Forensic Science

Set E

1. The sub-secondary classification is exhibited by three (3) fingers of

right and left hands. What are the following fingers involved in this
stage of classification?
a. index and middle fingers c. middle and ring fingers
b. index, middle and ring d. ring and index fingers.
fingers

2. Which of the following fingers has the highest designated numerical value?
a. Right and Left thumb c. Right thumb and right
fingers index fingers
b. Right and Left index d. right and left index
fingers fingers

3. Which of the following fingerprint symbol with numerical value in primary

classification?
a. / c. X
b. \ d. A

4. Which of the following is considered as the world’s first fingerprint

bureau?
a. FBI d. Central Finger Print
b. Scotland Yard Bureau
c. Kolkata Anthropometric
Bureau

5. Credited as the first system of personal identification.

a. Anthropometry c. Chiroscopy
b. Dactylography d. Dactyloscopy

6. Who are the two Indian fingerprint experts credited with primary
development of the Henry System of fingerprint classification?
a. Haque and Bose c. Jack and Jill
b. Mutt and Jeff d. Lois and Clark

7. First nation to have used fingerprint known as Hua Chi.

a. USA c. England
b. Philippines d. China

8. Who is that fingerprint pioneer who studied the persistency of ridge

characteristic?
a. Edward Henry c. Dr.Henryfoulds
b. Francis Galton d. Marcelo Malphigi

9. Sweat ducts emitted greasy substance known as _____.

a. salt c. amino acid
b. natural oil d. water

10. It is that part of a loop and whorl in which appear the core deltas and
ridges with which we are concerned in classifying.
a. type line c. friction skin
b. pattern area d. divergence

11. When there is a definite break in type line, what is considered as its
continuation?
a. the ridge immediately c. the ridge immediately
outside follow
b. the ridge immediately d. the ridge immediately
inside succeeded

12. Which of the following cannot be used as typeline?

a. Divergence
b. angular formation
c. 2 innermost ridges
d. 2 forks of bifurcation run parallel, then diverge

13. What is an ending ridge of any length rising at a sufficient degree from
the horizontal plane at least 45 or more?
a. sufficient recurved c. shoulder of a loop
b. upthrust d. recurving ridge
14. Type of tented arch, possesing two of the three basic characteristic of
the loop, but lacking the third.
a. angle type c. resembling loop
b. upthrust type d. Loop

15. For the left hand, the loops flowing toward the thumb is called _____.
a. radial loop c. reverse loop
b. ulnar loop d. opposite loop

16. Delta is also known as ______

a. lower ridge c. inner terminus
b. outer terminus d. upper terminus

17. Principle of constancy in fingerprint science means that fingerprint is

________
a. unchanging c. not conclusive
b. not possible of forgery d. fallible

18. Which means that no two fingerprint are exactly alike.

a. principles of c. principles of
individuality infallibility
b. principles of permanency d. principles of unlikeness

19. This principle means that fingerprint is reliable.

a. principles of c. principles of
individuality infallibility
b. principles of permanency d. principles of unlikeness

20. In fingerprints patterns, there are how many kinds of tented arches?
a. Two c. four
b. Three d. five

21. What do you call the number of ridges intervening between the delta and
the core?
a. ridge count c. charting the ridge
b. ridge trace d. intersecting the ridge

22. The spreading apart of two line which have been running parallel or
nearly parallel is called;
a. converging ridge c. recurving ridge
b. diverging ridge d. bifurcating ridge

23. Refers to a single ridge that bifurcates and meets again to form a
single ridge.
a. resembling a loop c. short ridge
b. enclosure ridge d. dot ridge

24. The ridge or ridges that slope toward the little fingers in the right
hand is called _____.
a. ulnar loop c. dividing loop
b. radial loop d. resembling loop

25. In an ink impression, a ______must intervene between a delta and the

first ridge count.
a. an imaginary line c. bifurcating ridge
b. core d. white space

26. In taking fingerprints _________are rolled towards the body of the

subject.
a. all fingers except thumb c. little fingers
b. all fingers d. both thumbs

27. What finger is rolled away from the body of the subject?
a. all fingers c. both thumbs and ring
b. all fingers except the fingers
thumb d. all eight fingers

28. Fingerprint ink can be spread evenly on the glass by means of ______.
a. fingerprint card holder c. spatula
b. fingerprint brush d. fingerprint roller

