GEOTEKNIKA SURVEYING AND MAPPING SERVICES
A Subsidiary of J.A.R. MANALOTO & ASSOCIATES
(Geodetic/Civil/Sanitary/Structural & Geotechnical Engineering Consultants)
Real Estate Broker / Land Surveyor / Environmental Planner
SIMULATED PROBLEMS FOR ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
For September 2009 S.E. Licensure Examinations
Prepared by: J.A.R. MANALOTO
MASCE.,MACI.,MGEP.,MPICE.,MPIEP.,MPSSE.,MPSPE.,MASE.,MNAMPAP.,MREBAP.,MUPAE
The use of these materials is only allowed for those reviewees handled by Engr. J.A.R. MANALOTO
and or any authorized reviewers of J.A.R. MANALOTO & ASSOCIATES. Any other use should be with
expressed permission of the Author. All rights reserved.
1.) Republic Act 9003, otherwise known as the National Ecological Solid Waste Management
Program seeks to:
a. Promote public health and environmental protection.
b. Encourage greater private sector participation while retaining the primary enforcement and
responsibility with the LGU’s.
c. Mandates all LGU’s to divert at least 25% of all solid wastes from disposal facilities through
reuse, recycling, composting and other resource recovery activities.
d. a & c only
e. All of the above
2.) Under R.A. 9003, LGU’s are required to divert at least 25% of their solid wastes from existing
disposal facilities within a period of:
a. 10 years
b. 2 years
c. 5 years
d. one year
from the effectivity of the law.
3.) At the National Level, R.A. 9003 mandates the creation of the National Solid Waste Management
Commission under the office of the:
a. President
b. DENR
c. DILG
d. NEDA
e. EMB
4.) The National Solid Waste Management Framework shall be formulated and shall include the
following:
a. Analysis and evaluation of the current state, trends, projections of solid waste management
on the national, provincial and municipal levels.
b. Identification of critical solid waste facilities.
c. Characteristics and conditions of collection, storage, processing, disposal, operating methods,
techniques and practices, location of facilities where such operating methods, techniques and
practices are conducted, taking into account the nature of the waste.
d. Proposed sites for sanitary landfill
e. All of the above
f. a to c only
5.) It refers to the discipline associated with the control of generation, storage, collection, transfer
and transport, processing, and disposal of solid wastes in a manner that is in accord with the
best principles of public health, economics, engineering, conservation, aesthetics, and other
environmental considerations, and that is also responsive to public attitudes.
a. Environmental Impact Assessment
b. Development Planning
c. Waste segregation
d. Solid Waste Management
6.) The Local Government Solid Waste Management Plan shall include, but not limited, to the
following components:
a. City or municipal profile
b. Waste characterization
c. Collection and transfer
d. Source reduction
e. All of the above
f. b to d only
7.) Article 2, Section 21 of R.A. 9003 provides for the mandatory segregation of solid wastes,
specifically the LGU’s shall promulgate regulations, requiring the owner or person in charge of
premises containing:
a. Five residential units
b. Six residential units
c. Six or more residential units
d. At least ten residential units
to provide for residents as designated area and containers in which to accumulate source
separated recyclable materials to be collected by the municipal or private center.
8.) The following are the minimum criteria for the siting of sanitary landfills:
a. The site selected must be consistent with the overall land use plan of the LGU.
b. The site must be accessible from major roadways or thoroughfares.
c. The site should have an adequate quantity of earth cover material that is easily handled and
compacted.
d. The site should be large enough to accommodate the community’s wastes for a period of ten
(10) years during which people must internalize the value of environmentally sound and
sustainable solid waste disposal.
e. All of the above
f. All except d
9.) Guidelines for identification of common solid waste management problems and are appropriate
for clustered solid waste management services shall be based on the following:
a. Preference of political leaders.
b. Size and location of areas which should be included.
c. Volume of solid waste which would be generated.
d. Available means of coordinating local government planning between and among the LGU’s
and for the integration of such with national plan.
e. Possible life span of the disposal facilities.
