MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

ELECTRONIC
SYSTEMS &
TECHNOLOGIES
Prepared By: ???
 Questions from file: CE-est | “2013” Set

SIGNAL SPECTRA and PROCESSING (5)

1. Why does a 5-kHz square wave require a greater bandwidth than a 2-kHz
sinewave?
a. The square wave has a larger frequency than the sinewave.
b. The square wave has an infinite number of harmonics, whereas the
sinewave has only one.*
c. The square wave is much easier to cover by noise.
d. The square wave must also include an offset (dc) voltage, whereas the
sinewave does not.

2. A spectrum analyzer is
a. An instrument that displays amplitude versus frequency on a CRT.
b. Often used to determine if a transmitter's output signal is free from
any spurious signals.
c. Can be thought of as a radio receiver with broad frequency range.
d. All the above.*

3. Which part of the sinewave expression cannot be varied in accordance

with the low-frequency intelligence to create a modulated signal?
a. Phase
b. Frequency
c. Time*
d. Amplitude

4. The difference between the upper and lower frequency limits of a signal
or the equipment operation range is the
a. amplitude c. bandwidth*
b. spectrum d. medium

5. Indicate the false statement. Fourier analysis shows that a sawtooth

wave consist of
a. fundamental and subharmonic sine waves*
b. a fundamental sine wave and an infinite number of harmonics
c. fundamental and harmonic sine waves whose amplitude decreases with
the harmonic number
d. sinusoidal voltages, some of which are small enough to ignore in
practice

PRINCIPLES OF COMMUNICATION (30)

6. A double-tuned IF transformer has k = 1.5kC. The primary Q is 30 and the

secondary Q is 20. What is the bandwidth of the transformer at a
frequency of 10.7 MHz.
A. 360 kHz C. 750 kHz
B. 655 kHz * D. 156 kHz

7. What is the frequency range of EHF?

A. 3 – 30 GHz
B. 30 – 300 GHz *
C. 30 – 300 MHz
 D. 300 – 3000 MHz

8. In a double-tuned circuit, minimum bandwidth is obtained with _____

coupling
A. under * C. optimum
B. over D. critical

9. In PLL frequency demodulator, the information or the modulating signal

is the _____ signal.
A. phase shift C. VCO
B. error * D. input

10. What is the second detector is used for AM?

A. ratio C. diode *
B. PLL D. lattice

11. A receiver produces a noise power of 200mW with no signal. The output
level increases by 5W when a signal is applied. Calculate (S+N)/N in
decibels.
A. 10.14 dB C. 13.12 dB
B. 11.34 dB D. 14.14 dB*

12. The square of the thermal noise voltage generated by a resistor is not
proportional to
A. Its resistance
B. Its temperature
C. Boltzmann’s constant*
D. The bandwidth over which it is measured

13. Determine the noise figure for an equivalent noise temperature of 75K.
A. 1 dB* C. 2 dB
B. 3 dB D. 1.25 dB

14. Also known as lock range

A. capture range
B. free-running frequency
C. natural frequency
D. tracking range*

15. Considered as the main source of an internal noise.

A. Flicker
B. Thermal agitation *
C. Device imperfection
D. Temperature change

16. Indicate the false statement regarding the advantages of SSB over
double sideband, full-carrier AM
a. More channel space is available.
b. Transmitter circuits must be more stable, giving better reception.*
c. The signal is more noise-resistant
d. Much less power is required for the same signal strength

17. The value of a resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise
power generator is therefore
a. halved c. doubled
 b. quadrupled d. unchanged*

18. Determine the peak frequency deviation and modulation index (m) for
an FM modulator with a deviation sensitivity K1 = 5 kHz/V and a
modulating signal vm(t) = 2 cos (2pi2000t).
A. 5* C. 3
B. 4 D. 2

19. Why are image frequencies somewhat less of a problem in FM receivers

than they are in SSB or AM receivers?
a. SSB uses less bandwidth than does FM.
b. FM signals have a capture effect characteristic.*
c. FM mixer stages are square-law devices.
d. FM receivers do not use the superheterodyne design.

20. The hold-in range for a PLL concerns the

a. Range of frequencies in which it will remain locked *
b. Allowable range of dc voltage
c. Allowable range of ac input voltage
d. Satisfactory range of operating temperatures

21. Carson's rule is used to approximate the necessary

a. Frequency deviation
b. Bandwidth*
c. Capture ratio
d. Modulation index

22. In a balanced-ring modulator, the carrier suppression is accomplished

by
a. A dual-gate FET having symmetry
b. Center-tapped transformers causing canceling magnetic fields*
c. The nonlinearity of the diodes that are used
d. Symmetrical differential amplifier stages

23. Which of the following would occur in a receiver not having AGC?
a. The speaker output level would drastically change while tuning from a
weak signal to a strong signal.
b. Local stations would easily produce distorted signals in the speaker.
c. There would be a constant need to readjust the volume control as the
weather and ionosphere change.
d. All the above *

24. Double conversion is used to overcome the problem of

a. Image frequency*
b. Tracking
c. Diagonal clipping
d. Poor sensitivity

25. The sensitivity of a receiver has to do with its ability to

a. Withstand shock
b. Receive one station versus another
c. Receive weak stations*
d. All the above
26. A transmitter having a 900-W carrier transmits 1188 W when modulated
with a single sinewave. If the carrier is simultaneously modulated with
another sinewave at 60% modulation, calculate the total transmitted
power.
a. 1084 W c. 1350 W*
b. 1170 W d. 1224 W

27. The oscillator design that uses a third capacitor in the tank circuit
for swamping out the effect of the transistor's internal capacitances is
the
a. Hartley design c. Colpitts design
b. Clapp design * d. Crystal design

