Aerodynamics Questions

Choose the correct answer

1- Bernoulli‟s Law says that as the speed of the fluid increase the pressure inside the
fluid
A- Increase
B- Decrease
C- Doesn’t change

2- The result of the static pressure distribution over the surface of an aerofoil is
the resultant force, this force acting on a point called
A- Center of pressure
B- Center of gravity
C- Aerodynamic center

3- The direction of drag force is

A- Parallel to the free air stream
B- Perpendicular to the free air stream
C- Parallel to the chord line

4- As the aircraft speed increase the parasite drag

A- Increase
B- Decrease
C- Doesn’t change

5- The mean line of an aerofoil is

A- An imaginary line drawn from the leading edge to the trailing edge
B- A line equidistant from the upper and lower surfaces

6- When indicated air speed (IAS) remains constant, with higher altitude the
true air speed (TAS)
A- Increase
B- Decrease
C- Doesn’t change

7- When Mach number remains constant, with higher altitude the True Air
Speed (TAS)
A- Increase
B- Decrease
C- Doesn’t change

8- When air passing through a shock wave

A- The density and pressure and velocity of air increase
B- The density and pressure of air increase and velocity decrease
C- The density and pressure of air decrease and velocity increase
9- Wingspan „b‟ is
A - The length of the wing leading edge
B - The length of the quarter chord line
C - The tip-to-tip dimension of the wing

10- As the aircraft speed increase the induced drag

A- Increase
B- Decrease
C- Doesn’t change

11- As the area of the pipe decrease, the velocity of the air inside the pipe
A- Increase
B- Decrease
C- Doesn’t change

12- As the angle of attack increase (before the stall angle) the lift coefficient
A- Increase
B- Decrease
C- Doesn’t change

13- For the indicated air speed we use

A- Sea level density
B- Altitude density
C- Average density

14- When we correct to the indicated air speed for the position error we get
A- Calibrated air speed
B- Equivalent air speed
C- True air speed

15-When we correct the equivalent air speed for the air density variation we get
A- Calibrated air speed
B- Indicated air speed
C- True air speed

16- We increase the critical Mach number by

A- Thinner aerofoil
B- Greater wing sweep
C- Both A and B

Good Luck
 Propulsion theory Questions
Choose the correct answer
1- “EPR” of the turbofan engine is defined as:-
A- Engine output pressure / Engine input pressure
B- Engine input pressure / Engine output pressure
C- Engine output pressure only

2- A two spool engine contains:-

A- A two shafts rotating independently
B- A two shafts rotating and mechanically linked
C- Only one single shaft rotating

3- In a turbofan engine:-
A- LPT drives LPC
B- LPT drives HPC
C- LPT drives both LPC and HPC

4- The igniters (plugs) of the turbojet engine, igniting:-

A- During engine start only
B- Continuously
C- Both A and B

5- The turbofan engine is noisier than the turbojet engine.

A- True
B- False

6- The turbojet engine thrust depends on:-

A- Accelerating a great mass of air with a high velocity
B- Accelerating a small mass of air with a high velocity
C- Accelerating a great mass of air with a low velocity

7- The airflow passing through the engine in the turbojet burner is totally
burned inside the burner.
A- True
B- False

8- The N1 indicator of the turbofan engine located in the cockpit indicates the
A- LPC speed
B- HPC speed
C- Burner speed

9- The speed of the propeller installed on a piston engine can reach unlimited
speed to get maximum thrust.
A- True
B- False
10- The air passing through the fan only in the turbofan engine is called:-
A- Hot air
B- Cold air
C- Primary air

11-The fan speed in the turbofan engine is indicated by:-

A- N1 indicator
B- N2 indicator
C- EGT indicator

12- The disadvantages of a centrifugal compressor is:-

A- It’s large frontal area
B- It’s small frontal area
C- Is a component of the turbofan engine?

13- During a turbofan engine start, the starter drives:-

A- Only N1 shaft directly
B- Only N2 shaft directly
C- Both N1 and N2 shafts directly

14- Piston engine can take the form of single or twin spool engine.
A- True
B- False

15- Inside the exhaust duct of the engine:-

A- The airflow pressure is decreasing
B- The airflow velocity is increasing
C- Both A and B correct

Good Luck
 Flight Control Questions
Choose the correct answer
1- The outboard (low speed) ailerons are used during-
A- High speed, whenever the flaps are fully retracted
B- Low speed, whenever the flaps are not fully retracted
C- High speeds above VMO / MMO

2- Artificial feel is normally used for-

A- Aileron control system
B- Elevator control system
C- Rudder control system

3- Trim able horizontal stabilizer (THS) is required to cover large trim changes
due to flying speeds without limiting elevator travel.
A- True
B- False

4- Simplified maintenance and improved reliability can be achieved by using:-

A- Conventional type of flight controls systems
B- Fly by wire systems (FBW)
C- Trim able horizontal stabilizer (THS)

5- The main function of the flaps and the slats is to:-

A- Increase the wing area to accommodate the lift required at low speeds during
takeoff, approach, and landing
B- Increase the wing area to accommodate the lift required at high speed
C- Increase the wing area to accommodate the lift required at all speeds

6- Whenever slats extended the value of stall angle of attack will:-

A- Increased
B- Decreased
C- Not affected

7- In modern aircraft, to make a coordinate turn, it is not necessary to use the rudder
pedal.
A- True
B- False

8- Rudder limiter will limit the maximum rudder surface deflection according to
airplane speed.
A- True
B- False
9- Elevator artificial feel makes variable feel force on the control column according
to -
A- Airplane altitude
B- Airplane speed
C- Airplane attitude

10- Roll spoilers are used in association with:-

A- Rudder limiter system for roll control
B- Elevator artificial for roll control
C- Ailerons as primary roll controls

11- Leading edge slats affects directly the -

A- Angle of attack
B- Stalling speed
C- Both A and B

12- The leading edge slats are operated to, and responsible for
A- Increase the stall angle of attack at certain aircraft speed
B- Decrease the stall angle of attack at certain aircraft speed
C- Has no effect on stall angle of attack

13- Elevator artificial feeling system will make an actual reduction in the
elevator output deflection (travel) to avoid over controllability
A- True
B- False

14- During speed acceleration in level flight, the aircraft has tendency for-
A- Nose up
B- Nose down
C- No effect

15- System redundancy means prevention against total system failure.