f. a to e
g. b to e
10.) The LGU shall impose fees in amounts sufficient to pay the costs of preparing, adopting, and
implementing a solid waste management plan. Such fees shall be based on the following
minimum factors:
a. Types of solid waste
b. Amount/volume of solid waste
c. Distance of transfer station to the waste management facility
d. Capacity to pay
e. a, b, c, d
f. a to c
11.) The Law that provides for the establishment and management of the National Integrated
Protected Areas System is
a. R.A. 8749
b. R.A. 7586
c. R.A. 7279
d. R.A. 9275
e. R.A. 8435
f. R.A. 8560
12.) R.A. 8435 or the Agriculture and Fishery Modernization Act (AFMA) of 1997 strives to provide full
and adequate support to the sustainable development of a highly modernized agriculture and
fishery industry in the Philippines. Under the AFMA, one of the following has been de-prioritized
a. Identification and establishment of model farms
b. On-farm production enhancement technologies
c. Small-scale irrigation system
d. Research, development & training facilities
13.) PD 1586 established the
a. The practice of the Profession of Environmental Planning
b. The Environmental Protection and Management System in the Philippines
c. The Environmental Impact Assessment System in the Philippines
d. The Environmental Science and Research System in the Philippines
e. The Environmental Impact Fund System in the Philippines
f. The Environmental Impact Statement System in the Philippines
14.) It is a section in the EIS that details the prevention, mitigation, compensation, contingency and
monitoring measures to enhance positive impacts and minimize negative impacts of a proposed
project or undertaking.
a. Environmental Impact Assessment
b. Environmental Management Plan
c. Environmental Risk Assessment
d. Initial Environmental Examination
e. Environmental Impacts
15.) The following are Environmentally Critical Projects except
a. Smelting Plants
b. Fishpond Development Project
c. Intramuros
d. Manila Bay Reclamation
e. San Roque Dam
16.) The following are Environmentally Critical Areas except
a. Tubattaha Reef
b. Boracay Island
c. Laguna Lake
d. University Belt
e. Baguio City
17.) Water bodies can be characterized as ECA’s if they have the following conditions:
i. Utilized for water-based recreational activities
ii. Tapped for domestic purposes
iii. Have underground caves
iv. Within the controlled and/or protected areas declared by appropriate authorities
v. Which support wildlife and fishery activities
a. i, ii, iii
b. ii, iii & iv
c. ii, iv & v
d. i, iv & v
e. None of the above
18.) The first three steps, in their order, in the conduct of Environmental Impact Assessment are:
i. Identification and Assessment of Mitigating Measures
ii. Scoping
iii. Post Auditing and Monitoring
iv. Site Characterization and Prediction of Impacts
v. Review of Submitted EIS
a. i, ii & iii
b. ii, v & iii
c. iv, v & I
d. v, ii & iv
e. i, ii & iv
19.) After the Evaluation of Impacts and Proposed Alternatives, the next three steps in the EIA
procedures are:
i. Identification and Assessment of Mitigating Measures
ii. Preparation of EIS
iii. Post Auditing and Monitoring
iv. Site Characterization and Prediction of Impacts
v. Review of Submitted EIS
a. i, ii & v
b. ii, v & iii
c. iv, v & I
d. v, ii & iv
e. i, ii & iv
20.) The Study Phase of the EIA, in order, comprise the following:
i. Evaluation of Impacts and Proposed Alternatives
ii. Preparation of EIS
iii. Post Auditing and Monitoring
iv. Identification and Assessment of Mitigating Measures
v. Site Characterization and Prediction of Impacts
a. i, ii & v
b. ii, v & iii
c. iv, v, ii & i
d. v, i, iv & ii
e. i, ii & iv
21.) The Post Study Phase of the EIA, in order, comprise the following:
i. Evaluation of Impacts and Proposed Alternatives
ii. Review of the EIS
iii. Post Auditing and Monitoring
iv. Identification and Assessment of Mitigating Measures
v. Granting of ECC
a. i, ii & v
b. ii, v & iii
c. iv, v, ii & i
d. v, i, iv & ii
e. i, ii & iv
22.) Based on our Common Future, the 1987 Report of the World Commission on Environment (also
known as the Brundtland Commission), it is defined as “ meeting the need of the present
generation without compromising the ability of the future generations to meet their own needs”
a. Equitable Development
b. Efficient Development
c. Sustainable Development
d. Democratic Development
23.) The key actors in sustainable development are:
i. Government
ii. Business
iii. Civil Society
iv. Non-Government Organization (NGO)
a. i, ii, iii
b. ii, iii & v
c. i, ii & iv
d. All of the above
24.) Which of the following is a principle of sustainable development the Philippine Agenda 21 adheres