29. Impressions which are taken simultaneously on the fingerprint card

isknown as ______.
a. plain impression c. rolled impression
b. fragmentary impression d. visible impression
30. One of the cardinal rules in taking fingerprints is that the finger must
be completely _______.
a. Healty c. moist
b. healed from previous d. dry
injury

31. Subject being fingerprinted must be advised by the operator to

__________.
a. Cooperate c. keep still
b. Relax d. look at his hand

32. Correct sequence of rolled impression can be checked by means of the

_________.
a. plain impression c. fingerprint operator
b. classification formula d. fingerprint classifier

33. Ridges which is too light and faint to be counted or traced is a result
of;
a. insufficient ink c. heavy black printer ink
b. too much ink d. slipping

34. When the slab is dirty or the technician failed to clean the slab after
using it, will produce;
a. accentuation of pattern c. impression of false
b. difficuly in marking
photographing d. pattern reversal

35. Known for his rule which states that no two individuals in the world are
exactly the same size and that human skeleton does not change after 20
years
a. Darwin c. Galton
b. Mendel d. Bertillon

36. The easiest means of discovering latent fingerprint is to view the area.
a. obliquely c. directly
b. about half an inch d. about one inch distance
distance

37. Fingerprint pattern in which two or more different type of pattern are
represented
a. accidental loop c. central pocket loop
b. double loop d. whorl

38. A distinct fingerprint pattern with two separate loops with its
respective shoulder and delta.
a. double loop c. central pocket loop
b. accidental loop d. whorl

39. If a subject has more than ten fingers, the extra finger is printed on
the _____of the fingerprint card with notation to the effect that the same
is an extra finger.
a. face c. face upper corner
b. back d. face,lower corner

40. It refers to spiral grooves inside the barrel of the firearm that fired
bullet passes through.
a. Lands c. Rifling
b. Groove d. muzzle

41. A part of the cartridge case consider as serrated grooves that sometimes
found rolled into the neck and body of the cases to prevent bullet can
being push back or loosened.
a. Rim c. vents or flash hole
b. primier pocket
d. cannelures

42. A type of instrument being used in measuring of rifling of firearms.

a. Caliper c. taper gauge
b. Onoscope d. helixometer

43. The mechanism in a firearm by which the cartridge case or shear is

withdrawn from the chamber in a revolver that pulls the empty shells
simultaneously.
a. Ejector b. Extractor
 c. Cylinder d. Breechblack

44. The microscopic viewing of identifying two fired specimen cartridge case
or bullet putting into congruency is a process of examination by;
a. juxta position c. collision
b. inter-marriage d. assessment

45. It is produced by a harder surface scraping, dragging, sliding or

slipping across a softer one leaving a series of abrasions, serrations and
scrapes.
a. Striation mark c. breechface mark
b. stamp mark d. none of these

46. Fingerprint marks can be found in the ________ of the fire arm;
a. Butt c. trigger guard
b. trigger d. all of these

47. The colt .45 has ;

a. 6 grooves, right twist c. 6 grooves, left twist
b. 4 grooves, left twist d. 4 grooves, right twist

48. Smith and Wesson model .38has

a. 6 grooves, right twist c. 6 grooves, left twist
b. 4 grooves, left twist d. 5 grooves, right twist

49. Refers to the forcible application of a hard surface against a softer

one leaving an impression on the softer surface like striking the firing
pin on the primer.
a. Striation mark c. breechface mark
b. stamp mark d. none of these

50. It is a mark found in shell due to impact of breechblock in the

recoil impresses the ridges of the breechblock and often gives
identification marks characteristics of firearm.
a. Firing pin marks c. ejector mark
b. breechblock mark d. all of these

51. Which of the following are marks can be found on the shell?
a. Firing pin marks c. ejector mark
b. extractor mark d. all of these

52. It is the amount of force on the trigger necessary to fire a gun.

a. Hammer impact c. trigger impact
b. hammer pressure d. trigger pressure

53. A shotgun has an approximate trigger pressure of;

a. 4lbs c. 6-10 lbs
b. 4-6 lbs d. none no these

54. Refers to the import, export, acquisition, sale, delivery, movement or

transfer of firearms, their parts and components and ammunition, from or
across the territory of one country to that of another country which has
not been authorized in accordance with domestic law in either or both
country/countries.
a. Smuggling in migrants c. Human smuggling
b. Arms smuggling d. Human trafficking