28. First symbol in the designation of radio signals emission which

refers to use of an unmodulated carrier.
A. J C. H
B. N* D. A

29. A transistor has a power dissipation rating of 30 W. Assuming that

the transistors is the only element that dissipates power in the
circuit, calculate the power an amplifier, using this transistor, could
deliver to the load if it operates as class-A with an efficiency of 30%
A. 35.7 W C. 22.5 W
B. 7.5 W D. 12.86 W*

30. It is the measure of the ability of a communications system to

produce, at the output of the receiver, an exact replica of the original
source information.
A. reciprocity C. fidelity *
B. distortion D. sensitivity

31. It is the point where the reflected resistance is equal to primary

resistance and the Q of the primary tank circuit is halved and the
bandwidth doubled.
A. critical coupling*
B. tight coupling
C. loose coupling
D. optimum coupling

32. Calculate the amount of frequency deviation caused by a limited noise

spike that still causes an undesired phase shift of 35 degrees when the
input frequency is 5 kHz.
A. 2.40 kHz C. 1.29 kHz
B. 3.05 kHz* D. 4.45 kHz

33. The L-R stereo channel in FM broadcasting is between

A. 50 Hz to 15 kHz C.23 kHz to 53kHz*
B. 60 kHz to 74 kHz D. 20 Hz to 20 kHz

34. Maximum frequency deviation of a PM signal occurs at

A. zero-crossing points *
B. peak positive amplitudes
C. peak negative amplitude
D. peak positive and negative amplitude
35. One of the following statement is false, regarding making the IF value
very high.
A. the image rejection will be very good
B. there is no need to make the local oscillator extremely stable
C. tracking will be greatly improved
D. the selectivity will be very poor *

DIGITAL COMMUNICATION (20)

36. In a frequency hopping, spread spectrum system, a _________ circuit

generates the transmitter frequency.
A. Exclusive OR
B. Frequency synthesizer*
C. PSN code generator
D. multiplexer

37. The FET acts like a switch. When turned “on” it provides a low
impedance path to deposit the analog sample across a capacitor. The time
when the FET is “on” is called _____time.
A. sampling C. natural
B. acquisition * D. storage

38. The modulator transmits symbols, each of which has sixty-four

different possible states, 10,000 times per second. How much is the bit
rate?
A. 64 kbps C. 60 kbps*
B. 10 kbps D. none of these

39. Which of the following is correct?

A. the bit rate may be greater than the baud rate*
B. the baud rate may be greater than the bit rate
C. the bit and the rate rate are always equal
D. the bit and the baud rates are not related

40. If the transmission rate of a digital communications system of 10

Mbps modulation scheme used is 16 QAM, determine the bandwidth
efficiency in bits per cycle.
A. 5 bits/cycle C. 4 bits/cycle *
B. 10 bits/cycle D. 3 bits/cycle

41. Determine the resolution for an 8-bit linear sign-magnitude PCM for a
maximum decoded voltage of 2.55 Vp.
A. 0.02V * C. 0.05V
B. 0.03V D. 0.07V

42. The technique that uses the BPSK vector relationship to generate an
output with logical 0s and 1s determined by comparing the phase of two
successive data bits is
a. CSU/DSU c. CVSD
b. TDM d. DPSK *

43. Technique of spread spectrum that breaks message into fixed-size

blocks of data with each block transmitted in sequence except on the
different carrier frequency.
 A. spread spectrum
B. time-division multiplexing
C. frequency-hopping*
D. direct sequence

44. In spread-spectrum frequency hopping system, a _____ circuit selects

the frequency modulated by the synthesizer.
A. frequency synthesizer
B. FSK oscillator
C. PSN code generator*
D. frequency shifter

45. Bluetooth wireless technology uses _____ to produce the spreading

function of spectrum signals.
A. hybrid direct-sequence
B. hybrid frequency-hopping
C. direct sequence
D. frequency-hopping*

46. The baud rate

a. is always equal to the bit transfer rate
b. is equal to twice the bandwidth of an ideal channel*
c. is not equal to the signaling rate
d. is equal to one-half the bandwidth of an ideal channel

47. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is

a. frequency-shift keying*
b. two-tone modulation
c. pulse-code modulation
d. single-tone modulation

48. In order to reduce quantizing noise, one must

a. increase the number of standard amplitudes*
b. send pulses whose sides are more nearly vertical
c. use an RF amplifier in the receiver
d. increase the number of samples per second

49. In PCM systems, if the input of the Analog-to-Digital Converter (ADC)

is changing while it is performing a conversion, _________ will result.
A. Aperture error
B. Quantizing error
C. Aperture Distortion *
D. Sampling error

50. If the magnitude of a sample exceeds the highest quantization

interval is called:
A. Peak limiting * C. Quantizing error
B. Aliasing D. Sampling error

51. In PCM system, the minimum sampling rate is

A. twice the highest audio input frequency *
B. twice the lowest audio input frequency
C. twice the highest carrier frequency
D. not a function of audio signal nor carrier
52. The type of radio transmission that uses pseudorandomly switched
frequency or time transmissions is known as
a. Synthesizing
b. Facsimile
c. Spread spectrum*
d. Compression

53. Which of the following is not a common RZ code?

a. RZ-unipolar c. RZ-M*
b. RZ-bipolar d. RZ-AMI

54. The AT&T T1 lines

a. Use 16-bit PCM code and include 24 voice channels
b. Use delta modulation and include 48 voice channels
c. Use 8-bit PCM code and include 24 voice channels *
d. Use delta modulation and include 24 voice channels

55. A scheme in which several channels are interleaved and then

transmitted together is known as
a. frequency-division multiplex*
b. time-division multiplex
c. a group
d. a supergroup

TRANSMISSION LINES AND ANTENNA SYSTEMS (30)

