Select your answers to these items using the employee is bound to visit the production

Codes given. below and mark your answer-sheet manager and that is a grave violation of
accordingly unity of command. Therefore, assertion is
correct.
Assertion (A): Unity of command cannot always
• Moreover, globalization has forced the
be strictly applied in practice.
Indian companies to create multiple
Reason (R): Workers should report to different business divisions, and therefore workers
supervisors for different aspects or tasks technical, should report to different supervisors for
financial, administrative etc. different aspects or tasks technical,
Codes: financial, administrative etc. and that will
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct lead to a higher specialization in the work
explanation of A profile of different employees. Therefore,
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct reason is also correct.
explanation of A • Hence the correct answer will be option A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R Q119. Directions: The following items consist of
Answer: A two statements, one labelled the 'Assertion (A)
Explanation: and the other labelled the 'Reason (R)'. You are to
• Unity of command: An employee should examine these two statements carefully and
receive orders from only one superior as decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are
shown in the figure below. individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R)
is a correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
Select your answers to these items using the
Codes given. below and mark your answer-sheet
accordingly
Assertion (A): Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)
is useful in a manufacturing company. It does not
find application in service industry.
Reason (R): Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)
enables a high level of interaction and
coordination along the supply chain.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
• This principle is against the Taylor’s
explanation of A
functional foremanship where multiple
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
superiors oversee the subordinate. As per
explanation of A
Fayol if there is no unity of command it will
(c) A is true but R is false
lead to conflict as subordinate will never
(d) A is false but R
know whom to obey. Adoption of this
Answer: D
principle leads to clarity about work
Explanation:
whereas violation will lead to confusion
• Enterprise resource planning (ERP) is a
about what to do and what not to do.
platform companies use to manage and
• However, Unity of command cannot
integrate the essential parts of their
always be strictly applied in practice,
businesses. Many ERP software
because no manager has all the required
applications are critical to companies
skills. For example, a marketing manager
because they help them implement
will not have the knowledge regarding the
resource planning by integrating all the
work done in the production department.
processes needed to run their companies
Therefore, if an employee of marketing
with a single system.
employee has a doubt regarding
• ERP applications also allow the different
production department, in that case, the
departments to communicate and share
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 information more easily with the rest of • Fishing and tourism are the key industries of
the company. It collects information about United Arab Emirates. Hence statement 3 is
the activity and state of different divisions, correct.
making this information available to other • Hence option B is the correct answer.
parts, where it can be used productively.
• An ERP software system can also integrate
planning, purchasing inventory, sales,
marketing, finance, human resources, and
more.
• ERP software can be used by variety of
companies, ERP software has expanded to
include nearly all types of businesses.
Typically, each company will have its own
specific reasons to implement an ERP
solution. Therefore, assertion is incorrect.
• he components of an ERP system depend
on the organization's needs. However,
there are key features that each ERP
should include. Generally, packages
include finance, human resource, logistics
and manufacturing, supply chain
management, and customer relationship
management and ERP also streamlines
various components of the Supply chain,
therefore the reason is correct.
• Hence the correct answer will be option D.

Q120. Consider the following statements

concerning United Arab Emirates:
1. Oman is one of the seven Emirates which form
the United Arab Emirates.
2. Dubai is the capital of United Arab Emirates.
3. Fishing and tourism are the key industries of
United Arab Emirates.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The United Arab Emirates is an elective
monarchy formed from a federation of seven
emirates.
• UAE’s seven emirates are Abu Dhabi, Dubai,
Sharjah, Ajman, Umm Al Quwain, Ras Al
Khaimah and Fujairah. Hence statement 1 is
incorrect.
• Abu Dhabi is the capital city of Dubai. Hence
statement 2 is incorrect.

