STD – XI

SUBJECT – MATHEMATICS

IMP QUESTIONS

1. Let A = {9, 10, 11, 12, 13} and let f: A → N be defined by f(n) = the highest prime factor of n.
Find the range of f.
2. Find the value of cos (−1710°).
1+𝑖 𝑚
3. If (1−𝑖 ) = 1, then find the least positive integral value of m.
4. In how many ways can 5 girls and 3 boys be seated in a row so that no two boys are together.
5. If A. M. and G.M. of two positive numbers a and b are 10 and 8 respectively. Find the
numbers.
6. Find the equation of the circle with radius 5 whose centre lies on x-axis and passes through the
point (2, 3).
7. Find the ratio in which the line segment joining the points A (4, 8, 10) and B (6, 10, - 8) is
divided by the YZ – plane.
𝑎 + 𝑏𝑥, 𝑥 < 1
8. Suppose f(x) = { 4 𝑥 = 1 and if lim 𝑓 (𝑥 ) = 𝑓(1) what are possible values of a and b?
𝑥→1
𝑏 − 𝑎𝑥, 𝑥 > 1
9. Find the derivative of f(x) = xsin 𝑥 with the first principle.
10. A line is such that its segment between the line 5x – y + 4 = 0 and 3x + 4y – 4 = 0 is bisected
at the point (1, 5). Obtain its equation.
11. Find the image of the point (3, 8) with respect to the line x + 3y = 7 assuming the line to be a
plane mirror. Also find the distance between these to points.
1.3.5…(2𝑛−1)
12. Show that the middle term in the expansion of (1 + 𝑥 )2𝑛 is 2𝑛 ∙ 𝑥 𝑛 .
𝑛!
𝑥 + cos 𝑥 𝑥 5 −𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥
13. Find the derivative of: (i) (ii)
tan 𝑥 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥
sin 5𝑥−2 sin 3𝑥+sin 𝑥
14. (i) Prove that: = tan 𝑥.
cos 5𝑥−cos 𝑥
2𝜋 7𝜋 𝜋
(ii) Evaluate: 2𝑠𝑖𝑛 6 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 6 ∙ 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 3 .
5
15. tan 𝑥 = 12 and x lies in third quadrant.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
𝑥
(i) Write the value of sin 2 .
𝑥
(ii) Write the value of cos 2.
(iii) Find the value of sin 2𝑥.
(iv) Find the value of cos 2𝑥.
16. In a certain city all telephone numbers have seven digits. City is divided into 6 zones. Each
zone is allotted a specific non-zero digit which is to be used as first digit of all telephone
numbers of that zone.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
(i) How many different telephone numbers are there in the city, if there is no restriction?
(ii) How many different telephone numbers are there in each zone with all digits distinct?
 (iii) How many different telephone numbers are there in each zone if repetition of digits is
allowed?
17. How many different telephone numbers are there in the city, if first two digits of different zones
are 12, 23, 34, 45, 56 and 67?
18. Equation of a straight line path is 2x + y – 12 = 0. A man is standing at a point (2, 3). He wants
to reach the straight line path in least possible time.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
(i) Find the equation of the path followed by man.
(ii) Find the distance covered by man in reaching the straight line path.
19. Prove that: cos6x = 32𝑐𝑜𝑠 6 𝑥 − 48𝑐𝑜𝑠 4 𝑥 + 18𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥 − 1.
𝜋
20. Find the value of tan 8 .
𝜋 𝜋 3
21. Prove that: 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 (𝑥 + 3 ) + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 (𝑥 − 3 ) = 2.
3𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
22. Find the value of 2𝑠𝑖𝑛2 + 2𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 4 + 2𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 3 = 10.
4
𝑢 𝑣
23. If(𝑥 + 𝑖𝑦)3 = 𝑢 + 𝑖𝑣, then show that 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 4(𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 ).
24. A manufacturer has 600 litres of a 12% solution of acid. How many litres of a 30% acid solution
must be added to it so that acid content in the resulting mixture will be more than 15% but less
than 18 %.
13
25. The sum of first three terms of a G.P. is and their product is – 1. Find the common ratio and
12
the terms.
26. Assuming that straight lines work as the plane mirror for a point, find the image of the point
(1, 2) in the line x – 3y + 4 = 0.
27. Find the equation of the hyperbola where foci (0, ±12) and the length of latus rectum is 36.
28. Find the derivative of f(x) from the first principle, where f(x) is
(i) sinx + cosx (ii) xsinx
29. In a relay race there are five teams A, B, C, D and E.
(a) What is the probability that A, B and C finish first, second and third, respectively.
(b) What is probability that A, B and C are three to finish (in any order)
(Assume that all finishing orders are equally likely).