56. A receiver requires 0.9 uV of the signal for satisfactory reception.

How strong in microvolts must the signal be at the antenna if the
receiver is connected to the antenna by 40 m of the matched line having
an attenuation of 6 dB per 100m?
A. 1.816 uV C. 0.954 uV
B. 1.186 uV * D. 0.594 uV

57. If the H field in the waveguide is perpendicular to the direction of a

signal travel, the mode is said to be ____________.
A. transverse electric magnetic
B. transverse magnetic *
C. transverse electric
D. transverse magnetic electric

58. Diffraction of electromagnetic waves

A. is caused by reflections from the ground
B. arises only with spherical waveform
C. will occur when the waves pass through a large slot
D. may occur around the edge of a sharp obstacle *

59. The field associated with the energy stored in the antenna is the
A. Radiation field C. Induction field *
B. Capacitance field D. Tank field

60. A microwave antenna is 500ft high. The receive antenna is 150 feet
high. The maximum transmission distance is ____.
A. 142 miles C. 94 miles
B. 421 miles D. 49 miles – (use Maximum Radio Range formula) *
61. High-frequency waves are
A. absorbed by the F2 layer
B. reflected by the D layer
C. capable of use for long-distance communications on the moon
D. affected by the solar cycle *

62. The E layer is sometimes called

A. sporadic E C. sporadic F
B. ionosphere layer D. Kennely-layer*

63. A short-circuited transmission line less than quarter-wavelength

long.
A. inductive *
B. capacitive
C. parallel resonant circuit
D. series resonant circuit

64. Impedance inversion may be obtained with

A. a short-circuited stub
B. an open-circuited stub
C. a quarter-wave line *
D. a half-wave line

65. Calculate the velocity of propagation of a coaxial cables, used as a

transmission line, with a characteristic impedance of 50 ohms,
capacitance is 40 pF/m, and inductance equal to 50 uH/m.
A. 22.36 x 10^6 m/s *
B. 17.87 x 10^6 m/s
C. 23.56 x 10^6 m/s
D. 24.14 x 10^6 m/s

66. A properly matched transmission line has a loss of 1.5 dB/50m. If 10W
is supplied to one end of the line, how many watts reach the load, 30 m
away?
A. 9.1 W C. 10.9 W
B. 9.5 W D. 8.12 W *

67. Calculate the minimum length of a pair of conductors to be considered

as a transmission line, if its operating frequency is 800 MHz.
A. 37.5 mm C. 37.5 cm
B. 375 mm D. 3.75 mm

68. Calculate the time delay in nanosecond introduced by a 100 ft coaxial

cable with a dielectric constant of 2.3.
A. 230 C. 154 *
B. 152 D. 15.2

69. The absorption of radio waves by the atmosphere depends on

___________.
A. their distance from the transmitter
B. the polarization of the waves
C. the polarization of the atmosphere
D. their frequency *

70. In electromagnetic waves, polarization

A. is caused by reflection
 B. is due to the transverse nature of the waves *
C. results from the longitudinal nature of waves
D. is always vertical in an isotropic medium

71. A flat conductor sandwich between two ground planes.

A. Stripline * C. Microstrip
B. Waveguide D. Coaxial cable

72. Using TDR, a transmission line impairment is located 3000m from the
source. For a velocity propagation of 0.9c, determine the time elapsed
from the beginning of the pulse to the reception of the echo
A. 11.11 us C. 22.22 us *
B. 10.12 us D. 21.14 us

73. A dipole antenna has an efficiency of 95%. Calculate the gain in

decibels.
A. 3.51 dB C. 1.64 dB
B. 1.93 dB * D. 1.87 dB

74. What is a double-hop signal?

A. ground, ionosphere, ground and back to ionosphere
B. ground, ground, ionosphere and ionosphere
C. ionosphere, ionosphere, ground and ground
D. ionosphere, ground, ionosphere and back to ground *

75. Hertz antenna are predominantly used with frequencies above

A. 3 MHz C. 5 MHz
B. 4 MHz D. 2 MHz *

76. It is a wire structure placed below the antenna and erected above the
ground.
A. ground plane C. ground lines
B. counterpoise * D. top hat

77. At the ends of the half-wave antenna, what values of current and
voltage exist compared to the remainder of the antenna?
A. minimum voltage and maximum current
B. minimum voltage and minimum current
C. equal voltage and minimum current
D. maximum voltage and minimum current *

78. Consists of basic antenna connected to a transmission line plus one

or more additional conductors
A. parasitic array* C. driven array
B. directors D. reflectors

79. At very high frequencies, transmission lines are used as

A. tuned circuits* C. insulators
B. antennas D. resistors

80. A shorted quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a(n)
A. series resonant circuit
B. parallel resonant circuit *
C. capacitor
D. inductor
81. An antenna can be thought of as a(n)
a. Oscillator
b. Capacitor
c. Transducer *
d. Frequency multiplexer

82. A wave that is characterized by having its direction of propagation

perpendicular to its oscillation is known as
a. Isotropic c. Polarized
b. Transverse * d. Refractive

83. A point in space that radiates electromagnetic energy equally in all

directions is called
a. Transverse
b. Isotropic point source *
c. Omnisphere
d. Shadow zone

84. Which is not one of the basic modes of getting a radio wave from the
transmitting to receiving antenna?
a. Ground wave c. Space wave
b. Shadow wave * d. Satellite link

85. A loading coil is often used with a Marconi antenna in order to

a. Tune out the capacitive reactance portion of the input impedance of
the antenna *
b. Tune out the inductive reactance portion of the input impedance of
the antenna
c. Raise the input impedance of the antenna
d. Decrease the losses of the antenna

DATA COMMUNICATION (15)

86. On a_________, a data stream has a channel all to itself for the
duration of the connection.
A. Message switched
B. circuit-switched network *
C. packet switching
D. all of the choices

