Grade: 12 Allotted Time 2hr Subject: biology

I. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives.

1. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the steps in scientific research?
A. Hypothesis formulation -> conclusion -> experiment -> question
B. Question -> hypothesis formulation -> experiment -> conclusion
C. Hypothesis formulation -> question -> experiment -> conclusion
D. Question -> hypothesis formulation -> conclusion -> experiment
2. Which of the following types of cancer is known to mostly develop in AIDS patients?
A. Cervical cancer C. Kaposi’s sarcoma
B. Stomach cancer D. Breast cancer
3. How many fatty acids would a cell need to form a molecule of triglyceride?
A. Two B. Four C. Five D. Three
4. Based on similarity in number of amino acids found in haemoglobin, which one of the
following animals has closer phylogenetic relations to human beings?
A. Chicken B. Horse C. Frog D. Gibbon
5. In an experiment designed to the effect of temperature on the rate of seed germination,
which of the following should the experimenter vary?
A. Seed number B. Water quality C. Temperature D. Seed size
6. Which of the following types of microscopes is most suitable for a detailed study of the
surface structure of an object?
A. Field microscope C. Scanning electron microscope
B. Optical microscope D. Disecting microscope
7. According to the fluid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane, what does the word
'mosaic' refer to?
A. The hydrophobic property of fatty acids
B. The bilayer nature of the membrane
C. The arrangement of the proteins
D. The movement of the phospholipids
8. Which of the following organic compounds would release both nitrogen and sulfur to the
ecosystem when decomposed?
A. Polysaccharides B. Sucrose C. Proteins D. Lipids
9. Deficiency of which of the following nutrients in human diet is likely to result in a
deficiency of some co-enzymes like FAD?
A. Essential amino acids C. Carbohydrates
B. Vitamins D. Saturated fatty acids
10. Which of the following classes of fatty acids is carbon—carbon double bond?
A. Monounsaturated fatty acids C. Saturated fatty acids
B. Unsaturated fatty acids D. Polyunsaturated fatty acids

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11. Why does sucrose give a negative result when mixed and heated with Benedict's solution?
A. Because it is not a sugar molecule. C. Because it is a non-reducing sugar.
B. Because it is a reducing sugar. D. Because it is not a monosaccharide.
12. Which of the following is consistent with science?
A. Proof by investigation of the causes of a phenomenon
B. Proof by reference to a respected leader
C. Proof by reference to an unknown object
D. Proof based on lessons from a person one believes
13. In which of the following are all the tools mainly used in the laboratory rather than in field
situation?
A. Centrifuges, microscopes, measuring cylinders, petri dishes
B. Flow meters, centrifuges, theodolites, microscopes
C. Centrifuges, plant presses, flow meters, microscopes
D. Theodolites, petri dishes, GPS receivers, measuring cylinders
14. Which of the following step of the scientific method comes before all the rest?
A. Hypothesis C. Conclusion
B. Experiment D. Reporting the result
15. To which one of the following organic molecules do enzymes belong?
A. Carbohydrates B. Amino acids C. Proteins D. Lipids
16. Which tool of the biologist is more frequently used to study cell structure in the laboratory?
A. Dissecting kit B. Centrifuge C. Petri-dish D. Microscope
17. What is the molecule that supplies the quickest and suitable source of energy to cells?
A. Lactose B. Sucrose C. ATP D. Lipid
18. A carbohydrate compound is known to have 12 carbon atoms in the whole molecule. What
could this compound be?
A. A polypeptide C. A monosaccharide
B. A disaccharide D. A polysaccharide
19. If certain food stuff gave a positive result with Benedict's test only after it was hydrolyzed
with hydrochloric acid, which of the following substances could it be?
A. Non-reducing sugar C. Lipid
B. Nucleic acid D. protein
20. In scientific method, What is the importance of a background research for a given problem?
A. To formulate a hypothesis
B. To make a prediction,
C. To prepare report of the result
D. To make a conclusion
21. Which of the following molecules is NOT a polymer?
A. Protein B. Lipid C. RNA D. Starch
22. Which of the following is formulated as a possible outcome of an experiment?
A. Hypothesis C. Data analysis
B. Prediction D. Recording the data
23. Which of the following classes of molecules CANNOT pass easily across the cell membrane
by simple diffusion?
A. Small non-polar molecules C. Non-polar molecules
B. Lipid soluble molecules D. Polar molecules

