USM Review Center Card No.

_____
Pre-Test for Review of the LEAE 2006
Part III– Rural Electrification, Agricultural Processing and Structures, Agricultural
Engineering Laws and Professional Ethics

April 25, 2006, 4hrs

Instructions: Answer the following items by shading the letter corresponding to the best
answer on a separate sheet provided.

A reinforced concrete column 5 m high has a cross section of 400 mm x 400 mm. It is
reinforced by four steel bars 20 mm in diameter and carries a load of 1000 KN.
Es = 200 GPa, EC = 15 GPa.
1. Determine the stress in steel
a. 66 c. 86
b. 76 d. none of these
2. Determine the stress in concrete
a. 5.7 c. 6.5
b. 7.5 d. none of these
Steel railroad rails 10 m long are laid with a clearance of 3 mm at a temperature of 15 0C.
α = 11. 7 x 10-6 m/ 0C, E = 200 GPa.
3. Determine the temperature when the nails just touch.
a. 40.6 c. 60.6
b. 50.6 d. none of these
4. Determine the stress in the rails at that temperature, if there were no clearance
a. 40 c. 60
b. 50 d. none of these
A cantilever beam 60 mm wide by 200 mm high and 6 m long carries a load that varies
from zero at the free to 1000 N/m at the wall.
5. Determine the maximum flexural stress
a. 15 c. 25
b. 20 d. none of these
6. Determine the shearing stress of a fiber 40 mm from the top and of the beam at a
section 3 m from the free end
a. 0.05 c. 0.07
b. 0.06 d. none of these
7. Water drops from the faucet at the rate of 5 drop per second. Determine the
position of the lower drop from the mouth of the faucet if it has attained a velocity
of 3m/s.
a. 0.459 m c. 0.945 m
b. 0.549 m d. none of the above
8. In problem # 7, determine the position of the upper drop if the lower drop has a
velocity of 3m/s.
a. 40 mm c. 55 mm
b. 50 mm d. none of the above
9. In problem # 7, what is the distance between two consecutive drops?
a. 0.409 m c. 0.404 m
b. 0.405 d. none of the above
10. Determine the size of purlins spaced at 0.75m on the center on a bay length of 4m
warehouse building, to carry a wind load of 5 lbs. per sq. ft. normal to a truss
rafter/top chord and a dead load weight of roofing of 5 lbs. per sq. ft. acting
vertically. Flexural stress of wooden material is 19.30 MPa. Neglect weight of
purlin. Pitch of truss is equal to 300 with the horizontal.
a. 50 x150 c. 50 x 75 e. 50 x 50
b. 50 x 100 d. 50 x 125

11. Determine the spacing of floor joists of span 3.50m of a farm house/warehouse
building to carry sacks of palay of 4 sacks per sq. m. A sack of palay weighs 50
kg. Floor joists are of yakal wood with flexural stress of 19.30 MPa – Neglect
weight of joists.
a. 0.30 m c. 0.90 m e. 1.50 m
b. 0.60 m d. 1.30 m
 12. A timber flume of 4m span is to be constructed to carry water for irrigation at the
other side of a creek. The flume is of rectangular cross-section of 1.20 m wide and
1 meter high. When used it is half more than half filled. Find the thickness of the
flume if flexural stress is equal to 19.30 MPa.
a. 50 mm c. 100 mm e. 150 mm
b. 75 mm d. 125 mmA part of a farm warehouse
13. A distance between trusses is termed as:
a. span c. bay length e. depth
b. pitch d. height
14. A farm warehouse has a one side length of rafter equal to 5 meters, (including
eave) what possible roof length combination of 0.30m overlap would be used if
bay length is equal to 1 meter.
a. 1– 1.80m, 1– 3.60m c. 1– 2.10m, 1– 2.50m e. 1-
2.50m, 1- 3.60m
b.1 – 2.10m, 1 – 3.60m d. 1 – 2.50m, 1 – 2.75m
15. In problem # 14, find the total number of each kind or length used. Specs: for
effective width equal to 0.70 m. Specific length are: 1.80 m, 2.10 m, 2.50 m, 2.75
m, 3.00 m and 3.60 m.
a. 20 pcs. c. 24 pcs. e. 28 pcs.
b. 22 pcs. d. 26 pcs.
16. In problem # 14, find number of kg roofing if spacing of purlins equal to 0.70 m .
a. 10 kg. c. 15 kg. e. 20 kg.
b. 12 kg. d. 18 kg.
A solar drier of 40m x 50m is to be paved of 0.075 m thick 1:2:4 concrete mix. On a
selected borrow base course of 0.20 m thick with allowable compaction of 15% of the
total volume.
17. Determine the total volume for selected borrow base course.
a. 450m3 c. 470m3 e. 490m3
b. 460m 3
d. 480m 3