87. Token passing can be implemented as a

A. Mesh or a star
B. Point to point or a star
C. ring or as a bus. *
D. Star or a mesh

88. What type of channel accessing in a networks that must deal with
"contention".
A. CSMA-CD*
B. Bus token passing
C. Ring token passing
D. Star token passing

89. Ethernet is commonly using

 A. a central ring
B. a central bus *
C. a node
D. none of the above

90. In a circuit-switched network:

A. communication is half-duplex only
B. each channel carries only one data stream *
C. connection is usually done using a bus topology
D. all of the above
91. On networks, long messages are divided into "chunks" called:
A. Packets * C. Carriers
B. Nodes D. Tokens

92. One type of network that never has a collision is:

A. CSMA
B. Ethernet
C. Token passing *
D. All networks have collisions

93. A switch:
A. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it
B. sends incoming packets out to specific ports *
C. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network
D. are more common in token-passing networks

94. In a __________ network, all nodes are connected to a central

computer.
A. Mesh C. Ring
B. Star * D. Point to point

95. TCP/IP is a ______ hierarchical protocol suite developed ____ the OSI
model
A) seven-layer; before
B) five-layer; before*
C) six-layer; before
D) five-layer; after

96. The physical, data link, and network layers are the ______ support
layers.
A) user
B) Network*
C) both (a) and (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)

97. In the OSI model, when data is transmitted from device A to device B,
the header from A's layer 5 is read by B's _______ layer.
A) physical C) Session*
B) transport D) presentation

98. Determine the Hamming distance for the codewords ( 10101, 11001)
a. one c. three
b. two* d. five
99. It is a connecting device between two internetworks that use
different models
a. Bridge c. Repeater
b. Gateway* d. router

100. Exchange of predetermined signals when a connection is established

between two dataset devices.
A. handshaking * C. formatting
B. transmission D. internet
 Questions from file: CE-est(1) | “2nd” Set

1. The FET acts like a switch. When turned “on” it provides a low impedance
path to deposit the analog sample across a capacitor. The time when the
FET is “on” is called _____time.
A. sampling C. natural
B. acquisition * D. storage

2. The modulator transmits symbols, each of which has sixty-four different

possible states, 10,000 times per second. How much is the bit rate?
A. 64 kbps C. 60 kbps*
B. 10 kbps D. none of these

3. Determine the resolution for an 8-bit linear sign-magnitude PCM for a

maximum decoded voltage of 2.55 Vp.
A. 0.02V * C. 0.05V
B. 0.03V D. 0.07V

4. The technique that uses the BPSK vector relationship to generate an

output with logical 0s and 1s determined by comparing the phase of two
successive data bits is
a. CSU/DSU c. CVSD
b. TDM d. DPSK *

5. In order to reduce quantizing noise, one must

a. increase the number of standard amplitudes*
b. send pulses whose sides are more nearly vertical
c. use an RF amplifier in the receiver
d. increase the number of samples per second

6. In PCM systems, if the input of the Analog-to-Digital Converter (ADC) is

changing while it is performing a conversion, _________ will result.
A. Aperture error C. Aperture Distortion *
B. Quantizing error D. Sampling error

7. A receiver requires 0.9 uV of the signal for satisfactory reception. How

strong in microvolts must the signal be at the antenna if the receiver
is connected to the antenna by 40 m of the matched line having an
attenuation of 6 dB per 100m?
A. 1.816 uV C. 0.954 uV
B. 1.186 uV * D. 0.594 uV

8. Diffraction of electromagnetic waves

A. is caused by reflections from the ground
B. arises only with spherical waveform
C. will occur when the waves pass through a large slot
D. may occur around the edge of a sharp obstacle *

9. The field associated with the energy stored in the antenna is the
A. Radiation field C. Induction field *
B. Capacitance field D. Tank field
10. High-frequency waves are
A. absorbed by the F2 layer
B. reflected by the D layer
C. capable of use for long-distance communications on the moon
D. affected by the solar cycle *

11. A short-circuited transmission line less than quarter-wavelength

long.
A. inductive *
B. capacitive
C. parallel resonant circuit
D. series resonant circuit

12. Calculate the velocity of propagation of a coaxial cables, used as a

transmission line, with a characteristic impedance of 50 ohms,
capacitance is 40 pF/m, and inductance equal to 50 uH/m.
A. 22.36 x 10^6 m/s * C. 23.56 x 10^6 m/s
B. 17.87 x 10^6 m/s D. 24.14 x 10^6 m/s

13. A properly matched transmission line has a loss of 1.5 dB/50m. If 10W
is supplied to one end of the line, how many watts reach the load, 30 m
away?
A. 9.1 W C. 10.9 W
B. 9.5 W D. 8.12 W *

14. Calculate the minimum length of a pair of conductors to be considered

as a transmission line, if its operating frequency is 800 MHz.
A. 37.5 mm * C. 37.5 cm
B. 375 mm D. 3.75 mm

15. Calculate the time delay in nanosecond introduced by a 100 ft coaxial

cable with a dielectric constant of 2.3.
A. 230 C. 154 *
B. 152 D. 15.2

16. The absorption of radio waves by the atmosphere depends on

___________.
A. their distance from the transmitter
B. the polarization of the waves
C. the polarization of the atmosphere
D. their frequency *

17. A flat conductor sandwich between two ground planes.

A. Stripline * C. Microstrip
B. Waveguide D. Coaxial cable

18. Using TDR, a transmission line impairment is located 3000m from the
source. For a velocity propagation of 0.9c, determine the time elapsed
from the beginning of the pulse to the reception of the echo
A. 11.11 us C. 22.22 us *
B. 10.12 us D. 21.14 us

