‘C.D.S. EXAM (1) - 2023 Wa we srrat ag wien yfera Gtea at a aE ome qa ae a Utd Gata. : INBY-D-GNL uta gfe aga wa ten udtaror yfeacet 1227769 ara FT ara: ave quite : 100 10. aqyea ta en eet en oma pe warn yr oA Ogawa wh A eT, we er WT WAU Be sree weit one 1 aA ef, FA efter Glee A ee Bere oars FR OM eer afer eas edt sear fhe her Ye SIEM A, B Cm Dw ema a 1 fer fare sa fein & wet othe ewe ea A rte settee oh Peat ot se o/h A fae sma Breer ar fear eT! whem yen we A Reem ae oma aren gai evant Bi stam gfe afte gu = fed be thar gfe 120 sea (we9) eee Bi whe weet FR otk tiie Sat A wa Bi wee wei a an weg (ae) fee me 81 SoH & ew aegHE Ga A, FRR a Seer oir eT TEA HL a ore ben GA Fe eR sa eget, at st eget ion ah at em aA er eae fee Bore wes weg GTB Sat re eA) AE ater | AEE Tees Te if A EI Saas F fae me fee Ba wh eis & oe at) Bea aed fare ie rar & fa wei eg Ses wer oT YR SE, ae wae I ATE ita seal & agar ge fea see-waw HA EL Sa re eh meee BY sew Aw are ae lhe 3 I we Beer THR Sethe a af Z1 sae ar waa vita gaat @ a A agai 21 wel am & frm was, tam year % ora Ft deme wera sae & fore eve weghte serait 4 aecheare are fee me erm sat & fre ave feat TET ) Bee es fore are Sefer se 1 setae are wes er fee fee wa; ea Te fee He bg Pe Pre my ote ar e-frerg ave % BY F are eTeT Gi) ae AE ote ew ster see Ben 8, ot eA era Te AT STEM, aR Fee Te suit HA eH aH Ue er, feof sa we & fey aehngan & aah ae ar avs fer TET (6) eae eer et en sn, sre se rs el Fer se ew ewe rem Sa te areal ag fam fer wit Sa wer wre aa we a Get SO ee1. fet mas A area & are Se Aah A toa othe ed nege ten 1 ae Firafaftas # @ Pome ‘tae 8 aie 8? (a) afrew Fa (0) COp () TR a (a) write 2. frat ay ara Ra we Ha a ow oh aia aE sik Ba 2 Pave % fare sacra Ve A cea aT Se are 3 saad estate 4 Frafra fear ara she amnitéa Bra 8 svete fer ven) damn ware, oe ar ifm Gr aT eT? (a) ere oa (ren (a) ae 3. af ara vie A ara afte sr (RBCs) A gag fem aren 8 sik 8 aT wa thet (ote a eevee Fae) F aga Pet ‘men &, at RBCs # en eT? (a) RBCs "Fe ah (o) RBCs yet wth atk Fe STA (0) RBCs fags arth (@) RBCs * aaa 4 aig shades vei JNBY-D-GNL/59A, 4. Te we ara fia & vide 8 Rees AA Sa er wel el 87 (a) Fra fret ares & form wares Be a (o) Fra aarti % etter H aera et Bh () fra area @ a aa ar seta pH @ Serf (neutralize) 4a @! (a fr aa pH A ata wm & ok sarah treet @ fen A gTH SATAT a 5. ATI Ye FI TAR 120/80 mmHg at 218 emt! aa a cai t (ay am: Fora aga ote Fora ia (oy an: From Fania otk fra gee (o) wen: safe aga 3th fe Pat (a) wor: Pra ar sh ate gE 6. aig aft Ph as aEM (cliff) & APA ea sat tok fez 5s 8 ae oA sia gm af tl aR aA A ae 340 m/s %, wh wR a ate A ZO ‘fer 8? (@ 1700 m (6) 170 m () 85m (d) 850 mIh. A sprinter feels cramps and pain in the thigh muscles after a run. This is due to accumulation of (@) lactic acid (&) co, (6) pyruvic acid (@) ethanol WWF A leaf was plucked from a plant on @ sunny day and kept for 2 minutes in boiling water. It was subsequently immersed in boiling alcohol and treated with iodine solution. What will be the final colour of the leaf after the test? (@) Colourless (b) Green () Blue (@) White AB If the red blood cells (RBCs) of human blood are isolated and are diluted in normal saline (an isotonic solution to blood), what will happen to the RBCs? (@) The RBCs will swell () The RBCs will swell and burst (6) The RBCs will shrink (@) No change in the diameters of the RBCs JNBY-D-GNL/59A. i Which one of the following statements regarding bile secreted by liver is not correct? (a) Bile contains enzymes for digestion of lipids. (®) Bile facilitates emulsification of fats. (¢) Bile neutralizes the acidic pH of the food coming from stomach. (4) Bile makes the pH of the food alkaline and facilitates action of Pancreatic enzymes. 