Emergency Medicine

( MID TERM EXAMINATION )

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs)

Q. No. 1 The appropriate use of the Emergency Medical Service ambulance is necessary. 1
Which of the following patient has the LEAST need to be sent to the Emergency
Department this way?
(A) 24-year-old patient with pregnancy, abdominal pain and syncope.
(B) 20-year-old patient with isolated left facial numbness for 2 days.
(C) 18-year-old patient with “worst ever headache”.
(D) 48-year-old patient with chest pain and history of balloon angioplasty a year ago.
(E) 62-year-old patient with ischemic heart disease and fainting

Q. NO. 2 The ABCDE approach is based upon which of the following principles? 1

A. The ABCDE approach is a method for carrying out a detailed physical

assessment
B. The ABCDE approach assumes that all patients have an airway problem
C. The ABCDE approach is a system of sorting ED patients into order of priority
D. The ABCDE approach is a systematic method for identifying patient
problems in order of priority

Q. No. 3 When the crisis activity plan has been created it Embrace
A. Vitals Assessment
B. Education
C. Care
D. Both B and C
E. None of Above

Q. No. 4 One of the rule of emergency team is to:

A. Check only for breathing and pulse
B. Wait until EMS arrives to care
C. Direct EMS to the scene
D. None of the above
1

Q. No. 5 What information should the athlete’s medical information card include?
A. Family contact information
B. Direct to sports venue
C. Primary injury evaluation
D. Long term treatment goals

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Q. No. 6 The EAP should be reviewed and rehearsed by the emergency team
A. Only once a year
B. As many times as possible
C. No more than a twice a year
D. Three or more times a year

Q. No. 7 professional responsibilities of emergency team members include:

A. CPR training
B. First aid training
C. Blood borne pathogen training
D. All of the above

Q. No. 8 The EAP should be specific to:

A. Each activity
B. Each venue location
C. One specific site
D. A and C only

Q. No. 9 Documentation needed for an EAP includes : 1

A. Potential athlete medical conditions
B. Inventory of emergency supplies
C. Coaches’ pocket information card
D. All of the above

Q. No. 10 consideration for an appropriate emergency care facility includes : 1

A. Connection with team physician
B. Size of emergency room
C. Proximity to venue location
D. None of the above

Q. No. 11 All of the following are the components of the Primary Survey, EXCEPT. 1

a Checking level of exposure

b Checking neurological disability
c Checking presence of any deformity
d Checking for Circulation

Q. No. 12 What is not the Parts of Actual assessment? 1

a Inspection
b Palpation
c Percussion
d None of above
e All of the above
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Q. No. 13 What is the Golden Hour? 1

a Time for an ambulance to arrive

b Minimum time to get the injured athlete to trauma center
c Interval between vital signs measurements
d None of the above

Q. No. 14 Snoring is a common sign of ____? 1

a Fatigue
b Airway Compromise
c Intoxication
d All of the above

1
Q. No. 15 Which of coming up next isn't viewed as one of the SIX fundamental signs?

a Pulse Rate
b Blood Pressure
c Respiratory Rate
d None of Above

Q. No. 16 __________ is considered the gold standard for advanced airway techniques.
a. Combitube 1
b. Endotracheal intubation
c. LMA
d. King LT-D
Inadequate tissue perfusion is the definition of ____?

a Pulmonary embolism
b Shock
c Heart rate
d Stroke

Q. No. 17 A blood pressure cuff should cover at least what percentage of the arm? 1

a 50%
b 70%
c 80%
d 90%

Q. No. 18 Which isn't an Pain scale utilized in medical care; 1

a) Numerical Rating Scale (NRS)

b) Visual Analog Scale (VAS)
c) Adult Non-Verbal Scale (NVS)
d) Flacc
e) None of above

Q. No. 19 Which temperature measurement is the least accurate? 1

a Oral
b Axillary
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 c Tympanic
d Rectal

Q. No. 20 A respiratory rate less than 10 requires ______ 1

a Further evaluation and possible assistance

b Nothing, because this is normal
c Immediate cause for alarm and activation of EMS
d Application of pulse oximeter

Q. No. 21 Which of the following is the step in Critical Care Process 1

a Scene Assessment
b Primary Survey
c Secondary Survey
d All of the above

Q. No. 22 Korotkoff sounds are the sounds produced as a result of 1

a Due to cuff producing the artery

b Due to turbulent flow of blood
c Both a & b
D None of the above.

