CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION

DECEMBER 2022 FINAL COACHING

Prepared by: Prof. Karl Luis Baguhin

a. Complainant
1. What is an art which deals with the identity and b. Hostile witness
location of the offender and provide evidence of his guilt c. Ready witness
in criminal proceeding? d. Demented person
a. Criminal investigation
b. Custodial investigation 9. These type of subject are person who are
c. Preliminary investigation reluctant to become witnesses and particularly true among
d. Undercover investigation uneducated person.
a. Know nothing type
2. The person who is in charged in carrying the task b. Timid witness- shy type
to accomplished the three-aim fold of investigation? c. Boasting type-
a. Prober/investigator d. Drunken type
b. Investigation
c. Criminal acquaintances 10. A case investigated by police investigator is
d. Judge considered solved, except
a. Suspect is identified
3. Which of the following is not the function of b. Suspect is apprehended
criminal investigation? c. Evidence are gathered for successful prosecution
a. Identify, locate and arrest the persons who of the accused
commits crime d. The suspect has fled
b. Prosecute criminal/prosecutor
c. Identify, collect and preserve evidence
d. Bring offender to justice 11. RA 7438 defines immediate members of the
family are as follows except
4. He is once a hireling, brothel operator, buckle
maker and a master criminal, who became london’ most a. Spuse, fiancé/fiancée , parents, child, brother,
effective criminal investigator for pioneering the logic of sister
Employing a thief to catch a thief. b. Grandparents/grandson/daughter, great grand
a. Henry fielding daughter/grandson
b. Jonathan wild c. Uncle, aunt, guardian
c. Eugene francois vidocq d. Friend, countrymen, lovers and paramour
d. Sir Robert peel 12. Assisting lawyer to the subject must be
a. Lawyer from PAO
5. The first law enforcement agency with statewide b. Competent lawyer of the suspect choice
investigate authority, the forerunner of FBI c. Choice of investigation
a. Los angeles police department d. Choice of his parents
b. Texas ranger
c. New York police department 13. It is what induces the criminal to act and not
d. Bow street runner necessary to be shown in order to obtain conviction
a. Intent
6. It is an institution that trains uniformed personnel b. Motive
of the PNP to become a certified investigator c. Desire
a. NFSTI d. Opportunity
b. PPSC
c. NCR training center 14. Custodial investigation shall include the practice
d. National police training center of issuing an invitation to a person who is investigated in
connection with the offense he is committed. Hence, the
7. The forceful and intelligent questioning of one investigator must inform the suspect of his constitutional
who is reluctant to divulge information rights to
a. Interview/simple questioning a. Remain silent
b. Interrogation b. Counsel of his own choice
c. Information c. Right to bail
d. Persuasion d. All of these except letter c

8. Who among the following is a target or subject of

police interrogation?

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15. As a rule, it would not be sufficient for police 22. One of the major tasked of this department is the
officers just to recire section 12, art, 3 of the constitution. qualitative and quantitative analysis of unknown
He also be duty bound to___ substance.
a. Communicate what the person under a. Crime scene
interrogation may or may not do b. Crime laboratory
b. Tell the person of the rights to which he is c. Clandestine laboratory-drugs
detained d. Instrumentation-application of various sciences
c. Explain the effect of some rights in
practical terms 23. Ordinarily , the identity of the criminal could be
d. None of them discovered in one or more of the following circumstances,
except
16. A promise of hope, reward, favor and use of force a. Confession and admission
or intimidation, threats or fear and other analogous acts b. Eyewitness testimony
make confession or admission therefore.. c. Surveillance and undercover assignment
a. Voluntary-admissible in court d. Circumstantial evidence
b. Involuntary-inadmissible in court
c. Involuntary-not admissible in court 24. One of the motives of an informant in providing
d. Voluntary-not admissible in court the investigator necessary information solely for material
gain he is to receive
17. Mr. JOJO went to the police station and a. Vanity
confessed to PO1 JUWIL that he killed a certain man and b. Civic mindedness=concern citizen
that the murder weapon that he used is in their house in c. Repentance
Bulacan. Juan even offer to escort the police going to their d. Remuneration
house to seize the deadly weapon in his house to which
the Police officer acceded. During such extra judicial 25. Types of informant that reveals information
confession no counsel was present. Will the confession be usually of no consequence or stuff conducted out of thin
admissible in court? air.
A. Yes, because it is voluntary a. Mercenary informant=information for sale
B. Yes, because all are consented and no written b. Frightened informants
waiver executed c. False informants=leaks info
C. No, because it was given in the absence of d. Double-crosser informant=get more info than he
counsel gives
D. No, because there was no written waiver
executed 26. As a police investigator if you are dealing with a
double crosser informant, the best way to counter this is-
18. In the above scenario what principle of law will a. Reveal information about facts already
you apply as regards the extra-judicial confession? known
a. Exclusionary rule of evidence b. Use violence
b. Fruits of poisonous tree c. Give him false information that will lead to his
c. Double jeopardy capture
d. Relevancy rule d. Beg him to tell everything he knows

19. Circumstantial evidence may produce conviction 27. The method of identifying criminals, except
if the following requisites are present except a. Confession and admission
a. When there are more than one circumstances b. Accounts or testimonies of witnesses
b. When the facts from which the inference are c. Circumstantial/ associative evidence
derived are proven d. None of the above
c. When the quantum of substantiality of
evidence are proven 28. Golden rule in the crime scene investigation
d. When the combination of all circumstances is a. Never touch any object unless photograph
such as the produce a conviction beyond a reasonable b. Never touch any object unless analyzed
doubt. c. Never touch any object unless measured and
indicated in sketch
20. Lovely told that police that night when the body d. A and C is correct
of jona was found dead, she saw pedro running away from 29. A method of search typically used in outdoor
the house carrying a knife. What kind of evidence will the scene to cover large areas in which detailed examination
testimony of Jessica be is necessary
a. Direct evidence a. Strip
b. Indirect evidence b. Line
c. Associative evidence c. Cross method
d. Tracing evidence d. A and b are correct

21. What is the distinct pattern of how the crime was 30. It is the graphic representation of the crime scene
committed and established by a series of crimes under , which is a good supplementary evidence for photograph
more than one classification? a. Measurement
a. Associative evidence b. Sketch
b. Tracing evidence c. Map
c. Modus operandi d. Composite illustration
d. Confession

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31. what kind of sketch gives picture of the over all b. Identity, Rapport, Omnipresent, Narration, Inquiry,
crime scene, its environment consisting of roads and Conclusion
building? c. Identity, Recognition, Opening statement, Narration,
a. Sketch of details= emmdediate scene only Inquiry, Conclusion
b. Sketch of locality d. Identity, Rapport, Opening statement,
c. Sketch of neighborhood Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
d. Sketch of ground=nearest physical sorrounding
40. Which one is not a means of recording crime a
32. A sketching method that requires a protractor or scene?
some methods of measuring angles between two lines a. By photographs
a. Cross projection b. By sketches
b. Compass direction c. By notes
c. Baseline=single reference d. Surveying
d. Triangulation 41. The methodology involving the systematic
searching, handling, distribution and accountability of all
33. In marking the specific evidence such as revolver evidence found at the crime scene, including the
it must marked on the documentation of every article of evidence from the point
a. Separately on the frame, butt, cylinder, barrel of initial discovery at the scene, to its collection and
and stock transport to the point of examination, its temporary
b. the chamber facing the firing pin as soon as it is storage and its final disposal is referred to us.
opened for examination a. Corpus delicti
c. Either A and B is correct b. Necropsy report
d. A and B is correct c. Blotter
d. Chain of custody
34. A reconstruction of the crime based on the
physical reconstruction, could be formulated in taking into 42. It refers to the general questioning of a person
account all available pieces of evidence conducted by the investigator.
a. Physical reconstruction A. Field Inquiry
b. Mental reconstruction B. Field Interview
c. Crime- reenactment C. Field Instrumentation
d. Structural reconstruction D. Field Interrogation

35. The scene of the crime operation 43. Which of the following is the primary source of
a. The statement is true evidence?
b. The statement is simply true A. victim =forgotten one
c. The statement is always true B. crime scene
d. The statement is wrong C. suspect=super star in cjs
D. all of these

36. It pertains to the proving of the identity of the 44. One of the elements of sketch wherein the
perpetrator of the crime charged, by demonstrating that graphical representation must indicate the ____ direction
the defendant had committed in the past other crimes for proper orientation of the scene.
sharing with present offense features significantly unique A. North
to make it likely that the same person or group of person B. West
committed the several crimes. C. East
a. Modus operandi D. South
b. Methods of operation
c. Modes of operation 45. Why does the dead body of the victim of violence
d. Corpus delicti needs to be photographed after its removal from the crime
scene?
37. After identifying, collecting, preserving a. To have a set of view showing the relationship of the
information gathered about the crime, the investigator body with the surrounding
shall such information to determine whether it can stand b. To identify the victim and have close-up picture
prosecution and trial of the wounds
a. Recognition c. To provide reserve picture in case of loss or damage
b. Collection d. All of the above
c. Preservation
d. Evaluation 46. What specific offence has been committed? Who
committed it? When it was committed? Where it was
38. Which of the following must be done to maintain committed? Why it was committed? And how it was
the legal integrity of evidence? committed? This are called____ of criminal investigation.
a. Evidenced must be properly documented a. Cardinal Points
b. Maintain its chain of custody b. Three I’s =
c. Identify, tag and seal the evidence=physical integrity c. Golden Rule =mac rule
d. Photographed and packaged the evidence d. Bridges burn =

39. The interview of a witness can be described by 47. IRONIC stands for:
the acronym IRONIC, which stands for: A. Inquiry, Recognition, Organization, Novelty, Identity,
a. Inquiry, Recognition, Organization, Novelty, Identity, Continuity
Continuity

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B. Identity, Rapport, Omnipresent, Narration, Inquiry, d. target
Conclusion
C. Identity, Recognition, Opening Statement, Narration, 56. In counterintelligence, surveillance is categorized
Inquiry, Conclusion according to intensity and sensitivity. When there is
D. Identity, Rapport, Opening Statement, intermittent observation varying in occasions, then this
Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion surveillance is called:
a. Loose
48. The purpose of interrogation is to: b. Discreet =patago
a. extract information from uncooperative witness C. open
B. extract confession or admission D. close
C. identify the other suspects in the crime
D. all of the above 57. Special agent PUROY is talling or following the
subject/s or vehicles in order to gather needed for the on
49. Which of the following is the primary role of the going operation, he is performing _____.
investigator upon arrival at the homicide scene? a. Surveillance =gather iformation
a. Verification of death b. Shadowing
b. Identification of the person who is responsible for the c. Casing =careful examination of place
death d. Investigation
c. Call a physician for the proper declaration of death
d. All of the above 58. During an intelligence, penetrating agent RULY
relayed a message to Police Corporal JUWIL that he has
50. Uses of physical evidence, except: been “burnt-out”, as an officer it means what?
a. Determine the cause of crime a. Agent ruly will go back to the station.
b. Reconstruct the crime b. The identity of agent ruly is discovered by the
c. Identify the participants suspect/s.
d. Confirm or discredit an alibi c. The operation is successful.
d. He was cornered and harmed by the suspect/
51. It is the product resulting from the collection,
evaluation, analysis, integration, and interpretation of all 59. Known as Napoleon’s eye, he conducted counter
available information which concerns one or more aspects intelligence against spies, who utilized deceit and
of criminal activity and which is immediately or potentially blackmail to gain information.
significant to police planning: a. Karl Schulmeister
a. Investigation b. Karl Sculmeister
b. Information=raw c. Carl Sculmeister
c. Data d. Karl Suhlmeister
d. Intelligence
60. He wrote the book entitled “Art of War” and the
52. What is referred to as the knowledge pertaining theories he set down around 490 BC remain remarkably
to capabilities, vulnerabilities and probable course of fresh and are required reading in the practice of
action of foreign nations? intelligence today. It basically postulated that “If you know
a. Combat intelligence the enemy and know yourself, you need not fear the result
b. National intelligence=national security of a hundred battles. If you know yourself but not the
c. Police intelligence =criminal activities enemy, for every victory gained you will also suffer defeat.
If you know neither the enemy and nor yourself, you will
d. Strategic intelligence succumb in every battle”.
a. Sun Tzu
53. Intelligence should be essential and pertinent to b. Isaias Alma Jose
the purpose at hand. This refers to the principle of _____. c. Alexander The Great
a. Continuity d. Robert Peel
b. Objective
c. Selection 61. Refers to the observations of person’s
d. Timeliness movements is generally refers to as?
a. Burn Out
54. P/LT JUWIL submitted an intelligence report b. Safe House
evaluated as B-5. What does that mean? c. Casing =place
a. Information is usually from a reliable source and d. Tailing or Shadowing
is possibly true.
b. Information is usually from a reliable source and 62. He is regarded as the Greatest Spymaster at all
is probably true. time:
c. Information is usually from a reliable a. Frederick the Great
source and is improbable. b. Akbar
d. Information is usually form a reliable source and c. Arthur Wellesley
is doubtfully true. d. Hannibal=disguised as a beggar

55. The term used for the object of surveillance is 63. During de-briefing, the supervisor is listening to
subject while the investigator conducting the surveillance the intelligence officer discussing his ____.
is: a. Interpretation with the news about a hostage taking.
a. Rabbit =subject b. Personal identification
b.Surveillant c. Observation and experiences while doing
c. decoy=elude surviellance intelligence work and its functions.