55. It is also called an “igniter”, a device used for the purpose of setting
fire to ignite the gun powder.
a. Gun powder c. Cartridge case
b. Bullet d. Primer

56. Self-loading pistols, rifles and carbines, submachine guns, assault

rifles and light machine guns not exceeding caliber 7.62MM which have
fully automatic mode are light weapons classified as;
a. Hand gun c. Rifles
b. Class A d. Class B

57. Refers to any handheld or portable weapon, whether a small arm or light
weapon, that expels or is designed to expel a bullet, shot, slug, missile
or any projectile, which is discharged by means of expansive force of
gases from burning gunpowder or other form of combustion or any similar
instrument or implement.
a. Radio c. Firearm
b. Cellphone d. Knife
58. It is due to the passage of bullet at the spiral landing and grooving
of the barrel.
a. Spinning c. forward movement
b. gravity d. all of these

59. Disintegration of the bullets turning into several parts or pieces;

a. Shock wave c. gravity
b. hydrostastic force d. fragmentation

60. This act is known as the “Comprehensive Firearms and Ammunition

Regulation Act”.
a. P.D. 1866 c. R.A. 8294
b. R.A. 10591 d. All of the above

61. How old is the firearm to be considered as antique firearm?

a. 30 years old c. 50 years old
b. 65 years old d. 75 years old

62. Which of the following is not a firearm?

a. ArmaLite c. .38 S&W revolver
b. Colt 45 d. .40 Glock

63. It is the projectile propelled through the barrel of a firearm by means

of the expansive force of gases coming from burning gunpowder;
a. Gun powder c. Cartridge case
b. Bullet d. Primer

64. Refers to a complete unfired unit consisting of a bullet, gunpowder,

cartridge case and primer or loaded shell for use in any firearm.
a. Ammunition c. Cartridge case
b. Bullet d. Primer

65. A container, usually metal and cylindrical in shape, to be loaded with a

primer, powder charged and bullet. After loading, it becomes a complete
cartridge, of which the case is but one element. It is commonly made of
brass, although some are made of steel, aluminum, or other materials.
a. Gun powder c. Cartridge case
b. Bullet d. Primer

66. A weapon designed, made and intended to fire a number of ball shots or a
single projectile through a smooth bore by the action or energy from
burning gunpowder.
a. Handgun c. Pistol
b. Small arms d. Shotgun

67. Refer to firearms intended to be or primarily designed for individual

use or that which is generally considered to mean a weapon intended to be
fired from the hand or shoulder, which are not capable of fully automatic
bursts of discharge.
a. Handgun c. Pistol
b. Small arms d. Shotgun

68. How many round of ammunition is required to possess by a licensed gun

owner?
a. Minimum of 50 rounds c. Minimum of 100 rounds
b. Maximum of 50 rounds d. Maximum of 100 rounds

69. Which among of the following is considered a complete firearm?

a. Barrel c. Receiver
b. frame d. All of the above

70. What mark can be found at the head of the shell?

a. Firing pin marks c. ejector mark
b. breechblock mark d. breechblock

71. Most common individual characteristics that are visible on the base
portion of the fired cartridge case is
a. Firing pin impression c. Extractor marks
b. Ejector marks d. Chamber marks

72. A bullet fire from a firearm with an oversized or oily barrel or its
lands have been worn down will produce what kind of markings?
a. Slippage marks c. Rifling marks
b. Skid marks d. Shearing marks
73. Firearm mechanism which causes empty shell to be withdrawn from the
chamber.
a. Breechblock c. Breech face
b. Ejector d. Extractor

74. In firearms, identification, it is essential to supplement the serial

number with
a. Caliber c. Make and model number
b. Frame number d. All of the above

75. After repeated firing of a revolver, this is deposited frequently on the

index finger of the hand which the shooter used to fire the gun
a. Powder burn c. Precipitin
b. Residue d. Dirt

76. When booking a fired bullet, the marks used to identify it is placed on
a. Its base c. Its side and base
b. Its side d. Its nose

77. The cartridge powder charge can be burn in approximately

a. 0.00001 c. 0.00003
b. 0.00002 d. 0.00004

78. The sealing or prevention of gunpowder gas after explosion from escaping
so as to maintain high pressure in the firing thereby increasing the
propulsive power on the bullet is called;
a. Sealing c. Obturation
b. Labeling d. Kenetic energy

