

CHINMAYA VIDYALAYA, B. S. CITY

(CBSE NEW GENERATION SCHOOL)
HALF YEARLY EXAM
(SESSION-2022-23)
CLASS-11 TIME–1 Hr.
SUBJECT-VALUE EDUCATION F.M.-50
DATE : 23/11/2022
 All questions are to be answered.
 Marks allocated to each question is written at its Right-Hand Side.

Read the questions carefully before answering.

1. MCQs (Each write answer will fetch you ‘One’ Mark): 05 Marks
a. Which part of our inner Instruments (अंत:करण) claims the doer-ship of what we do?
i. Our Body
ii. Our Mind
iii. Our Intellect
iv. Our Ahankaar
b. Which part of our inner Instruments (अंत:करण) responsible for Decision Making?
i. Our Body
ii. Our Mind
iii. Our Ahankaar
iv. Our Intellect
c. The Mind receives the “Sense Data” through our….. ?
i.कर्मेंद्रिय
ii.ज्ञानेंद्रिय
iii.बुद्धि
iv.None of the above
d. Which of the inner Instruments (अंत:करण), below, has higher potential to dominate over the other?
i. र्मन
ii. बुद्धि
e. Which of the following has true potential to give us real happiness in life?
i. Money
ii. Relationship
iii. Values
iv. Professional achievements
2. Explain the meaning of “Human Values”? 05 Marks
3. What are the benefits of practicing good Values in life? 10 Marks
4. Write the names of our Internal & External Instruments (Total 14 nos.)? 10 Marks
5. What are the differences between Organised & Unorganised Mind? 10 Marks
6. Write short notes on Three Great Power of our Mind. 10 Marks
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 
CHINMAYA VIDYALAYA, B.S. CITY
(CBSE NEW GENERATION SCHOOL)
HALF YEARLY EXAM
(SESSION-2022-23)
CLASS-11 TIME–3 Hrs
SUBJECT-CS/IP F.M.-70
DATE : 30/11/2022
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
 This question paper contains five sections, Section A to E.
 All questions are compulsory.
 Section A have 18 questions carrying 01 mark each.
 Section B has 07 Very Short Answer type questions carrying 02 marks each.
 Section C has 05 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each.
 Section D has 03 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each.
 Section E has 02 questions carrying 04 marks each.
 All programming questions are to be answered using Python Language only.

SECTION-A
1. Which of the following will come under flash memory?
a. Hard disk b. CDROM c. DVD d. Pen drive
2. One megabyte is equivalent to:
a. 210 bytes b. 220 bytes c. 230 bytes d.None of the above
3. SoC stands for
a. System on a chip b. system of a computer
c. State on chip d.None of the above
4. Consider m, n, p are the three integers, and if (m==n and n!=p), it means
a. 'm' and 'n' are equal b. 'n' and 'p' are equal
c. 'm' and 'p' are equal d. All are unequal
5. Which one of the following is a invalid Python if statement :
a. if a>=2 : b. if (a >= 2): c. if (a => 22): d. none of the above:
6. Suhani wants to make a fun program, if user enters any number a “Good” or “funny” message will
appear. She is confused that which is the most suitable control to be used to make such program.
Help her to choose correct option.
a. if b. if else c. if elif d. Nested if else
7. If the condition is …………. , the statements of if block will be executed otherwise the statements in
the ……….. block will be executed
a. false, true b. true, else c. both options are true d. Can’t say
8. Why do we need loops in programming?
a. For iterations. b. For traversals.
c. For avoiding repeated code. d. All are correct.
9. Which of the following is a valid for loop in Python?
a. for(i=0; i<n; i++) b. for i in range(0,5):
c. for i in range(0,5) d. for i in range(5)
10. Which of the following sequences would be generated in the given line of code?
range (5,0, -2)
a. 5 4 3 2 1 0 -1 b. 5 4 3 2 1 0
c. 5 3 1 d. None of the above
11. Study the following program:
 i=0
while i < 5:
print(i)
i += 1
if i == 3:
break
else:
print(0)
What will be the output of this statement?
a. 1 2 3 b. 0 1 2 3 c. 0 1 2 d. 3 2 1
12. What is the result of executing the following code?
number = 5
while number <= 5:
if number < 5:
number = number + 1
print(number)
a. The program will loop indefinitely
b. The value of number will be printed exactly 1 time
c. The while loop will never get executed
d. The value of number will be printed exactly 5 times
13. The ________ statement skips the rest of the loop statements and causes the next iteration of the
loop to take place.
a. break b. continue c. if else d. pass
14. What will be output of the following?
"Comp"=="c omp" or not (3==6 and 8==8.9)
a. True b. False c. 5 d. None of the above

15. Write the output of the following code :

a= "Welcome to \"my\" blog"
print(a)
a. Welcome to “my” blog b. Welcome to \”my\” blog
c. Error d. None of the above
16. Evaluate the following expressions
23 + 4 **2
9*3-8+6
7%2 + 7//2
67 + 3%3
12 % 4 + 6 + 4 // 3
a. 39 25 4 67 7 b. 39 25 4 67 8
c. 41 25 4 67 7 d. None of the above
17. Assertion (A): An infinite loop can be created with the help of a for loop.
Reason (R): This type of looping construct will never come to an end. It can be created by omitting
one or more parameters of the loop.
Based on the above assertion and reasoning, pick an appropriate statement from the options given
below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. A is true but R is false
c. A is false but R is true
d. Both A and R are false
18. Assertion (A): Comments are non-executable statements that enable the users to understand the
program logic.
 Reason (R): They are basically statements used to put remarks. The comments are used to explain
the code and to make it more informative for the users.
Based on the above assertion and reasoning, pick an appropriate statement from the options given
below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. A is true but R is false
c. A is false but R is true
d. Both A and R are false
SECTION-B
19. How many times the following loop gets executed?
a=0
while a<10:
a=a+1
if a==5:
break
print(a,end=” ”)
20. Find error in the following code(if any) and correct code by rewriting code and underline the correc
tion : ‐
x= int(“Enter value of x:”)
for in range [0,10]:
if x=y
print( x + y)
else:
print( x‐y)
21. Rewrite the following code in python after removing all syntax error(s). Underline each correction d
one in the code.
Num=int(rawinput("Number:"))
sum=0
for i in range(10,Num,3)
Sum+=1
if i%2=0:
print(i*2)
Else:
print(i*3 print Sum)
22. What are operators? What is their function? Give examples of some unary and binary operators.
23. What are keywords? Explain. List a few keywords available in Python.
24. Five statements about interpreters and compilers are given below. Study each statement and
determine which of them hold true for compiler or for an interpreter.
a. takes one statement at a time and executes it.
b. generates an error at the end of translation of the whole program
c. stops the translation process as soon as the first error is encountered.
d. slows speed of execution of program loops.
e. translates the entire program in one go
25. Distinguish between RAM and ROM.
SECTION-C
26. WAP to input three numbers from the user and display these numbers in descending order.
OR
Distinguish between break and continue and also write one program for each.
27. Rewrite the following program using for loop:
i=1
while(i<=5):
j=5
 while (j>=1):
print(j, end=' ')
j=j-1
print()
i=i+1
28. What are mutable and immutable types in Python? List both of them.
29. Differentiate between implicit and explicit type casting. Give an example for each.
30. What are the function of CPU in a computer system? What are its subunits? Explain briefly
SECTION-D
31. Write python code to print the series below
S =1+ (1*2) + (1*2*3) + ................ + (1*2*3*...n)
OR
S = x + x2/2! +x3 /3! + …………………. + xn /n!
32. Write a program to accept a number and check whether it is a perfect number or not.
(Perfect number is a positive number which is equal to the sum of its divisors like divisors of 6 are 1,
2, 3 and sum of divisors is also 6, so 6 is the perfect number.)
OR
Write a program that takes in a positive number and check whether the given number is palindrome
number.
Sample Input: 1771
Sample Output: Number is Palindrome
33. Write a Python program to construct the following pattern, using a nested for loop.
*
*
**
***
****
***
**
*
*
OR
Write a Python program to construct the following pattern, using a nested for loop.
1
123
12345
1234567
123456789

SECTION-E
34. Abhiraj wants to design a code in Python to check whether a positive integer entered from the
keyboard is a single digit integer, a double digit integer or a triple digit integer. In case, the integer
exceeds three digits. a message "The number contains more than 3 digits" will be displayed on the
screen. Moreover, a message "Incorrect input!" will be displayed, if the input integer is negative.
He is confused in writing some of the statements completely and so, he has left the places blank
marked with ?1?, ?2?, ?3? and ?4? that need to be filled with conditions/statements. The code is as
shown:
n=int(input("Enter a number:"))
if n>0:
if n>=0 and ?1?:
print(n, ": A single digit number")
elif ?2? and n<100:
 print(n, ":A double digit number")
elif n>=100 and ?3?:
print(n, ":A triple digit number")
else:
print(?4?)
else:
print("Incorrect input!!")
With reference to the above code, answer the following questions:
a. What will be the condition/statement in place of ?1?
b. What will be the condition/statement in place of ?2?
c. What will be the condition/statement in place of ?3?
d. What will be the condition/statement in place of ?4?
35. A number is said to be a Prime number if it has only two factors. Given is a code to generate the
Prime numbers from 1 to 100:
# A code to display all prime numbers from 1 to 100.
print("Prime numbers 1-100:")
for i in range(1, ...................): #statement 1
c=0
for j in range(1, ........................) #statement 2
if i % j ==0:
c=c+1
if c == .......................: #statement 3
print(.....................) #statement 4
print("Program Over!")
There are some places left blank to be filled with the values/expressions. Write appropriate
value/expression to be filled in the blank space of:
(i) Statement 1 (ii) Statement 2 (iii) Statement 3 (iv) Statement 4
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 
CHINMAYA VIDYALAYA, (B)S. CITY
(CBSE NEW GENERATION SCHOOL)
HALF YEARLY EXAM
(SESSION-2022-23)
CLASS-11 TIME–3 Hrs
SUBJECT-BIOLOGY F.M.-70
DATE : 30/11/2022
 All questions are to be answer

MCQ 1 X 16 = 16
1. Regeneration of damaged growing grass following grazing is largely due to
a) Intercalary meristem
b) Lateral meristem
c) Secondary meristem
d) Apical meristem
2. In a woody dicotyledonous tree, which of the following parts will mainly consist of primary tissues?
a) Shoot tips and root tips
b) Flowers, fruits and leaves
c) Root and stem
d) all of these
3. Cyclostomes are marine but migrates for spawning to fresh water find the example of Cyclostomes
(a) Pristis
(b)Lamprey
(c) Hippocampus
(d) Petrophyllum
4. In which animals possess notochord from head to tail
(a) Lancelet
(b) Salpa
(c) Balanoglossus
(d) Myxine
5. Maltose is made up of
(a) two α-D-glucose
(b) normal β-D-glucose
(c) α- and β-D-glucose
(d) fructose
6. Amino acids generally exist in the form of Z witter ions. This means they contain.
(a) Basic – NH2 group and acidic – COOH group
(b) The basic – NH3 group and acidic – COO– group
(c) Basic -NH2 and acidic – H+ group
(d) Basic – COO– group and acidic –
7. If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes which
of the following stages can you most conveniently look into:
(a) Prophase
(b) Anaphase
(c) Telophase
(d) Metaphase
8. Choose the correct sequence. A. Pachytene B. Zygotene C. Leptotene D. Diakinesis E. Diplotene
(a) C, B, A, D, E
(b) C, A, B, E, D
 (c) C, B, A, E, D
(d) D, B, C, E, A
9. The morphological nature of the edible part of a coconut is
(a) Cotyledon
(b) Perisperm
(c) Pericarp
(d) Endosperm
10. Veins of the leaves are useful for
(a) Mechanical support
(b) Transport of water and minerals
(c) Transport of organic nutrients
(d) All of the above
11. Pteridophytes differ from mosses in
(a) Independent gametophyte
(b) Dependent gametophyte
(c) Flagellate antherozoids
(d) Independent and dominant sporophyte
12. The defining characteristic of living beings is
(a) They reproduce
(b) They can digest their food
(c) They respond to external stimuli
(d) They regenerate

13. Assertion : Members of phaeophyceae vary in colour from olive green to various shades of brown
Reason : Phaeophyceae possess chlorophyll a, c, carotenoids and xanthophylls.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
14. Assertion: Deuteromycetes is known as fungi imperfecti.
Reason: In Deuteromycetes, only the asexual phase is known.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
15. Assertion : Euglena is studied as an animal as well as a plant.
Reason :Euglena is more an animal than a plant.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
16. Assertion (A): Chromosomes are responsible for the transfer of characteristics from parents to
offspring.
• Reason (R): Chromosomes are present in the nucleus
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Very Short Answer 2 x 5 = 10
17. Differentiate between chlorenchyma and arenchyma
or
Differentiate between spongy and palisade
18. Draw the daigram of Cnidoblast.
19. What is synptonemal complex? Where and why this formed in meiosis?
20. Draw the daigram of chloroplast and mention its different shapes and length accordingly.
21. Why are the classification system changing every now and then?

Short Answer 3 x 7 = 21
22. Draw illustration to bring out anatomical differences between Monocot and dicot stem.
23. What are the modifications that are observed in birds that help them fly? Which kind of diegestive
tract is found in them?
24. Write the important features and examples of phycomcetes.
25. Explain the composition of triglycerides with structural formula.
26. Write a short notes on endomebrane system with suitable daigrams
26. Differentiate between hypogynous perigynous and epigynous with suitable daigram
28. Differentiate between haplontic, diplontic and haplo diplontic life cycle.