A- True
B- False

16- The new “fly-by-wire” system has replaced the older electromechanical
system to improve accuracy efficiency of the aircraft
A- True
B- False

Good Luck
 Power and Attitude Flying Questions
Choose the correct answer
1- During Take-off and Landing roll, maintain direction with:-
A- Rudder
B- Aileron
C- Either A or B

2- For pitch control, apply initial input with:-

A- Stabilizer trim
B- Elevator
C- You can use either stabilizer or elevator

3- During take-off, aircraft rotation must be a certain take-off pitch attitude of a

specific degree.
A- True
B- False

4- Thrust control is used to:-

A- Maintain or change the airspeed
B- Maintain airspeed only
C- Change airspeed only

5- TAS indicator is:-

A- Performance instrument
B- Navigation instrument
C- Control instrument

Good Luck
 Geographical and Culture orientation Questions
Choose the correct answer
1- Atlas book of maps may contain different subjects such as climate, agriculture, and
population.
A- True
B- False

2- Atlas of the world is very useful reference for pilots and will generally include-
A- Very wide range of different maps
B- Very limited range of maps
C- All required navigation maps for the flight

3- The total area of the Earth is equally divided between land and water.
A- True
B- False

4- In the aviation world & according to mutual agreements between neighbor states
the air traffic control area of responsibility of one country may-
A- Extend and exceed the political borders of that country and may be extended to control
the whole neighbor state airspace or part of it.
B- Not be extended beyond the political borders of that country.
C- Not exceed 12 N.M beyond the political borders of any neighbor state

5- There are no differences between aviation charts and Atlas charts.

A- True
B- False

6- Aviation charts symbols and codes are the same as those of Atlas charts.
A- True
B- False

7- The international language used in aviation charts is-

A- English language
B- French language
C- Arabic language

8- Aviation & Atlas charts are gathered and organized:-

A- In the same manner
B- In completely different manner
C- Either A or B
9- Despite the great variety of languages spoken throughout the world, all languages
are-
A- Similar In structure and function
B- Similar In the way of pronouncing letters
C- Individually structured

10- A behavior pattern of a human being is influenced by-

A- Heredity
B- Environment
C- Both A or B

11- What is the meaning of the word Geography?

A- Political borders of the world nations
B- Earth description
C- Pure geology

12- What is an Atlas?

A- Atlas is a book of maps or charts collected for general use
B- Atlas is the official aviation charts reference
C- Atlas can be used as a secondary reference for navigation

13- The following related statistics are found in Atlas:-

A- Agriculture, Average annual precipitation, World climatic zones
B- Navigational Aids frequencies, Airports elevation, Airways names
C- Airline policy and rules

14- Pilots are authorized to use Atlas charts as the company official navigation charts.
A- True
B- False

15- Fir and Political borders

A- Are not necessarily the same
B- For many reasons any country or state worldwide is only responsible for the control of
its airspace, which coincides with its political borders
C- Are exactly the same

16- Airspace area of responsibility agreements between states may be based on-
A- Political, economical, or geographical reason(s)
B- The weather condition changes
C- Neither A nor B

17- You can easily locate and find name of cities, islands, and mountains from-
A- Aviation charts
B- Atlas charts
C- Either A or B
18- Atlas charts use only the English Language.
A- True
B- False

19- Atlas uses-

A- Very wide range of scales
B- Limited range of scales
C- Only one scale

20- Aviation charts in general are Very limited to scale changes except when:
A- Dense area of airways exist
B- The flight phase is changed (i.e. from cruise to arrival to approach …)
C- Both A & B

21- Language is a system of communication specific to the human race.

A- From 10 to 50 languages are spoken at our present time
B- From 100 to 500 languages are spoken at our present time
C- From 3000 to 8000 languages are spoken at our present time

22- Behavior of human beings is almost the same all over the world.
A- True
B- False

23- Beliefs & Traditions are two words giving the same meaning.
A- True
B- False

24- The word “Belief” means.

A- The mental condition or habit of placing trust or confidence in a particular area of
thinking by a group of persons
B- The passing down of thoughts or behavior followed by a people especially by oral
communication from generation to generation
C- Neither A nor B

25- The word “Tradition” means.

A- The mental condition or habit of placing trust or confidence in a particular area of
thinking by a group of persons
B- The passing down of thoughts or behavior followed by a people especially by oral
communication from generation to generation
C- Neither A nor B

Good Luck
 G.S.O.P Questions
Choose the correct answer
1- If a conflict arises between the company policy manual, and the manufacturer
manual -
A-The flight operation manual will supersede
B- The company policy manual will supersede
C- The manufacturer’s manual will supersede

2- The “PA” announcement shall not be attempted while

A- Anyone of the cockpit crewmembers is outside the cockpit
B- Anyone of the cabin crewmembers is inside the cockpit
C- Anyone of the cockpit crewmembers is not using VHF communication

3- Head sets must be used

A- Only during all operations until reaching the top of climb
B- Only during all operations while descending
C- During all operations below flight level 100 (10,000 altitude)

4- All ATC communications shall be made on

A- VHF No.2
B- VHF No.3
C- VHF No.1

5- Checklist priority during approach is

A- Emergency, abnormal, normal
B- Normal, emergency, abnormal
C- Emergency, normal, abnormal

6-Switching seat belt sign twice (sound chime) during cruse level means
A- End of DND
B- End of DND with expected turbulence
C- Stop service for passengers

7- When one of the crewmembers leaves the cockpit

A- The other crewmember should not use oxygen mask
B- The other crewmember should use headset
C- The other crewmember shall use the PA communication

8- When a crew change is due while passengers on board

A- At least one main cabin door remains open
B- At least one engine will remain running
D- At least one door shall be armed
9- Un-prepared emergency means that:-
A- There is time available
B- There is no time available
C- There is long time available

10- Prepared emergency call is

A- Attention crew at stations
B- Purser to cockpit
C- Cabin crew keep your seats

11- The standard GPWS gives approximately

A- 15 sec. to react
B- 11 sec. to react
C- 20 sec. to react

12- If wind sheer is recognized before V1

A- The takeoff must be continued
B- The takeoff must be rejected
C- The wind sheer escape maneuver must be performed

13- Reporting for duty on time is the responsibility of:-

A-The Company
B-The crewmember
C- The transportation department

14- VHF box No.2 shall be used for

A- ATC communication
B- ATIS information and Emergency communication frequency
C- Public announcements

15- All mobile phones must be switched off

A- After cockpit preparation
B- Before the start of pushback
C- Before leaving the IOCC

16- Strobe light must be switched “ON” when

A- Entering the ramp
B- Taxing in congested areas
C- Taxing on or crossing a runway

17- Maximum taxi speed for wide turns

A- 10 KTS
B- 15-20 KTS
C- 20-30 KTS
18- Approach gate for ILS approach in VMC condition is
A- 1000 ft. AGL
B- 300 ft. AGL
C- 500 ft. AGL
19- Approach gate for ILS approach in IMC condition is
A- 1000 ft. AGL
B- 300 ft. AGL
C- 500 ft. AGL