30. If A, B, C are three events associated with a random experiment, prove that:

P(A ∪ B ∪ C) = P(A) + P(B) + P(C) – P(A ∩ B) – P(B ∩ C) – P(C ∩ A) + P(A ∩ B ∩ C).

31. If f is a function satisfying f(x + y) = f(x)f(y) for all x, y ∈ N such that f(1) = 3 and
∑𝑛𝑥=1 𝑓 (𝑥 ) = 120, find the value of n.
3 3 3069
32. How many terms of the G.P. 3, 2, 4, … are needed to give the sum ?
512
33. Find the sum of the sequence 7, 77, 777, 7777, … to n terms.
34. The sum of three numbers in G.P. is 56. If we subtract 1, 7, 21 from these numbers in that
order, we obtain an A.P. Find the numbers.
𝑎 𝑛 +𝑏𝑛
35. If 𝑎𝑛−1+𝑏𝑛−1 is the A.M. between a and b, then find the value of n.
36. A person standing at the junction (crossing) of two straight paths represented by the equations
2x – 3y + 4 = 0 and 3x + 4y – 5 = 0 wants to reach the path whose equation
Is 6x – 7y + 8 = 0 in the least time. Find equation of the path that he should follow.
37. A line is such that its segment between the lines 5x – y + 4 = 0 and 3x + 4y – 4 = 0 is bisected
at the point (1, 5). Obtain its equation.
38. The number of bacteria in a certain culture doubles every hour. If there were 30 bacteria
present in the culture originally, how many bacteria will be present at the end of 2 nd hour, 4th
hour and nth hour?
39. If S1, S2, S3 are the sum of first n natural numbers, their squares and their cubes, respectively,
show that 9∙S22 = S3 (1 + 8S1).
40. Find the distance of the point (3, - 5) from the line 3x – 4y – 26 = 0.
 SUBJECT – CHEMISTRY