'S))The blood pressure of a normal human being is found to be 120/80 mmHg. ‘These ‘numbers’ represent the blood pressure at (a) ventricular contraction and ventricular relaxation, respectively (b) ventricular relaxation and ventri- cular contraction, respectively (6) auricular contraction and auricular relaxation, respectively (@) ventricular contraction and auricular contraction, respectively {GDA person bumed a firecracker in front of a cliff and heard its echo 5s after it burst. The distance of the cliff from the person, if the speed of the sound is 340 m/s, is close to (a) 1700 m (6) 170 m () 85m (d) 850 m [P-.0.7. mee st targa GA % Bia aR A ‘Frafafira seri 1 fan Are : 1, Ae, taf a airs a (signal) ¥ afafta sem 21 2. mies, waft a aga daa aH oRealta amt 3. Bhar, aif dea A tah A ohafta wae! 4, ele, Aaa aka a va 8 ahaa ae a safe 88 aaa er at @ 133 ) 134 © 233 (a 234 . 100 Ww frad aca aw fe FH 10 ‘wei 4 aren aren 81 aoa ar 3 Feat A fet ae ag ai A am 4 ai? (1 af = 1 kWh) (a) 3-00 () 1-08 () 216 (a) 033 9. GRAM aU % ara ae tan Fafa we aT ‘feat ami & form Sara ore % sieria Ba aT ‘frefia sem 8? (a) 3am shea a (o) see Praa Pea () Fema At a (a) seh strea aTE JNBY-D-GNL/S9A, 10. 10 cm Wea Zi ara Sa A armen Perf 8? (a) 0-1 SRR (o) 1 Bate (co) 10 wigatiex (@). 100 sresiteen 11. ag 4% thier fer se 8 defer frafeafan eet & fran Fifi : 1, Mgo #1 &a aot avat 81 2. me cer saftieer ar Ua saree) 3. wen otk ware sera het 2) sade 88 tet wer we (a) Fa 1 ak 2 () a1 3k 3 () 723k 3 @ 1,233 12, 43 a ng afte % day A ae sem ae # ‘CaO (s) + Hy Of) > Ca(OH), (aq) + ST 1, fen ga a er dad A ga & ‘fer fae rar 21 2, OS ta a vin dat A gee fery fran aren 81 3, Gari m CaCO, A eh I aA fez CaO ag 4 freA CO, % aa He nfs @ sien aeat 81 4. “ga aa ar 8 ara ieee eregiaares we sardis afr 81 A fee me gz wr wi a a BR GAC! (a) aa 1 oie 4 ) 23K 4 @ 23Ks (@ 1,334| Consider the following statements about the microphone and the speaker of a mobile phone : 1. The microphone converts sound to ‘a mechanical signal. 2. The microphone converts sound to an electrical signal. 3. The speaker converts a mechanical signal to sound. 4. The speaker converts an electrical signal to sound. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1and3 (6) Land 4 () 2and3 (a) 2and 4 4B 4 100 W electric bulb is used for 10 hours a day. How many units of electrical energy are consumed by the bulb in 3 days? (1 unit = 1 kWh) (a) 3-00 (6) 108 (co) 216 (@) 0-33 9. The area under the velocity-time graph for a particle moving in a straight line with uniform acceleration gives (a) its average velocity (b) its net displacement (c) the distance travelled by it (@) its average speed JNBY-D-GNL/59A, MBI The power of a lens of focal length 10 cm is (a) 0-1 dioptre (b) 1 dioptre (c) 10 dioptre (a) 100 dioptre GM consider the following statements regarding burning of magnesium ribbon in air: 1. White powder of MgO is formed. 2. It is an example of combustion reaction. 3. Heat and light are produced. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only () 2 and 3 only (@ 1,2 and 3 Hl Which of the following statements with regard to the reaction given below are correct? Ca0{s) + H,0f) ~» Ca(OH), (aq) + Heat 1, Quicklime is used for white- washing of walls. 2, The solution of slaked lime is used for whitewashing of walls. 3. CaO reacts slowly with CO, in air to form a thin layer of CaCO, on walls. 4. Calcium hydroxide called ‘slaked lime’ is an inorganic compound. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (@) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 4 () 2and3 (@) 1,3 and 4 [P-r.0,13, sare % Gs ae api % a (heating) % ‘dau § frafettaa 3 8 aaa wer wel #7 1. NO #1 QI YW (fume) Fret) 2. ame O, ta Pract t 3. we aaetann aiBear ar eH ze BI 4. -FENO, ha % sees & fee EH FT 392 (thermal decomposition) #1 we saree B1 a Rome ge a a BE oe GA (q 13m2 (o) 2,3 34 () 1,334 (@) Fara 2 a4 14, Prafefad 4 8 aaa sitet saftifiea Te e @ tena ar (bo) Stet ates are (o) Fageriferm (Rancidity) @ me JNBY-D-GNL/59A. 15, ana UH we % at 4, fates wae (clues) % fran Fifary 1. eB ‘are 34 oh teh venta are? Seat orm aim t) 2. Fame 6:48 ta yong wT (division) €1 3. ae ta} ga dea & arm 2:39 wfeera 4 en gan 8h fq my dad & sree oe A We Afr (a) wate (b) aia wr Cc wea (aq were 16, Praferfiad 4 8 fa cea-aag A aang eh aah (q) ifs, siv ex, artes, FERTE (o) wrtang, win sea, artes, He eT (cq) fem, stim stu, safes, He wee (a) wean, ain wea, sates, HET, 17. 33 ae fel A aa fH ae fred af ae fatter shel, ama, ctees, aN, ae he gre 4 stan fen Beam set Rafts 33 faa ot a wo fa? (a) Aig, Fare, Aer, afterTg (&) AiR, Fare, sin wen, aPeTSGBI Which of the following statements with regard to heating of lead nitrate powder over a flame are correct? 1, Brown fumes of NO are released. 2. Colourless O, gas is released. 3. It is an example of oxidation reaction. 4. It is an example of thermal decomposition used for the production of NO, gas. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 () 2,3 and 4 () 1,3 and 4 (a) 2 and 4 only 4B. which one of the following is not an oxidation reaction? (a) Rusting of iron (2) Opening of soda bottle () Rancidity (d) Combustion JNBY-D-GNL/59A “(BI Consider the following clues about a State of India : 1. It is known as ‘and of red river and blue hills’. 2. It contains three of the six physiographic divisions of India. 3. It covers about 239 percent of total areas of the country. Identify the State on the basis of the given clues. (@) Karnataka (%) Andhra Pradesh () Assam (a) Chhattisgarh HEM Which of the following sets of States shares boundary with Telangana? (@) Odisha, Andhra ——Pradesh, Karnataka, Maharashtra (6) Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh () Odisha, Andhra —Pradesh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh (@) Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Maharashtra W%, Rani told her friends that last year she did boating in four different lakes, namely, Loktak, Barapani, Kolleru and Pulicat. Which of the following States did she visit? (@) Manipur, Meghalaya, Kerala, Tamil Nadu (b) Manipur, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu (c) Mizoram, Assam, —_—Kerala, Tamil Nadu (@) Mizoram, Assam, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu [P-7.0.18, 2011 Seer % sigan, freafefam a a Be /a-R we ae 8/8? 1, tar aif, aaa ve wae 8 Pg re el woe, ae MeN FE BI 2. aaa ok aa afte A ang & aftr, A faeh of arm A aaa waa BE IG ste fora art wae @, A ea APH SIT e1 aa feu a ee HI ae a oH GAT) (a) FAG 1 (b) aR 2 () 132 a (a) wHismaa2 19, ana & am: fed aaa oh wars Teal HA te Hh-tan Fret 7 (a) 197 () 236 23Ks (@ 335 20, frafafad 48 ar-h feat gaehta A sik aa aah 8? (a) wa ah A da gfe, anit a aie wa (oy aH ih (Brae a aah (a) Rene a1 TAR KK JNBY-D-GNL/59A, 21, Fefafar 4 a aaa ital orien eg 8 am & ag % aga ach & she fae ‘weeeT EE] SRE (appreciation of currency) @ @? (a) Freer rata te sae (o) Regret rahe te a a (ogra ona a ate FaeaTeTA sii a (erat ike a ote eared aah 22. Far ao aa 4 aah & are fish fae aaa A ‘aga FHT Fee 7 (a) (Pet faa a) afeina (Crowding out) (6) (Fh rae a1) sian (Crowding in) () fia agr (Pump priming) (a) fi (Dumping) 23. fafafa 4 8 ar-a/era, Af amin w/e 8/8? 1. Usd /aa sada iat ar ae 2. Tia she asa eet Pleat a src 3. arhifeet ud defaft sfftat oh arte aa fear eT 8 Raga az ae a ae se GAC (a) ¥aa1 ae 2 (6) Fat 2 33 @ 1,23R3 (@) ¥aa3[BBB According to the Census 2011, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. A person who can only read but cannot write, is not literate. 