20- Approach gate for visual circling approach is

A- 1000 ft. AGL
B- 300 ft. AGL
C- 500 ft. AGL

Good Luck
 Meteorology Questions
Choose the correct answer
1- The study of the atmosphere is the -
A- Climate
B- Meteorology
C- Weather

2- Atmosphere is the -
A- Meteorology
B- The gaseous envelope surrounding the Earth
C- The dynamic movement of the weather

3- The wind flows clockwise around -

A- The low-pressure center in northern hemisphere
B- The low-pressure center in southern hemisphere
C- The high-pressure center in southern hemisphere

4- The airflow moves from: -

A- A low pressure to a high-pressure and downward
B- A low pressure to a high pressure and upward
C- A high pressure to a low pressure and upward

5- If the temperature of the air is 30C on the ground and the dew point is
20C in moist air, the base of clouds is expected to be at: -
A- 8000 ft AGL
B- 6000 ft AGL
C- 4000 ft AGL

6- If the cloud is at least 4000 ft thick

A- The significant precipitation will be present
B- No significant precipitation is expected
C- The air will be dry and unstable

7- Most of the cold fronts include -

A- Cumulus clouds, Turbulence and showery precipitation
B- Stratus clouds if the air is moist and stable
C- All of the above

8- Fast moving cold front include -

A- Areas of sever weather
B- Stable air
C- None of the above
9- The air descending to the surface of the Earth and moves outward towards: -
A- The high-pressure area
B- The low-pressure area
C- To all of them

10- The lowest clouds in the stationary group associated with mountain wave are: -
A- Cumuliform clouds
B- Rotor clouds
C- Cirrus clouds

11- When flying over sever thunderstorm, you must fly by at least: -
A- 1000 ft altitude above, for each 10 knots of wind speed at the cloud top
B- 2000 ft altitude above, for each 10 knots of wind speed at the cloud top
C- 3000 ft altitude above, for each 10 knots of wind speed at the cloud top

12- If “Jet Stream” turbulence is encountered with head or tail wind: -

A- You must climb to avoid “CAT”
B- You must descend to avoid “CAT”
C- You can climb or descend to avoid “CAT”

13- Radiation fog can be formed when: -

A- Light wind, Stable air and clear sky
B- High moisture and condensation nuclei is found
C- All conditions of the above

14- “Occlusion” is characterized by: -

A- Sever weather, cold front and warm front
B- Temperature gradient occurs when flying over
C- All of the above

15- If the wind gradient 40kt / 150 nm: -

A- Expect horizontal wind shear
B- Expect towering Cumulus
C- None of the above

METAR - ESSA 060500Z 25015KT 9999 SCT005 M05/M08 Q1012 NOSIG WS

25L RMK 75750292

16- The code “9999” means: - (Refer to METAR – ESSA)

A- The pressure at station is 9999 hps
B- Visibility is less than 10KM
C- Visibility is 10KM or more

17- The code “WS 25L” means that: - (Refer to METAR – ESSA)
A- Weather Stable on R/W 25L
B- Wind Shear on R/W 25L
C- Wind Speed on R/W 25L not reported
 18- The code “SCT005” means that the: - (Refer to METAR – ESSA)
A- Amount of clouds is 1/8 to 2/8 and its base is at 500 meter
B- Amount of clouds is 3/8 to 4/8 and its base is at 500 feet
C- Amount of clouds is 3/8 to 4/8 and its base is at 500 meter

19- In the code “75750292” the first two digits (75) mean: - (Refer to METAR –
ESSA)
A- This code is valid for forecast only
B- This code is valid for METAR only
C- This code is valid for SIGMET only

In NOTAM you find SNOWTAM as follow

0502060500 - 0502070500
A= ESSA
B= 060500Z
C= 25L F: 4/4/17 H: 39/37/30 SFH
25R F: 5/7/8 H: 30/30/28 SFH
N: 78
R: 49

20- The item “B” is: - (Refer to NOTAM – SNOWTAM)

A- Date and time of validity
B- Date and time of observation
C- Date and time of improvement

21- The friction coefficient on the last third of R/W 25R is -

(Refer to NOTAM – SNOWTAM)
A- Medium to good
B- Medium to poor
C- Poor

SIGMET MESSAGE RJLL SIGMET2 VALID 061200/061800 RJLL FIR TC AMY OBS 15N
140E 1200Z MOV NW 12KT NC

22- The validity time of the SIGMET is: - (Refer to SIGMET – MESSAGE)
A- 6 hrs from 12:00z to 18:00z
B- 12 hrs from 12:00z to 24:00z
C- 6 hrs from 06:00z to 12:00z

23- What is the phenomenon near the Airport (RJLL)?

(Refer to SIGMET – MESSAGE)
A- Thunderstorm
B- Towering cumulus
C- Tropical cyclone
24- The position of the tropical cyclone “AMY” is: - (Refer to SIGMET – MESSAG)
A- 15 N and 140 E moving northeast
B- 15 N and 140 E moving northwest
C- Not reported in the SIGMET

25- The validity day of this SIGMET is - (Refer to SIGMET – MESSAG)

A- 12
B- 18
C- 06

26- The area (C) includes”- (Refer to significant weather chart)

A- Tropical cyclone
B- Sand storm
C- Volcanic ash

27- In area (B) what is maximum height of the isolated embedded CB?
(Refer to significant weather chart)
A- 34,000 feet
B- 48,000 feet
C- 48,000 meter

28- The cold front in area (D) is moving: - (Refer to significant weather chart)
A- South East at speed of 20 km
B- South at speed of 20 m/s
C- South East at speed of 20 kt

29- The jet stream in area (A) has: - (Refer to significant weather chart)
A- Speed of 140 kts and its level is 39,000 feet
B- Speed of 100 kts and its level is 37,000 feet
C- Speed of 100 kts and its level is 39,000 feet

30- What is tropopause height in area (B)? (Refer to significant weather chart)
A- 53,000 feet
B- 48,000 feet
C- 45,000 feet

31- What is the location of the tropical Cyclone “AMY”?