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24. At which level of structural organization do proteins have the alpha-helix shape?
A. Primary structure C. Tertiary structure
B. Secondary structure D. Quaternary structure
25. Which of the following classes of organic molecules is the least important source of energy
for cellular respiration?
A. Nucleic acids B. Lipids C. Carbohydrates D. Proteins
26. What is the ultimate source of all scientific knowledge?
A. Observation C. Trial and error
B. Guessing D. Observation and experimentation
27. To which group of organic compounds do the triglycerides and waxes belong?
A. Carbohydrates B. Proteins C. Lipids D. Vitamins
28. What does an ethologist study?
A. Insect diets B. Soil types C. Fossil fuel D. Animal behaviour
29. What do you call the reasoning technique in science where general principles are used to
analyse specific cases?
A. Induction C. Pseudo-deduction
B. Deduction D. Pseudo-induction
30. Which of the following is true about all proteins?
A. They are twenty amino acids long.
B. They are globular in shape.
C. They perform the same function.
D. The monomers are held together by peptide bonds.
31. Which one of the following is a functional group of a fatty acid?
A. A ketone group C. An amino group
B. An aldehyde group D. A carboxyl group
32. Which one of the folloWing molecules in living things is NOT an organic molecule?
A. Sugar B. Nucleotide C. Amino acid D. Water
33. Which molecule in the cell is the constituent of the gene?
A. Nucleic acid B. Protein C. Lipid D. Carbohydrate
34. While conducting research, which of the following should a biologist do first?
A. Generate hypothesis C. Communicate the results
B. Conduct experiments D. Identify a research question/problem
35. The active site of enzyme.
A. Similar to any other enzyme.
B. Is the part of enzyme where its substrate fir
C. Has the same shape with the substrate
D. B and C
36. The number of substrate molecule affected by enzyme per minute is called
A. active site number C. turn over number
B. enzyme activity number D. optimum number
37. Which enzymatic reaction is correct?
A. S+E→ SE →P+E C. S+E SE→P+E
B. S+E SE→P+E D. S+E→SE P+E

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38. One of the following molecules is building unit of an enzyme.
A. Amino acids B. Glucose C. Nucleotides D. Fatty acid
39. Which of the following statement concerning enzymes is incorrect?
A. Each enzyme has an optimal temperature
B. Each enzyme has an optimal PH
C. Most enzymes are highly specific
D. Most enzymes are made up of RNA
40. There are thousands of enzymes in a cell. This indicates which property of enzymes.
A. Enzymes are used over and over again
B. Enzymes are not consumed in chemical reaction
C. Enzymes are specific in action
D. All
41. An enzyme that catalyze the joining of two molecules by the formation of new bands is:
A. Lyase B.Lipases C. Hydrolases D. Isomerase
42. The enzyme aldase is used to split compounds without adding water, so it is grouped in
which class of enzyme.
A. Lyase B. hydrolase C. Oxidareducatase D. Isomerase
43. An enzyme that is used to treat systic fibrosis is:
A. Glucooxidese B. Pulmazyme C. Cellulase D. strep to kinase
44. Abacavir sulphate is:
A. enzyme used to indicate liver damage C. one of the antiretroviral drugs
B. used to clarify fruit juice D. used to degrees animal hide
45. A pharmaceutical enzyme that is used to dissolve clots of heart attack is:
A. Streptokinase C. Pancreatic trypsim
B. Abacavir sulphate D. Pulmuzyme
46. Which of the following is the common characteristics of all enzyme?
A. They act inside cells only C. They require cofactors
B. They are proteins D. They operate at any PH value
47. In which one of the following paints dase the induced fit model of enzyme action differ
from the lack and key model?
A. Enzyme lawer the energy of activation
B. Substrate bind at the active size of the enzyme
C. During the reaction an enzyme substrate complex is formed
D. The shape of the substrate and active size are not complementary
48. Cometitive inhibitar inhibit the enzyme by competition with
A. Enzyme inhibitory C. substrate for active size
B. Inhibitor for active size D. substrate for allostric sizes
49. In competitive inhibition, which one of the following factor determines the rate of
inhibition?
A. Temperature C. substrate concentration
B. Enzyme concentration D. the rate of inhibitor to enzyme concentration
50. Which of the following mechanism do cells use to regulate enzyme catalyzed reaction in
metabolic path way?
A. Enzyme denaturation C. End product inhibition
B. Irreversible inhibition D. competitive inhibition

