering the products but also handling complaints and
offering after-sales services.
Identify the element of marketing-mix discussed here.
(a) Place mix
(b) Product mix
(c) Promotion mix
(d) Price mix
Or
Mr Reeshabh Bhandari is the chief manager in ‗Bhandari Pustak Parkashans‘.
He is fond of continuing to present innovative ideas while planning for his
business. His ideas are usually very significant. It has been observed several
times that these very ideas take the form of
concrete plans. This is the very reason that Mr Bhandari‘s contribution to the
growth and prosperity of the company continues to be quite great.
Identify the ‗importance of planning‘ described above.
(a) Planning provides direction.
(b) Planning reduces the risk of uncertainty.
(c) Planning reduces overlapping and wasteful activities.
(d) Planning promotes innovative ideas.
22. ‗Balaji Store‘, which is located in the centre of the city is a big shop of the 1
commodities of daily use. The owner of this shop Mr Naresh Aggarwal, has very
good relations with his customers,
suppliers and competitors. He knows it that if his customers are dissatisfied with
him, its negative impact will be there only on him and not on the other firms.
Therefore, he takes full care of their requirements. Similarly, Mr Aggarwal also
knows that if there is any change in the customs as well as in the technology, its
impact will be there not only on him but also on all the firms of his industry. No
firm has control over such changes, even then Mr Aggarwal
remains on guards against them.
The above event is dependent on one of the ‗features of business environment‘.
Recognise this feature.
(a) Dynamic Nature
(b) Inter-relatedness
(c) Totality of External Forces
(d) Specific and General Forces

23. A management expert was invited by ‗Raghav Ltd.‘. He gave a lecture in the 1
meeting of employees on the importance of organising function of management.
He said that during this function the establishment of working relationships
clarifies lines of communication
and specifies who is to report whom. This removes ambiguity in transfer of
information and instructions. It helps in creating a hierarchical order thereby
enabling the fixation of responsibility and specification of the extent of authority
to be exercised by an individual.
Identify the point of importance of organising highlighted in the above case.
(a) Benefit of specialisation
 (b) Optimum utilisation of resources
(c) Clarity in working relationships
(d) Development of personnel

24. Miss Komal Gupta is employed at the middle level management in ‗Rakshak 1
Medicines Ltd.‘ In order to achieve the objectives of the company, with several
attempts and the opinion of specialists, a plan was prepared. When the plan
was actually implemented, Miss Gupta saw that the actual work did not match
with the plan. This matter made her very much worried, lest the whole labour in
preparing the plan should not go waste. Therefore, immediately she reported
this matter to the officer concerned.
Identify in the above event which step of the ‗planning process‘ is Miss Gupta
acting upon?
(a) Evaluating alternative courses
(b) Selecting an alternative
(c) Implementing the plan
(d) Follow-up action
Or
Fabmart is a private limited company with several branches all over the country.
It needs a team of designers and crafts people. Similarly, another company
Infosys Technologies which develops software needs systems analysts and
programmers.
Identify that which function of management is needed to satisfy the need of the
above companies.
(a) Planning
(b) Organising
(c) Staffing
(d) Controlling
25. Good Living Ltd. manufactures mosquito repellent tablets. These tablets are 1
packed in strips of 12 tablets each. Each of these strips are packed in a
cardboard box. 48 such boxes are then placed in a big corrugated box and
delivered to various retailers for sale.
State the purpose of packaging the tablets in a corrugated box.
(a) Storage
(b) Identification
(c) Transportation
(d) All the above
26. Once there was a meeting of top level management of Anvi and Aaru Ltd. In the 1
meeting it was decided that the management should not close its ears to any
constructive suggestions made
by the employees. They should be rewarded for their suggestions which results
in substantial reduction in costs. They should be part of management and if any
important decisions are taken, workers should be taken into confidence.
Identify the principle of scientific management to which the above case is
related.
(a) Cooperation, not individualism
(b) Science not rule of thumb
(c) Harmony, not discord
(d) Development of each and every person to his or her greatest efficiency and
prosperity

27. For the following two statements choose the correct option: 1
Statement I: The middle level managers are responsible for the welfare and
survival of the organisation.
Statement II: Operational management plays a very important role in the
organisation since they interact with the actual workforce.
 Choose the correct option from the options given below:
(a) Statement I is correct and II is wrong
(b) Statement II is correct and I is wrong
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are incorrect
28. Some friends joined together and set up a multi-product company. Their 1
company makes four different products. Three products of the company have
been successfully launched in market. But the company has not succeeded to
launch the fourth product in market.
What sort of organisational structure, in your view, might have been adopted by
the company?
(a) Divisional Organisation Structure
(b) Functional Organisation Structure
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Or
The marketing manager of Green Gold Pvt. Ltd. Mr Roy while taking decision
consider at the top-what product will be produced, with what features and at
what price shall it be sold, or where shall it be made available for sale will
depend on what do the customers want. If the
customers want features like double door in a refrigerator or a separate
provision for water cooler in it, the organisation would produce a refrigerator with
these features, would price it
at a level which the customers are willing to pay and so on.
Identify the marketing philosophy followed by Mr Roy.
(a) The Marketing Concept
(b) The Selling Concept
(c) The Product Concept
(d) The Production Concept
29. Rakhi Dua is employed at the middle level management of ‗Punjab Food 1
Suppliers‘. Working in her department she noticed that they are asked to
implement the plans prepared by the top management without making any
change. Many a time, even though wishing to do so, she cannot make any
change in them. As a result of it, the initiative and creativity of the managers at
the middle level management, gets killed. Not only this, several times, even
opportunities of advantage slip out of hand. Rakhi is very unhappy with this
state of affairs of the company, and she is thinking of shifting to some other
company at the earliest.
Identify the ‗limitation of planning‘ in the above event.
(a) Planning is a time consuming process.
(b) Planning may not work in a dynamic environment.
(c) Planning reduces creativity.
(d) Planning involves huge costs
30. After obtaining the Post Graduate degree in the subject of ‗Business 1
Environment‘, Mr Saksham Miglani was appointed as the Manager in a
company. He noticed that the market changes taking place very fast were
having a negative impact on the company. Taking advantage of
his academic ability, he made a thorough study of the business environment.
Based on his study, he prepared a formula to cope with the rapid changes
taking place. Within no time, the negative impact on the company of the
changes taking place disappeared. Now, the company is running successfully.
Identify the point of importance of the business environment in the above event.
(a) It helps the firm in identifying the threats and early warning signals.
(b) It enables the firm in identifying opportunities and getting the first mover
advantage.
(c) It helps in tapping useful resources.
 (d) It helps in coping with rapid changes.
Or
Assertion (A): Coordination is not a one time function but a continuous process.
Reason (R): Coordination begins at the directing stage and continues till
controlling.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Read the text given below and answer the questions (31-36) based on it.
The Marketing Manager, Mr Kasim Ahmed of ‗Singh and Singh Pvt. Ltd‘ was not
satisfied with the Marketing philosophy implemented in his company. He
examined several marketing philosophies, one after the other. First of all, he
prepared a large-scale production plan. He believed that several economies
would be obtained from the large-scale production. It would reduce the cost per
unit and by fixing
a balanced price he would be able to attract customers to his side. But such a
thing did not happen.
Afterwards, he changed his thinking. His new thinking was that he would be able
to attract customers when the emphasis of the company shifted from quantity of
production to quality of products. But again, it did not serve the purpose.
Afterwards, Mr Ahmed again changed his thinking. Now the basis of his thinking
was that ‗Goods are not bought but they have to be sold‘. In order to give a
practical shape to this thinking took the help of aggressive selling techniques,
but once again it did not serve the purpose.
Finally, he focused his attention on ‗Consumer satisfaction and social welfare‘.
This Marketing Philosophy gave him full success.