19. A dipole antenna has an efficiency of 95%. Calculate the gain in

decibels.
A. 3.51 dB C. 1.64 dB
B. 1.93 dB * D. 1.87 dB
20. Hertz antenna are predominantly used with frequencies above
A. 3 MHz C. 5 MHz
B. 4 MHz D. 2 MHz *

21. At the ends of the half-wave antenna, what values of current and
voltage exist compared to the remainder of the antenna?
A. minimum voltage and maximum current
B. minimum voltage and minimum current
C. equal voltage and minimum current
D. maximum voltage and minimum current *

22. A shorted quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a(n)
A. series resonant circuit C. capacitor
B. parallel resonant circuit * D. inductor

23. A point in space that radiates electromagnetic energy equally in all

directions is called
a. Transverse c. Omnisphere
b. Isotropic point source * d. Shadow zone

24. A loading coil is often used with a Marconi antenna in order to

a. Tune out the capacitive reactance portion of the input impedance of
the antenna *
b. Tune out the inductive reactance portion of the input impedance of
the antenna
c. Raise the input impedance of the antenna
d. Decrease the losses of the antenna

25. On a_________, a data stream has a channel all to itself for the
duration of the connection.
A. Message switched
B. circuit-switched network*
C. packet switching
D. all of the choices

26. Token passing can be implemented as a

A. Mesh or a star
B. Point to point or a star
C. ring or as a bus. *
D. Star or a mesh

27. What type of channel accessing in a networks that must deal with
"contention".
A. CSMA-CD* C. Ring token passing
B. Bus token passing D. Star token passing

28. In a circuit-switched network:

A. communication is half-duplex only
B. each channel carries only one data stream *
C. connection is usually done using a bus topology
D. all of the above

29. On networks, long messages are divided into "chunks" called:

A. Packets * C. Carriers
 B. Nodes D. Tokens

30. In a __________ network, all nodes are connected to a central

computer.
A. Mesh C. Ring
B. Star * D. Point to point

31. TCP/IP is a ______ hierarchical protocol suite developed ____ the OSI
model
A) seven-layer; before C) six-layer; before
B) five-layer; before* D) five-layer; after

32. In the OSI model, when data is transmitted from device A to device B,
the header from A's layer 5 is read by B's _______ layer.
A) physical C) Session*
B) transport D) presentation

33. It is a connecting device between two internetworks that use

different models
a. Bridge c. Repeater
b. Gateway* d. router

34. One of the following statement is false, regarding making the IF value
very high.
A. the image rejection will be very good
B. there is no need to make the local oscillator extremely stable
C. tracking will be greatly improved
D. the selectivity will be very poor *

35. Maximum frequency deviation of a PM signal occurs at

A. zero-crossing points*
B. peak positive amplitudes
C. peak negative amplitude
D. peak positive and negative amplitude

36. Calculate the amount of frequency deviation caused by a limited noise

spike that still causes an undesired phase shift of 35 degrees when the
input frequency is 5 kHz.
A. 2.40 kHz C. 1.29 kHz
B. 3.05 kHz* D. 4.45 kHz

37. It is the point where the reflected resistance is equal to primary

resistance and the Q of the primary tank circuit is halved and the
bandwidth doubled.
A. critical coupling* C. loose coupling
B. tight coupling D. optimum coupling

38. It is the measure of the ability of a communications system to

produce, at the output of the receiver, an exact replica of the original
source information.
A. reciprocity C. fidelity *
B. distortion D. sensitivity

39. A receiver produces a noise power of 200mW with no signal. The output
level increases by 5W when a signal is applied. Calculate (S+N)/N in
decibels.
 A. 10.14 dB C. 13.12 dB
B. 11.34 dB D. 14.14 dB*

40. In a double-tuned circuit, minimum bandwidth is obtained with _____

coupling
A. under * C. optimum
B. over D. critical

41. What is the frequency range of EHF?

A. 3 – 30 GHz C. 30 – 300 MHz
B. 30 – 300 GHz * D. 300 – 3000 MHz

42. An advantage of using a switch

instead of a hub is:
A. it is cheaper when used in large networks
B. it is faster when used in large networks
C. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks*
D. all of the above

43. What is the actual length in feet of

a one-half wavelength of a coax with a velocity factor of 0.57 at 25
MHz?
A. 42.17 C. 41.12
B. 44.87* D. 43.25

44. The twin parallel transmission line

is separated by a distance of 300 mm between the centre lines of the
conductors. The diameter of the identical conductors is 4 mm. What is
the characteristic impedance of the line if it suspended in free space?
A. 400 ohms C. 600 ohms*
B. 500 ohms D. 700 ohms

45. A transistor class C amplifier has a

maximum permissible collector dissipation of 20 watts and collector
efficiency of 75 %. If it is collector modulated to a depth of 90 %,
calculate the power in the sidebands.
A. 17.3 W* C. 42.7 W
B. 60.2 W D. 26.67 W

46. Compared to PCM, adaptive delta

modulation can transmit voice:
A. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality
B. with a lower bit rate but the same quality*
C. only over shorter distances
D. only if the voice is band-limited

47. What should be done to increase the

transmission distance at frequencies higher than HF bands?
A. increase antenna gain
B. increase transmitter power
C. increase antenna height*
D. increase receiver sensitivity

48. Image frequency problems would be

reduced by:
A. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor
B. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer
C. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer*
D. none of the above
49. An AM signal has the following characteristics: carrier frequency =
150 MHz; modulating frequency = 3 MHz; peak carrier voltage = 40 volts
and peak modulation voltage is 30 volts. Calculate the peak voltage of
the lower sideband frequency.
A. 15 volts * C. 70 volts
B. 10 volts D. 20 volts

50. Audio signals are not propagated directly to space because_____.

A. to do so will entail additional costs.
B. the signal will be highly attenuated
C. they will require antennas that are too long *
D. the signal that will be propagated will be too weak

51. A double-tuned IF transformer has k = 1.5kC. The primary Q is 30 and

the secondary Q is 20. what is the bandwidth of the transformer at a
frequency of 11.7 MHz?
A. 360 kHz C. 716 kHz*
B. 655 kHz D. 156 kHz
 Questions from file: est-A | “Post test& removal” Set

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A radio communication link is to be established via the ionosphere.