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d. Educational background b. The information comes from Unreliable sources and
probably true.
64. How will you evaluate the intelligence report of c. The information comes from Fairly Reliable sources and
Agent PUROY with an evaluation rating of D2? doubtfully true.
a. Completely reliable source – doubtfully true information d. The information comes from Unreliable sources
b. Unreliable source – probably true information and possibly true.
c. Fairly reliable source – possibly true information
d. Not Usually reliable source – probably true 73. Refers to the observations of person’s
information movements is generally refers to as?
a. Plant
65. What verse of the Holy Bible that includes the b. Stakeout =fix surviellance
biblical indication of the beginning of Intelligence? c. None
a. Number 13:17 d. Tailing or Shadowing
b. Number 3:17
c. Number 17:13 74. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to
d. Number 17:3 determine if the information is true and-
a. Reliable
66. refers to a place, building or enclosed area where b. Accurate
police undercover men meet for debriefing or reporting c. Correct
purposes. d. Probably true
a. Safe house
b. Log 75. This kind of intelligence is long range in nature:
c. Live Drop a. Line Intelligence
d. Decoy b. Operational Intelligence
67. In surveillance, the following are done to alter the c. Strategic Intelligence
appearance of the surveillance vehicle, EXCEPT: d. Counter Intelligence
a.Changing license plates of surveillance vehicle
b.Putting on and removing hats, coats and 76. A method of collecting information thru
sunglasses interception of telephone conversation.
c.Change of seating arrangement within the surveillance a. Bugging=using device
vehicle b. Wire Tapping
d.Keep the cars behind the subject car. c. Code name
68. The type of intelligence that is immediate in d. NONE
nature and necessary for more effective police planning. 77. Is the condition, situation, and circumstance the
a. Line Intelligence= short range enemy’s’ area of consideration that render the criminal
b. Strategic Intelligence=long term/range groups susceptible to damage, deception, or defeat by the
c. Police Intelligence police organization.
d. Departmental Intelligence a.Conclusion
b.Capabilities
69. It is considered as the most secured method of c. Vulnerabilities
disseminating the information to the user of classified d.Evaluation
matters is by means of:
a. Debriefing 78. What is the evaluation rating of Unreliable and
b. Conference Possibly true?
c. Cryptographic method a. -2
d. Seminar b. E-2
c. E-3
70. In intelligence functions, a black list means: d. C-3
a. Neutral
b. Unwanted 79. Phase of intelligence covering the activity
c. Friendly devoted in destroying the effectiveness of hostile foreign
d. Unfriendly activities and the protection of information against
espionage, subversion and sabotage.
71. It is claimed that 99% of information is obtained a. Passive Intelligence
from conspicuous sources and 1% of information is b. Counter Intelligence
obtained from clandestine sources. Clandestine means. c. Line Intelligence
a. Observable d. Demographic Intelligence
b. Overt
c. Visible =overt/open 80. In surveillance of vehicle your vehicle should be?
d. Covert a. Adjacent of the subject’s car
b. Near the Adjacent car
c. At the back of subject’s car
d. In front of the subjects

81. The used of an equipment of an equipment or

72. An E-3 intelligence report means: tool to listen and record discreetly conversation of other
person?
a. The information comes from completely reliable sources a. Wire tapping
and Improbable true. b. Bugging
c. Technical surveillance

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d. Eavesdropping =listening conversation of the others b. Casing
c. Shadowing
82. It is a type of Cover which alters the background d. Tailing
that will correspond to the operation.
a. Multiple 91. It is a process or method of obtaining
b. Artificial information from a captured enemy who is reluctant to
c. Natural divulge information.
d. Unusual a. Wiretapping
b. Elicitation
83. It refers to an associate of the subject who c. Bugging
follows him to detect surveillance. d. Tactical Interrogation
a. Convoy
b. Subject 92. Paid informants*
c. Decoy a. Anonymous informants=unknown
d. Surveillant b. Rival elimination informants
c. False informants=reveals info
84. The most dangerous type of undercover d. Mercenary informant
assignment wherein the agent will join the organization
of the subject and must know the ideologies of the group 93. .Phases of recruiting the informant where
and the action while still inside and should conform to the potential informants has tentatively identified as a
organization to avoid suspicion? “probable” must be as thorough as possible.*
a. Social assignment a. selection
b. Residential assignment b. investigation
c. Subversive assignment c. approach
d. Work assignment d. testing

85. Mossad is the National Intelligence Agency of 94. The New York Chief of Detectives who introduce
_________. the Modus Operandi system in the field of Criminal
a. Russia Investigation was:*
b. Israel a. Thomas Byrnes
c. Germany b. Sir Francis Galton
d. Pakistan c. Sir Richard Henry
d. Edmond locard
86. Intelligence cycle is very important in the
processing of information. A sea of information is useless 95. Herbert Yardley is an American Cryptologist
if they are not processed and analyzed, what will happen known for his book ______________________.
to the order of the intelligence cycle? a. American Black Chamber
I. Dissemination and use b. dark chamber
II. Processing of Information c. Black Chamber
III. Collecting of information d. Top Secret
IV. Planning of the collection effort
a. IV, II, III, I 96. .They are the investigative “short cut’ to solve
b. IV,I, II, III cases, to recover stolen property, and to make
c. IV,III,II,I apprehensions.*
d. IV,III,I,II a . surveillance
b. rabbit
87. Regarded as the person who first utilized c. hare
principle of intelligence? d. informants
a. Sun Tzu
b. Abraham 97. Type of shadowing where constant surveillance is
c. Mohammed necessary.*
d. Moses a. Loose tail
b. Rough shadowing
88. It is the transforming of coded message into c. Close tail
plain text. d. None of the foregoing
a. Coding 98. These are the most dangerous and difficult types
b. Decoding of informants, Most effective among informers because
c. Encrypting they could easily penetrate the ranks of criminals with less
d. Reclassify suspicion.*
a. Double Crosser
89. In selection and recruitment of informers the b. Frightened Informants
best factor to be consider is: c. Women
a. Age d. Mercenary
b. Education
c. Access 99. .Those agents who have reached the enemy
d. Body Built camp, gathered information, and are able to get back
without being caught and come back alive are called?*
90. A careful inspection of place to determine its a. Double agents
suitability for a particular operational purpose? a. Stake b. Agent in place
out c. Agent of influence=use authority

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d. Penetration agents 109. In handling clothing used as evidence, the
stained areas are usually encircled. What is the primary
100. Refers to the process of inspecting places to objective?
determine its suitability for operational use. In the military, a. To show points of interest
it is known as ______?* b. To have proper marking
a. Casing c. To avoid contamination
b. Tailing d. To prevent alterations
c. Reconnaissance
d. Penetration agents 110. If blood is in fluid condition, what is added to
preserve the specimen?
101. The saying goes: It needs a thief to catch another a. Formaldehyde
thief.* b. Saline solution
a .Provial Basis c. Alcohol
b. Stool pigeon d. Distilled water
c. Casual Informant
d. Criminal 111. Fingerprints may be found in the following areas,
Special Crime investigation except:
a. Dressers
102. This is the investigation of cases that are unique b. Ceiling
and often require special training to fully understand their c. Walls
broad significance. d. Closets
a. Criminal investigation
b. Homicide investigation 112. What is the liability of the offender who, on the
c. Special crime investigation occassion of the crime of robbery, killed his cohort while
d. All of the above trying to flee from the scene?
a. Robbery with Homicide
103. Special crime investigation is more concerned on: b. Robbery with Murder
a. Physical evidence c. Robbery and Homicide
b. Tracing evidence d. Robbery and Murder
c. Testimonial evidence
d. Associative evidence 113. The lifting or removal of a dead body from the
grave for the conduct of medical examination:
104. Object usually utilized in marking hard objects. a. Interment
a. Stylus b. Exhumation\disinterment
b. Pen c. Autopsy= c0mprehensive examination of dead body
c. Ink d. Inhumation\burial
d. Chalk
114. Considered by many as the Father of modern
105. Such articles and evidences which assists the forensic entomology.
investigator in locating the suspect. a. Bernard Greenberg
a. Physical evidence b. Hans Lipershey
b. Material evidence c. Herbert Mcdonell
c. Associative evidence d. Dr. Oscar Amoedo
d. Tracing evidence
114.Father of Forensic Medicine” he published “Questiones
106. Objects or substances which are essential part of Medico Legales” which dealt with the legal aspects of
the body of the crime. wound and the first two chapter dealt with the detection
a. Corpus delicti of secret homicide.
b. Physical evidences a. Ambroise paire
c. Material evidences b. Pope Gregory
d. Associative evidences c. justinian
d. Paulus Zachias
107. The primary consideration in transporting
evidences. 115.It is the use of medical science to elucidate legal
a. Markings should be placed problems in general without specific reference or
b. Proper turnover must be observed application to a particular case.
c. Avoid altering contents a. Medical Jursiprudence
d. Proper packing to protect the evidence b. Forensic medicine
while in transit c. none of these
d. Legal medicine
108. General rule in handling pieces of evidence
a. MAC rule 116. Invented by Burke wherein the assailant will
b. Right of way rule stand or kneel at the chest of the victim then cover the
c. Last clear chance rule nostrils.
d. None of the choices a. Mugging
b. Burking
c. garroting
d. over laying

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117. It is the interval between the termination of labor 126. A child who is a product of the promiscuity of a
(delivery) to the complete return of the reproductive organ prostitute.
its normal pregnant state-last from 6 to 8 weeks. a. Incestrous-anak ng mag ka mag anak
a. Gestational period
b. puerperium b. Sacreligious-anak ng pari
c. Labor c. Manceres-oldest proffession known to man
d. delivery d. nota

118. the v- shaped structure formed by the anion of 127. Their presence in the cadaver would indicate
labia majora posturing and vaginal orifice. death has occurred more than 24 hrs hence, useful to
a. Labia minora indicate approximate time of death.
b. Vulva a. Flies
c. fourchette b. bees
d. Defloration c. Butterflies
d. earthworms
119. What refers to external examination of a dead
body without incision being made, although blood and 128. Post-mortem change that is characterized by the
other body fluids may be collected for further examination discoloration of the body after death*
is conducted. a. Livor mortis
a. Autopsy b. Rigor mortis-stiffining of the body
b. excision c. Pallor mortis
c. Post mortem examination d. Algor mortis
d. nota
129. Effusion of blood into the tissue underneath the
120. It is an artificial way of preserving the body after skin due to the rupture of blood vessels as a result of the
death by injecting 6 to 8 quarts of antiseptic solutions of application of a blunt force.
formalin, per chloride of mercury or arsenic. a. Contusion
a. Inhumation b. Shock
b. Mummification-dehydration of dead body c. Hemorrhage
c. burial d. Hematoma
d. embalming
130. Wound produced to man-s instinctive reaction of
121. A vital reaction which is the pain on account of self-preservation to repel attacks or an aggressor.
the involvement of sensory nerve. a. Defense wound
a. Dolor b. Self-inflicted wound-sinasaktan ang sarili
b. Calor-heat c. Patterned wound -resemblance of instrument
c. Rubor-redness of the skin d. Mutilated wound -pinutol ang body parts

d. nota 131. A person who died of a communicable disease

must be buried with:
122. A kind of wound produced by a sharp edge a. 6 hours after death, unless the local health officer
instrument. It is longer as much as it is deeper. permits otherwise
a. Incised b. 12 hours after death, unless the health officer
b. Hematoma permits extension
c. lacerated c. 24 hours after death, unless the health officer permits
d. punctured extension
d. 48 hours after death, unless the health officer permits
123. What is the form of abrasion where several lines extension
of injuries which are parallel to one another?
a. Linear abrasion 132. A physical injury found at the site of the
b. Multilinear abrasion application of force.
c. confluent abrasion-severe a. Extensive injury
d. multiple abrasion-found in different part of body b. Coup injury
c. Contre coup injury
124. It is an extravasation of blood in a newly formed d. Coup and contre coup injury
cavity secondary to trauma characterized by swelling,
discoloration of tissues swelling and effusion pf blood 133. In this test, a ligature is applied around the base
underneath the tissues. of a finger with moderate tightness. In a living person
a. Hematoma there appears a bloodless zone at the site of the
b. contusion application of the ligature. If such ligature is applied to the
c. Petechial hemorrhage finger of a dead man, there is no such change in color.
d. lacerated wound a. Diaphanus Test
b. Icard,s Test
125. a gait resembling a duck. c. Magnus Test
a. Waddling gait d. None of these
b. Ataxic gait
c. Cerebellar 134. An injury, disease or the combination of both
d. Paretic gait injury and disease responsible for initiating the trend or
physiological disturbance, brief or prolonged, which
produce the fatal termination.

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a. Cause of Death b. composite
b. Manner of Death -how c. rouge gallery
c. Mechanism of Death d. police line up
d. None of These
143. essential elements of parricide is
135. Which of the following best describes corpus a. age
delicti: b. blood
a. the body of the victim in case of homicide or c. relationship
murder d. status
b. essential parts of the body of the crime or
the body of the crime itself 144. In general , how many hours that death does the
c. the recovered stolen properties in case of theft or blood essentially down permanently?
robbery a. 8 hours
d. any recovered weapon, either firearm or bladed b. 4 hours
weapon c. 6 hours
d. 2 hours
136. What type of reasoning is used in reconstruction
of the crime whereby the detective assumes a theory 145. In tropical countries like Philippines, the color of
based on collected information? post mortem lividity after death is _______. (June 2019
a. deduction Board Exam Question)
a. Blue
b. positive approach b. Red
c. logical reasoning c. Purple
d. inductive approach d. Dark red

137. This is the act of any person who, with intent to 146. In a case of dead person, when autopsy should
gain for himself or for another, shall buy, receive, possess, be performed?
keep, acquire, conceal, sell or dispose of, or shall buy and a. Death has been caused by violence
sell, or in any other manner deal in any article, item, object b. At once when there is the slightest reason to
or anything of value which he knows, or should be known suspect the probability of homicide.
to him, to have been derived from the proceeds of the c. Upon the request of the dead person’s family
crime of robbery or theft: d. In all cases involving death
a. fencing
147. Which of the following is NOT one of the
b. estafa -deceat examples of covert information
c. robbery a. Grapevine =under world criminal
d. theft b. Information
c. Informers =with pay/reward
138. In cases of suicide, what would be the noticeable d. Public Records
muscular change.
a. Cold stiffening 148. Is defined as a dispersion of blood spots of
b. Heat stiffening varying size created when a source of fluid blood is
c. Instantaneous rigor subjected to an external force.
d. Putrefaction-foul smelling a. Projected stain
139. A serious burn involving skin nerves, muscles and b. Passive stain
bones, considered as the most severe burn causing death c. transfer stain
due to loss of fluids and electrolytes in the body and d. blood spatter
massive infection.
a. Sunburn 149. Includes drops, flows and pools, and typically
b. 1st degree burn resulted from gravity acting on an injured body and
c. 2nd degree burn objects.
d. 3rd degree burn a. Projected stain
b. Passive stain
140. A person who is devoid of oxygen for around 3 to c. transfer stain
5 minutes would die, the case of death would be? d. blood spatter
a. Stupor 150. Refers to the spurt of blood released when a
b. Stroke major artery is severed.
c. Asphyxia a. Gun shot spatter
d. Exhaustion b. Arterial spray
c. Expirated spatter
141. Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the d. Cast off=due to swang movement
blood vessels or has diffused to different parts of the body.
a. Diffusion lividity 151. Is the stiffening of certain group of muscles
b. Clotting of the blood occurring at the moment of death, usually associated with
c. Rigor mortis violent death due to extreme nervous tension, or even
d. Hypostatic lividity fatigue.
a. Rigor Mortis
142. it is one of the oldest methods of suspect b. Cadaveric spasm
identification c. Cold stiffening
a. cartographic sketch d. heat stiffening