31. Identify the Marketing Philosophy under which the emphasis is laid on large- 1
scale production:
(a) Production philosophy
(b) Product philosophy
(c) Selling philosophy
(d) Social marketing philosophy
32. Identify the Marketing Philosophy out of the following which contains the 1
essence of Quality Production:
(a) Production philosophy
(b) Product philosophy
(c) Selling philosophy
(d) Societal marketing philosophy
33. Identify the Marketing Philosophy in which the use of Aggressive Selling 1
Techniques are used:
(a) Production philosophy
(b) Product philosophy
(c) Selling philosophy
(d) Societal marketing philosophy
34. Last of all, the Marketing Manager focused his attention on ‗Consumer 1
satisfaction and social welfare‘ and he succeeded. Identify the Marketing
Philosophy used here:
(a) Marketing philosophy
(b) Selling philosophy
(c) Societal Marketing philosophy
(d) None of the above
35. Identify the Marketing Philosophy not tested by Mr Ahmed: 1
(a) Production philosophy
(b) Marketing philosophy
 (c) Selling philosophy
(d) None of the above
36. Statement I: Production philosophy focused on quality of products. 1
Statement II: Marketing philosophy focused on consumer satisfaction.
Both the above statements are:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Statement (I) is true and statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false and statement (II) is true
37. A company wants to differentiate between its efficient and inefficient workers. 1
For the same, it is determined that standard output per worker per day is 8 units
and those who made standard
or more than standard will get Rs.50 per unit and those below will get Rs.40 per
unit. Now an efficient worker making 9 units will get 9 × 50 = Rs.450 per day
whereas a worker who makes
7 units will get 7 × 40 = Rs.280 per day.
Identify the technique of scientific management highlighted in the above case.
(a) Differential piece wage system
(b) Method study
(c) Time study
(d) Fatigue study
38. Miss Aarika Goyal is working as the C.E.O. in a company. She lays a special 1
emphasis on the fact that the company continues to always have sweet
relations with its customers. Besides, to have
a close eye on the business environment she considers as the secret of any
business. Recently, she noticed that the government was preparing a policy to
invite the foreign companies. The
government planned to give them several concessions. Miss Goyal saw through
the government intention and started preparing herself for it.
Identify the point of ‗importance of business environment‘ from the incident
stated above?
(a) It helps the firm in identifying the threats and early warning signals.
(b) It enables the firm in identifying opportunities and getting the first mover
advantage.
(c) It helps in tapping useful resources.
(d) It helps in coping with rapid changes.
39. Radha Rani is the C.E.O. of ‗Radhika Sales Pvt. Ltd.‘ Besides other managerial 1
activities, she is an expert in planning. While planning for her company, she
noticed that at first several options are gathered, then their evaluation is done
and finally the most suitable option is
selected. Once he was confronted with such a problem as had only one option
available for its solution. To select this very option was her compulsion. Now, for
the first time he realised that the necessity of planning is there only when
several options are available.
Identify the feature of planning in the event stated above.
(a) Planning is continuous.
(b) Planning is futuristic.
(c) Planning involves decision making.
(d) Planning is pervasive.
Or
The management of Bharat Udyog Pvt. Ltd. and labour union have entered into
an agreement whereby workers have agreed to put in extra hours without any
additional payment to revive the company out of loss. In return the management
has promised to increase wages of the workers when this mission is
accomplished.
Identify the principle of management highlighted in this case.
 (a) Discipline
(b) Remuneration of employees
(c) Scalar chain
(d) Authority and responsibility
40. In the recent few years, the ‗Online business‘ has become very much in vogue. 1
Now, sitting at home, we can get information about the sellers of any product
and other related information through the medium of internet. Through the
internet only the process of ordering goods and making payment is completed.
The desired good reach home within the minimum possible time. This new
business system has very deeply affected the current business system. The
people doing business according to the traditional system are very much
worried, and they have started seeing their future as full of darkness.
Which particular dimension of the business environment is indicated in the event
referred to above?
(a) Economic Environment
(b) Social Environment
(c) Technological Environment
(d) Political Environment
Or
Mr Ram is the C.E.O. in ‗Ram Lakhan General Pvt. Ltd.‘ He is the head of the
team making plans for the company also. He gave a number of suggestions to
the team out of which the two main suggestions were: First, Mr Ram said that
they had to face a lot of problem in getting the main raw material used in the
company, but in the next year it was possible that they could get it easily.
Secondly, in the second coming year the rate of bank interest was most likely to
increase, which would affect the company‘s costs. He laid emphasis on this
matter that both of his remarks should be kept in view while preparing the plans.
Clarify to which stage of the planning process the above event is related.
(a) Setting objectives
(b) Developing premises
(c) Identifying alternative courses of action
(d) Evaluating alternative courses
 ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL GWALIOR