to:
a. Primacy of applying technology
b. Global cooperation
c. Local cooperation
d. Representative democracy
25.) The essence of sustainable development is the harmonious integration of the following:
i. Sound and viable economy
ii. Responsible economy
iii. Social cohesion/harmony
iv. Ecological integrity
a. i, ii & iii
b. i, ii & iv
c. ii, iii & iv
d. All of the above
26.) This strategy aims to promote greater complementarily between agriculture and industry and
between urban and rural sector
a. Countryside agro-industrial development
b. National council for integrated area development
c. Nationwide agro-industrial area development
d. None of these
27.) An Economic Ratio or Economic Base Multiplier expressed in terms of employment indicates the
total number of jobs created in:
a. A region as a result of a number of jobs created in an industry
b. A set of industries as a result of a number of jobs created in an industry
c. The entire country as a result of a number of jobs created in a region
d. A region as a result of a number of jobs created in the entire industry
28.) Input-Output Analysis describes the flow of goods from
a. The consumers to manufacturers
b. The primary suppliers to manufactures to the consumers
c. An industry is distributed in a region
d. An industry’s exports compares with its import in the region
29.) The standard distance of a commercial activity from an education center should be
a. 15 minutes by public transport
b. 15 minutes by private transport
c. 30 minutes by private transport
d. 60 minutes by private transport
30.) Some of the criteria for grazing lands are:
i. At least seventy (70%) percent of the area must have a slope of not more than fifty (50)
percent
ii. The area should be contagious and not less than 1,000 hectares for economic management
iii. There must be accessible, continuous and adequate supply of water
iv. Solid should be loose, light to medium texture and erosion resistant
v. The area must be free from forest occupancy that may hinder range management
a. i, ii & iii
b. ii, iii & v
c. iii, iv & v
d. iv, v & i
e. i, ii & v
31.) Agriculture comprises the following:
i. Crop production
ii. Livestock and poultry
iii. Fisheries
iv. Grain production
v. Processed food
a. i, ii & iii
b. ii, iii & v
c. iii, iv & v
d. iv, v & i
e. i, ii & v
32.) Some limitations to tourist zone development area:
i. Legal impediment like land acquisition, transfer of rights
ii. Agricultural production situation
iii. Fund constraint
iv. If the development will affect the aesthetic, historical and cultural image of the area and
proposed activities will enhance its existing ambience
v. If development will bring about negative social impact and massive displacement of people,
deprivation of major source of livelihood etc.
a. ii & iii
b. ii, iii & v
c. iii & iv
d. iv, v & i
e. i, iii & v
33.) Based on the hazard and pollution potential, industries, in order from non-pollutive up, are
classified as:
i. Medium industries
ii. Home industries
iii. Light industries
iv. High industries
v. Heavy industries
a. ii & iii
b. ii, iii & v
c. iii, i & v
d. iv, v & i
e. i, iii & v
34.) Some of the modes to implement the Countryside Agro-Industrial Development Strategy are:
h. People’s Industrial Estates (PIE’s)
ii. Strategic Operating Provinces (SOP’s) Project
iii. Danish Rural Development Assistance Program (DRDAP)
iv. Livelihood Enhancement for Agricultural Development (LEAD)
v. Integrated Social Forestry (ISP)
a. ii & iii
b. i, ii, iii & iv
c. ii, iii, iv & v
d. iv, v & i
e. All of the above
35.) Forestlands are generally classified into:
i. Prevention Forests ii. Production Forests iii. Black Forests
iv. Protection Forests v. Preservation Forests
a. ii & iii
b. ii & iv
c. iv & v
d. iv, v & i
e. All of the above
36.) If the location quotient of an industry in a region is high, it suggest that
a. The distribution of the industry in the region is very concentrated
b. The distribution of the industry in the region is dispersed
c. The distribution of industry in the region does not deviate much from the distribution of the
other industries
d. The region has larger share of the industry
37.) The rate used to discount the future streams of estimated cost and benefit is known as
a. Social discount rate
b. Inflation rate
c. Financial rate of return
d. Economic internal rate of return
38.) This represents the earning power of money invested in the project
a. Internal rate of return
b. Net present value
c. Annuity
d. Discounting
39.) It is a set of accounts, usually in monetary form, prepared for an economy and widely used in the
analysis of inter-industry relationships.
