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Oym Aiats 01

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Abhimanyu Bhasin
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Roll No.: (C0000 Test Date: (14-08-2022 Le We a ALL INDIA RAKASH Test | Sees TE gor —_—_ Medical Entrance Exam - 2023 ty-cum-Entrance Test (NEET) (XII Studying Students) Read each question careful, leis mandatory to use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the appropriate cieleintheansworsneet Mark shouldbe darkand should completely filthe circle Rough work mustnotbe done onthe answer sheet Do not use white-ud or any other rubbing material on answer sheet. No change inthe answer once markec is allowed, ‘Stugentcannotuselog tables and calculators ar any ober material inthe examination hall 7. Before attempting the qusstion paper, student should ensure that the test paper contains allpages and no page smissing Each correct answer carries four marks. One mark wil be dedlcted foreach incortectanswerfrom the total seore Before handing over the anewer sheet tthe nvigltor, candidate ‘should check that Roll No, and Gentte Code have been filed and marked correctly Immediately ater the proscribed examination time ts over, the answer sheeto be retumedto the invilatr. ‘There are two sections in each subject ie. Secton-A& Secton 8. You have to attempt all 35 questions from SectionA & only ‘sO questions outo 15 rom Section 8. Note : tis compulsory to fll Roll No. and Test Booklat Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will nt be considered TOPICS OF THE TEST Electric Charges and Fields, Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance, Current Electricity Ly CROMTSUMEEM The Solid State, Solutions Elecrochemisty, Chemical Kinetics Reproduction in Organisms, Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Reproduction in organisms, Human Reproduction, Allindia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 [PHYSICS] Choose the correct answer : SECTION-A 1. Two equal point charges each 6 uC are separated by a certain distance in metres. If they are located at (2i+2]+2%)m and (37-+4j+42)m, then electrostatic force between them is (1) 18 mn (2) 24mN (3) 9mN (4) 36 mN 2. Acharge 2 is to be divided on two objects. The value of charge on each object, such that force between the object can be maximum, would be 2Q Q 5Q mM So @ aa aa O35 Moe 3. A point charge is brought in an electric field. The electric field at a nearby point (1) Will increase if the charge is positive (2) Will decrease if the charge is negative (3) May increase if the charge is positive (4) Will remains same 4, Anelectric dipole is placed in a uniform electric field, the net torque on the dipole (1) Is always zero (2) Depend on orientation of dipole (3) Can never be zero (4) Never depend on the strength of the dipole 5. A solid spherical conductor of radius R has a spherical cavity of radius a (a < R) at its centre. A charge +Q is kept at the centre. The charge inside a gaussian surface of radius r (a t — ev },—_____ ww 20 (1) 9yc (2) Buc (3) 6 pe (4) 10 uc The equivalent capacitance of the combination between point A and B, as shown in the figure, is GwenrGs iG: 7 +6) ve A g+-—______| c OF @ 5 3c @ > (4) 4c A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to 50 V and is then connected to an uncharged geometrically identical capacitor in parallel, The second capacitor has some dielectric medium between its plates. If the common potential is 10 V, the dielectric constant of the medium is aa @) 8 (2 (4) 3 All India Aakash Test Series for NEE’ Za 18. A.uniform electric field of 60 Vim is directed at 30° with the positive x-axis as shown in figure. if OA=3 m, then potential difference Vo- Va is (1) 90 (2) -208V (3) 60v3V (4) 603 19. Abattery of internal resistance rhas an emf E, What is the potential difference across the terminals of the battery when a load resistance (R= 2r) is connected to its terminal? — 5 @ = E Oe Me 20, The solids which have the positive temperature coefficient of resistance are (1) Insulators, (2) Semiconductors (3) Metals (4) Both insulators and semiconductors ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 COTES 24 22. 23, 24 Saeed The equivalent resistance between A and B for circuit shown in the figure is Maa @) 6a (2) 8a (4) 120 Three identical cells are connected in parallel across AB. Net emf across A and Bis gv 30 ro ov 30 ov 30 A B () ev @) 9v (@) 2V (4) 3v The resistance of a wire is 'R’. If it is melted and made to ‘+* times its original length Its new a resistance will be (1) oR (2) Rin @) wR a & The power dissipated through internal resistance of 2.4 V cell, which gives a current of 0.2 A through a load resistance of 109, is z (Code-A) 25. For the network shown in the figure, the potential drop across the 6 2 resistance will be 20 49, Sa tae v Vv Vv MF Qs av Vv @ > @F 26. Two metal wires of identical dimensions are connected in series. If ¢ and 2c are the conductivities of the metal wire respectively, the effective conductivity of the combination is o @ % ® > (4) 90 27. A wire 100 cm long and 2 mm? in cross-section carries a current of 2 A when connected to 4 V battery. The resistivity of the wire is (1) 4«1040-m (2) 4«107.0-m (3) 2104 o-m (4) 2 108.0-m 28. Ina potentiometer having wire length J, a cell of emf 1 Vis balanced at length “¢ from the positive end of 4 the wire. For another cel of emf [V the balancing length becomes 4 4 1) Aw 2 a ) 365 Qo “ a 2) i 1 1 @ Aw @ Lw 1 a. 0 100 @> 4 Space for Rough Work Corporate Office - Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone - 011 47623456 cr 29. 20. 