CLASS -XII

ACADEMIC SESSION 2021-22

WORKSHEET (SELF –ASSESSMENT)

Subject: History Assignment No. : 7

Allotment Date: 15 October 2021

S.NO QUESTIONS MARKS

1. Which one of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the subsistence 1
strategies of Harappa?
(1) Archaeologists have reconstructed dietary practices from finds of charred
grains and seeds.
(2) Archaeo-botanists have studied grains found at Harappa like millets, barley,
etc.
(3) Animals were domesticated according to archeo-botanists.
a) (1) and (2) only
b) (2) and (3) only
c) (1), (2) and (3)
d) (2) only
2. Which of the following was a part of Harappan people‘s diet? 1
a) Millets
b) Animal Products
c) Mango seeds
d) Both (A) and (B)
3. Which one of the following was used most likely for harvesting during Harappan 1
Civilization?
a) Stone blades
b) Tractors
c) Cattle
d) Agriculture was not practiced during the Harappan civilization
4. The Harappan site was badly destroyed by _________ 1
a) Natural Calamities
b) Brick Robbers
c) Engineers
d) Animals
5. Who was Alexander Cunningham? 1
a) Doctor
b) Engineer
c) Player
d) First Director General of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)
6. Who was called as the Father of Indian Archeology? 1
a) Alexander Cunningham
b) Alexander
c) J. A. Smith
d) Colin Mackenzie
7. Compared to Harappa __________ was far better preserved. 1
a) Mohenjadero
b) Lothal
c) Kalibangan
d) Ropar
8. Which one of the following is the correct pair: 1
 A Kalibangan- (i) Rajasthan
B Banawali- (ii) Gujarat
C Cholistan- (iii) Goa
D Lothal- (iv) kerala
9. Who among the following deciphered Brahmi and Kharoshti scripts? 1
1 James john
2 James princep
3 Nicholas
4 Edison
10. Which century is known as transitioning era of early Indian century? 1
6th century
7th century
8th century
10th century
11. Which one them is a mahajanapada that emerged in the 6oo BCE? 1
1 Vajji
2 Magadha
3 Asmika
4 All of the above
12. What was Magadha‘s capital in 4th century? 1
1 Tanjavur
2 Pataliputra
3 Rajgriha
4 Kusinagara
13. Who among the following was the founder of the Mauryan dynasty?2 1
1 Ashoka
2ChandraguptaMmaurya
3 Vikramaditya
4 Ajatshattu
14. According to the sources of Ashoka, which of the following one is spread by 1
Ashoka
1 Dhamma
2 Knowledge
3 Scholars
4 Education
15. Kalinga battle fought in 261 BCE and it was won by 1
1 Kautilya
2 Chandragupta maurya
3 Bimbisara
4 Ashoka
16. What title was used by most of the kushana rulers? 1
1 Devputra
2 Devtulya
3 Devraj
4 Devnaam priya
17. Prabhavati gupta was the daughter of ______________. 1
1 Chandragupta Maurya
2 Chandragupta II
3 Harshavardhana
4 Ashoka

18. Which metal coins came into use in the sixth century as an experiment? 1
1 Silver and copper
2 Copper and gold
3 Gold and silver
4 None of the above
19. Who issued gold coins in the first century for the first time? 1
1 Mauryan rulers
2 Kushana rulers
3 Chola rulers
4 Gupta rulers
20. What was the title held by Emperor Ashoka? 1
1 Devanampriya
2 Kshatrapati
3 Chakravarthi
4 None of them
21. In which type of marriage does a woman have several husbands? 1
(a) Endogamy
(b) Exogamy
(c) Polygyny
(d) Polyandry
22. The Manusmriti was compiled between------------- 1
(a) c. 200 BCE and 200 CE
(b) c. 400 BCE and 400 CE
(c) c. 100 BCE and 200 CE
(d) c.600 BCE and 800 CE
23. Shakas who came from Central Asia were regarded by the Brahmanas as 1
(a) Dasas
(b) Untouchables
(c) Mlechchhas
(d) Aryans
24. Which of the following statements is correct about the classification of people in 1
terms of ‗gotra‘ under Brahmanical practice around 1000 BCE onwards?
(a) After marriage women were expected to give up their father‘s gotra.
(b) They were supposed to adopt the gotra of their husband.
(c) Another important rule was that members of the same gotra could not marry
(d) All of these
25. According to Shastras______ only could rule the country. 1
(a) Brahmins
(b) Kshatriyas
(e) Vaishyas
(d) Shudras
26. Assertion (A) The version of the Mahabharata we have been considering is in 1
Sanskrit .
Reason(R) the Sanskrit used in the Mahabharata is far simpler than that of the
Vedas.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(d) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct
27. Assertion (A): Women were expected to give up their father‘s gotra and take up 1
their husband‘s gotra after marriage.
Reason (R): Women who married Satavahana rulers retained their father‘s
gotras instead of adopting names derived from their husband‘s gotra name
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(d) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct
28. Assertion (A): In Buddhism, people of all castes were treated without any 1
discrimination.
Reason (R): In the Buddhist Sangha, women and men used to go away from
worldly desires and to study Buddhist culture deeply.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(d) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct
29. Assertion(A) Buddhism was divided into two parts ‗Hinayana‖ and ―Mahayana‖ 1
during the reign of Kanishka.
Reason(R): The followers of Buddhism differed. Communal fights became
common in this.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
 (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(d) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct
30. Which temple was made in the 8th century from rock cutting? 1
(a) Kailasanath temple
(b) Vrahdeshvar temple
(c) Bhitargaon temple
(d) none of the above
31. When was Sanchi discovered? 1
(a) 1818
(b) 1819
(c)1820
(d) 1825
32. Siddharth as the Budha was named at birth, belonged to which kingdom? 1
(a) shakya
(b) Panchal
(c) kuru
(d) bhang
33. Who was the ruler of Bhopal? 1
(a) Nurjahan Begum
(b) Shahjahan b\Begum
(c) Hazrat jahan
(d) Hazrat mahal Begum
34. How many avatars of Vishnu were identified by the Vaishnavas? 1
(a) Eight
(b) Nine
(c) Ten
(d) Eleven
35. Who was the first woman to be ordained as a bhikkhuni? 1
(a) Maha pajapati Gautami
(b) Maha pajapati Bodhi
(c) Maha pajapati Grishma
(d) None of the above
36. What was the balcony-like structure in a stupa called? 1
(a) Anda
(b) Harmika
(c) Yashti
(d) Chhatri
37. Who provided money for the preservation of the Sanchi Stupa? 1
(a) John Marshall
(b) Begums of Bhopal
(c) Alexander Cunningham
(d) None of the above
38. Which of the following is the most important idea in Jainism? 1
(a) Observing celibacy
(b) Entire world is animated
(c) Belief in non-violence
(d) Asceticism and penance are required to free oneself from the cycle of Karma.
39. What does the symbol of ‗empty seat‘ symbolise? 1
(a) First Sermon of the Buddha
(b) An event in the life of Buddha
(c) Wisdom of the Buddha
(d) Meditation of the Buddha
40. Consider the following statements regarding Sangha. 1
(i) Mahapajapati Gotami persuaded Buddha to allow women into the sangha.
(ii) Many women who entered the sangha became teachers of Dhamma and went
on to become theris.
(iii) Once within the sangha, all were regarded as equal.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) II only
 ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL GWALIOR