a. Regional accounts matrix
b. Input-output table
c. Economic base table
d. Location quotient ratio
40.) A ratio that measure output per worker is called
a. Labor intensity
b. Labor productivity
c. Efficiency
d. Labor enhancement
41.) Along with the Network of Protected Areas for Agriculture and Agro-Industrial Development
(NPAAAD), it provides the physical basis for the proper planning of sustainable agriculture and
fishery development and in the identification of suitable crops, livestock and fish that can be
economically grown and commercially developed for local and international markets without
creating irreversible environment and human health problems.
a. Watershed Areas
b. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
c. Integrated Area Development
d. Strategic Agricultural and Fishery Development Zone
42.) The factors for analyzing traditional location theory are:
a. The cost of marketing and advertising
b. The cost of transporting raw materials to the factory and finished good to the market
c. Labor wages
d. All of these
43.) The best measure of the economic worthiness and adaptation of a project as a basis of its
acceptability is:
a. Net present
b. Discounted rate
c. EIRR
d. FIRR
44.) A tool of analysis developed as an effective way of choosing between alternative planning options
by ensuring the optimum allocation of available resources and maximum welfare to the
community is:
a. Cost-benefit analysis
b. Linear programming
c. Shift-share analysis
d. Sensitivity analysis
45.) Making degraded land productive again by doing such things as stopping soil erosion and
allowing the land once again to produce food or wood for fuel and timber.
a. renewal
b. rehabilitation
c. replacement
d. active restoration
46.) The size fluctuates with no apparent pattern.
a. stable
b. irruptive
c. cyclic
d. irregular
47.) One is not included in the key features of natural ecosystems.
a. predictability
b. interdependence
c. resilience
d. diversity
48.) This pattern is exhibited because resources and other environmental conditions are fairly
uniform throughout a habitat.
a. clumped
b. randomly dispersed
c. uniformly dispersed
d. none of these
49.) The survivorship curve exhibited by lizards.
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. None of these
50.) The survivorship curve exhibited by humans.
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. None of these
51.) Is the process by which human activity breaks natural ecosystems into smaller and smaller
pieces of land.
a. corridors
b. habitat fragments
c. habitat islands
d. all of these
52.) Long areas of land that connect habitat that would otherwise become fragmented.
a. corridors
b. habitat fragments
c. habitat islands
d. all of these
53.) The environmentalist who advice us to focus on “Global CPR”.
a. E.O. Wilson
b. P.H. Schindler
c. David Browner
d. Wendell Berry
54.) One is not included in the types of restoration.
a. reconstruction
b. rehabilitation
c. active restoration
d. replacement
55.) Which of the given pair is mismatched?
a. grasshopper – r-strategist
b. dandelious – Type III curve
c. rain forest tree – K-strategist
d. songbird – Type I curve
56.) Devoted primarily to the manipulation of the population sizes of various animal species
a. conservation biology
b. ecological integrity
c. wildlife management
d. bioinformatics
57.) Toxin due to a poison ivy is under what hazard?
a. cultural
b. biological
c. physical
d. chemical
58.) The LD50 uses a test population to be subjected within how many weeks?
a. 1 ½
b. 2
c. 2 ½
d. 3
59.) A chemical is considered hazardous because of the following characteristics except for
a. flammability
b. corrosivity
c. potability
d. asphyxiant
60.) Thalidomide is considered as a __________.
a. hazardous
b. teratogens
c. carcinogens
d. mutagens
61.) Is a chemical that has an LD50 of 50 mg or less per kilogram of body weight.
a. poison
b. drug
c. carcinogens
d. vitamin
62.) Are found in the immune system
a. antibodies
b. peripheral nerves
c. hormones
d. estrogens
63.) The following belong to the chlorinated hydrocarbons that attack neurons except for
a. DDT
b. PCB’s
c. Dioxins
d. TCE
64.) Protect the body against disease and harmful substances
a. endocrine system
b. immune system
c. nervous system
d. none of the above
65.) Control of sexual reproduction, growth, development, and behavior in humans.