The maximum virtual height of the layer is 110 km. at the midpoint of
the path and the critical frequency is 4 MHz. If the distance between
the radio stations is 500 km, what is the suitable value for the
optimum working frequency? Use flat terrain analysis.
A. 2.8 MHz B. 4.7 MHz C. 8.4 MHz* D. 9.1 MHz

2. Double conversion is used to overcome the problem of

A. Image frequency* C. Diagonal clipping
B. Tracking D. Poor sensitivity

3. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is:

A. it is cheaper when used in large networks
B. it is faster when used in large networks
C. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks*
D. all of the above

4. The use of two grounded conductors that sandwich a smaller conductive

strip with constant separation by a dielectric material on a printed
circuit board for use at frequencies above 500 Mhz is known as
A. Artwork traces C. Microstrip/stripline *
B. Dielectric waveguide D. MICs or MMICs

5. Find the maximum dynamic range for a linear PCM system using 16-bit
quantizing.
A. 11.12 dB B. 76.45 dB C. 255 dB D. 98.08 dB*

6. What is the actual length in feet of a one-half wavelength of a coax

with a velocity factor of 0.57 at 25 MHz?
A. 42.17 B. 44.87* C. 41.12 D. 43.25

7. The twin parallel transmission line is separated by a distance of 300

mm between the centre lines of the conductors. The diameter of the
identical conductors is 4 mm. What is the characteristic impedance of
the line if it suspended in free space?
A. 400 ohms B. 500 ohms C. 600 ohms* D. 700 ohms

8. Calculate the Doppler shift for a 500 MHz signal when the target is
moving directly towards the radar at a relative velocity of 240 m/s.
A. 500 Hz B. 600 Hz C. 700 Hz D. 800 Hz*

9. A transistor class C amplifier has a maximum permissible collector

dissipation of 20 watts and collector efficiency of 75 %. If it is
collector modulated to a depth of 90 %, calculate the power in the
sidebands.
A. 17.3 W* B. 60.2 W C. 42.7 W D. 26.67 W

10. A ratio expressing the percentage of incident voltage reflected on a

transmission line is known as the
A. Velocity factor C. Reflection coefficient*
B. standing wave ratio D. Line efficiency

11. On networks, long messages are divided into "chunks" called:

 A. Packets* B. nodes C. carriers D. tokens

12. A three-stage has stages with the following specifications: First

stage with power gain and noise figure of 10 and 2 respectively, 25
and 4 for the second stage and 30 and 5 for the third stage. Find the
noise temperature.
A. 382 K* B. 435 K C. 328 K D. 358 K

13. Which type of fiber-optic cable has the least modal dispersion?
A. Single-mode step-index* C. Sing-mode graded-index
B. Multimode step-index D. Multimode graded index

14. In a satellite communications system, free space conditions may be

assumed. The satellite is at a height of 36,000 km above earth, the
frequency used is 4000 MHz, the transmitting antenna gain is 15 dB,
and the receiving antenna gain is 45 dB. Calculate the received power
when the transmitted power is 200 W.
A. 5 pW* B. 10 pW C. 15 pW D. 20 pW

15. A TV tower has a height of 200 m. What is the maximum distance up to

which TV transmission can be received?
A. 35.77 km* B. 32.7 km C. 50.6 km D. 40.77 km

16. Compared to PCM, adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice:

A. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality
B. with a lower bit rate but the same quality*
C. only over shorter distances
D. only if the voice is band-limited

17. T1 carrier caries how many DS-0?

A. 24* B. 45 C. 60 D. 12

18. A signal at the input to a mu-law compressor is positive with its

voltage one-half the maximum value. What proportion of the maximum
output voltage is produced?
A. 0.786Vmax B. 0.876Vmax * C. 0.867Vmax D. 0.678Vmax

19. What should be done to increase the transmission distance at

frequencies higher than HF bands?
A. increase antenna gain C. increase antenna height*
B. increase transmitter power D. increase receiver sensitivity

20. As per ITU-R Recc. V.431-6 Tables 1 & 2 Wavelength Classifications,

what is the classification of Super High Frequency?
A. metric B. Decametric C. centimetric* D. millimetric

21. In the OSI model, the most important services to be performed by the
Session Layer are:
A. sampling and quantizing C. sign-on and log-out
B. log-in and terminating D. log-in and log-out procedures*

22. What do you call the ratio that compares the power density generated
by a practical antenna in some directions, with that of an isotropic
antenna radiating the same total power?
A. directive gain* C. antenna directivity
B. directivity gain D. antenna gain
23. The FET acts like a switch. When turned “on” it provides a low
impedance path to deposit the analog sample across a capacitor. The
time when the FET is “on” is called _____time.
A. sampling C. natural
B. acquisition* D. storage

24. Ground waves are most effective:

A. below about 2 MHz*
B. above about 20 MHz
C. at microwave frequencies
D. when using horizontally polarized waves

25. The range over which the input to a receiver or amplifier provides a
usable output is called the
A. Level of acceptability C. Degree of usefulness
B. Dynamic range* D. Specified input

26. A radio communication repeater has a transmitting output power of 1

kW, a 5dB feedline loss, 6dB duplexer and circulator loss, and a 10 dB
antenna gain. Calculate the effective radiated power.
A. 79.4 W B. 394 W C. 794 W * D. 251 W

27. The ground wave eventually disappears, as one moves away from the
transmitter, because of
A. interference from the sky wave
B. loss of line-of-sight conditions
C. maximum single-hop distance limitation
D. tilting*