CLASS -XII

ACADEMIC SESSION 2021-22

WORKSHEET (SELF –ASSESSMENT)

Subject: Political Science Assignment No. : 7

Allotment Date: 15 October 2021

S.NO QUESTIONS MARKS

1. The high point of Cold War was ....................... . 1
(A) Cuban Missile Crisis
(B) Atomic bomb attack on Hiroshima and Nagasaki
(C) Establishment of SEATO and CENTO
(D) Establishment of NATO
2. The Cold War is referred to the competition, the tensions and a series of confrontations 1
between the:
(A) United States and the Soviet Union
(B) France and Germany
(C) India and Pakistan
(D) America and Africa
3. Select the correct option for the Alliance and the organization it was formalized into: 1
(A) The Eastern Alliance was formalized into UNO.
(B) The Western Alliance was formalized into NATO.
(C) The Central Alliance was formalized into SEATO.
(D) The Neutral Alliance was formalized into Peacekeeping forces.
4. Which set of the countries belonged to the NATO Group? 1
(A) Poland, Britain, Romania
(B) USA, Czech Republic, France
(C) United Kingdom, France, West Germany
(D) Spain, France, East Germany.
5. Warsaw Pact was created in the: 1
(A) 1935
(B) 1945
(C) 1955
(D) 1965
6. Which one of the following statements is ‗not correct‘ about the ‗Non-Aligned Movement‘? 1
(A) It suggested to the newly independent countries ways to stay out of alliances.
(B) India‘s policy of non-alignment was neither negative nor passive.
(C) The non-aligned posture of India served its interests.
(D) India was praised for signing the treaty of friendship with USSR to
strengthen NAM.
7. Which of the following statements about the NIEO is false? 1
(A) Give the LDCs control over their natural resources.
(B) Obtain access to western markets.
(C) Reduce the cost of technology from western countries.
(D) Provide the developed countries with a greater role in international
economic institutions.
8. When did Cuban Missile Crisis occur? 1
(A) 1967
(B) 1962
(C) 1960
(D) 1970
9. When did the American become aware of the weapon placed in Cuba by USSR? 1
(A) On the first day
(B) One week later
 (C) Three weeks later
(D) None of the above
10. Who was the President of USA during Cuban Missile Crisis? 1
(A) Abraham Lincoln
(B) John F Kennedy
(C) Bill Clinton
(D) None of the above
11. When was NATO formed? 1
(A) June 1949
(B) March 1949
(C) February 1949
(D) April 1949
12. Which one of the following statements about the Berlin wall is false? 1
(A) It symbolised the division between the capitalist and the communist world.
(B) It was built during the Second World War.
(C) It was broken by the people on 9 November1989.
(D) It marked the unification of the two parts of Germany.
13. The Socialist Movement was inspired by the ideas of: 1
(A) Democracy
(B) Socialism
(C) Communalism
(D) Dictatorship
14. Which among the following statements wrongly describes the nature of the Soviet 1
economy?
(A) Socialism was the dominant ideology.
(B) State ownership/control existed over the factors of production.
(C) People enjoyed economic freedom.
(D) Every aspect of the economy was planned and controlled by the state.
15. Which one of the following was NOT a consequence of disintegration of the USSR? 1
(A) Many new stages emerged
(B) Russia emerged as a new superpower
(C) Power relations in world politics changed
(D) The capitalist system emerged as the winner
16. Which one of the following did Gorbachev not promise to reform? 1
(A) To loosen the administrative system
(B) To catch up with the west
(C) To reform the economy
(D) To maintain strict control over the government
17. Mikhail Gorbachev was elected as the General Secretary of the Communist Party of the 1
Soviet Union in:
(A) 1955
(B) 1965
(C) 1975
(D) 1985
18. Which one of the following was NOT an outcome of ‗Shock Therapy‘? 1
(A) The old system of social welfare got destroyed
.(B) Industries were put up for sale to the private sector.
(C) The value of the Russian currency, the ‗Ruble‘rose dramatically.
(D) Russia started to import food grains.
19. Shock therapy involved a drastic change in the...................... orientation of the economies. 1
(A) external
(B) internal
(C) international
(D) opposition
20. The post-Soviet countries underwent a process of transition from an authoritarian socialist 1
