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Đề thi thử chuyên Anh Bắc Ninh 2023-2024 lần 2

Callum learned about setting up a website online and decided to create a book review site to encourage teenagers to read more. When it first launched, he was pleased with its quality. Now he runs a new website about music. The document provides sample questions and passages for an English proficiency test, covering topics like a radio interview, conversation excerpts, phonetic pronunciation, vocabulary, grammar, and a reading comprehension passage.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
519 views11 pages

Đề thi thử chuyên Anh Bắc Ninh 2023-2024 lần 2

Callum learned about setting up a website online and decided to create a book review site to encourage teenagers to read more. When it first launched, he was pleased with its quality. Now he runs a new website about music. The document provides sample questions and passages for an English proficiency test, covering topics like a radio interview, conversation excerpts, phonetic pronunciation, vocabulary, grammar, and a reading comprehension passage.

Uploaded by

phanthanhloan
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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UBND TỈNH BẮC NINH ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO NĂM HỌC 2023-2024


Môn thi: Tiếng Anh (dành cho thí sinh chuyên Anh)
ĐỀ THI THỬ LẦN 2 Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Đề thi có 10 trang)
Họ và tên thí sinh: ...........................………...…............. Số báo danh: ...................……….………….......

PART A. LISTENING (20 POINTS)


I. You will hear an interview with a 15-year-old boy called Callum, who runs a successful book
review website for teenagers. ( 5 pts)
0. How did Callum learn about setting up a website?
A. through lessons at school B. by using information online C. a family member taught him
1. Why did Callum decide to set up a book review website?
A. to develop teenagers’ writing skills
B. to encourage teenagers to read more
C. to create an online discussion among teenagers
2. How did Callum feel when his site first went online?
A. pleased with its quality
B. certain it would be popular
C. positive it would achieve its aims
3. What does Callum say about a typical day?
A. It’s usually full of variety.
B. It’s always extremely busy.
C. It’s impossible to predict what will happen.
4. When Callum is eighteen he’d like to
A. work for a big company.
B. study for a degree.
C. run a business.
5. What is Callum’s new website for?
A. using music to help people
B. presenting new music
C. learning how to play music

II. You will hear an extract from a radio programme and decide whether the statements
are true or false. (5 pts)
1. Mrs Kent is worried about the weather in the near future.
2. According to Tom Sheridan, people don’t talk about the weather anymore.

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3. Paul Spenser does the production of a cookery programme.
4. Jane thinks that students should be given free books.
5. An elderly listener doesn’t think young people should have to pay in discos.

III. You will hear a conversation between a Scottish student called John and a Finish student
called Pirkko about the Tampere Student Games in Finland. For questions 1-5, complete the
notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer
in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts)
Tampere Student Games
- Dates of the games: (1) ______________
- Cost of taking part (2) ______________ euros per day each
- Entry fee includes competition entrance, meals and (3) ______________
- Hotel (4) ______________ has a special rate during the games
- Hotel is close to (5) ______________
- Website address: www.sellgames.com

PART B. PHONETICS (5 POINTS)


I. Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. (2.0 pts)
1. A. modernise B. dramatise C. expertise D. merchandise
2. A. chameleon B. enchant C. chamberlain D. bachelor

II. Choose the letter A. B. C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions. (3.0 pts)
3. A. existential B. appellation C. nevertheless D. Argentina
4. A. invaluable B. investigate C. intimacy D. intensity
5. A. agriculture B. architecture C. literature D. manufacture

PART C. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (25 POINTS)


I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each of the following questions (10.0 pts)
1. He _____________ his life to the skill of the surgeons.
A. owes B. keeps C. preserves D. maintains
2. By appearing on the soap powder commercials, she became a _______________ name.
A. housewife B. housekeeper C. house D. household
3. The mayor has decided to ________________ crime. It’s about time, if you ask me.
A. step up B. crack down on C. blow over D. stamp down
4. The __________________ of blood always makes him feel sick.