(Refer to significant weather chart)
A- Area (A)
B- Area (B)
C- Area (C)

32- The clear Air Turbulence (CAT) in area (A) is: -

(Refer to significant weather chart)
A- Moderate turbulence between 28,000 feet and 40,000 feet
B- Moderate turbulence between 30,000 feet and 40,000 feet
D- Light turbulence between 28,000 feet and 40,000 feet
33- If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type of clouds can be
expected?
A- Stratus clouds with little vertical development.
B- Cumulus clouds with little vertical development and turbulence
C- Cumulus clouds with moderate or greater turbulence.
34- What cause variation in altimeter setting between weather reporting points?
A- Carioles force.
B- Un equal heating of earth’s surface.
C- Variation of terrain elevation
35- Where is a common location for a temperature inversion?
A- At the tropopause
B- At the base of cumulus clouds
C- In the stratosphere
36- What characterizes a ground base temperature inversion?
A- Cold temperature of the earth’s surface
B- Convective current
C- Poor visibility
37- During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized
predominate by down draft.
A- Cumulus stage
B- Mature stage.
C- Dissipating stage
38- Where squall lines most often develop?
A- In and outside of thunderstorm
B- In an occluded front
C- Ahead of fast moving cold front
39- Thunderstorms reach its greatest intensity during the:
A- Down draft stage.
B- Mature stage.
C- Growing stage
40- What would decrease the stability of air mass?
A- Warming from below
B- Cooling from below
C- Both A & B
41- Moisture is added to unsaturated air by;
A- Evaporation
B- Sublimation
C- All of the above
42- The wind phenomena is caused by;
A- Pressure difference
B- Carioles force
C- None of the above

Good Luck
 Aircraft generic systems
Choose the correct answer
1- The true airspeed of an aircraft is 358 KTS at 16 ˚C (SAT), determine the
Mach number
A- M 0.54
B- M 0.60
C- M 0.74

2- "As the aircraft speed increases, parasite drag decreases"

A- True
B- False

3- What determines the speed of sound?

A- The frequency of the sound wave
B- The amplitude of the sound wave
C- The properties of the medium through which sound waves propagate

4- The relative wind is always

A- Parallel to the airfoil chord line
B- Parallel to the airfoil means line
C- Parallel to the aircraft flight path

5- The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is

A- The indicated airspeed (IAS) corrected for position error
B- The true airspeed (TAS) corrected for instrument and position error
C- The equivalent airspeed (EAS) corrected for density

6- High speed buffet is caused by the wake turbulence found after the shock
waves.
A- True
B- False

7- The aspect ratio of a sweep back wing is equal to

A- Span / Root chord
B- Span / Tip chord
C- Span / Average chord

8- Parasite drag on the wing is called

A- Profile drag
B- Structural drag
C- Induced drag

9- Based on the thickness to chord ratio (T/C) which of the following aerofoil will
have a higher Critical Mach number?
A- T/C = 0.15
B- T/C = 0.20
C- T/C = 0.25
10- The Dihedral angle is a fixed angle for each airplane and affecting the
A- Longitudinal stability
B- Lateral stability
C- Vertical stability

11- The main forces affecting the aircraft in the air are
A- Left and Drag
B- Thrust and weigh
C- All of the above

12- Heat is removed from pneumatic air inside the pack by:
A- Primary and secondary heat exchanger
B- Air cycle machine
C- Both A and B

13- Pack trip off light comes on if

A- Compressor discharge temperature high
B- Pack outlet temperature high
C- Either A or B
D- Neither A nor B

14- The air cycle machine cooling cycle is

A- Expand the air; pass through heat exchanger then compressed it again
B- Compress the air; pass through heat exchanger then expanded it again
C- Pass the air through pre cooling heat exchanger using ferion gas for cooling

15- The Pack outlet temperature can be controlled in

A- Auto mode and manual mode together
B- Auto mode only
C- Manual mode only
D- Either auto or manual mode but not together

16- The outboard (low speed) ailerons are used during

A- High speed, whenever the flaps are fully retracted
B- Low speed, whenever the flaps are not fully retracted
C- High speeds above VMO / MMO

17- Artificial feel is normally used for

A- Aileron control system
B- Elevator control system
C- Rudder control system

18- Trim able horizontal stabilizer (THS) is required to cover large trim changes
due to flying speeds without limiting elevator travel
A- True
B- False
19- Simplified maintenance and improved reliability can be achieved by using
A- Conventional type of flight controls systems
B- Fly by wire systems (FBW)
C- Trim able horizontal stabilizer (THS)

20- The main function of the flaps and the slats is to

A- Increase the wing area to accommodate the lift required at low speeds during
takeoff, approach, and landing
B- Increase the wing area to accommodate the lift required at high speed
C- Increase the wing area to accommodate the lift required at all speeds

21- Whenever slats extended the value of stall angle of attack will
A- Increased
B- Decreased
C- Not affected

22- There are many types of hydraulic pumps, which can be driven by electric
power or pneumatic power or engines gear box mechanically.
A- True
B- False

23– The Power Transfer Unit (PTU):

A- Transfer hydraulic from hydraulic tank to another tank when required
B- Transfer power from a pressurized system to another non-pressurized system
C- Helps moving flight control services using hydraulic power

24- Stand by system can be turned on any time to assist the main hydraulic system
A- True
B- False

25- Each hydraulic reservoir is pressurized by

A- Hydraulic pump
B- Pneumatic air pressure system
C- Neither A nor B

26 - The negative relief valve allows air to exit the airplane

A - True
B - False

27- One pack is enough to pressurize the aircraft during the whole flight from take-
off until touch down
A- True
B- False

28- One of the functions of the pressurization system is to compresses the cabin
altitude by approximately 200 feet below airport elevation just before take off
A- Automatically
B- Manually
C- Using the stand by system
29- When pressurization auto mode fails
A- The system goes automatically to stand by mode regardless the switch position
B- The system will not goes to stand by until switch selected to stand by system
C- The system goes directly to manually mode then the pilot can selected it to stand by

30- A warning sound in the cockpit if the cabin altitude reaches

A- 10,000 feet
B- 13,000 feet
C- 14,000 feet

31- High pressure shut off valve of the engine bleed: -

A - Is opened during engine at high power setting
B - Is opened during engine at low power setting
C - Is closed during engine at low power setting

32- Bleed trip off light comes on if

A- High bleed air temperature
B- High bleed air pressure
C- Either A or B

33 - Cross bleed function is available on ground only.

A- True
B- False

34 - When ground air is connected to the aircraft, normally it supplies the

A- Left side of the bleed system only
B- Right side of the bleed system only
C- All the system with no action from the cockpit
D- Left bleed side and right bleed side through the cross bleed valve (should be opened)

Good Luck
 Air Traffic control Questions
Choose the correct answer
1- Flight Information Service is providing
A- Separation
B- Useful Information to flights
C- Notification to Rescue Coordination Centre (RCC)

2- Area Control Service is provided by

A- Flight Information Centre
B- Area Control Centre
C- Aerodrome Control Tower

3- Control Area (CTA) includes

A- Airways and terminal control area (TMA)
B- Control zone (CTR) and controlled airspace
C- Control zone (CTR) and controlled aerodrome

4- Types of flight within class 'A' airspace are

A- IFR and VFR flights
B- IFR flights only
C- VFR flights only

5- Secondary radar interrogator sends

A- Codes
B- Modes
C- Both A and B

6- Before radar service, aircraft should

A- Be Identified
B- Not be identified
C- Ask for radar service

7- All estimated time has to be mentioned in

A- 5 figures UTS
B- 6 figures UTS
C- 4 figures UTS

8- Regarding flight rules, letter (I) is indicating:

A- VFR
B- IFR
C- Special VFR
9- In the flight plan, standard (COM/NAV) approach aid is indicated by the
letter
A- N
B- S
C- A
D- J

10- Aircraft identification should not exceed

A- 6 characters
B- 5 characters
C- 7 characters

11- Which of the following letter should be inserted in the flight plan if the
aircraft is not equipped with COM/NAV approach aid?
A- N
B- S
C- A
D- J
E- G

12- In case of declaring an emergency, the pilot should squawk

A- 7600
B- 7500
C- 7700
D- 7000

13- Squawk 7000 means

A- Strayed aircraft
B- Uncontrolled aircraft
C- Aircraft in emergency
D- Hijacked aircraft

14- Radio Communication Failure (RCF) aircraft flying in visual meteorological

condition (VMC) shall
A- Continue in VMC and land at the nearest aerodrome
B- Proceed to the assigned navigation aid
C- Proceed to the alternative aerodrome
D- Proceed to the alternative runway

Good Luck
 Weight and Balance Questions
Choose the correct answer
1) The actual zero fuel weight is:
A) The aircraft basic operating weight + pay load. And must not exceeds the
maximum design zero fuel weight
B) The aircraft basic operating weight + pay load. And must not exceeds the
maximum design take-off weight
C) The aircraft basic operating weight + trip fuel

2) The payload is:

A) The total weight of the passengers + their luggage’s and / or the cargo weight
B) The total weight of the passengers + their luggage’s or the cargo weight
C) The total weight of the passengers + their luggage’s and the fuel required for the
flight

3) The aircraft gross weight is:

A) The weight of the airplane after all items has been added. When it is used alone,
gross weight is not a limitation
B) The weight of the airplane after all items has been added. When it is used alone,
gross weight is a limitation
C) The maximum airplane weight with flaps and landing gear retracted as limited
by airplane structure

4) The operational Landing weight:

A) Must not exceeds the maximum design zero fuel weight (MZFW)
B) Must not exceeds the maximum design take-off weight (MTOW)
C) Must not exceeds the maximum design landing weight (MLDW)

5) If the maximum take-off weight (MTOW) is 75500 kg (Structure limit),

The maximum landing weight (MLDW) is 64500 kg (Structure limit),
The maximum zero fuel weight (MZFW) is 60500 kg (Structure limit),
The dry operating weight (D.O.W) is 43635 kg,
Take-off fuel is 18000 kg and the trip fuel is 12000 kg, find out the maximum
payload?
A) 13685 kg
B) 13865 kg
C) 13568 kg
6) If the maximum take-off weight (MTOW) is 75500 kg (Structure limit),
The maximum landing weight (MLDW) is 64500 kg (Structure limit),
The maximum zero fuel weight (MZFW) is 60500 kg (Structure limit),
The dry operating weight (D.O.W) is 44165 kg,
Take-off fuel is 17000 kg and the trip fuel is 11000 kg, find out the maximum
payload?
A) 14335 kg
B) 14325 kg
C) 14355 kg

7) If the maximum take-off weight (MTOW) is 75500 kg (Structure limit),

The maximum landing weight (MLDW) is 64500 kg (Structure limit),
The maximum zero fuel weight (MZFW) is 60500 kg (Structure limit),
The dry operating weight (D.O.W) is 43660 kg,
Take-off fuel is 16000 kg and the trip fuel is 10000 kg, find out the maximum
payload?
A) 14460 kg
B) 14840 kg
C) 14480 kg

8) If the maximum take-off weight (MTOW) is 75500 kg (Structure limit),

The maximum landing weight (MLDW) is 64500 kg (Structure limit),
The maximum zero fuel weight (MZFW) is 60500 kg (Structure limit),
The dry operating weight (D.O.W) is 44250 kg,
Take-off fuel is 18000 kg and the trip fuel is 11000 kg, find out the maximum
payload?
A) 13050 kg
B) 13250 kg
C) 13500 kg

9) Zero fuel weight is defined as the:

A) Basic operating weight + payload
B) Take-off weight - fuel to destination and alternate
C) Empty weight + passengers and their luggages + cargo load

10) The maximum allowable airplane weight excluding useable fuel is called:
A) Maximum payload weight
B) Maximum zero fuel weight
C) Basic operating weight

11) The Dry Operating Index (DOI) is unique for each aircraft tail number and
configuration.
A) True
B) False
12) Which of the following methods can determine The CG of an aircraft:
A) Multiplying total arms by total weight
B) Dividing total arms by total moments
C) Dividing total moments by total weight
13) The maximum allowable airplane weight excluding useable fuel is called:
A- Maximum payload weight
B- Maximum zero fuel weight
C- Basic operating weight

14) If the maximum take-off weight (MTOW) is 75500 kg (Structure

limit),
The maximum landing weight (MLDW) is 64500 kg (Structure limit),
The maximum zero fuel weight (MZFW) is 60500 kg (Structure limit),
The dry operating weight (D.O.W) is 44000 kg,
Take-off fuel is 15000 kg and the trip fuel is 9000 kg,
Passengers are 100 and 3500 kg cargo on board, find out the under load
payload?
A) 1000 kg
B) 1100 kg
C) 1300 kg

15) The useful load consists of:

A) Un usable fuel, The pay load and the cargo
B) The pay load, usable Fuel and the engine injection fluids
C) The pay load, un-usable Fuel and the engine injection fluids

16) The Moment arm is the:

A) Horizontal distance from the center of gravity of an object to the datum line
B) Horizontal distance from the center of gravity of an object to the mean cord line
C) Vertical distance from the center of gravity of an object to the datum line

17) The empty weight center of gravity is the center of gravity of an airplane in:
A) Empty weight condition
B) Dry operating weight condition
C) Zero fuel weight condition

Good Luck
 Flight Operation Manual Questions
Choose the correct answer (Open Book)
1 - If the runway is clean and dry and the cross wind is 10 knots the Co-pilot can be
permitted to take-off or land the plane
A - True
B - False

2 - For international flights the flight, crewmembers shall report to the flight dispatch
A - 2 hours before flight departure
B - 1.5 hours before flight departure
C - I hour before flight departure

3 - No crewmember shall consume any alcoholic beverage during

A - The 12 hour period immediately before he is scheduled to fly or whilst on standby
B - The 6 hour period immediately before he is scheduled to fly or whilst on standby
C - The 8 hour period immediately before he is scheduled to fly or whilst on standby

4 - All Egypt air departure flights require take-off alternate (Company Policies)
A - True
B - False

5 - The aerodrome, which must be selected if a landing at the departure aerodrome is

not possible due to weather conditions, which are below landing minima is
A - Destination alternate
B – En-route alternate
C - Take-off alternate

6 - The Commander Deputy is

A – The flight engineer
B – The Co-pilot
C – The senior flight attendant

7 – Who has all the responsibility concerning safety of the airplane?