system to...................... capitalism system.
(A) democratic
(B) authoritative
(C) aristocratic
(D) systematic
21. First Gulf War was known as ...................... . 1
(A) Operation Infinite Reach
(B) Operation Enduring Freedom
(C) Operation Desert Storm
(D) Operation Iraqi Freedom
22. Which one of the following statement related to theIraq invasion by the US is incorrect? 1
(A) More than forty other countries were involved in this invasion.
 (B) The UN had given consent to invade Iraq.
(C) The invasion was to prevent Iraq from developing weapons of mass destruction.
(D) The US lost over 3000 military personnel in this war.
23. A system in which the affairs at the internationallevel cannot be dominated by only one 1
superpowerbut by a group of countries is known as:
(A) unipolar world
(B) capitalise world
(C) multi-polar world
(D) collective world
24. After which event in 1917 Soviet Union came intoexistence? 1
(A) French Revolution
(B) First World War
(C) November Revolution
(D) Socialist Revolution
25. Why Soviet system lost its popularity soon? 1
(A) It became more democratic
(B) People were fed up of the system
(C) It exploited people
(D) It became very bureaucratic and authoritarian
26. What was the final and most immediate cause ofthe disintegration of the USSR? 1
(A) Gorbachev‘s policies
(B) Western developments
(C) Second World War
(D) The rise of nationalism and the desire forsovereignty within various republics.
27. What among the following was the result of thedisintegration of USSR?(A) End of Cold 1
War confrontations
(B) End of Second World War
(C) Great economic depression
(D) All of the above
28. The model of transition, influenced by the World Bank and the IMF, came to be known as 1
................ .
(A) USSR
(B) Shock Therapy
(C) United Nations
(D) CENTO
29. Assertion: (A)The Soviet economy was then moredeveloped than the rest of the world 1
except for the US.
Reason: (R)The Soviet Union became a great powerafter the Second World War
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(d) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct
30. Assertion:(A) Gorbachev did nothing to save the disintegration of soviet system. 1
Reason: (R) These developments were accompanied by a rapidly escalating crisis within
the USSR that hastened its disintegration.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(d) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.
31. Rajiv Gandhi‘s visit to China in took place in December: 1
(A) 1966
(B) 1977
(C) 1988
(D) 1999
32. China and India were involved in a border conflict in: 1
(A) 1962
(B) 1972
(C) 1982
(D) 1992
33. What was ―Marshall Plan‖? 1
(A) to revive European economy
(B) to provide Europe with military assistance
(C) to unite Europe and US
(D) all of the above
34. On the reforms of structures and processes, thebiggest discussions has been on the 1
functioning of the
 (A) Security Council.
(B) Health of the infants
(C) Child mortality rate
(D) Nuclear weapon possession
35. The US, Japan, Germany, France, the UK, Italy,Canada and Russia are the: 1
(A) G8 members
(B) D8 members
(C) Cold War countries
(D) Dominating members
36. The Secretary-General - Ban Ki-Moon from South Korea is the ................... Secretary- 1
General of the UN.
(A) Fifth
(B) Sixth
(C) Seventh
(D) Eighth
37. Arrange the following in the chronological order 1
(i) Establishment of Human Rights Council
(ii) Yalta Conference
(iii) Atlantic Charter
(iv) India join the UN
(A) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
(B) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
38. In 1992, the UN General Assembly adopted aresolution related to: 1
(A) UN Security Council
(B) UNESCO
(C) UNICEF
(D) World Bank
39. The non-permanent members of the SecurityCouncil do not have the: 1
(A) Veto power
(B) Election power
(C) Military power
(D) Judiciary power
40. ....................... draws the global media‘s attention to human rights abuses. 1
(A) Human Rights Power
(B) Human Rights Watch
(C) Human Rights People
(D) Human Rights Torch
 ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL GWALIOR

CLASS -XII

ACADEMIC SESSION 2021-22

WORKSHEET (SELF –ASSESSMENT)