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 S: Without realizing Hayden's intent in calling
SOLUTIONS – PREVIOUS YEAR subcontinent players selfish, we have reacted
QUESTIONS angrily.
The correct sequence should be:
UPSC EPFO APFC – 2004 (a) S-P-R-Q
(b) R-Q-S-P
(c) S-Q-R-P
PART- A (d) R-P-S-Q
Answer: (c)
ORDERING OF SENTENCES Explanation: The correct sequence is S-Q-R-P
which is given in option (c). Therefore, option (c) is
Directions (for the next Five items): the correct answer. S1 talks about ‘we Indians’ so
In the following items each passage consists of six the next sentence which goes here is S as in S it is
sentences. The first sentence (S₁) and the sixth said that ‘we have reacted angrily’. After S the next
sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The sentence should be Q because S talks about
middle four sentences in each have been removed ‘calling subcontinent players selfish’ while Q states
and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. that ‘our players have not been selfish’. The
You are required to find out the proper sequence following statement should be R as it is the only
of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the one that fits here. The fourth statement is P.
Answer Sheet.
Q2. S1: In the roll call of human history, the sleepy
Example X' has been solved for you. capital town of Madhya Pradesh is indelibly linked
X S1: There wsa a boy named Jack. with one of the world's worst man-made
S6: At last she turned him out of the house. catastrophes.
P: So the mother asked him to find work. S6: Industries across the globe became less
Q: They were very poor. complacent and began tightening their safety
R: He lived with his mother. protocols.
S: But Jack refused to work. P: More than 2,000 died instantly.
The correct sequence should be: Q: On the night of December 3, 1984, a poisonous
(a) R-Q-P-S grey cloud spread out from the Union Carbide
(b) P-Q-R-S Plant in Bhopal, suffocating more than three lakhs
(c) Q-P-R-S of its unsuspecting residents.
(d) R-P-S-Q R: The disaster shook the world, especially when
Answer: (a) hindsight revealed that almost all safety
Explanation: The correct sequence in this example regulations had been flouted by the plant.
is R-Q-P-S which is marked by (a). Therefore, (a) is S: The rest were doomed to wheeze, hobble and
the correct answer. gasp their way through life, their organs "eaten up
by the deadly combination of gases that leaked
out of the plant.
Q1. S₁: We Indians by nature are extremely The correct sequence should be
emotional. (a) Q-R-S-P
S6: What must be appreciated is that none of the (b) S-P-Q-R
members of the Indian team has reacted to this (c) Q-P-S-R
mind game utterance of Hayden. (d) S-R-Q-P
P: Had the political parties in India not been busy Answer: (c)
in fighting among themselves, they would have Explanation: The correct sequence is Q-P-S-R,
asked the Central Government to refuse visa to which is given in option (c). Therefore, option (c) is
Hayden. the correct answer. The second statement after S1
Q: Statisticians are working overtime to prove should be Q as S talks about the worst man-made
how our players have not been selfish. catastrophes and Q talks about what happened
R: Suddenly Hayden has become a villain. there exactly. P should be the following statement
after Q as it tells us that what happened after the
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catastrophe. S should come after P because it tells prepare a blueprint for India's future, roughly once
about the rest of the population who survived. R in five years.
should follow S as it gives the reason that why the R: Yet the process of planning didn't change and
disaster happened. excuses were found wars and droughts in the
Q3. S₁: From an importer of milk powder to the 1960s, war and oil shocks in the 70s.
world's largest milk producer. S: Elaborate models were developed, backed by
S6: And to think that it began as a simple immaculate calculations, on the investments and
experiment in a village in Gujarat only in the policies required to achieve the targets.
1960s. The correct sequence should be:
P: Operation Flood is arguably India's biggest and (a) Q-S-P-R
most successful revolution since the Quit India (b) P-R-Q-S
Movement. (c) Q-R-P-S
Q: India's Operation Flood has come a long way (d) P-S-Q-R
from the days when even baby food was imported Answer: (a)
to producing. 84 million tonnes a year. Explanation: The correct sequence is Q-S-P-R,
R: From abject desperation to becoming a global which is given in option (a). Therefore, option (a)
player in the dairy sector. is the correct answer. Statement S1 should be
S: From a mere few villagers and a 275-litre followed by statement Q as it states the action of
processing plant to an operation spread across 23 which statement S1 is mentioning about. After Q,
States, 170 Districts and 90,000 Village statement S should come as it explains what
Cooperatives. happens in a five year plan. According to the
The correct sequence should be: passage, statement P should come after
(a) P-S-Q-R statement S. Statement R should be the last
(b) R-Q-S-P statement after arrangement.
(c) P-Q-S-R
(d) R-S-Q-P Q5. S1: In neighbouring Tamil Nadu, Kodaikanal
Answer: (a) has fallen on bad times.
Explanation: The correct sequence is P-S-Q-R, S6: It is still a source water-albeit unpotable for
which is given in option (a). Therefore, option (a) the thirsty Kodai.
is the correct answer. Here, statement P should P: Trouble started when the focus was shifted
follow statement S1, it is the most suitable of the from Ooty to Kodai in the mid 80s.
following statements as it introduces operation Q: The once pristine surroundings have been
flood. S should come after P because it talks about destroyed by construction that paid scant respect
the expansion of the operation flood. Statement Q to the ecological sensitivity of the area.
should follow statement S here as it states about R: Commercial forces took over the hill station
the ‘long way’ that is covered by ‘operation flood’. large-scale activities and building commenced
R should be the last statement after around the artificial lake created in the 1800s.
rearrangement according to the passage. S: There is large-scale deforestation as well.
The correct sequence should be:
Q4. S1: One of the ironies of the Indian economy's (a) P-S-Q-R
consistent under-performance is that it has been (b) Q-R-P-S
planned. (c) Q-S-P-R
S6: As planning prospered, regional imbalances (d) P-R-Q-S
widened and competitiveness and free enterprise Answer: (d)
were crushed-defeating the fundamental purpose Explanation: The correct sequence is P-R-Q-S,
of planned development. which is given in option (d). Therefore, option (d)
P: It is another matter that in each of the nine Five- is the correct answer. Statement P should be the
Year Plans, barring the first, more targets were first statement after statement S1 as it tells about
missed than met. the starting of the bad times which is mentioned
Q: Within two months of India becoming a in statement S1. Statement R should follow
Republic, the Planning Commission was set up to statement P as it proceeds to tell the further