A – The commander
B – The co-pilot
C – The general manager quality

8- When using in the operation manual the word (or term) "shall", it has the meaning
of
A- The application or provision is recommended
B- The application or provision is mandatory
C- The application or provision is optional
9- The commander sets priorities to take his decision for
A- Safety, reporting for duty, economy
B- Safety, economy, passengers comfort, co-pilot advice
C- Safety, economy, passengers comfort, schedule

10- From the duties of the first officer is to report the commander any incident that has
endangered or may have endangered safety.
A- True
B- False

11- The minimum flying experience (flying Hrs.) is required as prerequisite to authorize
the first officer to perform low visibility operation is
A- 300 hours as first officer (SIC) on Egypt air jet aircraft
B- 1000 hours as first officer (SIC) on Egypt air jet aircraft
C- 100 hours as first officer (SIC) on Egypt air jet aircraft

12- The crewmembers shall not fly within

A- 48 Hr after deep driving exceeding l0 meters
B- 24 Hr after deep driving exceeding l0 meters
C- No restriction at all

13-State the page number of the de-icing on ground

A- 8.2.4
B- 8.2-21
C- 8.2-24

14- State the page number for configuration deviation list CDL
A- 8.6-2
B- 8.7-2
C- Rev. 6

15- Fuelling / defueling with passengers on board

A- Is not permitted
B- Is permitted at any case
C- Is permitted provided some preventive measures

16- Changing the oxygen bottle(s) of the aeroplane is permitted with passengers on
board.
A- True
B- False

17- For twin engine airplanes, and not ETOPs authorized, location of the take off
alternate aerodrome should be within a range of
A- 2 hours flying time at single engine cruising speed in still air
B- 30 min flying time at single engine cruising speed in still air
C- 1 hour of flying time at single engine cruising speed in still air
18- A cabin briefing shall be conducted by the commander prior to each flight or series
of flights.
A- True
B- False

19- The low visibility operation procedures can be done if

A- Both commander and first officer have the minimum flying experience required on type
B- The commander has the minimum flying experience required on type
C- Any one of them has the minimum flying experience required on type

20- The “NOTOC” means

A- Note to the commander
B- Note to continue the flight
C- Special load notification to captain

21- State the page number of cabin crew checklist for dangerous goods incident in the
passenger‟s cabin during flight.
A- 9.12-1
B- 9.13-1
C- 9.10-1

22-The transport of cartridges for sporting weapons is only allowed if they are for
personal use of the accompanying person
A- In quantities not exceeding 5 Kg gloss mass
B- In quantities not exceeding 10 Kg gloss mass
C- In quantities not exceeding 7 Kg gloss mass

23- Where you can get the drill code, risk to aircraft, fire fighting procedures and other
information.
A- 9.17-3
B- 8.17-3
C- 2.17-3

24 - The Co-pilot is permitted to taxi the aeroplane in normal conditions.

A - True
B - False

State the answer reference from the flight operation manual book
1- Where you can find terms and definitions or abbreviations?
2- What does it mean the using of the word "Shall”?
3- What does it mean the using of the word "Should”?
4- What does it mean the using of the word "May”?
5- What is the duties and responsibilities of the G.M.O.D?
6- What is the duties and responsibilities of the G.M.T.D?
7- What is the duties and responsibilities of the G.M.IOCC?
8- What is the duties and responsibilities of the Chief Pilot?
9- What is the duties and responsibilities of the Manager Planning?
10- What is the duties and responsibilities of the Manager Administrative services?
11- What is the authority, duties and responsibilities of the commander prior to the flight?
12- What is the authority, duties and responsibilities of the commander in the flight?
13- What is the authority, duties and responsibilities of the commander after the flight?
14- What is the duties and responsibilities of the copilot prior to the flight?
15- What is the duties and responsibilities of the copilot in the flight?
16- What is the duties and responsibilities of the copilot after the flight?
17- What is the personal documents crew members have to carry?
18- What are the crew uniform specifications in winter and summer?
19- What regulations controlling the crew, duty free shop visit?
20- Is it permissible to sleep during the flight for an active crew member?
21- What to do when the crewmember has a change in his home address or telephone
Number?
22- When the crewmember has to report on duty?
23- What is the navigation bag content?
24- Is the commander authorized to allow the first officer to carry out take off and
landing?
25- When the crewmember can carry out the paper work during the flight?
26- When the LOGO light should be on?
27- When the navigation light should be on?
28- When the Beacon light should be on?
29- When the Runway turned off light or the inboard landing light should be on?
30- When the Taxi light should be on?
31- What is the aircraft library content?
32- Who can give the permission to take photographs in the cockpit during the flight?
33- Who has the power of authority to supervise and inspect the flight operations?
34- Who is the commander during the training flights?
35- What is the chain of command for flight crew?
36- What is the minimum number of cabin crew required for dispatch on each type?
37- What is the minimum number of cabin crew required for embarking of passengers?
38- What is the minimum females percentage should be for dispatch?
39- What is the minimum qualification requirement to act as commander?
40- What is the commander qualification to operate in either pilot's seat?
41- What is requirements and qualifications to performed a low visibility operation?
 JEPPESEN Questions
Choose the correct answer
1- Where can you find information to convert US gallon to LBS?
A- Meteorology
B- Air Traffic Control
C- Tables and codes

2- Which section of the JEPPESEN book you can use to get out the calculation of
the sun-set and the sun-rise time?
A- Introduction section
B- Chart NOTAMS
C- Tables and codes

3- Which section in the JEPPESEN you can find out information about secondary
surveillance radar (SSR) in Europe?
A- Air Traffic Control section
B- En-Route section
C- Airport directory section

4- Where you can get information about types of fuel available in Munich airport?
A- Airport Directory
B- Tables and Codes
C- Chart NOTAMS

5- All horizontal distance in JEPPESEN are given in

A- Feet
B- Meters
C- Nautical miles

6- All bearings are True unless suffixed by (M) for magnetic

A- True
B- False

7- What is the aircraft category, if the final approach speed is 150 Kts?
A- CAT A
B- CAT B
C- CAT C

8- What is the width of R\W 26R at Munich?

A- 30 meter
B- 45 meter
C- 60 meter
9- What is the highest terrain during approach in Munich R/W 26L?
A- 2650 feet
B- 2650 meter
C- 5000 feet

10- What is the runway length 08R Munich airport in meters?

A- 4000 meter
B- 13123 meter
C- 12010 meter

11- What is the transition altitude at Munich airport?