Subject: Physical Education Assignment No. : 7

Allotment Date: 15 October 2021

S.NO QUESTIONS MARKS

1. Which amongst these is not a macro mineral? 1
a) Calcium
b) Potassium
c) Phosphorus
d) Iodine
2. Formula for determining the number of bye in the lower half of a knockout 1
fixture when number of
byes are odd?
a) nb+1/2
b) nb-1/2
c) nb /2
d) nb+1
3. Which postural deformity has Convexities right or left? 1
a) Flat foot
b) Knock knees
c) Kyphosis
d) Scoliosis
4. Who gave Laws of motion? 1
a) Galileo
b) Pascal
c) Newton
d) Darwin
5. Which of the following is not a spinal curvature deformity? 1
a) Kyphosis
b) Scoliosis
c) Lordosis
d) Flatfoot
6 What is the Ratio of carbon,hydrogen and oxygen in carbohydrates? 1
a) 1:2:1
b) 2:2:1
c) 2:1:1
d) 1:2:2
7. Which movement is caused by Moving a body part away from the medial line 1
of the body?
a) Flexion
b) Extension
c) Adduction
d) Abduction
8. What is the other name for Vitamin B2? 1
a) Niacin
b) Thiamin
c) Folic Acid
d) Riboflavin
9. Which test is developed to test fitness in senior citizens? 1
a) Harvard step
b) Rikli and Jones
c) AAHPER
d) Rockport
10. Gliding movement occurs at which joint? 1
a) Knee
b) Hip
c) Wrist
d) Elbow
11. Consolation tournaments are a part of which type of fixture? 1
a) Knockout
b) league
c) combination
d) none of these
12. What is the test duration for the Arm curl test? 1
a) 1min
b) 2 min
c) 30sec
d) Number of repetitions
13. What according to you is the main cause for night blindness? 1
a) Deficiency of Vit. E
b) Deficiency of Vit. C
c) Deficiency of Vit. A
d) Deficiency of Vit. D
14. Which motor skill is involved in Smashing volleyball? 1
a) Gross motor skills
b) Fine motor skills
c) Cross motor skills
d) Open skills
15. Which fixture is also known as ‗Berger system ‗? 1
a) Knockout fixture
b) Round robin fixture
c) Combination fixture
d) Challenge tournament
16. The formula for determining the number of rounds in a single league fixture 1
when the number of
teams is even?
a) N
b) N-1/2
c) N-1
d) N(N-1)/2
17. Which test is developed to test fitness in senior citizens? 1
a) Harvard step
b) Rikli and Jones
c) AAHPER
d) Rockport
18. Who discovered Vitamin A? 1
a) Dr. Mc Collum
b) Dr. Coubertin
c) Dr. J.B.Nash
d) Dr. Harvard
19. What is the formula to divide an odd number of teams in the upper half for a 1
knockout fixture?
a) N+1/2
b) N-1/2
c) N(N-1)/2
d) N(N+1)/2
20. Which law amongst the given ones is known as the First law of motion? 1
a) Law of inertia
b) Law of reaction
 c) Law of momentum
d) Law of acceleration
21. Which postural deformity is related to Posterior curve of the spine? 1
a) Scoliosis
b) Kyphosis
c) Lordosis
d) Knock knees
22. Harvard step is performed to check which kind of fitness? 1
a) Cardiovascular
b) Explosive strength
c) Muscular strength
d) Reaction ability
23. What is the name of the postural deformity caused due to increase in the 1
curve at the lumbar
region?
a) Knock knees
b) Bow legs
c) Kyphosis
d) Lordosis
24. Calculate the BMI of a girl and identify the category if her weight is 68kg and 1
height is 161cm.
a) Underweight
b) Normal weight
c) Overweight
d) Obesity class I
25. Identify which one of these is not the objective of Planning? 1
a) Enhance creativity
b) Increase efficiency
c) Reduce chances of mistake
d) Facilitates poor coordination
26. Starting a throwing event in athletics is an example of which law of motion. 1
a) First law of motion
b) Second law of motion
c) Third law of motion
d) First and third law of motion
27. What will be the fitness index score of a girl if the test duration was 300sec 1
and the pulse
count(1min-1.5min) was 80.
a) 73.2
b) 62.8
c) 68.1
d) 85.3
28. How many rounds will be played if the number of teams are 29 in the 1
knockout fixture?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 3
29. Halasana is used for curing which of the following deformities? 1
a) Kyphosis
b) Scoliosis
c) Lordosis
d) Flatfoot
30. How many byes will be given if there are 8 teams in the league tournament? 1
a) 7
b) 5
c) 4
d) 0
31. How many matches will be played if there are 22 teams for the knockout 1
fixture?
a) 10
 b) 21
c) 12
d) 32
32. Assertion (A): ―A change in the acceleration of an object is directly 1
proportional to the force
producing it and inversely proportional to its mass‖
Reason (R): Lighter mass will travel at a faster speed
a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
33. Sandy is diagnosed with postural adaptation of the spine in lateral direction. 1
The curve is
identified as convexity right. It happened due to Sandy‘s underdeveloped legs
and carrying heavy loads
on one side only.
What kind of postural deformity doctors found in Sandy?
(a) Scoliosis
(b) Kyphosis
(c) Bow Legs
(d) Flatfoot
34. Which statement is not true about protein? 1
a) Protein forms new tissues
b) Protein regulates the balance of water and acids
c) Protein helps in production of hormones.
d) Protein makes antibodies.
35. League-cum- knockout is part of which tournament. 1

a). KNOCK OUT

b). ROUND ROBIN
c). COMBINATION
d).CONSOLATION
36. Advantage of Knockout tournament. 1

a).LESS NUMBER OF OFFICIAL

b). GOOD SCORE
c).MANY MATCHES
d). HEALTHY TOURNAMENT
37. How many byes are given in knockout tournament when 21 teams are 1
participating.
a).5
b).11
c).13
d).10
38. Which of the following is a micronutrient. 1

a). CALCIUM
b). POTASSIUM
c). MAGNESIUM
d). ALL OF THESE

39. Best way to reduce weight is 1

a). DIETING
b). RESTRICTED DIET
 c). SPECIAL SHAKE
d). NONE OF THESE

40. When did India win the first ODI cricket World Cup ? 1

a). 1983
b) 1987
c). 2011
d). 2007
 ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL GWALIOR

CLASS -XII

ACADEMIC SESSION 2021-22

WORKSHEET (SELF –ASSESSMENT)