Case Based 4x 2=8

29. In majority of the dicotyledonous plants, the direct elongation of the radicle leads to the formation of
primary root which grows inside the soil. It bears lateral roots of several orders that are referred to as
secondary, tertiary, etc. roots. The primary roots and its branches constitute the tap root system, as
seen in the mustard plant. In monocotyledonous plants, the primary root is short lived and is replaced
by a large number of roots. These roots originate from the base of the stem and constitute the fibrous
root system, as seen in the wheat plant. In some plants, like grass, Monstera and the banyan tree,
roots arise from parts of the plant other than the radicle and are called adventitious roots. The main
functions of the root system are absorption of water and minerals from the soil, providing a proper
anchorage to the plant parts, storing reserve food material and synthesis of plant growth regulators.
The root is covered at the apex by a thimble-like structure called the root cap. It protects the
tender apex of the root as it makes its way through the soil. A few millimetres above the root cap is
the region of meristematic activity. The cells of this region are very small, thin-walled and with dense
protoplasm. They divide repeatedly. The cells proximal to this region undergo rapid elongation and
enlargement and are responsible for the growth of the root in length. This region is called the region
of elongation. The cells of the elongation zone gradually differentiate and mature. Hence, this zone,
proximal to region of elongation, is called the region of maturation. From this region some of the
epidermal cells form very fine and delicate, thread-like structures called root hairs. These root hairs
absorb water and minerals from the soil.
Roots in some plants change their shape and structure and become modified to perform
functions other than absorption and conduction of water and minerals. They are modified for
support, storage of food and respiration. Tap roots of carrot, turnip and adventitious roots of sweet
potato, get swollen and store food. In some plants such as Rhizophora growing in swampy areas,
many roots come out of the ground and grow vertically upwards. Such roots, called pneumatophores,
help to get oxygen for respiration.
1.) Identify incorrect statement
Statement 1 – The root is covered at the apex by a thimble-like structure called the root cap.
Statement 2 – Elongation of the radicle leads to the formation of primary root.
Statement 3 – Pneumatophores are roots come out of the ground and grow vertically upwards
Statement 4 – Root hairs absorb water and minerals from the soil.
a.) Only 1 b.) Only 3 c.) Both 2 & 3 d.) None of the above
3.) What are adventitious roots?
4.) What is pneumatophores?
30. Frogs can live both on land and in freshwater and belong to class Amphibia of phylum Chordata. The
most common species of frog found in India is Rana tigrina.
Frogs do not have constant body temperature as their body temperature varies with the temperature
of the environment. Such animals are called cold blooded or poikilotherms. Frogs have the ability to
change the colour to hide them from their enemies (camouflage). This protective coloration is called
mimicry. Frogs are not seen during peak summer and winter. During this period they take shelter in
deep burrows to protect them from extreme heat and cold. This is known as summer sleep (aestivation)
and winter sleep (hibernation) respectively.
The skin of frog is smooth and slippery due to the presence of mucus. The skin is always maintained in
a moist condition. The colour of dorsal side of body is generally olive green with dark irregular spots.
On the ventral side the skin is uniformly pale yellow. The frog never drinks water but absorb it through
the skin. Body of a frog is divisible into head and trunk. A neck and tail are absent. Above the mouth, a
pair of nostrils is present. Eyes are bulged and covered by a nictitating membrane that protects them
while in water. On either side of eyes a membranous tympanum (ear) receives sound signals. The
forelimbs and hind limbs help in swimming, walking, leaping and burrowing. The hind limbs end in five
digits and they are larger and muscular than fore limbs that end in four digits. Feet have webbed digits
that help in swimming. Frogs exhibit sexual dimorphism. Male frogs can be distinguished by the
presence of sound producing vocal sacs and also a copulatory pad on the first digit of the fore limbs
which are absent in female frogs.
1) Frogs eyes are generally covered by _____________ which is protective in function.
(a) Camouflage membrane
(b) Copulatory membrane
(c) Nictitating membrane
(d) Tympanum membrane
2) ___________________ is the unique and distinguishing as well as sexual character of male frog.
(a) Presence of webbed digits
(b) Presence of copulatory pad
(c) Presence of Nictitating membrane
(d) Presence of membranous tympanum
4) Why Frogs are not seen during peak summer and winter?
5) What is mean by camouflage and mimicry?
Long Answer 5 x 3 = 15
31. Write a note on the types and structure of protein.
OR
Describe the functions of polysaccharides in living organisms.

32. What are the various stages of meiotic prophase I? Enumerate the chromosomal events during each stage?
OR
Differentiate between Mitosis and Meiosis.

33. Write the stored food ,flagellation, cell wall compostion, pigments, habitat of chlorophyceae,
rhodophyceae, phaeophyceae.
OR
Differentiate between gametophyte stage and sporophyte stage of both bryophytes and
pteridophyte and an example of heterospory .

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 
CHINMAYA VIDYALAYA, B.S. CITY
(CBSE NEW GENERATION SCHOOL)
HALF YEARLY EXAM
SESSION-(2022-23)
CLASS-11 TIME–3 Hrs
SUBJECT-APPLIED MATHS F.M.-80
DATE : 2/12/2022
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
 This question paper contains five sections, Section A to E.
 All questions are compulsory.
 Section A have 20 questions carrying 01 mark each.
 Section B has 05 Very Short Answer type questions carrying 02 marks each.
 Section C has 06 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each.
 Section D has 03 Case Based questions carrying 04 marks each.
 Section E has 04 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each.

SECTION-A
1. Simplify

2. Simplify

3. If the perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 36 cm, calculate its area.

4. If the perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 36 cm, calculate its height
5. Convert binary number to the decimal number: 11001
6. The average of 4 numbers is 80. If first three numbers are 80, 90 and 100 , find the fourth number
7. Find the average of the following set of numbers. 65, 85, 70, 90, and 105.
8. The sum of 10 numbers is 550. Find their average number.
9. The average of 7 consecutive numbers is 20. What is the largest of these numbers?
10. If 2/3, k, 5/8 are in AP then, Find the value of k.
11. If the first term of a G.P. is 20 and the common ratio is 4. Find the 5th term.
12. Determine the common ratio r of a geometric progression with the first term is 5 and fourth term is
40.
13. Write the set in the roster form
A = {x | x is a positive integer less than 10 and 2x – 1 is an odd number}
14. Let U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}, A = {2, 4, 6}, B = {3, 5} and C = {1, 2, 4, 7}, find (B – A) ∪ (A – C)
15. Find a and b if (a − 1, b + 5) = (2, 3).
16. If A = {1, 3, 5}, B = {2, 3}, then find: A × B
17. Find n if : P(n, 4)=20 P(n, 2)
18. Find the value of n if 5P(4, n)=6P(5, n-1)
19. Find the value of n if P(n-1,3):P(n+1,3)=5:12
20. Find the value of n if : n× 10C4= 10P4
SECTION-B
21. If nC4, nC5 and nC6 are in A.P., find n.
22. Divide binary numbers :
101111 by 111
23. A train 120 m long is running at 108 km /h. How long will it take to cross a lamp post?
24. If A = {3, 5, 7, 9, 11}, B = {7, 9, 11, 13}, C = {11, 13, 15}. Find A ∩ (B ∪ C).
25. Write the subsets of {1, 2, 3}.
SECTION-C
26. Solve for x :
logx (8-3-logx4=2
27. Find the time between 3 and 4 p:m, when the angle between hour and minute hand is 500.
28. The sum of the first three terms of a G.P. is 21/2 and their product is 27. Find the common ratio.
29. Find domain, co-domain and range of a Relation pRq = p divides q.
If P = {3, 5, 7} and Q = {6, 12, 5, 9}.
30. In a town of 10,000 families it was found that 40% families buy newspaper A, 20% families buy
newspaper B, 10% families buy newspaper C, 5% families buy A and B, 3% buy B and C and 4% buy A
and C. If 2% families buy all the three newspapers. Find:
The number of families which buy newspaper A only.
31. Find r if : 22Pr+1:20Pr+2 = 11:52
SECTION-D
32. If ax=b, by=c, cz=a, then show that xyz=1
33. If 7 times the 7th term of an AP is equal to 11 times its 11th term, show that the 18th term of the AP
is zero.
34. An open wooden box has the outer dimensions as length 14 cm, breadth 11 cm and depth 9 cm. The
thickness of wood is 1 cm.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
(i) The internal length of the box is
a) 10 cm b) 9 cm c) 12 cm d) 11 cm
(ii) The internal depth of the box is:
a) 7 cm b) 8 cm c) 10 cm d) 11 cm
(iii) Length of the longest rod that can be fitted in the box is:
a) 64 cm b) 17 cm c) 34 cm d) 29 cm
(iv) Capacity of the box is:
a) 644 cm3 b) 756 cm3 c) 864 cm3 d) 1386 cm3
(v) If wood weighs 0.5 kg per cubic centimetre, then the weight of the box(in kg) is:
a) 2.610 kg b) 0.261 kg c) 0.522 kg d) 0.338 kg
SECTION-E
35. The efficiency of x, y, z are in the ratio 3:2:6 to finish a task. If they work together they can finish it in
2 hours, find the time taken by them if they do the task individually?
36. There are 210 people in a local restaurant. 100 of them drink tea, while around 75 drink tea but not
coffee. Determine how many of them actually drink coffee? Also figure out how many of them drink
coffee, but not tea.
37. The sum of three numbers in G. P is 56. If we subtract 1, 7, 21 from these numbers in that order, we
obtain an A.P. Find the numbers.
38. A tent is in the shape of a cylinder surmounted by a conical top. If the height and diameter of the
cylindrical part are 2.1 m and 4 m respectively, and the slant height of the top is 2.8 m, find the area
of the canvas used for making the tent. Also, find the cost of the canvas of the tent at the rate of Rs.
500 per m2. (Note that the base of the tent will not be covered with canvas).
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 
CHINMAYA VIDYALAYA, B. S. CITY
(CBSE NEW GENERATION SCHOOL)
HALF YEARLY EXAM
(SESSION-2022-23)
CLASS-11 TIME–3 Hrs
SUBJECT-HISTORY F.M.-80
DATE : 28/11/2022
 All questions are to be answered.
 Marks allocated to each question is written at its Right-Hand Side.
MCQ 1 X 21 = 21
1. Assertion(A):The Mongol Khans belonged to a variety of different faiths, Shaman, Christian and
eventually Islam.
Reason (R): They never let their personal beliefs dictate public policy .They did not feel threatened by
their pluralistic constitution
a. Both A and Rare true b. A is true not R
c. A is false but R is true d. Both are false
2. Assertion (A): The contradiction between the nomadic and sedentary elements within the Mongol
Empire eased through the 13th cen.
Reason(R): When South China was annexed to the Mongol Empire, Genghis Khan’s grandson Qubilai
Khan appeared as the protector of the peasants and the cities.
a. Both A and R are true b. A is true not R
c. A is false but R is true d. Both are false
3. Why was the Great Wall of China built?
a. To store grains b. To protect China from Mongols
c. To export materials d. None of the above
4. The Mongols travelled with their herds to pasture lands and lived in tents called:
a. Anda b Gers c. Noyan d. Yasa
5. What was known as the yam?
a. Courier system b. Army system c. Cavalry system d. Administration system
6. The most valuable research on the Mongols was done by scholars from…
a. Russia b. France c. China d. Italy
th
7. The late empire started with the reign of -------------in the 4 cen.
a. Justinian b. Diocletian c. Constantine d. None of them
8. What is the term used of the Roman Empire after 3 cen? rd

a. Republican Rome b. Imperial Rome c. Late Empire d. none of them

9. Late Antiquity is the term used to refer to the period of Roman history from -----------to ------------.
a. 2nd to 3rd cen. b. 3rd to 4th cen c. 4th to 6th cen d. 4th to 7th cen
10. Assertion (A): One of the modern features of Roman society was the widespread prevalence of the
nuclear family.
Reason (R): The Roman women enjoyed considerable legal rights in owning and managing property.
a. Both(A) and ( R) are true and R is the right explanation of A
b. Both A and R are right, but R is not the right explanation of A
c. A is true, but R is not true
d. A is false, R is true
11. Assertion (A) Augustus the first emperor was the sole ruler and only the real source of authority. The
fiction was kept alive that he was only the ‘leading citizen’.
Reason: (R) The respect for the body Senate which had controlled Rome earlier was retained.
a. Both (A ) and (R) are true and R is the right explanation of A
b. Both A and R re true but R is not the right explanation for A
 c. A is right , but not R
d. A is not right , but R is rig
12. Assertion (A):Today, Mesopotamian excavations have much higher standards of accuracy and care in
recording than in the old days, so that few did huge areas the way Ur was excavated.
Reason (R): The mode of obtaining data has changed
a. A and R are true and R is the true explanation of A
b. A and R are true but R is not the true explanation of A
c. A is true not R
d. A is false but R is true
13. Assertion (A): The signs that a Mesopotamian scribe had to learn ran into hundreds, and he had to
be able to handle a wet tablet and get it written before it dried.
Reason (R): Literacy was wide spread in Sumer
a. A and R are true and R is the true explanation of A
b. A and R are true but R is not the true explanation of A
c. A is true not R
d. A is false but R is true
14. The ruler Zimrilin belonged to….
a. Sumer b. Akkad c. Mari d. Babylon
15. One of the earliest rulers of Sumer whose deeds have been written down in 12 clay tablets is …..
a. Enmerkar b. Gilgamesh c. Hammurabi d. Zimrilin
16. The earliest temples were built in Mesopotamia around ….
a. 2000 BCE b. 3000 c. 4000 BCE d. 5000 BCE
17. From the 11th cen. there is evidence of several tech. changes
Find the incorrect one
a) Europe was undergoing an intensely cold climatic spell in this period
b) Cultivators began using heavy iron tipped ploughs and mould board
c) There was increased use of water and wind energy for agriculture
d) There was a change in land use, switch from a two-field to three field system
18. The Church was given the right to take one-tenth of the total produce of the peasant over the course
of a year which was called a _____.
a. Taille b. Toll c. Tithe d. Franks
19. According to French priests, the basis of classification among the three orders was
a. education b. race c. wealth d. nature of work
20. There was a growing uncertainty about the value and purpose of monasticism by the 14 th cen, which
is expressed in the writings of ---------------
a. Langland b. Chaucer c. St. Benedict d. Abbess Hildegard
Options
a. Both A and B b. B and C c. A and C d. only D
21. The land granted by the lord to the knights was called:
a. Fief b. Feud c. Seigneur d. Manor

22. When was Nishapur occupied by Genghis Khan? Why did he carry out the terrible destruction?
Explain [3]
23. Who is the founder of the II Khanid dynasty? Why is it said that Monke's death in 1260 saved the
Muslim Asia ? [3]
24. What was the manner of recruitment of soldiers in the Roman Empire and Iranian empire? [3]
25. Who is associated with the organisation of the first trade of Sumer? What does the epic say? [3]
26. How is Assurbanipal remembered in history? [3]
th
27. Mention any three factors that led to the rise of the 4 order [3]
28. Why is Constantine remembered in the Roman history? Mention the steps taken by him to
strengthen the economy [6]
29. " Kingdom of Mari is a good example of an urban centre prospering on trade". Explain. [6]
30. Write a note on Manor system. Who formed the third estate in Europe? [6]
31. Write a note on the conquests of Genghis Khan [6]

32. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
The great Assyrian kings who had been immigrants, acknowledged the southern region Babylonia, as
the centre of high culture and the last of them, Assurbanipal (668-627 BCE) collected a library at his
capital, Nineveh in the north. He made great efforts to gather tablets on history, epics, .Literature,
hymns and poems. He sent his scribes to south to find old tablets. Because scribes in the south were
trained to read and write in school where they all had to copy tablets by the dozen, there were towns
in Babylonia where huge collections of tablets were created and acquired fame. And although
Sumerian ceased to be spoken after 1800 BCE, it continued to be taught in schools, through
vocabulary texts, sign lists, bilingual (Sumerian and Akkadian) tablets.etc. So even in 650 BCE
cuneiform tablets written as far back as 2000 BCE were intelligible and Assurbanipal’s men knew
where to look for early tablets or their copies.
a. Who was Assurbanipal? In which region did he rule? 1
b. What efforts did the ruler make to gather tablets on different subjects? Why? 2
c. What was the position of Sumerian language at that that time? 1