34 32. y Two unknown resistances are connected in two gaps of a meter-bridge. The null point is obtained at 40 cm from left end, A 20 © resistance is connected in series with the smaller of the two resistances. The ‘null point shift by 10 cm towards right. The value of smaller resistance in 2 is (1) 30 (2) 10 (3) 40 (4) 20 Match the colour codes of carbon resistor with their respective number (A) | Violet ©) [5 (8) | Green (@) [8 (©) | Grey ®) [3 (0) | Orange ) {7 (1) AS, B-P, 6-0, D-R (2) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S (3) APR, B-S, C-P, D-O (4) A-Q, BP, C-S, D-R The material whose resistivity is less sensitive to temperature is (1) Silicon (2) Copper (3) Siver (4) Nichrome In the given part of network, potential at O will be B awe 24 34 w Fv @ 3y 20 40 v v as a3 CEE Se DGS 23 33. The amount of charge flowing per second per unit area normal to flow, is called (1) Electrical conductivity (2) Current density (8) Electrical resistivity (4) Mobility 34. The current flowing through a wire depends on time (in second) as / = (3 + 2 + 5) A. The average ‘current flowing through the wire from time f = 0 to t=2sis (1) 110 (2) 108 (3) 9A (4) 5A 35. Ametallic wire of cross-sectional area 2 mm? carries, a current of 3.2 A. If 102% electrons flow across the wire per unit volume, then their drift velocity in m/s is (yd (2) 0.01 (3) 0.1 (4) 10 SECTION-B 36, The net dipole moment of the system as shown in the figure is y 29{(0.4) +9 co) a Cay a9 7 x (1) 9a] (2) 39a] (3) 29a] (4) Zero ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 ex 37. Three charges -2q, Q and -q are placed at equal PR @ distances along a straight line shown in the figure. If a, the total P.E. ofthe system is zero, then the ratio 2 IR q E will be Ed Q (1) &d @ -2q i a v2 2 4 (3) V2e0 (4) -Ea 1) > (2) = OF y 3 41. A parallel plate capacitor has two square plates 4 4 separated by distance d with equal and opposite es @) 5 charges, The surface charge densities on the plates 3 2 are +c and —c respectively. The magnitude of 38. In the given diagram, the potential difference potential difference between the plates will between A and B is 80 V. The potential difference od across 6 uF capacitor is oF nF 2od 6uF oak (2) 208 it % Fon 1} @ 2 3uF aod (1) 10 2) 30v (4) Zero (@) 20 (4) 40v 42. Mobilty of free electrons in a conductor is 39. If dielectric is removed from the space between the (1) Directly proportional to electron density Plates of an isolated charged paralel plate {Q) Directly proportional to relaxation time capacitor, then (3) Inversely proportional to cube of electron (1) Electric field between the plates decreases eet (2) Capacity of the capacitor decreases (4) Inversely proportional to relaxation time (3) Charge stored on the capacitor increases 43. A bulb rated as (40 W, 10 V) is connected across (4) Eneray stored in the capacitor decreases 20 V cell. What resistance is required to glow it with (ull intensity? 40. Figure shows two points P and R, separated by a {ull intensity’ distance d, in a uniform electric field E. Find the Maa potential difference (Vz - Vs) when positive test (2) 6a charge qo is moved from P to R along the path PQR (3) 8a (PQ= QR) (4) 250 ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office - Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone - 011 47623456 cr y 44, The equivalent resistance between the points a and bof the electrical network, as shown in figure, is 2r 20 r r a % r (1) 2r > r @r 5 45. Consider the following statements. Statement A: Kirchhof's junction law isin accordance with law of conservation of charge. Statement B: Kirchhoff's voltage law is in accordance with law of conservation of energy (1) Both statement (A) and (B) are true (2) Both statement (A) and (B) are false (3) Statement (A) is true (B) is false (4) Statement (B) is true (A) is false 46,_ Inthe circuit shown, ifthe 5 2 resistance is replaced by 10.9 then what is the amount of current drawn from the battery? (4a (3) 128 47. 48, 49, 50. CEE Se DGS 23 ‘The resistivity of potentiometer wire is 20 « 10 ohm-meter and its area of cross-section is 4% 10° m2. If0.4 ampere current is flowing through the wire, the potential gradient of the wire is (1) 2 10 Vim (3) 2 10-1 Vim (2) 4* 102 vim (4) 4 10+ vim In the circuit shown, for what value of R, wil the ideal battery transfer power of 40 W? 69 90 1 20V (1) 40 (2) 8a (@) 2a (4) 6a Choose the best graph for temperature dependence of resistivity (p) for a typical semiconductor 5 ° ) @ 7 7 ° ° @ 4) 7 7 OTF ‘Ohm's law fails in (1) Transistor (2) Photodiode (3) Diode (4) Alof these ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 COTES 51 52. 53. 5A, 56. Eee cr [CHEMISTRY] SECTION-A Formula of nickel oxide with metal deficiency defect in its crystal is Niaa«O. The crystal contains Nie and Nit ions. The fraction of nickel existing as Ni? ion inthe crystal is 7 4 OF es 6 2 OF ws ‘An element exhibits fcc structure at room temperature, Above 500°C, it transforms to simple cubic structure. The ratio of density of element at room temperature to that above 500°C is (assuming molar mass and atomic radii remains constant with temperature) (ast (2) v2:1 (3) 2V2:4 (4) 1:2v2 The total number of voids (tetrahedral and octahedral) and number of atoms in fcc unit cell respectively are (1) 4and4 (2) 12ana4 (3) 12and6 (4) Bands The correct option for the number of end centred unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais Lattice unit cells is, M2 (2) 3 (3) 4 4) 7 A hypothetical metal crystallises in a foc unit cel The edge length of unit cell is 200 pm and the molar mass of metal is 50.g mot-'. The density of the metal is (Na=6 x 10%) (1) 10.41 gem (3) 33.34. g em? (2) 23.27 g em* (4) 41.67 g em 56. Which is the incorrect statement? (1) AgBr shows both Frenkel as well as Schottky defects (2) Schottky defect is shown by ionic substance in which cation and anion are of almost similar size (3) Due to metal