Subject: Painting Assignment No. : 7

Allotment Date: 15 October 2021

S. No. QUESTIONS Marks
1. On which two religious were manuscripts of Pala school and Western 1
school based?
(a) Hinduism and Christianity
(b) Buddhism and Jainism
(c) Hinduism and Buddhism
(d) Jainism and Islam
2. Kalpasutra and Kalkacharya Katha are the painted manuscripts of which 1
of the following schools?
(a) Pala School
(b) Deccan School
(c) Jain School
(d) Pahari School
3. Which is the most prominent centre of Western Indian School of Painting? 1
(a) Nalanda
(b) Gujarat
(c) Vikramshila
(d) Jodhpur
4. Which of the following is an example of palm leaf manuscripts that means 1
the ‗Perfection of Wisdom‘ written in eight thousand lines?
(a) Chaurapanchasika
(b) Laur Chanda
(c) Astasahasrika Prajnaparamita
(d) Sanrahani Sutra
5. Name the technique used after colouring in which a stone is rubbed at the 1
back of the painting?
(a) Khadiya
(b) Wasli
(c) Burnishing
(d) Mounting
6. In which medium are the Rajasthani miniature paintings made? 1
(a) Oil colours
(b) Pastel colours
(c) Water colours
(d) Acrylic colours
7. The earlier centre of Rajasthani miniatures was Mewar, Likewise the 1
earliest centre of Pahari miniatures painting also called the cradle of
Pahati art, was…..
(a) Chamba
(b) Guler
(c) Basohli
(d) Kangra
8. In which of the Pahari sub-schools, the sky is shown as a narrow band of 1
blue and white at the top?
 (a) Chamba
(b) Guler
(c) Basohli
(d) Kangra
9. Which of the following Pahari sub-schools has a peculiar characteristic of 1
the use of dark green beetle wings to indicate jewels in ornaments?
(a) Chamba
(b) Guler
(c) Basohli
(d) Kangra
10. The period of which Pahari ruler is called the Golden Period of Kangra 1
School?
(a) Raja Sansar Chand
(b) Duleep Singh
(c) Pandit Seu
(d) Manik Chand
11. Which artist‘s family is mainly responsible for the growth of Pahari 1
miniatures from Basohli to Guler to Kangra?
(a) Nain Sukh
(b) Sahibdin
(c) Mir Syed Ali
(d) Manohar
12. Name the Painting by Nainsukh from your syllabus- 1
(a) Krishna with Gopis
(b) Nand, Yashoda and Krishna with Kinsmen going to Vrindavan
(c) Bharat meets Ram at Chitrakoot
(d) Birth of Salim
13. Which Persian artist was known as the ‗Raphael‘ of the East? 1
(a) Mir Syed Ali
(b) Bihzad
(c) Ustad Mansoor
(d) Abdus Samad
14. Who painted Falcon on a Bird-Rest? 1
(a) Abdul Hasan
(b) Nuruddin
(c) Haji Madni
(d) Mansoor
15. Name the painting made by Faquir Ullah Khan from Mughal 1
School-
(a) Birth of Salim
(b) Kabir and Raidas
(c) Krishna Lifting Mount Govardhana
(d) Hazrat Nizamuddin Auliya and Amir Khusro
16. Mughal art exhibits religious equality. Which of the following painting 1
justifies the comment?
(a) Krishna Lifting Mount Govardhana
(b) Birth of Salim
(c) Falcon
(d) Radha
17. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Mughal art? 1
(a) The paintings were made to suit the sensitivity of the royals
(b) The paintings were a part of manuscripts and albums
(c) These were meant to be seen by the royals and commoners both
(d) These were meant to be seen by the royals only
18. Babur‘s detailed accounts in……, his autobiography, are narratives of the 1
emperor‘s political carrier and artistic passion-
(a) Hamza Nama
(b) Babur Nama
(c) Razm Nama
(d) Shah Nama
19. The foundation of artists for feminine beauty ideals has resulted in almost 1
 all faces looking identical-
(a) Marriage Procession of Dara Shikoh
(b) Kabir and Raidas
(c) Chand Bibi Playing Polo (Chaugan)
(d) Hazrat Nizamiddin Auliya and Amir Khusro
20. Which of the following DID NOT influence Deccan art? 1
(a) Lepakshi frescoes and Hampi
(b) Persian influence
(c) Ottoman Turkish
(d) Pahari art
21. Which of the following is the subject matter of the painting- Hazrat 1
Nizamuddin Auliya and Amir Khusro?
(a) The heated exchange between two countries
(b) Deciding on a political strategy
(c) Saint teaching his disciple
(d) A Sufi saint listing to music being played by his disciple
22. The Halo behind……..‘s head has triangular rays, and his face is that of a 1
peaceful old man away from the materialism of daily life-
(a) Hazrat Nizamuddin Auliya
(b) Amir Khusro
(c) Sultan Abdullah Qutb Shah
(d) Saint Kabir
23. The colors are soothing and tones are subdued to suit the spiritual aura of 1
the two great Sufi personalities-
(a) Marriage procession of Dara Shikoh
(b) Poet in a Garden
(c) Krishna on Swing
(d) Hazrat Nizamuddin Auliya and Amir Khusro
24. Persian delicacy can be seen in the illustrated border with calligraphy 1
above and below-
(a) Marriage Procession of Dara Shikoh
(b) Kabir and Raidas
(c) Chand Bibi Playing Polo (Chaugan)
(d) Hazrat Nizamuddin Auliya and Amir Khusro
25. This painting is one of the illustrations from Harivamsa-the genealogy of 1
Hari (Krishna)-
(a) Krishna Lifting Mount Govardhana
(b) Kabir and Raidas
(c) Falcon on a Bird Rest
(d) Marriage Procession of Dara Shikoh
26. Shah Jahan is portrayed with a greenish colored nimbus, to certify his 1
high status in the whole gathering-
(a) Krishna Lifting Mount Govardhana
(b) Kabir and Raidas
(c) Falcon on a Bird Rest
(d) Marriage Procession of Dara Shikoh
27. This painting is one of the finest result of his plans to explain Hinduism to 1
his Muslim countries and to inspire them towards religious equality-
(a) Falcon on a Bird rest
(b) Krishna Lifting Mount Govardhana
(c) Kabir and Raidas
(d) Marriage Procession of Dara Shikoh
28. On which mythological books are the famous miniature painting Bharat 1
Meets Rama at Chitrakoot based?
(a) Geet Govinda
(b) Ramayana
(c) Guruvani
(d) Rasikpriya
29. In which sub-school is the ‗Maru Ragini‘ painting from your syllabus 1
made?
(a) Bundi
 (b) Kishangarh
(c) Bikaner
(d) Mewar
30. The place where paintings were made and stored in Jaipur was called…..? 1
(a) Mandi
(b) Marammatkhana
(c) Suratkhana
(d) Waslighar
 ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL GWALIOR

CLASS -XII

ACADEMIC SESSION 2021-22

WORKSHEET (SELF –ASSESSMENT)

Subject: Work Education Assignment No. : 7

Allotment Date: 15 October 2021

S. QUESTIONS MARKS NATURE

NO.
1. "Warli Art" origin state is - 1 Understanding
2. "Warli Art" is a form of Tribal Art? 1 Knowledge

3. Which Range of India are famous for 1 Understanding

creating "Warli Art"?