2. A person aged seven years and above, who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treated as literate. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 HBB The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many coastal and landlocked States of India, respectively? (@) 1and7 (o) 2 and 6 () 2and5 (@ 3and5 [BB Which one of the following situations can lead to inflation? (a) Rapid growth of aggregate demand outweighing supply () Sluggish growth of aggregate demand (c) Reduction in the money supply (@) Higher levels of unemployment JNBY-D-GNL/S59A Hl Which of the following pol help to raise interest rate unambiguously and thereby lead to appreciation of currency? (a) Expansionary fiscal and monetary Policy () Contractionary fiscal and monetary policy (¢) Contractionary fiscal policy and expansionary monetary policy (@) Contractionary monetary _policy and expansionary fiscal policy 4B. The contraction of private investment spending due to deficit spending by the Government is called (a) crowding out (b) crowding in () pump priming (@) dumping [Bl which among the following is/are the objective/objectives of the NITI Aayog? 1, Imposing policies. on —_the States/UTs 2. Allocation of funds at National and State levels 3. Design strategies and long-term policies and programme frame- works Select the correct answer using the code given below. (@) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only () 1,2and3 (@) 3 only [P.TO.24, fifi ded safe & one we fie wit afte ‘sim ora (MPCE) % veal Hae ahaa A fret Pra ara Ah ne of? (a) eeeraren fat (oy Agere PA (o) aiken aPae (a ar aaa 28. fefefas # & aaa, afta aera ‘faara fiers (NSDM) 41/3 31-sbea 2/87 1, Beara fre 2. Faget tee 3. adae sree dea a aM zort (leveraging) 8 eae gz wr i ax a oe GAA (a) ¥a1 (b) Fae 2 @ 1,2aR3 (a) Fa 2 ie 3 26. POSHAN afta at arifeaa a 3% fee Refafar 4 8 aaah arhift/arhitet arg m8 8/8? 1. Fee Ba BUEN fee siesta “afftae (inter-sectoral convergence) 2. afters stk ait A areata wa (real time) 4 gf— # HH ea} faq shee (ICT) a eT 8 ae gz wn a a oe GARR (a) Fa 1 ) FI2 ) 13K 2a (aq vai seae2 JNBY-D-GNL/59A 10 27. una 4 se-aa (writ of certiorari) wt we & fee Prater #8 ath aria safrard 8/8? 1, ten after at ter safer’ ee arf fre oe wart & after a ania 0 aa wei a fei ee ar fare wiftrer @ sik ante ea 2 ari ae a aaa 2. 88 sfteren ar after 9 safterten & ‘for ard far 81 AA Req me ee a wa a a Se GPCL (a) ¥aG1 (o) Fae 2 () 132 eH @ aa a2 28, Fi a wa & fea gor eran 3 “arnie arenis’ ama 8 Rete artis a Tea a srren Rear en? (a) IMG ee Tete =, (b) APRA Fo She aeRO (o) aI emo Ue ce (a) eIMff argo %o BATA 29. Ta adh afar Yee a1 ce aR? (a) wa Fae ate (bo) Arar (co) Fe SATE steht (a) rte aTWH The computation of poverty in terms of Monthly Per Capita Consumption Expenditure (MPCE) based on the Mixed Reference Period was recommended by the (a) Lakdawala Committee () Tendulkar Committee (c) Dandekar Committee (@) Alagh Committee 25. Which of the following is/are the sub- mission/sub-missions of the National Skill Development Mission (NSDM)? 1. Institutional training 2. Overseas employment 3. " Leveraging of public infrastructure Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (©) 1,2 and3 (@ 2 and 3 only 26. Which of the following strategies is/are adopted for implementing the POSHAN Abhiyan? 1. Inter-sectoral convergence for better service delivery 2. Use of technology (ICT) for real-time growth monitoring of women and children Select the correct answer using the code given below. (@ 1 only (b) 2 only () Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 JNBY-D-GNL/59A i BD Which of the following conditions is/are necessary for the issue of a writ of certiorari in India? 