33. Read the following and answer the questions

Management of labour.
The Roman agricultural writers paid a great deal of attention to the management of labour.
Columella, a first century writer who came from the south of Spain recommended that landowners
should keep a reserve stock of implements and tools, twice as many as they needed, so that
production could be continuous. ‘for the loss in slave labour–time exceeds the cost of such items’.
there was a general presumption among employers that without supervision no work would ever get
done, so supervision was paramount for free workers and slaves.to make supervision easier, workers
were sometimes grouped into gangs or smaller teams. Columell are commended squads of ten,
claiming it was easier to tell who was putting in effort and who was not in work groups of this size.
This shows a detailed consideration of the management of labour.
a. Who is Columella? What did he advice to the landowners? 2
b. What was the general presumption among the employers? 1
c. How did they supervise workers? 1
34. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow
Church
The Catholic Church had its own laws, owned lands given to it by rulers, and could levy taxes. It was
thus a very powerful institution which did not depend on the king.
At the head of the Western Church was the Pope. He lived in Rome. The christians in Europe were
guided by bishops and clerics- who constituted the first 'order'. Most villages had their own Church,
where people assembled every Sunday to listen to the Sermon by the priest and to pray together.
Everyone could not become a priest, Serfs were banned, as were the physically challenged. Women
could not become priests. Like lords who owned vast landed estates , the Bishops also had the use
of vast estates , and lived in grand palaces. The Church was entitled to a tenth share of whatever the
peasants produced from their land over the course of the year called 'tithe'. Money also came in the
form of endowments made by the rich for their own welfare-----
Apart from the Churches, some devout Christians chose to live isolated lives, they lived in
communities called abbeys and monasteries
a. Who constituted the first order of the society.? 1
b.. Who were not qualified to become a priest? 2
c. What was the source of income for the Church? 1
35. MAP WORK [5]

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 
CHINMAYA VIDYALAYA, B. S. CITY
(CBSE NEW GENERATION SCHOOL)
HALF YEARLY EXAM
(SESSION-2022-23)
CLASS-11 TIME–3 Hrs
SUBJECT-SOCIOLOGY F.M.-80
DATE : 02/12/2022
GENERAL INSTRUCTION
 All questions are to be answered.
 Questions is divided in four sections
 Section-A has 24 Questions each carries 1 mark
 Section-B has 12 Questions each carries 2 marks. Answer should not exceed 40 words.
 Section-C has 5 Questions each carries 4 marks. Answer should not exceed 120 words.
 Section-D has 2 Questions each carries 6 marks. Answer should not exceed 200 words.

SECTION-A
1. The structural functionalists find society
A. as essentially harmonious.
B. as conflict ridden.
C. disintegrated entity.
D. cohesive from outside.
2. Choose the correct option
A. some sociologists understand human behaviours by starting with the individual, i.e. micro
interaction.
B. class, caste. market, status, even community are the examples of macro structure of the society.
C. concepts such as status or role begin with the individuals.
D. all the above
3. Choose the correct option
A defining feature of human life is that human--1---,---2----- and ----3--- social collectives.
A. 1.interacts, 2.communicates, 3.construct.
B. 1.cooperate, 2.communicate 3.have conflicts
C. 1.conflicts, 2.cooperate 3.accomodates.
D. 1.compete, 2.cooperate 3.accomodates.
4. What is correct in the context of the features of social groups?
A. In every society groups and collectives exist.
B. The types of groups and collectives are different in different society.
C. Any gathering of people does not necessarily constitute a social group.
D. All the above are correct.
5. Choose the correct option
A. simple, small scale and traditional societies are marked by close often face-to-face interaction.
B. Modern large scale society has more informal interaction.
C. Social stratification reflects the concern that society is equally structured.
D. Caste based social stratification is the feature of modern industrial society of the West?
6. At the most basic level social change refers to the changes which alter the -----,-------- of the society or
situation over a period of time.
A. economic structure
B. political structure
C. under lying structure
D. class structure.

1
7. The discipline of -------- itself emerged as an effort to make sense of rapid change that Western
European society had experience between --------- and ------- centuries.
A. sociology seventeenth nineteenth.
B. economics, nineteenth seventeenth
C. politics, nineteenth seventeenth
D. philosophy seventeenth nineteenth
8. ------ proposed a theory of how living organisms evolve.
A. Herbert spencer
B. Anthony Giddens
C. Charles Darwin
D.A R Desai.
9. Although Darwin's theory referred to ------1-- it was soon adopted to the social world and was termed
as ---2 ----, a theory that emphasises the importance of -----3 ----.
A. 1 natural processes, 2 Social Darwinism, 3 adaptive change
B. 1 economic process, 2 technological determinant, 3 class struggle
C. 1 adaptive change, 2 Social Darwinism, 3 natural process
D. 1 Social Darwinism, 2 adaptive change, 3 natural processes.
10. ------ is used mainly in political context when --- of the society changes rapidly through the over
through of a former ruling class or group by its challengers.
A. Revolutionary, economic structure
B. revolutionary change, power structure
C. Revolutionary change, religious structure
D. evolutionary change, power structure
11. Choose the correct statement.
A. Sociology provides technical solution for any social and economic problems.
B. It encourages a questioning and critical perspective.
C. Sociology does not believe in factual knowledge.
D. sociology does not facilitate a discussion of not just the technical means towards a given goal, but
also about the social desirability of a goal itself.
12. Sociology is devoted to the study of ----1--- where as conventional political science is restricted
itself mainly to the study of --2---
A. 1. power as embodied in the formal organisations. 2. all the aspects of the society.
B. 1. all the aspects of the society . 2. international organisation.
C. 1.all the aspects of the society . 2. power as embodied in format organisations.
D. 1.all the aspects of the society 2. functions of political parties.
13. The Industrial revolution brought changes
A. in economy and turned it into the capitalist economy .
B. in status of labourers. Their status were degraded.
C. in the work place. works were wrenched from the productive context of guild, villages and families.
D. all the above.
14. Psychology is often defined as the
A. science of medicine
B. science of society.
C. science of human behaviour
D. science of religion.
15. Which of the following is the subject matter of psychology?
A. individual's intelligence and learning
B. motivation and memory.
C. nervous system, fears hopes and reaction times.
D. all the above.

2
16. During the late 17th. and 18th. centuries Western Europe saw the emergence of rationally new
ways of thinking about the world .It is referred to as
A. Enlightenment.
B. Parliament.
C. Constitution.
D. Democracy.
17. Who were the authors of “Communist Manifesto”
A. Max Weber
B. P B Sorokin
C. Karl Marx and Frederick Engel
D. Emile Durkheim
18. Marx places great emphasis on ----- and------ because he believes that they form the foundation of
every social system throughout human history.
A. politics, religion
B. economy, religion,
C politics and economy
D. Economic structure, processes.
19. The modern era in Europe and the conditions of modernity were brought about by three major
processes. they are
A. Equality, Liberty and Fraternity.
B. Socialism, Democracy and Republic
C. Inventions, discovery and philosophy
D. The Enlightenment, The French Revolution and the Industrial Revolution.
20. Enlightenment established ----- at the centre of the universe.
A. Society
B. State
C. Religion
D. Human beings
21. Assertion(A): After the revolution the Republic of France had to respect the privacy of the
autonomous individuals and its laws could not intrude upon the domestic life of the people.
Reason(B): The French Revolution successfully transferred the citizens of France into sovereign
individuals and empowered them with several constitutional rights.
A. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are correct but R is the incorrect explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true.
22. Assertion(A): sociology attempts to understand behaviours as it is organised in the society that is the
way in which personality is shaped by the different aspects of society.
Reason(R): This is because economics, politics, family and kinship, social structure, culture,
norms values and religion all play their roles in shaping the personality of an individual.
A. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are correct but R is the incorrect explanation of A.
C.A is correct but R is incorrect.
D.A is incorrect but R is correct.
23. Assertion(A): The Industrial Revolution and telecommunication are termed as the revolutionary changes.
Reason(R): They brought sharp sudden and total transformation of the kinds in the society.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct Explanation of A
C. A is true but R is False
D. A is false but R is True.

24. Assertion(A): various concepts act as tools through which we can understand the reality.
3
 Reason(R): They are entry point in our understanding not the final answer. They are key to open
locks to understand the society.
A. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are correct but R is the incorrect explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
SECTION-B

25. Define social structure and social groups.

26. What is a role? How is it associated with a status?
27. Why do concepts arise in sociology?
28. Do changes in Ideas, beliefs and values bring changes in the society? Explain with examples?
29. Why do we see the way of living of people of Rajasthan is different from that of Uttar Pradesh or Tamil Nadu?
30. How does economic organisation change the society?
31. How can you say that sociology provides clear or more adequate understanding of a social situation
than existed before?
32. Why is it said that the thin barrier between the subject matter of Indian social Anthropology and
sociology has vanished?
33. How does social psychology establish link between psychology and sociology?
34. How can you say that the Enlightenment discouraged religion and god from the life of the modern individuals?
35. What according to Marx is scientific socialism? Why does Marx welcome capitalism?
36. How does Marx explain the development of human society?

SECTION-C
37. Is human collective natural? Why? What are its features?
38. Does war bring social change? Explain this with a suitable example taken from recent times?
39. How did Universal Adult Franchise bring immense social change?
40. What are the differences between approaches of social anthropology and that of sociology?
41. Justify this statement-" The French revolution announced the arrival of political sovereignty at the
level of individuals as well as the nation-state.?

SECTION-D
42. What is a primary group? How is it different from the secondary group?
43. "Capitalist Society was marked by an over intensifying process of alienation operating at several
levels." Explain Marx's view on the nature of capitalist society.
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4
 
CHINMAYA VIDYALAYA, B. S. CITY
(CBSE NEW GENERATION SCHOOL)
HALF YEARLY EXAM
(SESSION-2022-23)
CLASS-11 TIME–3 Hrs
SUBJECT-ACCOUNTANCY F.M.-80
DATE : 28/11/2022
 All questions are to be answered.
 Marks allocated to each question is written at its Right-Hand Side.
Do as directed 1 x 20 = 20
1. What is the main purpose of preparing a bank reconciliation statement? [1]
(a) To know the bank balance
(b) To know the balance of bank statement
(c) To correct the cash book
(d) To identify causes of difference between cash book and bank statement
2. When a cheque is returned by the bank showing some technical reason is known as _______. [1]
(a) Honor of the cheque
(b) Balance of account
(c) Dishonor of the cheque
(d) None of the above
3. A: Purchase of machinery is a revenue expenditure. [1]
R: The benefit of revenue expense is used in the same accounting year to earn revenue.
On the basis of the above statements, choose the correct option below.
a) A and R both are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) A and R both are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true.
4. Choose the correct option. [1]
If the amount of any known liability cannot be determined with substantial accuracy______
a) A provision should be created.
b) A Contingent liability should be created.
c) A definite liability should be created.
d) A reserve should be created.
5. All of the following are true regarding journal entries except? [1]
(a) Journal entries show the effects of transactions
(b) Journal entries provide account balances
(c) The debited account titles are listed first
(d) Each journal entry should begin with a date
6. Accrued expenses are also called_____. [1]
(a) Accrued liabilities
(b) Expenses incurred but not paid
(c) Unexpired expenses
(d) None
7. Ledger Book is popularly known as ____. [1]
a) Secondary Books of accounts
b) Principal Books of accounts
c) Subsidiary Books of accounts
d) Balance Book of accounts
8. The periodic total of sales return journal is posted to : [1]
(a) Sales account
(b) Goods account
(c) Purchases return account
(d) Sales return account
9. Give an example of a transaction which leads to increase in one liability and decrease in another
liability. [1]
10. No distinction between cash and credit transaction is maintained under ____ basis of accounting. [1]
11. Reserves are appropriation of ________ [1]
12. Carriage paid for the purchase of a machinery will be credited to Cash Book as ______ Account. [1]
13. Trial Balance is merely a ______ not an account. [1]
14. Which principle treats the proprietor of the business as a creditor of the business? [1]
15. Cash account will never show a credit balance. Do you agree with this statement? Justify. [1]
16. State what is the end product of Financial Accounting? [1]
17. What is a Pay in slip? [1]
18. When an account is said to have a credit balance? [1]
19. Give one difference between a Cash Book and a Cash Account. [1]
20. Give example of two items that will appear in Journal proper. [1]

21. What is Money Measure Concept? Which one factor can make it difficult to compare the monetary
values of one year with the monetary values of another year? [3]
22. Name the Accounting Concept or Convention associated with the following. [3]
a) Assets are recorded at cost, irrespective of the market price.
b) Life of a business should be divided into smaller periods.
c) Accounting transactions should be free from bias of accountant and others.
23. What do you mean by provisions? State two objectives of provision. [3]
24. Differentiate between Capital expenditure and Revenue expenditure on three suitable bases. [3]
25. Which qualitative feature of Accounting is reflected in the following cases: [3]
a) Free from personal bias
b) Information is clearly presented
c) Information about related departments
d) Consistent use of Accounting policies and conventions
26. [3]
Journal
In the Books of…
Date Particulars L.F. Debit Amount (Rs) Credit Amount (Rs)
(I) Purchases A/c Dr. 2,000
To Cash A/c 2,000
(Goods purchased for cash)

(II) Salaries A/c Dr. 1,500

To Cash A/c 1,500
(Salary paid in cash)

(III) Cash A/c Dr. 800

To Interest A/c 800
(Received interest in cash)

(IV) Mohan’s A/c Dr. 5,000

To Cash A/c 5,000
 (Cash paid to Mohan)
Post the above journal entries into various accounts in the ledger.
27. Solve the following problems. [4]
a) Find the Opening Capital of the firm from the following information given at the end of the year.
Total assets Rs 1,30,000, external liabilities Rs 40,000. During the year, proprietor introduced additional
capital of Rs 20,000, withdrew Rs 15,000 for personal use and earned a profit of Rs 25,000.
b) Total sales of Mohan for the year 2015-16 was Rs Rs 9,00,000. Cash Sales during the year was half the
credit sales.
Total expenses incurred during the year 2015-16 were Rs 5,75,000. Outstanding expenses at the end
of the accounting year amounted to Rs 3,50,000 and prepaid expenses paid were Rs 5,000.
Calculate Profit or Loss of Mohan for the year 2015-16 on Cash Basis of accounting.
28. Record the following in the appropriate Cash book of the firm on January 2017 [4]
Rs
1- Cash in Hand 12,400
1 - Bank Overdraft 1,400
3 - Deposited into Bank 3,000
5 - Received Cheque from Sharma 5,400
6 - Deposited Sharma's cheque into bank
31 - Bank Charges 65

29. The following Trial Balance has been prepared by an inexperienced accountant. Redraft it in a correct
form. [4]
Name of the Accounts Debit Balance Rs Credit Balance Rs
Cash in Hand 4,000
Machinery 25,000
Purchases 66,000
Sundry Debtors 24,000
Carriage Inward 2,000
Carriage Outward 1,000
Wages 18,000
Rent and Taxes 5,000
Sundry Creditors 15,500
Discount allowed 1,000