a. endocrine system
b. immune system
c. nervous system
d. none of the above
66.) The following are hormone disrupters except for
a. dioxins
b. lead
c. PBB’s
d. Mercury
67.) The factors whereby results of an exposure to a chemical depends are the following except
a. dosage
b. health
c. response
d. exposure
68.) Concentration of toxins increase as they travel up the food chain
a. bioaccumulation
b. biomagnification
c. biointeraction
d. toxicology
69.) When another chemical enhances the effects of the first chemical
a. syndicated interaction
b. antagonistic interaction
c. synergetic interaction
d. biomagnification
70.) Toxicity of chemicals is determined by the following except
a. morbidity report
b. laboratory investigation
c. case report
d. epidemiology
71.) Involves studies of populations of humans exposed to certain chemicals or diseases
a. morbidity report
b. laboratory investigation
c. case report
d. epidemiology
72.) EIA is important because it
a. measures resource allocation and utilization in terms of cost associated with the
environmental conservation
b. serves as basis for decision-makers
c. serves a planning tool for rational allocation of resources
d. gives prestige to consultants
73.) When properly implemented, the EIS system gives the following benefit except
a. increased population
b. greater economic productivity
c. improvement of public participation to enhance project effects on affected communities
d. improvement of decision-making process
74.) All of the following are characteristics of EIS except
a. predictive
b. conclusive
c. descriptive
d. comprehensive
75.) The following are considerations prior to preparation of EIS document except
a. identification for permits/licenses required
b. identification of environmental impacts
c. identification of government agencies to be consulted
d. identification of different requirements needed to get project approval
76.) Identification of environmental impacts can be done through the following procedures except
a. benchmark comparison
b. mathematical model
c. composite maps/overlays
d. risk management
77.) Forest are defined as
a. areas with elevation of more than 100 meters
b. lands with areas not less than one hectare and stocked with tress
c. lands with natural grass cover with few isolated tress
d. small lands utilized for raising plants for domestic livestock
78.) Uplands are
a. areas with elevation of more than 100 meters
b. lands with areas not less than one hectare and stocked with tress
c. lands with natural grass cover with few isolated tress
d. small lands utilized for raising plants for domestic livestock
79.) Pasture lands are
a. areas with elevation of more than 100 meters
b. lands with areas not less than one hectare and stocked with tress
c. lands with natural grass cover with few isolated tress
d. small lands utilized for raising plants for domestic livestock
80.) The diverse natural communities of plants in a forest refers to
a. fauna
b. flora
c. grazing land
d. uplands
81.) All of the following are environmental issues in forest except
a. rapid deforestation caused by commercial timber harvesting
b. agriculture and human settlement expansion
c. overuse/abuse of agricultural chemical inputs
d. kaingin farming and firewood collection
82.) The coastal ecosystem includes the following except
a. mangrove forest
b. Pasig river
c. tidal flats
d. coral reefs
83.) The following are ways to measure the cost of pollution except
a. loss of resources through unnecessary wasteful exploitation
b. cost of pollution abatement and control
c. the cost in human health
d. all of the above
84.) The following emission may significantly contribute to global warming
a. sulfur dioxide
b. nitrogen oxides
c. carbon dioxide
d. none of the above
85.) The following could have caused by cultural eutrophication except
a. algal bloom
b. volcanic eruption
c. red tide
d. none of the above
86.) The major source of air pollution in Metro Manila
a. Industrial plants
b. Motor vehicles
c. Households/domestic activities
d. Power plants
87.) All of the following are freshwater ecosystem except
a. Manila Bay
b. Laguna de Bay
c. Pasig river
d. Marikina river
88.) The Philippine Environmental Policy is
a. PD 1151
b. PD 1152
c. PD 825
d. PD 1586
89.) The following activities contribute to degradation of freshwater ecosystem except
a. rapid industrialization
b. decrease bio-diversity
c. developments in agriculture
d. increasing population
90.) The environmental issues facing the urban areas include the following except
a. municipal waste disposal
b. hazardous and toxic waste disposal
c. flooding
d. volcanic eruption
91.) The Philippine Environmental Code is
a. PD 1151
b. PD 1152
c. PD 825
d. PD 1586
92.) Under R.A. 8749 otherwise known as the Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999. The State shall pursue
a policy of balancing development and environmental protection. To achieve this end, the framework
for sustainable development shall be pursued. It shall be the policy of the State to:
i. Formulate a holistic national program of air pollution management that shall be
implemented by the government through proper delegation and effective coordination of functions and
activities.
ii. Encourage cooperation and self-regulation among citizens and industries through the
application of market-based instruments.
iii. Focus primarily on pollution prevention rather than on control and provide for a
comprehensive management program for air pollution.
iv. Promote public information and education and to encourage the participation of an
informed and active public in air quality planning and monitoring.
v. Formulate and enforce a system of accountability for short and long-term adverse
environmental impact of a project, program or activity. This shall include the setting up of a funding
or guarantee mechanism for cleanup and environmental rehabilitation and compensation for personal
damages.
