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Aits 2223 CRT Ii Jeem Offline

The document is a test for the JEE (Main) 2023 conducted by FIITJEE. It provides general instructions for the test: - The test has 90 total questions across Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics (30 questions each). - Each subject is divided into two sections - Section A contains multiple choice questions and Section B contains numerical questions. - For Section A, each correct answer earns +4 marks and each wrong answer earns -1 mark. For Section B, answers must be rounded to the nearest integer and have the same scoring. The document then provides sample questions from the Physics portion of Section A to illustrate the multiple choice, single answer question format.

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100% found this document useful (1 vote)
123 views15 pages

Aits 2223 CRT Ii Jeem Offline

The document is a test for the JEE (Main) 2023 conducted by FIITJEE. It provides general instructions for the test: - The test has 90 total questions across Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics (30 questions each). - Each subject is divided into two sections - Section A contains multiple choice questions and Section B contains numerical questions. - For Section A, each correct answer earns +4 marks and each wrong answer earns -1 mark. For Section B, answers must be rounded to the nearest integer and have the same scoring. The document then provides sample questions from the Physics portion of Section A to illustrate the multiple choice, single answer question format.

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BHOOMI B
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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FIITJEE

ALL INDIA TEST SERIES


CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – II
JEE (Main)-2023
TEST DATE: 20-01-2023
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 90 questions.

 Each subject (PCM) has 30 questions.

 This question paper contains Three Parts.

 Part-A is Physics, Part-B is Chemistry and Part-C is Mathematics.

 Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.

 Section – A : Attempt all questions.

 Section – B : Do any five questions out of 10 questions.

Section-A (01 – 20, 31 – 50, 61 – 80) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.

Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical based questions. The answer to each
question is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

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AITS-CRT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023 2

Physics PART – A

SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. What is the distance of centre of mass of the combined system as shown in


m
figure from ‘O’. System consists of a uniform sector of mass 2m and radius R,
fixed with a uniform arc of mass m and radius R along the edge of the sector.
(System is making an angle   600 at their common centre)
2m
5R 4R
(A) (B) R
3 3 600

7R
(C) (D) none of these
3 0

2. In the figure shown, all the three bodies 1, 2, 3 can


move. If acceleration of body 1 w.r.t 2 is a r  6 m / s 2 ar
and acceleration of 3 w.r.t ground is a  4 m / s 2 , then
1 2
magnitude of acceleration wedge 2 w.r.t. ground is
(A) 2 m/s2 θ
(B) 0.8 m/s2
(C) 0.4 m/s2 3
a
(D) 1 m/s2

3. A rod of mass m, length L is kept in a vertical plane such that upper y


end is fixed. A force F is applied at bottom as shown. The hinge
reaction in the given position will be : L
   
(A) F  ˆi  mg  ˆj  
(B) mg  ˆj x

F 9F ˆ F
(C) ˆi  mg   ˆj  (D) i  mg(  ˆj)
2 7

4. From a circle of radius a, an isosceles right angled triangle with the hypotenuse as the diameter
of the circle is removed. The distance of the centre of mass of the remaining part from the centre
of the circle is
(   1) a
(A) 3(– 1)a (B)
6
a a
(C) (D)
3(  1) 3(  1)

5. A particle moves from rest at A on the surface of a smooth circular cylinder A


of radius r as shown. At B it leaves the cylinder. The equation relating 
and  is B
(A) 3 sin   2 cos 
r 

(B) 2 sin   3 cos 
(C) 3 sin   2 cos 
(D) 2 sin   3 cos 

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6. 2n identical cubical blocks are kept in a straight line on a horizontal smooth surface. The distance
between the consecutive blocks is same. The blocks 1, 3, 5, …, (2n – 1) are given velocity v to
the right whereas blocks 2, 4, 6, …, 2n are given velocity to the left. All collisions between blocks
are perfect elastic. The total number of collisions that will take place is
1 2 3 4 5 2n–1 2n
(A) n (B) n + 1
n( n  1)
(C) (D) n( n  1)
2
7. The given figure represents an arrangement of potentiometer for
the calculation of internal resistance (r) of the unknown battery (E).
The balance length is 70.0 cm with the key opened and 60.0 cm
with the key closed. R is 132.40. The internal resistance (r) of the
unknown cell will be
(A) 22.1  (B) 113.5 
(C) 154.5  (D) 10 