1, There should be a tribunal or an officer having legal authority to determine questions —_ affecting rights of subjects and having a duty to act judicially. 2. Such tribunal or officer has acted without jurisdiction. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (%) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 28. Who among the following Chief Justices of India ordered the constitution of a Special Bench called ‘Social Justice Bench’ ? (a) Justice H. L. Datu (b) Justice K. G. Balakrishnan () Justice R. M. Lodha (a) Justice Y. K. Sabharwal “9) Who among the following is the author of the book, Bandi Jivan ? (@) Rash Behari Bose (b) Veer Savarkar (Aruna Asaf Ali (a) Sachindranath Sanyal [P-7.0.30. 1937 4 RQ qa 4, aie ofa ate 33. eat ok fern eh B ma yam A fefefan 48 sek a wil a wea ww feats #8 aaah & afeat we EP adi Wai (single largest party) * #1 4 a al on (6) TT ies seatback iret sccte (9 FRR oth ar () ram ote Pa (oy Yea ate re aes (a) sam re RT 34, frafafad 4 8 Set fram det (dual control structure) ae WHT sHaRe Ft 31. Frefaftra wc ot Pram Afi: mnt ara fee Wa eT SO ae ETN (oy tos tant gfe wer aaa (sa ea 1 ahaa te ate geARON ia! aa toca aries 23 Hale eon eee oe (ey eke srs et at age we 48 tea a-a a AA? ae Se soa Ten (a) aa 1 (a) ta (o) a2 (0) tis () 13 2a (co) 31e (@ vai sate ‘afta 32. ‘uf’ & fafa ed at aah are frefefiaa 36. frafefad 48 fea an A tke de a a ei a & aaa gm ae ifn wet RY ‘atha (Chevrons) *? @ wp : te eae ea oe (a) aiezfern () fein: fet foven ea Ft ore (b) Arete fo) area: afte A soe # aren fo) arene @ wa: frase a sen (a Fora JNBY-D-GNL/59A, 12HSB in the election held in 1937, in which two provinces was the Indian National Congress not able to emerge as the single largest party? (@) Punjab and Sind (>) Assam and North-West Frontier Province (©) Punjab and Assam (@) Assam and Madras 'BiL Consider the following statements : After forming the Indian National Army, ‘Subhas Chandra Bose 1, recruited a large number of soldiers from the Indian Prisoners of War in Japanese camp introduced a women’s detachment named after the Rani of Jhansi Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (®) 2 only () Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 fhich one of the following pairs denoting various forms of Bhakti’ is not correctly matched? (a) Saguna : Belief in Gods with attributes. (®) Nirguna_ : Belief in Gods without attributes (c) Alvars — : Believed in devotion of Shakti (a) Nayanars : Believed in devotion of Shiva JNBY-D-GNL/59A Gs) which two rivers ow in the region between Gulbarga and Vijayanagara Hampi? (a) Narmada and Godavari (b) Mahanadi and Godavari () Kaveri and Periyar (@) Krishna and Tungabhadra 4BA) Which of the following is the only paramilitary force with a dual control structure? (a) Central Reserve Police Force (b) Assam Rifles (c) Indo-Tibetan Border Police (@) Central Industrial Security Force IBBI Which one of the following is an ethnic ig community of Assam? (a) Bhil (®) Gond (c) Abom (@) Adi 36. The Chevrons is the name of the cricket team of which one of the following countries? (a) Australia (b) The Netherlands (c) Ireland (d) Zimbabwe [P-70.87. aiid 8 are me stat a ae & Fated 3 2 fra wg gon § dhe en? (a) serene er () Fae a Ta sa () aga sens Tea TI (@) ei aga zor 38. FH a ah, af 2022 4 sift fer 8 Te ‘Fn ar weal ae BP (a) Wr were (b) 3 Whe we (oc) Ferse Reeth (a) Gr Frater 39, via sik ca sigfiar % ferq wif 4 afte ae (reflex arc) frafta #a &1 Prafefera 4 a eh-a sigan, wftad aa a adie eT a ‘frefita eum 8? (a) are) — Wa ARR — Fag # fea aT — afte — fies aga — arian () met — Wd =A — aes — Fey a Ra aga — he aha — ada (co) Wa — Ie =RTa — eats Stee — 4 aR — @ a see ee iy aah — are 40. ai wa tq amis a fe Frevfeaa # & aan aitard 87 (a) Naci () Kol () Feet (a) smite JNBY-D-GNL/59A, 14 42. ma 4, sais fausiies 41, areata aifansit 3 RNA set fem ean 8? (a) Fara Afra (0) Fae Fae otk Bre 6 Sree esse, er ak stata safer (d) %7e, Dire, eaten, vers othe agate (intercalary meristem) Aaa: wet w fea ear 2? (a) ea ) Asa fo) whet (a) sea 43. te 9a % seigeh aren & fare orem ww Far wr aa sam eer 81 Prfetid Sra ae Sap site Afar Ba amt? (a) aifeFan (Tracheid) (&) afta (Vessel) (c) SIRE YER (Xylem parenchyma) (a) SIR ETE (Xylem fibre)37. Cheetahs, brought from Namibia, were «1 In plant cells, RNA is present in introduced in India to which one of the following National Parks? (©) cytopiaata. onty: (a) Kaziranga National Park (&) Keoladeo Ghana National Park (®) nuclei and cytoplasm only (@) Keibul Lamjao National Park . (c) nuclei, cytoplasm, mitochondria, ino National ob iam chloroplast and endoplasmic TBI who among the following is not a pe recipient of the Nobel Prize in Physics in 20227 (@) nuclei, cytoplasm, mitochondria, abs Miaie Aapest chloroplast and ribosomes (o) John F. Clauser () Klaus Hasselmann Wl n grasses, intercalary meristem is (@) Anton Zeilinger a usually located at 39. Reflex arcs are evolved in animals for quick and efficient responses. Which rept one of the following sequences correctly represents a reflex arc? (b) lateral sides of stem (a) Receptor—Sensory neuron—Relay neuron in spinal cord—Brain— (©). base of leaves Motor neuron—Effector (b) Receptor—Sensory neuron—Brain (@) shoot tip —Relay neuron in spinal cord —Motor neuron—Effector (©) Receptor—Motor neuron—Relay neuron in spinal cord—Sensory neuron—Effector Wl xylem is a type of complex tissue in plants for upward conduction of water. Which one of the following xylem tissues (@) Receptor—Motor —_neuron—Brain consists of living cells? —Sensory neuron—Effector Which one of the following is essential (a) Tracheid for thyroid gland to make thyroxin? fq) Nac (b) Vessel (bo) KCL (c) Xylem parenchyma () Cholesterol! (@) Iodine (@) Xylem fibre JNBY-D-GNL/59A 15 [P-7.0.44. 11 9, 22 9 ah 33 9 site aa te situs wd dain fat Ie atte rads weer 87 (a) 669 (b) 222 ) 129 (4 62 45. oreta stq, faga-omgfi A are fagaa an (red live wire) tt 41a sara IR (black neutral wire) % 44 rms. favaiat (potential difference) faa tat 8? (@) 160 V (b) 220 V () 300 V (a 410V 46. cag wok Bhar ae ar: few saaentta eta 7 (a) ser eran ste Pree () Pres six areata ere (fo) serita fara af ee (a) sera era he Peer 47, aft ot vara at (a) aq Ha: sage stk sepa ert & (o) ay A eae: sigue sik sige ere & () WASH sated eh F (a) TAA SH sare eh E JNBY-D-GNL/S9A, 16 212 m/s Bare aa a TAH a Be a Be ITH G m/s? a BT BI Fe oT ae at wa FIs wT Set 81 de oT are an we a AT Cock (a) 12m 0) 24m () 36m (@) 48m 49. de-aeia war % afters a carate ance at? (a) ftom weg wre he Ae ora a tha (o) fem ane ok wats a a ata (oa oesiteange stk wR aa aT ata (@) Atm wings ok wee art A at So. frafetaa seri x fran Af: ‘vita area ara % sta a cage at aT 1, [HgO*) sree % igo /arA (volume) # fa tht 2. Biter ser Fret ARR rete safe, 3. wea Hoey efR-efRe Frere fey aufe 88 th-m/ar-8 ae we 8/8? @ 1,23R3 () Fras? () ¥aA3 (@ *aa2 33BDroree resistors of resistances 11 2, 22 2 4H A car moving with a speed of 12 m/s and 33 Q are connected in parallel. is subjected to brakes which produces ‘Their equivalent resistance is equal to a deceleration of 6 m/s”. The car takes 2s to stop after the application of coho. brakes. What is the distance covered @ 20 by the car after the application of brakes? “scar (@) 12m (@ 62 () 24m (©) 36m 15. The r.m.s. potential difference between (@) 48m the red live wire and black neutral wire in Indian domestic electric supply is “WB. what is the chemical composition of a soda-acid type fire extinguisher? 