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 B. Henry Kissinger She is the founder of
C. Nelson Mandela Mamidipudi
D. Hillary Clinton Venkatarangaiya
List-II (Book) Foundation
1. Between Hope and History
Kalpana Lajmi Film Director
2. Living History
3. Diplomacy She was an Indian film
4. Long Walk to Freedom director, producer and
Codes: screenwriter.
A B C D Romila Thapar Historians
(a) 2 4 3 1 She is an Indian historian.
(b) 1 3 4 2 Her principal area of
(c) 2 3 4 1 study is ancient India, a
(d) 1 4 3 2 field in which she is pre-
Answer: D eminent.
Explanation Radha Reddy Indian Kuchipudi Dancer
Book Author
Between Hope and History Bill Clinton Q114. Assertion (A): In its Global Development
Living History Hillary Finance Report 2004, the World Bank has
Clinton categorised India as a less indebted country for the
Diplomacy Nelson year 2002.
Mandela Reason (R): During the last decade, India’s
Long Walk to Freedom Henry outstanding external debt has considerable
Kissinger reduced.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the
Q113. Match List-1 (Distinguished Women) with correct explanation of A.
List-II (Known As/Area) and select the correct (b) Both A and R are individually true and R is not
answer using the codes given below the Lists: the correct explanation of A.
List-I (Distinguished Women) (c) A is true but R is false.
A. Shanta Sinha (d) A is false but R is true
B. Kalpana Lajmi Answer: Latest Edition of the Reports released by
C. Romila Thapar International Organizations are important for the
D. Radha Reddy examination, in these reports India Specific
List-II (Known As/Area) Findings are the most important for the
1. Film Direction examination.
2. Community Leadership
3. Dancer Q115. Consider the following statements:
4. Historian India had plan holiday during 1966-69 due to
5. Business-woman 1. Indo-Pakistan conflict in 1965.
Codes: 2. Severe drought for two successive years.
A B C D Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 2 1 4 3 correct?
(b) 4 3 5 1 (a) 1 only
(c) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 only
(d) 4 1 5 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
Answer: D (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation Answer: A
Explanation:
Women Area
• The government had to declare "Plan
Shanta Sinha Community Leadership
Holidays" (1966-67, 1967-68, and 1968-69).
She is an Indian anti-child The Sino-Indian War of 1962 and the Indo-Pak
labour activist.
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 War of 1965, which caused the Third Five Year b) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 applies to
Plan to fail, were the primary causes of the Buddhists, Jains and Sikhs in addition to Hindus
plan holidays. Hence, statement 1 is correct. c) The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 recognizes the
• During 1966-67, there was the problem of right of women to inherit property of an
drought but it was not the reason behind the intestate equally with men
plan holiday. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. d) Muslims, Christians and Parsis in India have no
• Therefore, A is the right answer. adoption laws and can take a child under the
Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 only under
foster care
Q116. Consider the following statements: Answer: A
1. The members of the Employees' Provident Explanation:
Fund and exempted Provident Funds are • The Special Marriage Act, 1954 extended to
eligible for the Employees' Deposit-Linked all the States and Union Territories of India
Insurance Scheme. except Jammu & Kashmir. Hence statement
2. Employees' Pension Scheme, 1995 was (a) was incorrect in 2004 but now Jammu &
introduced for the industrial workers. Kashmir has become a UT and so it applies
3. Coverage under the Employees' Provident there also.
Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act is • The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 applies to
restricted to establishments employing 20 or many religions such as the Hindus, Jains,
more persons. Sikhs and the Buddhists. It is also applicable
Which of the statements given above is/are to the persons if they have converted to any
correct? of these religions from any other religion.
a) 1 and 2 Hence statement (b) is correct.
b) 1, 2 and 3 • As per the Hindu Succession Act 1956, in a
c) 1 and 3 case where a woman dies intestate leaving
d) 3 only property, her property will firstly devolve
Answer: C upon her sons and daughters so also the
Explanation: husband. The children of any pre-deceased
• The members of the Employees' Provident son or daughter are also included in the first
Fund and exempted Provident Funds are category of heirs of a female Hindu. Hence
eligible for the Employees' Deposit-Linked statement (c) is correct.
Insurance Scheme. Hence, statement 1 is • Adoption is a subject matter of personal law
correct. since it is a legal affiliation of a child. Similar
• The Employee's Pension Scheme (EPS) was to Muslims and Parsis, Christians also can
introduced in the year 1995 with the main adopt a child from an orphanage with the
aim of helping employees in the organised permission of the concerned court under the
sector. All employees who are eligible for the Guardian and Ward Act, 1980. Hence
Employees Provident Fund (EPF) scheme will statement (d) is correct.
also be eligible for EPS. Hence, statement 2 • Therefore, A is the right answer.
is incorrect.
• Coverage under the Employees' Provident
Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act is Q118. Why did Motilal Nehru and Chittaranjan
restricted to establishments employing 20 or Das form a separate group known as Swaraj Party
more persons. Hence, statement 3 is within the Congress?
correct. a) They were not satisfied with the progress
• Therefore, C is the right answer. made by the Congress in achieving Swaraj
b) It was their reaction to Mahatma Gandhi's
sudden decision to suspend the Non-
Q117. Which one of the following statements is Cooperation Movement
not correct? c) They were interested in forming more active
a) The Special Marriage Act, 1954 extends to all party with revolutionary ideas
the States and Union Territories of India
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d) They felt that their opinions and views were Select your answers to these items using the
not given due importance in the Congress Codes given. below and mark your answer-sheet
Sessions accordingly
Answer: B
Explanation: Assertion (A): The salinity of the open seas is very
high compared to that of inland seas.
• The Withdrawal of Non-Cooperation
movement, and arrest of Gandhiji in March Reason (R): The water of rivers flowing into open
1922 through the freedom struggle into a seas contains dissolved salts.
passive phase, there was disintegration, Codes:
disorganisation and demoralisation among (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
nationalist ranks. explanation of A
• There were different proposals regarding (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
the activities that need to be undertaken in explanation of A
the passive phase of the freedom (c) A is true but R is false
movement. (d) A is false but R is true
• Consequently, there emerged two major Answer: D
schools of thought - Swarajist: They wanted Explanation:
a re-entry and utilization of Legislative • Mostly inland seas have greater salinity
Councils and No-Changers: They were than open seas. This may be because of
against the council re-entry and rather evaporation. Hence Assertion (A) is false.
emphasized on constructive work during • Throughout the world, rivers carry an
the passive phase of the movement. estimated four billion tons of dissolved
• Therefore, B is the right answer. salts to the ocean annually. Hence Reason
Q119. Which of the following is detected and (R) is true. Hence option D is correct.
estimated by the Pollution Check' carried out on
motor cars at service stations?
a) Lead and carbon particles
b) Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur
c) Carbon monoxide
d) Carbon dioxide
Answer: C
Explanation:
In India, a valid driving license, insurance coverage
and a Pollution Under Control Certificate are legal
mandatory requirements for a car.
• The smoke emitted from vehicles, if left
unchecked, could pollute the environment
to a great extent. PUC is a certification mark
that is provided to vehicles that undergo the
PUC Test successfully.
• Carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons are
checked.
• Therefore, C is the right answer.