8. In the circuit shown in figure, V must be


(A) 50 V (B) 80 V
(C) 100 V (D) 1290 V

9. A galvanometer of resistance 50  is connected to a battery of 3 V along with resistance of 2950


 in series. A full scale deflection of 30 divisions is obtained in the galvanometer. In order to
reduce this deflection to 20 divisions, the above series resistance should be
(A) 4450  (B) 5050 
(C) 5550  (D) 6050 

10. Two identical coaxial rings each of radius R are separated by a distance of 3 R. They are
uniformly charged with charges +Q and –Q respectively. The minimum kinetic energy with which
a charged particle (charge +q) should be projected from the centre of the negatively charged ring
along the axis of the rings such that it reaches the centre of the positively charged ring is
Qq 3Qq
(A) (B)
40R 20R
Qq 3Qq
(C) (D)
20R 40R

11. Figure shows a closed dotted surface which intersects a


conducting uncharged sphere. If a positive charge is placed at
the point P, the flux of the electric field through the closed
surface
(A) will remain zero
(B) will become positive
(C) will become negative
(D) data insufficient

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12. A gas is found to be obeyed the law p2V = constant. The initial temperature and volume are T0
and V0. If the gas expands to a volume 3V0, then the final temperature becomes
(A) 3T0 (B) 2T0
T0 T0
(C) (D)
3 2

13. An ideal monoatomic gas is carried around the cycle ABCDA as


shown in the figure. The efficiency of the gas cycle is
4 2
(A) (B)
21 21
4 2
(C) (D)
31 31


14. A magnetic field vector B  B0 ˆj exists in the region a < x < 2a

and vector B   B0 ˆj, in the region 2a < x < 3a, where B0 is a
positive constant. A positive point charge moving with a

velocity vector v  v0 ˆi, where v 0 is a positive constant, enters
the magnetic field at x = a. The trajectory of the charge in this
region can be like

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

15. Two identical circular loops of metal wire are lying on a table without touching each other. Loop A
carries a current which increases with time. In response, the loop B
(A) remains stationary (B) is attracted by the loop A.
(C) is repelled by the loop A. (D) rotates about its CM, with CM fixed.

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16. When an AC source of emf e = e0sin(100t) is connected across a


circuit, the phase difference between the emf e and the current i
in the circuit is observed to be /4, as shown in the diagram. If
the circuit consists possibly R-C or R-L or L-C in series, find the
relationship between the two elements.
(A) R = 1 k, C = 10 F
(B) R = 1 k, C = 1 F
(C) R = 1 k, L = 10 H
(D) R = 1 k, L = 1 H

17. A conducting rod of length 2l is rotating with constant angular speed  


 
about its perpendicular bisector. A uniform magnetic field B exists B
parallel to the axis of rotation. The emf induced between two ends of
the rod is
2 1 2
(A) Bl (B) Bl
2
1
(C) Bl2 (D) zero
8

18. The energy that should be added to an electron, to reduce its de-Broglie wavelengths from
10–10m to 0.5 × 10–10 m, will be
(A) four times the initial energy (B) thrice the initial energy
(C) equal to the initial energy (D) twice the initial energy

19. The wavelength of a certain line in the x-ray spectrum for tungsten (Z = 74) is 200 Å. What would
be the wavelength of the same line for platinum (Z = 78)? The screening constant a is unity.
(A) 179.76 Å (B) 189.76 Å
(C) 289.76 Å (D) 379.76 Å

20. Two radioactive substances X and Y initially contain equal number of nuclei. X has a half life of 1
hour and Y has half life of 2 hours. After two hours the ratio of the activity of X to the activity of Y
will be
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 1 : 1 (D) 2 : 1

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.