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152. When the gu c. Then the occupants of the vehicle are person of
nshot wound of the victim is located in the area of the interest
body that is relatively inaccessible to the victim, it is an d. The police has the authority to randomly conduct
indication of: search of motor vehicle as preventive and control method
a. natural death according to the PNP patrol plan 2030
b. homicidal death
c. Accidental death 159. Chain of custody is particularly important in what
d. Suicide category of evidence
a. Unique evidence
153. It is only at his instance where the first responder b. Made-unique evidence
is authorized to collect physical evidence himself: c. Non-unique evidence
a. If the evidence might otherwise be d. All of the choices
destroyed when not collected
b. The SOCO operative are not available 160. What should the investigator attitude upon the
c. In order to avoid contamination end of the interview?
d. To preserve evidence a. Leave the subject as if nothing happened
b. Thanks the subject for his cooperation
154. If both suspect and victim are still in the crime c. Stare at the subject from head to foot
scene upon arrival of the police officer, he must: d. Vacate the place of interview

a. Have somebody bring the victim to the 161. Accurate investigation help to insure that only
nearest hospital and arrest the suspect criminal is punished, and the innocent parties will not be
b. Interview both the victim and suspect while subjected to prosecution
waiting for reinforcement a. Protection of innocent
c. Bring both the suspect and the victim to the b. Community safety
nearest police station c. Deterrent to others
d. Secure the crime scene to avoid contamination d. Future deterrence of offenses

155. It is considered as a mute but eloquent 162. An informant who is considered the weakest link
manifestation of truth and it ranks high in our hierarchy of in the criminal chain of the gang
trustworthy evidence and thus most reliable source of a. False informant=leaks info
information b. Double-crosser informant
a. Testimony of the witness c. Mercenary informant=paid informant
b. Physical evidence d. Frightened informant
c. Suspect confession
d. Complainant’s testimony 163. Offers of help, kindness and friendliness in the
conduct of interrogation that may win his cooperation
156. This locard’theory is summed up through the a. Sympathetic approach
phrase; there is something to be found: b. Kindness
a. Material of evidence c. Emotional appeal
b. Transfer of evidence=locard priciples d. Jolting=shout out
c. Rule of inclusiveness
d. Golden rule in evidence 164. It is a method of interrogation that the first
investigator appears to be rough, mean and dangerous
while the second intervene by stopping the former
157. It is an act by which sever pain or suffering, a. Mutt and jeff
whether physical or mental, is intentionally inflicted on a b. Trick and bluff
person for such purposes as obtaining from him/her or a c. Sweet and sour
third person information or a confession or by rape and d. A and C is correct
sexual abuse, including the insertion of foreign objects into
the sex organ or rectum or electrical application of the 165. It is a sign of deception
genitals a. Sweating and color change
a. Torture b. Dry mouth and breathing
b. Maltreatment c. Pulse and avoidance of eye contact
c. Oppression d. All of these
d. Abuse
166. Stage where the law enforcer focus on a
158. The deputy chief operation of San Juan municipal particular suspect who had been invited or taken into
police station, P/LT Karlo and his team conducted a custody or otherwise deprived of his/her freedom of action
checkpoint operation in one choke point of the where a process of interrogation is undertaken to illicit
municipality. What shall be the guidance of the team in the incriminating statement
event that an extensive search will be conducted? a. Criminal investigation
a. Extensive search is allowed only when b. Homicide investigation
there is probable cause which justifies a reasonable c. Inquest proceeding
belief of those at the checkpoint that either the d. Custodial investigation
motorist is a law offender or the contents of the
vehicle are or have been instruments of some 167. Which of the following is the most important duty
offense or obligation of police officer in conducting investigation
b. When there has been an evidence that the car is a. Preserve the crime scene
stolen b. Arrest

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c. Obtain evidence hospitalized for 30 days. For what crime can KARLA be
d. Identify the suspect charged of?
a. Serious physical injury
168. The desk officer upon recipt of the crime incident b. Attempted parricide
shall hava the following duties, except c. Mutilation
a. Inform his superior officer or duty officer d. Less serious physical injury
regarding the report
b. Record the date and time the report was made 177. The following are the primary jobs of an
c. Immediately respond to the crime scene investigator except
d. Made a synopsis of the incident a. To discover how it was committed
169. What is the area located adjacent to the crime b. To determine the guilt of the offender
scene where the briefing is to be conducted and also the c. To discover why the crime was committed
place where the evidence custodian receives the evidence d. To discover whether an offense has been
collected during crime scene investigation committed under the law
a. Crime scene
b. Command post 178. A person undergoing criminal investigation
c. Fixed post enjoys his three constitutional rights
d. Reception area a. The right to plead guilty and not guilty
b. The right to oppose whatever the accusation on
170. After the conduct of final survey by the team him
leader, to whom will the crime scene be turned over? c. The right to oppose whatever accusation on him
a. Chief of police base on his constitutional right
b. Investigator on case d. The right to remain silent, right to counsel
c. PCP commander and right to be informed of the nature of the
d. Owner of the place accusation

171. What is the final phase of crime scene 179. Presence of defense wound in the body of the
investigation victim who is found hanged is
a. Preliminary survey a. Accidental
b. Collection of evidence b. Homicidal
c. Documentation c. Suicidal
d. Release of the crime scene d. Both a and c

172. What is the purpose of conducting final survey of 180. The following are evidence to show that the
the crime scene gunshot wound is accidental, except
a. To turn over the scene to the chief of police a. There is no special area of the body involved
b. To check all evidence gathered from the b. Victim sustained more than one shot
crime scene c. Usually there is but one shot
c. To determine whether or not the processing has d. Testimony of the witnesses
been completed
d. To determine whether there is a need to request
for additional personnel 181. Which type of death by hanging is considered not
common?
173. Peter while under the influence of drugs threw a. Accidental
away the three days old son of his sister causing the death b. Homicidal
of the infant can be liable for what crime ? c. Suicidal
a. Homicide d. Both a and c
b. Murder
c. Parricide 182. A husband who killed his live-in partner and their
d. Infanticide daughter is liable for
a. 2 counts of parricide
174. Peter snatched the bag of a lady walking along b. 2 counts of homicide
Avenida rizal committed what crime c. Homicide and parricide
a. Theft d. Murder and parricide
b. Robbery
c. Estafa 183. The following are the means of committing
d. Malicious mischief robbery except
a. By intimidating the victim
175. A man who inserted his penis to the mouth or b. By using force upon things
anus of another person commits what crime? c. By employing violence against the victim
a. Rape d. By taking consideration of the value of the
b. Rape by sexual assault stolen item
c. Rape by sexual intercourse
d. Sexual harassment 184. A killing not caused by human being is death by
a. By means of intent
176. KARLA and KARLO are husband and wife. But b. Imprudence
KARLO had an illicit sexual relation with another woman. c. Negligence
One night while KARLO is deeply asleep. KARLA cut the d. Natural cause
genital organ of KARLO using a scissor causing him to be

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185. The stiffening of the muscle of the body because A. natural death
of chemical changes is ___mortis B. homicidal death
a. Algor C. Accidental death
b. Rigor D. Suicide
c. Cadaveric spasm
d. Livor 195. Vincent killed his adaptor after the rendition of
judgment of the petition for adoption. What was the crime
186. What is the characteristics science of personal committed by Vincent?
identification by dental characteristics? a. Parricide
a. Chemistry b. Murder
b. Forensic odontology c. Homicide
c. Dental medicine d. None of the above
d. None of these
196. It refers to the forcible expulsion of a fetus from
187. a form of death brought by the suspension of the the mother’s womb:
body by a ligature which encircles the neck and the a. Infanticide
constricting force is the weight of the body b. Abortion
a. asphyxia by suffocation c. Parricide
b. manual strangulation d. Murder
c. asphyxia by hanging
d. none of these 197. The penalty for Article 247 shall be?
a. Reclusion Perpetua
188. Which of the following items are to be gathered b. Reclusion temporal
as evidence in a crime scene of criminal abortion c. Death
a. Syringed and catheter d. Destierro
b. Prohibited drugs
c. Blood on the underwear 198. In what circumstances change murder to
d. All of these homicide?
a. Treachery
189. MAHAL is a despondent mother of PUROY due to b. Absence of qualifying circumstances
poverty, MAHAL has though of killing PUROY who is three c. Lack of intent
months old to save the baby from further suffering . what d. Taking advantage of superior strength
crime was committed?
a. Homicide 199. Which of the following is NOT a common element
b. Murder of robbery and theft?
c. Infanticide a. The personal property is taken with intent to gain.
d. None of these b. The offense can be committed by a band.
c. The personal property belongs to another.
190. it is possible to have a number of gunshot d. The unlawful taking of that property.
wounds entry less thatn the exit wound?
a. Maybe 200. Which of the following is the primary role of the
b. Impossible investigator upon arrival at the homicide scene?
c. Possible a. Verification of death
d. None of these b. Identification of the person who is responsible for
the death
191. Which comes last in the conduct criminal c. Call a physician for the proper declaration of
investigation death
a. Crime scene search and crime sketch d. All of the above
b. Removal of the victims body
c. Photograph, fingerprints left and other evidence 201. What is the penalty to be imposed upon a parent
taken who inflicted less serious physical injury upon his young
d. Notes properly taken and witness identified daughter and her seducer after surprising the two in the
act of committing sexual intercourtse
192. In order to have successful interrogation, one of a. Arresto menor
the most important factors to consider is b. Arresto mayor
a. Subject emotion c. Destierro
b. Cooperation d. None
c. Knowledge of all facts
d. Privacy 202. Sign of struggle and defense are usually present
in
193. Which of the following is not among the rules to a. Violent killing
be observed in questioning b. Accidental killing
a. Simplicity of the question c. Suicide cases
b. Accept implied answer-avoid imply answer d. Reckless imprudence
c. One question at a time
d. Saving faces 203. How many hours will the ova eggs hatch to from
maggots?
194. When the gunshot wound of the victim is located a. Within 12 hours
in the area of the body that is relatively inaccessible to b. Within 24 hours
the victim, it is an indication of: c. More than 1 day

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d. 2 to 3 days a. By cut throat
b. By drowning
204. Which physical evidence is most likely to be found c. By gunshot
in robbery cases? d. By hanging
a. Fingerprints
b. DNA evidence 214. Pelvic bone of the victim are excellent indicator
c. Blood stains of the victim’s
d. photograph a. Race
b. Age
205. Determining the point of entrance is important in c. Sex
which type of investigation? d. Habit
a. Theft
b. Robbery case 215. This type of robber is motivated by greed the
c. Trespass to dwelling desire for a thrill and self-testing
d. Homicide investigation a. Amateurs
b. Professional
206. The following are the bridges that investigators c. Thrill seeker
should not cross, EXCEPT d. None of the above
a. The dead person has been autopsied
b. The dead person has been moved 216. What type of death occurs beyond the sway of
c. The body is burned or cremate one’s will and although it comes about through some act
d. The cadaver is embalmed of will, lies beyond the bounds of human forceable
consequences?
207. The cooling of the body after death called a. Accidental death
a. Livor mortis b. Suicidal death
b. Algor mortis c. Negligent death
c. Rigor mortis d. Reckless imprudence death
d. Post-mortem rigidity
217. Time element is material in which felony under
208. What injury is cause buy the penetration of a the RPC?
sharp pointed weapon like icepick? a. Infanticide
a. Incised wound b. Robbery
b. Abrasions c. Homicide
c. Stab wound d. Kidnapping
d. Puncture wound
218. Case investigated by the police is considered
209. It is the state of injury or death of the body solved if
whereby the ligature tightened around the neck by a. Suspect is arrested and evidence against him are
suspension of the body gathered
a. Hanging b. Suspect is charged with appropriate case
b. Suicide c. Suspect is identified
c. Strangulation d. All of the above
d. Asphyxia
219. The informal and summary inquiry conducted by
210. Y left the key of his house underneath a plant a public prosecutor in criminal cases involving persons
vase. He was seen by Z and later took it and opened Y’s arrested and detained without the benefit of warrant
house then took some of his personal belongings. What issued by the court for purposes of determining whether
crime did Z commit or not said persons should remain under custody and
a. Two different cases of theft correspondingly be charged in court is
b. Theft and robbery a. Preliminary examination
c. Robber only b. Preliminary investigation
d. Theft only c. Inquest proceeding
d. Criminal investigation
211. In accidental electrocution, presence of
____________________ can be found at the scene 220. What interrogation technique may be applied to
a. Electric post calm and nervous subjects by constantly observing their
b. Electric meter behavior and then the investigator chooses the right
c. Low voltage wire moment to shout a pertinent question?
d. High voltage wire a. Emotional appeal
b. Jolting
212. The perpetrator in kidnapping shall suffer the c. Sympathetic appeal
penalty of reclusion perpetual if d. Extenuation
a. The kidnapping or detention shall have lasted for
more than five days 221. Are all physical evidence found and collected at
b. Committed simulating public authority the crime scene to be transported to the crime laboratory?
c. The person kidnapped is a minor a. Yes because they were collected for examination
d. All of the above b. Yes because the investigator is not allowed to
take custody of evidence
213. What is the most common way to committing c. No only those which require further
suicide? laboratory examination will be transported

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d. No because the SOCO team has no authority to b. develops his contacts only with law abiding
bring the evidence to the crime laboratory if the citizens
investigator did not request c. restricts his efforts to member of the department
d. concentrate all his effort to acquire informants
222. Which among the following data concerning only from criminal types
photographs as evidence is least essential?
a. Date and hour when each photograph was taken 231. Which of the following are the questions in
b. Identification of the police photographer incidents involving assaults that CANNOT be answer by a
c. Proof of ownership of the camera medico legal?
d. Focal length of the lens a. How many are the victims?
b. What is the position of the victim when he was assaulted
223. What element of sketch is considered an essential c. Was there evidence of defense mark or struggle
elements of finished sketch representing the actual size or d. From what direction was the force applied coming from
measurement of the crime scene?
a. Scale and proportion 232. Gio and Mat, while having a drinking spree, had
b. Measurement an argument on who among them is more handsome.
c. Compass direction Mateo, in order to terminate the quarrel, stood up and
d. All of the above went home. Without Mat knowledge, Gio followed him to
his house. When Mat was already inside his house, Gio
224. Police corporal JUWIL went to the house of Mr. Y took it as an opportunity to kill him by burning his house
and asked the latter directly about his possible which he did successfully. What is the crime committed by
involvement in a robbery case that transpired a day ago. Gio?
This is already considered a. Murder only
a. Interrogation b. Arson with Homicide
b. Interview c. Arson and Murder
c. Custodial investigation d. Arson only
d. Follow-up investigation
233. This is characterized as having long-term
225. Following of a person to acquire information commitment to crime as a source of livelihood, planning
about the identity and activities of the subject is a and organizing crimes before committing them and
technique in investigation called pursuing money to support a particular lifestyle is called
a. casing a. opportunist robber
b. stakeout b. drug addict robber
c. shadowing c. alcoholic robber
d. roping d. professional robber

226. in taking the photograph of crime scene it should 234. There is no such crime as Robbery with
be from the general view to Attempted Rape, this statement is
a. major a. true
b. captain b. false
c. specific c. partially true
d. roping d. partially false