30. Prepare Accounting equation from the following: [6]

a) Ram started business with cash Rs 4,50,000
b) Bought goods for Cash Rs 2,40,000 and on credit Rs 1,20,000
c) Goods costing Rs 2,25,000 sold at a profit of 33 1/3%. Half of the payment received in Cash.
d) Goods costing Rs 30,000 sold for Rs 36,000 on credit.
e) Paid for rent Rs 6,000 and for salaries Rs 12,000
f) Goods costing Rs 60,000 sold for Rs 55,500 for cash.
31. Journalise the following transactions in the books of Sailesh on 31st March 22. [6]
1. Salary due but not paid Rs 1,500.
2. Insurance premium paid include Rs 400 as paid for next year.
3. Allow 10% interest on capital amounting to Rs 80,000.
4. Charge 10% depreciation on Plant costing Rs 40,000.
5. Charge interest on drawings Rs 500
6. Paid Life insurance premium of proprietor Rs 2,000 and income tax. Rs 1,500.
 32. M/s Lokesh Fabrics purchased a textile machine on 1st April 2011, for Rs 1,00,000. On 1st July 2012,
another machine costing. [6]
Rs 2,50,000 was purchased. The machine purchased on 1st April 2011, was sold for Rs 50,000 on
1st October 2013. On the same date a new machine was for Rs 3,00,000. The firm charges depreciation
@ 20% on Straight Line method. Prepare Machinery account for the three years. Show your working
notes properly.
33. Prepare Bank Reconciliation Statement in the Books of M/s Bhawani and Sons, as on 31st
December, 2021 from the following transactions. [6]
a) Overdraft as per Pass Book Rs 12,000 as on 31st December 2021
b) On 30th December, cheques had been issued for Rs 70,000 of which cheques worth Rs 3,000
only had been en cashed upto 31st December.
c) Cheques amounting to Rs 3,500 had been paid into the Bank for collection but out of these only
Rs 500 had been credited in the Pass Book.
d) The Bank has charged Rs 500 as interest on overdraft and the intimation of which has been
received on 2nd January 2022.
e) Bank has collected Rs 600 directly in respect of interest on the firm's investment.
f) A cheque of Rs 200 has been debited in the Bank column of Cash Book of the firm but it was not
sent to Bank at all.
34. Prepare appropriate Subsidiary Books of M/s Deendayal from the following transactions for the
month of June 2022. [6]
2022
June 7 Purchase from Arora and co., New Delhi, 10 chairs of Rs 100 each and 1 table of Rs 600, Trade
discount @ 10%
June 10 Sold to Sudha Furnitures Co. Agra, 1 almirah Rs 2,000, Trade discount @ 15%
June 12 Sold to Meera Mart for cash 15 chairs @ Rs 350 each.
June 15 Purchased from Hira Lal and Sons for cash 15 chairs @ Rs 350 each.
June 16 Purchased from Fateh Chand and Co. Delhi, 5 chairs @ Rs 200 each
June 25 Purchase of Office Computer from Ravi sharma of Delhi.
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 
CHINMAYA VIDYALAYA, B.S. CITY
(CBSE NEW GENERATION SCHOOL)
HALF YEARLY EXAM
(SESSION-2022-23)
CLASS-11 TIME–3 Hrs
SUBJECT-MATHS F.M.-80
DATE: 2/12/2022
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
 This question paper contains five sections, Section A to E.
 All questions are compulsory.
 Section A have 20 questions carrying 01 mark each.
 Section B has 05 Very Short Answer type questions carrying 02 marks each.
 Section C has 06 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each.
 Section D has 03 Case Based questions carrying 04 marks each.
 Section E has 04 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each.

SECTION-A

1. If |x −1| > 5, then

(a) x ∈ (– 4, 6)
(b) x ∈ [– 4, 6]
(c) x ∈ (– ∞, – 4) U (6, ∞)
(d) x ∈ [– ∞, – 4) U [6, ∞)
2. If α + β = π/4, then the value of (1 + tan α) (1 + tan β) is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) – 2
(d) Not defined
3. The value of sin 20° sin 40° sin 60° sin 80° is equal to
(a) -3/16
(b) 5/16
(c) 3/16
(d) -5/16
4. The value of sin 50° – sin 70° + sin 10° is equal to
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 1/2
(d) 2
5. The value of tan 20 × tan 40 × tan 80 is
(a) tan 30
(b) tan 60
(c) 2 tan 30
(d) 2 tan 60
1 1
6. If 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 3 − 𝑥 3 Prove that 𝑓(𝑥) + 𝑓 (𝑥) = 0
7. If 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 + 1, find x such that 𝑓(2𝑥) = 𝑓(𝑥)
8. Solve 3x+8>2, when
i. x is an integer
 ii. x is a real number
9. Using all the letters of the word 'THURSDAY', how many different words can be formed?
10. Find the 10th term of the given AP’s.
3+7+ 11+…..
11. In how many different ways can five friends sit for a photograph of five chairs in a row?
12. The sums of n terms of two arithmetic progressions are in the ratio 5n+4: 9n+6. Find the ratio of
their 18th terms.
13. Is 309 a term of the AP 11, 17, 23….?
14. Write the set A={x: x is an integer,−1≤x≤4} in roster form.
15. If A={2,3,4,5},B={3,5,6,7}. Find A⋃B
16. Determine the real numbers x and y if (x-iy) (3+5i) is the conjugate of -6-24i.
17. Solve the system of equations Re (z2) = 0, |z| = 2.
18. If arg (z – 1) = arg (z + 3i), then find (x – 1): y, where z = x + iy.

19. Find the domain of the real function, f(×) =

20. Let 𝑓(𝑥) = −|𝑥| then Range of function

SECTION-B

21. Draw the graph of the function f: R → R defined by f (x) = x3, x ∈ R

22. The number of permutations of the letters of the word 'MESMERISE' is_
23. The sum of n term of arithmetic progression is 2n + 3n2, find its second term. :
24. If a cos θ + b sin θ =m and a sin θ -b cosθ = n, then show that a2 + b2 = m2 + n2
25. Find the square root of -i.

SECTION-C

26. Find the values of x for which the functions f(x) = 3x2 -1 and g(x) = 3+ x are equal.
27. Let U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}, A = {2, 4, 6}, B = {3, 5} and C = {1, 2, 4, 7}, find
(i) A′ ∪ (B ∩ C′)
(ii) (B – A) ∪ (A – C)
28. Between 1 and 31, m number have been inserted in such a way that the resulting sequence is an
A.P. and the ratio of 7th and (m-1)th no. is 5:9 find the value of m.
29. In how many ways can the letters of the word 'LEADER' be arranged, So that vowels come together.
30. Solve:
3 ≤ |𝑥 − 2| ≤ 5
31. Find the value of tan 225° cot 405° + tan 765° cot 675°.

SECTION-D

32. Read the Case study given below and attempt any 4 subparts:
Let f and g be two real functions defined by f(x) = √𝑥 − 1 and g(x) =3-2x.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
(i) Domain of f is
a. (1, x) b) [1, x) c) (-∞, 1) d) (-∞, 1]
1
(ii) Domain of 𝑔 is
3 2 3
a. R-{2} b) R c) R-{3} d) R-{− 2}
1
(iii) Domain of 𝑔 is
2
a. R b) R - (1, ∞) c) [1, ∞) d) R-{3}
1
(iv) Domain of 𝑔 is
 3
a. (1, ∞) b) [1, ∞) c) R-{2} d) R
𝑓
(v) Domain of 𝑔 is
3 2 3
a. R-{2} b) R c) R-{3} d) [1, ∞) - {2}
33. Read the Case study given below and attempt any 4 subparts:
A state cricket authority has to choose a team of 11 members, to do it so the authority asks
2 coaches of a government academy to select the team members that have experience as well as
the best performers in last 15 matches. They can make up a team of 11 cricketers amongst
15 possible candidates. In how many ways can the final eleven be selected from 15 cricket
players if:

(a) there is no restriction

i. 1365
ii. 2365
iii. 1465
iv. 1375
(b) one of then must be included
i. 1002
ii. 1003
iii. 1001
iv. 1004
(c) one of them, who is in bad form, must always be excluded
i. 480
ii. 364
iii. 1365
iv. 640
(d) Two of them being leg spinners, one and only one leg spinner must be included?
i. 2C1×13C10
ii. 2C1×10C13
iii. 1C2×13C10
iv. 2C10×13C10
(e) If there are 6 bowlers, 3 wicket-keepers, and 11 batsmen in all. The number of ways in
which A team of 4 bowlers, 2 wicket-keepers, and 5 batsmen can be chosen.
i. 6C2×3C4 ×11C5
ii. 6C2×3C4 ×11C5
iii. 6C2×3C5×11C4
iv. 6C2 × 3C1 ×11C5
34. Solve :
 SECTION-E
35. In a class of 60 students, 23 play hockey, 15 play basketball,20 play cricket and 7 play hockey and
basketball, 5 play cricket and basketball, 4 play hockey and cricket, 15 do not play any of the three
games. Find
(i) How many play hockey, basketball and cricket
(ii) How many play hockey but not cricket
(iii) How many play hockey and cricket but not basketball
1
36. Prove that tan (142 2) = 2 + √2 − √3 − √6
37. Solve graphically:
4x + 5y ≤ 20, 3x + 10 ≤30, x ≤ 6, x, y ≥ 0
38. The ratio of A M and G. M of two positive no. a and b is m : n show that
𝑎: 𝑏 = (𝑚 + √𝑚2 − 𝑛2 ): (𝑚 − √𝑚2 − 𝑛2 )

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 
CHINMAYA VIDYALAYA, B S. CITY
(CBSE NEW GENERATION SCHOOL)
HALF - YEARLY EXAM
(SESSION-2022-23)
CLASS-11 TIME–3 Hrs.
SUBJECT-ENGLISH F.M.-80
DATE : 26/11/2022
 All questions are to be answered
 Marks allocated to each question is written at its Right-Hand Side.

SECTION-A (READING)
1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: (1 x 10=10)
Computers are capable of doing extremely complicated work in all branches of learning. They
can solve the most complex mathematical problems or put thousands of unrelated data in
order. These machines can be put to varied uses. For instance, they can provide information on
the best way to prevent traffic accidents. They work accurately and at high speed.
They save research workers’ years of hard work. This whole process by which machines can be
used to work for us has been called ‘automation’. In future, automation may enable human
beings to enjoy more leisure than they do today. The coming of automation is bound to have
important social consequences. Some years ago, an expert on automation, Sir Leon Bagrit
pointed out that it was a mistake to believe that these machines could think. There is no
possibility that human beings will be controlled by machines. Though computers are capable of
learning from their mistakes and improving on their performances, they need detailed
instructions from human beings to be able to operate. They can never lead independent lives or
rule the world by taking decisions of their own.
Sir Leon said that in future, computers would be developed which would be small enough to be
carried in one’s pocket. Ordinary people would then be able to use them to obtain valuable
information. Computers could be plugged into a wireless network and can be used like radios.
For instance, people going on holiday, could be informed about weather conditions. Car drivers
can be given an alternative route, when there is a traffic jam. It will also be possible to make tiny
translating machines. This will enable people, who do not share a common language, to talk to
each other without any difficulty or to read foreign publications.
It is impossible to access the importance of a machine of this sort, for many international
misunderstandings are caused simply due to our failure to understand each other. Computers
will also be used in ordinary public hospitals. By providing a machine with a patient’s system, a
doctor will be able to diagnose the nature of his illness. Similarly machines could be used to
keep a check on a patient’s health record and bring it up to date. Doctors will, therefore, have
immediate access to great many facts which will help them in their work. Bookkeepers and
accountants too could be relieved of dull clerical work. For the tedious task of compiling, and
checking lists or figures could be done entirely by machines. Computers are the most efficient
servant man has ever had and there is no limit to the way they can be used to improve our lives.

On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer the questions that given below.
1. Tick the correct option
(a) There is no possibility that human beings can be on their own with no need of machines.
(b) Human beings are likely to be controlled by machines one day
(c) There is no possibility that human beings will ever be controlled by machines
(d) Machines can replace humans
 2. According to the passage which of the given options is true?
(a) Computers can solve only certain mathematical problems
(b) Computers can’t solve any mathematical problems
(c) Computers can solve the most complex mathematical problems
(d) Computers can solve only simple mathematical problems
3. Computers can be used:
(a) To find treatment for the patient’s illness
(b) To prescribe a medicine for the patient
(c) To diagnose the nature of patient’s illness
(d) To keep the patient in good mood
4. Many international misunderstandings are caused due to our failure to understand
(a) Ourselves (b) Other nations (c) Our friends (d) Each other
5. The antonym of the word ‘complicated’ is
(a) Difficult (b) Simple (c) Easy (d) Strange
6. Why does the passage say that computers are the most efficient servant that man has ever had?
(a) Because they can improve our lives limitlessly.
(b) Because they can perform complex mathematical problems.
(c) Because they can replace or control human beings.
(d) Because they can be carried around in a pocket
7. Find the synonyms of the following words from the passage
i. Results
ii. Monotonous
8. Who was Sir Leon Bagrit?
(a) A scientist
(b) A mechanic
(c) An automation expert
(d) A computer master
9. What is automation?
(a) Automatic working of computers.
(b) Using machines to work for man
(c) Having social consequences due to computers
(d) Enjoying more leisure than we are doing today.
10. How are computers helpful for bookkeepers and accountants?
(a) They are man’s most efficient servants
(b) They record patient’s health and illness
(c) They can do ground work like making lists and checking numbers
(d) They give information about weather changes.