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51. Which one of the following objective and ocular combinations of the light microscope
respectively gives the largest field of vision?
A. 10x and 10x B. 4x and 10x C. 40x and 12x D. 100x and 10x
52. Which of the following statement is in agreement with the modern cell theory?
A. Cells came from nothing C. cells came from non-living materials
B. Cells came from existing cells D. cells arise by means of spontaneous generation
53. What would be the approximate image size of a cell with the size of 0.03 microns viewed
under a compound microscope with magnification powers marked as 10x an eye piece and
100x an the objective lens?
A. 10microns B. 20microns C. 30 microns D. 40microns
54. As a cell becomes larger:
A. The surface area to its volume ration increases
B. Material distribution becomes more efficient
C. Cells use energy less efficiently
D. None
55. If the size of a cell increases. Which one of the following gets smaller?
A. The volume of cell
B. The surface area of the cell
C. The surface area to volume ratio of the cell
D. Volume to surface area ratio of the cell
56. If you observe apiece of paper on which several small square are drawn. Under which of
the following magnifications of the microscope do you count more number of squares?
A. 40x B. 100x C. 400 D. 1000x
57. Which one of the following cellular forms did Robert Hook observe under his crude
microscope?
A. Bacteria B. Protozoa C. Yeast D. Empty cell well
58. Which of the following ideas in the cell theory was contributed by Rudolf Virchow?
A. All plants are mud up of cells C. cells are the structural units of life
B. All animals are made up of cells D. cells came from pre-existing cells
59. From which of the following ones not the O2 released during the process of
photosynthesis?
A. Pyruvic acid B. CO2 C. Sugar D. Water
60. In enzyme that contain non protein organic molecules in addition to the protein
component, what is the protein component called?
A. Apo-enzyme B. CO-enzyme C. Holo-enzyme D. Cofactor
61. During which of the following processes in cellular respiration are most of the ATP formed?
A. Glycolysis B. chemiosmosis C. Link reaction D. Krebs cycle
62. Which of the following substance is not formed when glucose is fermented by yeast?
A. Alcohol B. ATP C. Lactic acid D. CO2
63. What is the ultimate source of electrons that replace those lost from photo system II during
photosynthesis?
A. water B. photo-system I C. chlorophyll-a D. chlorophyll-b
64. Which bacteria genus fixes nitrogen in the nocules of leguminous plants?
A. A grobactrium B. Escherichia C. Azobacteria D. Rhizobium

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65. Which of the following kingdoms of life is consisting of prokaryotic organisms?
A. Fungi B. Monera C. Protista D. Plantae
66. What are the most frequent causative agents of food poisoning?
A. Bacteria B. Protozoa C. Viruses D. Worms
67. Which of the following human diseases can be prevented by taking proper diets?
A. Degenerative diseases C. Social diseases
B. Genetic diseases D. Deficiency diseases
68. To which of the following groups do those bacterio phages that integrate their DNA into
the chromosome of their bacterial host belong?
A. Virulent viruses C. Lysogenic viruses
B. Lytic viruses D. Non-parasitic viruses
69. The sheep 'dolly' is an example of which biotechnological manipulation of animals by
human?
A. Transgenic animal C. Cloned animal
B. Genetically engineered animal D. Hybrid animal
70. Which group of micro-organisms causes the disease known as athlete's foot?
A. Bacteria B. Fungi C. Protozoa D. Viruses
71. Choose the one that is different from all the others.
A. Genetically modified organisms
B. Genetically engineered organisms
C. Pathogenic organisms
D. Transgenic organisms
72. Under which of the following groups can the fungi be more conveniently placed?
A. Autotrophs B. Heterotrophs C. Prokaryotes D. Plants
73. If a new anti-HIV drug is to be developed to prevent the virus from entering the host cell,
which one of the following processes should the drug target?
A. Reverse transcription
B. Binding of Gp120 and CD4
C. Integration of viral DNA into host DNA
D. Assembly of viral parts into a whole Virus
74. Which of the following groups of bacteria consists of rod shaped cells?
A. Gram-positive B. Bacilli C. Cocci D. Spirilla
75. In Ethiopia, which one of the following Vertebrate groups has largest number of genera?
A. Mammals B. Birds C. Reptiles D. Amphibians
76. Which of the following resources is needed by an ecosystem from outside in order to
sustain itself?
A. Producers C. Micronutrients
B. Macronutrients D. Sunlight
77. Which of the following can create strong inter-species completion if shared by two or more species?
A. Habitat B. Ecosystem C. Niche D. Predator
78. Among the following, which one has little or no contribution the loss of biodiversity?
A. Overgrazing by domestic animals
B. Clearing forests to grow crops
C. Growing crops of improved varieties
D. Growing crops of landrace