79. If the number of gunshot wounds of entrance and exit found in the body
of the victim is even, the presumption is;
a. that no bullet lodged in the body
b. that one or more bullets might have been lodged in the body
c. the bullet becomes fragmented
d. there is no gunshot wounds in the body

80. If the number of gunshot wounds of entrance and exit found in the body
of the victim is odd, the presumption is;
a. that no bullet lodged in the body
b. that one or more bullets might have been lodged in the body
c. the bullet becomes fragmented
d. there is no gunshot wounds in the body

81. A type of lens appearing the object for bigger size during actual
photographing for self-enlargement of the object being photographed.
a. Wide angle lens c. zoom lens
b. macro lens d. special purpose lens
82. It is a type of film in photography used to discover obliterated object.
a. Monochromatic film c. orthochromatic film
b. panchromatic film d. infrared film

83. It is considered as light duration of the film during photographing an

object upon lens opening.
a. ASA c. ISO
b. DIN d. Exposure

84. Which of the following color not included under magenta color
combination?
a. Red c. Blue
b. Green d. fuchsia color

85. It is the distance measured in the optical center from the lens to the
film when the lens is set to focus in photographing an object.
a. focal length c. focal opening
b. focal distance d. focal viewing

86. The cutting and deletion of undesired portion of images in digital

photography is a process of _______________ to remain the
desired image for enlargement.
a. catching c. editing
b. retouching d. cropping

87. It is an electromagnetic radiation within a certain portion of the

electromagnetic spectrum and responsible for the sense of sight.
a. Camera c. Sunlight
b. Eyes d. Light
88. Refers to light that has a longer wavelength.
a. Visible light c. Ultra – violet light
b. Invisible light d. Infra-red light

89. Refers to light that has a shorter wavelength.

a. Visible light c. Ultra – violet light
b. Invisible light d. Infra-red light

90. In physics, which of the following refers to light?

a. Electromagnetic c. Electromagnetic energy
radiation d. Electric light
b. Electromagnetic spectrum

91. In conducting film or digital photography under comparison microscope,

the camera should be attached to;
a. SLR Eyepiece c. SLR Camera port
b. CCTV Camera Port d. SLR Camera Diopter

92. The mug shot shall be taken in how many positions or manners?
a. 4 c. 6
b. 5 d. 7

93. The mug shot shall be taken in the following manners; front view half
body, left side view half body, right-side view half body, and
a. Rear view whole body d. right-side view whole
b. front-view whole body body
c. Left – side view whole
body

94. If a digital camera is used in taking the mug-shot, the camera should
have a resolution of
a. Five mega pixels d. not less than 5 mega
b. six mega pixels pixel
c. Eight mega pixels

95. What is the photograph size of the mug shot?

a. 3R c. 5R
b. 4R d. 7R

96. Light rays with a wavelength of 400 to 700 nanometer is referred to as;
a. visible light c. infra-red light
b. X-Ray light d. invisible radiations

97. Lights with shorter or longer wavelengths are commonly referred to as;
a. visible light c. infra-red light
b. X-Ray light d. invisible radiations

98. This energy is capable of being recorded on sensitized materials;

a. X-rays c. infra-red rays
b. ultra violet rays d. all of these

99. It is the action of light upon the film in the camera producing a
changes;
a. Exposure c. stop bath
b. developing d. fixing
100. The court recommended size of photograph submitted as evidence is;
a. 5x7 c. 8x9
b. 4R d. 8x10

101. Which among of the following is the primary source of light?

a. Sun c. moon
b. electric bulb d. flash

102. It is radiant energy, usually referring to electromagnetic

radiation that is visible to the human eye, and is responsible for the
sense of sight.
a. Light c. Moon
b. Sun d. Flash

103. Photography is the drawing with;

a. Image c. Light
b. Lens d. Colors

104. In camera, what is meant by SLR?

a. Sensitive Lens Reflect b. Single Lens Reflect
 c. Standard Lens Reuter d. Semi – Lens receiver

105. If you want the camera determines the sharpest focus, using sensors that
are devoted to measuring the focus of the scene and you don’t have to do
but to allow the camera to adjust by itself, you should set the camera at
a. AF c. Stabilizer
b. MF d. Automatic setting