excess defect ZnO turns yellow on, heating (4) Due to metal deficiency defect formation of F- centres take place 57. Statement-I: Ferrimagnetic substance becomes paramagnetic on heating. Statement-II: Diamagnotic substances are weakly magnetised in a magnetic field in opposite direction, In the light of above statements choose the correct option. (1) Statement | is correct and statement II is incorrect (2) Statement | is incorrect and statement It is correct (3) Both statement | and statement Il are correct (4) Both statement | and statement Il are incorrect 58. A Compound formed by elements X and Y crystallizes in a fee structure in which the X atoms are forming fec lattice while Y atoms are at alternate tetrahedral voids. The formula of the compound is (1) Yx (2) Yex (8) YX (4) Yoxs 59. The following solutions were prepared by dissolving 10 g of urea in 250 g of water (Ps), 10 9 of NaCl in 250 g of water (P2) and 10 g of Glucose in 250 g of water (Pa). The right option for decreasing order of freezing point of these solutions (1) Ps>Pr> Pe (3) Pi>Po> Ps (2) P2> Pi > Ps (4) Pr> a> Py ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office - Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone - 011 47623456 cr 60. 61 62. 63, 64 665. y ‘An ideal solution is made by mixing A and B. If vapour pressure of component A in the solution is 200 torr. Then molar ratio of A and B in vapour phase is (Pq = A0otor, Pj = 100107) (ast (2) 2:1 (3) 1:4 (4) 4:4 The mixture which shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law is (1) Benzene + Toluene (2) Chloroethane + Bromoethane (3) Acetone + Chloroform (4) Carbon disulphide + Acetone Which of the following terms is temperature independent? (1) Molarity (2) Molality (4) Normaity Assuming 100% ionisation, which of the following has same van't Hoff factor as Ke[Fe(CN)s]? (1) Casou (2) Ale{SO.)2 (3) CaCl (4) Alcls At constant temperature and pressure, which of the following is not true for ideal solution? (1) Gm < 0 (2) Swix >0 (8) AV = 0 (4) AH <0 Statement I: Aquatic species are more comfortable in cold waters than warm waters. Statement II: The solubility of gases in liquid decreases with decrease in temperature. In the light of above statements choose the correct option. 66, 67. 68, 69. 70, CEE Se DGS 23 (1) Statement | is correct and statement Il is st Hl u incorrect (2) Statement | is incorrect and statement II is correct (3) Both statement | and statement Il are correct (4) Both statement | and statement Il are incorrect If solubility of HaS in water at STP is 0.2 m then the Henry's law constant of HeS is nearly (1) 114 atm (2) 165 atm (3) 278 atm (4) 512 am Maximum value of ebullioscopic constant is for (1) 0.1 Maq CHsCOOH (2) 02Maqurea (3) 0.1 Maq NaCl (4) All have same values The number of Faradays (F) required to produce 2.7 g aluminium from molten AlCls (Molar mass of Al= 27g mol)is (1) On F 2) 03F (3) 06 F (4) 09F On electrolysis of aqueous solution of AgNOs using silver electrodes, the product obtained at anode will be (1) Oz (2) Ag (3) Ag (4) NO» Ina typical fuel cell, the reactant (R) and product (P) are (1) R=He(g), Cla(g) :P =HCI(aq) (2) R=N2(g), O2(g) ;P =NOz (aq) (3) R=Hp(g), O2(g) ;P =H20(() (4) R=H,0(g), SO3(g) ;P =H,SO, (1) ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 COTES n 72. 73, 74 Saeed Following limiting molar conductivities are given as An (HpSO,4) =x Som? mol! Aim (MgSO4) = y Sem? mol * Am ((CH3COO), Mg) =2 Sem? mot in (In Sem? mot") for CHsCOOH wil be () zex-y x zy x () z+y-x (4) 344-5 The standard electrode potential (E") values of CuCu, Pb Pb, Zn?/Zn and Aut/Au are 0.34 V, 0.13 V, -0.76 V and 1.40 V respectively. The correct decreasing order of reducing power of the metals is. (1) Zn>Pb>Au>Cu (2) Au> Cu> Pb>Zn (8) Au>Cu>Zn>Pb (4) Zn>Pb>Cu>Au For the cell reaction, Ni(s) + 2Ag" (aq) > Ni?" (aq) + 2Aa(s) E2qy =1.05V at 298 K. The standard Gibbs energy (A.G") of the cell reaction is [Given that Faraday constant F = 96500 C mol] (1) -202.65 kJ mok* (2) 202.65 kJ mol (3) 101.33 kJ mok* (4) —101.32 kJ mol For a coll reaction involving. two electrons, Evcet = 0.5 V at 298 K, the equilibrium constant for the cell reaction is [Given that 2803RT _ 9.95 at T= 298K) (1) 108 (2) 10% @) 108 (4) 10 z (Code-A) 75. Consider the change in oxidation states of metal A corresponding to different emf values as shown in the diagram below 0} 218% no 2280 Then the species undergoing disproportionation is (yA (2) Ao* (3) A» (4) ae 76. Statement I: Molar conductivity increases slowly on dilution for strong electrolyte, ‘Statement Il: Conductivity decreases on dilution for weak electrolyte. In the light of above statements, choose the correct option below. (1) Statement | is correct and statement Il is incorrect (2) Statement | is incorrect and statement II is correct (3) Both statement | and statement II are correct (4) Both statement | and statement Il are incorrect 7. Which ofthe folowing is used for the galvanization of iron? (1) Na (2) Mg (3) 2n (4) Cu 78, The rate constant fora first order reaction is 2,303 x 10- s+. The time required to reduce 4 g of reactant 100.4 gis, (1) 28s 2) 50s (3) 100s (4) 1000s 79. When initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the halt-lfe period of a first order reaction (1) is halved (2) is doubled (3) becomes one fourth (4) remains unchanged ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office - Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone - 011 47623456 cr 20. at 82. 