Q120. Directions: The following items consist of

two statements, one labelled the 'Assertion (A)
and the other labelled the 'Reason (R)'. You are to
examine these two statements carefully and
decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are
individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R)
is a correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
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 inside the earth. People use geothermal heat
SOLUTIONS – PREVIOUS YEAR for bathing, to heat buildings, and to generate
QUESTIONS electricity.
• Geothermal power plants require high-
temperature (300°F (150oC) to 700°F (370oC))
UPSC EPFO APFC – 2012 hydrothermal resources that come from either
dry steam wells or from hot water wells. Hence
Q1. For calculating Body Mass Index (BMI), Statement (I) is correct.
weight of the person (in kg) is divided by the: • To drive steam turbines high pressure, high
(a) Square of the weight (in kg) temperature steam is used. The high pressure
(b) Square of the height (in meters) creates the necessary thrust while the high
(c) Square root of the height (in meters) temperature prevents the steam from
(d) Vitamins intake condensing into water which can be
Answer: B detrimental for the turbine. Hence Statement
Explanation: (II) is correct but not the correct explanation
Body Mass Index is a simple calculation using a of Assertion as high-pressure steam drives
person's height and weight. steam turbines.
• The formula is BMI = W/h2 where W is a
person's weight in kilograms and h2 is their Q3. Gun metal is an alloy of
height in metres squared. (a) Copper, Tin and Zinc
• A BMI of 25.0 or more is overweight, while the (b) Aluminium, Tin and Steel
healthy range is 18.5 to 24.9. (c) Copper, Steel and Zinc
(d) Aluminium, Tin and Zinc
Directions: Each of the next One (2) item consists Answer: A
of two statements, one labeled as the 'Statement Explanation:
(I) and the other as 'Statement (II)'. You are to Gunmetal, also called G Metal is a variety of
examine these two statements carefully and select bronze, formerly used for ordnance.
the answers to these items using the codes given • Modern admiralty gunmetal is composed of 88
below: percent copper, 10 percent tin, and 2 percent
zinc and is used for gears and bearings that are
Codes: to be subjected to heavy loads and low speeds.
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are • Hence option A is correct.
individually true, and Statement (II) is the
correct explanation of Statement (I) Q4. If the electrical resistance of a typical
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are substance suddenly drops to zero, then the
individually true but Statement (II) is NOT the substance is called :
correct explanation of Statement (I) (a) Semiconductor
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false (b) Conductor
(d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is True (c) Superconductor
(d) Super semiconductor
Q2. Statement (I): In order to produce electric Answer: C
power from a geothermal reservoir, temperature Explanation:
above 1800C is required. In superconductors, resistance drops suddenly to
Statement (II): To drive steam turbines, high zero at a sufficiently low temperature.
temperature steam is used. • A superconductor is a material that achieves
Answer: B superconductivity, which is a state of matter
Explanation: that has no electrical resistance and does not
Geothermal energy is heat within the earth. The allow magnetic fields to penetrate.
word geothermal comes from the Greek words • An electric current in a superconductor can
geo (earth) and therme (heat). persist indefinitely.
• Geothermal energy is a renewable energy • Superconductivity can only typically be
source because heat is continuously produced achieved at very cold temperatures.
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• Prominent examples of superconductors Answer: D
include aluminium, niobium, magnesium Explanation:
diboride, cuprates such as yttrium barium File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
copper oxide and iron pnictides. • The File Transfer Protocol is a standard
• These materials only become superconducting network protocol used for the transfer of
at temperatures below a certain value, known computer files between a client and server on
as the critical temperature. a computer network.
• FTP is built on a client-server model
Q5. The material used for electric fuse is an alloy architecture using separate control and data
of tin and lead. This alloy should have: connections between the client and the server
(a) High specific resistance and low melting point.
(b) Low specific resistance and high melting point. Q8. RAM stands for:
(c) Low specific resistance and low melting point. (a) Random Access Memory
(d) High specific resistance and high melting point. (b) Read Access Memory
Answer: A (c) Random Attribute Memory
Explanation: (d) Random Applicable Memory
The material used for electric fuse is an alloy of tin Answer: A
and lead. Explanation:
• This alloy has high specific resistance and also Random Access Memory (RAM) –
low melting point so that it melts as soon as • A semiconductor storage structure that
large current flows through the wire. Hence accesses temporary data with a random or
option A is correct. direct accessing method.
• The specific resistance is constant for a wire • It is accurately referred to as 'erasable
irrespective of the length or cross-sectional read/write' memory.
area of the wire. • It is also referred to as volatile memory.