227. as a basic guide to investigator, he should look 235. A wound which is larger and more irregular in
upon the evidence as serving to established appearance; no abrasions ring; there is far more blood
a. method of operation of the perpetrator escapes an exit wound.
b. identification of the guilt of person a. Exit wound'
c. the corpus delicti b. Entrance wound
d. any of these c. Either A or B
d. lacerated wound
228. what is called of that threat of using illegal
physical methods to induce a suspect to make admission 236. You are a police officer responding to a crime
or confession which there is a dying person. You will obtain dying
a. forced declaration from him. Which of the following is not one of
b. third degree your duties in regard to dying declaration?
c. duress a. Observe the victim as to whether he is
d. all of these manifesting a feeling of his impending death
b. Observe carefully the mental condition of the
229. once the crime scene has been thoroughly victim and jot down immediately his statements
documented and location of evidence was noted the c. Attempt to save the life of the victim
collection process begins and will usually start with d. Avoid leading questions and produce the
a. point of exit statement.
b. large object
c. fragile evidence=mabilis masira 237. You are Criminologist-Police Commissioned
d. removal of the cadaver Officer who leads the execution of a valid search warrant.
Who must be present when a valid search warrant is
230. when people are considered as a source of conducted on a domicile?
information, the experience officer a. The house owner
a. recognize that all person from all walks of b. Any member of the house owner’s family
life represent potential investigate resources c. Two witnesses residing in the same community

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d. All of the above
245. How can plaster cast and photograph be marked
238. Which of the following is not one of the acts of for identification?
committing violation of domicile? a. Affixing a seal on the front
a. Searching domicile without witness b. No mark at all
b. Search warrants maliciously obtained and abuse c. Marking at the back
in the service of search warrant d. Tagging
c. Search of the domicile without warrant
d. Entering a dwelling against the will of the owner, 246. Which among the five human senses is
searching documents, papers and effects without the considered the most objective?
previous consent of the owner or refusing to leave having a. Hearing =
surreptitiously entered a dwelling when required by the b. Tasting=
owner c. Smelling =
d. Seeing
239. Senior Police Officer III Juvy and Police Officer II
Carlo arrested and detained Pedro Yen without warrant for 247. How can identification be made on a decomposed
the crime of theft. When brought to the inquest cadaver?
prosecutor, the latter issued release order for further a. study his bones
investigation. What crime if any do the duo commits? b. study his dentures
a. Arbitrary detention c. study his skull
b. Delaying release d. all of these
c. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the
proper judicial authorities 248. Rape by fraudulent machinations under RA 8353
d. Illegal detention can be committed either among the choices except one.
a. Promise to marry
240. Any person who killed his father, mother or child, b. Prostitute who has not been paid as agreed
whether legitimate or illegitimate, or any of his c. Person in authority who arrest another and
ascendants, or his spouse, is guilty of what crime? having sex with the latter with the promise of release from
a. Homicide custody
b. Parricide d. Sexual intercourse while the victim is
c. Murder unconscious or otherwise deprive of reason
d. Any of the choices
249. Rights that can be waived except one.
241. A and B are husband and wife, while working as a. Right to be informed of the provisions a of
security guard of Landbank, A felt sick one night and RA 7438
decided to go home around midnight and saw B having b. Right to remain silent
sexual intercourse with a neighbor C. A grabbed C and c. Right to counsel
hacked the latter to death. As Criminologist-Investigator d. Right to be visited
what crime if any would you charged against A?
a. Homicide 250. The essence of this crime is the taking and
b. Parricide transporting of a person against his will from one place to
c. Murder another.
d. None because A is exempted from criminal a. Kidnapping
liability b. Abduction
c. Illegal detention
d. Coercion
242. In attempted or frustrated homicide, the offender
must have tthe intent to kill the victim. If there is no intent Traffic management and accident investigation
to kill the offender is liable for- 251. What is the combination of verbal warning and
a. Physical injury citations called?
b. Serious physical injury a. Traffic consultation
c. Homicide b. Citation warnings
d. Consummated physical injury c. Written warnings
d. Traffic rules implementation
243. Under RA 8294 the use of unlicensed firearm in
the commission of a crime is not considered as a separate 252. The narrow portion of the roadway due to traffic
crime but shall be appreciated as a congestions or where “build up” usually occurs is called:
a. Mere alternative circumstance a. Gridlock =no possible movement
b. Qualifying circumstance b. Traffic jam
c. Mere aggravating circumstance c. Congestion
d. Generic aggravating circumstance d. Bottleneck

244. X a male, takes Y another male, to a motel and 253. Republic Act 8750 is:
there, through threat and intimidation succeeds in a. Clean Air Act
inserting his penis into the anus of Y. What crime, if any b. Seatbelt Law
does X commit? c. Philippine Land Transportation Code
a. Sexual assault d. Anti-Carnapping Law
b. Acts of lasciviousness
c. Rape
d. None

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254. If the driver is involved in a traffic accident, he 263. it refers to dangerous conduct and attitude,
must report to the nearest police station: which indicates lack of concern for injurious consequences
a. Within 48 hours likely to result from such a behavior
b. After 3 hours a. drunk driving
c. Within 72 hours b. reckless driving
d. At once c. reckless imprudence
d. reckless negligence
255. Detection, apprehension and penalization of
traffic violators. 264. it is an enforcement action where in the violator
a. Traffic Engineering is commanded to appear in court but without detaining
b. Traffic Economy him
c. Traffic Enforcement a. traffic arrest
d. Traffic Ecology b. traffic citation
c. traffic warning
256. Maintenance and construction of roads, traffic d. dog watch
ways and other traffic facilities by the DPWH, City
Engineer’s Office, City or Municipal Council’s, etc. 265. are marks left on the roadway by tires, which are
a. Traffic Engineering not free to rotate? Usually brakes are applied strongly and
b. Traffic Enforcement the wheels locked
c. Traffic Education a. skid marks
d. Traffic Economy b. scuff marks
c. key event
257. What is the occurrence in a sequence of or a d. debris
chain of events which usually produce unintended injury,
death, or damage to property?
a. Calamity 266. a certain intersection, for several reason, has
b. Accident more traffic accidents than any other does in the area. The
c. Crime police unit assigned the area should
d. Assault a. park near the intersection, in plain view and wait
for violators
258. What enforcement action consists of taking a b. cruise all the assigned area but give extra
person into custody for purpose of holding or detaining attention the intersection
him to answer a charge of violation before a court? c. park near the intersection, more or less hidden
a. Traffic enforcement from view
b. Traffic patrol d. park your motorcycle at the center of intersection
c. Traffic investigation to caution to motorist
d. Traffic arrest
267. it is a traffic observation or stationary observation
259. it is an accident, which is always accompanied by in which the observer in which the observation in which
an unidentified road user who usually flees immediately the observer tries to attract attention by keeping in full
after the said collision view of traffic
a. motor vehicle traffic accident a. conspicuous
b. motor vehicle non-traffic accident b. visible
c. non-motor vehicle none traffic accident c. concealed
d. hit and run cases d. stationary=assign in specific location
260. it refers to the separation of traffic units in a
vehicular accident 268. the first accident touching between traffic units
a. final position involving in the collision
b. disengagement a. start of evasive action
c. hazards b. initial contact
d. stopping c. perception of hazards
d. injury
261. refers to seeing, feeling or hearing and
understanding an unsual or unexpected condition 269. this traffic warning is really form of safety
indicative of a sign the accident might takes place education by telling the violator that he has violated the
a. initial contact law and explain the hazards of such action.
b. perception of hazard a. Visual warning
c. starts of evasive action b. Verbal warning
d. maximum engagement c. Written warning
d. Traffic control
262. interviewing person involved in a traffic accident
what is the primary consideration to be taken by the police 270. what should the drivers do when an emergency
investigator vehicle approaches displaying legally authorized red light
a. listen to both sides and sounding a siren
b. conduct the interview jointly a. continue driving slowly without regard of the
c. conduct each interview separately emerging lane
d. listen only to all witness because they are not bias b. yield the right of way and wait for the
passage of the vehicle=give way(yield
c. pull aside and stop the car abruptly
d. disregard the red light and siren

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 279. What country first used traffic signs and
271. what method is used to determine whether a symbols?
driver is under the influence of alcoholic beverages or not? a. Germany
a. Walking thru straight line b. France
b. Field sobriety test c. America
c. Counting d. England
d. Balance
280. These include pedestrians, pedal cyclists, drivers
272. A driving privilege that allows the person to and passengers:
operate a motor vehicle for livelihood a. Road obstructions -nakaharang ka
a. Non-professional-private vehicle b. Road unit
b. Professional c. Traffic units
c. Sub-professional d. Road ways -part of traffic way entire width
d. Unprofessional
281. A safety device installed at the roadside to
273. Children who are prohibited to be seated in the protect vehicles, which run out of control form falling on
front seat of any running motor vehicle according to RA steep slopes or hitting fixed objects:
11229 a. Signal cycle
a. seven years old b. Guard rail
b. under 12 years old c. Cycle split
c. six years old and under d. Drainage
d. seven years old and under
282. While approaching an intersection, the green
274. traffic management agencies failure in uplifting traffic light is on, however, a police officer suddenly
the driving behavior with the concept of defensive driving proceed to the center and signals a motorist to stop. What
is a result of the following except should the motorist do?
a. management tolerance attitude A. Ignore the police officer and proceed with caution
b. drivers’s lack of concern B. Ignore the traffic light and come to a full stop
c. corruption with in the bureaucracy C. Ignore both the police officer and traffic light and cross
d. absence of pro-active approach the intersection
D. Ignore the police officer and stop only when second
275. when there are two motor vehicle approaching signal is made
the intersection almost at the same time, one is travelling
along the national road and the other is the secondary 283. A marked stretch of road or street, designated
road. Who has the right of way? solely for the purpose of passing or overtaking:
a. Vehicle on the secondary road-magbibigay a. Passing lane
b. Vehicle on the national road b. Shoulder
c. Vehicle on the right c. Pavement
d. Vehicle on the left d. Curb

276. Every motor vehicle and trailer shall, during the 284. These signs are intended to inform road users of
above-mentioned hours, also bear on each side in the rear special obligations, instructions or prohibitions which
a lamp showing a red light visible at least _____the rear motorists must comply:
of the vehicle and a lamp throwing a white light upon the a. Regulatory
number plate issued for such vehicle. b. Place identification
a. 100 meters c. Danger warning
b. 150 meters d. Bus and Jeepney stop
c. 200 meters
d. 50 meters 285. This refers to the authorized or unauthorized use
of the opposite lane of a two ways or separated road:
277. Person who is responsible for the holding of a. Counter flow
number of passenger, freights or cargo inside his public b. Overtaking
utility motor vehicle c. Passing through
a. Driver d. Swerving
b. Operator
c. Dispatcher 286. An elevated structure built for the safety of the
d. Conductor pedestrians in crossing busy highways:
a. Flyover
278. When there are two or more emergency vehicles b. Skyway -above street level
approaching the same intersection from different direction c. Underpass
creating a probability conflict on an officer directing traffic d. Overpass
at the intersection must give preference to one and cause
the others to yield the right of way. Which vehicle should 287. What is the modern procedure for coping with
generally be given least preference to proceed ahead? streets and highwaytraffic by improving road efficiency?
a. Ambulance a. Traffic engineering
b. Fire truck b. Traffic education
c. Police car c. Traffic management
d. Wrecker d. Traffic direction

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288. Over speeding can cause traffic accident and we a. Passenger
attribute the same to: b. Pedestrian
a. Unworthy vehicle c. Conductor
b. Human error d. Driver
c. Traffic error
d. Road deficiency 298. They are self-centered and not learned how to
be unselfish.
289. It shall mean any motor vehicle with a trailer a. Egotist
having no front axle and so attached that part of the trailer b. Over-emotional =lack of presence of mind
rest upon the motor vehicle. c. Thwarted =do absurd things
a. Articulated Vehicle d. Top Notch =self control
b. Vehicle
c. Motor Vehicle 299. These are incidents or instances of one moving
d. Trailers traffic unit or person striking violently against another.
a. Accident
290. He perfected the Macadamized road system in b. Collission
England: c. Gridlock=no possible movement
a. John road d. Traffic Congestions
b. John Palmer
c. John Mc Adam 300. The 10th or the last Commandment of traffic is
d. John Negroponte a. Keep right
b. The Philosophy of Pinoy Driver -8
291. The inter-link between municipalities and within c. Safety First
the city proper with a right of way of 15 meters. d. Observe Traffic Management Measures -7
a. Provincial Road
b. Barangay Road 301. It is the 1st Commandment of traffic.
c. Municipal Road a. Keep right
d. City Road b. The Philosophy of Pinoy Driver-6
c. Safety First
292. It is painted on the pavement and placed at d. Observe Traffic Management Measures
intersections and other places to provide pedestrians with
safety zone when crossing: 302. From the bottom, what is the arrangement of
a. Crosswalk color of the traffic light?
b. Lane a. red, yellow, green
c. Stop lines b. green, red, yellow
d. Center c. green, amber, red
d. red, green, yellow
293. On traffic enforcement, what do you call on the
act of bringing a motor vehicle as a consequence of traffic 303. Bonafide tourist and transients who are duly
law violation? licensed to operate motor vehicles in their respective
a. Confiscation countries may be allowed to operate motor vehicles
b. impounding during their stay but not beyond?
c. Encumbrance a. 12 months
d. Seizure b. 90 days
c. 60 days
294. What lane indicates your driving lane, which d. 3 years
prohibits you from crossing on it?
a. White dotted line 304. Wheel is believed to be originated in
b. Solid yellow a. Western Asia
c. Cross walk b. America
d. Center c. Africa
d. Europe
295. An occurrence in a sequence of events, which
usually produces unintended injury, death or property 305. Single white dotted line indicates the all of the
damage. following EXCEPT
a. traffic incidents a. on two-lane road, it separates traffic moving in the
b. traffic accidents opposite directions
c. traffic hazards b. on a one-way street, separates traffic moving in one
d. traffic events direction
c. absolutely no overtaking
296. What is the Protocol Plate number of a Chief d. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of
Justice? oncoming vehicle
a. 1 -pres.
b. 3 306. Single continuous line on a Four-lane indicates
c. 5 all of the following EXCEPT
d. 7 a. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of
oncoming possible
297. Is one who goes or travel on foot or in a b. when there are slow and fast lanes, NEVER overtake by
perambulator. He is bound to observe or obey rule the passing over the solid white line
existing traffic management and regulations for his safety.