21. The circuit has two oppositely connected ideal diodes in parallel. 4
What is the current flowing in the circuit? D1 D2
12V 3 2

22. Find minimum value of mass suspended M for which 1 kg block 1 kg


start toppling. Assume 1 kg block does not slip over smooth 2 kg 2 kg
block. Length of 1 kg block is 4 cm and height is 8 cm. (ground is
smooth).

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23. A body of mass ‘m’ is slowly hauled up a hill by an external


force which is always acting along the surface as shown. F
The coefficient of friction between the body and the surface
m
is   0.5 . If work done by friction and gravity on the body h
are W fr and Wg respectively during the process. Find
W fr
the ratio
Wg
l  4h

24. A spring mass system arrangement in vertical plane is as shown. Initially


springs are in natural length and blocks A & B are resting on the ground.
Determine the minimum mass (in kg) of block C so that block A leaves
contact with the ground after releasing block C. (Take m = 10 kg) 3K
m0
K C
A m 3m B

25. Inclined surface of a smooth wedge of mass 6 kg makes an angle of 60°


with horizontal as shown. A ball hits the wedge horizontally and elastically
with a velocity of 40 m/s and moves vertically with respect to ground after
the collision. Find the mass (in kg) of the ball if the wedge can also move
on the smooth floor.

26. The peak power consumed by a resistive coil when connected to an AC source is 80 W. Find the
energy consumed by the coil is 100 seconds which is many times larger than the time period of
the source. (in kJ)

27. In YDSE experiment if the screen is shifted by a distance of 0.5 m away from the slit, 3rd maxima
is shifted by 3  10-4 m. If the slit width is 2  10-4m, find the wavelength used in the experiment
(in nm).

28. When the voltage applied to an X-ray tube is increased from 10 kV to 20 kV the wavelength
interval between the K line and the short wave cut off of the continuous X-ray spectrum
increases by a factor 3. Find the atomic number of element of which the tube anti-cathode is
made. (Rydberg’s constant = 107 m–1)

29. A bus is moving towards a huge wall with a velocity of 5 m/s. the driver sounds a horn of
frequency 200 Hz. What is the frequency of beats heards by a passenger of the bus, if the speed
of sound in air is 330 m/s.

30. A capacitor of capacitance 2 F is charged to a potential difference of 5


V. Now, the charging battery is disconnected and the capacitor is
connected in parallel to a resistor of 5  and another unknown resistor
of resistance R as shown in figure. If the total heat proudced in 5 
resistance is 10 J, then the unkonwn resistance R is equal to 10/n.
Find the value of n.

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Chemistry PART – B

SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

31. Which of the following graphs depicts correctly the variation of photoelectric current i, with the
intensity, I, of incident radiation?
(A) (B)

i i

l l
(C) (D)

i i

l l

32. Which is the correct order of dipole moments of the compounds


NO2 Cl CH3

(I) (II) (III)

OH Cl CH3
(A) I > II > III (B) II > I > III
(C) III > I > II (D) III > II > I

33. The compressibility factor of helium as a real gas is


a
(A) unity (B) 1 
RTV
Pb RTV
(C) 1  (D)
RT 1 a

34. 20 ml of a solution containing Na2CO3 and NaHCO3 requires 10 ml of 0.1 N H2SO4 for
neutralization using phenolphthalein as an indicator. Methyl orange is then added when a further
10 ml of 0.2 N H2SO4 is required. Molar concentration of Na2CO3 and NaHCO3 in the solution
respectively are
(A) 0.05 M and 0.05 M (B) 0.1 M and 0.05 M
(C) 0.05 M and 0.10 M (D) 0.1 Mj and 0.1 M