160 V ee (a) Solution of sodium hydrogen () 220 carbonate and sulfuric acid (®). Solution of sodium carbonate and Bem. sulfuric acid (@) 410 V (c) Solution of carbon dioxide and sulfuric acid HMI The hydrogen bomb and the uranium (a) Solution of sodium chloride and toitib aie based) Teepeieaiy ton sulfuric acid (a) nuclear fusion and fission 50. Consider the following statements While diluting concentrated nitric acid () fission and thermonuclear fusion solution « 1. the concentration of [H30*) ions/ (@) geothermal fusion and fission volume increases 2. water must be added slowly to concentrated acid 3. acid must be added slowly to water Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) respectively transverse and (a) 1,20nd3 longitudinal in air "47. Sound and light waves are (a) respectively longitudinal and transverse in air (b) 1 and 2 only (©) both longitudinal in air (9) 3 only (d) both transverse in air (d) 2 and 3 only JNBY-D-GNL/S9A 17 [P-7.0.81. fee my wera & fre pH wal am fete Ha set? (a) HE < Aig Te < ew ite Hen < m (0) Pres site Beira < Te < aI < Ae, ae (9 fa coe ca < few ats ‘tren (@) Fa (a) very dense forest (canopy density of more than 70 percent) (a) Assam, Jharkhand, Bihar (b) moderately dense forest (canopy density between 40-70 percent) () Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, Bihar ay sopen gfaroat: (canopy. ~ density (6) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Assam between 10-20 percent) (@) Both (b) and (c) (@) Odisha, Bihar, Jharkhand JNBY-D-GNL/59A 39 [Pr.0.110. frfefad 4 a aaa, aa % ae & 112, agra % dea 4, frafefiad #8 aS ser aged 51 a1 arr wet A? ae 1. am de afte reer : 2, ee xeR- stead) ere Pri (a) aiecigfa itt the gan at agra Sian 3. 3 meapha <#H (Deccan) sft HerTE a (o) TA % aha reir othe ae ah a SR eT Aa Ree me ae a we we Be ore AG (q ¥aa1 seo singe fat & wre O itermrt ae 0) ne () *aisrs (ay ore ae sia Fr % Freee 1 28. fre enfant 113, sforera finer # ore uferg a snes B08 wamiata Fe Sen waa Tee aT wiadh a? 111. #4 8 Hn, e-file siete (NAM) & faere (a) a atte ‘WWI (formative phase) 4 Faq Aga # vat et a1? ® eit xab fq ate mh (a) IA TepETE (Kwame Nkrumah) (a) faferam ate (») wa seta TR (Gamal Abdel 114, wag % arrenh wi} vier} ak Hove ney ‘afte, a fronts a ae A a as 8 (a) ARV ya fo) Sareea Fee (o) serra Tera (co) area Ts (a) Fa Fre (Fidel Castro) (@) Waa \JNBY-D-GNL/59A. 40110. Which one of the following is not a part of Article 51 of the Constitution of India? (a) Promote international peace and security (>) Maintain just and honourable relations between nations (c) Use of UN peacekeeping force for resolution of international disputes (a) Encourage settlement of inter national disputes by arbitration BBE Who among the following was not in the core leadership of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) in its formative phase? (a) Kwame Nkrumah (b) Gamal Abdel Nasser () Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Fidel Castro JNBY-D-GNL/59A In respect to Balutedars, which of the statements given below are correct? 1, They were village servants and artisans. 2. They were employed by individual peasant family. 3. They existed in the Medieval Deccan and Maharashtra. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only () 2 and 3 only () 1 and 3 only (@) 1,2 and 3 113. Which one of the following Viceroys was the first to officially shift his Council to Simla in summer season? (a) John Lawrence (b) Lord Dalhousie (c) Lord Mayo (@) William Bentinck 114. Who among the following is the author of Maze Vidyapeeth, the famous poem about the life of working class of Bombay? (@) Narayan Surve (b) Amol Palekar (c) Bhalchandra Nemade (@) Narendra Jadhav [P7.0.115. 