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c. Lanes 1 and 4 (outer lanes) for slow moving vehicles. 314. When the applicant for student driver’s permit is
Vehicles on this lane should not be BELOW the minimum between 16-18 years old, the most important document
speed limit he should submit is________________.
d. Lanes 2 and 3 (inner lanes) are usually for faster moving a. Birth certificate
vehicles b. Voter’s I.D.
c. Passport
307. A double yellow or white line with a dotted line in d. Parent’s consent
between means all EXCEPT
a. overtaking is extremely dangerous 315. When approaching in an intersection where the
b. stay in your lane until you pass the end of the solid lines flashing yellow is on, the motorist
c. absolutely no overtaking should_________________.
d. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of a. Stop and proceed with caution
oncoming vehicle b. Slow down and proceed with caution
c. Reduce speed
308. It declared as part of the laws of the Philippines d. Give way to motor vehicles coming from the opposite
the Vienna Convention on Road Traffic, Signs and signals. direction
a. PD 101
b. PD 1686 316. What the chronological arrangement of the color
c. PD 612 of the traffic lights from the top?
d. PD 207 a. Yellow, red, green
b. Red, yellow, green
309. A number representing the resistance to sliding c. Green, red, yellow
of two surfaces in contract is known as: d. Green, yellow, red
a. coefficient of friction
b. traffic jam 317. The privilege of immediate use of roadway in
c. attribute preference to another vehicle or pedestrian.
d. contract damage a. Immunity
b. Right of way
310. When two vehicles approach an intersection at c. Leniency
approximately the same time, which shall have the right d. Giving way
of way?
a. The vehicle coming from the right 318. in the examination of the scene of accident,
b. The vehicle coming from the center which of the following evidence will show how the accident
c. The vehicle coming from the left happened
d. The one which arrives there first a. the driver under the influence of alcohol
b. hole on the road pavement
311. Every device which is self-propelled and every c. vehicle has break failure
vehicle which is propelled by electric power obtained from d. point of impact
overhead trolley wires, but not operated upon rails.
a. Skating 319. what is the general rule for the movement of
b. Bicycle vehicular traffic in the Philippines?
c. Tricycle a. Keep left
d. Motor vehicles b. Keep right
c. Keep good
312. Motor vehicle propelled by an internal d. Watch out
combustion engine shall be equipped with a ____ as said 320. What is the movement of person good and
motor vehicle passes through a street of any city, vehicles either powered by an animal or and animal drawn
municipality or thickly populated district or barrio. vehicle on by combustion system from one place to
a. wiper another
b. light a. Engineering
c. muffler b. Traffic
d. windshield c. Traffic management
d. Construction
313. A traffic police officer stationed the route of a
parade has been ordered by his superior to allow no cars 321. A systematic examination of all facts relating to
to cross the route. While the parade is in progress, an condition, action and physical features associated with
ambulance driver on an emergency run attempts to drive motor collision is called
his ambulance across the route while the parade is a. Hit and run investigation
passing. Under these circumstances the traffic police b. Traffic accident investigation
officer should c. Investigation
a. ask the driver to wait until the traffic police officer d. Traffic collision
contact his superior and obtains decisions
b. stop the parade long enough to permit the 322. A state or condition of severe road congestion
ambulance to cross the street arising when continuous queues of vehicles block an entire
c. hold up the ambulance in accordance with the superior's network of intersecting streets bringing traffic in all
order directions to a complete standstill.
d. direct the ambulance driver to the shortest detour which a. Accident
will add at least then minutes to run b. Collission
c. Gridlock
d. Traffic Congestions

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323. Lemon Law rights period refers to the period 331. serves as an main artery that centers on big
ending _______after the date of the original delivery of a volumes of vehicular traffic on national roadway.
brand new motor vehicle to a consumer or the a. expressway
______kilometers of operation after such delivery, b. subway
whichever comes first. c. major highway
a. 9 months , 15,000 d. feeder road
b. 10 months , 20,000
c. 11 months, 15,000 332. it is a wholly police responsibility and entails
d. 12 months, 20,000 looking for defest in the behavior of the motorists,
pedestrian, vehicles and roadway condition
324. The Lemon Law rights period, and after at a. apprehension
leasts____separate repair attempts by the same b. detection
manufacturer, distributor, authorized dealer or retailer for c. adjudication
the same complaint, and the nonconformity issue remains d. prosecution
unresolved, the consumer may invoke his or her rights
under this Act. 333. when the applicant for student drivers permit is
a. 3 times between 16-18 years old, the most important document
b. 4 times should submit is
c. 5 times a. birth certificate
d. 6 times b. passport
c. voters id
325. This is usually characterized by a motor vehicle d. parents consent
falling on the road side or cliff along mountainous roads
a. Non-collision on the road 334. what should drivers do when an emergency
b. Running off road vehicle approaches displaying legally authorized red light
c. Collision on the road and sounding a siren
d. Hazardous condition of the road a. continue driving slowly without regard of the
emerging vehicle
326. Refers to the entire width between boundary b. yield the right of way and wait for the
lines of every way or place of which any part is open to passage of the vehicle
use of the public for purposes of vehicular traffic as a c. pull aside and stop the car abruptly
matter of right or custom. d. disregard the redlight and siren
a. Traffic way
b. Roadway 335. what is the most important, in determining the
c. Skyway skidding distance of a motor vehicle
d. Expressway a. drivers driving attitude
b. tire material of the motor vehicle
c. slipperiness of the road surface
327. For foreigner applicants for Non-Professional d. speed of the motor vehicle
Driver’s License, he must be at least ______ years old.
a. 16 336. when a driver unloads passengers on the middle
b. 17 of the road, he committed
c. 18 a. illegal unloading
d. 20 b. traffic obstruction
c. illegal loading
328. Head lights shall be lighted ______________ and d. illegal stopping
whenever weather conditions so require, shall both be
lighted. 337. conveyance of person and goods from one place
a. not later than one-half hour after sunset to another is
and until at least one-half four before sunrise a. vehicle
b. not later than one hour after sunset and until at b. transportation
least one hour before sunrise c. traffic
c. not later than two hours after sunset and until at d. carrier
least two hours before sunrise
d. always 338. the following are characteristics of human errors
that cause traffic congestion, except
329. In signaling, what is being used to supplement a. lack of due diligence on the part of pedestrians
arm signals? b. lack of presence of uniformed traffic enforcers
a. Reflectorized jacket c. bad driving habits like slow drivers
b. Whistle d. poor legislative traffic regulation and
c. Horn=oldest warning device activities
d. Reflectorized gloves
339. which of the following is the objective of traffic
330. When a driver unloads passengers on the middle engineering to achieve efficient, free and rapid flow of
of the road, he committed: traffic
a. Illegal unloading a. so that the motorists and other road users can
b. Traffic obstruction avoid traffic accident
c. illegal stopping b. all of these
d. Illegal loading

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c. so that the motorists and other road users will proper authority as parking spaces for motor vehicles for
have enjoyable and convenient ride hire while waiting or soliciting business.
d. so that motorists and other road users can reach a. Car outlet
their destination safely and on time b. Garage
c. Parking
340. Early Warning Device must be d. All of the above
installed___________ to the front and at the rear of the
motor vehicle whenever the motorcycle is stationary for 348. JUWIL is a driver permitted by the government
any reason, or it is compelled to stop on an area where to operate a public utility jeepney. Which of the following
standing or parking is prohibited. driving privilege he must possess
a. At least at least 3 meters a. Non-professional license
b. At least at least 4 meters b. Professional license
c. At least at least 5 meters c. Sub-professional license
d. At least at least 6 meters d. Professional driver’s license

341. The general principle of traffic accident 349. What do you call a mark produced by a a vehicle
investigation is to traveling in an arc or curved direction
a. consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather a. Skid mark
than as causes KVB b. Scuff mark
b. consider violation as primary causes and any other c. Centrifugal force
factors as secondary causes d. Centrifugal skid
c. regard any unfavorable factor existing immediately prior
to the accident as a cause 350. As a rule, maximum speed limits are necessary
d. look for the "key event" that cause the accident for the use of our streets. The following are instances
when these maximum speed limits may not be observed
342. The combination of simultaneous and sequential except
factors without any one of which result could not have a. Drivers who are member of the PNP or the
occurred. AFP
a. Factor b. Any drivers bringing wounded or sick person for
b. Cause emergency treatment
c. Attribute c. The driver or his passengers who are in pursuit
d. Modifier. of a criminal
d. A physician or his driver when responding to
343. Whenever the load of any vehicle extends emergency call Fire protection and arson investigation
_____beyond the bed or body, there shall be displayed at ARSON
every projecting end of such load a red flag not less than 351. What is the measurement of the degree of
thirty centimeters both in length and width thermal agitation of molecules
a. More than two meter a. Ignition point-MINIMUM TEMPERATURE
b. More than one meter b. Flash point
c. More than two centimeter c. Temperature
d. More than one centimeter d. Boiling point-EQUAL TO THE ATMOSPHERIC
PRESSURE
344. The following are the three E’s of traffic
management, except 352. A metric unit measure of degree temperature is
a. Economy know as
b. Engineering a. Fahrenheit
c. Enforcement b. Celsius
d. Education c. B+U
e. Nota d. Calorie

345. One of the world’s first electric traffic lights was 353. Heat energy transmitted from the sun in the form
developed in 1912 in Utah, USA by _______a detective on of electromagnetic radiation is known as
the city police force. a. Electrical heat energy
a. Wester Lire b. Solar heat energy
b. Lester Wire c. Mechanical energy
c. Lester lire d. Chemical energy
d. Wester Wire
354. It is the minimum temperature to which the
346. The first state in U.S that put up the first substance in the air must be heated in order to iniate
automatic (three colored) lights combustion or cause self contained combustion without
a. Boston the addition of heat from outside sources
b. Massachusetts a. Boiling point
c. Philadelphia b. Kindling point
d. New York c. Fire point-LOWEST TEMP.TO SUPPORT
COMBUSTION
347. It is a building in which two or more motor d. Flash point
vehicles, either with or without drivers, are kept ready for
hire to the public, but shall not include street stands, public 355. Fire can leapfrog across wide mall and shopping
service stations, or other public places designated by the centers through electromagnetic waves. This heat transfer
is

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a. Conduction c. Class C
b. Convection d. Class D
c. Reaction
d. Radiation 365. The phase of the fire which occurs when air is not
properly introduced into the area involved where unburned
356. What is the material that easily yield oxygen in carbon particles and other flammable products of
quantities sufficient to stimulate or support combustion combustion are still available is known as
a. Smoke-PRODUCT OF INCOMPLETE a. Roll-over phase
COMBUSTION b. Flash over phase
b. Oxidizing material c. Hot smoldering phase
c. Fuel-REDUCING AGENT d. Back draft
d. Ember-BAGA
366. What is the enclosed space of passage that
357. Is the process of purification of a substance or a extend from floor to floor as well as from the bases to the
form. In liquid it is done by distillation or fractional (to top of the building
separate the component parts of a mixture e.g petrelum a. Vertical shaft
refineries b. Sprinkler system
a. Refining c. Standpipe
b. Smelting d. Flash point
c. Oxidizing
d. Distillation 367. A wall designed to prevent the spread of fire,
having a fire resistance rating of not less than four hopurs
358. A chemical reaction that occurs when any matter with sufficient structural stability to remain standing even
or substance combines with oxygen and undergoes a if construction on either side collapses under fire condition
physical change is known as a. Firewood
a. Dehydration b. Fire wall
b. Oxidation c. Post wall
c. Fission- d. Fire trap-lack or no fire exit
d. Charcoal
368. Which of the following is considered as the most
359. Under normal condition the composition of effective fixed installation for controlling fire which will
oxygen in air is about discharge water into incipient fire from heads located near
a. 12%-NO FIRE the ceiling?
b. 14%-FLASH POINT a. Fire hydrant
c. 21% b. Automatic water sprinkler
d. 26% c. Fire extinguisher-portable metal device to
extinguish fire
360. It is chemical property of fire which refers to the d. Standpipe
changes whereby energy is absorbed or is added before
the reaction takes place 369. Most arson cases are proved
a. Exothermic reaction-RELEASED HEAT by__________________ evidence rather than that direct
b. Endothermic reaction evidence.
c. Ectothermic reaction a. Circumstantial/indirect evidence
d. Mesothermic reaction
b. Documentary
361. Any liquid fuel with specific gravity of less than c. Testimonial
one will? d. Physical
a. Float in water
b. Sink in water-MORETHAN ONE 370. To establish the prima facie evidence of arson,
c. Mix with water the total insurance carried on the building and/or goals is
d. Dissolve more than ________ of the value of such building and/or
goods at the time of the fire.
362. The weight of a vapor compared to the weight of a. 60%
an equal volume of air is known as b. 50%
a. Vapor density-LESS THAN ONE LIGHTER c. 80%
THAN THE AIR d. 90%
b. Vapor pressure-FORCE EXERTED BY THE
MOLECULES 371. When carbon monoxide is absent in the blood of
c. Specific gravity the dead body found in a burned structure, this will be a
d. Flammable range strong circumstantial evidence that the person:
a. Was dead when the fire began
363. Fired are classified by the b. Was killed by someone else during the blaze
a. Intensity of heat c. Was still alive before the fire
b. Size or are covered d. Died due to suffocation
c. Fuel burning
d. Length of the flame 372. A popular chemical element used by the arsonist
to hide the odor of flammable liquids.
364. A burning magnesium is classified is classified as a. Sulfides
a. Class A b. Nitrates
b. Class B c. Sulfur

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d. Ammonia d. combustion

373. It is used to include not only architects 382. Which of the following occur when a room is
responsible for the design and erection of a complete heated enough that flame sweep over the entire
building but also the various specialist engineers who may surface
be concerned with the structure, the electrical installation, a. oxidation
the heating ventilation system and so on. b. backdraft==sudden ignition of air
a. Building contractors c. flash over
b. Designers d. combustion
c. Office of building permits
d. Building planners 383. What type of ladder is best suited for
firefighting operation involving high-rise building?
374. It is a normally open device installed inside an air a. attic
duct system which automatically closes to b. aerial
restrict the passage of smoke or fire. c. extension
a. Jumper d. hook
b. Damper
c. Hose Box 384. The cause of the majority of the death is
d. Smelting a. infection
b. burns
375. It is any material or mixture consisting of a fuel c. shock
and oxidizer used to set off explosives. d. asphyxiation=
a. Cellulose Nitrate or Nitro Cellulose
b. Blasting Agent 385. The use of one or more electrical appliances
c. Combustible Fiber or devices which draw or consumes electrical current
d. Corrosive Liquid beyond the deigned capacity of the existing electrical
system.
376. It is a piece of metal or an electrical conductor a. self closing door
used to bypass a safety device in an electrical b. overloading
system. c. jumper
a. Jumper d. shocker
b. Damper
c. Hose Box 386. Which of the following best illustrate arson
d. Smelting a. simultaneous wiring
b. leaking of gas pipes
377. The amount of heat to produce a change of c. smoking and matches
phase is called____ d. spontaneous combustion
a. Latent heat
b. Specific Heat 387. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a hose
c. Absorbed heat they usually lean forward on the hose. What is the most
d. Heat likely reason for taking this position
a. the stream is projected farther
378. If the investigator did not found any trace of b. the firemen can see better where the stream strikes
incendiarism, which of the following will be the c. the surrounding air is cool making the firemen
assumption? comfortable
a. The fire was intentional=arson d. backward force is developed which must be
b. The fire was providential=natural cause counter acted
c. The fire was accidental
d. The fire was not accidental

379. System of interconnected pipe that supplies

water for fire suppression system in a particular 388. If the arson is only the means to killing the victim,
installation. the crime that you have to files is
a. Wet pipe a. murder with arson
b. Dry pipe b. murder
c. Stand pipe c. arson
d. Sprinkler= d. homicide and arson