35. Time required for 99.9% completion of a first order reaction is nearly
(A) 10 times that required for 25% of the reaction
(B) 10 times that required for 50% of the reaction
(C) 20 times that required for 50% of the reaction
(D) 100 times that required for 90% of the reaction

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36. A 1.0 M with respect to each of metal halides AX3, BX2, CX3 and DX2 is electrolysed using
platinum electrodes. If E ºA 3 A  1.50 V,EBº 2 B  0.34,E Cº 3 C  0.74V EDº 2 D  2.37V, the correct
sequence in which the various metals are deposited at the cathode, is:
(A) A, B, C, D (B) D, C, B, A
(C) A, B, C (D) C, B, A

O2N a b NO2

37. 2, 4, 6– Trinitroiodobenzene has three C–N bonds labelled as a, b and c. The


c
NO2
correct bond length of three bonds is
(A) a = b = c (B) a > b > c
(C) a = b > c (D) a = b < c

38. Which of the following ion is formed in the following reaction?


H
OH 
O
(A) (B) +

+
OH2
OH
(C) +
(D) All the three
CH2

OH

39. O O OH COOH


OH
 

The above reaction is an example of


(A) Baeyer – Villiger rearrangement (B) Benzilic acid rearrangement
(C) Cannizzaro reaction (D) Pinacol – pinacolone rearrangement

40. Oxide which can not be a reducing agent is


(A) NO2 (B) CO2
(C) ClO2 (D) SO2

41. The number of S – S bonds in sulphur trioxide trimer (S3O9) is


(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 1 (D) 0

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42. The number of geometrical isomers for octahedral [Co(NH3)2Cl4]–,square planar AuCl2Br2– and
2+
[Co(No2) (NH3)5] are
(A) 2, 2, 2 (B) 2, 2, no isomerism
(C) 3, 2, 2 (D) 2, 3, no isomerism

43. For the correct assignment of electronic configuration of a complex, the valence bond theory
often requires the measurement of
(A) molar conductance (B) optical activity
(C) magnetic moment (D) dipole moment

44. Which of the following pairs can be distinguished by Fehling’s solution?


(A) Glucose and fructose (B) Glucose and sucrose
(C) Methanal and ethanal (D) Hydroxypropanone and benzaldehyde
45. Me H Me

Me
H
Hydrogenation of the above compound in the presence of poisoned palladium catalyst gives
(A) an optically active compound (B) an optically inactive compound
(C) a racemic mixture (D) a diastereomeric mixture

46.
 2 2
i H O
 ii Heat  Pr oduct P is


CH3 N(CH3)2

(A) (B)

N
CH3 CH3

(C) (D)

47. Which of the following is least stable?


O O
O

I II III
(A) I (B) II
(C) III (D) All are equally stable

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AITS-CRT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023 10

48. A mixture of CH4, N2 and O2 is enclosed in a container of 1 litre capacity at 0ºC. Total pressure of
gaseous mixture is 2660 mm Hg. If the ratio of partial pressure of the gases is 1 : 4 : 2
respectively, the number of moles of oxygen present in the vessel is:
1
(A) (B) 1.0
22.4
(C) 0.1 (D) None of these

49. CH3 CH3


H H H H

H 3C CH3 H3 C H
H CH3
(I) (II)
(A) Conformational isomers (B) Stereoisomers
(C) Constitutional isomers (D) Identical

50. In zone refining method the molten zone


(A) moves to either side
(B) contains the purified metal only
(C) contains more impurity than the original metal
(D) consists of impurities only

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.