28. Image frequency problems would be reduced by:

A. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor
B. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer
C. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer*
D. none of the above

29. The sound power level of a jet plane flying at a height of 1.5km is
140 dB (ref 10 exponent – 12w). What is the maximum sound pressure
level on the ground directly below the plane assuming that the
aircraft radiates sound equality in all directions?
A.65.5 dB * C. 59.5 dB

B. 79.5 dB D. 45.5 dB

30. The reverberation time of a broadcast studio having a volume of 240.3

cubic meters with material used total absorption of 370.3 sabines is:
A. 0.0104 sec C. 0.078 sec

B. 0.104 sec * D. 0.84 sec

31. One of these bands is NOT used by TV broadcasting stations in the

Philippines.
A. 72-76 MHz * C. 82-88 MHz

B. 66-72 MHz D. 76-82 MHz

32. A telephone signal takes 2 quarters of a second to reach its
destination. Calculate the via net loss necessary for an acceptable
amount of echo.
A. 104 dB C. 100 dB

B. 10.4 dB D. 100.4 dB *

33. The bit length of System Identification (SID)

A. 32 B. 15 * C. 10 D. 8

34. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend

upon its
A. length * C. conductor spacing

B. conductor diameter D. dielectric material

35. The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260 V, while the
maximum is 390 V, the SWR is
A. 0.67 B. 1.0 C. 1.2 D. 1.5 *

36. A open quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a/an
A. capacitor C. series resonant circuit*

B. inductor D. parallel resonant circuit

37. How many channels does as super group have?

A. 60 * B. 600 C. 1800 D. 10800

38. Alphabet No. 2 is commonly known as ___________.

A. ASCII codes C. Baudot codes *

B. Gray codes D. EBCDIC codes

39. Calculate the angle of declination for an antenna using a polar mount
at a latitude of 45 degrees.
A. 1.34 degrees C. 9.81 degrees

B. 6.81 degrees * D. 12 degrees

40. Counterpoise are generally used for _____.

A. Loop antenna C. Rhombic antenna

B. Marconi antenna * D. satellite dish

41. A frequency modulation system requires a signal-to-noise ratio of 40

dB at the detector output. The modulating frequency is 2 kHz and the
deviation is 50 kHz. Determine the required minimum S/N at the
detector input.
A. 120 dB * B. 25 dB C. 80 dB D. 83.3 dB

42. An optic fiber is made of glass with a refractive index of 1.54, and
is clad with another glass with refractive index of 1.50. Launching
takes place from air. Calculate the numerical aperture of the fiber.
A. 0.352 * C. 0.0352

B. 0.00352 D. 3.52
43. Using the NTSC standard, what is the aural carrier frequency of UHF
TV channel 28?
A. 558.75 MHz C. 553.75 MHz

B. 559.75 MHz * D. 555.25 MHz

44. When measuring the voice channel at a –4dB test point level, the
meter reads –76 dBm. Calculate the reading in dBrnC0?
A. 80 * B. 18 C. 8 D. 28

45. An uplink transmitter of a satellite system operates at 6 GHz with a

transmitter power of 12 kW and an antenna gain of 50 dBi. The
receiver in a geostationary satellite has an antenna gain of 40 dBi.
The elevation angle to the satellite from the ground is 45 deg.,
calculate the received signal strength at the satellite (height of
the satellite above the equator is 365,000 km., earth radius is 6400
km).
A. 38.7 dBm C. –70.8 dBm

B. 70.89 dBm D. –38.7 dBm *

46. If the transmission rate of a digital communication system of 10 Mbps

modulation scheme used is 16 QAM, determine the bandwidth efficiency.
A. 5 bits/cycle C. 4 bits/cycle *

B. 10 bits/cycle D. 3 bits/cycle

47. The carrier transmitted 1.25 MHz above the bottom frequency in the
Philippines TV channel is the_____.
A. intercarrier C. picture *

B. sound D. sub-picture carrier

48. An AM signal has the following characteristics: carrier frequency =

150 MHz; modulating frequency = 3 MHz; peak carrier voltage = 40
volts and peak modulation voltage is 30 volts. Calculate the peak
voltage of the lower sideband frequency.
A. 15 volts * C. 70 volts

B. 10 volts D. 20 volts

49. What is the result of a balanced modulator if not perfectly balanced?

A. the lower sideband is transmitted

B. both sidebands are transmitted

C. the carrier is transmitted *

D. the SB is filtered

50. The scientist who profounded the theory of electro-magnetic radiation

is
A. Thomas Edison C. James Maxwell *

B. Guglielmo Marconi D. Heinrich Hertz

51. The amplitude of a sine wave which is modulated by a musical program
will
A. be complex and contain fundamental and harmonic frequencies *

B. contain harmonic frequencies

C. be complex

D. contain fundamental frequencies

52. A telephone line has a bandwidth of 3.2 kHz and signal-to-noise ratio
of 34 dB. A signal is transmitted down this line using a four-level
code. What is the maximum theoretical data rate?
A. 72.6 kbps C. 36.3 kbps

B. 12.8 kbps * D. 25.6 kbps

53. What is known as Johnson’s noise?

A. cosmic noise C. solar noise

B. white noise * D. static noise

54. The frequency band used by cellular telephones and mobile

communication services is_____.
A. UHF* B. EHF C. VHF D. VLF

55. An octave is an interval of ratio of two frequencies of what

proportion?
A. 3:1 B. 1:1 C. 8:1 D. 2:1 *

56. Audio signals are not propagated directly to space because_____.

A. to do so will entail additional costs.

B. the signal will be highly attenuated

C. they will require antennas that are too long *

D. the signal that will be propagated will be too weak

57. A filter-type SSB generator uses an ideal bandpass filter with a

center frequency of 5.0 MHz and a bandwidth of 2.7 kHz. What
frequency should be used for the carrier oscillator if the generator
is to produce a USB signal with a baseband frequency response having
a lower limit of 280 Hz.
A. 4990.37 kHz C. 5001.35 kHz