Q. No. 23 What steps would you take to control bleeding from a nosebleed?

A. Sit casualty down, lean forward and pinch soft part of nose.

B. Sit casualty down, lean backward and pinch soft part of nose.

C. Lie casualty down and pinch soft part of nose.

D. Lie casualty down and pinch top of nose.

Q. No. 24 Gurgling sounds indicate _______ in the airway.

a.Air 1
b.Fluid
c.Foreign body
d.Blood

Q. No. 25 _______ is a common symptom of airway obstruction. 1

a. Stuttering
b.Apnea
c.Bradypnea
d.Snoring respiration

Q. No. 26 Opening the airway in the presence of a cervical spice injury is accomplished by using 1
the ________.
a. Bag valve mask
b. Pocket mask
c. Jaw thrust maneuver
d. Oxygen mask

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Q. No. 27 The NP airway should span the distance between _______ and __________. 1
a. Ear and jaw
b. Ear and tip of nose
c. Jaw and nose
d. Corner of mouth and nose

Q. No. 28 What is the range of FiO2 for a simple face mask? 1

a. 40% to 60%
b. 100%
c. 20% to 40%
d. More than 100%

Q. No. 29 How should oxygen tanks be stored? 1

a.Upright
b. Near the smoking area
c. On a shelf
d. In a holder away from flame

Q. No. 30 What letters describe the hand placement technique for using a BVM mask? 1
a. X-Y
b. Z-W
c. E-C
d. A-B-C

Q. No. 31 A pocket mask without a supplemental oxygen port delivers a FiO2 of _______. 1
a. About 16%
b. 21%
c. 25%
d. 30%

Q. No. 32 Inadequate tissue perfusion is the definition of ____?

a Pulmonary embolism
b Shock
c Heart rate
d Stroke

Q. No. 33 Which airway may be used to relieve airway obstruction if the athlete has a gag reflex
a. Oropharyngeal
b. Nasal 1
c. Endotracheal
d. None

Q. No. 34 Contraindications to the NP airway are: 1

a. Facial trauma
b. Epistaxis
c.both a & b
d. None

Q. No. 35 A patient reported a history of RTA in the emergency department a few minutes ago 1
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 and had a major cervical spine injury. Which of the following is not a motion of
cervical spine injury in such a patient?
A. Flexion
B. Extension.
C. Supination.
D. Lateral Flexion.

Q. No. 36 What can be the most important information regarding treatment decisions for the 1
potentially injured cervical spine?
A. Mechanism of injury.
B. Previous History.
C. Age.
D. Vital Signs.

Q. No. 37 The major goal of spinal immobilization is to: 1

A. Maintain a neutral, in-line position.
B. Calm the athlete.
C. Make it easier to lift the athlete.
D. Meet federal guidelines.

Q. No. 38 Injuries to the spinal cord may be categorized as: 1

A. Primary or Secondary.
B. Critical.
C. Mild or moderate.
D. None of the above

Q. No. 39 Ahmed came with a major history of spinal cord injury. Move the spine to a 1
neutral position unless the following is/are noted:
A. Bleeding.
B. Resistance.
C. Pain.
D. Both A and C.

Q. No. 40 When the force is applied through the length of the spine it is known as: 1
A. Subluxation.
B. Sagittal Plane
C. Axial loading.
D. Ischemia.

Q. No. 41 An athlete was seriously injured during a football match and was found not 1
breathing, is a:
A. Deceased.
B. Tachycardiac.
C. Stable.
D. Apneic.

Q. No. 42 Central cord syndrome is most commonly seen with: 1

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 A. Females.
B. Hypertension.
C. Lateral Flexion.
D. Males.

Q. No. 43 A football player with shoulder pads and a helmet on should be immobilized: 1
A. With both on.
B. With helmet off.
C. Quickly.
D. On his or her side.