2. Read the passage given below. (1X 8 = 8)

1. Delhi tried very hard but it wasn’t enough. In the run-up to D-Day, the sound of firecrackers had not
been heard. The Supreme Court ban on sales had made procuring them difficult, but many people,
including school children, had resolved to buck tradition for clean air. And till 7 pm on Diwali, most
neighbourhoods were quiet. Around that time the first sound of firecrackers going off was heard, and
gradually it rose to a crescendo. But it was nowhere near the blitzkrieg of the past, not even half of
that. And well before midnight, it was all over.
2. The bad news broke at dawn. It was a visibly smoggy morning. Air pollution levels had peaked to
“severe” on Diwali night and remained dangerously high till Friday afternoon as reflected in the real-
time monitoring data of Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and Delhi Pollution Control
Committee (DPCC).
3. The CPCB, however, pointed out a silver lining. It said the air quality index (AQI) this year was better
than the ones on Diwali in the past two years in spite of hostile meteorological conditions. On Diwali
last year (October 30, 2016), the average AQI for the city was in the “severe” category at 426 while
 the year before that (November 11, 2015), it had been in the “very poor” category at 327. This time,
it was marginally lower at 326.
4. There are so many factors impacting air quality – from the speed and direction of the wind to burning
of crop stubble in neighbouring states – that it is difficult to definitively identify the main culprit.
What, however, has to be acknowledged is that at least a majority of people have the will to stick to
what may appear to be unpalatable decisions for better quality of life.
5. The data, however, is making informed observers worry-particularly the massive peaks in PM (Particulate Matter)
2.5 (fine, respirable pollution particles) and PM 10 (coarse pollution particles) levels on Thursday night after 10
pm. Delhi peaked to 656 micrograms per cubic metres around midnight.
6. However, the data also shows that in spite of unfavourable meteorological conditions, the air quality
on Diwali this year was better than last year. It had not been so good in the two days preceding Diwali
due to intrusion of humid air from the south-east coupled with prevailing calm wind conditions. The
average mixing height (the height to which smoke or air will rise, mix and disperse) recorded on
October 18 and 19 were 547 metres and 481 metres, respectively, according to CPC(B) It should be
at least 1000 metres for proper dispersal.
On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer the following questions by choosing the best of the
given choices.
1. In the run-up to D-Day, the sound of firecrackers had not been heard because the
(a) Supreme Court banned the sales of firecrackers.
(b) children resolved to back tradition for clean air.
(c) neighbourhoods did not like the sound of firecrackers.
(d) children were afraid of the sound of firecrackers.
2. The ‘bad news’ that broke at dawn was that
(a) there was smog in the sky.
(b) the air pollution levels were dangerously high.
(c) CPCB released real time figures that were alarming.
(d) All of the above.
3. The AQI levels after Diwali this year were
(a) the same as in other years.
(b) higher than other years.
(c) lower than other years.
(d) could not be ascertained
4. There will be no air pollution if
(a) school children do not burst crackers on Diwali.
(b) there is a strong wind on Diwali night.
(c) if the motor vehicles do not run on Diwali.
(d) None of the above.
5. ‘Crescendo’ in para 1 means
(a) to happen successfully
(b) an increase in intensity
(c) better quality of life
(d) metrological conditions
6. ‘unpalatable’ in para 4 means
(a) 6,000 metres for proper dispersal
(b) feeling happy
(c) dispersal
(d) not pleasant
Answer the questions that follow:
7. What are the factors affecting the air quality?
8. In the run-up to D-Day in Delhi, the sound of firecrackers gradually rose to what level?
 3. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :
1. The epidemic of heart attacks has been attaining alarming proportion in recent times causing grave
concern specially to the medical fraternity.
2. To contain and control the increasing death and disability from heart attacks and to focus on public
awareness and their involvement at global level, the World Health Organisation (WHO) and the World
Heart Federation observed September 24th as the World Heart Day.
3. What causes heart attacks? Dr. H.S. Wasir, Chief Cardiologist and Medical Director, Batra Hospital and
Medical Research Centre lists four main habits which adversely affect the heart health. These are lack
of physical exercise, wrong eating habits, cigarette smoking and excessive alcohol consumption, and
stressful lifestyle.
4. The importance of physical exercise in minimising the incidence of heart attacks cannot be
underestimated “Physical exercise,” says Dr. Wasir, “plays a major role in achieving a long and healthy
life in general and prevention of heart attacks in particular.” There are several studies showing that
physically active people have higher longevity than those sedentary or physically inactive.
5. In fact, the review of modern medical literature sums up the role of physical activity in health as
‘Regular physical exercise adds not only years to life but also life to years’. It is the experience of many
modern day physicians that some patients of angina (chest pain or discomfort on physical or mental
exertion or after meals) do get relief with regularly done physical exercise.
6. What type of physical exercise and how much, one may ask. It is the isotonic (dynamic) exercise that
is beneficial for the heart and not the isometric (static) exercise which should be avoided by heart
patients. Weight lifting, carrying heavy suitcases while travelling, pushing a car are some of the
examples of isometric exercises. Examples of the beneficial type of physical activity (dynamic exercise)
are brisk walking, swimming, golf without power carts, badminton and tennis (doubles for those with
old heart attacks but fully recovered, to be started only after physician’s advice).
7. Walking is the best mode of doing regular physical exercise which requires no equipment, money,
material or membership of a club! 30 to 60 minutes brisk walk even on alternate day has been proven
to be beneficial. Stationary cycling or walking on a treadmill at home are the other alternatives.
8. Walking up the stairs instead of using a lift if going up to three or four floors or getting off the lift two
or three floors before the destination and walking up the rest through stairs. Going up several floors
in a overcrowded lift with limited fresh air to be shared by so many may also prove unhealthy.
9. Park a little away from the work place and walk that healthy distance.
10. Best time for brisk walks would be the early mornings before the traffic flow picks up and walking in
the parks with thick plantation. Jogging on the roads with heavy traffic should be avoided as you will
be inhaling air polluted with the toxins from vehicular exhaust such as dioxides of sulphur and
nitrogen.
11. “Before starting any physical exercise programmes for the first time, one must get fully evaluated by
a cardiologist so as to avoid any harm being done by exercise if there is serious underlying heart
disease needing treatment,” warns Dr. Wasir.
On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer the questions that given below.
(A) On the basis of your reading of the above passage, make notes on it using headings and sub-
headings. Use recognizable abbreviations wherever necessary. (Min. 4) Suggest a suitable title. (5)
(B) Write a summary of the passage in 50 words using the notes made. (3)
 SECTION-B (GRAMMAR AND WRITING)
4. Choose the best possible option from the options given below. (4)
The wedding procession was yet to start, it i. _______ for us to reach. We ii.___________ not to dance
at all, but when we iii.___________ the scene, we iv. __________ into it.
(i) (A) has been waiting (B) was waiting (C) is waiting (D) had been waiting
(ii) (A) decided (B) had decided (C) is deciding (D) will be decided
(iii) (A) reached (B) reaches (C) is reaching (D) will be reaching
(iv) (A) drew (B) draws (C) were drawn (D) is drawing
5. Rearrange the following words or phrases to make meaningful sentences (3)
(i) to / her / all / friends / birthday / next week / party / she is inviting
(ii) architecture / I would / like to / books / on / look at / indian / the
(iii) than / no / mist / sooner / did / the / the / disappeared / sun / rise
6. Answer any one of the following : (3)
(A) You are Harish/Harshita of 12, Seva Nagar, Pune. You want to sell your flat as you are shifting to
another city for work. Draft a suitable advertisement in not more than 50 words to be published in The
Pune Times under the classified columns.

OR
(B) Principal, Sunrise Global School, Agra requires a receptionist for her school. Draft a suitable
advertisement in about 50 words to be published in the classified columns of a national newspaper
giving all the necessary details of qualifications and experience required in the receptionist.

7. Answer any one of the following in about 50 words (3)

(A) As the President of Leo Club of Temple Town, prepare a poster on behalf of Lions Club and Leo
Club for ‘Diwali Mela’ to be held at Nehru Stadium, mentioning some of the attractions.

OR
(B) Prepare a graceful poster for the Inter-School Poetic Recitation contest that the Hindi Sahitya Sabha
of your school is organising to celebrate the birthday of Munshi Prem Chand in the classified columns
of a national newspaper giving all the necessary details of qualifications and experience required in the
receptionist.
8. Answer any one of the following in about 120 - 150 words . (5x1=5)
(A) You are Mukesh/Mukta of Saket Vihar, Delhi. You have been reading the news items on Child labour
and violence against children. Write a speech in 120-150 words to be given in the morning assembly,
stressing the need of keeping a close vigil on the anti-social elements of the locality and taking care of
young children of the area so that they don’t fall prey to bad characters.
OR
(B) Children usually come to school without taking breakfast in the morning and eat junk food from the
school canteen. This habit affects adversely the performance of students in academics and sports.
Write a speech in 150-200 words to be given in your school assembly about ‘How Health is affected by
Lifestyle’.

9. Answer any one of the following in about 120 - 150 words . (5x1=5)
(A) You are Mukul / Mahima of Alps Public School. Your school has organized a debate on “Social Media
and its Effects on tender minds” and you will be participating in your school. Prepare your views
against or in favour of the motion. (120 – 150 words)
OR
(B) You are Mukul / Mahima of Alps Public School. Your school has organized a debate on “Can stricter
laws make India corruption free?” and you will be participating in your school. Prepare your views
against or in favour of the motion. (120 – 150 words)
 SECTION-C (LITERATURE)
10. Read the extract given below and answer the questions by choosing the best possible answer.
Attempt any one extract out of two. (1x3=3)
I am the Poem of the Earth, said the voice of the rain,
Eternal I rise impalpable out of the land and the bottomless sea,
(i) Who is called as ‘Poem of Earth ‘?
(a) Earth (b) Water (c) Wind (d) Rain
(ii) What is the poetic device used in ‘bottomless sea’?
(a) Metaphor (b) Oxymoron (c) Antithesis (d) Hyperbole
(iii) What is the meaning of the word ‘impalpable ‘?
(a) Clear (b) Comprehensible (c) Intangible (d) Obvious
OR
When did my childhood go?
Was it the time I realised that adults were not
All they seemed to be,
(i) Who is the poet of these lines?
(a) Shirley Toulson (b) Ted Hughes (c) Walt Whitman (d) Markus Natten
(ii) According to the poet how do adults behave?
(a) Adults around him practice what they preached
(b) Adults around him did not practice what they preached
(c) Adults around him were totally indifferent
(d) Adults around him are not understable
(iii) The poet found adults
(a) Unpredictable (b) Vulnerable (c) Hypocrite (d) All of the above
11. Read the passage given below and choose the best possible answer. Attempt any one out of two. (1x3=3)
“The mummy is in very bad condition because of what Carter did in the 1920s,”
said Zahi Hawass, Secretary General of Egypt’s Supreme Council of
Antiquities,as he leaned over the body for along first look.
(i) Who was Carter?
(a) American scientist
(b) British archaeologist
(c) Egyptian historian
(d) Former Secretary General of Supreme Council of Antiquities
(ii) What did Carter do in 1920s?
(a) Revived King Tut
(b) Discovered King Tut’s tomb
(c) Wrote a book on King Tut
(d) Stole Antiquities from King Tut ‘s tomb
(iii) Which of these was found in King Tut’s tomb?
(a) Razor (b) Smartphone (c) Audio player (d) Temple
OR
Read the passage given below and answer the questions by choosing the best possible answer.
“About 2 p.m., I went on deck and asked Larry to steer a course of 185 degrees. If we were lucky, I told
him with a conviction I did not feel , he could expect to see the island at about 5 p.m. Then with a heavy
heart, I went below, climbed on my bunk and amazingly, dozed off. When I woke it was 6 p.m. , and
 growing dark. I knew we must have missed the island, and with the sail we had left, we couldn’t hope
to beat back into the westerly winds.”
(i) Who is Larry?
(a) The narrator (b) The narrator’s son (c) The crewman (d) The captain of the ship
(ii) Which island were they expecting to reach?
(a) Amsterdam (b) Cape of Good Hope (c) Ile Amsterdam (d) Cape of Indiana
(iii) What had happened in the next lines?
(a) They got caught in the winds (b) They were attacked by whales
(c) They spotted an island (d) Their ship got repaired magically
12. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow. Attempt any one out of two. ( 1x4)
Mum- you’ll have to iron my yellow silk. I must wear it tonight. [ She now sees what
is happening, and is astounded] What are you doing?[ She moves down left centre]
(i) Who is the speaker?
(a)Mrs. Pearson (b) Mrs. Fitzgerald (c) Doris (d) Cyril
(ii) What was the other person doing?
(a) Drinking (b) Smoking (c) Sleeping (d)Eating
(iii) Why was the other person behaving abnormally?
(a) Had become indifferent to others (b) Had become careless
(c) Had got her personality switched (d) Had got plastic surgery done.
(iv) What did the speaker think had happened to the mother?
(a) Had lost her memory (b) Was pretending to teach them a lesson
(c) Had been transformed by magic (d) Hit her head with something

OR
But gradually everything became more normal again. Bread was getting to be a lighter colour, there
was a bed you could sleep in unthreatened, a room with a view you were more used to glancing at each
day. And one day I noticed I was curious about all the possessions that must still be at that address.
(i) What abnormal had happened in the past?
(a) Earthquake (b) Flood (c) War (d) Drought
(ii) Which of these was included in the ‘the possessions ‘?
(a) Cutlery (b) Bicycle (c) Cart (d) Garage
(iii) How had the narrator got that ‘ address’?
(a) From her house broker (b) From her common friend
(c) From one of her relatives (d) From her mother
(iv) What had happened to the author’s mother?
(a) Hospitalized (b) Died (c) Arrested (d) Became mad

13. Write the answers in 50- 60 words. Attempt any two out of four given below. (3x2=6)
(a) Why did the grandmother hate music? (The Portrait of a Lady)
(b) Why did the narrator call Ile Amsterdam the most beautiful island in the world?
(We are not Afraid to die….)
(b) What problem did Carter face when he reached the mummy? How did he find a way out?
(Discovering Tut)
(d) Why does the poet feel that Heaven and Hell are not real places? (Childhood)
14. Answer any one of the following question in about 50-60 words: (3x1=3)
(A) How do Mrs. Fitzgerald and Mrs.Pearson exchange personalities and what for?
(B) How did Mrs. Dorling and the narrator meet each other?

15. Write the answer in 120- 150 words. Attempt any one out of two given below. (6x1=6)
What message does, “ We’re not afraid to die- if we can all be together “ give?
OR
Who was King Tut? What happened when his mummy was being CT scanned? What did
the tourists do?

16. Write the answer in 120 – 150 words. Attempt any one out of two given below. (6x1=6)
What is the main idea of the play ’Mother’s day’? Has it been brought out effectively by the writer ?
Discuss.
OR
How did the narrator reach the conclusion that his cousin Mourad had stolen the horse? Why did
he refuse to believe that Mourad could be a thief?
---xxx----
 
CHINMAYA VIDYALAYA, B. S. CITY
(CBSE NEW GENERATION SCHOOL)
HALF YEARLY EXAM
(SESSION-2022-23)
CLASS-11 TIME–3 Hrs.
SUBJECT-POLTICAL SCIENCE F.M.-80
DATE : 05/12/2022
 General Instructions:
I) All questions are compulsory.
II) Q. N. 1-12 are of one mark each.
III) Q. N. 13-18 are of 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 50 words each.
IV) Q. N.19-23 are of 4 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
V) Q. N. 24-26 are passage, cartoon and map-based questions. Answer accordingly.
VI) Q. N. 27-30 are of 6 marks each. Answers to these questions should not exceed 170 words.

PART-A (12 MARKS)

1. Directive Principles of State policy are mentioned in which section of Indian Constitution?
2. When was the Constitution of India implemented?
3. Who has the power to recognise or dismiss a political party?
4. What is the tenure of the member of the election commission?
5. Aung San Su Kyi is related to which country?
6. Who wrote 'On liberty'?
7. Who appoints the members of the Rajya Sabha?
8. Who is the speaker of the Rajya Sabha?
9. Write any one supporter of the idea of equality for all.
10. Name the two aspects of equality.
11. Who said the following lines:
"A just society is that society in which ascending sense of reverence and descending sense of
contempt’s is dissolved into the creation of a compassionate society."
12. Which Article of the Indian Constitution banned untouchability.