Q6. Bancassurance is: Q9. Which of the following is also known as brain
(a) An insurance scheme to insure bank deposits of computer?
(b) An insurance scheme exclusively for bank (a) Monitor
employees (b) Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)
(c) A composite financial service offering both (c) Control Unit
bank and insurance products (d) Central Processing Unit (CPU)
(d) A bank deposit scheme exclusively for Answer: D
employees of insurance companies Explanation:
Answer: C Central Processing Unit (CPU)
Explanation: • The Central Processing Unit (CPU) performs
• Bancassurance is an arrangement between a the actual processing of data.
bank and an insurance company allowing the • It is the part of a computer system that
insurance company to sell its products to the interprets and carries out the instructions
bank's client base. contained in the software.
• This partnership arrangement can be • The CPU is generally called by its generic
profitable for both companies. name 'Processor'. It is also known as the brain
• Banks earn additional revenue by selling of computer.
insurance products, and insurance companies
expand their customer bases without Q10. A technique in which data is written to two
increasing their sales force. duplicate disks simultaneously, is called as _____.
(a) Mirroring
Q7. The word FTP stands for: (b) Multiplexing
(a) File Transit Provision (c) Duplicating
(b) File Translate Protocol (d) Copying
(c) File Transfer Provision Answer: A
(d) File Transfer Protocol Explanation:
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(c) The affluent who exploits the weakness of the ‘controlled’. ‘Headstrong’ means ‘very determined
poor to do what you want without listening to others’,
(d) The supporter of bribe who is left with little while ‘controlled’ means ‘not showing emotion;
choice having one's feelings under control.’,Therefore,
Answer: (c) option (b) is the correct answer.
Explanation: According to the author, ‘The corrupt ‘Sensible’ means done or chosen in accordance
practice of bribery is possible because there is with wisdom or prudence; likely to be of benefit.
someone who is ready to pay money for illegal ‘Decide’ means make a choice from a number of
action or decision in his favor. Otherwise, how can alternatives.
one demand a bribe? The bribe-giver tempts ‘Elastic’ means (of an object or material) able to
others to be corrupt and thus demoralizes our resume its normal shape spontaneously after
national character’ and also ‘one who gives bribe being stretched or compressed.
should be awarded more severe punishment ‘Stretch’ means (of something soft or elastic) be
because he exploits the weakness of the poor’, this made or be capable of being made longer or wider
shows that the affluent who exploits the weakness without tearing or breaking.
of the poor is more corrupted. Hence, Option (c) ‘Persuasive’ means good at persuading someone
is the correct answer. to do or believe something through reasoning or
the use of temptation.
Q94. A judgment made before all the facts are ‘Convince’ means cause (someone) to believe
known must be called: firmly in the truth of something.
(a) Deliberate
(b) Sensible Q96. Choose the word which is the nearest
(c) Premature opposite to the meaning of the underlined word:
(d) Harsh I wish I could pursue my studies.
Answer: (c) (a) Discontinue
Explanation: A judgement made before all the (b) Abandon
facts are known is called as ‘premature’ which (c) Restrain
means that decision was made too hastily, and (d) Deter
probably would have been different if more time Answer: (b)
had been taken. Therefore, option (c) is the Explanation: ‘Pursue’ means ‘follow or chase
correct answer. (someone or something)’, the opposite of pursue
‘Deliberate’ means done consciously and should be ‘abandon’ which means ‘give up
intentionally. completely (a practice or a course of action).
‘Sensible’ means done or chosen in accordance Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
with wisdom or prudence; likely to be of benefit. ‘Discontinue’ means cease from doing or providing
‘Harsh’ means unpleasantly rough or jarring to the (something), especially something that has been
senses. provided on a regular basis.
‘Restrain’ means to control the actions or
Q95. Which of the following pairs of words behaviour of someone by force, especially in order
expresses the same relationship as in ELUSIVE: to stop them from doing something.
CAPTURE? ‘Deter’ means discourage (someone) from doing
(a) Sensible: decide something by instilling doubt or fear of the
(b) Headstrong: controlled consequences.
(c) Elastic: stretch
(d) Persuasive: convince Q97. Which of the following options is the closest
Answer: (b) in meaning to the word CIRCUITOUS?
Explanation: ‘Elusive’ means ‘difficult to find, (a) Indirect
catch, or achieve.’ while ‘capture’ means ‘take into (b) Confusing
one's possession or control by force.’. Hence, (c) Crooked
elusive and capture are the opposite of each other. (d) Cyclic
The pair which expresses the same relationship as Answer: (c)
that of elusive and capture is ‘headstrong’ and
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Explanation: ‘Circuitous’ means ‘(of a route or Answer: (D)
journey) longer than the most direct way’, the Explanation:
word which is closest to the meaning of circuitous • On 7th September, 1978, an Act to
is ‘crooked’ which means ‘bent or twisted out of establish a Press Council of India for the
shape or out of place’. Therefore, option (c) is the purpose of preserving the freedom of the
correct answer. Press and of maintaining and improving
‘Indirect’ means not directly caused by or resulting the standards of newspapers and news
from something. agencies in India was enacted.
‘Confusing’ means bewildering or perplexing. • The United News of India (UNI), founded
‘Cyclic’ means occurring in cycles; recurrent. in 1961, has emerged as one of the largest
news agencies in India.
Q98. Archaeological studies suggest the theory • The NAM News Network (NNN) is the
(a) All the continents were settled with human transformation of the now-defunct NANAP
societies at about the same time or Non-Aligned News Agencies Pool. The
(b) Farming societies developed before hunting resurrection was with the concurrence and
and gathering endorsement of the Sixth Conference of
(c) The earliest human evolved in the Rift valley in Ministers of Information of Non-Aligned
East Africa Countries (COMINAC VI) hosted by
(d) The wheel was in use in all ancient societies Malaysia in November 2005.
Answer: (C) • Press Trust of India (PTI), news agency
Explanation: cooperatively owned by Indian
• Homo sapiens, the first modern humans, newspapers, which joined together to take
evolved from their early hominid over the management of the Associated
predecessors between 200,000 and Press of India and the Indian outlets of the
300,000 years ago. They developed a Reuters news agency of Great Britain. It
capacity for language about 50,000 years began operating in February 1949 and is
ago. The first modern humans began headquartered in Mumbai. Hence PTI is
moving outside of Africa starting about the earliest and D is the correct answer.
70,000-100,000 years ago. Thus it cannot
be said that human societies emerged at Q100. Which of the following sets of countries
the same time in all the continents. Hence has only federations?
statement (a) is incorrect. (a) New Zealand, India, Zimbabwe and Argentina
• As per archaeological studies, hunting and (b) Malaysia, Australia, Nigeria and Brazil
gathering societies emerged before the (c) India, Nepal, Sri Lanka and South Africa
farming societies. Hence statement (b) is (d) France, Germany, Sweden and Switzerland
incorrect. Answer: (B)
• The earliest human evolved in the Rift Explanation:
valley in East Africa. Hence statement (c) is • France is a unitary State organised on a
correct. decentralised basis under the 1958
• The wheel was invented in the 4th Constitution. Hence D is not the correct
millennium BC in Lower Mesopotamia answer.
(modern-day Iraq), where the Sumerian • New Zealand is a unitary state rather than
people inserted rotating axles into solid a federation—local government has only
discs of wood. Hence statement (d) is the powers conferred upon it by the
incorrect. national Parliament. Hence A is not the
correct answer.
Q99. Which of the following is the earliest to be • With the promulgation of its constitution in
constituted? 2015, Nepal replaced a unitary
(a) Press Council of India government with a federal system of
(b) United News of India government. This process has made Nepal
(c) NAM News Network a federal democratic republic governed
(d) Press Trust of India with three levels of government: a federal
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 level, seven provinces and 753 local
government. Hence C is not the correct
answer as per year 2012.
• Hence B is the correct answer as Malaysia,
Australia, Nigeria and Brazil are
federations.