Q. No. 44 Administering corticosteroids to an athlete with a spinal cord injury will: 1

A. Ease her or his pain.
B. Minimize swelling.
C. Calm the athlete down.
D. None of the above.

Q. No. 45 A young woman met with an accident and had mild quadriparesis. Her lateral X- 1
ray cervical spine revealed C5-C6 fracture-dislocation. Which of the following is
the best line of management in emergency care?
A. Immediate anterior decompression
B. Cervical traction followed by instrument fixation
C. Hard cervical collar and bed rest
D. Cervical laminectomy

Q. NO. 46 All of the following are true in spinal cord injuries except: 1

A. About 80% of spinal injuries result in a neurological deficit.

B. Thoracolumbar spine injury may result in paraplegia.

C. Cervical spine injury may result in quadriplegia.

D. Any lesion to the spinal cord above the spinal cord may cause
hypotension.

Q. NO. 47 Which of the following is the 1st line management in Neurogenic shock in spinal 1
cord injuries:

A. Fluid exchange.

B. Vasopressor (Dopamine)

C. Vasopressor (ADH and Oxytocin)

D. Both A and B.

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Q. NO. 48 Spinal injuries are best classified on the basis of the mechanism of injury into the 1
following types.

A. Flexion injury.

B. Flexion-rotation injury.

C. Flexion distraction injury.

D. Extension injury

Q. NO.49 A patient reported neurogenic shock, and sudden loss of the sympathetic nervous 1
system, the following included in the symptoms except

A. hypotension.

B. Bradycardia.

C. Loss of sympathetic tone.

D. Flaccid paralysis.

Q. NO. 50 Central cord syndrome is: 1

A . A result of forces producing an injury in the periphery of the spinal cord

B. Most commonly occurs in older persons with degenerative changes of the

cervical spine

C. Characterized by a disproportionate loss of lower extremity versus

upper extremity

function

D. Most often associated with penetrating injuries

Q. NO. 51 An athlete was playing a soccer match and was badly injured if ABCs cannot be 1
effectively checked in a prone athlete, or if they are not present, the athlete must
immediately be:

A. Log rolled

B. Lift transfer.

C. Straddle slide method.

D. None of the above.

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Q. NO. 52 The hospital administration is discussing ways to improve care in the ED. A 1
screen reflecting waiting time is proposed to install in the waiting room. What
would be the advantages of this screen?

A. Helps patients to be seen more quickly

B. Reduces the number of complaints

C. Increases patient satisfaction

D. Facilitates the triage process

Q. NO. 53 The five major mechanisms of injury are: 1

A. Flexion, extension, axial loading, distraction, and laceration

B. Concussion, flexion, extension, rotation, and penetration

C. Flexion, extension, axial loading, rotation and penetration

D. Flexion, extension, concussion, distraction, and penetration

Q. NO. 54 Which of the following statements regarding the sexual function of the cervical 1
spinal cord

An injured person is true?

A. Persons retain their psychogenic abilities

B. Females cannot experience normal fertility and pregnancy

C. Most males can achieve erection, but will not experience reflexive
ejaculation

D. The physical act of intercourse remains impossible for most

individuals

Q. NO. 55 Sudden Cardiac Arrest is sudden and unexpected cessation of heart's ______and 1
leads to brain unconsciousness in about ______
a) Electric activity , 20 to 30 sec
b) Electric activity, 20 to 30 mints
c) Pumping activity, 20 to 30 sec
d) Pumping activity, 20 to 30 mints

Q. NO. 56 . Most imp initial rhythm occurring in 60% cases when assessed by on site AED is 1
a) Ventricular defibrillator
b) Pulse less electrical activity
c) Pulse electrical less activity
d) Ventricular fibrillation

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Q. NO. 57 SCA most commonly Occur in people of ages 1
a) 45 to 70 yr
b) 50 to 75 yr
c) 40 to 75 yr
d) 45 to 70 yr

Q. NO. 58 Exercise related SCA define as cardiac arrest occurring within _____ of participation 1
in sport.
a) 1 hr
b) 30.mints
c) 20 sec
d) 2 hrs

Q. NO. 59 Athletes was playing basketball. Suddenly one of them got hit by a basketball 1
forcefully. He became unconscious. On examination, doc told that he has provocation
of ventricular fibrillation or tachycardia. This condition is referred as
a) Myocarditis
b) Cardiac sarcoidosis
c) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
d) Commotio cordis