PART-B (12 MARKS)

13. Mention any two basic structures of the Indian Constitution.
14. What do you understand by direct and indirect election system.
15. Explain two main features of positive liberty?
16. What is a Government Bill?
17. What is the need to study Political Theory?
18. Write any two importance of equality.
PART-C (20 MARKS)
19. Explain any four major reasons of inequality in India .
20. What are the four main ideals enshrined in the preamble to the Indian Constitution?
21. What do you understand by Social Justice? Explain Distributive justice of John Rawls.
22. What are the main differences between First past the Post system and proportional representation
system?
23. List the main functions of Rajya Sabha? Any four.
PART-D (12 MARKS)
24. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the following questions: Freedom I mean all round
freedom, i.e., freedom for the individual and for all classes. This freedom implies not only emancipation
from political bondage but also equal distribution of wealth, abolition of caste barriers and social iniquities
and destruction of communalism and religious intolerance. This is an ideal which may appear Utopian to
hard headed men and women, but this ideal alone can appease the hunger in the soul.
(a) How is freedom from communalism and religious in tolerant possible? (1)
(b) It complete freedom necessary for the total development of man? (1)
(c) Did Subhash Chandra Bose's ideal were completed after independence? How? (2)

25. In the given political outline map of India Identify the four states which have two houses and mention in
your answer sheet.

26. Observe the cartoon given below and answer the following:

A. Equality does not mean literal equality. Explain. (2)

B. What kind of policies can be pursued to overcome inequality? (1)
C. What is the theme of the cartoon? (1)
PART-D (24 MARKS)
27. What are the features of Indian Constitution? Explain any six .
28. What are the demerits of the Indian Electoral System? Suggest recommendations for improving the
election system in India?(3+3)
29. What is meant by freedom of expression? What in your view would be reasonable restrictions on this
freedom? Give examples.
30. What are the three ways to promote equality? Explain. (3+3+3)

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 
CHINMAYA VIDYALAYA, B. S. CITY
(CBSE NEW GENERATION SCHOOL)
HALF YEARLY EXAM
(SESSION-2022-23)
CLASS-11 TIME–1 Hr.
SUBJECT-MUSIC F.M.-30
DATE : 03/12/2022
 All questions are to be answered.
1. परिभाषा लिखिए:- [3]

a) जाति b) िाग c) स्वर्ाालिका

2. िाग भीर्पिासी के वादी स्वि क्या है ?

3. िाग भीर्पिासी के स्थाई अंश का स्विलिपप लिखिए। [3]

4. िाग भीर्पिासी का गायन सर्य क्या है [3]

5. िाग जौनपिु ी का थाट क्या है ? [3]

6. िाग जौनपिु ी का वादी स्वि क्या है ? [3]

7. पं पव एन भाििण्डे जी का जीवनी लिखिए । [3]

8. िीनिाि का शास्रीय परिचय लिखिए । [3]

9. चौिाि की िािलिपप एक्गुण िथा दग

ु ुन िय लिखिए। [3]

10. प्राचीनकाि र्ें ध्रप

ु द गायक को क्या कहा जािा था ? [3]

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 
CHINMAYA VIDYALAYA, B. S. CITY
(CBSE NEW GENERATION SCHOOL)
HALF YEARLY EXAM
(SESSION-2022-23)
CLASS-11 TIME–3 Hrs
SUBJECT-PHYSICAL EDUCATION F.M.-70
DATE : 03/12/2022
 All questions are to be answered.

MCQ 1 X 20 = 20

1. The process of interpreting the collected data to measure an analysis for a setting a concept is.....
A. Test B. Measurement C. Evaluation D. None of the above
2. The height of a person is measured in....
A. Stadiometer B. Spirometer C. sphygmomanometer D. Skinfold calliper
3. In case of male if the hip West ratio is more than_______ he is at health risk.
A. 0.85 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
4. Physiotherapy is related with which professional sector....
A. Teaching sector B. Health related sector
C. Coaching sector D. Mass media sector
5. Which of these is not related to mental development?
A. Active life B. Decision making C. Reasoning power D. Developing memory
6. How many sports disciplines are there in the khelo India school program?
A. 12 B. 16 C. 15 D. 20
7. Which of the following is aim of physical education?
A. Developing organic system of the body
B. Developing neuro muscular coordination or skill
C. Developing a desirable social attitudes and conduct
D. All of the above
8. Which one is not the core value of Olympism?
A. Excellence B. Friendship C. Respect D. Kindness
9. The ancient Olympic games were organise as a festival in the honour of...
A. Artemis B. Zeus C. Poseidon D. Apollo
10. IOC was formed in...
A. 1892 B. 1893 C. 1894 D. 1895
11. Olympic flag was first hoisted in the year...
A. 1924 B. 1920 C. 1916 D. 1928
12. The condition in which the brain has difficulty in receiving and responding to the information receipt
through the senses.
A. Autism B. ODD
C. Sensory processing disorder D. obsessive Compulsive Disorder
13. Argue with adults, refuse to obey and obtain are the symptoms of ....
A. Oppositional defiant disorder B. Obsessive compulsive disorder
C. Autism D. Sensory processing disorder
14. Which of these offers alternative physical education to students who cannot participate in the
mainstream physical education program?
A. Adaptive Physical education B. Inclusive education
C. Open education D. None of these
15. Ability of muscle to overcome resistance is called...
A. Strength B. Endurance
C. Speed D. Co coordinative ability
16. The ability to maintain maximum speed when in motion for a maximum possible duration or distance is
called....
A. Movement speed B. Acceleration ability
C. Reaction ability D. Locomotor ability
17. Yubi- Lakpi is a traditional game played in ...
A. Manipur B. Mizoram C. Assam D. Himachal Pradesh
18. Through 'Dhouti' Kriyas:
A. Stomach is cleansed B. Food pipe is cleansed
C. Neither (a) nor (b) D. Both (a) and (b)
19. Which of these means non stealing?
A. Asteya B. Aparigrah C. Brahmacharya D. Ahimsa
20. Pratyahar means.....
A. Posture B. Welfare of society C. Sense withdrawal D. Realization

VERY SHORT QUESTION 2 X 6 = 12

21. What is waist hip ratio?
22. What do you mean by physical education?
23. Who started the first modern Olympic games, when and where?
24. What do you mean by adaptive physical education?
25. Define test and measurement.
26. What are the eight elements of yoga?

SHORT QUESTION 3 X 6 = 18
27. Write the importance of test, measurement and evaluation in the field of physical education.
28. Write a short note on khelo India program.
29. What is the Olympic Motto in what does it stands for?
30. Explain the concept of Disorder.
31. Write the names of eight Limbs or elements of Yoga as described by Maharishi Patanjali.
32. Explain the concept of wellness.

LONG QUESTION 4 X 5 = 20
33. Write the procedure of calculating body marks index.
34. What are the objectives of Olympic movement?
35. How does a special educator helps the children with special need?
36. What do you mean by coordinative ability? Briefly explain types of coordinative ability.
37. Discuss briefly the health benefits of meditation.

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 
CHINMAYA VIDYALAYA, B. S. CITY
(CBSE NEW GENERATION SCHOOL)
HALF YEARLY EXAM
(SESSION-2022-23)
CLASS-11 TIME–3 Hrs.
SUBJECT-BUSINESS STUDIES F.M.-80
DATE : 05/12/2022
General Instructions:
1. This question paper contains 34 questions.
2. Marks are indicated against each question.
3. Answers should be brief and to the point.
4. Answers to the questions carrying 3 marks may be from 50 to 75 words.
5. Answers to the questions carrying 4 marks may be about 150 words.
6. Answers to the questions carrying 6 marks may be about 200 words.
7. Attempt all parts of the questions together.

1. Vaishali had taken a Car Insurance Policy of ₹ 3,00,000 from Tata AIG Insurance. Her car was stolen. After
completing all the legal formalities, Tata AIG paid the full policy amount to her. However, after 1 year,
the Police recovered the stolen car. Now, Vaishali wants to sell the car to realise money from it, while
Tata AIG claims to have a right over it. Identify and state the principle of insurance which is applicable
in the given case. Also, state who has the right over the Car. [1]
2. In case of fire insurance, when should insured have an insuarable interest in the property insured? [1]
3. Mention two types of accounts through which banks accept deposits from public. [1]
4. Quikr and OLX are exmples of which of the following catagory of e business? [1]
A) B 2 B B) B 2 C C) C 2 C D) Intra B
5. Give two examples of intra B transactions or interaction. [1]
6. Complaint lodged by a customer is example of [1]
A) B 2 B B) B 2 C C) C 2 C D) Intra B
7. This auxiliary to trade help in creating time utility. [1]
A) Advertisement B) insurance C) transportation D) warehousing
8. Business risk is not likely to arise due to [1]
(a) Changes in govt. policy
(b) Good management
(c) Employee dishonesty
(d) Power failure
9. Objectives of business does not include: [1]
(a) Higher returns to investors
(b) Employee satisfaction
(c) Maximum price from customers
(d) Market standing
10. Briefly explain the position of promoter in a company. [1]
11. What do you mean by minimum subscription in context to capital subscription by a public company? [1]
12. Differentiate between Joint Stock Company and Cooperative Society on the basis of Professional
Management. [1]
13. Explain the concept of mutual agency in partnership. [1]
14. If a Hindu Undivided Family business fails and it doesnot have sufficient funds to pay its creditors,
then creditors can recover their dues from Karta or Co-parceners? Give reason. [1]
15. Statutory Corporations are managed and controlled by ________ appointed by the _______. [1]
16. Match the following: [1]
A) Statutory Corporation i) Steel Authority of India Ltd
B) Departmental Undertaking ii) Post and Telegraph
C) Government Company iii) Food Corporation of India
17. Assertion(A) - Departmental Undertakings are able to take benefits of business opportunities. [1]
Reason(R) - Departmental Undertakings do not undertake risky ventures due to bureaucrat's over
cautious and conservative approach.
A) Both (A) and (R) are correct
B) Both (A) and (R) are not correct
C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
18. Assertion (A) - Legal responsibility is broader than social responsibility. [1]
Reason (R) - Legal responsibility may be fulfilled by mere compliance with law, while social
responsibility involves voluntary efforts of business for the benefit of society.
A) Both (A) and (R) are correct
B) Both (A) and (R) are not correct
C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
19. Business is responsible to provide accurate and complete financial position of the company. This
responsibility is towards: [1]
A) Consumer
B) Worker
C) Shareholders
D) Government
20. State any two responsibilities of a business towards Government. [1]
21. Explain any three reasons in favour of assuming social responsibility. [3]
22. Differentiate between e business and traditional business using appropriate basis. [3]
23. Three friends Amar, Akbar and Anthony completed their studies and planned to join their father's
business. Amar got engaged in his sugarcane farm, Akbar joined his father's sugar mill and Anthony
joined the transport business of his father. Identify the types and subtypes of industries joined by these
three in the given case. [3]
24. The telecom services have been recognized world-over as an important tool for socio economic
development for a nation and hence telecom infrastructure is treated as a crucial factor to realise the
socio-economic objectives in India. Accordingly, the Department of Telecom has been formulating
developmental policies for the accelerated growth of the telecommunication services. The department
comes under the Ministry of Communications and is headed by a cabinet-level minister. It is financed
by the government through allocation of funds in the Annual General Budget of Parliament. State
merits of this type of public sector enterprise. [3]
25. Which form of business organization in public sector is not answerable directly to the Parliament even
though it financed by the government? Explain it's three features. [4]
26. Intex Ltd. is a well known company engaged in manufacturing of packed frozen ready-to-eat items. The
company is committed to take proper precautions against malpractices like adulteration, poor quality
and misleading advertising. The company not only follow the rules and regulations of the country, it
also pays the due amount of taxes regularly. The company has created proper and safe working
conditions. Intex Ltd. maintains proper financial records and aims to ensure efficient utlisation of funds.
The company has taken all reasonable steps to protect the natural environment and avoid any type of
pollution. By quoting lines from the given paragraph, identify the different interest groups towards
which the company is fulfilling its social responsibilities. [4]
27. Explain various services offered by Banks to attract customers. [4]
28. Govind is a manufacturer of readymade kids garments. He sells his products through various dealers
across the country. However his sales are decreasing over the years. Recently his wife gifted him a
jacket which she had ordered through Myntra, an online shopping site. This gave Govind an idea to
start selling his products online. State the benefits that Govind can get through e business. [4]
29. Briefly explain first four steps required for raising funds from public by a Joint Stock Company. [4]
30. Rajeev, Brijesh and Mukesh mutually decided to start a partnership business of manufacturing kids
garments. They also decided that Mukesh's association with the firm will not be revealed to the general
public. Brijesh will take active part in carrying out business of the firm, while Rajeev will not take part
in the day-to-day activities of the business. Identify and explain the various types of partners which are
being highlighted in the given case. [4]
31. Which principle of insurance is highlighted in the following statements? [6]
(i) The insurer and the insured should disclose all material facts related to the contract.
(ii) Insurer is not liable for any uninsured causes or perils.
(iii) Insured must have some economic interest in the subject matter of insurance contract.
(iv) After compensating the loss, insurer gets all the rights with respect to the subject-matter insured.
(v) Insured should take reasonable steps to minimise the loss.
(vi) Insured is entitled to recover the loss suffered by him, up to the limit of policy amount.
32. Earning profit is the most objective of a business but it can not be the only objective. Explain. [6]
33. Compare Sole Proprietorship, Partnership and Joint Stock Company on the following basis: [6]
a) Liability
b) Continuity
c) Transfer of ownership
d) Members
34. Aditya is promoting a company. Before the company is formed, he enters into a contract with DLF for
purchase of land and also agrees to pay ₹10 crores within a period of 2 months. The company was
formed within 1 month. On the basis of the facts, answer the following questions: [6]
(i) Which type of contract is entered by Aditya?
(ii) Is the contract legally binding on the company?
(iii) Can DLF Ltd. hold Aditya liable for payment of money?
(iv) What can the company do to prevent Aditya from such a situation?