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79. Which of the following is the largest ecological unit?
A. A community C. A population
B. A biome D. An ecosystem
80. What is the ecological succession in which plant communities establish after an area has
been completely demolished by fire?
A. Tree succession C. Primary succession
B. Secondary succession D. Bare rock succession
81. Which group of organisms in the ecosystem release nutrients locked up in dead bodies of
organisms?
A. Parasites B. Decomposers C. Autotrophs D. Carnivores
82. Which one of the following crops has its centre of origin and diversity in Ethiopia has
become a leading international commodity of commerce?
A. Teff B. Enset C. Coffee D. Anchote
83. Which of the following is NOT the correct characteristic of tropical rainforests?
A. Low biodiversity C. Heavy precipitation
B. High temperature D. Trees of different heights
84. From where do plants get most of their nutrients?
A. Chlorophyll C. Light
B. Soil D. Atmosphere
85. Which one of the following shows the feeding method of decomposers?
A. Saprobiotic nutrition C. Parasitic nutrition
B. Autotrophic nutrition D. Intracellular digestion
86. Which of the following is NOT a tree characteristic of the populations of most the
developing countries of the world?
A. High fertility rate
B. Increasing population size
C. More number of old people than young people
D. Birth rate greater than mortality rate
87. Which of the following biomes of the Earth has the greatest diversity of species?
A. Deciduous forest C. Desert
B. Tropical rain forest D. Tundra
88. Which of the following sequences represent the correct change in number of chromosomes
during fertilization?
A. n + n -> 2n C. n -> n
B. 2n -> 2n D. 2n -> n + n
89. Which of the following is true about sex determination in birds?
A. They have the heterozygotic X & Y chromosomes.
B. Males have heterozygotic W & Z chromosomes.
C. Females have the homozygotic WW chromosomes.
D. They have the heterozygotic W & Z chromosomes.
90. What percentage of the F2 progeny of a monohybrid cross is expected to have the recessive
phenotype?
A. 100% B. 75% C. 25% D. 50%

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91. Which of the following crosses will produce progeny with phenotypic ratio of 3:1 ?
A. Crossing the F1 to the dominant parent
B. Crossing two homozygote individuals
C. Crossing the F1 to the recessive parent
D. Crossing two heterozygote individuals
92. If a codon on a messenger RNA is UUU, what is the complementary anticodon on the
transfer RNA?
A. UUU B. GGG C. CCC D. AAA
93. Which of the following is the correct F2 phenotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross?
A. 1:2 B. 1:1 C. 3:1 D. 2:2
94. How many chromosomes do humans inherit from each of their parents?
A. 23 chromosomes C. 46 chromosomes
B. 23 pairs of chromosomes D. 46 pairs of chromosomes
95. Gene silencing is the function of one of the following molecules.
A. dsRNA B. mRNA C. siRNA D. tRNA
96. Two parents of genotype Aa are cross-bred. The alleles show complete dominance. What
proportion of the offspring will phenotypioally look like their parents?
A. 0 B. ¼ C. ½ D. ¾
97. Among the following mating, where the ABO blood genotypes of the partners are shown, identify
the mating in which all the children will have the same blood type.
A. AO x BO B. AA x OO C. AB x BO D. BB x AO
98. In a cross between round green pea of RRyy genotype and wrinkled yellow pea of rrYY
genotype, what is the expected genotype of F1?
A. RRyy B. rrYY C. RRYY D. RyYy
99. According to Lamarck's theory of evolution, what is the mechanism by which evolving
organisms acquire new structures?
A. Mutation
B. Hereditary variation
C. Use - and - disuse of parts of the body
D. Recombination of ancestral genes
100. The genotype of a homozygote could be:
A. AA B. aa C. Aa D. xx

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