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Pre Board 10th SST Set 2

This document contains instructions and questions for a 10th class Social Studies pre-board examination. It is divided into 6 sections (A-F) containing different types of questions. Section A contains 20 multiple choice questions worth 1 mark each. Section B contains 4 very short answer questions worth 2 marks each. Section C contains 5 short answer questions worth 3 marks each. Section D contains 4 long answer questions worth 5 marks each. Section E contains 3 case-based questions worth 4 marks each. Section F contains 1 map-based question worth 5 marks. The questions cover topics related to social studies including history, geography, economy, resources and transportation.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
454 views8 pages

Pre Board 10th SST Set 2

This document contains instructions and questions for a 10th class Social Studies pre-board examination. It is divided into 6 sections (A-F) containing different types of questions. Section A contains 20 multiple choice questions worth 1 mark each. Section B contains 4 very short answer questions worth 2 marks each. Section C contains 5 short answer questions worth 3 marks each. Section D contains 4 long answer questions worth 5 marks each. Section E contains 3 case-based questions worth 4 marks each. Section F contains 1 map-based question worth 5 marks. The questions cover topics related to social studies including history, geography, economy, resources and transportation.

Uploaded by

harsh jat
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Shri Bhartiya Sanskriti Shiksha Sansthan

PRE BOARD EXAMINATION 2022-23


CLASS-10th SUBJECT-Social Studies
TIME – 3 HOUR M.M. -80
INSTRUCTIONS:
All the questions are compulsory.
(i)Section A- Q.no.1 to 20 are multiple choice questions of one mark each.
(ii)Section B- Q.no. 21 to 24 are very short questions of two marks each.
(iii)Section C - Q.no. 25 to 29 are short answer type questions of three marks each.
(iv)Section D - Q.no. 30 to 33 are long answer type question of five marks each.
(v) Section E- Q.no.34 to 36 are case based questions of four marks. Answer accordingly.
(vi)Section F- Q.no.37 Map based question of five marks.

1. (Section-A)

Multiple choice questions. (1×20=20)

Which of the following revolution is called as the first expression of ‘Nationalism’?

(a)French Revolution (b)Russian Revolution

(c)Glorious Revolution (d)The Revolution of the liberals

2. What was the effect of Non -cooperation movement on the plantation workers in
Assam?

(a)They left the plantations and headed home (b)They went on a strike

(c)They destroyed the plantations (d) None of the above

3. Where was the first cotton mill set up?

(a)Surat (b)Bombay (c)Calcutta (d) Kerala

4. What was Gutenberg’s first printed book?

(a)Ballads (b)Dictionary (c)Bible (d) None of these

5. Where was the first international Earth Summit held?

(a)Rio de Janerio (b)Geneva (c)Switzerland (d)Philippines

6. What was the aim of the Chipko movement?

(a)Human rights (b) Political rights


(c) Agricultural expansion (d)Forest conservation

7. Gold ,siver and platinum are examples of :

(a)Ferrous minerals (b) Non-ferrous minerals


(c)Precious minerals (d)Nonmetallic minerals

8. Which of the following is a mineral based industry?

(a)Sugar (b)Tea (c)coffee (d)Petrochemicals

9. Which of the following is the most important mode of transportation in India?

(a)Pipeline (b) Roadways (c) Railways (d)Airways

10. Which of the following oldest port of the eastern coast of India?

(a)Kolkatta (b)Visakhapatnam (c)Tuticorin (d)Chennai

11. Which of the following is not the form of power sharing?

(a)Vertical division of power (b)Horizontal division of power

(c) Division of power between people (d)Division of power among social groups

12. Study the picture and answer the question that follows:

Which of the following aspect best represent the given image?

(a)Nepolean here is represented as a postman

(b)Nepoleon here is represented as a harbinger

(c)Nepolean here is represented as a soldier

(d)Nepolean here is represented as a torch bearer

13. Repayment of loan is dependent on the:

(a)chances to winning a gamble (b)Chances of winning a lottery

(c)Chances of winning a bet (d)Income

14. Demonetisation was done with a motive of controlling:

(a)Increase in prices of goods (b)Inflation


(c)Stagflation (d)Corruption

15. Tehri dam Andolan is mainly concerned with the state of:

(a)Uttarakhand (b)Jharkhand (c)Chhattisgarh (d)None of these

16. Match List I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
the lists:

List- I List-II

i. Congress party A.National democratic Alliance

ii. Bhartiya Janata Party B. State party

iii. Communist Party of India C. United Progressive Alliance

iv. Telugu Desam Party D. Left front

1 2 3 4

(a) C A B D

(b) C D A B

(c) C A D B

(d) D C A B

17. Identify the incorrect option as given below:

(a)The RBI monitors the banks in actually maintaining cash balance

(b)Banks have to submit information to the RBI on income tax returns.

(c)The RBI sees that the banks give loans not just to profit–making business and
traders but also to small cultivators.

(d)The RBI supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans.


18. Correct the following statement and rewrite them.

The average income is also called per month income.

ANS:- The average income is also called per capita income.

19. In the following questions a statement of assertion followed bya statement of reason
is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.

(a)Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.

(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.

(d)Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

Assertion:Automobiles provide vehicles for quick transport of goods services and


passengers.

Reason:Noise and water pollution are closely related.

20. Match the following :

(a)Cheque (i)A person who deposits the amount in the bank account.

(b)Currency (ii)A paper instructing the bank to pay a specific amount from
the person’s account to the person in whose name the cheque
has been drawn.

(c)Interest rate (iii)A medium of exchange for goods services.