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 
CHINMAYA VIDYALAYA, B.S. CITY
(CBSE NEW GENERATION SCHOOL)
HALF YEARLY EXAM
(SESSION-2022-23)
CLASS-11 TIME–3 Hrs
SUBJECT-PHYSICS F.M.-70
DATE : 28/11/2022
 All questions are to be answer
 Marks allocated to each question is written at its Right-Hand Side.
1. If the angle between the vectors 𝐴⃗ and 𝐵 ⃗⃗ is θ, the value of the product (𝐵⃗⃗ X 𝐴⃗). 𝐴⃗ is equal to
2
(A) BA sinθ 2
(B) BA cosθ 2
(C) BA sinθ cosθ (D) zero
2. Taking into account of significant figures, what is the value of 9.99 m – 0.0099 m?
(A) 9.98 m (B) 9.9 m (C) 9.980 m (D) 9.9801 m
𝐴
3. What are the dimensions of 𝐵 in the relation , where F=𝐴√𝑥 + 𝐵𝑡 2 is the force, x is the distance and t
is time.
(A) [𝑀𝐿2 𝑇 −2 ] (B) [𝐿−1/2 𝑇 2 ] (C) [𝐿1/2 𝑇 −1 ] (D) [𝐿𝑇 −2 ]
4. The acceleration of a particle is increasing linearly with time as bt. The particle starts from origin with
an initial velocity vo. The distance travelled by the particle in time t will be
1 1 1 1
(A) 𝑣𝑜 + 3 𝑏𝑡 2 (B) 𝑣𝑜 + 2 𝑏𝑡 2 (C) 𝑣𝑜 + 6 𝑏𝑡 3 (D) 𝑣𝑜 + 3 𝑏𝑡 3
5. A car is moving along a straight road with a uniform acceleration. It passes through two points P and
Q separated by a distance with velocity 30 km/h and 40 km/h respectively. The velocity of the car
midway between P and Q is
(A) 33.3 km/h (B) 20 √2km/h (C) 25 √2km/h (D) 35 km/h
6. For angle of projection of a projectile at angle (45° − 𝜃) and (45° + 𝜃), the horizontal range
described by the projectile are in the ratio of
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 2 : 3 (D) 1 : 2
7. The speed of a swimmer in still water is 20 m/s. The speed of river water is 10 m/s and is flowing due
east. If he is standing on the south bank and wishes to cross the river along the shortest path, the
angle at which he should make his strokes w.r.t. north is given by
(A) 0o (B) 60o West (C) 45o West (D) 30o West
8. The mass of the lift is 2000 kg. When tension in the cable is 28000 N, then its acceleration is
(A) 14 ms-2 upwards (B) 30 ms-2 downwards (C) 4 ms-2 upwards (D) 4 ms-2 downwards
9. A mass M is placed on a very smooth wedge resting on a surface without friction. Once the mass is
released, the acceleration to be given to the wedge so that M remains at rest is a, where

(A) a=g tanθ towards left (B) a=g tanθ towards right
(C) a=g sinθ towards left (D) a=g cosθ towards right
10. Three identical blocks of masses m=2 kg are drawn by a force 10.2 N on a frictionless surface. What is
the tension (in N) in the string between the blocks B and C?

(A) 9.2 (B) 8 (C) 3.4 (D) 9.8

11. A block has been placed on an inclined plane with the slope θ, block slides down the plane at constant
speed. The coefficient of kinetic friction is equal to
(A) sin θ (B) cos θ (C) g (D) tan θ
12. A mass of 0.5 kg moving with a speed of 1.5 m/s on a horizontal smooth surface, collides with a nearly
weightless spring of force constant k=50 N/m. The maximum compression of the spring would be
(A) 0.15 m (B) 0.12 m (C) 1.5 m (D) 0.5 m
13. If the radii of circular paths of two particles of same masses are in the ratio 6:8 , then, in order to have
the same centripetal force, their velocities should be in the ratio of
(A) √3 : 4 (B) 4 : √3 (C) 2 : √3 (D) √3 ∶ 2
14. The body of mass 50 kg is at rest. The work done to accelerate it by 20 m/s in 10 s is
(A) 103 J (B) 104 J (C) 2 X 103J (D) 4 X 104J
15. The position dependent force F=10 – 2x + 3x2 newton acts on a small body of mass 2 kg and displaces
it from x=0 and x=5 m. The work done in joule is
(A) 135 (B) 270 (C) 35 (D) 70
16. The decrease in the potential energy of a ball of mass 20 kg, which falls from a height of 50 cm is
(A) 968 J (B) 98 J (C) 1980 J (D) None of these
17. Assertion (A): The driver in a vehicle moving with a constant speed on a straight road is an inertial
frame of reference.
Reason (R): A reference frame in which Newton's laws of motion are applicable is non-inertial.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A and R are false
18. Statement -1: Two particles moving in the same direction do not lose all their energy in a completely
inelastic collision.
Statement -2: Principle of conservation of momentum holds true for all kinds of collisions.
(A) Statement -1 is true, statement -2 is true, and statement-2 is correct explanation of statement-
1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true, but statement -2 is not a correct explanation of
statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, but statement -2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, but statement-2 is true.
19. Draw a velocity-time graph of a particle dropped from a height h strikes the ground and reaches the
same height in vacuum.
20. The relation between time t and distance x is t=ax2+bx where a and b are constants. Express the
instantaneous acceleration in terms of instantaneous velocity.
21. A man can swim with a speed of 4 km/h in still water. He crosses a river 1 km wide that flows steadily
at 3 km/h. If he makes his strokes normal to the river current, how far down the river does he go
when he reaches the other bank?
22. Rain is falling vertically with a speed of 30ms−1. A woman rides a bicycle with a speed of 10ms−1 in the
north to south direction. What is the relative velocity of rain with respect to the woman? What is the
direction in which she should hold her umbrella?
23. A block of mass 25 kg is raised by a 50 kg man in two different ways as shown in the figure. What is
the action on the floor by the man in the two cases? If the floor yields to a normal force of 700 N,
which mode should the man adopt to lift the block without the floor yielding?
24. The rear side of a truck is open and a box of 40 kg mass is placed 5 m away from the open end as
shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction between the box and the surface below it is 0.15. On a
straight road, the truck starts from rest and accelerates with 2ms−2. Find the distance (in m) travelled
by truck by the time box falls from the truck. (Ignore the size of the box)

25. Prove the work-energy theorem for a variable force.

26. Two vectors 𝐴⃗ and 𝐵 ⃗⃗ are inclined to each other at an angle θ. Using parallelogram law of vector
addition, find the magnitude and direction of their resultant. Discuss the special cases, when the
angle is acute, obtuse and 90o.
27. Calculate the dimensions of force and impulse taking velocity, density and frequency as basic
quantities.
28. A body tied to one end of a string is made to revolve in a vertical circle. Derive the expression for the
tension in the string at the bottom and minimum velocity at the lowest point so that it is just able to
loop the loop and minimum velocity at the top in that situation.
29. Define elastic collision. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 moving with velocity u1 and u2 undergoes
one dimensional elastic collision. Determine their velocities after the collision.
30. Find an expression for the potential energy of an elastic stretched spring. Draw a plot of spring force
versus displacement and also draw total mechanical energy (showing potential and kinetic
energy) versus displacement.
31. A particle is projected horizontally with a velocity u. Show that its trajectory is parabolic. Obtain
expressions for
(A) time of flight
(B) maximum height
(C) horizontal range
(D) velocity at any instant.
OR
A particle is projected over a triangle from one end of a horizontal base and grazing the vertex falls on
the other end of the base. If α and β be the base angles and θ is the angle of projection, prove that
tanθ=tanα+tanβ.
32. (i) Define angle of friction and angle of repose. Deduce the relation between them.
(ii) Draw a graph between friction force and applied force and show that static friction force is self-
adjusting force.
 (iii) Show that Newton’s first law and third law of motion are contained in the second law of motion.
OR
A man of mass 70 kg stands on a weighing scale in a lift which is moving
(A) upwards with a uniform speed of 10 ms−1,
(B) downwards with a uniform acceleration of 5 ms−2,
(C) upwards with a uniform acceleration of 5 ms−2.
What would be the readings on the scale in each case?
What would be the reading if the lift mechanism failed and it came down down freely under gravity?
33. (i) State carefully if the following quantities are positive or negative:
(A) work done by a man in lifting a bucket out of a well by means of a rope tied to the bucket.
(B) work done by gravitational force in the above case,
(C) work done by friction on a body sliding down an inclined plane,
(D) work done by an applied force on a body moving on a rough horizontal plane with uniform
velocity,
(E) work done by the resistive force of air on a vibrating pendulum in bringing it to rest.
(ii) Write the correct alternative(s) as answer:
(A) When a conservative force does positive work on a body, the potential energy of the
body increases/decreases/remains unaltered.
(B) Work done by a body against friction always results in a loss of its kinetic/potential energy.
(C) The rate of change of total momentum of a many-particle system is proportional to the
external force/sum of the internal forces on the system.
(D) In an inelastic collision of two bodies, the quantities which do not change after the collision
are the total kinetic energy/total linear momentum/total energy of the system of two bodies.
OR
A bullet of mass 0.012 kg and horizontal speed 70 ms−1 strikes a block of wood of mass 0.4 kg and
instantly comes to rest with respect to the block. The block is suspended from the ceiling by means of
thin wires. Calculate the height to which the block rises. Also, estimate the amount of heat produced
in the block.
34. Case Study I
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions
When an object is in motion, its position changes with time. So, the quantity that describes how fast
is the position changing w.r.t. time and in what direction is given by average velocity. It is defined as
the change in position or displacement (Δx) divided by the time interval (Δt) in which that
displacement occurs. However, the quantity used to describe the rate of motion over the actual path,
is average speed. It defined as the total distance travelled by the object divided by the total time
taken. (1 mark + 1 Mark + 2 Marks)
(A) Draw a path of a moving particle (on x-y axis) and denote initial and final points such that
direction of average velocity between those two points is same as direction of instantaneous
velocity at the final point.
(B) Under what condition average speed is equal to magnitude of average velocity.
(C) A 250 m long train is moving with a uniform velocity of 45 km/h. Find the time taken by the
train to cross a bridge of length 750 m.
35. Case Study II
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions
Banking of roads can be defined as the process of raising the edges of the curved road above the
inner edge to provide the necessary centripetal force for the vehicles to take a safe turn. While
studying the banking of roads, there are certain terminologies used in the banking of roads. One of
the most important terminologies is the angle of banking.
The angle of banking is the angle at which the vehicle inclines. We can find the angle of banking by
𝑣2
using the following expression, 𝜃 = 𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 (𝑅𝑔)

Where, θ = Angle of banking, R = Radius, v = Velocity

Another useful terminology is banked turn. It is the turn or change of direction in which the vehicle
inclines toward the inside.
Roads are more often banked for the average speed of the vehicles passing over them. Nevertheless,
if the velocity of a vehicle is lesser or more than this, the self-adjusting state of friction will operate
between the tyre and road, and the vehicle will not skid. (1 mark + 1 Mark + 2 Marks)
(A) On what factors the maximum velocity of a vehicle depends while moving on a banked road
around a turn.
(B) Name the force which is acting as a centripetal force on a vehicle moving a horizontal road
having a turn.
(C) A body moves along a horizontal circular path of radius 5 m. The coefficient of friction between
the surface of the path and body is 0.5. What is the angular velocity, in rad s−1 with which the
body should move so that it does not leave the path is (g=10m/s2).

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 
CHINMAYA VIDYALAYA, B. S. CITY
(CBSE NEW GENERATION SCHOOL)
HALF YEARLY EXAM
(SESSION-2022-23)
CLASS-11 TIME–3 Hrs
SUBJECT-ECONOMICS F.M.-80
DATE : 25/11/2022
 All questions are to be answered.
 Marks allocated to each question is written at its Right-Hand Side.
STATISTICS
1. In random sampling: [1]
(a) Each element has equal chance of being selected (b) Sample is always full of bias
(c) Cost involved is very less (d) Cost involved is high.

2. Define Direct Personal investigation method of collecting Primary data. [1]

3. Histogram and ogive can be obtained on graph when the series is [1]
(a) individual series
(b) discrete series
(c) continuous series
(d) none of the above
4. State whether the following statement are true or false. [1]
'Histograms can be drawn for both, continuous series and discrete series'
5. State whether the following statement is true or false- [1]
“as a science the statistical method is a part of the general scientific methods and is based on the
same fundamental ideas and processes.”
6. Out of ‘census method’-and ‘sampling method’, which is suitable when production is homogeneous in
nature. [1]
7. The average daily wage of 50 workers is Rs. 3400. If each worker is given a hike of Rs.10 new mean
wage will be ................................. . [1]
8. The arithmetic mean of the observations, 9, 8, 27, 36 and 45 is
(a) 18 (b) 25 (c) 36 (d) none of these
9. In an exclusive series [1]
(a) both class limits are considered
(b) the upper limit is excluded
(c) both class limits are excluded
(d) the lower limit is excluded

10. Choose the correct option: [1]

Assertion: Organization of data means systematic arrangement of raw data so that it becomes very
logical to understand and convenient to analyse.
Reason: This is done to accomplish the objectives of classification.
a. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of reason.
c. Assertion is correct but reason is false.
d. Assertion is false but reason is correct.
11. Convert the following information into less than and more than series. [3]
Wages No. of persons
1000-2000 50
2000-3000 70
3000-4000 25
4000-5000 82
5000-6000 68
6000-7000 65

12. Explain how statistics is useful for Economic planning. [3]

13. Define presentation of data. Present the following data in sub-divided bar diagram- [4]

YEAR/STREAM SCIENCE HUMANITIES COMMERCE

2011 550 350 200
2012 650 450 300
2013 400 500 400
14. In 1990 out of total 2400 students in a college in a metropolitan city, 1800 were for graduation and the
rest for post graduation. Out of 1800 graduate students 600 were girls. However, in all there were 800
girls in the college. In 1995, the number of graduate students increased to 2000 out of which 700 were
girls but the number of PG students falls to 500 of which only 400 were boys. In 2005, out of 1000 girls,
800 were for graduation whereas total number of graduates were 2500. The number of boys and girls
in PG classes were equal. [4]
You are required to present the above information in tabular form and calculate the percentage
increase in number of graduate students in 2005 as compared to 1990.

15. Differentiate between Census method and Sample method of collecting statistical data. Define
Systematic and Stratified sampling. [2+2=4]

16. a. Differentiate between Bar diagram and Histogram. [2+4=6]

b. Draw a histogram and frequency polygon for the given data-

Daily wages No. of workers
450-550 5
550-650 10
650-750 19
750-850 11
850-950 3
950-1050 2
 17. Calculate Arithmetic Mean by step deviation method. Also find the Median. [3+3=6]

Marks No. of students

20-40 10
40-60 12
60-80 15
80-100 8
100-120 16
120-140 9

MICRO ECNOMIC THEORY

18. In the following questions two statements are given read the statements and choose the correct
alternatives. [1]
Statement 1 - When MU declines, TU increases at decreasing rate.
Statement 2- When TU is maximum, MU is zero..
a) both the statements are true
b) both the statements are false
c) Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false
d) Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true

19. When a consumer consumes two goods then his equilibrium is decided by the law of _______. [1]
a) diminishing marginal utility
b) Equi marginal utility
c) variable proportion
d) returns to scale

20. What is cardinal approach of measurement of utility? [1]

21. What is monotonic preferences? [1]

22. Fill in the blank- [1]
A …………. explains different possible combinations which a market offers to a consumer on a given
income and given prices.
23. Which of the following statement is correct ? [1]
a) PPC is always a straight line
b) Human wants are unlimited but resources to satisfy them are limited
c) Marginal opportunity cost of producing a good in terms of another good always decreases
d) None of these
24. What would you say about MP when AP >MP ? [1]
a) MP will rise b) MP will fall
c) MP will be maximum d) MP will fall but remain positive
25. Assertion (A)- Other things being equal, when the price of a product increases the demand of the
product falls. [1]
Reason (R)- When price of a commodity rises it means that commodity becomes cheaper than its
substitute, so demand of that commodity will fall.
a) both (A) & (R) both are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
b) both (A) & (R) both are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true but (R) is false
d) (A) is false but (R) is true
26. When price of inferior goods falls, what will be its impact of demand of that good? [1]

27. The price of hot – dogs increase by 22% and the quantity demanded falls by 25% this indicates that
demand for hot dogs is: [1]
(a) Elastic (b) Inelastic (c) Unitary elastic (d) Perfectly elastic

28. Differentiate between contraction in demand and decrease of demand. [3]

29. What does a Production Possibility Curve show? How is Production Possibility curve is affected when
resources are inefficiently employed in an economy? [3]

30. Explain the condition for consumer’s equilibrium in case of two commodities through marginal
utility approach? [4]
31. How does the following affect demand curve for a commodity, show with the help of diagram [4]
A. Increase in price of substitute goods.
B. price is expected to rise in future.