106. By using the DSLR camera, the captured image is saved in the
a. Film c. USB
b. Memory d. LCD

107. In taking a photograph using a DSLR, the object to be photograph can be

viewed in the view finder or to its;
a. Film c. USB
b. Memory d. LCD

108. What is the wavelength of the visible light?

a. 100-400 nm c. 700-1000 nm
b. 400-700 nm d. 1000-2000 nm

109. A wavelength which is longer than the visible light is;

a. Infra – red c. UV
b. X – ray d. All of the above

110. Its primary function is to prevent the contamination of two chemical

solutions in chemical processing in photography.
a. Development c. Fixation
b. Stop-bath d. Bleaching

111. What are the primary colors of light?

a. Blue –Violet-Red c. Blue-Green-Red
b. Blue- Yellow-Green d. Yellow-Violet-Red

112. It is the process of dissolving out the excess silver salt which has
been reduced to silver by the developer solution?
a. Developing c. Fixing
b. Stop bath d. Washing

113. Lighting condition when objects in open space casts no shadow

a. Bright c. Hazy
b. Dull d. Cloudy

114. It is used to allow light to enter through the lens for a predetermined
time interval.
a. View finder d. Holder of sensitized
b. Shutter material
c. Light tight box

115. It is a three legged device which may be adjusted to any reasonable

desired extension. It is used to hold the camera when the shutter speed is
low as 1/125 of a second to prevent vibration.
a. Stand c. Base
b. Tripod d. Bench

116. A lighting condition wherein subject in open space casts a transparent

shadow.
a. Hazy c. Cloudy bright
b. Cloudy dull d. Bright

117. In crime scene photography, what is the sufficient lens type for
interior photographs?
a. Wide angle lens c. Telephoto lens
b. Normal lens d. Narrow angle lens

118. In police photography, to obtain a general view of the scene we use a

camera at what particular level?
a. Flying view c. Bird’s eye view
b. Eye level d. High elevation view

119. In digital photography, aside from the quality of the lens, the quality
of the photograph is also dependent on the _________________ of the
digital camera.
a. Film b. Memory
 c. Pixels d. LCD

120. It is the adding of exposure time on a specific area to bring out

details.
a. Dodging c. Burning-in
b. Cropping d. Developing

121. The imbalance of typewriting impression of letters from one side to the
other is a typewriter defect called
a. Higher elevation of c. Product of fixed
print impression impression
b. lower emphasis of print d. Off – its - feet
impression impression

122. It is an appearance of gap during handwriting execution as product of

speed under normal writing condition.
a. Embellishment c. Hiatus
b. Diacritic d. Pen lift

123. An indication of heavy writing pressure during the execution of writing

will constitute to
a. greater degree of c. lesser degree of writing
writing speed speed
b. tremulous speed of d. continuous speed of
writing writing

124. When a document is destroyed and partially damage but remain

identifiable is considered as;
a. disputed document c. charred document
b. questioned document d. standard document

125. It is a standard document obtained from files executed in the course of

a person’s day to day business, official, social or personal activities.
They often serve as the best or most appropriate standards in the
determination of the genuineness of a questioned signature or writing.
a. Requested standard c. Procured standard
d. All of the above
b. Post-litem motam
standard

126. When the image of Pres. Manuel Roxas on a one hundred peso bill is
transformed into that of Manny Pacquiao, is there any violation?
a. Yes. Presidential Decree No. 247 is violated
b. Yes. Article 164 of the Revised Penal Code is violated
c. Yes. Republic Act 265 is violated
d. All of the above

127. The line quality of the writing is derived from a combination of factors
including writing skills, speed, rhythm, shading, pen pressure, pen
position, and;
a. freedom of movement c. arc
b. whirl d. all of the above

128. It is the balance quality of movements of the harmonious recurrence of

stress or impulse. It is the flowing succession of motion that is recorded
in a written record.
a. Alignment c. Rhythm
b. Natural Variation d. Embellishment
129. A forgery of simulated or copied class is produced by a method similar
to;
a. that employed by a person learning how to write
b. that employed by a person taking down notes
c. that employed by a person writing under the influence of liquor
d. all of the above