Q. NO. 60 Symptoms of concern in athletes having Cardiovascular disease that prompt 1

evaluation are except
a) Syncope
b) Dyspnea
c) Bleeding
d) Chest pressure

Q. NO. 61 SCA and heart attack (HA) is 1

a) Different ,HA related to mitral regurgitation
b) Different,HA related to death of heart muscle
c) Different, SCA is cessation in heart's electrical activity
d) Different , SCA is cessation in heart's Pumping activity

Q. NO. 62 Cardiac rhythms of SCA include 1

a) Ventricular defibrillation
b) Hyper pulse electrical activity
c) Asystole
d) Diasystole

Q. NO. 63 Coming up next are all perceived reasons for SCA aside from 1
a) Long QT syndrome
b) Sudden fibrillation syndrome
c) Commotio cordis
d) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Q. NO. 64 Which of following conditions causes mkst deaths annually in US 1

a) Breast Cancer
b) Motor vehicle crashes
c) Sudden Cardiac Arrest
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 d) Lung cancer

Q. NO. 65 After a sudden cardiac arrest event has transpired, the athletic trainer should 1
a) Determine if any responder require CISM
b) Avoid restocking the AED until authorized by local police
c) Accompany the patient to hospital in ambulance
d) Cancel all athletic events until athletes receive additional screening

Q. NO. 66 Following is not characteristics of AED 1

a) Must be operated by professional medical personnel
b) Provides shock for SVT in addition to VF
c) Automatically charges and shock after VF detection
d) Can be used on adults and children

Q. NO. 67 They use of poster and public service announcement to in from people 1
about the potential impact of traumatic situations would best qualify as
what form of interventions?
A. Psycho educational
B. Psychological debriefing
C. Crisis intervention
D. Cognitive behavioural therapy

Q. NO. 68 A significant predictor of long term difficulties following a traumatic experience 1

is............
A. Pain
B. Lack of education
C. A difficult childhood
D. Lack of social support after the event

Q. NO. 69 For people who experience potentially traumatic events approximately what 1
percentage actually develop significant long term psychological or emotional
difficulties?
A. 40%
B. 60%
C. 10%
D. 90%

Q. NO. 70 Short term acute stress reactions following the experience Singh of extreme events 1
can best be described as:
A. A sign of certain long term difficulties
B. A warning for Poor prognosis
C. An indication of weak character
D. A normal and expected response

Q. NO. 71 For individuals who are directly affected by traumatic events and are experiencing 1
significant emotional or psychological difficulties one month after the event what
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 is the best form of intervention?
A. Psychological education
B. Psychological debriefing
C. Crisis intervention
D. Cognitive behavioural therapy

Q. NO. 72 For a psychological perspective what must be present for an event, injury or 1
situation to qualify as a traumatic experience?
A. A significant amount of blood
B. The subjective experience of pain by the victim
C. A sudden or unexpected onset
D. The subjective experience of fear, horror or helplessness

Q. NO. 73 CISD stand for: 1

A. Critical incident stress debriefing
B. Critical intervention stress disease
C. Both A and B
D. None of them

Q. NO. 74 Components of cognitive behavioural behavioral therapy? 1

A. Cognitive restructuring
B. Education about reactions to trauma
C. Breathing and relaxation training
D. All of these

Q. NO. 75 Some have suggested that compassion fatigue or a caretaker’s diminished ability to 1
feel empathy or interest in helping victims of trauma may actually be the result OF

A. Their desire to avoid reminders of the event

B. The seriousness of the event in question
C. The empathy they feel and emotional connection they
make with clients
D. None of the above

Q. NO. 76 A patient came in the psychologist with the chief complain of illusions, 1
hallucinations and and dissociative flashbacks from few weeks to months. How is
the psychologist going to differentiate that is it a PTSD or ASD?
A. PTSD arousal is longer than 1 month.
B. ASD lasts for few weeks.
C. PTSD both lasts for 30 days.
D. Both A and B

Q. NO. 77 _________ are designed to help the individuals resolve emotional reactions and 1
overcome the problems related to crises and traumatic experiences.
A. Crisis interventions
B. Trauma interventions.
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 C. Psychological interventions
D. Educational intervention

Q. NO. 78 A road traffic incident was reported on the main GT road. Patient was not having 1
serious injuries and was given the First Aid but his mental health was quite disturbed
and is reffered to internal members of psychological emergency response team.
Following are members he was reported except:
A. Athletic Trainer.
B. Team Physician.
C. Counsellors.
D. Administrative staff.