4. Till which year the "Warli Art" was not 1 Knowledge

recognized properly?

5. The "Warli Art" culture is centered around 1 Understanding

basically-
6. Which types of tradition are shown by 1 Knowledge
using Geometric Pattern of "Warli Art"?

7. Which two types of basic colours are used 1 Understanding

in "Warli Art"?

8. What is the central motif in each ritual 1 Knowledge

painting is the square, known as the
"chaulk" or "chaukat".
9. Now a days "Warli Art" is being used by- 1 Understanding

10. What was the main way of life which is 1 Knowledge

depicted in "Warli" painting?
 ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL GWALIOR

CLASS -XII

ACADEMIC SESSION 2021-22

WORKSHEET (SELF –ASSESSMENT)

Subject: General Studies Assignment No. : 7

Allotment Date: 15 October 2021

S.N QUESTIONS NATURE MARKS

1 MCQ Understanding) 4×1=4

A)Which of the following places is not located in Madhya Pradesh?
i) Fort of asirgarh
ii) Ginnorgarh Fort
iii) Mangi-Tungi
IV) GarhKundar

B) The famous Kalpvriksha plan of Madhya Pradesh Government Informatory

relates to?
i) Breeding in better quality insects for silk.
ii) Dairy and development of livestock.
iii) Rickshaw and Tempo are provided to unemployed youths of
schedule caste and tribe to start their own business.
iV) Interest free loan for 10 years to purchase land

C) Which of the following ‗Region‘ is not a ‗Region‘ of Madhya Analytical

Pradesh?
i) Hadauti
ii) Gird
iii) Mahakoshal
iv) Nimar

D) Seer Goverdhanpur in Uttar Pradesh is the birth place of which Informatory

Bhakti saint?
i) Kabir
ii) Dadu
iii) Ravidas
iv) Ramanand
 E) Which type of animal is Stegodon, the fossil of which has been Analytical
recently found in Uttar Pradesh?
i) Elephant
ii) Turtle
iii) Giraffe
iv) Lion

2. B) Fill In The Blanks :- Informatory 5×1=5

i) The Elephant Memorial in Mathura was constructed as an
initiative of________________.

ii. Dhupgarh (1,350m high) is the highest peak of Madhya Informatory

Pradesh located on ______________.

iii.Indira sagar dam is the highest dam of Madhya Pradesh-with Understanding

height of ____________ metres

Understanding
iv. Chandra Shekhar Azad-born on 23 July 1906 in Bhavra
village, in the present-day Alirajpur district of Madhya Pradesh

Understanding
v) Nepanagar is famous for its ‗Newsprint paper
mill________________.
 ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL GWALIOR

CLASS -XII

ACADEMIC SESSION 2021-22

WORKSHEET (SELF –ASSESSMENT)

Subject: Health and Physical Education Assignment No. : 7

Allotment Date: 15 October 2021

S.N QUESTIONS NATURE MARKS

1 MCQ Understanding) 4×1=4

A) Which of the following is not correct body position to save from
sexual harassment
i) head up
ii) alert with surrounding
iii) hands free
iv) use of head phone
B) To protect from sexual harassment Informatory
i) one should enjoy parties.
ii) one should trust everyone.
iii) call 911
iv) don‘t bother about intuition.

C) Physical effects of sexual assault Analytical

i) disrupted sleep
ii) social isolation
iii) good appetite
iv) Calm

D) Write full form of IASC Informatory

i) International Association of Standing Committee
ii) Inter-Agency Security Committee
iii) Inter-Agency Standing Committee
iv) International Association Security Committee

2. B) Fill In The Blanks :- Informatory 3×1=3

i. ________________ are drugs not taken by themselves.
 ii. ______________ bullying is any hostile or offensive action Informatory
relating to one‘s sexual orientation.

iii. ____________ is the online frontier for sexual Understanding

harassment.

3. Understanding 3X1= 3
C. True / False

i. UNFPA has dedicated policy on the prohibition of

harassment, sexual harassment, abuse of authority and
discrimination.

Understanding
ii. Gender based harassment is not comes under sexual
harassment act.

iii. Offensive graffiti is the form of homophobic bullying . Informatory

 ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL GWALIOR

CLASS -XII

ACADEMIC SESSION 2021-22

WORKSHEET (SELF –ASSESSMENT)

Subject: Yoga Assignment No. : 7
Allotment Date: 15 October 2021
S. Answer the following questions: Marks Skills
No.
1. What is obesity? 1 Informative
a. Disability
b. Disorder
c. Deformity
2. What is another name for Hero Pose? 1 Informative
a. Virasana
b. Bhujang asana
c. Colera pose
3. When does obesity occur according to BMI? 1 Informative
a. 15 or greater
b. 20 or greater
c. 25 or greater
4. Obesity involves which kind of problems? 1 Informative
a. High blood pressure
b. Difficulty in breathing
c. Excessive body weight
5. Asana is which Limb of the Ashang Yoga? 1 Informative
a. 1
b. 3
c. 4
6. Which among the following is curing asana for obesity? 1 Informative
a. Kapalbhati
b. Varkshasana
c. Ardhmatsyendra Asana I
7. Dhanurasana prevents which among the following 1 Informative
diseases?
a. Asthma
b. Obesity
c. Backpain
8. What causes obesity? 1 Informative
a. Intake of proteins
b. Intake of calories
c. Intake of fats
9. Yoga asanas helps in preventing which of the following 1 Informative
diseases?
a. Backpain
b. Heart diseases
c. All of them
10. Who states this ―sthiramsukhamasanam‖ quote? 1 Informative
a. Vivekananda
b. Patanjali
c. Aurbindo