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A. view B. scene C. form D. sight
5. Nara was __________________ disappointed when she learnt that she hadn’t won the beauty
contest.
A. seriously B. bitterly C. strongly D. heavily
6. ___________________, he would have been able to pass the exam.
A. Studying more B. Had he studied more
C. If he studied more D. If he were studying more
7. That’s exactly what I mean, Ben. You’ve ________________!
A. put your foot on it B. killed two birds with one stone
C. put two and two together D. hit the nail on the head
8. Mr. and Mrs. Brown ____________ their golden anniversary at the local church last Sunday, but all
of a sudden, a strong earthquake occurred the very morning, which destroyed their plan.
A. were going to hold B. would be holding C. was just holding D. had held
9. My cousin used to suffer from depression _______________ by overwork and ill-health.
A. brought on B. come about C. taken up D. put through
10. The manager asked his secretary to take ______________ of the meeting as it progressed.
A. records B. note C. reports D. minutes
11. I haven’t got the time to do my own work, _________________ help you with yours.
A. leaving aside B. not counting C. let alone D. apart from
12. He _______________ malaria when he was in Africa.
A. infected B. contracted C. was caught D. gained
13. Helen was very much in _________________ of her father.
A. respect B. awe C. regard D. admiration
14. _______________ that she received prolonged applause from the audience.
A. Such a polished vocal of hers B. So polishing was her vocal
C. Such was the polish of her vocal D. So was her polished vocal
15. ______________ the final score, I’m sure this will be an exciting game.
A. Apart from B. In spite of C. Regardless of D. Except for
16. I moved the meeting ____________________.
A. adjourn B. be adjourned C. was adjourned D. had to be adjourned
17. If some experts are correct, the technological revolution is only in its _________________.
A. childhood B. infancy C. youth D. nativity
18. Nebraska has flood in some years, ________________ .
A. others in drought B. while others drought C. droughts are others D. in others drought
19. Frankly speaking, the theory they’ve been working on just doesn’t ________________.
A. see reason B. hold water C. share the burden D. face the music
20. The weather __________________ fine, we decided to go camping in the countryside.

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A. was B. being C. had been D. would be

II. Give the correct tense/form of the verb in each bracket. (5.0 pts)
1. The window seat is usually the first one (take) _____________________.
2. The opposing sides in the war had been fighting since the president (overthrow)
__________________.
3. I (know) _______________________the answer, I would tell you right away.
4. There (be) ___________________ nothing else to say, he declared the meeting close.
5. By the time we arrived, the film (already/start) _________________________.
6. I am sorry. I wasn’t in when you came round. I would like (see) ____________________ you.
7. You (speed) ______________________ ; otherwise, the policeman wouldn’t have stopped you.
8. It is essential that each bike (lock) __________________ carefully indoors.
9. He got angry because he hadn’t been accustomed to (make) __________________ fun like that
before.
10. He talks as if he (do) ___________________ all the work himself, but in fact Tom and I did most
of it.

III. Give the correct form of the word in each bracket. (5.0 pts)

The mysteries of the skies


Three hundred and fifty years before the first men looked down on the amazingly beautiful
surface of the moon from close quarters, Galileo's newly built telescope (1. ABLE)
___________________ him to look at the edge of the hitherto mysterious sphere. He saw that the
apparently (2. LIVE) ___________________ surface was not divinely smooth and round, but bumpy
and imperfect. He realized that although the moon might appear (3. ACT) __________________
resembling a still life painted by the hand of a cosmic (4. ART)____________________ it was a real
world, perhaps not very different from our own. This amounted to a great (5. ACHIEVE)
___________________ hardly to be expected in his day and age, although nowadays his (6.
CONCLUDE) _________________ may appear to some to be trivial and (7. SIGNIFY)
___________________
Not long after Galileo lunar's observations, the skies which had previously been so (8.
ELUDE) ________________ revealed more of their extraordinary mysteries. Casting around for
further wonders, Galileo focused his lens on the (9. STRIKE) _______________ planet of Jupiter.
Nestling next to it, he saw four little points of light circling the distant planet. Our moon it appeared,
perhaps (10. FORTUNE) ___________________ in the eyes of those fearful of what the discovery
might mean, was not alone!