380. Product of fire that is detected by gas 389. what is the most effective cooling agent for
chromatogram and ion spectrometer. firefighting operation
a. Flames a. CO2
b. Soot b. H20\water
c. Heat c. dry chemical
d. Fire gases d. CO

381. What is the act of removing or neutralizes a 390. Aside from reducing the temperature fire in the
fire hazard? flaming mode of combination may be extinguished by
a. distillation a. inhibition of chain reaction
b. abatement b. lack of oxygen
c. allotment c. any of the above

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d. removal of fuel c. Cryogenic Gas =coldness
d. Nota
391. Cooling is the best and practical way of extinguishing
a
a. class a 400. . It is a phenomena in which a combustible
b. class b materials generates or produces heat because of internal
c. class c chemical action (oxidation) and eventually ignites without
d. class d any exposure to external sources of fire, spark or abnormal
heat.
392. The term ___ is the manner in which fuel ignites, a. Pyrolysis=chemical decomposition of matter
flame develops and fire spread b. Combustion=pag apoy
a. fire technology c. Spontaneous Combustion
b. fire starter d. Fire
c. fire behavior
d. fire triangle 401. A flame when there is complete combustion of
fuel and has relatively high temperature. It does not
393. Highly flammable chemicals that are used to deposit soot because it is a product of complete
facilitate flame propagation. combustion
a. Accelerant a. Luminous Flame =incomplete combustion
b. Plant b. Non-Luminous Flame =complete
c. Trailer combustion
d. Nota c. Premixed Flame =
d. Diffusion Flame
394. This activity involves developing and defining
systematic course of actions that maybe performed in 402. It is the proportion of a roadway or public way
order to realize the objectives of fire protection: involves that should be kept open and unobstructed at all times
the process of establishing the SOP in case fire breaks out. for the expedient operation of firefighting units.
a. Pre fire planning a. Fire Lane
b. evaluation size up=on the spot b. Forcing
c. evacuation=transferring of people c. Fulminate
d. entry d. Hypergolic Fuel

395. Any action taken by the firefighters to remove 403. Extinguished a fire by excluding or depriving it
occupants/ persons from building/ hazards to a safety of oxygen is known as
place a. Smothering
a. Salvage=protection b. Quenching
b. Rescue c. Starring=removal of fuel
c. Evacuation d. Inhibiting
d. None of these
404. The technique used in clearing a building of
396. The activity of protecting the properties from smoke and with the use of smoke ejector is
preventable damage other than the fire. a. Smoke ejector
a. Salvage b. Forced ventilation
b. Rescue c. Cross ventilation
c. Evacuation d. Vertical ventilation
d. None of these
405. Composed of tiny solid particles.
397. A fatal condition that takes place when the fire a. Fire gases
resists extinguishment operations and become stronger b Smoke
and bigger instead. c. Flames
a. Thermal Balance d. Heat
b. Thermal imbalance
c. Backdraft 406. Means employed to pacify the fire.
d. Biteback a. Fire prevention
b. Fire control
398. Better known as dust explosion. This may c. Fire safety
happen when the metal post that is completely covered d. Fire suppression
with dust is going to be hit by lightning.
a. Flash fire 407. Rate of temperature of fire.
b. Flash a. Heat
c. Flashlight b. Magnitude
d. Flash amber c. Intensity
e. Nota d. Ignition point

399. a liquefied gas which exists in its container at 408. It is performed to assess the safety of an
temperature far below normal atmospheric installation from destructive fires.
temperature, usually slightly above its boiling point and a. Fire control
correspondingly low to moderate pressure. b. Fire prevention
a. Liquefied Gas c. Fire safety
b. Compressed Gas d. Fire inspection

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 B. b.ignition temperature
409. Government’s office mandated by RA 6975 to C. c.none of these
suppress destructive fires, implements the fire code and D. d.flash point
investigates all fires cases in the Philippines
a. BFP 418. What should the firefighter do what ventilating a
b. BJMP peaked roof?
c. PNP a.make opening at right angel to ridge pool
d. Bureau of Fire in the Phillippines b.make opening on ridge pole on windward side of the roof
c.dip off roof covering on lead side and cut
410. Product of combustion which combustible sheathing
materials and oxidizing agents react to heat. d.make opening on windward side of the roof peak
a. Fire
b. Smoke 419. Conduction is heat transfer through
c. Fire Gases a. electromagnetic waves
d. Flame b. air motion
c. smoke
411. The burnt pattern in woods indicating the d. solid materials
spontaneous and intensive burning has occurred.
a. Alligatoring 420. . What are the cross numbers between the
b. Discoloration beam and used in climbing the ladder called?
c. Collapse a. Hangar
d. Charring b. rungs
c. beams
d. braces

412. If the motive of fire is due to insanity, who 421. this phase of fire operation is equivalent to the
among the following is the probable perpetrator? reconnaissance phase of military operation
a. Jolted lover a. salvage
b. Rebel b. overhaul=complete and detailed check of
c. Terrorist structure or building
d. Pyromaniac c. protection of exposure
d. size-up
413. Which of the following will not cause the
investigator to hypothesize that the series of fires are not 422. the three sides of the fire triangle are:
performed by a serial arsonist? a. fuel heat and a reactor
a. There is a significant difference in modus b. heat oxygen and reactor
operandi in all series of fire c. fuel, heat and oxygen=
b. There is significant variations as to the time of the d. a reactor, oxygen and fuel
commission of arson
c. There is a significant similarity in manner of commission 423. heat can be derived from electrical energy by any
of offense of the following , except
d. Similar devices were used to propagate the fire a. arcing
b. short circuiting
414. If the investigator did not found any trace of c. friction
incendiarism, which of the following will be the d. overloading
assumption?
a. The fire was intentional 424. . It is an integrated system of underground or
b. The fire was accidental overhead piping connected to a source of extinguishing
c. The fire was providential-act of god or natural agent or medium, designed in accordance with fire
d. The fire was not accidental protection engineering standards to include, but not
limited to Automatic Fire Sprinkler System which when
415. Why water is prohibited to quench class D fires? actuated by its automatic detecting device suppresses fire
a. burning metals are too hot within the area protected even without human
b. water is not capable of extinguishing the fire intervention.
c. there is the danger of electrocution a. Automotive Service Station
d. explosion may occur b. Automatic Fire Suppression System (AFSS)
c. City/Municipal Fire Marshal (C/MFM)
416. Before attacking a fire in a closed building, it is d. None of the above
necessary to determine whether ventilating is necessary
and, if so, the method to ventilate. Which is of LEAST value 425. It is an assembly of equipment, such as oxygen
in making such decision? storage containers, pressure regulators,
a.observing density of smoke through windows safety devices, vaporizers, manifolds and interconnecting
b.observing the points at which smoke may be oozing out piping, for supplying a regulated flow of oxygen to a
from the building pipeline.
c.feeling walls and roofs for hot spots a. Brush
.d observing the color of the d flame b. Cellulose Nitrate/ Nitrocellulose
c. Blasting Agent
417. In a combustion process, which event comes d. Bulk Oxygen System
first?
A. a.fire point

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426. it refers to a thick, viscous, light, and stable assistance to a person in administering a dangerous drug
material that floats on almost any liquid, including water. to himself of herself unless administered by a duly licensed
This has the effect of excluding the oxygen during fire practitioner for purposes of medication
fighting operations. a. administer
a. Blanket b. deliver
b. Carbon dioxide c. dispense
c. Foam d. use-
d. Dry chemical
e. BCF-Halon 1211 435. It is any act of knowingly, planting, growing
raising or permitting the planting, growing or raising of any
427. AFFF means? plant which is the source of a dangerous drug
a. Aqueaous Film Forming Foam a. cultivation
b. Aqueaous filter Forming Foam b. manufacture
c. Aqeous Filter Foam Forming c. administration
d. Aqueaous Film Forming Formin d. trafficking

428. Chemical decomposition of matter through the 436. it is a facility used for the illegal manufacture of
action of heat. any dangerous drug and or controlled precursor and
a. Flash over essential chemical
b. Ignition a. Illegal drugs laboratory
c. Pyrolysis b. Clandestine laboratory
d. Combustion c. Shabu laboratory
d. Drug laboratory
429. it is the visible product of incomplete combustion,
usually a mixture of oxygen, nitrogen, carbon dioxide, 437. Generally, the drugs that produce a relaxing state
carbon monoxide, finely divided particles of soot and without impairment of high facilities or the inducement of
carbon and miscellaneous assortment of product released sleep are known as:
from the burning material a. barbiturates
a. vapor b. tranquilizers
b. steam c. stimulants - UPPERS
c. smoke d. narcotics
d. gas
438. What is the first natural stimulant discovered?
430. What is the safest practice to use if fire occurs in a. nicotine
a flow of liquefied petroleum gas storage tank and the flow b. caffeine
cannot be checked? c. ephedrine -ACTIVE SUBSTANCE
a. Use foam to put off the fire d. epinephrine-ADRENALINE

b. Use fog to extinguish the fire 439. The following are the elements in convicting a
c. Permit the fire to burn itself person for illegal possession of dangerous drugs, EXCEPT:
a. the accused is in possession of an item or object
d. Use sand to smother the flame which is identified to be a prohibited drug
b. such possession is not authorized by law
431. Those materials that yield oxygen or other c. the accused freely and consciously possessed the
oxidizing gases during the process of a chemical reaction. said drug
a. fuel =most important elements of fire d. he must be positive for drug use
b. oxygen
c. heat 440. According to the UNODC Report on Transnational
d. self-sustained chemical reaction =combustion Threat of Afghan Opium, the following are the primary
sources of funding for insurgent activities in Afghanistan,
432. A colorless, odorless gas and one of the EXCEPT:
composition of air which is approximately 21 % by volume. a. private foreign donations, including diversion and
a. Fuel fraud by legitimate charities
b. oxygen b. taxes levied on the population in areas under
c. heat control of influence
d. self-sustained chemical reaction c. “pure” criminality – trafficking in drugs, arms and
humans, among others; kidnapping for ransom and
433. In scientific terms, the fuel in a combustion extortion
reaction is known as? d. sympathetic governments
a. Reducing agent
b. oxidizing agent 441. This may allow legitimately imported controlled
c. temperature =thermal precursors and essential chemicals into the hands drug
d. none of these traffickers:
a. drug trafficking
DRUGS EDUCATION AND VICE CONTROL b. controlled delivery
c. chemical diversion
434. it is any act of introducing any dangerous drug d. both “b” and “c”
into the body of any person, with ot without his or her
knowledge, by injection, inhalation, injestion or other 442. The investigative technique which may be used
means or of committing any act of indespensible during interdiction drugs coming from other countries:

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a. casing a. Disqualification to exercise parental authority and
b. controlled delivery guardianship
c. undercover b. Disqualification to exercise the right to vote and
d. joint investigation be voted for
c. Disqualification to exercise the rights to dispose
443. This exists when the drug is under the dominion property
and control of the accused or when he has the right to d. Disqualification to the right to contract
exercise dominion and control over the place where it is marriage
found:
a. possession 451. This is the policy making and strategy-
b. constructive possession formulating body in the planning and formulation of
c. actual possession policies and programs on drug prevention and control:
d. animus possidendi -INTENT TO POSSESED a. PDEA
b. DDB
444. Whenever a group comprising of ____ persons is c. DOJ
found to be in possession of any dangerous drugs, they d. DILG
shall be punished with the maximum penalty imposable.
a. four 452. The following shall be subjected to undergo drug
b. three testing, except
c. five a. Officer and employees of private companies
d. two b. Applicant for firearms license
c. Applicant for driver license
445. What is the period of rehabilitation for first d. Applicants for voters id
offenders?
a. at least six months 453. The amount of drug that produces untoward
b. at least twelve months effect for symptoms of poisoning
c. six months a. Minimal dose=smallest amount
d. twelve months b. Toxic dose=
c. Abusive dose-= side effect
446. In case physical inventory was not conducted at d. Maximal dose
the place where the search warrant was is served, under
what instance the evidentiary value of the drug evidence 454. National campaign strategy against illegal drugs,
seized shall not be rendered void or invalid? focus of which is through law enforcement, prosecution
a. As long as the integrity and the evidentiary and judicial action
value of the seized items are properly preserved by a. Demand reduction
the apprehending officer/team b. Supply reduction
b. If there was proper coordination with the PDEA c. Inter-agency coordination
c. The operating officers were authorized by means d. International cooperation
of warrant or valid buy-bust operation
d. The drug evidence or paraphernalia were 455. When the organism is too accustomed with a
properly received and signed by the owner of the house certain chemical, it will no longer react to such particular
substance. The need for additional amount to achieve
447. The possession of any equipment, instrument or the desired effect is necessary.
paraphernalia fit or intended to be used for consuming, a. Addiction=powerless to quit
injecting or smoking dangerous drugs is a presumption b. Habituation
that: c. Tolerance
a. the person is drug pusher d. Abstinence.=biglaang pag hinto
b. that he is guilty of the charge
c. the person is a drug user 456. Marijuana has been one of the most abuse
d. that he just came out from rehabilitation hallucinogens in the Philippines and its control becomes
difficult according to some authorities due to the fact that:
448. Ocular inspection of the confiscated or seized a. It is easy to smoke it secretly
dangerous drugs must be done within _____ hours after b. It is sellable in the market
filing of appropriate charges. c. It is easy to cultivate
a. 60 -TRIAL OF DRUG CASES d. It is in demand
b. 48
c. 24 457. The Golden Triangle are the producers of opium
d. 72 in south East Asia are composed of which country?
a. Thailand, Burma, Laos
449. a drug syndicate is any organized group of ___ b. Thailand, Myanmar, Laos
or more person forming or joining together with the c. Peru, Colombia, Bolivia
intention of committing any offense enumerated by RA d. Afghanistan, Iran, India and Pakistan =golden crescent
9165
a. Three
b. Two 458. It is any immoral conduct or habit, the
c. Four indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness and
d. Five corruption of the minds and body.
a. Prostitution =oldest knone
450. The following are the accessory penalties for b. Gambling
violation of RA 9165 except c. Drug addiction