51. Consider the reaction: AB2 g  AB g  B g . If the initial pressure of AB2 is 500 torr and
equilibrium pressure is 600 torr, equilibrium constant Kp in terms of torr is

52. Reductive ozonolysis of a terpenoid of following structure gives how many

different products

53. For H2SO4, Kal = infinite and Ka2 = 1.2  10–2. The molarity of H2SO4 solution of pH 2.0 is ‘xM’.
The value of ‘1000000x’ is

54. In how many of the following compound ‘d’ orbital (which contains no nodal plane) is used in
hybridisation of central atom/ions?
3
Fe  CO 5 , MnO4 Co  C2 O4 3
2
NiCl2 PPh3  PtCl42 Ni  CN 4
4
Ni  CN4

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H3C
55. The number of monohalogenated alkanes formed by the reaction of CH CH3 with Cl2 in
H3C
presence of light is

56. Iron forms a series of compounds of the type Fex(CO)y. In air, they are oxidised to Fe2O3 and CO2
gas. After heating a 0.142 g sample in air, you isolate the CO2 in a 1.50 L flask at 25ºC. The
y
pressure of the gas is 44.9 mm Hg. What will be the value of in the simplest empirical.
x

57. The edge length of the unit of LiCl (NaCl like structure) is 520 pm. Assuming that the lithium ion is
small enough that the chloride ions are in contact, the ionic radius of chloride ion (in pm) is
 1 
  0.7 
 2 

58. A certain metal ‘M’ forms an insoluble oxalate complex M4O3(C2O4)3. 12H2O. If 3.2 g of the
complex is formed from 1 g of oxalic acid, what is the atomic mass of M?

59. For the reaction R – X + OH–  R – OH + X– the rate of reaction is given as, rate = 4.7  10–5
[R–X][OH–] + 0.24  10–5 [RX] what percentage of R – X react by SN2 mechanism when [OH–] =
0.001 molar.

60. Find the sum of optically active isomers of both [Pt(gly)2Cl2] and [Co(en)2Cl2].

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AITS-CRT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023 12

Mathematics PART – C

SECTION – A
(Single Choice Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

x 2 y 1 z 3
61. The angle between the line   and the plane 3x + 6y – 2z + 5 = 0 is
2 1 2
–1  4 –1  4
(A) cos   (B) sin   
 21   21 
–1  6  –1  4
(C) sin   (D) sin  
 21   21 

x2
1
62. The slope of the tangent to the curve y = cos 1 t 2 dt at x =
 is
x
(2)1/ 4
(A) 0 (B) /2
1/ 4 1/ 4
(C) 
8


1 
 (D) 
8


1 

 3 4   6 4 
 

63. Area bounded by f(x) = max.{sinx, cosx}; 0  x  /2, x = /2 and the coordinate axes is equal to
(A) 2 sq. units (B) 2 sq. units
1
(C) sq. units (D) None of these
2
64. The co-efficient of x7 in the expansion of (1 – x4) (1 +x)9 is
(A) 27 (B) –24
(C) 48 (D) –48

65. The chords of contact of the pair of tangents drawn from each point on the line
2x + y = 4 to the circle x 2 + y2 =1 pass through fixed point
 1 1
(A) (2 , 4) (B)   ,  
 2 4
 1 1
(C)  ,  (D) ( -2, -4)
2 4

66. The equation of the line through the intersection of the lines 2x + 3y + 4 = 0 and
2 2
6x – 3y + 12 = 0 and normal to the circle x + y – 4x – 12 = 0, is
(A) x = y (B) x = 0
(C) y = 0 (D) None of these

dy y sin 2 x
67. The solution of the differential equation x   is given by
dx 2 2y
2 2 2 2
(A) xy = cos x+ c (B) xy = sin x+ c
(C) yx2= cos2x+c (D) None of these

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a x
 ax 
2
a x
 a x 
2
1
68. If a, b, c > 0 and x, y, z  R, then the determinant b y
b y 2
 b y
b y 2
 1 is equal to
c z
 c z 
2
c z
 cz 
2
1
(A) ax + by + cz (B) a-x b–y c-z
2x 2y 2z
(C) a b c (D) 0


 3 
69.   x dx is equal to ([.] denotes the greatest integer function)
0
2
 1
(A) 2 (B) 2 +1
(C) 3/ 2 (D) infinite

ln x
70. The value of  dx is
(1  ln x ) 2
x x ln x
(A) c (B) c
1  ln x 1  ln x
x ln x
(C) c (D) c
(1  ln x ) x(1  ln x )