18. Determine the cement requirement for 7.85 bag/ m3 of concrete mix.
a. 1150 bags c. 1170 bags e. 1190 bags
b. 1160 bags d. 1180 bags
19. Gravel is equal to 0.900 of concrete mix.
a. 120m3 c. 130m3 d. 140m3
b. 125m3 d. 135m3
20. What appropriate equipment would you use for lateral canal excavation?
a. Bulldozer c. Powershovel e. road grader
b. Payloader d. Manpower
21. Six lawa-an round timber were used to span an 8 meter wide creek for a tractor-
trailer carrying 50 sacks of palay ( a sack of palay weighs 50 kg.). Determine the
diameter of the log to be used if ƒ = 15 MPa.
a. 150 mm c. 170 mm e. 180 mm
b. 160 mm d. 180 mm
22. How many grams of ethanol (C2H5OH) can be theoretically derived from 100 g of
glucose (C2H12O6) if the reaction yields 2 moles of ethanol and 2 moles of carbon
dioxide per mole of glucose feedstock.
a) 51.4 c) 92.1
b) 48.8 d) 88
23. Also called as wood spirit, this substance is explosive at low concentrations.
a) ethanol c) methanol
b) vegetable ester d) wood whiskey
24. A deadly gas produced from manure system that smells like rotten eggs and can
disrupt the olfactory nerves.
a) ammonia b) hydrogen sulfate c) methanol d) hydrogen sulfide
25. Which manure systems, you expect to be the driest?
a) dairy b) poultry c) swine d) aquaculture
26. Determine the volume of manure produced in 30 days by a facility that houses
200 50-lb animals if the daily excreted manure is 3 kg/animal/day.
a) 18000 kg b) 352,000 kg c) 9000 cm3 d) 9000 m3
27. Manure with liquid consistency can be transferred by:
a) push-off ramp b) haul c) conveyer d) pump and pipeline
28. It is an enhanced and accelerated biological decomposition of organic waste into a
stable, humus-like product.
a) anaerobic digestion b) aerobic digestion c) composting d) sludge treatment
29. Solutions that forms ion charges.
a. dielectric c. electrodes
b. electrolytes d. thermocouples
30. A current that flows in one direction.
a. alternating current c. direct current
b. sinusoidal current d. eddy current
31. The current of 6 amperes charges an insulator for 3 seconds. How much charged
is accumulated?
a. 2 C c. 0.5 C
b. 18 C d. none of these
32. A battery can supply 10 joules of energy to move 5 coulombs of charge. How
much is the voltage of the battery?
a. 5 volts c. 2 volts
b. 0.5 volts d. 10 volts
33. Fifteen microfarad is equal to
a. 0.00015 farad c. 1.5 x10 -6 farad
b. 15 x 10 -6 farad d. 0.0000015 farad
34. Megger which stands for megohmeter is an instrument used to measure
a. conductor resistance c. insulation resistance
b. ground resistance d. field resistance
35. The length and diameter of the wire used to construct a 39-ohm rheostat (variable
resistor) is 266 ft and 23.6 mils respectively. Calculate resistivity.
a. 81.7 ohms-cir mil/ft c. 3.46 ohms-cir mil/ft
b. 18.6 ohms-cir mil/ft d. 440 ohms-cir mil/ft
36. Thirty eight milliamperes is equal to
a. 0.038 amp c. 0.38 amp
b. 3.8 x 10-3 amp d. 0.0038 amp
37. A capacitive resistance of 50 ohms at 60 hz has a capacitance equal to
a. 530 μf c. 53 μf
b. 0.53 μf d. 5.3 μf
38. The rms value of an AC sinusoidal wave is the same as
a. effective value c. peak value
b. instantaneous value d. maximum value
39. What is the speed in RPM of a 6 pole AC generator at 60 hz.
a. 1000 rpm c. 2400 rpm
b. 1200 rpm d. 1300 rpm
40. The protection rating or setting of a motor shall be _______ of the full load
current of the motor
a.150% c. 200%
b. 250% d. 300%
41. The total capacitance of the parallel capacitors 5, 10, 20, and 25 microfarads is
a. 2.56 μf c. 60 μf
b. 25.6 μf d. 6.0 μf
42. A sinusoidal current wave has a maximum value of 21.2 amperes. What is the
effective value?
a. 30 amp c. 12.2 amp
b. 15 amp d. 36.7 amp
43. What is the total VA rating of a 220 V, 3-phase circuit supplied by a 20 amp. 3-
pole circuit breaker?
a. 4,400 VA c. 13,200 VA
b. 7,621 VA d. none of these
44. Coulomb is to charge as watt-hr is to_____
a. heat c. pressure
b. power d. energy
45. For a series LC circuit, the vector current ______ the vector voltage by an angle
greater than zero but less than 900.
a. leads c. lags
b. is in phase with d. any of these
46. The ability of a conductor (electric wire) to carry current without overheating is
 a. capacitance c. impedance
b. ampacity d. tolerance
47. An R-L circuit takes 360 watts at a power factor of 0.8 from a 120-volt 60-cycle
source. What is the impedance Z of the circuit?
a. 3 ohms c. 3.2 ohms