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 ruined, or defeated by one's own action, device, or
SOLUTIONS – PREVIOUS YEAR plot that was intended to harm another; having
QUESTIONS fallen victim to one's own trap or schemes’. Option
(a) is the most suitable answer here.

UPSC EPFO APFC - 2015 Q4. What is Ballad?

(a) A novel
Q1. What is the indication out of the sentence: ‘I (b) A historical narration
gave him a piece of my mind’? (c) A popular story or folktale in verse
(a) Appreciation (d) Musical comedy
(b) Learning Answer: C
(c) Greeting Explanation: A ‘ballad’ is a poem or song narrating
(d) Scolding a story in short stanzas. Traditional ballads are
Answer: D typically of unknown authorship, having been
Explanation: The expression, ‘To give someone a passed on orally from one generation to the next.
piece of your mind’ means to speak to someone in Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. A
an angry way. Therefore, the answer here is ‘novel’ is a fictitious prose narrative of book
‘scolding’ which means the act of speaking angrily length, typically representing character and action
to someone because you disapprove of their with some degree of realism. A ‘Historical
behaviour. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer. Narrative’ or Narrative history is the practice of
‘Appreciation’ means recognition and enjoyment writing history in a story-based form. A ‘musical
of the good qualities of someone or something. comedy’ is a type of play or film that has singing
‘Learning’ means the acquisition of knowledge or and dancing as part of the story and that is
skills through study, experience, or being taught. humorous and entertaining,
‘Greeting’ means a polite word or sign of welcome
or recognition. Q5. Plagiarism means
(a) There was an epidemic of plague in the area
Q2. What is the meaning of the expression: 'Blue (b) It is a sort of political philosophy
blood'? (c) It indicates a happy community spirit like in
(a) Polluted industrial waste water playing Holi
(b) Sap of teak wood (d) It is presenting the work of someone else as
(c) An aristocrat one's own
(d) A costly object Answer: D
Answer: C Explanation: The term ‘plagiarism’ means the
Explanation: ‘Blue blood’ is an idiomatic practice of taking someone else's work or ideas
expression which means ‘A member of a wealthy, and passing them off as one's own, which is given
upper-class family or ancestry’ and ‘aristocrat’ in option (d). Therefore, option (d) is the correct
means ‘ someone whose family has a high social answer.
rank, especially someone who has a title’.
Therefore, ‘an aristocrat’ is the correct meaning of Q6. Rivalry between the two clans has become
the expression ‘blue blood’. Hence, option (c) is water under the bridge means.
the correct answer. (a) The rivalry continues
(b) It has become a thing of the past
Q3. ‘He was hoist by his own petard' refers to (c) It connects the two clans
(a) He had problems as a result of his own plans to (d) It is not forgotten
hurt others Answer: B
(b) He was high up on the pole Explanation: The idiom ‘water under the bridge’
(c) He would usually run away from trouble means problems that someone has had in the past
(d) He was indifferent to his surroundings that they do not worry about because they
Answer: A happened a long time ago and cannot now be
Explanation: ‘He was hoist by his own petard’ is an changed. Option (b) is the correct answer here as
idiomatic expression which means ‘Injured, it gives the right meaning of the expression.
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Q7. Consider the sentence: spread all over. Hence, option (b) is the correct
The teacher gave me the book. answer.
1 2 3 4 5 6
where the words are numbered for convenience Q10. Arrange the following to form a
of reference. Consider also the insertion of a single grammatically correct sentence:
word 'only' into this sentence to indicate a desired 1. Einstein was
emphasis. Where shall this word be inserted if the 2. although a great scientist
emphasis is to be 3. weak in Arithmetic
(i) On the recipient 4. right from his school days
(ii) On the uniqueness of the item given Select the correct answer using the codes given
(iii) On the giver below:
Respectively (only one at a time)? (a) 4, 1, 3 and 2
(a) (i) Between 3-4; (ii) After 6; (iii) Between 2-3 (b) 2, 1, 3 and 4
(b) (i) Between 3-4; (ii) Between 5-6; (iii) Before 1 (c) 4, 3, 1 and 2
(c) (i) Between 4-5; (ii) Between 3-4; (iii) After 1 (d) 2, 3, 1 and 4
(d) (i) Between 2-3; (ii) Between 4-5; (iii) Between Answer: B
1-2 Explanation: A sentence should be arranged in a
Answer: B Subject+ verb+ object form. The subject can be
Explanation: (i)the recipient is ‘me’, therefore it noun, pronoun, gerund, or clause. Here, the
will be “only me” i.e. between 3-4. sentence will start with either 1 or 2 (noun and
(ii) the uniqueness of the item given is ‘book’, clause). Therefore, option (a) and (c) will be
therefore it will be “the only book” i.e. between 5- eliminated. Option (b) will make a grammatically
6. correct sentence after rearrangement i.e. 2134.
(iii) the giver is the ‘teacher’, therefore it will be Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
“only the teacher” i.e. before 1.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer here. Q11. Besides resistance to pests, what are the
other prospects for which plants have been
Q8. What is the meaning of the term 'didactic'? genetically engineered?
(a) Intended to be inspirational 1. To enable them to withstand drought
(b) Teaching a moral lesson 2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce
(c) Received as comical 3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis
(d) Sharing an informative experience in spaceships and space stations
Answer: B 4. To increase their shelf life
Explanation: ‘Didactic’ means ‘intended to teach, Select the correct answer using the codes given
particularly in having moral instruction as an below:
ulterior motive’. Therefore, option (b) is the (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
correct answer. (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
Q9. Consider the statement: The message of (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
peace and brotherhood permeated the address Answer: D
by the Chief Guest. Which of the following is Explanation:
meant by 'permeate' in this statement? Plant genetic engineering, also known as plant
(a) To advocate genetic modification or manipulation, is the key
(b) To spread all over that opens up the doors for introducing crops with
(c) To anchor and stabilize valuable traits to produce plants that require
(d) To leave a permanent impression fewer pesticides, fungicides, or fertilizers, and can
Answer: B be more resistant to stress conditions. The
Explanation: The term ‘permeate’ means ‘to applications of Plant Genetic Engineering are:
penetrate, pass through, and often become • Some benefits of genetic engineering in
widespread throughout something’. Option (b) agriculture are increased crop yields, reduced
gives the right meaning of ‘permeate’ i.e. to costs for food or drug production, reduced
need for pesticides, enhanced nutrient
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(b) 3 and 4 only • The extant FDI Policy, Press Notes and other
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only related notified guidelines formulated by
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Department for Promotion of Industry and
Answer: C Internal Trade (DPIIT) in the Ministry of
Explanation Commerce and Industry are the bases of the
• In April 1930, the Indian Broadcasting Service, FIPB decisions.
under the Department of Industries and • In the process of making recommendations,
Labour, commenced its operations on an the FIPB provides significant inputs for FDI
experimental basis. Lionel Fielden was policy-making.
appointed the first Controller of Broadcasting The following are the functions of FIPB:
in August 1935. • Quickly approve FDI proposals. Hence
• In the following month Akashvani Mysore, a statement 1 is correct.
private radio station was set up. On June 8, • Review FDI policies and help set up
1936, the Indian State Broadcasting Service transparent guidelines that encourage FDI into
became All India Radio. It is governed by the different sectors. Hence statement 3 is
Prasar Bharati Board. correct.
• In 2004, the DTH service of Doordarshan and • To examine the implementation of the various
AIR was started. proposals that it had approved. Hence
• AIR operates at present 18 FM stereo statement 2 is correct.
channels, called AIR FM Rainbow, targeting • To encourage FDI into the country by
the urban audience in a refreshing style of establishing contracts with international
presentation. Four more FM channels called, companies and inviting them to make
AIR FM Gold, broadcast composite news and investments in India.
entertainment programmes from Delhi, • To communicate with the government and
Kolkata, Chennai and Mumbai. industry to augment the inflow of FDI into the
• Hence statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. country.
Hence C is the correct answer. • To identify other sectors that need FDI.
• To interact with the FIPC being constituted
Q120. Which of the following are the functions of separately by the Ministry of Industry. Hence
Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB)? statement 4 is correct.
1. To ensure expeditious clearance of the
proposals for foreign investment. Subsequent to abolition of the Foreign Investment
2. Τo review periodically the implementation of Promotion Board (FIPB) by the Government in
the proposals cleared by the Board 2017, the work of granting government approval
3. To undertake all other activities for promoting for foreign investment under the extant FDI Policy
and facilitating FDI as considered necessary from and FEMA Regulations, has been entrusted to the
time to time concerned Administrative Ministries /
4. To interact with the FIPC being constituted Departments.
separately by the Ministry of Industry
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4 only
Answer: C
Explanation
The Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB),
housed in the Department of Economic Affairs,
Ministry of Finance, is an inter-ministerial body,
responsible for processing of FDI proposals and
making recommendations for Government
approval.
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SOLUTIONS – PREVIOUS YEAR Q3. Which one of following is the synonym of the
QUESTIONS word written in capital letters in the sentence,
“She is an IMMACULATE soul whose presence
make all the difference”?
UPSC EPFO EO/AO - 2017 (a) Spotless
(b) Excited
PART- A (c) Extraordinary
Q1. Which one of the following is the synonym of (d) Unparalleled
the word written in capital letters in the sentence,
“The FUNDAMENTAL character of an individual Answer – (A)
defines his entire life”? Explanation: Synonym of ‘immaculate’ is
(a) Productive ‘spotless’.
(b) Essential Immaculate - Without fault or error.
(c) Successful (a) Spotless - Completely neat and clean.
(d) Effective (b) Excited - In an aroused state.
(c) Extraordinary - Beyond what is ordinary
Answer – (B) or usual; highly unusual or exceptional or
Explanation: Synonym of ‘fundamental’ is remarkable; special.
‘essential’. (d) Unparalleled - Radically distinctive and
Fundamental - Serving as an essential without equal.
component.
(a) Productive - Yielding positive results. Q4. Which one of the following is the antonym of
(b) Essential - Absolutely necessary; vitally the word written in capital letters in the sentence,
necessary. “there is a great deal of ENMITY”?
(c) Successful - Having succeeded or being (a) Amity
marked by a favourable outcome. (b) Cooperation
(d) Effective - Producing or capable of producing (c) Dispute
an intended result or having a striking effect. (d) Hostility