83, y Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction 203 -» 302 is, given below. Fast {a) 03 ‘02 +0 (b) 0, +0 —S&"_,20, The overall order ofthe reaction willbe (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 In a reaction A * B -> Product, rate of reaction is doubled when the concentration of A is doubled and rate becomes four times when the concentrations of both the reactants (A and B) are doubled, rate law for the reaction can be written as (1) Rate=k(AJ[B] (2) Rate =k (AP (8) (3) Rate=k{AJ[BF (4) Rate = k (AD? (BP Inthe reaction B03 (aq) + 581” (aq) 8H" (aq) > 38%, (aa) +3H,0(1) The ratio of rate of appearance of bromine (Br2) and rate of disappearance of Bromide ions (Br) is ayaa (2) 3:5 @) 5:3 (4) 4:3 Match the order of reaction given in List | with unit of rate constant given in List I! and identiy the correct code List I List (@) | Zero order | ()_| mor*L s+ (b) | First order | (i) | s (©) | Second order | (ii) | mol t= s* (a) | Third order | (iv) | mor#L?s* (1) (Gil), (b}-(0), (©)-fiv), (4)-(ii) (2) (ai), (B(iv), (H(i), (4)-(il) (3) (@M{i), (©)-(0), (©, (A)iv) (4) (a)-tili), (b)-(ii), (ei), (d)-Civ) 84, 85, 86, 87. 88. CEE Se Select the incorrect statement. (1) Order of a reaction is an experimental quantity (2) Order is applicable only to elementary reactions, (3) For complex reaction, molecularity has no meaning (4) Molecularity cannot be non-integer Ifthe rate constant for a first order reaction is k then the time required for 99.9% completion of the reaction is 2.303 242.303 2) me @ Oe 3x2.303 92.303 gy 942808 a) 952.808 @ 2 @ SECTION-B In one dimensional close packed arrangement of spheres, the coordination number is (aya 26 (3) 2 (4) 12 For which of the following crystal system a + b +c and a 7 Bey 90°? (1) Orthorhombic (2) Monoclinic (3) Trictinie (4) Trigonal Given below are two statements: Statement | : In CCP lattice, tetrahedral voids are present at face centre of unit cel ‘Statement II: Packing efficiency of foc unit cell is, 68%, In the light of the above statements, choose the ‘most appropriate answer from the given below (1) Statement | is correct but statement I is incorrect (2) Statement | is incorrect but statement Il is correct (3) Both statement | and statement Il are correct (4) Both statement | and statement Il are incorrect ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 COTES 89. 90. 1 92. 93, Saeed Which of the following colligative property is widely used to determine molar masses of proteins and polymers? (1) Relative lowering in vapour pressure (2) Elevation in boiling point (3) Depression in freezing point (4) Osmotic pressure Select the azeotropes. (1) Same composition in liquid and vapour phase (2) Not possible to separate components by fractional distillation incorrect statement regarding (8) Large positive deviation from Raoult's law form maximum boiling azeotrope at a specific ‘composition (4) A mixture of 68% HNO: and 32% HO by mass. form maximum bolling azeotrope ‘A solute undergoes 40% trimerization’ in” the solution. The van't Hoff factor of the solute is (1) 0.33 (2) 0.73 (3) 0.42 (4) 26 The mass of non-volatile solute (molar mass’ 50 mot) which should be dissolved in 171 g of octane to reduce its vapour pressure to 50% is (1) 259 (2) 50g (3) 759 (4) 100g The emf of the following cell at 298 K is nearly Mg(s)|Ma?* (0.001 M)|cu?* (0.01M)|cu(s) z ex 94, Which of the following is not a semiconductor? (1) Graphite (2) cuo (3) Si (4) Ge 95, Maximum limiting molar conductivity in water at 298 Kis of (1) HY (2) Nat @) (4) Car 96. Electrolyte used in lead storage battery is (1) 38% solution of H2SO« (2) Dilute NaOH (3) Paste of KOH and ZnO (4) Moist paste of NHsCl and ZnCl 97, Formula of cell constant is (1) Re (2) xc ® o& 98, Slope of plot between log k and + in Anhenius equationis a E me ae E, é, z 4) Ee 2) 2.303R, 4) 2.303R, 99, Iffor a reaction, rate constant becomes double with ‘every 10°C rise in temperature then the ratio of rate of reaction at 25°C and 55°C is (14 Q4 3) 18 (4) 8 100, The decomposition of gaseous ammonia on a hot platinum surface at high pressure is an example of © oe = ; - 11) Zero order reaction (Evento 237V, Eerie 7 0.34V) (1) Zero order reactio (2) First order reaction (1) Va2v (2) 274v (3) Pseudo first order reaction (@) 308V (4) 4.10V (4) Second order reaction Space for Rough Work Corporate Office - Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone - 011 47623456 101. 102. 103. 104, CEE [BOTANY] SECTION-A Inwhich of the given organisms, fusing gametes are morphologically similar? (1) Chara (3) Fucus In polycarpic plants (2) Cladophora (4) Volvox (1) Flowering occurs repeatedly at intervals (2) Interflowering phase is not seen (3) Clear-cut distinction between pre-reproductve, reproductive and post-reproductive phases is seen (4) Flowering occurs once in Iife followed by death of plants In all ofthe given flowering plants, life span is more than a year, except (1) Rose (2) Banana (3) Mango (4) Rice Match the following columns and select the correct option, Column | Column i [Amoeba @ | Conida . | Chlamydomonas | (i) | Budding ©. | Peniciium (iy | Binary fasion & [Yeast (@ | Zoospore a boc d (1) di) iv) ii) (2) ii) wy) @ Wi) (3) @ Gi) i) @ (wv) i) Gi) 105. The vegetative propagule of Bryophyllum is (1) Bulb (2) Butbi (3) Loaf bud (4) Rhizome 106. Interflowering period is (1) Part of juvenile phase (2) Seon in tice and wheat (3) Clearly visible in all perennial plants (4) Used to build up resources 107. Read the below given statements for sexuality in organisms and choose the wrong one, (1) Heterothalic or dioecious terms are used to describe unisexual condition (2) In several fungi, homothallic term is used to describe bisexual condition (3) Male flower is called staminate flower (4) In coconut staminate and pistilate flowers are produced on different plants 108. Zygote cannot be (1) Thick walled (2) Motile (3) Haploid (4) Produced by algae 109. Which of the given plants flowers only once in its life time? (1) Mango (2) Neelakuranji (3) Jackfruit (4) Apple Variations are seen in offsprings produced by which of the following methods of reproduction? (1) Binary fission in Paramoecium (2) Conidia formation in Penicilium (3) Rhizome of banana (4) Fusion of heterogametes of Chara 110. ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 a 24, COTES Eee 111. Read the statements A and B and select the correct option. ‘Statement A: In algae and bryophytes, number of male gametes produced is several thousand times the number of female gametes. Statement B: In algae and bryophytes male gametes are transferred to the female gametes through external medium, (1) Only statement A is correct, (2) Both statements A and B are correct and B is ‘correct explanation of A (3) Both statements A and B are correct but B is not correct explanation of A (4) Both the statements are incorrect 112. The structure considered as the vital link between two successive generations is (1) Gamete (2) Zygote (3) Embryo (4) Seed 113. The innermost layer of anther wall . Generally have more than one nucleus. b. Performs the function of protection and help in dehiscence of anther. ©. Is tapetum, Choose the Incorrect one(s). (1) and (2) bande (3) b only (4) aonly 114, Mark the feature which is similar between male gametophyte and female gametophyte of a typical angiospermic plant (1) Both are three celled structures (2) They contain same number of gametes (3) Both are haploid cr 115. A mature pollen grain ‘a. Contains a bigger generative cell and smaller vegetative cell b. Is two celled . Lacks germ pores Choose the incorrect one(s) w.rt. a typical angiospermic plant (1) aandb (2) bonly (3) aandc (4) conly 116. Mark these statements regarding megasporangium ofa typical flowering plant as true (T) or false (F) and select the correct option. A. It has one or two protective envelopes called integuments. 8. Basal part of megasporangium is called chalaza C. Italways has a single embryo sac D.The food storing tissue of | unfertised megasporangium is endosperm ABCD () TORO TOF ()FoT TT @FO FTF @T TF F 117, Select the odd one w-r.t. ploidy level (1) Antipodais (2) Synergids (3) Egg (4) Secondary nucleus 118, Read the below given features of flowers of a plant. a. Flowers are small and clustered into inflorescence. b. Flowers are fragrant. c. White coloured flowers. 4d. Flowers contain nectar. How many of the above feature(s) is/are seen in flowers pollinated by insects? (4) They are the sites of gametogenesis and (1) Ala (@) Only syngamy (3) Only2 (4) Only 3 Space for Rough Work Corporate Office - Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone - 011 47623456 Test ce A) 119. Which of the given is a water pollinated fresh water plant? (1) Hydra (2) Zostera (3) Weter tly (4) Water hyacinth 120. Read the following statements and mark the incorrect one. (1) Majority of flowering plants use a range of animals as pollinating agents (2) Bees are the dominant biotic pollinating agents (3) Large animals do not act as polinators (4) Animal pollinated flowers provide some rewards to animals 121. Monosporic embryo sac (1) Is formed after 1 mitosis and 3 meiosis in a megaspore mother cell {2} Develops from single megaspore (3) Is seven nucleated and 8 celled structure (4) Lacks egg apparatus 122. Flowers which do not open at all are termed as (1) Chasmogamous (2) Bisexual (3) Cleistogamous 123. Mark the plant in which both autogamy and geltonogamy are not possible (1) Castor (2) Maize (3) China rose (4) Papaya 124. All ofthe following are outbreeding devices, except (1) Anther and stigma placed at different positions (2) Seltincompatibilty (4) Unisexual (8) Synchronised pollen release and receptivity (4) Dioeey stigma CUE Za 125. Central cell possesses (1) Filiform apparatus (2) Egg nucleus (3) Vegetative nucleus (4) Polar nuclei 126. During arliicial hybridisation ‘emasculation is not required? (1) Maize (2) China rose (3) Mustard (4) Tomato 127. Mark the event that does not occur during double fertilisation process. (1) Triple fusion (2) Syngamy (3) Fusion of male gamete with secondary nucleus (4) Fusion of polar secondary nucleus of which plant, nuclei together to form 128, The coconut water and its surrounding white kere! a. Are free nuclear endosperm and cellular endosperm respectively. b, Are formed by same method of endosperm development. 6. Are food storing structures. Choose the correct one(s) (1) aandb (2) bande (3) aande (4) aonly 129, Endosperm is completely consumed by the developing embryo in (1) Castor (3) Wheat (2) Maize (4) Bean ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 COTES Eee 130. Complete the below given table by choosing correct option. “Type of embryo | Epiblast | Colearhiza | Root cap Dicotembye [A @ Present Wnocat Present | Present [© embryo A B c (1) Present Present Present (2) Absent Present Absent (3) Absent Absent Present (4) Present Absent Absent 431. Mark the odd one for perisperm. (1) Food storing tissue (2) Residual nucellus (3) Found in seeds of beet (4) Triloid 132. Read the below given statements and select the correct option, ‘Statement A: When the seed gets mature its water content reduces to 10-15% by mass. Statement B: A large number of seeds can remain alive for hundreds of years, (1) Only statement A is correct (2) Only statement B is correct (3) Both statements A and B are correct (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect 193, Banana is a parthenocarpic fruit as it develops (1) Only from the ovary (2) From parts of flowers other than ovary (3) Without fertilisation (4) From thalamus cr 434. in both Citrus and mango a, Some nucellar cells form embryos b. Seeds have muttiple embryos. ©. Zygotic embryo is absent Choose the incorrect one(s) (1) aande (2) conly (@) bande (4) Ala, bande 435. In majority of angiosperms (1) Egg has filiform apparatus (2) One egg is present in an embryo sac (3) Pollen grains are shed at 3 celled stage (4) Anther is monothecous SECTION-B 136. A parrot can live for 140 years while similar sized crow can live for 15 years. This difference in life spans is because or shows (1) They belong to different classes (2) Life span complexity (3) Life span depends on the climatic factor is not correlated to size and (4) They have different food preferences 137, All of the below given organisms asexually reproduce by fragmentation, except (1) Filamentous fungi (3) Chlamydomonas 138, Mark the feature not true for sexual reproduction. (1) Produces variations (2) Syngamy (2) Spirogyra (4) Filamentous algae (3) Slow and simple 139. Mark the odd one for pre-fertiisation events of a flowering plant. (1) Gametogenesis (4) Gamete formation (2) Pollination (3) Gamete transfer (4) Embryogenesis ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office - Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone - 011 47623456 cr y 140. Read the below given features. A Its proximal end remains attached to thalamus or petal B, Itis long and slender. Identify the structure on the basis of these features (1) Anther (2) Filament 4) Style 141. Which one is not true for sporopollenin? (3) Microsporangium (1) Found in outermost layer of pollen grain (2) Helps in preservation of pollen grains as fossil (3) Protects pollen ‘environment grains from hazardous (4) Evenly distributed in intine except at germ pores 142. Pollen grains of tomato plant may remain viable for (1) 30 minutes only (8) About 1 hour 143. Flowers pollinated by wind do net have (2) Several months (4) One week only (1) Non-sticky pollen grains (2) Nectar or fragrance (3) Well exposed stamens (4) Light weight polton grains 144. In a seed of orange, multiple embryos can be seen. These embryos (@) Are diploid (b) Can be genetically identical (¢) Can be formed by zygote Choose the correct one(s) (1) (@)and(b) only (2) (bo) and (c) only 3) (a)only (4) All (a), (b) and (e) CEE Se 145. In flowering plants, endosperm (1) Is haploid (2) Stores reserve food material (3) Develops after embryo development (4) Arise from zygote 146. All the events from pollen deposition on the stigma until pollen tube enters in ovule is known as (1) Pollination (2) Seltincompatibility (3) In-vitro pollen germination (4) Pollen-pstl interaction 147, Mark the wrongly matched pair. (1) Cleistogamy - Oxalis (2) Hydrophily — Water lly (3) Anemophily ~ Maize (4) Entomophily - Amorphophallus 148, Vallisneria shows (1) Hypohydrophily (2) Wind pollination (3) Insect pollination (4) Epihyarophily 149, Poliinators are not required in (1) Chasmogamous flowers (2) Unisexual flowers. (3) Bisexual flowers (4) Cleistogamous flowers 150, Multicarpellary apocarpous ovary is found in (1) Papaver (2) Liy (3) Pea (4) Michela ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 COTES Eee cr [ZOoLoGy] SECTION-A 151. Choose the odd one w.r.t uterine cycle. (1) Proliferative phase (2) Secretory phase (3) Menstrual phase (4) Follicular phase 152. Choose the incorrect feature w.rt fertilisation in Clarias. (1) Releases a large number of gametes into the surrounding medium (2) Produces a large number of offsprings (3) Show great asynchrony between the sexes. (4) Offsprings are predators 153. In human male, each testis has about testicular lobules and each lobule contains highly colled seminiferous tubules. Select the correct option that fils the blanks extremely vulnerable to respectively. (1) 300, 1-3, (2) 350, 2 (3) 250, 1-3, (4) 200, 5 154, Choose the odd one w.r.t chromosome number per cell in humans. (1) Spermatogonia (2) Primary oocytes (3) Primary spermatocytes (4) Ootia 165. An indicator of normal reproductive phase in human females among the following is (1) Gametogenesis (2) Fixed duration of secretory phase (3) Cyclic menstruation (4) Implantation 156. Which of the following contains certain cells that have the potency to give rise to all the tissues and ‘organs of developing embryo? (1) Trophoblast (2) inner cell mass. (3) Yolk sac (4) Blastomeres 157. The female gamete undergoes development to form new organisms without the most vital event of sexual reproduction in all of the following except (1) Rotifers: (2) Earthworm (3) Turkey (4) Apis 158. Spermatids are similar to spermatozoa on the basis of (1) Chromosome number per cell (2) Having more cytoplasm (8) Presence of motlity (4) Weight of gamete 159. In female external genitalia, ‘A’ are fleshy folds of tissue covered by hair and 'B' are smaller paired folds of tissue in the form of lips under ‘A’. Select the correct option w.rt. A and B A B (1). Mons pubis Clitoris (2) Mons pubis Labia majora (3) Labia minora Labia majora (4) Labia majora 160. A 65 years old man is planning a child with his wife who is 4 years younger than him. After many attempts they have failed, The most probable reason for this is that (1) Spermiation does not occur in old men (2) The female is undergoing menarche (3) Formation of ova ceases in aged females (4) Only 60% of husband's sperm show normal shape, size and vigorous motility Labia minora ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office - Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone - 011 47623456 Test 161 162. 163. 