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS

1. What kind of isomers are the compounds: CH3CH2OCH2CH3 and CH3OCH2CH2CH3?

2. What shapes are associated with sp3d and sp3d2 hybrid orbitals?
3. Arrange the following bonds in the order of increasing ionic character:
C - H, F - H, Br - H, Na - I, K - F, Li - Cl
4. Although benzene is highly unsaturated it does not undergo addition reactions.
5. Explain why o- nitro phenol has a lower boiling point than p – nitrophenol?
6. Which of the two – O2NCH2CH2O or CH3CH2O is expected to be more stable and why?
7. Out of CO2 and BF3 , which one of them will have a larger bond angle and why?
8. Why N2 is more stable than O2? Explain on the basis of molecular orbital theory.
9. Is the eclipsed conformation of propane has the same or different energy as
the eclipsed conformation of ethane?
10. How are 0.5 m of NaOH different from 0.5 M of NaOH?
11. Write the electronic configuration of O2
12. What is the basic difference between electron gain enthalpy & electro negativity?
13. Predict in which of the following entropy decreases / increases:
(i) A liquid crystallizes into a solid.
(ii) H2 (g) ------------ 2H(g)
14. For the following equilibrium Kp = 6.3 x 1014 at 1000k
NO(g) + O3(g) NO2(g) + O2(g) What is Kp for the reverse reaction?
15. Assign the oxidation number to Mn in K2MnO4.
16. Write the IUPAC name CH3CH = C(CH3)2.
17. Which of the following has largest size? Mg, Mg 2+, Al3+,Al
18. Consider the following species:
N3-, O2-, F–, Na+, Mg2+, Al3+
(a) What is common in them?
(b) Arrange them in order of increasing ionic radii?
19. The wavelength of first spectral line in Balmer series is 6561 Å. Calculate the wavelength of
second spectral line in Balmer series.
20. Balance the following equation in an alkaline medium by half reaction method.
Cr(OH)3 + IO3 - --- I- + CrO4 -2
21. Which of the two is more concentrated and why? 1 M or 1 m aqueous solution of a
solute.
22. How manymoles and how many grams of NaCl are present in 250 cm3 of 0.500 M
NaCl solution?
23. One of the spectral line of the caesium has a wavelength of 456 nm. Calculate the
frequency of this line.
24. Consider the reaction of water with F2 and suggest, in terms of oxidation and
reduction, which species are oxidized/ reduced.
25. Calculate the mass percent of different elements in sodium sulphate,(Na2SO4)
26. How much copper can be obtained from 100 g of copper sulphate (CuSO 4)?
(Atomic mass of Cu – 63.5 amu)
27. Calculate the mass of a photon with wavelength 3.6A0. [h = 6.626 x 10 –34 Js].
28. What is meant by ‘Polar Covalent Bond ‘? Give suitable example.
29. Different sigma[σ] and pi[π] bond.
30. State Hess’s law of Constant Heat Summation by giving an example.
31. Draw resonating structure of CO3 -2 & State the hybridization of carbon in it.
32. Write bond line structural formula for:
i) Isopropyl alcohol ii) 2, 2, 4 - Trimethylpentane
33. What do you understand by the Inductive effect?
34. How will this justify the following order of acidic strength?
CH3CH2COOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > (CH3)3COOH
35. a) State Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle.
b) Using s, p, d, f notations, describe the orbital with following quantum numbers:
i) n = 2, l = 1
ii) n = 4, l = 0
iii) n = 5, l = 3
iv) n = 3, l = 2
36. Define hybridisation . State the hybridization & the shape of PCl5 and BeF2
37. The equilibrium constant for a reaction is 10. What will be the value of ΔG o ?
38. (a) The 4f sub shell of an atom contains 12 electrons. What is the maximum number of
electrons having the same spin in it?
(b) Explain the meaning of 4p6.
(c) Write the electronic configuration of the atom with atomic number 29
39. (a) Calculate the total number of electrons present in one mole of methane.
(b) An atomic orbital has n = 3. What are the possible values of l and ? l m
40. Explain the hybridisation of SF4 ?
41. What is spontaneous process?
42. Predict in which of the following, entropy increases/decreases.
i) A liquid crystallises into a solid.
ii) Temperature of crystallise solid is raised from 0 K to 115 K
iii) 2NaHCO3(s) → Na2CO3 +CO2(g) + H2O(g)
iv) H2(g) → 2H(g)
43. Write the expression for equilibrium constant for the reaction: [3]
H2 + I2======2HI(g)
44. What is the hybridisation of the negatively charged carbon atom in a carbanion?
45. Write the oxidation number of the following atoms:
(i) KMnO4
(ii) K2Cr2O7
46. Which of the carbocations is most stable and why?
(CH )3 C+ , CH3 CH2 CH2 + , CH3 CH+ CH2 CH3
47. What type of isomerism is exhibited by following pair of compounds?
(i) Ethanol and Methoxy methane
(ii) o-cresol and m-cresol
 (iii) Pentan-3-one and pentan-2-one
48. Convert:
(i) Propene to propane-1,2-diol
(ii) Isopropylbromide to n-propylbromide
49. For the reaction
NH4Cl(s)---------------------- NH3 (g)+ HCl (g)
At 25°C, enthalpy change, Δ H = + 177 kJ mol
Entropy change ΔS=+285JK mol .
Calculate free energy change o ΔG at 25̊ C and predict whether the reaction is
spontaneous or not.
51. (a) Compound ‘A’ with the molecular formula C6H8 reacts with hydrogen in the presence of
Lindlar’s catalyst to form a compound B with the molecular formula C5H10. A on reacting
with sodium in liquid ammonia forms a compound ‘C’ with the same molecular formula as
that of B. Identify ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’. Give the chemical reactions involved.
(b) Write the chemical reaction involved in Kolbe’s electrolytic process.
What are the products formed at cathode and anode?
52. (a) Using s, p, d, f notations, describe the orbital with following quantum numbers
(i) n=2, l=1
(ii) n = 4, l =0
(iii) n =5, l=3
(iv) n-3, l =2
(b) The 4f sub shell of an atom contains 12 electrons. What is the maximum number of
electrons having the same spin in it?
(c) Explain the meaning of 4p6.
(d) Write the electronic configuration of the atom with atomic number 29.
53. An alkene on ozonolysis gives butan-2-one and 2-methylpropanal.Give the structure and IUPAC
name of Alkene. What products will be obtained when it is
treated with hot, concentrated KmnO4
54. (a) Sate Markovnikov rule. Write IUPAC name of the product obtained by addition reaction
of HBr to hex-1-ene.
(b) What happens when : [ Give chemical equations]
(i) Butane undergoes complete combustion.
(ii) Ethanol is heated with conc. H2SO4
(iii) Ethyne is passed through red hot iron tube at 873K.
55. (a) Give the chemical equations for the following reaction :
(i) Freidel – Crafts’ reaction
(ii) Ozonolysis
(iii) Wurtz reaction.
(b) Account for the following:
(i) Benzene is extra – ordinary stable through it contains three double bonds.
(ii) Out of toluene , benzene , m - dinitrobenzene,toluene will undergo nitration most easily.
 SUBJECT – BIOLOGY

IMP QUESTIONS

Biology Important Questions:

1. What is the difference between transport proteins and enzyme proteins.
2. What is the difference between the two body forms-polyp and medusa- exhibited
cnidarians?
3. a) Where is the enzyme NADP reductase located?
b) What does the breakdown of proton gradient cause the release of?
4. Why photorespiration does not take place in C4 plants?
5. What do you understand by photoperiodism and vernalisation?
6. Write the various modes of transportation of carbon dioxide in the blood.
7. Why are thrombocytes necessary for blood coagulation?
8. Explain: a) Hypertension b) Coronary Artery Disease
9. What are the different types of movements?
10. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by anterior pituitary?
(a) Growth hormone (b) Follicle stimulating hormone
(c) Oxytocin (d) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
11. Inflammatory responses can be controlled by a certain steroid. Name the steroid, its source
and also its other important functions.
12. What is the role attributed to Eustachian tube?
13. List the human forebrain parts representing their respective functions.
14. Discuss the role of Ca2+ ions in muscle contraction. Draw neat sketches to illustrate your
answer.
15. Who proposed the double helical model of DNA?
16. Why are the two strands of DNA described as antiparallel? How are amino acids in a
protein held together?
17. Mention two factors on which imbibition depends.
18. What is meant by modification of root? What type of modification of root is found in:
(a) Banyan tree
(b) Turnip
(c) Mangrove trees
19. What is a mesosome in a prokaryotic cell? Mention the functions which it performs.
20. Draw a standard ECG and explain the different segments in it. What is the significance of
the juxta glomerular apparatus in kidney function?
21. How is ubiquinone reduced in the electron transport system? Where is it located?
22. Explain the process of transmission of a nerve impulse cross a chemical synapse.
23. Name the peptide hormones secreted by the gastrointestinal tract and mention their
functions in detail. Give two examples of hyperglycemic hormone.
24. Draw a diagram of nephron and explain the functions of tubules.
25. Differentiate between pectoral and pelvic girdle.
26. Differentiate between the male and female gametophytes of pteridophytes and
gymnosperms.
27. The heterosporous pteridophytes exhibit certain characteristics which are precursors to the
seed habits in gymnosperms. Explain.
28. Differentiate between open and closed circulatory system?
29. Explain with suitable examples the different types of phyllotaxy.
30. What is inflorescence? What are its two types?
31. Write the floral formula & draw the floral diagram of the family Liliaceae.
32. Explain the structure & function of collenchyma.
33. State the location & function of different types of meristems.
34. “Both lysosomes & vacuoles are endomembrane structures yet they differ in terms of their
functions" comment.
35. What are nuclear pores? State their functions? both directions between nucleus &
cytoplasm.
36. Describe the ultrastructure of a cilium or flagellum?
37. Justify with the help of an example of why nucleic acids display secondary structure.
38. Explain through the Watson - Crick model, the secondary structure exhibited by the nucleic
acids.
39. Describe in detail the phases of prophases I.
40. State why the respiratory pathway is referred to as an amphibolic pathway.
 SUBJECT – PHYSICAL EDUCATION

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS

1. How much money is given every year under the khelo India programme scholarship?
2. Define emotional wellness.
3. How is flexibility defined?
4. What age is adolescence?
5. Who is Thomas Bach?
6. What is the meaning of the Sanskrit word yuj?
7. What is the formula for calculating BMI?
8. What do you mean by long bones?
9. Explain developmental characteristics during childhood.
10. What are the physiological reasons in support of warming up?
11. How would you administer the body mass index? Give example also.
12. “Adolescence is the age of stress and strain”. Explain.
13. What is blood doping?
14. Explain the terms ‘growth and development?
15. What is a joint? Mention about the major types of joints.
16. Discuss any three stages of yoganidra.
17. Briefly discuss about coordinative abilities.
18. What do you mean by the ‘lifestyle? Elucidate the importance of positive/healthy
lifestyle in detail.
19. Discuss the objective physical education in detail.
20. What do you mean by centre of gravity? Discuss its application in games and sports.
21. Define wellness and explain the components of wellness in detail.
22. What do you mean by psychology? Explain the importance of psychology in sports.
23. Define doping and explain the types of doping.
24. What do you mean by yoga? Explain its importance in daily life.
25. What do you mean by physical fitness? Elucidate any two components of physical
fitness.
 SUBJECT – ENGLISH

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS

A. Answer the following questions in about 40 – 50 words each:

a) How did the grandmother utilise her time in the city home?
b) What was the narrator unable to believe about his grandparents?
c) Bring out the distinctive traits of the two ladies in “Mother’s Day”.
d) What was weighing on Andrew’s mind as he waited with the patient?
e) Dr. Andrew faced the biggest dilemma of his life that night. How did he act and save two lives?
f) What disappointed the author in Darchen?
g) Why do you think the lesson has been named ‘’Silk Road‟?
h) What problem did Carter face when he reached the mummy of King Tut? How did he find a
way out?
i) What happened when the goldfinch came to the laburnum tree?
j) What kind of relationship do the father and the son share? Why is it so?