Answer – (A)
Q2. Which one of the following is the synonym of Explanation: Antonym of ‘enmity’ is ‘amity’.
the word written in capital letters in the sentence, Enmity - The feeling of a hostile person.
“She has the habit of using HACKNEYED and (a) Amity - A state of friendship and
redundant examples from her past even while cordiality.
dealing with the future generation”? (b) Cooperation - Active help from a person,
(a) Indifferent organization, etc.
(b) Imaginative (c) Dispute - Have a disagreement over
(c) Clichéd something.
(d) Impressive (d) Hostility - A state of deep-seated ill-will.

Answer – (C) Q5. Which one of the following is the antonym of

Explanation: Synonym of ‘hackneyed’ is ‘clichéd’. the word written in capital letters in the sentence,
Hackneyed - Repeated too often; overfamiliar “She was RELUCTANT to sell her car”?
through overuse. (a) Anxious
(a) Indifferent - Marked by a lack of interest. (b) Happy
(b) Imaginative - marked by independence (c) Eager
and creativity in thought or action. (d) Unwilling
(c) Clichéd - Repeated regularly without
thought or originality. Answer – (C)
(d) Impressive - Making a strong or vivid Explanation: Antonym of ‘reluctant’ is ‘eager’.
impression.
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Reluctant - Unwillingness to do something (c) to my point of view
contrary to your custom. (d) No error
(a) Anxious - Causing or fraught with or
showing anxiety. Answer – (B)
(b) Happy - Enjoying or showing or marked by Explanation: ‘bring something forward’ means to
joy or pleasure. propose a plan or a new idea which is incorrect in
(c) Eager - Having a strong or impatient wish this context. It should be ‘brought him around’
to do something. which means to ‘convince him’.
(d) Unwilling - Not disposed or inclined
toward.
Q9. Which one of the following parts of the
Q6. Which one of the following is the antonym of sentence, ‘Don’t ask him how he is because if he
the word written in capital letters in the sentence, starts talking about his health you’ll never get off
“I cannot comply with the QUEER regulations of from him”, has an error?
your land”? (a) Don’t ask him how he is because
(a) Strange (b) If he starts talking about his health you’ll
(b) Nimble never
(c) Everyday (c) get off from him
(d) Customary (d) No error

Answer – (D) Answer – (C)

Explanation: Antonym of ‘queer’ is ‘customary’. Explanation: ‘get off’ means to leave work which
Queer - Beyond or deviating from the usual or is incorrect in this context. It should be ‘get away
expected. from him’ which means to ‘leave’.
(a) Strange - Being definitely out of the
ordinary and unexpected; slightly odd or even a
bit weird. Q10. Which one of the following words can be
(b) Nimble - Moving quickly and lightly. used as a substitute for the phrase, “A nursery
(c) Everyday - Found in the ordinary course of where children of working parents are cared for
events. while their parents are at work”?
(d) Customary - Commonly used or practised; (a) Sculler
usual. (b) Crèche
(c) Dormitory
Q7. Which one of the following parts of the (d) Refectory
sentence, “As you know that the ignorant are
easily duped”, has an error? Answer – (B)
(a) As you know Explanation: Crèche: A nursery for the
(b) that the ignorant supervision of preschool children while the
(c) are easily duped parents work.
(d) No error

Answer – (B) Q11. Which one of the following words can be

Explanation: Using ‘that’ after ‘As you know’ is used as a substitute for the phrase, “That which
incorrect because using two conjunctions cannot be taken by force”?
together is superfluous. So, remove ‘that’ from (a) Impossible
the sentence. (b) Improbable
(c) Impeccable
Q8. Which one of the following parts of the (d) Impregnable
sentence, “After a lot of argument I brought him
forward to my point of view”, has an error? Answer – (D)
(a) After a lot of argument Explanation: Impregnable: Incapable of being
(b) I brought him forward overcome, challenged or refuted.
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 coherent government plan would be the only
sufficient action.
• By the outbreak of World war II, Beveridge
found himself working in Whitehall where he
was commissioned to lead an inquiry into
social services.
• His vision was to battle against what he called
the five giants; idleness, ignorance, disease,
squalor and want.

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