130. Can the writing on the wall be considered a document?

a. Yes
b. Partially yes
c. No
d. Partially no
131. The delicate way in which the various muscles used in writing work
together to produce written forms is known as;
a. Motor coordination
b. Calligraphy
c. Holographic writing
d. automatic expression

132. It is a grass used by Egyptian as a writing surface more than 4000 years
ago.
a. Mulberry c. Papyrus
b. Reeds d. pulp

133. Who made the first paper out of mulberry tree more than 2000 years ago?
a. Egyptian c. French
b. Chinese d. Spanish

134. The consistent variation in width due to the variation in pressure of

fine and delicate lines is more specifically referred to as;
a. Pen pressure c. Pen emphasis
b. Shading d. unconscious emphasis

135. It is the visible records in the written stroke of the basic movement
and manner of holding the writing instrument. It is the overall character
of the written strokes from initial to the terminal.
a. Line Quality c. Rhythm
b. Writing Skill d. Tremor

136. Secret ink is used by spy organizations in sending messages. It is use

to write secret notes or codes. Early secret inks or writing fluids used
one of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Urine c. lemon juice
b. Milk d. indelible ink

137. Transmitted light photography is useful in the examination of, EXCEPT:

a. Watermarks
b. Determining the identity or the difference in papers by showing
arrangement of the fibers and the markings of the wire gauge and
dandy roll
c. Showing continuity of strokes; determining retouching or patching
of a writing by showing clearly presence of added ink film and the
uneven distribution of ink in interrupted strokes
d. Showing sequences of cross lines or showing writing across a fold
preceded or followed the folding of a paper.

138. Mr. D, manufactured several pieces of vintage coin. What was the crime
committed?
a. Counterfeiting coins c. Mutilation of coins
b. Forgery
d. Falsification

139. It is useful in showing condition of writing in three dimensional

enlargements and is useful in showing sequences of cross lines or showing
writing across a fold preceded or followed the folding of a paper.
a. Transmitted light c. Overall photography
photography d. Environmental
b. Stereographic Photography
photomicrograph

140. Which of the following when committed constitute forgery?

a. By giving to a treasury or bank note or any instrument payable to
bearer or to order mentioned therein, the appearance of a true and
genuine document.
b. By erasing, substituting, counterfeiting, or altering by any means
the figures, letters, words, or sign contained therein.
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

141. A, B, C, and D are playing cara y cruz, before they throw the coin in
the air would rub the money to the sidewalk thereby diminishing the
intrinsic value of the coin. Is the crime of mutilation committed under
the Revised Penal Code?
a. Yes c. No
b. partially yes d. partially no
142. This is the crime of remaking or manufacturing of coins without any
authority to do so.
a. Counterfeiting coins c. Mutilation of coins
b. Forgery d. Falsification

143. What is the lowest denomination in the present circulation coins series?
a. 10-sentimo c. 5 centavos
b. 1 peso d. 1 centavo

144. What is the highest denomination in the legal tender notes in

circulation?
a. 1000 pesos c. 500 pesos
b. 100 pesos d. 200 pesos

145. What animal is placed at the back of the new 200 peso note?
a. Portrait of former President DiosdadoMacapagal
b. Independence house
c. Oath taking of President Gloria Macapagal-Arroyo
d. Tarsier

146. What is the lowest denomination of the new bank notes or paper bill?
a. 10 c. 20
b. 50 d. 100

147. A, B, C, and D are playing cara y cruz, before they throw the coin in
the air would rub the money to the sidewalk thereby diminishing the
intrinsic value of the coin. What crime was committed if any?
a. Violation of the Revised c. Violation of PD 247
Penal Code
b. Falsification d. Violation of the BSP law

148. Which of the following is considered a document?

a. Deed or agreement
b. Maps and plans
c. Stones which inscriptions are cut or engraved
d. All of the above

149. Refers to a document in existence for more than thirty years since its
execution.
a. Vintage document c. Ancient document
b. Antique document d. Questioned document

150. Which denomination of current legal tenders bears a concealed value?

a. 1000 pesos c. 500 pesos
b. 200 pesos d. all of the above

151. Whose portrait is on the 100 peso note?

a. Benigno Aquino c. Manuel Roxas
b. Emilio Aguinaldo d. Manuel Quezon

152. Which denomination has a predominantly orange color?

a. 20 pesos c. 50 pesos
b. 100 pesos d. 500 pesos

153. What security feature found in all of the denominations of legal tender?
a. Optically variable ink c. Concealed value
b. optically variable d. see – through mark
device