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IV. Each of the following sentences has one word/phrase that is not correct. Identify and correct
it (5.0 pts)
1.The botanists Katherine Hunter and Emily Fose spent many difficult months making research in the
Rocky Mountains.
2. Paper was such expensive during the Middle Ages that it had to be used sparingly.
3. When a patient's blood pressure is much higher than it should be, a doctor usually insists that he
will stop smoking.
4. Some people believe that humans will never use away all the natural resources of the earth.
5. The number of students who knew the answer to the last question were very low.

PART D. READING (25 POINTS)


I. Read the text below and choose the word that best fits each of the blanks in the following
passage. (5.0 pts)

Proof that silence is golden for studying


The combination of music and study has long been a source of disagreement between
adults and children. Parents and teachers alike maintain that silence is important when learning, (1)
________ youngsters insist that their favourite sounds help them concentrate. Now a study shows the
grown-ups have been right all along. Psychologists in Florida tested how fast students wrote essays
with and without music in the (2) ________. They found that the sounds (3) ________ progress down
by about sixty words per hour. 'This demonstrates clearly that it is difficult to (4) ________ with
listening and writing at the same time,' said Dr Sarah Randall. She also (5) ________ to conclusion
that it is a myth that instrumental music is less distracting that vocals. 'All types of music had the
same (6) ________,' she said in her report. 'One's ability to pay attention and write fluently is likely to
be (7) ________ by both vocal and instrumental music,' she added. Dr Randall claimed the research
demonstrated that the idea that music could improve performance was wrong. 'Writing an essay is a
complex (8) ________. You are (9) ________ information and putting it in order. An additional
stimulus in the form of music is bound to distract. But music is not the only distractor. What is (10)
________ worrying is that more and more teenagers are studying in front of the television.
1. A. whereas B. unlike C. besides D. despite
2. A. setting B. background C. surrounding D. circumstances
3. A. slowed B. reduced C. lowered D. decreased
4. A. manage B. support C. cope D. stand
5. A. reached B. drew C. arrived D. came
6. A. affect B. effect C. consequence D. result
7. A. disturbed B. interfered C. bothered D. shocked
8. A. project B. concern C. scheme D. task

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9. A. recalling B. memorizing C. remembering D. organizing
10. A. partly B. largely C. particularly D. mainly

II. Read the text below and fill each blank with ONE suitable word. (10.0 pts)
WHAT IS CHATGPT?
ChatGPT is an AI chatbot system that OpenAI released in November to (1) _____________
off and test what a very large, powerful AI system can accomplish. You can ask it countless questions
and will get (2) ___________ answer that's useful. For example, you can ask it encyclopedia
questions like, "Explain Newton's laws of (3) _____________ .You can tell it, "Write me a poem."
Then you ask it to write a computer program that (4) _____________ show you different ways to
arrange the letters of a word.
ChatGPT doesn't (5) _______________ know anything. It's an AI that's trained to recognize
patterns in vast swaths of text harvested (6) _____________ the Internet, then further trained with
human assistance to deliver more useful, better dialog. The answers you get may sound plausible and
even authoritative. (7) ________________ those answers might well be entirely wrong, as OpenAI
warns.
Chatbots have been of interest for years to companies looking for ways to help customers get
(8)_______________ they need. That's the famous "Imitation Game" computer scientist Alan Turing
proposed in 1950 as a way to measure intelligence.
But chatbots have a lot of baggage, as companies have tried with limited success to use them
(9) _______________ of humans to handle customer service work. A study of 1, 700 Americans,
sponsored by a company called Ujet, (10) __________________ technology handles customer
contacts, found that 72% of people found chatbots to be a waste of time.

III. Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the following questions. (10.0 pts)
Printmaking is the generic term for a number of processes, of which woodcut and engraving
are two prime examples. Prints are made by pressing a sheet of paper (or other material) against an
image-bearing surface to which ink has been applied. When the paper is removed, the image adheres
to it, but in reverse.
The woodcut had been used in China from the fifth century A.D. for applying patterns to
textiles. The process was not introduced into Europe until the fourteenth century, first for textile
decoration and then for printing on paper. Woodcuts are created by a relief process; first, the artist
takes a block of wood, which has been sawed parallel to the grain, covers it with a white ground, and
then draws the image in ink. The background is carved away, leaving the design area slightly raised.
The woodblock is inked, and the ink adheres to the raised image. It is then transferred to damp paper
either by hand or with a printing press.