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d. Vice prostitution is both a crime and vice and should be
repressed and prohibited?
459. The head of the PDEA is known as the Director a. The School of Regulatory Control
General with a rank of ______________? b. The School of Prostitution Control
a. Secretary c. The School of Total Repression
b. Assistant Secretary d. The School of Total Control and Repression
c. Undersecretary
d. Senior Secretary a. Drugs that is commonly used by athletes having
the properties of increasing stamina and/or energy.
460. if a person devotes considerable time and effort a. Ecstasy
in obtaining the drug, thinking and discussing about it and b. Shabu
using it to meet his problems and to escape from reality, c. MDMA
he is _____________. d. Anabolic Steroid
a. socially dependent on drugs
b. mentally dependent on drugs 468. Kinds of drug that excite the central nervous
c. psychological dependent on drugs system, increasing alertness, decreasing fatigue and
d. physically dependent on drugs =withdrawal delaying sleep.
syndrome\cold turkey a. Narcotic
b. Hallucinogen
461. What are the symptoms of the use c. Shabu
amphetamines. (June 2019 Board Exam Question) d. Stimulant
a. Sensation of distorted time, space, sound, color
b. False perceptions of objects and experiences 469. Considered as the most powerful natural
c. Excitement, alertness and wakefulness stimulant.
d. Loss of appetite, anxiety and irritability a. Tetrahydrocannabinnol
b. Cocaine hydrochloride
462. Can a high school student be compelled to c. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
undergo drug test? (October 2015 Board Exam Question) d. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
a. Yes
b. it depends 470. Chinese Emperor who prohibited the trading of
c. maybe opium in China by the British Indies that lead to the Opium
d. no War of 1840.
a. Lao Tzu-taoism
463. Among the following, who was the German b. Sun Tzu
pharmacist who discovered the morphine drug? c. Yung Chen
a. Allan Heithfield d. Mao Zedong
b. Albert Hoffman
c. Freidrich Serturner 471. Known as the “Father of Medicine”. He prescribed
d. Alder Wright opium poppy juice in surgery which was cultivated by the
Summerrians during 7000 BC.
464. . The part of the body most affected to by heavy a. Hippocrates
drinking are: b. Morpreus -god of dreams
a. digestive system and nervous system c. Confucious
b. brain and veins of the body d. Socrates
c. the lungs and heart
d. None of the above 472. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made
secretly that makes it detection quite difficult. Various
465. DDB can issue subpoena Testificandum and techniques were made by its operator in concealing their
subpoena duces tecum relative to the conduct of activities.
investigation involving the violations of RA 9165. a. Hide –out operation
a. True b. Disguised operation
b. False c. Clandestine Operation
c. Partially True d. Confidential
d. Partially False
473. People feels EUPHORIA when taking drugs, which
466. is a citizen-based information collection program means:
designed to encourage the active participation of private a. states of exhaustion
citizens to report illegal drug activities in their b. states of sleepiness
communities. We need to establish trust, confidence and c. states of well being
maintain a mutually beneficial relationship between PDEA d. states of sadness
and the public for a unified effort combating the drug
menace in our country,” 474. The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug
a. Operation Neptune Sphere Testing according to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT.
b. Operation Private Eye a. Officers and Employee of public and private
c. Operation Green Gold offices.
d. Operation Double Barrel b. Applicant for firearms license and for permit to carry
firearms outside residence.
467. There are two schools of thoughts as regards c. Officers and Members of the Military, police and other
prostitution. What school of thoughts believes that law enforcement agencies.

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d. All persons charged before the prosecutor’s office with c. tolerance
a criminal offense having an imposable penalty of not less d. addiction
than six (6) years and one (1) days.
484. It is the chemical name for the designer drug,
475. Also known as Papaver Somniferum and ecstasy:
considered as the mother drugs of other narcotics a. Methylene-Dioxymethamphetamine
substance. b. Methamphetamine hydrochloride
a. Codeine c. Papaversomniferum
b. Heroin d. Cannabis sativa L
b.Morphine
c.Opium Poppy 485. What group of drugs are used medically as pain
killers ?
476. The Golden Triangle produces how many percent a. opiates
of opium in the world? b. track
a. 60% c. shabu
b. 70% d. coke-cocaine
c. 80%
d. 90% 486. The source of most analgesic narcotic is ___
a. all of these
477. Which of the following country in the Middle East b. morphine
is the biggest producer of cannabis sativa? c. heroine
a. Lebanon d. Opium
b. Iraq
c. Kuwait 487. Which law was repealed by the Comprehensive
d. Afghanistan Dangerous Drugs Act of 2022?
a. RA 6452
478. The major transshipment point for international b. RA 6425
drug traffickers in Europe and known to be the “Paradise c. RA 6542
of Drug Users” in this continent d. RA 6245
a. Portugal
b. Spain 488. it is a drug extracted from the leaves of coca that
c. Germany has the same effect as amphetamines :
d. Turkey a. Codeine-cough reliever
b. Opium
479. Principal source of all forms of cocaine c. Marijuana
a. South East Asia d. Cocaine
b. South America
c. Middle East 489. it is a pharmacological classification of drugs
d. South West Asia which has the function of stimulating the central nervous
system :
480. The Dangerous Drugs Board (DDB) is composed a. Depressants
of _____ members: b. Stimulants
a. Twelve c. Hallucinogens
b. Ten d. Narcotics
c. Seventeen
d. Fifteen 490. This pharmacological classification of drugs is
also called downers:
481. The ___ shall be the permanent consultants of a. Depressants
the DDB: b. Stimulants
a. Secretary of the DOJ and Director of the NBI c. Hallucinogens
b. Director of the NBI and Chief of PNP d. Narcotics
c. Secretary of DOH and Secretary of DOJ
d. Head of PDEA and Chief of the PNP 491. This pharmacological classification of drugs refers
to the group of drugs that are used medically to relieve
482. It is a place where any dangerous drug and/or pain:
controlled precursor and essential chemical is a. Depressants
administered, delivered, stored, for illegal purposes, b. Stimulants
distributed, sold or used in any form: c. Hallucinogens
a. House off ill-repute d. Narcotics
b. Discotheque
c. Drug club 492. This is more commonly referred to as “poor man’s
d. Drug den cocaine”:
a. Heroine
483. This refers to the onset of a predictable b. Shabu
constellation of signs and symptoms involving altered c. Marijuana
activity of the central nervous system after the abrupt d. Cocaine
discontinuation or rapid decrease in dosage of a drug and
is usually characterized by tremor or convulsion: 493. it is a process of withdrawing a person from an
a. withdrawal symptoms addictive substance , in a safe and effective manner , by
b. withdrawal

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the removal of the toxic or harmful effects of the addictive d. In self medication
substance:
a. Withdrawal 502. Which of the following does not carry a capital
b. Tolerance punishment
c. Detoxification a. Possession of 20 grams morphine
d. Intoxication b. Possession of 100 grams of marijuana
c. Possession of 15 grams MDMA
494. It is the recurrence of alcohol or drug dependent d. Possession of 60 grams of shabu
behavior in an individual who has previously achieved and
maintained abstinence for a significant time beyond the 503. Apprehending team having initial custody and
period of detoxification: control of dangerous drugs or controlled precursor of
a. Remission-decrease symptoms or sign chemical or plant sources of dangerous drugs or laboratory
b. Relapse equipment shall immediately after seizure, physical
c. Tolerance inventory and photograph the same in the presence of the
d. Withdrawal following except
a. To person from whom such items were
495. the ____ shall designate special courts from confiscated or his representative or counsel
among the existing RTC in each judicial region to b. A representative from the media
exclusively try and hear case involving violation of RA 9165 c. A representative fROM DOJ
a. DOJ d. Representative from NPS
b. DDB
c. SC 504. The PDEA is headed by a director general with
d. Sandiganbayan the rank of undersecretary assisted by two deputies and is
appointed by
496. A degree of intoxication when drunken person a. SILG
does not know the intoxicating strength of the beverage b. SOJ
he has taken is c. President
a. Intentional intoxication d. COA
b. Involuntary intoxication
c. Habitual intoxication 505. Exhibited when a user relies on a drug to achieve
d. Moderate intoxication a feeling of well- being it is also arises from the ability to
function normally
497. Is the term or name used when referring to all a. Addiction
kinds of prostitutes b. Habituation
a. Whore c. Psychological dependence
b. Call girl d. Physical dependence
c. Street walker
d. Factory girl-brottel house 506. It is the process of undergoing or producing
gradual chemical change which later becones sour in taste.
498. The prevention of drug addiction is primarily a It is the breakdown of complex molecules in organic
responsibility of what institution so as to prevent its components caused by the influence of yeast or other
members from being hook to addiction? substance
a. Church a. Distillation
b. Family-smallest unit in society b. Intoxication
c. Barangay c. Fermentation
d. School d. Adulteration

499. It is the willful act by any person of maliciously 507. This Japanese term means “waking”
and surreptitiously inserting, placing, adding or attaching a. Kakuzeizai
directly or indirectly, through any overt or covert act, of b. Kakuzei
any dangerous drug in the person, house, effect or in the c. Kakazei
immediate vicinity of an innocent individual for the d. Kakuzai
purpose of implicating, incriminating or imputing the
commission of any violation of RA 9165 508. He was the leader of the medellin cartel in
a. Incriminatory machination Columbia
b. Planting of evidence a. Pablo escobar
c. Instigation-absolutory cause b. Charles lucky Luciano
d. Entrapment-buybust operation c. Meyer lansky
d. Bugsy siegel
500. The term custodia legis means
a. Custody of the law enforcement 509. It is any substance that brings about physical,
b. Custody of the prosecutor psychological and behavioral changes in a person taking it
c. Custody of law a. Antibiotics
d. Custody of judge b. Medicines
c. Substance
501. When a person who is know as drug addict by his d. Drug
pwn volition ceased by taking ellegal drugs, he/she is
a. In abstinence 510. After mayor tikboy was convicted for being
b. Into wellness coddler and drug trafficker, he now comes to the sala of
c. In self healing

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RTC judge PUROY. Can the mayor avail the benefit of
probation 518. Hashish is 8 to 10 times stronger than the
a. No, drug traffickers like mayor TIKBOY is commercial trade marijuana, it is:
considered a predator and thus categorically a. Concentrated resin extracted from marijuana
disqualified from availing the benefits of probation b. Dried flower of marijuana
b. No, he cannot avail probation because the law is c. Fruiting top of the plant cannabis sativa
for minor offenders only d. Finest and high grade leaves of marijuana plant
c. Yes, the law covers all violators regardless of the
nature of violation as long as the penalty does not exceed 519. This drug is representative of a broad class of
6 years of imprisonment stimulants known as “pep pills”. It is usually prescribed to
d. Yes, if probation is viewed beneficial by the court reduce appetite and to relieve minor cases of mental
depression.
511. The chief investigator, P/CORPORAL JUWIL of a. Amphethamine
San Juan municipal police station failed to testify on drug b. Ecstasy
case she handled at the said station. Can he be held liable c. Methamphetamine
under the law d. Shabu
a. Yes, such failure is punishable by 12 years and 1
day to 20 years of imprisonment 520. Who shall handle the prosecution of drug related
b. Yes, if such failure was intentionally or cases?
negligently made and after due notice has been a. Public Attorney’s Office
accorded b. Ombudsman
c. No, unless the failure is done with malice c. National Prosecution Service
d. No, there is no rule that failure to testify is d. Special Prosecutor designated by the DOJ
criminal violation
521. Which of the following is not untrue?
512. Specific provision of the comprehensive a. The DDB shall have the custody of all dangerous drugs
dangerous drug act which provides for illegal sale of confiscated
dangerous drug b. The DDB cause the filing of the appropriate civil action
a. Art 2 sec 5 for violation of RA 9165 while the PDEA takes care to
b. Art 3 sec 5 criminal aspects
c. Art 4 sec 5 c. The DDB promulgates rules and regulations
d. Art 5 sec 5 related to drugs which are usually implemented by
PDEA
513. An analytical test using some tools or device d. The DDB is the implementing arm of the PDEA in the
design to validate or affirm the result of a preliminary or enforcement of the prohibitory provisions of RA 9165
screening test
a. Screening test 522. Drug trafficking, according to Comprehensive
b. Physical test Drug Act of 2002, except: (June 2018 BEQ)
c. Confirmatory test a. Cultivation, culture and delivery,
d. Chemical test b. Administration, dispensation, manufacture, sale and
trading,
514. Any person found guilty of use of dangerous c. Use, consumption, addiction and tolerance
drugs for the second time shall be punished with d. Transportation, distribution, importation, exportation
a. Imprisonment of 6 years and one day to 12 and possession
years
b. A fine of 50,00 to 200,000 pesos 523. Drug addicts when under the influence of drugs
c. Imprisonment of 6 months and one day to 6 are menace to the Community because they:
years a. Are violently insane
d. A fine of 100,000 to 500,000 b. Ruin their life/health
c. Flagrantly immoral
515. Transshipment point of all forms of heroin in the d. Feel no restraint in committing crimes
world.
a. Japan 524. Marijuana plant can easily be identified by:
b. Hongkong a. Its stalk that grows up to 12 feet
c. Philippines b. Its pungent scent when matured or fully grown.
d. Burma c. Its branches which occur at opposite points on the stalk
d. Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets whose
516. Cocaine is from South America; ivory white edges are serrated in shape
heroin is from;
a. The Golden Crescent 525. If cocaine is a stimulant, what is LSD?
b. The Golden Triangle a. solvent
c. Hongkong b. Narcotic
d. Silver Triangle c. hallucinogen
d. depressant
517. Ecstasy is essence; LSD is wedding bells;
mescaline is: 526. Which of the factors below is perceived to be the
a. Buttons major cause of initial drug abuse?
b. Dope a. poor environment
c. Brain eaters b. experimental thrill
d. Herbals c. domestic violence

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d. peer pressure c. cybercriminal
d. none of the above
527. Considered by the Assyrians as a “Sacred Tree”
planted by the Incas of Peru. It is considered as the world’s 535. this legislation is also known as the anti-money
Oldest cultivated plant which is the source of dangerous laundering act of 2001
drug. a. RA 9160
a. Papaver Somniferum b. RA 11479
b. Cannabis Sativa c. RA 10054
c. Coca Plant d. RA 8484
d. Ephedrine
536. Types of hacker which strive to operate in the
528. A degree of Intoxication wherein the mind is public’s best interest, rather than to create turmoil.
confused, behavior is irregular and the movement is _____hackers work doing penetration, hired to attempt to
uncontrolled. The speech is thick and in coordinated. The break into the company’s networks to find and report on
behavior is uncontrollable. security vulnerabilities. The security firms then help their
a. Slight Inebriation customers mitigate security issues before criminal hackers
b. Moderate Inebriation can exploit them.
c. Drunk a. white hacker=hired
d. Coma b. blue hacker
c. black hacker
529. How would you describe the structural design of d. gray hacker
Mexican cartels?
a. Highly structured 537. a crime in which an imposter obtains key pieces
b. fluid, diverse and flexible of personally identifiable information, such as Social
c. Politically oriented Security or driver’s license numbers, in order to
d. vast structural network impersonate someone else.
a. extortion
530. What is the landmark case wherein prohibiting b. identity theft
plea bargaining in drug cases was declared to be c. bank fraud
unconstitutional? d. carding
a.Salvador Estipona vs. Judge Lobrigo
b. Miranda vs. Arizona 538. it Involves gaining access illegally to a computer
c. People vs. Vera system or network and in some cases making
d.People vs. Medina unauthorized use of this access. Hacking is also the act by
531. Karla believes that she can’t live without drugs which other forms of cyber-crime (e.g.,fraud, terrorism)
because she believes that it is an integral part of life. are committed.
a. Situational users a. cyber stalking
b. Spree users b. phishing
c. Hard core addicts c. email bombing
d. Hippies d. unauthorized access

539. it is premeditated use of disruptive activities or

threat thereof, in cyber space with the intention to further
social ideological religious political or similar objectives or
532. It is the introduction of drugs into the deeper to intimidate any person in furtherance of such objectives.
layer of the skin and the mucous membrane. a. cyber crime
a. Suppositories b. cyber space
b. Topical c. cyber terrorism
c. Buccal d. cyber sex
d. Iontophoresis
540. according to CIDG this is the hot spot of cyber
533. He was the first appointed Director General of sex in the Philippines(2014) except
PDEA a. Angeles Pampanga
a. Jose Gutierrez b. san Fernando Pampanga
b. Dionisio R. Santiago c. las pinas
c. Anselmo Avenido d. davao
d. Fidel V. Ramos e. cavite

534. It is one of the obvious manifestations of marijuana 541. a portpolio of a person organization, entity,
use. company which is posted on the internet for accessibility
a. dropping eyelids worldwide
b. cotton mouth a. ICT
c. blood shot eye b. website
d. coughing c. address
d.ISP
introduction to cybercrime and environmental laws and
protection 542. The criminal follows the victim by sending emails,
534. it is also called as computer crime. and frequently entering the chat rooms that causes an
a. cyberspace intentional, substantial and unreasonable intrusion into the
b. cybercrime private life of the person.