154. It is also referred to as the questioned document examinations.

a. Graphology c. Palmistogy
b. Bibliotic d. None of the above

155. When the image of Pres. Manuel Roxas on a one hundred peso bill is
transformed into that of Manny Pacquiao, is there any violation?
a. Yes. Presidential Decree No. 247 is violated
b. Yes. Article 164 of the Revised Penal Code is violated
c. Yes. Republic Act 265 is violated
d. All of the above

156. He is the founder of the American Society of Questioned Document

Examiners (ASQDE) on September 2, 1942 and became the society's first
president.
a. Albert S. Osborn c. Julius Fischoff
b. Ordway Hilton d. none of them
157. In legal language, it refers to the document examiner’s conclusion. In
court, he may not only express it but demonstrates the reasons for
arriving at his conclusion.
a. Remarks c. Opinion
b. Testimony d. Reasoning

158. In the study handwriting, the movement of the pen toward the writer is
called.
a. Down stroke c. Sidestrokes
b. Backstroke d. None of these

159. An identifying typewriter characteristic which can be eliminated by

cleaning the machine or replacing the ribbon
a. Transitory defect c. Permanent defect
b. Alignment defect d. Defect

160. Which of the following major component of the Polygraph Machine that
provides the Polygraph Examiner a means to determine pulse rater and
questions spacing?
a. Pnuemograph c. Cardiosphymoraph
b. Galvanometer d. Kymograph

161. It is a technical production of the cardio tracing causing minor

secondary pulse wave passing under and beyond the blood pressure cuff.
a. Descending limb c. Diacrotic notch
b. Ascending limb d. Pen and linking system

162. Which of the following focusing adjustment of comparison microscope that

elevate the two (2) stages synchronously for viewing of specimens?
a. Clamping knob c. Focusing knob
b. Elevating knob d. stage tilting knob

163. A major component of Polygraph Machine occupying two upper pens of the
instrument which records the abdominal breathing pattern of respiration
a. Pnuemograph c. Cardiosphymoraph
b. Galvanometer d. Kymograph

164. The accuracy of instrumental detection of deception is dependent upon

the examiner’s ability to diagnose truth or deception by reading and
interpretation of
a. Subject facial c. Subject chart
expression d. subject chart on card
b. subject postural test/number test
reaction

165. In conducting Diphenylamine test examination for purposes of determining

gun powder residue in the hands of the suspect. Which of the following
parts of hands that Paraffin wax shall be applied?
a. Forearm c. Dorsal
b. Palm d. Dermal

166. The standard established by federal court in 1923 and adopted by most
state courts which rejected the admissibility of polygraph due to its lack
of acceptance by the scientific community, but which became the standard
for admissibility of all scientific evidence is in the case of
a. James A. Fry vs. United c. Piccionnonia vs. United
States States
b. Gipson vs. United States d. people of the Phil. Vs.
Honasan

167. Polygraph examination result as a general rule is inadmissible as

evidence in court. The defendant in this case had confessed to a murder
after having been given a polygraph exam. His counsel objected to the
admissibility of the confession because of the fact that the instrument
had been used and also because the defendant had been told by the
investigating officer that you can lie to us but you cannot lie to this
machine. The admission of the subject had met the general conventional
requirements for admissibility. Can this admission or confession be used
against him? Select the best answer;
a. No, because the general rule is that poly exam cannot be used as
evidence
b. May be, because of the objection from the counsel
c. Yes, because at the time of confession, no force, threat,
intimidation, coercion and other violation of his rights were
committed
 d. Yes, because during the interpretation and evaluation, there is a
specific response and he is lying

168. An examination wherein an informal interview of the subject is

undertaken between 20 to 30 minutes
a. Post test interrogation c. Actual interrogation
b. Pre test interrogation d. Lie detector test

169. Which among the following is not a required qualification for a

polygraph examiner?
a. Criminology graduate c. Technical know how
b. Honesty d. Integrity and morals

170. Which among the foregoing is not part in the conduct of a polygraph
examination?
a. Pre-test interview c. Post-test interview
b. Instrumental test d. Psychological test