B. Answer the following questions in about 120 – 150 words each:

a) Write a character sketch of the author’s grandmother by using the following words: affectionate,
caring, kind and benevolent, religious, a strong woman.
b) What lessons do we learn from lesson “We are not afraid to die” in such hazardous
experiences when we are face to face with death?
c) Why did the narrator say that forgetting Mrs Dorling’s address would be the easiest of all the
things?
d) Detail any situation from the drama when Mrs F call a spade a spade and comment as well.
e) How do you look at Mrs Pearson’s genuine problems and Mrs Fitzgerald’s suggestion? Is it
practicable, imaginative and realistic?
f) What sort of father-son relationship has been depicted in the poem ‘Father to Son?

C. Extract Based Questions:

a) All over the verandah and in her room right up to where she lay dead and stiff wrapped in the
red shroud, thousands of sparrows sat scattered on the floor. There was no chirruping. We felt
sorry for the birds and my mother fetched some bread for them. She broke it into little crumbs,
the way my grandmother used to, and threw it to them. The sparrows took no notice of the
bread. When we carried my grandmother's corpse off, they flew away quietly. Next morning the
sweeper swept the bread crumbs into the dustbin.

(i) Who was covered with a red shroud?

(ii) Why did the birds not eat the breadcrumbs?
(iii) Name the author of the above passage.
 b) As he gazed at the still form a shiver of horror passed over Andrew. After all that he had
promised! His face, heated with his own exertions, chilled suddenly. He hesitated, torn between
his desire to attempt to resuscitate the child, and his obligation towards the mother, who was
herself in a desperate state. The dilemma was so urgent he did not solve it consciously. Blindly,
instinctively, he gave the child to the nurse and turned his attention to Susan Morgan who now
lay collapsed, almost pulseless, and not yet out of the ether, upon her side.

(i) How was the child born?

(ii)What does the word ‘resuscitate’ mean?
(iii) Which ugly middle position was Mason caught in?
(iv) What had Dr. Mason promised to Morgans?

D. Writing Skills

a) You are Harish/Harshita of 12, Seva Nagar, Pune. You want to sell your flat as you are shifting
to another city for work. Draft a suitable advertisement in not more than 50 words to be
published in The Pune Times under the classified columns.

b) You need two lady checkers for Globe Exports, Virat Nagar, Kolkata 700085. Write an
advertisement to be published in the ‘Situation Vacant’ column of The Morning Star, Kolkata.

c) Bosco Public School has a vacancy for transport in charge to look after the school transport
fleet. Draft an advertisement on behalf of the Administrative Officer in the classified columns of a
local daily giving necessary details in about 50 words.

d) Prepare a graceful poster for the Inter-School Poetic Recitation contest that the Hindi Sahitya
Sabha of your school is organising to celebrate the birthday of Munshi Prem Chand.

e) Design a poster in not more than 50 words about the need for Regular Exercise. You may use
slogans.
 SUBJECT – PHYSICS

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS

1. A particle initially at rest falls freely under gravity. Find the distance moved by it in 9 th second of
its motion.
2. An arbitrary system of units uses energy (E), momentum (P) and force (F) as its fundamental
units. Find the dimensions of mass in this arbitrary system.
3. Write two necessary conditions for a body to be in equilibrium. What do you understand by
stable equilibrium for a body?
4. How would you relate the pressure exerted by a gas with the rms speed of its particles? Using
this relation explain how rms speed depends on temperature of the gas.
5. If the radius of earth shrinks by 2.0 %, mass remaining constant. How would the value of
acceleration due to gravity change?
6. Write four characteristics of gravitational force.
7. A 10 kW drilling machine is used to drill a bore in a small aluminium block of mass 8 kg. Find the
rise in temperature of the block in 2.5 minutes, assuming 50% power is used up in heating the
machine itself or lost to the surroundings.
(Specific heat of aluminium =0.90Jg−10−1)
8. Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 3 kg are located at (2i + 5j + 13k) m and (- 6i + 4j - 2k) m
respectively. Find the position of their centre of mass.
9. The distance-time relation for a particle, moving along x-axis, is given as : t = Ax2 + Bx, where A
and B are constants. Find the retardation in terms of velocity.
10. Write the equation of motion of a simple pendulum and use it to obtain the condition under
which its motion is simple harmonic in nature. Obtain the expression for its time period under
this condition.
11. State Newton’s second law of motion and use it to obtain the commonly used relation between
force and acceleration.
12. A water tanker from which water is leaking at a significant rate is moving on a horizontal road.
Which of the two forms of the second law would be better suited for analysing its motion. Give
reason for your answer.
13. (a) A stone is projected, from the ground, with a velocity u, at an angle 𝜃 with the horizontal.
Show that it describes a parabolic path and hence obtain expression for the maximum height
attained.
(b) A projectile is thrown at an angle of 60° with the horizontal. After how much time will its
inclination with the horizontal be 45°, if u = 147 ms -1?
14. (a) State parallelogram law of vector addition. Find analytically the magnitude and direction of
resultant vector, when two vectors are (i) parallel to each other (ii) perpendicular to each other.
(b) A ball is acted upon by the following velocities. (i) 3 ms -1 due east (ii) 11 ms-1 due south and
(iii) 5√2 ms-1 due north – east. Find the magnitude of resultant velocity.
15. A tunnel is dug through the centre of the Earth. Show that a body of mass ‘m’ when dropped
from rest from one end of the tunnel will execute simple harmonic motion.
16. Give the analytical treatment of the formation of standing waves on string. With relevant
diagram, discuss the formation of the first two normal mode of vibration of the string.
17. When an object moves along a straight line with uniform acceleration, it is possible to relate its
velocity, acceleration during motion and the distance covered by it in a certain time interval by
a set of equations known as the equations of motion. For convenience, a set of three such
equations are given below:

v = u + at s = ut + ½ at2 2as = v2 – u2

Where u is the initial velocity of the object which moves with uniform acceleration a for Time

t, v is the final velocity and s is the distance travelled by the object in time t.

i) The equations of motion are applicable for which type of motion.

ii) The brakes applied to a car produce an acceleration of 10 m/s 2 in the opposite direction to
the motion. If the car takes 1 s to stop after the application of brakes, calculate the distance
travelled during this time by car.
iii) Draw a speed time graph for uniform accelerated motion.
iv) Slope of speed time graph is equal to which physical quantity.

18. There are many types of springs. Important among them are helical and spiral springs. Usually
we assume that the springs are massless. Therefore work done is stored in the spring in the
form of elastic potential energy of the spring. Thus the potential energy of the spring is energy
associated with compression or expansion of an elastic spring.

i) When the potential energy of a spring may be considered as zero?

ii) The ratio of spring constants of two springs is 2: 3. What is the ratio of potential energy if

they are stretched by the same force?

iii) The potential energy of a spring when stretched through a distance x is 10 J. What is the

amount of work done on the same spring to stretch it through an additional distance x?
19. A girl riding a bicycle along a straight road at a speed of 5 m s –1 throws a stone of mass 0.5 kg
which has a speed of 15 ms–1 with respect to the ground along with her direction of motion.
The mass of the girl and bicycle is 50 kg. Does the speed of the bicycle change after the stone
is thrown? What is the change in speed, if so?

20. Two rods of different materials but of equal cross-sections and lengths (1.0 m each) are joined
to make a rod of length 2.0 m. The metal of one rod has a coefficient of linear thermal
expansion 10-5 C-1 and Young’s modulus 3 ×× 1010 Nm-2. The other metal has the values
2 ×× 10-5 C-1 and 1010 Nm-2 respectively. How much pressure must be applied to the ends of
the composite rod to prevent its expansion when the temperature is raised by 100 o C?
21. Block A of weight 100 N rests on a frictionless inclined plane of slope angle 30° (Fig.). A

flexible cord attached to A pass es over a frictionless pulley and is

connected to block B of weight W. Find the weight W for which the system is in equilibrium.

1. 26. A batsman deflects a ball by an angle of 45° without changing its initial speed which is
equal to 54 km/h. What is the impulse imparted to the ball? (Mass of the ball is 0.15 kg.)

22. The pattern of standing waves formed on a stretched string at two instants of time is shown in
Figure. The velocity of two waves super-imposing to form stationary waves is 360 ms–1and
their frequencies are 256 Hz.

a. Calculate the time at which the second curve is plotted.