(d)Depositors (iv)The rate a bank or other lender charges to borrow its money,
or the rate a bank pays its savers for keeping money in an
account.

(a) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (b)a-i,b-iii,c-iv,d-ii

(c)a-ii,b-iii,c-iv,d-i (d)a-ii,b-iii,c-i,d-iv

21. (Section-B)

Very Short Answer type Questions. (4×2=8)

What were ‘silk routes’?

22. Why is alluvial soil is called ‘fertile soil’?

23. Why are Chinese toys so popular in India?

24. What is the role of opposition in a democracy?

25. (Section-C)

Short Answer type Questions. (5×3=15)

Explain ‘Narmada Bachao Andolan’.

Or

How did a large number of new readers among children, women and workers
increase in nineteenth century Europe? Explain with examples.
26. What were the demands of Mahatma Gandhi to Viceroy Irwin?

Or

Who had designed the ‘Swaraj Flag’ by 1921? Explain the features of this ‘swaraj
flag’.

27. What was the effect of world economic crisis on rural India?

Or

“The development of nationalism did not come only through wars and territorial
expansion. Culture played an important role in creating the idea of the nation.”
Elaborate upon the statement.

28. Distinguish between renewable and non renewable resources.

Or

‘Rainwater harvesting system is a viable alternative both socio–economically and


environmentally.’ Support the statement with three examples.

29. How does mining affect the heath of miners?

Or

State how caste inequalities are still continuing in India.

30. (Section-D)

Long Answer Type Questions. (4×5=20)

Why is it necessary to conserve mineral resources? Explain any four ways to


conserve minerals.

Or

Women in India still face discrimination in various ways. Explain with examples.

31. Analyse the impact of water scarcity.

Or

‘Promotion of Hindi continues to be the official policy of government of India’.


Elucidate.

32. Describe four benefits of Globalisation to the Indian economy.

Or

Explain the importance of railways as means of transport?

33. Describe the condition of indentured labour that migrated from India during the 19th
century.
Or

“The ‘Print Revolution’ has transformed the lives of people, changing their
relationship to information and knowledge.” Analyse the statement.

34. (Section-E)

Case based questions. (3×4=12)

Read the passage given below and answer the question that follow.

After primary and secondary, there is a third category of activities that falls under
tertiary sector and is different from the above two. These are activities that help in
the development of the primary and secondary sectors. These activities, by
themselves, do not produce a good but they are an aid or a support for the production
process. For example, goods that are produces in the primary and the secondary
sector would need to be transported by trucks or trains and then sold in wholesale
and retail shops. At times, it may be necessary to store these in godowns. We also
may need to talk to others over telephone or send letters (communication) or borrow
money from banks (banking) to help production and trade. Transport, storage,
communication, banking, trade are some examples of tertiary activities. Since these
activities generate services rather than goods, the tertiary sector is also called the
service sector.

(i)Which economic sector is considered the first sector?

(ii)What comes under the tertiary sector?

(iii)Which sector is known as service sector?

35. Read the passage given below and answer the question that follow.

By the late 18th century, the press came to be made out of metal. Through the 19th
Century, there were is series of further innovations in printing technology. By the
mid 19thcentury Richard M. Hoe of New York had perfected the power - driven
cylindrical press. This was capable of printing 8,000 sheets per hour. This press was
particularly used for printing newspapers.

In the late 19th century, the offset press was developed which could print up to 6
colours at a time.From the turn of 20th century, electrically operated presses
accelerated printing operations. A series of other development followed. Methods of
feeding paper improved, the quality of plates became better automatic paper reels
and photo electric controls of the colour register were introduced. The accumulation
of several individual mechanical improvements transformed the appearance of
printed texts.

Printers and publishers continuously developed new strategies to sell their product.
19th century periodicals serialized important novels, which gave worth to a particular
way of writing novel. In the 1920s in England, popular works were sold in cheap
series, called the shilling series. The dust cover or the book jacket is also the 20 th
century innovation. With the onset of the great depression in the 1930s, Publishers
feared a decline in book purchases. To sustain buying, they brought out cheap paper
back editions.

(i)How did publishers sustain market during the Great Depression? Give one
measure.

(ii)Explain the strategies that were adopted by the publishers and printers to sell their
products in the 19th and 20th century England.

(iii)Describe any two innovations in printing technology during the 19th century.

36. Read the passage given below and answer the question that follow.

Every party in the country has to register with the election commission. While the
commission treats all parties equally, it offers some special facilities to large and
established parties. These parties are given a unique symbol - only the official
candidate of the party can use that election symbol. Parties that get this privilege and
some other special facilities are 'recognised' by the election commission for this
purpose. That is why these parties are called, 'recognised political parties'. The
election commission has laid down detailed criteria of the proportion of votes and
seats that a party must get in order to be recognised party. A party that secures at
least 6% of the total votes in the election to the Legislative Assembly of a state and
wins at least two seats are recognize at state party. A party that secure at least 6% of
the total votes in the Lok Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four states and
wins at least four seat in the Lok Sabha is recognised as a national party.

(i) Who gives a unique symbol to every party?

(ii) How many percent of votes does a party needs to win in a legislative Assembly
of a state?

(iii) Which parties are recognise as political parties?

37. (Section-E)

Map based question. (1×5=5)

(a)Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India.

Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.

(i)The place where Indian National Congress Session was held in 1927.

(ii)The place associated with Civil Disobedience Movement.

(b)On the same outline map of India locate and label any three of the following with
suitable symbols.

(i)Pradip-Major sea port

(ii)Hyderabad-Software technology part


(iii)Bassien-Oil field

(iv)Narora- Thermal Power Plant

(v)Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose-International Airport.

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