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a. cracking c. JJ Maria Clara
b. hacking d. JJ Maria Giner
c. cyber stalking
d. worm 552. Is considered to be the world’s largest rainforest
with biggest biological diversity.
543. a type of viruses that spread itself to other a. Africa
computers without needing to be transferred as part of a b. Amazon
host c. Europe
a. computer virus d. Brazil
b. cyrus
c. worm 553. Those gases that can potentially or can
d. logic bomb reasonably be expected to induce global warming, which
includes carbon dioxide, methane, oxides of nitrogen,
544. it is an act of intrusion into a computer system chorofluorocarbons, and the like.
without the permission all the aspect of a website which a. Green Gases
can public can see: b. Greenhouse Gases
a. web defacement c. House gases
b. cyber stalking d. House green gases
c. internet gambling
d. all of these 554. Means the ecological community considered
together with non-living factors and its environment as a
545. these are example of cybercrimes as violation of unit.
E-commerce act of 2000 except a. Ecology
a. hacking b. Solar system
b. web defacement c. Ecosystem
c. internet pornography d. Environment
d. distributed denial of service attack
555. The words “economy” and “ecology” both came
546. it is a higher form of hacking in which the from the Greek word ______which means “home.
unauthorized access culminates with the process of a. Okios
defeating the security system for the purpose of acquiring b. Oikos
money or information and/ or availing free services c. Oikios
a. cracking d. Kioske
b. online auction fraud
c. malicious E-email sending 556. Which of the following courts can issue a cyber
d. web defacement warrant that are enforceable nationwide?
a. Quezon city
547. what is the result of cyber stalking b. Pasig
a. mental deficiency c. Cebu
b. mental capacity d. Ilo-ilo
c. metal distress e. Davao
d. mental mistress f. Cagayan de oro
g. All of this
548. a set of instruction secretly inserted into a
program that is designed to execute if a particular program 557. Validity of cybercrime warrant
is satisfied a. 10 days
a.logic b. 15 days
b. logic bomb c. 20 days
c. bomb d. 30 days
d. DDS
558. JOWEL posted a libelous message against
549. it is a computer program that can copy itself and PUROY mayor of ISLA puting bato may be hel liable for
infect a computer without permission or knowledge of the cyber crime . however, a netizen name MOSANG reacted
user to the libelous post on facebook by clicking heart reaction
a. computer virus may be held liable for the said act?
b. malware-damage a. yes, because RA 10175 punishing or abetting
c. ramsomware cybercrime
d. hardware b.yes. because his reaction is part of the original post
c. no, because RA 10175 does not punishing aiding
550. . this the reason of the vulnerability of computers or abetting
except d. no because there is another law punishing the said act
a. capacity to store data in a relatively small space
b. easy to access 559. if the commission of the cyber-sex involves
c. easy to gain lascivious exhibition of sexual organs or sexual activity of
d. loss of evidence a child, the offender may be prosecuted for child
pornography. How should the court appreciate the use of
551. The first Filipino to be convicted of cybercrime, the computer system in the said cyber-sex involving a
particularly hacking. child.
a. JJ Helterbrand a. it shall be mitigate
b. JJ Maria Osawa

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b. it shall be used as qualifying circumstance in the 566. Typically, they engage in hacking activities for the
offense pure enjoyment of finding gaps in computer systems, and
c. it shall be used as a justifying circumstance they might even let the owner know if any weak points are
d. it shall exempt the accused from the civil liability found. However, they don’t always take the most ethical
route when employing their hacking activities—they may
560. Karlo and karla were long time chat mate. One penetrate systems or networks without the owner’s
night , they agree to video-call each other using ligo-live . permission (even though they aren’t trying to cause any
while their conversation progress karlo mentioned his past harm)
sexual experiences which made karla aroused. Karla ask a. White hat hacker
Karlo if they could do some act like showing their private b. Black hat hacker
parts to each other. While showing his private parts to c. Gray hat hacker
Karlo he caught by his father while doing lascivious acts. d. Green hat hacker
Is there a crime of cyber sex?
a. no, RPC only punishes prostitution committed by a 567. The sending of an email to targets with a website
woman link for users to click on, which might either download
b. no, RA 10175 does not include private obscene malware onto the users’ digital devices or sends users to
shows between two private person a malicious website that is designed to steal users’
c. yes, RA 10175 expressly punishes those acts credentials.
d. yes, because it is immoral or wrong by nature a. Pharming.-creation of fake website
b. Phishing.
561. all but one are powers and duties of law c. Hacking
enforcement authorities where a search and seizure d. Cracking
warrant is properly issued 568. Refers to an electronic, magnetic, optical,
a. to secure a computer system or a computer data electrochemical, or other data processing or
storage medium communications device, or grouping of such devices,
b. to make and retain a copy of those computer data capable of performing logical, arithmetic, routing or
secured storage functions.
c. to procure all other kinds of evidence against the a. Technology
offender even beyond the authority of the warrant b. Computer
d. to render inaccessible or remove those computer data c. Electronics
in the access of computer d. Nota

562. May evidence procured without a valid warrant 569. What are the 3 R’s to conserve natural resources?
be admissible in evidence for any proceeding before any a. Reuse, Reduce, Recycle
court tribunal ? b. Reduce, Recycle, Reuse
a. yes, because the Philippines follow the silver platter c. Reuse, Recycle, Reduce
doctrine d.reduse reuse recycle
b. yes, because the law said so 570. Mr pugi purchased a secondhand motor vehicle,
c. no, the 1987 constitution disallows the after the purchase he decided to go on a Baguio road trip
admissibility of such evidence by virtue of the with his girlfriend Mocha Chino. While in the road of
exclusionary principle are incorporated by RA delikado his vehicle starts producing black smoke without
10175 his knowledge. Is MR. PUGI liable of any environmental
d. no, the provision of RA 10175 do not expressly indicate crime?
the exclusionary rule a. Yes
b. No
563. The acquisition of a domain name over the c. Maybe
internet in bad faith to profit, mislead, destroy reputation, d. Partially No
and deprive others from registering the same
a. cyber squatting 571. Angel throws her unsegregated garbage on a
b. computer related fraud damsite because her house is near on a damsite. Basedon
c. cybersex the Philippine Environmental Laws, what law did she
d. data interference violate?
a. Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999
564. Type of cyber hacker who breaks into computer b. Philippine Clean Water Act of 2004
systems with malicious or criminal intent. These individuals c. Ecological Solid Waste Management Act of 2000
can do serious harm to individuals and organizations alike d. Toxic Substance, Hazardous and Nuclear Waste Control
by stealing sensitive or personal data, compromising Act of 1990
entiere computer systems, or altering critical networks.
a. White hat hacker -hired 572. it is the study of the interactions between
b. Black hat hacker organisms and their environment.
c. Gray hat hacker a. environment
d. Green hat hack b. ecology
c. forestry
565. They are otherwise called as “just for fun” d. demography
hackers
a. White hat hacker 573. Considered as the father of environmental law
b. Gray hat hacker a. dave sive
c. Green hat hacker b. dave bint
d. Amateur hacker c. dave port
d. dave hill

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 583. Refers to the instruction, communication with,
574. No burial ground shall be located within ______ storing data in, retrieving data from, or otherwise making
from either side of a river or within 50 meters from any use of any resources of a computer system or
source of water supply. communication network.
a. 20 meters a. Access
b. 30 meters b. Access controls
c. 40 meters c. Illegal access-w/out right
d. 50 meters d. Nota

575. It is the unauthorized input, alteration, or 584. cybercrime facilitated by the Internet and digital
deletion of computer data or program or interference in technologies.
the functioning of a computer system, causing damage a. Cyber-dependent crime.
thereby with fraudulent intent. b. Cyber-enabled crimes.
a. Computer-related Forgery c. Cyber organized crime.
b. Computer-related Fraud d. Cyber organized criminals.
c. Computer-related Identity Theft
d. none of the above 585. A cybercrime that would not be possible without
the Internet and digital technologies.
576. SPAM is also known as? a. Cyber-dependent crime.
a. Cybersex b. Cyber-enabled crimes.
b. Unsolicited Commercial Communications c. Cyber organized crime.
c. Child Pornography d. Cyber organized criminals.
d. none of the above
586. The part of the World Wide Web, which is known
577. It is a published false statement that is damaging for its obscure and hidden websites that host illicit
to a person's reputation. activities, goods, and services, and can only be accessed
a. Hacking using specialized software.
b. Libel a. Deep web
c. Child Pornography b. Illicit web
d. Cybersex c. Underground web
d. Dark web
578. This republic act is also known as the toxic
substances and hazardous waste act. 587. These are series of numbers assigned by an
a. R.A. NO. 9147 internet service provider to an internet user when it
b. R.A. NO. 9003 connects to the internet
c. R.A. NO. 6969 a. IP address
d. R.A. NO. 9775 b. Email address
c. Facebook account
579. It is when committed intentionally, the d. CP number
interception without right is made. By technical means, of
non-public transmission of computer data to, from, or 588. this refers to any distinctive mark, characteristics
within a computer system. and/ or sound in clectronic form, representing the identity
a. Illegal Interception of a person and attached to or logically associated with the
b. Illegal Access electronic data message
c. Data Interference a. electronic key
d. System Interference b. electronic signature
c. originator
580. It is a serious hindering without right on the d. vibrator
functioning of a computer system by inputting,
transmitting, damaging, deleting, deteriorating, altering or 589. it is a computer program that can copy itself and
suppressing computer data. infect a computer without permission or knowledge of the
a. Illegal Interception user
b. Illegal Access a. a computer virus
c. Data Interference b. love bug
d. System Interference c. I love you virus
d. Trojan horse
581. Is the process of methodically examining
computer media for evidence. 590. an investigator who is criminology graduate has
a. Computer science no role in cybercrime investigation
b. Computer information a. the statement is absolutely wrong
c. Computer forensics b. the statement is partially wrong
d. All of the above c. the statement is absolutely true
d. the statement is partially true
582. Measures that establish privileges, determine
authorized access, and prevent unauthorized access. 591. It is the permanent destruction of indigenous
a. Access forests and wood lands
b. Access controls a. Afforestation
c. Illegal access b. Deforestation
d. Nota c. Forestation
d. Reforestation

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 a. FORMAT
592. Applications designed to traverse the World Wide b. TECHNIQUE
Web to achieve specific objectives. c. SKILL
a. Virus. d. NOTA
b. Worm. 602. THESE are words that help writers avoid
c. Whaling. awkward repetition of nouns. They are used in
d. Web crawlers. replacement of nouns.
a. Noun
593. Stand-alone malicious software that spreads b. Pronoun
without the need for user activity. c. Verb
a. Virus. d. adverb
b. Worm. 603. These are written reports about police
c. Whaling. incidents, investigations, arrests,
d. Web crawlers. identification of persons, and other
miscellaneous reports for routine
Technical English( Legal Forms and Investigative Report operations of police organization.
Writing) a. Technical reports
b. Summary reports
594. Is a type of writing where the author is writing
c. Internal business reports
about a particular subject that requires direction,
d. Operational reports
instruction or explanation.
604. These are reports that are furnished for
a. Technical Writing
the necessity of the solution of crime
b. Writing
accident, and other police administrative-
c. Legal Writing related problems,
d. Legal Form a. Technical reports
595. Verbosity should be avoided” meaning____ b. Summary reports
c. Internal business reports
a. Must be precise
d. Operational reports
b. Must be accurate
c. Direct to the point 605. These are reports that cover all the exact
d. Be courteous and exhaustive narration of facts. These
596. Reports that Are usually short messages with reports are classified as Initial or
natural casual use of language. Advance, progress or Follow-up, and
Final or Closing Reports.
a. Formal a. Spot report
b. Informal reports b. Basic report
c. Short or long reports c. Special report
d. Nota d. Formal report
597. Is a sworn statement prepared by someone who
wishes to file a legal complaint. It becomes the 606. These are reports that are mostly related
basis for the case, providing basic information with ordinary, miscellaneous incidents,
about the facts of the matter and outlining the usually in letter or memorandum form.
a. Spot report
nature of the case.
b. Basic report
a. Affidavit of undertaking c. Special report
b. Complaint affidavit d. Formal report
c. Affidavit of arrest
607. This is written by a police unit or office
d. Affidavit of loss
based from a directive or instruction from
598. Is detailed account of an event, situation, etc.,
higher police officers. This type of report
usually based on observation or inquiry. follows the memorandum format of
a. Story correspondence.
b. Narrative a. Spot report
c. Report b. Basic report
d. Report writing c. Special report
599. The report should be a true representation of the d. Formal report
facts to the best of the investigators ability
608. This is a verbal or written report done
a. Specific within twenty-four hours after an
b. Brevity important incident. This report is written
c. Clarity to inform an immediate chief or those in
d. Accuracy higher position of particular occurrences
600. This report can simply be an accomplishment in his command responsibility
report which may be analytical and may be a. Spot report
comparatively longer than spot report. b. Basic report
c. Special report
a. Spot report d. Formal report
b. Progress report
c. Final report 609. Using the notice on wanted person, this
report is about those persons who are by
d. Aftermath report
the police.
601. The word "Technical” comes from the Greek
a. Beat Inspection report
word 'techne' that means____ b. Arrest report

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 c. Wanted person report
d. Crime report

610. This is a written narration of facts

developed by the investigator in the
course of the follow-up investigation.
This is a report on subsequent details
which are very vital to the case but have
not been incorporated in the initial
report.
a. Progress report
b. Final report
c. Traffic accident report
d. Advance report

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