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Engraving, which grew out of the goldsmith's art, originated in Germany and northern Italy
in the middle of the fifteenth century. It is an intaglio process (from Italian intagliare, "to carve"). The
image is incised into a highly polished metal plate, usually copper, with a cutting instrument, or burin.
The artist inks the plate and wipes it clean so that some ink remains in the incised grooves. An
impression is made on damp paper in a printing press, with sufficient pressure being applied so that
the paper picks up the ink.
Both woodcut and engraving have distinctive characteristics. Engraving lends itself to subtle
modeling and shading through the use of fine lines. Hatching and cross-hatching determine the degree
of light and shade in a print. Woodcuts tend to be more linear, with sharper contrasts between light
and dark. Printmaking is well suited to the production of multiple images. A set of multiples is called
an edition. Both methods can yield several hundred good-quality prints before the original block or
plate begins to show signs of wear. Mass production of prints in the sixteenth century made images
available, at a lower cost, to a much broader public than before.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The origins of textile decoration
B. The characteristics of good-quality prints
C. Two types of printmaking
D. Types of paper used in printmaking
2. The word "prime" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A. principal B. complex C. general D. recent
3. The author's purpose in paragraph 2 is to describe __________.
A. the woodcuts found in China in the fifth century
B. the use of woodcuts in the textile industry
C. the process involved in creating a woodcut
D. the introduction of woodcuts to Europe
4. The word "incised" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. burned B. cut C. framed D. baked
5. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?
A. "patterns" (paragraph 2) B. "grain" (paragraph 2)
C. "burin" (paragraph 3) D. "grooves" (paragraph 3)
6. According to the passage, all of the following are true about engraving EXCEPT that it
__________.
A. developed from the art of the goldsmiths
B. requires that the paper be cut with a burin
C. originated in the fifteenth century
D. involves carving into a metal plate
7. The word "yield" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.

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A. imitate B. produce C. revise D. contrast
8. According to the passage, what do woodcut and engraving have in common?
A. Their designs are slightly raised.
B. They achieve contrast through hatching and cross-hatching.
C. They were first used in Europe.
D. They allow multiple copies to be produced from one original.
9. According to the author, what made it possible for members of the general public to own prints in
the sixteenth century?
A. Prints could be made at low cost.
B. The quality of paper and ink had improved.
C. Many people became involved in the printmaking industry.
D. Decreased demand for prints kept prices affordable.
10. According to the passage, all of the following are true about prints EXCEPT that they
__________.
A. can be reproduced on materials other than paper
B. are created from a reversed image
C. show variations between light and dark shades
D. require a printing press

PART E. WRITING (25 POINTS)


I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. (5.0 pts)
1. I am absolutely sure he took the money on purpose.
→ He couldn’t________________________________________________________________.
2. Advanced technology cannot operate without special glass.
→ Were it ___________________________________________________________________.
3. People became aware of the damage to the ozone layer when an enormous hole was discovered
over the South Pole.
→ It was the _________________________________________________________________.
4. Mass tourism has been one of the causes of the environmental problems.
→ Mass tourism is ____________________________________________________________.
5. I was strongly determined to complete my dissertation by the end of the month.
→ I had _____________________________________________________________________.

II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the
word given. Do not change the word given. (5.0 pts)
1. James is not feeling healthy today. (COLOUR)

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→ James _____________________________________________________________today.
2. They designed the stadium to make hooliganism impossible. (SUCH)
→ The stadium _______________________________________________ out hooliganism.
3. Doing regular exercise often helps improve your attitude to life. (DO)
→ Many ____________________________________________________________ on life.
4. I don’t really know why, but I don’t trust him. (FINGER)
→ I ____________________________________________________, but I don’t trust him.
5. I was about to hand in my notice when I was unexpectedly offered promotion (ON)
→ I was _______________________________when I was unexpectedly offered promotion.

III. Essay Writing: (15.0 pts)


Children in rural communities have less access to education. Some people believe that
the problem can be solved by providing more schools and teachers, while others think that the
problem can be solved by providing computers and Internet access.
Discuss both views and give your opinion, including specific reasons and relevant
examples to support your answers. You should write an essay of between 200-250 words.
ANSWER
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THE END

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