164, 165. ce A) The blastocyst becomes embedded In which of the following layer of uterus? (1) Outermost thin membranous layer (2) Innermost glandular layer (3) Thick layer of smooth muscles (4) Perimetrium How many meiotic divisions are respectively required to form 10 secondary spermatocytes in the process of spermatogenesis and 10 secondary oocytes in the process of oogenesis from a single mother cell? (1) 10,5 (2) 5,10 (3) 10, 10 (4) 5,5 Read the given statements and select the incorrect one. (1) The mammary glands are one of the female secondary sexual characteristics. (2) Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by two types of cells called male germ cells and cells which secrete androgens. (3) All copulations do not lead to fertilisation and pregnancy. (4) For the sex of the baby to be a normal female, the female gamete must fuse with sperm having sex chromosome ' The hormone which is secreted by ovary, only during the later phase of pregnancy is (1) hee (2) Estrogen (3) PL (4) Relaxin Select the incorrect option among the following w.rt most constant phase of menstrual cycle. (1) Development of a temporary endocrine gland (2) Duration is of 14 days (3) High levels of gonadotropins (4) Maintenance of endometrium All India Aakash Test Series for NEE’ Za 166. Match with ‘embryonic development and select the correct option. column-| column-ll w.ct human ‘Column-t ‘Column-l! ‘a. | Formation ofheart | () | By the end of 29 trimester b. | First movements of | (i) | End of 24 weeks foetus ¢. | Eyelids separate | (ii) | During §* month | Body is covered | (iv) | After 1% month with fine hair () [End of # trimester (1) aliv), BU), ef), (2) ali), Biv), (i), ai) (3) aliv), Biv), i) ai) (4) aliv), btw), eli). i) 167, The stimulatory reflex between which of the following results into stronger and stronger uterine contractions during parturition? (1) Fully developed foetus and placenta (2) Uterine contractions and oxytocin from maternal pituitary (3) Oxytocin from foetal pituitary and prostaglandins (4) Estrogen and cortisol 168, Inhibin is produced by °X’ and inhibits the secretion of 'Y’. Select the correct option for ‘x’ and ‘Y’ respectively. (1) Nurse cells in testes and LH (2) Granulosa cells in ovary and LH (3) Granulosa cells in ovary and FSH (4) Leydig cells in testes and FSH ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 COTES Eee 169. Select the correct statement from the following want, female reproductive system, (1) Infundibulum is the best site of fertilisation (2) The uterus along with cervical canal forms birth canal (3) A functional mammary gland is characteristic of all female mammals (4) Uterine myometrium is the normal site for implantation 170. The colls of mammary alveoli secrete milk which is directly sucked out by the infant through (1) Mammary tubules (2) Lactiferous duct (3) Mammary duct (4) Mammary ampulla 171. Structural constituent of mammalian male gamete whose secretion aid in penetration of female gamete is (1) Nucleus (2) Tail (3) Acrosome (4) Middle piece 172. Choose the correct statement (1) Levels of FSH are higher than the progesterone levels in luteal phase of menstrual cycle (2) Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of progesterone (3) Umbilical cord contains 100% foetal blood and directly connects materal myometrium with ‘embryo. (4) The follicular phase is followed by menstrual phase 173. All of the following are functions of structural and functional unit between developing embryo and maternal body except (1) Produces a hormone which is the basis of urine pregnancy test (2) Facilitates the supply of oxygen, carbon dioxide and nutrionts to the embryo z Cx (3) Removal of excretoryiwaste materials produced by embryo (4) Actas a temporary endocrine tissue 174, Which of the given events is included under pre- fertlisation event? (1) Gametogenesis (2) Blastulation (3) Implantation (4) Parturition 175. Viviparous organisms differ from organisms in all of the following, except (1) Proper embryonic care and protection in vivo (2) Greater chance of survival (3) Release of calcareous ova (4) Give birth to young ones 176. Assertion (A): An important role is played by release of prolactin for initiation of parturition in humans, Reason (R): Prolactin has myometrium for promoting childbirth In the light of above statements, choose the correct option, (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct, explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (8) (A)is true but (R) is false (4) Both (A) and (R) are false 177. Decline in concentration of which hormone results in regression of corpus luteum in non-pregnant women? (1) hos. (2) Progesterone (3) LH (4) Estrogen oviparous receptors on ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office - Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone - 011 47623456 Test ce A) 178. Select the correct match w.r:t human sperm, (1) Acrosome — - Contains haploid nucleus (2) Neck = Contains hydrolytic, enzymes rich organelle (3) Middle piece - Contains spirally arranged “source of, energy’ (4) Tail = Facilitates sperm motility due to presence of some mitochondria 179. Breast-feeding during the initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors because colostrum is enriched in (1) Iron and vitamin-c (2) Immunoglobulin-A, (3) Macrophages (4) Immunoglobulin-G 180. Inhumans, the embryo with 16 blastomeres is called 'N.'W’ continues to divide and transforms into ‘B’ as it moves into ‘C’ Identify A, B, and C and select the correct option, A 8 c (1) | Late morula | Blastocyst | Uterus (2) | Early morula | Late morula | Oviduct (3) | Blastula Blastocyst | Isthmus (4) [Blastocyst | Gastruta | Uterus All India Aakash Test Series for NEE’ Za 181. If chromosome number in melocyte of rat is 42 what will be the chromosome number in gamete of cat? (1) 19 (2) 39 (3) 21 (4) 23 182, If for some reason, the rete testis in the male reproductive system gets blocked, then the gametes wil not be directly transported from (1) Epididymis to vas deferens (2) Seminiferous tubules to vasa efferentia (8) Vasa efferentia to vas deferens (4) Vasa efferentia to epididymis 183. Binary fission is a characteristic feature of (1) Hydra (2) Amoeba (3) Plasmodium (4) Spongila 184, Read the