32. When elasticity of demand will said to be unitary elastic? If price of Mango increases from Rs. 50 per
kg to Rs. 60 per kg. If elasticity of demand is unitary elastic then what will be the new demand when
initial demand was 80 kg? [1+3=4]

33. Explain briefly the law of variable proportion and its different stages Use a diagram. [6]

34. Define indifference curve. Write its any two properties. Explain the condition of consumer's
equilibrium through indifference curve. [1+2+3=6]
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 
CHINMAYA VIDYALAYA, B. S. CITY
(CBSE NEW GENERATION SCHOOL)
HALF YEARLY EXAM
(SESSION-2022-23)
CLASS-11 TIME–3 Hrs.
SUBJECT-CHEMISTRY F.M.-70
DATE : 05/12/2022
General Instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully.
a) There are 35 questions in this question paper.
b) SECTION-A consists of 18 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
c) SECTION-B consists of 7 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
d) SECTION-C consists of 5 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
e) SECTION-D consists of 2 case-based questions carrying 4 marks each.
f) SECTION-E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
g) All questions are compulsory.
h) Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.

1. In the series ethane, ethylene and acetylene, the C-H bond energy is:
A. Same in all three compounds B. Greater in ethane
C. Greater in ethylene D. Greater in acetylene
2. What is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds in which a water molecule can participate?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
3. Which of the following is planar?
A. XeOF4 B. XeO3 C. XeO2F2 D. XeF4
4. Hybridisation on sulphur atom in SO2 and SO3 is:
A. sp3 B. sp2 C. sp2 & sp3 D. sp
5. Each period in the periodic table starts with a subshell of the new shell and end with:
A. Same subshell B. Different subshell of the same shell
C. The next higher shell D. p- subshell of the same shell
6. The elements which exhibit both vertical and horizontal similarities are:
A. Lanthanides B. Representative elements
C. Transition elements D. Typical elements
7. Pauling electronegativity scale is based on experimental value of:
A. Atomic radii B. Bond energies C. Bond length D. Electron affinity
8. What is the mass percent of carbon in carbon dioxide?
A. 0.034%. B. 27.27% C.3.4 %. D. 28.7
9. If the density of a solution is 3.12 g/mL, the mass of 1.5 mL solution in significant figures is
A. 4.7 g. B.4680× 10-3 g C. 4.680 g. D. 46.80 g.
10. If 500 ml of a 5 Molar solution is diluted to 1500 ml, what will be the molarity of the solution
obtained?
A. 1.5 M. B. 1.66 M. C. 0.017 M. D. 1.59 M.
11. Which shape is associated with the orbital designated by n=2, l=1?
A. Spherical. B. Tetrahedral C. Dumb-bell D. Pyramidal
12. Bohr's model of atom is not in agreement with
A. Line spectra of hydrogen atom B. Pauli's exclusion Principle
C. Planck's Quantum theory D. Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
13. If the energy of electron in H atom is given by expression, -13.6eV/n2, then the energy required to
excite the electron from ground state to second orbit is
A. 3.4eV B. 6.8eV C. 10.2eV D. 13.6eV
14. If r is the radius of first orbit, the radius of nth orbit of the H atom will be
A. rn2. B. rn. C. r/n D. r2n3
15. Enthalpy of formation of H2O(l), H2O(g) & H2O(s) are ∆𝐻1, ∆𝐻2, 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ∆𝐻3 respectively. Then
relation between them is
A. ∆𝐻3 > ∆𝐻1 > ∆𝐻2 B. ∆𝐻3 > ∆𝐻2 > ∆𝐻1
C. ∆𝐻2 > ∆𝐻1 > ∆𝐻3 D. ∆𝐻3 < ∆𝐻2 < ∆𝐻1
16. Which of the following is an intensive property?
A. Temperature B. q + w C. Volume D. All of these
17. A gas expands from 100 ml to 250 ml at constant pressure of 2 atm. Work done by the gas is:
A. 5 kJ B. 22J C. 30.4J D. 16J
18. At room temperature ethyl alcohol is oxidised into carbon dioxide and water then:
A. qp >qv B. qp < qv C. qp = qv D. Not definite
19. For H2O molecule dipole moment is not zero. Why?
20. In terms of period and group, where would you locate the element with Z= 114?
21. Calculate the volume at STP occupied by:
(A) 36 g of CO2. (B) 1021 molecules of oxygen
22. Write the electronic configuration of Cu2+ and Fe3+.
23. At a given temperature, the endothermic reaction A----->B proceeds almost to completion. Explain
the possibility of reaction. B--->A at low temperature.
24. What do you understand by bond pairs and lone pairs of electrons? Illustrate by giving one example
of each type.
25. For an isolated system, ∆U=0 .what will be ∆S? Explain with example.
26. Define electronegativity .How does it predict the polar or nonpolar nature of a covalent compound?
Explain with example.
27. a) What is meant by term - Electron gain enthalpy?
b) Among F and Cl which have a more negative electron gain enthalpy and why?
c) Electron gain enthalpy of noble gases is positive. why?
28. a. A compound contains 4.07% hydrogen, 24.27% carbon and 71.65% chlorine. its molar mass is 98.96
gram. What are its empirical and molecular formula?
b. Define Avogadro's law?
29. Electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 242 nm is just sufficient to ionise the sodium atom.
Calculate the ionisation energy of sodium in KJ/ mol.
30. State first law of thermodynamics. Write its mathematical expression. Use the equation to prove
qp=∆H and qv= ∆U.
31. About 118 elements are known which have been placed in 18 groups and 7 periods. The properties
such as atomic radius, ionization enthalpy, electron gain enthalpy etc. depends upon the electronic
configuration of the element. Metallic character increases in going down the group. The oxidizing
property increases on going across the period. The periodic table is further divided into four blocks
that are s- block, p- block, d- block and f- block elements. The name and symbol of elements which
atomic number is greater than 100 follows IUPAC rules.
Now answer the following questions:
a) What is the general electronic configuration of d-block elements?
b) Write the IUPAC name and symbol of an element having atomic number 105.
C) What is the correct order of the metallic character of the elements B, Al, Mg and K ?
d) Third period has 8 elements and not 18. why?
32. Mole is the basic SI unit. Volume of one mole of a gas at STP is 22.4 L. Atomic mass of most of the
elements is in fractions. It is due to the presence of isotopes. Molecular formula of a compound is
equal to n x empirical formula. The molecular mass of a compound is equal to 2 x V. D.
Now answer the following questions:
a. Define empirical formula by giving suitable examples?
b. Name the gas, if 5.4 L of this gas weighs 8 g at STP?
c. Give the examples of two important isotopes of Chlorine?
d. Calculate the no. of molecules present in 1 kg oxygen?
33. (a) Both BF3 and NF3 are covalent compounds but NF 3 is polar molecules whereas BF3 is non polar. Explain.
(b) What is hydrogen bond? Give its type and explain with examples.
34. Derive the following relations –
i) --∆G (at constant T, P) = useful work
ii) T∆S(total)= --∆G(system), Where symbols have their usual meanings?
35. a. Define photoelectric effect?
b. Write two drawbacks of Bohr's atomic model?
c. What is the maximum number of lines emitted when an electron belonging to H atom drops from
n=5 to ground state?
d. Calculate the uncertainty in the momentum of an electron if it is confined to a linear region of
length 1×10-10 m?
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 
CHINMAYA VIDYALAYA, B. S. CITY
(CBSE NEW GENERATION SCHOOL)
HALF YEARLY EXAM
(SESSION-2022-23)
CLASS-11 TIME–3 Hrs.
SUBJECT-CHEMISTRY F.M.-70
DATE : 05/12/2022
General Instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully.
a) There are 35 questions in this question paper.
b) SECTION-A consists of 18 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
c) SECTION-B consists of 7 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
d) SECTION-C consists of 5 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
e) SECTION-D consists of 2 case-based questions carrying 4 marks each.
f) SECTION-E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
g) All questions are compulsory.
h) Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.

1. In the series ethane, ethylene and acetylene, the C-H bond energy is:
A. Same in all three compounds B. Greater in ethane
C. Greater in ethylene D. Greater in acetylene
2. What is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds in which a water molecule can participate?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
3. Which of the following is planar?
A. XeOF4 B. XeO3 C. XeO2F2 D. XeF4
4. Hybridisation on sulphur atom in SO2 and SO3 is:
A. sp3 B. sp2 C. sp2 & sp3 D. sp
5. Each period in the periodic table starts with a subshell of the new shell and end with:
A. Same subshell B. Different subshell of the same shell
C. The next higher shell D. p- subshell of the same shell
6. The elements which exhibit both vertical and horizontal similarities are:
A. Lanthanides B. Representative elements
C. Transition elements D. Typical elements
7. Pauling electronegativity scale is based on experimental value of:
A. Atomic radii B. Bond energies C. Bond length D. Electron affinity
8. What is the mass percent of carbon in carbon dioxide?
A. 0.034%. B. 27.27% C.3.4 %. D. 28.7
9. If the density of a solution is 3.12 g/mL, the mass of 1.5 mL solution in significant figures is
A. 4.7 g. B.4680× 10-3 g C. 4.680 g. D. 46.80 g.
10. If 500 ml of a 5 Molar solution is diluted to 1500 ml, what will be the molarity of the solution
obtained?
A. 1.5 M. B. 1.66 M. C. 0.017 M. D. 1.59 M.
11. Which shape is associated with the orbital designated by n=2, l=1?
A. Spherical. B. Tetrahedral C. Dumb-bell D. Pyramidal
12. Bohr's model of atom is not in agreement with
A. Line spectra of hydrogen atom B. Pauli's exclusion Principle
C. Planck's Quantum theory D. Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
13. If the energy of electron in H atom is given by expression, -13.6eV/n2, then the energy required to
excite the electron from ground state to second orbit is
A. 3.4eV B. 6.8eV C. 10.2eV D. 13.6eV
14. If r is the radius of first orbit, the radius of nth orbit of the H atom will be
A. rn2. B. rn. C. r/n D. r2n3
15. Enthalpy of formation of H2O(l), H2O(g) & H2O(s) are ∆𝐻1, ∆𝐻2, 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ∆𝐻3 respectively. Then
relation between them is
A. ∆𝐻3 > ∆𝐻1 > ∆𝐻2 B. ∆𝐻3 > ∆𝐻2 > ∆𝐻1
C. ∆𝐻2 > ∆𝐻1 > ∆𝐻3 D. ∆𝐻3 < ∆𝐻2 < ∆𝐻1
16. Which of the following is an intensive property?
A. Temperature B. q + w C. Volume D. All of these
17. A gas expands from 100 ml to 250 ml at constant pressure of 2 atm. Work done by the gas is:
A. 5 kJ B. 22J C. 30.4J D. 16J
18. At room temperature ethyl alcohol is oxidised into carbon dioxide and water then:
A. qp >qv B. qp < qv C. qp = qv D. Not definite
19. For H2O molecule dipole moment is not zero. Why?
20. In terms of period and group, where would you locate the element with Z= 114?
21. Calculate the volume at STP occupied by:
(A) 36 g of CO2. (B) 1021 molecules of oxygen
22. Write the electronic configuration of Cu2+ and Fe3+.
23. At a given temperature, the endothermic reaction A----->B proceeds almost to completion. Explain
the possibility of reaction. B--->A at low temperature.
24. What do you understand by bond pairs and lone pairs of electrons? Illustrate by giving one example
of each type.
25. For an isolated system, ∆U=0 .what will be ∆S? Explain with example.
26. Define electronegativity .How does it predict the polar or nonpolar nature of a covalent compound?
Explain with example.
27. a) What is meant by term - Electron gain enthalpy?
b) Among F and Cl which have a more negative electron gain enthalpy and why?
c) Electron gain enthalpy of noble gases is positive. why?
28. a. A compound contains 4.07% hydrogen, 24.27% carbon and 71.65% chlorine. its molar mass is 98.96
gram. What are its empirical and molecular formula?
b. Define Avogadro's law?
29. Electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 242 nm is just sufficient to ionise the sodium atom.
Calculate the ionisation energy of sodium in KJ/ mol.
30. State first law of thermodynamics. Write its mathematical expression. Use the equation to prove
qp=∆H and qv= ∆U.
31. About 118 elements are known which have been placed in 18 groups and 7 periods. The properties
such as atomic radius, ionization enthalpy, electron gain enthalpy etc. depends upon the electronic
configuration of the element. Metallic character increases in going down the group. The oxidizing
property increases on going across the period. The periodic table is further divided into four blocks
that are s- block, p- block, d- block and f- block elements. The name and symbol of elements which
atomic number is greater than 100 follows IUPAC rules.
Now answer the following questions:
a) What is the general electronic configuration of d-block elements?
b) Write the IUPAC name and symbol of an element having atomic number 105.
C) What is the correct order of the metallic character of the elements B, Al, Mg and K ?
d) Third period has 8 elements and not 18. why?
32. Mole is the basic SI unit. Volume of one mole of a gas at STP is 22.4 L. Atomic mass of most of the
elements is in fractions. It is due to the presence of isotopes. Molecular formula of a compound is
equal to n x empirical formula. The molecular mass of a compound is equal to 2 x V. D.
Now answer the following questions:
a. Define empirical formula by giving suitable examples?
b. Name the gas, if 5.4 L of this gas weighs 8 g at STP?
c. Give the examples of two important isotopes of Chlorine?
d. Calculate the no. of molecules present in 1 kg oxygen?
33. (a) Both BF3 and NF3 are covalent compounds but NF 3 is polar molecules whereas BF3 is non polar. Explain.
(b) What is hydrogen bond? Give its type and explain with examples.
34. Derive the following relations –
i) --∆G (at constant T, P) = useful work
ii) T∆S(total)= --∆G(system), Where symbols have their usual meanings?
35. a. Define photoelectric effect?
b. Write two drawbacks of Bohr's atomic model?
c. What is the maximum number of lines emitted when an electron belonging to H atom drops from
n=5 to ground state?
d. Calculate the uncertainty in the momentum of an electron if it is confined to a linear region of
length 1×10-10 m?
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