116. 117. 118. wa a feet lod wae 4 fe af an A aren A ah? (@) TWareia 2a () Trt Te () Wepre 2 @ Fae 3m, 2021 #1 age UE WEA AT sia faq me dara i ai 2023 Ft faek fae seria af art ar Foie fern ren? (a) trea fare % fee Nee fra (Basic Sciences) 0) ate (c) Fie (Millets) (a) $2 (Camelids) waits wom, fw icc yr 720 fem, 2022 # aman dia ween (te) wa A 8, fra 2a ar afafifixes ae 8? (a) Fararea (b) Haw are sera (o) team (eee ‘amit Brae (Wassenaar Arrangement) Wau 9 frafetad 4 & aa-a an wel eT a (a) aan ¥ 42 vfrerh 2 mira €1 (6) WR Te Fem: w Tey ea fide (nuclear weapon overseer) % a4 fen (co) SRe ya rae a aaa seg BI (@) we a oe Hat 2017 4 enfia em JNBY-D-GNL/S9A, 42 119. FH 8 fea Wich Wala (Payyoli Express)’ a @ Hr wat 87 (q) fenaa ) Bie (o) ‘he fo aH (a) eh rae 120. wita seh yee, 2022 % Pama a Yea qa A EG & aa Ara Ae othe afta & 8 fee a a a wr wet ae ge: ah wo (gare ar are sft fat) (eras) A. oer aed (wera) 1. eam oT B. gah wer (an 2. dtm a am) C. dee Cet) 3. aha D. stg sia (aes) 4. ts GAR a me: @A Bc D Lada © (A (aa *WHI Who among the following founded 119. Who among the following is known as the Hindu Dharma Sabha in the ‘Payyoli Express’? 19th century? (a) Radhakanta Deb (b) Ram Mohan Roy (b) Dutee Chand (©) Dwarkanath Tagore (@) Keshab Chandra Sen (a) Hima Das (©) P.T. Usha (@ Shiny Abraham DB. the resolution adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on 3 March, 2021 decided to celebrate the year 2023 as the International Year of ners, 2022 (a) Basic Sciences for Sustainable eralteRleeatteetoorsecttenserrer deine ths Development code given below the Lis (b) Glass () Millets ae Lise (ite and Genre) (Author) (a) Camelids ‘A. Bhool Satya (Short 1. ‘Kamal Ranga (HMM Karthik § Meiyappan, who secured Stories) hat-trick in the ICC Men's T20 World Cup, 2022, represents B. Tumadi Ke Shabd 2. Veena Gupta (Poetry) (a) Zimbabwe (). United Arab’ Emirates ©. Chhe Roopak (Drama) 3. Badri Narayan (o) Sri Lanka D. Alekhun Amba (Play) 4. Manoj Kumar (@) Namibia Goswami HY Which one of the following statements Code : about the Wassenaar Arrangement is not correct? @aky Gpir cD (a) There are 42 participating nations a + in the Arrangement, ina he (b) It is formed primarily as a nuclear oes 44 ‘weapon overseer. (c) India is the current Chairman of OMe age the Arrangement. (d) India joined the Arrangement in @ a> vo eo ro the year 2017, JNBY-D-GNL/59A 43 [P-T.0.SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JNBY-D-GNL/59A, 44SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JNBY-D-GNL/59A 45 [P-7.0,SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JNBY-D-GNL/59A, 46SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK kk JNBY-D-GNL/59A 47 8823231636DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO T.B.C. : JNBY-D-GNL Test Booklet Series Serial No. 1227769 TEST BOOKLET GENERAL KNOWLEDGE Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 100 INSTRUCTIONS 1, IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK ‘THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT-HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B,C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hind! and English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. : 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. () There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a Wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (i) Ifa candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (ii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO 48