given statements carefully. Statement A: FSH acts on Leydig cells and stimulates synthesis and secretion of androgens. Statement B: LH development of the ovarian follicles in females. stimulates growth and Select the correct option. (1) Both statements A and B are correct, (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect, (3) Only statement A is correct (4) Only statement A is incorrect, ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 COTES Eee z Cx 185. Select the incorrect statement from the following (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (1) Interaction between hormones and certain correct explanation of (A) environmental factors regulate the reproductive (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct Processes and the associated behavioural explanation of (A) expressions of organisms. (3) (Ais true but (R) is false (2) In animals, the adult phase is followed by (4) Both (A) and (R) are false morphological and physiological changes prior | 188, A lady is blessed with fraternal twins. Which of the to active reproductive behaviour following is the most possible reason for this? (3) Life spans of organisms are not necessarily (1) Sometimes growing blastocyst gets broken into correlated with their sizes. two parts (4) Development of the zygote depends on the type (2) When two sperms fertilise one egg of life cycle the organism has and the (3) Sometimes two or more follicles reach maturity ‘environment itis exposed to. in same menstrual cycle and fertilised by two sperms SECTIONS) (4) Ifone sperm fertilise two eggs 186. Ifthe life span of parratis ‘A’ crocodile is ‘B'and’dog | 18% Vas deferens receives a duct from __and opens e ' : . into urethra as the is‘C'then select the correct relationship among the . °0 7 es Select the correct option that fills the blanks, following, respectively (1) BHC=A (1). Prostate gland and epididymis (2) 28+ 10)=A (2) Seminal vesicle and ejaculatory duct (9 a+cen (3) Rete testis and urethral meatus (4) Vasa efferentia and ejaculatory duct (4) 2B+A=C 190A pregnant women went to a hospital for her 187. Assertion (A): The mode of reproduction in which sonography. While sonography, doctor told her that two parents participate, enhanées thé)isurvival the limbs and external genital organs are well advantage of offsprings. developed now. So, she is in which week of her pregnancy? Reason (R): It involves fusion of male and female (1) 9 gametes and creation of new variants (2) End of 12" In the light of above statements, select the correct (3) 8 option. (4) End of 10% Space for Rough Work Corporate Office - Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone - 011 47623456 Test ce A) 191. Read the given statements carefully and select the correct one. (1) Human sperm is viable for only upto 24 hours. (2) The second meiotic division of secondary ‘oocyte is not completed until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of the ovum (3) The primary oocyte forms the zona pellucida (4) Morula in humans has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as uncleaved zygote but much more DNA. 192. Choose the incorrect option among the following for the meiosis-| during oogenesis. (1) Completed prior to ovulation (2) Completed within follicle characterised by well developed antrum (3) Starts during embryonic development (4) Completed before puberty 193. Secretions of athe given parts of male Feproductive system are essential for maturation and motility of sperms, excluding (1) Epiaidymis (2) Vas deferens (3) Bulbourethral gland (4) Seminal vesicle 194. All the given hormones secreted by the corresponding gland are increased several folds in the maternal blood during pregnancy, except the hormone (1) Secreted by zona fasciculata layer of adrenal cortex (2) Secreted by follicular cells of gland located on either side of trachea All India Aakash Test Series for NEE’ 2 (3) Which regulates the growth of mammary glands and milk formation in them and secreted by hypophysis (4) Released by the atrial wall of heart 4198, Under unfavourable conditions, Amoeba undergoes ____ and when favourable conditions return, it divides by __ Choose the correct option that fils the blanks respectively, (1) Budaing, Binary fission (2) Encystation, Multiple fission (2) Binary fission, Mutiple fission (4) Regeneration, Excystation 196. Complete the analogy by selecting the correct option wart. site of gametogenesis. Female gamete : Germinal epithelium :: Male gamete (1) Sustentacular cells (2) Sertoli calls (3) Leydig cells (4) Seminiferous tubules 197, During oogenesis, first and the second polar body is released respectively into (1) Coelom, Body cavity (2) Viteline membrane, Uterus (3) Periviteliine space, Perivitelline space (4) Zona pellucida, Coolom ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 COTES Eee 198. All of the following are integrated structurally and functionally to support the processes of ovulation, ferilisation, pregnancy and child care in human females, except A. Ovaries B. Female accessory ducts CC. External genitalia D. Mammary glands Select the correct option. (1) Zero (2) One (3) Two (4) Three a z Cx 199. In female mammals, receptors for binding of male gamete are present on a membrane which is secreted by (1) Tertiary folcle (2) Secondary oocyte (8) Corona radiata (4) Zona pellucida The event that embryogenesis is (1) Cell division (2) Cell iferentiation (3) Gamotes transfer (4) Cell modification 200, does not occur during ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office - Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone - 011 47623456 For Answers & Solutions Please visit our website: www.aakash.ac.in NEET-UG 2021 Aakashians Create History! 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