171. Which among the following is not included in recording the psycho-
physiological response of the subject?
a. PSE / Psychological c. WAT / Word Association
Stress Evaluator Test
b. Use of water therapy d. Polygraph machine

172. A person who is capable of detecting deception with the use of

instrumentation or mechanical device
a. Interrogator c. Medico-legal officer
b. Detective d. Polygraph examiner

173. An invaluable aid in investigation, it refers to the instrumentation

in the detection of crime or a scientific police method
a. Photography c. Lie detector test
b. Chemistry d. Medicine

174. Questions in connecting to the matter under investigation

a. Relevant c. Control
b. Supplementary d. Irrelevant

175. Refers to query having no bearing or weight to the case under

investigation
a. Relevant c. Control
b. Supplementary d. Irrelevant

176. A test usually administered as part of the standard test to draw a

better conclusion
a. Relevant c. Control
b. Supplementary d. Irrelevant

177. This measures, detects and graphically displays voice modulation

a. Word association test c. Truth serum
b. Psychological stress d. Water therapy
evaluator

178. In this example stimulus and non-stimulus words are read to the
subject who in turn is instructed to answer as quickly as possible
a. Word association test c. Truth serum
b. Psychological stress d. Water therapy
evaluator

179. A test conducted wherein the subject is instructed not to produce

verbal response
a. Peak of tension c. Narrative
b. Silent answer d. Guilt complex

180. Using the psychological stress evaluator, a lying subject or when a

person is under stress, the frequencies
a. Tends to disappear c. Increases
b. Rises d. Stops

181. A test undertaken when the subject is not aware of the details of the
offense for which he is under scrutiny
a. Guilt complex c. Peak of tension
b. Silent answer d. Narrative

182. When response and control questions are consistently similar this is
administered
 a. Guilt complex c. Peak of tension
b. Silent answer d. Narrative

183. This test uses hyoscine hydro bromide drug administered

hypodermically which produces a state of delirium
a. Hypnotism d. Administration of truth
b. Narco-analysis serum
c. Narco-synthesis

184. It is based on the maxim “in vino veritas”, meaning in wine there is
truth.
a. Hypnotism
b. Narco-analysis
c. Intoxication with the use of alcoholic beverage
d. Administration of truth serum

185. A subject must have at least how many hours of sleep considered fit
for polygraph examination
a. 5 c. 7
b. 6 d. 8

186. This component drives the chart paper under the recording pen
simultaneously at the rate of 6 to 12 inches per minute
a. Cardiosphygmograph c. Galvanograph
b. Keymograph d. Pneumograph

187. Part of the galvanograph attached to the left fingers of the subject
a. Finger electrode plate c. Rubber convoluted tube
b. Diacritic notch d. Kymograph

188. This component record changes of the subject’s blood pressure and
pulse rate
a. Cardiosphygmograph c. Galvanograph
b. Keymograph d. Pneumograph

189. It records the subject’s skin resistance to a small amount of

electricity
a. Cardiosphygmograph c. Galvanograph
b. Sphygmomanometer d. Pneumograph

190. This component records the changes in the breathing of the subject
a. Cardiosphygmograph c. Galvanograph
b. Sphygmomanometer d. Pneumograph

191. Deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant question
a. Reaction c. Specific response
b. Normal response d. Positive response

192. Chart tracing of subject when irrelevant questions were answered

a. Reaction c. Specific response
b. Normal response d. Positive response

193. Normal time interval for pre-test interview

a. 20 to 30 minutes c. 60 to 90 minutes
b. 30 to 60 minutes d. 90 to 120 minutes

194. The primary objective for post test interview

a. To thank the subject d. To explain polygraph
b. To obtain the confession test procedure
c. To make the subject calm
195. The purpose of pretest interview
a. To prepare subject for c. To make the subject calm
polygraph test d. To explain polygraph
b. To obtain confession test formation

196. Test undertaken when both relevant and control question are similar
in degree and consistency
a. Guilt complex test c. Peak of tension
b. Silent answer d. None of the above

197. Refers to questions to ascertain the subject’s normal pattern of

response
a. Relevant questions c. Supplementary questions
b. Irrelevant questions d. Control questions

198. The number of basic tracings in a modern polygraph

 a. 3 c. 5
b. 4 d. 6

199. The most important single factor in polygraph testing is:

a. Pre-test interview
b. formulation of question
c. Chart interpretation
d. post test interview