b. Mark nodes and antinodes on the curve.
c. Calculate the distance between A′ and C ′.
23. A SONAR system fixed in a submarine operates at a frequency 40.0 kHz. An enemy
submarine moves towards the SONAR with a speed of 360 km h -1. What is the frequency of
sound reflected by the submarine? Take the speed of sound in water to be 1450 ms -1.
24. A car weighs 1800 kg. The distance between its front and back axles is 1.8 m. Its centre of
gravity is 1.05 m behind the front axle. Determine the force exerted by the level ground on
each front wheel and each back wheel.
25. A jet airplane travelling at the speed of 500 kmh -1 ejects its products of combustion at the
speed of 1500 kmh-1 relative to the jet plane. What is the speed of the latter with respect to an
observer on ground?
26. Calculate the speed of sound in a gas in which two waves of wavelengths 1m and 1.01 m
produce 10 beats in 3 seconds.
27. The angle of banking of a road curving at a radius of 'r', is '𝜃'. A vehicle of mass 'M' negotiate
this curved road at a speed 'v' such that its tyres have minimum wear and tear. Draw a
diagram indicating the forces acting on this vehicle. How is 'v' related to ' 𝜃 ‘?
28. What is the moment of inertia of spherical mass 20kg and radius 1/4m about its diameter?
29. Draw graphs showing the variation of acceleration due to gravity with
i.height above the earth’s surface and
ii. depth below the earth’s surface.
30. What is the pressure inside the drop of mercury of radius 3.00 mm at room temperature? Surface
tension of mercury at that temperature (20°C) is 4.65 ×× 10-1 Nm-1. The atmospheric pressure is
1.01 ×× 105 Pa. Also give the excess pressure inside the drop.
31. Explain Bernoulli’s Principle.
32. What amount of energy is released or absorbed when two mercury droplets of radii 0.1 cm and
0.2 cm collapse into one single drop? Given that the surface tension of mercury T = 435.5 ×
10−3 Nm−1.
33. A drop of liquid breaks into smaller droplets resulting in the lowering of the temperature of the
droplets. Assuming that a drop of liquid of radius R, breaks into N small droplets each of radius
r. Find out the drop in the temperature.
34. Using the expression of power and K.E. of rotational motion, derive the relation τ = lɑ.
35. Three separate particles of masses of 1g, 2g, and 3g have their centre of mass at the precise
point (2,2,2). What should be the position of the fourth particle of mass 4g so that the
combined centre of mass may be at the point (0,0,0).
36. As one ascends the atmosphere, the Pressure decreases. Given that the density of air is ρ, then what
is the pressure change dp over a differential height dh?
37. The free surface of oil in a tanker which is at rest, is horizontal. If the free surface is tilted by an angle θ
and the acceleration of the tanker is α ms −1, what will be the slope of the free surface?
38. A circular ring having a diameter of 40cm and mass of 1 kg is rotating about an axis normal to
its plane and passing through the centre with a frequency of 10 rotations per second. Now,
calculate the angular momentum about the axis of rotation?
39. Why cannot a single force balance the torque?
40. Given that the surface tension and vapour pressure of water at 20° C are 7.28 × 10−2 Nm−1 and
2.33 × 103 Pa respectively. Find out the radius of the smallest spherical water droplet which
can form without evaporating at 25°C.
 SUBJECT – COMPUTER SCIENCE

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS

1. Given below are some features of two types of computers – RAM and ROM. List each
feature under RAM or ROM.
a) Non – volatile memory
b) Contents can’t be changed
c) Stores data or files the user is currently working on
d) Volatile memory
2. i) Match the following:

Column A Column B
1 ) Plagiarism a) Fakers, by offering special rewards or money prize asked for
personal information, such as bank account information
2) acking b) Copy and paste information from the Internet into your report and
then organise it
3) Credit card fraudc) The trail that is created when a person uses the Internet.
4) Digital Foot Printd) Breaking into computers to read private emails and other files

3. ii) Expand the following terms:

a) IPR b) GPL c) OSS d) GNU
4. Consider the following list
L = [13, 18, 20, 10, 18, 23]
Write python statements to perform the following task
(a) count number of times the value 18 is repeating
(b) arrange values in descending order
(c) remove the last element
(d) Insert 15 at index position 3
5. What is an IP address?
6. What is digital footprint and name the types of it?
7. Write the differences between Ethical Hacking and Non – ethical Hacking
8. Write the differences between Free software and Free and Open-Source Software
9. What are variables? How are they important for a program?
10. Rewrite the following code fragments using for loop:
i = 100
while i>0:
print(i)
i-=3
11. Write a Python program to accept a number from the user and display whether it is an
even number or odd number.
12. Write a Python program to accept a string and display whether it is a palindrome.
13. Define Strings in Python. How will you create an empty string?
14. Convert the following given code from while loop to for loop.
i=1
n = 17
while i < 11:
print(n, ‘x’, i, ‘=’, n*i)
i=i+1
15. i) Find errors, underline them and rewrite the same after correcting the following code:
d1=dict [ ] i= 1
n = input (“Enter number of entries:”)
while i<=n:
a = input (“Enter name:”)
b = input (“Enter age:”)
d1 (a) = b
i=i+1
I = d1.Key [ ]
for i in 1:
print (i, ‘\t’, ‘d1[i]’)
16. Consider the following code and find out the error:
a) t1 = (10, 20, 30, 40)
X, Y, Z = t1
b) tup1 = (10, 20, 30)
tup2 = tup1*(3,)
c) T1 = (10, 20,30,40)
T2 = (40, 50, 60)
T1, T2, T3 = T1, T2
17. Predict the output of the following
import math
import statistics
import random
print (math.ceil(187.56))
print (math.sqrt(169))
print (statistics.median([ 1,2,3,7,8,9]))
18. What are the possible outcome(s) executed from the following code? Also, specify the
maximum and minimum values.
import random
PICK = random.randint(0,3)
CITY = [“DELHI”, “MUMBAI”, “CHENNAI”, “KOLKATA”]
for I in CITY:
for J in range (1, PICK):
print (I, end = “ ”)
print( )
a) DELHI DELHI b) DELHI
MUMBAI MUMBAI DELHI MUMBAI
CHENNAI CHENNAI DELHI MUMBAI CHENNAI
KOLKATA KOLKATA
c) DELHI d) DELHI
MUMBAI MUMBAI MUMBAI
CHENNAI KOLKATA KOLKATA KOLKATA
KOLKATA
19. Write a Python program to print Fibonacci series upto certain limit.