Q. NO. 79 Which of the following is not a crises intervention technique: 1

A. Assess an individual's personal and inter personal resources.
B. Establish a supportive relationship.
C. Develop an understanding of the client's primary and secondary needs
D. Cognitive therapy interventions
Q. NO. 80 CISD is more effective in which of the following groups: 1
A. Homogeneous groups.
B. Non homogeneous groups.
C. Heterogeneous groups.
D. None of the above.

Q. NO. 81 . In response to trauma which heightens the risk for PTSD, men are more likely to 1
endorse.
A. Peritraumatic Dissociation
B. Hyperarousal Symptoms
C. Fear
D. Helplessness

Q. NO. 82 Studies indicate that PTSD is associated with the disruptions in the system(s) of. 1
A. Neurotransmitter
B. Neuroendocrine
C. Neurohormonal
D. All of the given

Q. NO. 83 To reduce physiological arousal and painful emotions, the patients with PTSD are 1
taught behavioral strategies like.
A. Deep breathing
B. Relaxation
C. Avoidance
D. Both A and B

Q. NO. 84 Simply by living with a partner with PTSD, the spouses can also develop. 1
A. Schizophrenia
B. Bipolar Disorder
C. Secondary Posttraumatic Stress
D. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder

Q. NO. 85  In people with PTSD, nightmares seem directly related to high. 1
A. Norepinephrine levels
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 B. Serotonin levels
C. Dopamine levels
D. GABA levels

Q. NO. 86 PTSD is a Mental Health Condition that is triggered by. 1

A. Family events     
B. School events      
C. Current events             
D. Terrifying Events

Q. NO. 87 Indications to the NP airway are: 1

a. Vomiting
b. Hemoptysis
c. Hemothorax
d. None

Q. NO. 88 3C’s in EAP Exclude: 1

A. Count
B. Care
C. Calm
D. None of above

Both A & D

Q. NO. 89 Most common airway obstruction is: 1

a)Denture
b)Food
c)The tongue

E. d)None of the above

Q. NO. 90 When administering compression, therule is: 1

a)100 compressions per minute, pushhard and push fast
b)Use 2 hands for adult
c)To press down 1½ - 2 inches, straightdown
d)All of the above
e) None of above

Q. NO. 91 Before beginning chest compressions you must check for 1

a)Dilated pupils
b) Absence of pulse
c)Bleeding
d) Brain damage

Q. NO. 92 How should you open the airway of an unconscious casualty? 1

A. Head tilt and chin lift.

B. Jaw thrust.

C. Head tilt and jaw thrust.

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 D. Lift the chin.

Q. NO. 93 What is the cause of angina? 1

A. Insufficient blood reaching the lungs.

B. Insufficient blood reaching the brain.

C. Insufficient blood reaching the heart muscle.

D. Insufficient blood reaching the leg muscles.

Q. NO. 94 Which medical condition will develop from severe blood loss? 1

A. Shock.

B. Hypoglycaemia.

C. Anaphylaxis.

D. Hypothermia

Q. NO. 95 What is a faint? 1

A. A response to fear.

B. An unexpected collapse.

C. A brief loss of consciousness.

D. A sign of flu.

Q. NO. 96 Which physical construction is generally usuallynot connected with airway route 1
obstruction
a. Teeth
b. Nose
c. Epiglottis
d. Tongue

Q. NO. 97  What receptor does atropine block in the body? 1

a. Acetylcholine

b. GABA

c. Glycine

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 d. Glutamate

Q. NO. 98 What is the purpose of your initial check of the injured athlete? 1
A. To check for minor injuries
B. To ask for information about injury
C. To check for life threatening injuries
D. To obtain consent for treatment
Q. NO. 99 You can safely manage the airway in a patient with suspected cervical spine injury by 1
using:

A. Chin lift
B. Head tilt
C. Jaw thrust
D. None of the above

Q. NO. 100 which of these conditions warrant calling EMS personnel? 1

A. Suspected fracture
B. Injury to the head of spine
C. Possible abdominal injury
D. All of the above

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