b. 30 ohms d. 32 ohms
48. An R-L circuit consists of a 55.4-ohm resistor, a 0.17-henry inductor and an 62.8-
μf capacitor in a 60-cycle source. What is the capacitive reactance?
a. 42.24 ohms c. 4.22 ohms
b. 422.4 ohms d. 0.422 ohms
49. The vector sum of the real power and the reactive power of the circuit is
a. effective power c. maximum power
b. peak power d. apparent power
50. An equipment is to operate at 1, 305 rpm. The motor pulley size is 7.62 cm and
the motor pullet speed is 1, 740 rpm. What size of pulley is needed for the
equipment?
a. 9 cm b. 10 cm c. 11 cm d. 12 cm
51. A machine is equipped with a 15 cm pulley. Its speed is to be in the range from
300 to 400 rpm. The motor speed is 1, 725 rpm. What size of motor pulley is
needed for the motor?
a. 2.5 cm b. 3.0 cm c. 3.5 cm d. 4.0 cm
52. If a refrigeration unit in # 3 is to operate only 16 hr out of every 24 hr. What must
be the rating or motor size is required?
a. 7.15 hp b. 7.25 hp c. 7.5 hp d. 7.75 hp
53. What is the energy consumption of the above water system?
a. 17. 18 kwhr/day c. 19.18 kwhr/day
b. 18.18 kwhr/day d. 20.18 kwhr/day
54. A unit of measuring the rate of flow of electricity through the wire:
a. watt b. volt c. coulomb d. ampere
55. The total for all watts which will be required at any one time.
a. Maximum demand c. Total connected load
b. Electric load d. Wattage
56. A device that limits the current in a wire to a predetermined number of amperes.
a. Ammeter c. Resistance
b. Service entrance switch d. Overcurrent Device
57. A machine which changes the amount of voltage from one value to another value.
a. Generator b. Battery c. Transformer d. Alternator
58. Type of diagram where symbols are used to represent the circuit components.
a. Wiring Diagram c. Free-body Diagram
b. Schematic Diagram d. Flow diagram
59. Current that flows fast in one direction and then in the opposite direction at
regular intervals.
a. single-phase current c. alternating current
b. reversal current d. direct current
60. A unit to measure quantities of electric energy
a. watthour c. volt-ampere
b. watt d. volt
61. A unit of electrical pressure
a. coulomb c. watt
c. ampere d. volt
62. Minimum size of service entrance switch
a. 30 amp c. 50 amp
b. 60 amp d. 70 amp
63. Measure of light intensity
a. flux c. lumen
b. watt d. foot candles
64. A device for making, breaking, or rearranging connections of an electric circuit.
a. switch c. circuit breaker
b. fuse d. splice
65. Minimum size of wire permitted for general
a. AWG # 12 c. AWG # 10
b. AWG # 14 d. AWG # 8
66. Mechanical device that opens the electrical circuit in case of an overload or short
circuit
a. switch c. fuse
b. circuit breaker d. service entrance switch
67. A device to measure electric energy
a. voltmeter c. multitester
b. ammeter d. watthour meter
68. RA ______ is the latest Agricultural Engineering Law
a. 8559 b. 8595 c. 8749 d. 8955
69. Stones larger or smaller than the rice grains are separated by the ____cleaner.
a. De-stoner b) magnetic separator c) aspirator d) sieves
70. A sample of 1000 kernels of brown rice weighd 500 grams. After whitening, the
sample of 1000 kernel of now milled rice weigh 350 grams. Determine the %
milling degree.
a. 15% b. 30% c. 45% d. 70%
71. A given air can remove 0.0025 kg H2O/ kg d.a.. If the airflow is 1.03 m 3/kg d.a.,
what volume of air in cubic meters is required to remove 1 kg of water?
a. 706 b. 484 c. 298 d. 412
72. In designing an air-conditioning system for human comfort, an operative
temperature range of _____ is acceptable.
a. 26 – 30 oC b. 20-26oC c. 12-20oC d. 8-16oC
73. A cabinet dryer is being used to dry a food product from 68% moisture content
(wet basis) to 5.5% moisture content (wet basis), the drying air enters the system
at 54oC and 10% RH (sp humidity = 0.186 kg H2O/kg dry air), and leaves at 300C
and 70% RH (sp humidity = 0.0094 kg H2O/kg dry air). The product temperature
is 250C throughout drying. Compute the quantity of air required for drying on the
basis of 1 kg of product solids. Units in kg dry air/kg solids.
a. 206.70 b. 224.65 c. 212.50 d. 582.15
74. According to Philippine Agricultural Engineering Standards 401:2001, what is the
space requirement per animal (m2/animal) of dry sows
a. 10.0 b. 5.60 c. 7.50 d. 1.80
75. Per PAES 403:2001, a layer house with litter floor should have a space
requirement of m3/100 bird?
a. 10.0 b. 5.00 c. 21.00 d. 17.00