71. Domain of log1/2log4log3[( x - 4)2] is, [.] denotes the integer function .
(A) (-  , 2]  [ 6, ) (B) (-  , 2]  [ 6, 8)
(C) (2, 6) (D) [ 2, 6]

72. PQ is a vertical pole with end P on level ground. R is the mid–point of PQ. At a point A on the
level ground, the portion QR subtends an angle  at A. If AP = nPQ, then tan =
n n
(A) 2
(B) 2
2n  1 n 1
n
(C) 2 (D) None of these
n 1

73. The line lx + my + n = 0 will be a normal to the hyperbola b2x2 – a2y2 = a2b2 if

(A)
a2 b2
 =

a2  b2  2

(B)
a2 b2
 =
a2  b2  
2

l 2 m2 n2 l 2 m2 n2

(C)
a2 b2
 =

a2  b2  2

(D) None of these


l 2 m2 n2
2
74. The coordinates of the point on the parabola y = x + 7x +2, which is nearest to the straight line
y = 3x – 3 are
(A) (-2, -8) (B) (1, 10)
(C) (2, 20) (D) (-1, -4)

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75. If AFB is a focal chord of the parabola y2 = 4ax and AF = 4, FB = 5, then the latus-rectum of the
parabola is equal to
80 9
(A) (B)
9 80
(C) 9 (D) 80


n
76.  4n
n 1
4
1
equals to

(A) 2 (B) 1
(C)  (D) 1/4

1 1 1
77. If S denote the sum to infinity and Sn the sum of n terms of the series 1     ... such
3 9 27
1
that S – Sn < , then the least value of n is
300
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 7

78. The set of values of ‘a’ for which the equation x3 – 3x + a has three distinct real roots, is
(A) (-,  ) (B) (-2, 2)
(C) (-1, 1) (D) none of these

79. If the line y = 3 x cuts the curve x4 + ax2y + bxy + cx + dy + 6 = 0 at A, B, C and D, then
OA.OB.OC.OD ( where O is the origin) is
(A) a – 2b +c (B) 2c2d
(C) 96 (D) 6

80. The equation of plane perpendicular to 2x + 6y + 6z – 1 = 0 and passing through the points
(2, 2, 1) and (9, 3, 6) is
(A) 3x + 4y + 5z + 9 = 0 (B) 3x + 4y – 5z + 9 = 0
(C) 3x + 4y – 5z – 9 = 0 (D) 3x + 4y + 5z – 9 = 0

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.

x6 y2 z2 x4 y z 1


81. Shortest distance between lines   and   is
1 2 2 3 2 2
3 2
82. The number of solutions of the equation x + 2x + 5x + 2cosx = 0 in [0, 2] is

83. If the second, third and fourth terms in the expansion of (a+ b)n are 135, 30 and 10/3 respectively,
then n =

84. If the equation |z – z1|2 + | z – z2|2 = k represents the equation of a circle, where z1  2+ 3i, z2  4
+ 3i are the extremities of a diameter, then the value of k is
2 2
85. The sum of the distances of any point on the ellipse 3x + 4y = 12 from its directrix is

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15 AITS-CRT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2023

86. Given that g(x) is a function satisfying g(x + y) = g(x) g(y)  x, y  N and g(1) = 3, the value of
4

 g x  is equal to
x 1

  1  
87. Given a function f(x) continuous  x R such that lim f x   log 1    logf x  = 0, then
f x 
x 0
  e  
f(0) is

88. Let S be the set of 6-digit numbers a1a2a3a4a5a6 (all digits distinct)
where a1 > a2 > a3 > a4 < a5 < a6. Then n(S) is equal to

89. Six identical coins are arranged in a row. The number of ways in which the number of tails is
equal to number of heads is

90. Entries of a 2  2 determinant are chosen from the set {−1, 1}. The probability that determinant
1
has zero value is then  is

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