A- 5000 meter
B- By ATC
C- 5000 feet

12- What is the runway QDM for runway 05R in Cairo?

A- 227
B- 050
C- 047

13- What kind of approach lights are installed on R/W 08L in Munich airport?
A- PAPI-R
B- PAPI-L
C- VASI

14- What is the scale used for Munich SID 10-3V5?

A- All scales are fixed
B- Up to scale
C- Not to scale

15- How many longitudinal stripes for runway width of 30 m

A- 8
B- 10
C- 12

Good Luck
 Flight Planning Questions
Choose the correct answer
1- The holding fuel required is: -
A- The fuel required to hold for 30 min at 1500 Ft above alternate airport elevation at
optimum holding speed
B- The fuel required to hold for 30 min at 1500 Ft above destination airport elevation
at optimum holding speed
C- The fuel required to hold for 30 min at 1500 Ft above alternate airport elevation at
LRC (Long Range Cruise).

2- The minimum fuel required for diversion is equal to: -

A- Alternate Fuel including go-around fuel at destination and approach and landing
fuel at alternate airport
B- Fuel required to fly for 30 min at 1500 ft above alternate airport elevation at
optimum holding speed
C- Both A and B

3- Trip fuel and alternate fuel calculation data is presented in: -

A- Flight Crew Operation Manual (FCOM)
B- Flight Management Computer (FMC)
C- Computerized Flight Plane (CFP)
D- Any of the above.

4- Contingency fuel calculation is based on: -

A- A certain percentage of trip fuel
B- A certain percentage of minimum requirement block fuel
C- A certain percentage of minimum diversion fuel
D- Addition of a fixed amount of fuel as a company policy.

5- The computerized flight plan includes the information of: -

A- Aircraft performance and company fuel policy data, Meteo-Upper winds and
temperature data, Navigation data
B- Aircraft performance and maintenance policy data, Meteo-Upper winds and
temperature data, Navigation data
C- Aircraft systems and company fuel policy data, Meteo-Upper winds and
temperature data, Navigation data.

6- In flight Contingency fuel (the en-route reserve fuel) is a part of the minimum
fuel for diversion?
A- True
B- False.
7- Contingency fuel is used to cater for deviation from :-
A- Weather avoidance.
B- Difference between forecasted and actual winds, deviation from planned ISA.
C- ATC constrains.
D- All of the above.
8- The abbreviation (MEA) in the computerized flight plan means;
a- Minimum estimated arrival time.
b- Maximum estimated arrival time.
c- Minimum enroute altitude
d- Maximum enroute altitude.
9- The FMC data base contains over 2 million data items including;
a- Routes.
b- All SIDs and STARs.
c- Class 1 NOTAM.
d- All of the above.
10- Wind altitude trade is used during;
a- Climb portion of the flight.
b- Cruise portion of the flight.
c- Descend portion of the flight.
11- The integrated range tables not only make flight planning accurate, but also
can be useful in calculating the fuel remaining after flying a predetermined
air distance during cruise.
a- True.
b- False.
12- Trip fuel from takeoff, at the departure airport to destination must include
the following fuel quantities;
a- Takeoff and climb at selected speed schedule, cruise at selected speed schedule,
diversion at selected speed schedule.
b- Takeoff and climb at selected speed schedule cruise at selected speed schedule,
descent from cruising level at selected speed schedule to initial approach fix,
diversion at LRC.
c- Take off and climb at selected speed schedule, cruise at selected speed schedule,
descent from cruising level at selected speed schedule to initial approach fix,
approach and landing fuel calculations.
13- To calculate the fuel required for a flight from A to B, you need to enter the
performance graphs or tables in the FCOM performance section and obtain
the fuel for each phase of the flight based on;
a- ISA deviation, destination weather, speed schedule, anti-ice and bleed
configuration.
b- ISA deviation, destination weather, speed schedule, all distances are Nautical Air
Miles.
c- ISA deviation, speed schedule, anti-ice and bleed configuration, all distances are
Nautical Air Miles

Good Luck
 Flying instrument Questions
Choose the correct answer
1- VOR Propagation:
a- Line of sight Propagation
b- Slant range Propagation
c- Surface wave Propagation

2- NDB Propagation:
a- Line of sight Propagation
b- Slant range Propagation
c- Surface wave Propagation

3- The VOR:-
a- Offer relatively interference free NAV
b- Affected by several interference
c- Can not used for NAV

4- VOR ground station are divided according to their normal reception and
power out put
a- False
b- True

5- NDB ground Station is divided according to their normal reception and

power out put and reception altitude.
a. False
b. True

6- The ADF is:-

a- Ground station
b- A/C receiver
c- Voice transmitter

7- QDR means:-
a- Magnetic Bearing from station
b- Magnetic Bearing to station
c- True Bearing from station

8- QDM means
a- Magnetic Bearing from station
b- Magnetic Bearing to station
c- True Bearing from station

9- On the RMI, the pointer arrow head (reference to NDB) represents:-

a- QDM
b- QDR
c- Radial inbound
10- On the RMI, the pointer arrow head (reference to VOR) represents
a- QDM
b- QDR
c- Radial inbound

11- The bearing of station (NDB or VOR) depends on the A/C Hdg:
a. False
b. True

12 – W
270

35 350
S N

E
The figure shows a VOR station:
a- Your HDG is
b- The VOR Magnetic Bearing to station is
c- You are on radial
d- The course to fly the radial inbound
e- The relative bearing is

120
E
13- 070
S

W
The figure shows an NDB station
a- Your HDG is
b- Your QDM is
c- Your QDR is
d- The Magnetic Bearing of station is
e- The relative bearing is
 070
14- N E
NOTE: consider all the factors
Affecting your decision is
Average with no wind

170
S
W

The figure shows a VOR station, your clearance is to proceed on radial 040°
inbound
A-
a- Turn to the left
b- Turn to the right

B-
a- your max intercepting angle is HGD
b- Your initial intercepting HGD is

350
N
15- 300 NOTE: consider all the factors
Affecting your decision is
W average and no wind

E
S

The figure Shows NDB station. Your clearance is to proceed QDR 170°
A- You must
a- Turn to the left
b- Turn to the right

B- Your max intercepting angle is HDG

C- Your initial intercepting HDG is
16- Select the correct answer - For a constant bank angle:-
a- As the A/C air speed increases the rate of turn decrease and the radius of turn
increase
b- As the A/C air speed increase the rate of turn increase and the radius of turn decrease
c- As the A/C air speed increase the rate of turn decrease and the radius of turn decrease

17- The angular difference between the leading radial and the required radial
should be increased as the
a- Intercepting angle increase and the A/C rate of turn decrease
b- Intercepting angle decrease and the A/C rate of turn decrease
c- Intercepting angle decrease and the A/C rate of turn increase