20. Write a program to print sum of natural numbers between 1 to 7. Print the sum
progressively, i.e. after adding each natural number, print sum so far.
21. Write a Python program in Python to find and display the sum of all the values which
are ending with 3 from a list.
22. Explain the special operations performed on python strings with suitable syntax and
example.
 23. Write the most appropriate list method to perform the following tasks.
(a) Delete a given element from the list. (b) Delete 3rd element from the list.
(c) Add an element in the end of the list. (d) Add an element in the beginning of the
list.
(e) Add multiple elements of a list in the end of the list.
24. Explain the dictionary manipulation methods of python with suitable syntax and example.
25. How are dictionaries different from lists?
26. What is the length of the tuple shown below?
t1 = (((‘a’,1),‘b’,‘c’),‘d’,2),(‘e’,‘f’),3,4)
27. Declare a dictionary to store students’ information with keys [1, 2, 3] and name [‘Akash’,
‘Bikash’, ‘Aarti’]
28. Match the output with the statement given in column A with Column B. Write the correct No
with given options.
Column A Column B
1. >>>tuple([10,20,30]) a. >>> 2
2. >>>(“Tea”,)* 3 b. >>> (10,20,30)
3. >>>tuple(“Item”) c. >>> ('Tea', 'Tea', 'Tea')
4. >>>print(len(tuple([1,2]))) d. >>> ('I', 't', 'e', 'm')
29. Create the following tuples:
a) (4, 5, 6)
b) (“AB”, “CD”, “EF”)
c) (5.5, 7.5, 9.5)
d) (4, “XYZ”, 7.5)
30. Write code to unpack the tuple T(11, 33, 66, 99) into individual variables.
31. Write code to convert the tuple T(20, 25, 30, 40) into a list variable.

32. FIND OUTPUTS(1 Mark each):

Q.1 to Q.3are based on the declaration of list variable L herewith.

L=["There", "are", ["few", "words", "that"], "we", "will", "use", "here"]
1)print( L[2:3] )
2)print( "few" in L )
3)print ( L[2:3] + L[-3:] )
4)print( 'hello ' + 'world' * 3 )
5)print( 'GOOD MORNING' [ 1 : 4 ] )
6)aDict = { ‘Rahul’ : 1 , ‘Rohan’ : 3, ‘Samir’ : 5, ‘Renu’ : 10}
temp = 0
for value in aDict.values( ):
temp = temp + value
print(temp)
33. Figure out the problem with following code fragments. Correct the code and the write the
correct code.
1. S1 = ‘must’
S2 = ‘try’
N1 = 10
 N2 = 3
print( S1 + S2 )
print( S1 *N2 )
print( S1 + N1 )
print( S2 * S1 )
2. Amit is getting an error with the following code. Can you spot the error.
T=(10,20,30)
T.append(40)
print(T)
Also help Amit to write correct code to, how he can add/concatenate an element at the last
of the tuple.

34. (1) Write a program to accept elements of a list from the user. Multiply elements of the list
with 7, if an element is a multiple of 7 otherwise multiply each element with 4. After
processing, display the elements.
Example:
List= [4, 7, 6, 8, 14, 22, 21, 17]
Output: [16, 49, 24, 32, 98, 88, 147, 68]
(2) Write a program to create a list of numbers with some duplicate values and then code it to
remove all duplicate from the given list.
(3) Create a dictionary of 5 students as shown below:
Num Name
1 Ranjeeta
2 Shivaji
3 Vishwa
4 Mayank
5 Jyotika
(4) Write a program using dictionary to convert a number entered by the user into its
corresponding numbers in words. For example, if the input is 523 then the output should
be ‘Five Two Three’