a. i, ii, iv
b. i, iv, v, ii
c. v, iii, iv, i
d. ii, v, i, iii
e. v, i, iii, iv, ii
93.) Under the declaration of principles of R.A. 8749, the State shall, except:
i. protect advance the right of the people to a balanced and healthful ecology in accord with
the rhythm and harmony of nature.
ii. promote and protect the global environment to attain sustainable development while
recognizing the primary responsibility of the local government units to deal with environmental
problems.
iii. focus primarily on pollution prevention rather than on control and provide for a
comprehensive management program for air pollution.
iv. recognizes that the responsibility of cleaning the habitat and environment is primarily
area-based.
v. recognizes the principle that “polluters must pay”.
vi. recognizes that a clean and healthy environment is for the good of all and should therefore
be the concern of all.
a. i
b. ii
c. iii
d. iv
e. v, iii
94.) Pursuant to the declared principles under R.A. 8749, the following rights of citizens are hereby
sought to be recognized and the State shall seek to guarantee their enjoyment except:
i. the right to breathe clean air.
ii. the right to utilize and enjoy all natural resources according to the principle of sustainable
development.
iii.the right to participate in the formulation, planning, implementation and monitoring of
environmental policies and programs and in the decision-making process.
iv. the right to participate in the decision-making process concerning development policies,
plans and programs projects or activities that may have adverse impact on the environment and
public health.
v. the right of access to public records which a citizen may need to exercise his or her rights
effectively under this Act.
a. v
b. iii
c. ii, i
d. iv
e. None of the above
95.) Integrated Air Quality Improvement – The Department of Environment and Natural Resources
shall within ______ months after the effectivity of R.A. 8749, establish, with the participation of the
LGU’s, NGO’s, PO’s, the academe and other concerned entities from the private sector, formulate and
implement the Integrated Air Quality Improvement Framework for a comprehensive air pollution
management and control program.
a. 5
b. 6
c. 10
d. 8
e. 7
96.) Under R.A. 8749, any imported new or locally-assembled new motor vehicle shall not be
registered unless it complies with the emission standards set pursuant to this Act, as evidenced by a
____________ issued by the D.E.N.R.
a. ECC (Environmental Compliance Certificate)
b. COC (Certificate of Conformity)
c. IEE (Initial Environment Examination)
d. EIA (Environmental Impact Assessment)
e. VCT (Vehicle Certificate of Title)
97.) What government agency is authorized to regularly monitor meteorological factors affecting
environmental conditions including ozone depletion and greenhouse gases and coordinate with the
Department in order to effective guide air pollution monitoring and standard-setting activities.
a. EMB (Environmental Management Bureau)
b. PHIVOLCS (Philippine Volcanology and Seismology)
c. PAGASA (Philippine Atmospheric, Geophysical and Astronomical Service Administration)
d. NPC (National Pollution Commission)
e. LCP (Lung Center of the Philippines)
98.) For actual exceedance under R.A. 8749 of any pollution or air quality standards or its rules and
regulations, the D.E.N.R., through the Pollution Adjudication Board (PAB), shall impose a fine of not
more than ________ for every day violation against the owner or operator of a stationary source until
such a time that the standards have been complied with.
a. P50,000.00
b. P100,000.00
c. P150,000.00
d. P25,000.00
99.) Under DAO No. 96-37, Section 60 provides that violations under the EIS System are classified as
follows except:
a. Projects which are established and/or operating without ECC
b. Projects violating ECC conditions, EMP or Rules and Regulations
c. Misrepresentations in the IEE/EIS or other documents
d. Projects that submitted EIS but operating using LGU’s clearance.
100.) The proponent shall prepare a process documentation report on the public consultation, public
hearing, alternative dispute or conflict resolution processes used, which report shall be validated by
the EMB/EMPAS through appropriate means. Such process documentation shall constitute part of
the records of the EIS process. A copy of said report shall be transmitted to the PENRO/CENRO
within _____ days from the end of the public hearing/consultation and shall, upon request, be made
available by the PENRO/CENRO to all stakeholders and other interested parties. Copies of the report
shall be considered as public documents.
a. 5 days
b. 10 days
c. 7 days
d. 15 days
e. 12 days
____________________________________________________________________________________________________
In all pursuits the most important thing that we have and can control is our attitude and
mindset affirmed in our trust of ourselves and our Creator.
Be always inspired and challenged.
In time we will be what we envisioned ourselves to be in God’s will
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