18- You should increase the angular difference between the leading radial and the
required radial as:
a- Your distance from the VOR decrease and your ground speed decrease
b- Your distance from the VOR increase and your ground speed decrease
c- Your distance from the VOR decrease and your ground speed increase

Good Luck
 Performance Questions
Choose the correct answer
1- Vmcg is the minimum speed on the ground at which the takeoff can be continued,
utilizing aerodynamic controls and nose wheel steering, when an engine fails.
A- True
B- False

2- Which of the following effects will shorten the acceleration distance during take off?
A- A tail wind component.
B- An uphill slope.
C- A downhill slope

3- The height at which V2 speed must be reached above the take-off surface after
an engine failure at V1 is:
A- The screen height (35 feet for dry runway)
B- The acceleration height (at least 400 feet)
C- The decision height

4- In case of takeoffs with reduced takeoff thrust, the value of Vmcg is based on full
thrust, why?
A- To permit for the case when the crew elects to increase power on the remaining
engines after an engine fails at or above VI
B- Because reduced thrust procedures result in larger yaw moment in case of engine failure
C- To reduce the Accelerate and Stop Distance (ASD) in case of engine failure

5- The load factor for un-accelerated straight and level flight is:
A- 0.1 g
B- 1.0 g
C- 1.2 g

6- In the event of engine failure in cruise and there are no terrain or obstacle
constraints, we can drift down at high speed to increase range:
A- True
B- False

7 - One of the following inequalities is correct:

A- Vmcg > VI.
B- VI > Vmcg.
C- VI > Vr.

8- Maximum tire speed is a speed limit determined by:

A- The strength of the tires, since they are exposed to high centrifugal forces at high speeds
B- The ability of the brakes to absorb heat energy
C- The number of wheels on the landing gear
9- What will be your decision if an engine failure is recognized at V1?
A- Continue the take-off
B- Initiate the necessary actions to stop the airplane

10- Special attention is required to the maximum brake energy speed (Vmbe)
limitations during take-off:
A- At low elevation airports
B- At high elevation airports
C- At short runways with low take-off weights

11- The altimeter subscale is set at 10 13.2 MB, which altitude shall be indicated by
this altimeter:
A- Indicated altitude
B- Pressure altitude
C- Density altitude

12- Reduced takeoff thrust is used whenever possible to:

A- Lift more payloads
B- Reduce the takeoff distance
C- Increase the engine life

13- If the vertical acceleration imposed 1.35 G on an aircraft during turbulence and
its gross weight is 78 tons, the equivalent one-g gross weight is:
A- 78.0 Tons
B- 105.3 Tons
C- 101.4 Tons

14- The Pressure Altitude is the altitude when the altimeter is set at:
A- QFE
B- QNH
C- 1013 MB (Standard Datum Plane)

15- The Absolute Altitude is the altitude above:

A- Standard Sea Level
B- Actual Sea Level
C- The surface

16- The VR speed must not be less than:

A- V1
B- VMU
C- 1.2 VS

17- The Balanced V1 (V1B) is the speed where:

A- The climb limit weight is equal to the runway limit weight
B- The required Take Off distance is equal to the required accelerate-stop distance
C- V2 is minimum
18- The Take Off second segment extends from the gear up point to a gross height
of at least:
A- 400 ft
B- 800 ft
C- 1500 ft

19- For given Take Off conditions, increase of V2/VS ratio will result in:
A- Increasing the runway limit weight
B- Decreasing the runway limit weight
C- No change in the runway limit weight

20- The load factor „G‟ is the:

A- Ratio between the gross weight of the airplane and the total air load imposed on the
wing in-flight
B- Ratio between the total air loads imposed on the wing in-flight and the gross weight
of the airplane
C- Ratio between CL and CD

Good Luck
 (RNP) R-NAV and RVSM Questions
Choose the correct answer
1- Required Navigation Performance (RNP-X) means
A- (X) TRK & (A) TRK error is (X) NM for 95% of flying time
B- (X) TRK error is (X) KM for 95% of flying time
C- (X) TRK error & (A) TRK error is (X) KM for 95 % of the flying time

2- Integrity means
A- The difference between computed position and cleared position
B- The ability of system to produce warning when the information obtained is no longer valid
C- None of the above

3- (R-NAV) stands for

A- Radio navigation
B- Route navigation
C- Area navigation

4- (R-NAV) is defined as a method of navigation that permits operations on any

desired flight path
A- Within coverage on ground based navigation aids
B- Within the capability of self contained navigation aids
C- Both A and B

5- Example of self-contained navigation aids are

A- INS, IRS, GPS
B- VOR, DME, NDB
C- ILS, MLS

6- Global Positioning System (GPS) consists of

A- 24 Satellites in 6 orbits
B- 25 Satellites in 5 orbits
C- 23 Satellites in 5 orbits

7- The datum used by the GPS is

A- PE-90
B- WGS-84
C- SA 1965

8- The minimum number of satellites to calculate a position using the GPS with
integrity is
A- 6 Satellites
B- 5 Satellites
C- 4 Satellites
9- Input the aircraft stand position to the (INS/IRS) prior to departure is called
A- Automatic tuning
B- Manual updating
C- Ground alignment

10- The accuracy of (INS/IRS)

A- Is the same during the whole flying time
B- Enhances with time elapsed
C- Degrades with time, by 2NM/Hr drift rate

11- The GPS accuracy

A- Degrades with time only
B- Does not Affected by time or range
C- Degrades with range only

12- The maximum allowable time limit within the RNP-5 airspace is
A- 2.5 hours
B- 2 hours
C- 1.5 hour

13- The maximum allowable time to fly within RNP airspace without updating
and maintain the accuracy limit is called
A- Accuracy limit
B- Time limit
C- Drift rate

14- Flying within the RNP-5 airspace requires

A- (1) FMS, (1) IRS, (1) VOR receiver, (1) DME receiver
B- (1) VOR receiver, (1) DME
C- (1) IRS, (1) VOR receiver, (1) DME receiver

15- Flying a longer time than the time limit of the airspace without updating
required the pilot notification to the ATC using
A- Affirmative R-NAV
B- Affirmative RNP
C- Negative R-NAV

16- The RNP operational approval is stated in

A- The flight operational manual
B- The operations specifications (OPS-SPECS)
C- The flight crew-training manual

17- For the aircraft equipped with R-NAV system, ATC flight plan item 10 will
filed with the letter
A- S
B- Y
C- R
18- Before dispatch a flight require RNP-5 routes accuracy, the crew should
check the (R-NAV) capability of his aircraft referring to
A- Configuration deviation list
B- Minimum equipment list
C- Flight crew-training manual

Good Luck