B. 4996.65 kHz * D. 5001.63 kHz

58. The aspect ratio of the 6 MHz NTSC television standard is_____.
A. 1.63 B. 1.66 C. 0.75 D. 1.33 *

59. A portable radio transmitter has to operate at temperature from –5

degrees C to 35 degrees C. If its signal is derived from a crystal
oscillator with temperature coefficient of –1 ppm per degree
Centigrade, and it transmits at exactly 145 MHz at 20 degrees C, find
the transmitting frequency at 35 degrees C.
A. 144.9942 MHz C. 145.0029 MHz
 B. 144.9978 MHz D. 145.00362 MHz*

60. A transistor has a power dissipation rating of 30 W. Assuming that

the transistors is the only element that dissipates power in the
circuit, calculate the power an amplifier, using this transistor,
could deliver to the load if it operates as class-A with an
efficiency of 30%
A. 35.7 W B. 7.5 W C. 22.5 W D. 12.86 W *

61. What is the reliable measurement for comparing amplifier noise

characteristics?
A. signal-to-noise C. nosie factor *

B. thermal agitation noise D. noise margin

62. In acoustics, if the low frequency edge of a band is 10 Hz, what is

the high frequency edge of the band 10 octaves wide?
A. 10240 Hz* C. 800 Hz
B. 100 Hz D. 1000 Hz

63. An SI MM fiber has a core of 62.5 um diameter and a numerical

aperture of 0.2424. The number of modes that would occur using a
light of wavelength of 865 nm would be:
A. 1514 B. 1513* C. 378 D. 379

64. Channel 4 in Philippine TV uses ____ as its visual carrier frequency.

A. 67.25 MHz* C. 71.75 MHz

B. 70.83 MHz D. 72 MHz

65. On a Smith Chart, you "normalize" the impedance by:

A. assuming it to be zero C. multiplying it by 2pi
B. dividing it by 2pi D. dividing it by Z0*

66. Broadcast station towers, by convention, is painted with colors

________.
A. white and red C. white and orange *
B. white and yellow D. orange and yellow

67. A phase modulation system operates with a modulation index of 1.2.

What is the maximum phase shift in degrees?
A. 69 degrees* C. 216 degrees

B. 4 degrees D. 1.2 degrees

68. It is a modulation and multiplexing technique that distributes the

signal and its sidebands over a very wide bandwidth
A. Spread spectrum * C. Frequency division multiplexing
B. Phase shift keying D. Quadrature amplitude modulation

69. Telephone switch that connects only to other switches, and not to
individual customers.
A. central office C. toll station
B. tandem office * D. PSTN

70. One neper (Np) is how many decibles?

 A. 8.866 B. 8.686* C. 8.688 D. 8.868

71. The ultra pure glass used to manufacture optical fibers is

approximately
_______pure.
A. 99.9% B. 99.99% C. 99.999% D. 99.9999%*

72. The normal design limitation of a telephone loop of its value of loop
resistance, Rz, the maximum value of Rloop must not exceed _____.
A. 5400 ohms C. 2300 ohms

B. 1300 ohms * D. 2800 ohms

73. What is the characteristic impedance of a basic parallel wireline, if

its diameter is 0.023 inches with spacing of 0.4 inches apart, if it
uses a dielectric material made of continuous polyvinyl chloride er =
3.4?
A. 128.7 ohms C. 234 ohms *

B. 99 ohms D. 188 ohms

74. Calculate the peak envelope power of a single sideband (SSB)

transmitter that produces a peak-to-peak voltage of 240 volts across
a 100-ohm antenna load.
A. 144 W * B. 120 W C. 72 W D. 24 W

75. A phase-locked loop has a VCO with a free-running frequency of 14

MHz. As the frequency of the reference input is gradually raised from
zero, the loop locks at 12 MHz and comes out again at 18 MHz. Find
the hold-in range.
A. 10 MHz B. 15 MHz C. 4 MHz* D. 8 MHz

76. A certain antenna has a gain of 9 dB with respect to an isotropic

radiator. How much power would it absorb from a signal with a field
strength of 36 uV/m if the frequency is 200 MHz?
A. 3.08 pW B. 5.95 pW C. 8.03 pW D. 4.88 pW*

77. The L+R stereo channel in FM broadcasting is between

A. 50 Hz to 15 kHz* C. 23 kHz to 53 kHz

B. 60 kHz to 74 kHz D. 20 Hz to 20 kHz

78. The noise produced by a resistor is to be amplified by a noiseless

amplifier having a voltage gain of 65 and a bandwidth of 100 kHz. A
sensitive meter at the output reads 220 microvolts rms. Assuming
operation at 37 degrees, calculate the resistor’s resistance.
A. 4.1 kilo ohms C. 6.7 kilo ohms*

B. 5.2 kilo ohms D. 7.6 kilo ohms

79. Maximum frequency deviation of an FM signal occurs at

A. zero-crossing points

B. peak positive amplitudes

C. peak negative amplitude

D. peak positive and negative amplitude*

80. A open-circuited transmission line less than quarter-wavelength long.
A. inductive C. parallel resonant circuit

B. capacitive* D. series resonant circuit

81. A pulsed magnetron with an average power of 2.1 kW and a peak power
of 13.7 kW. One pulse is generated every 25 ms. Find the length of a
pulse.
A. 0.65 ms B. 2.3 ms C. 3.8 ms* D. 0.56 ms

82. Two half-wave dipole antennas are separated by 50 km. The antennas
are aligned for optimum reception. The transmitter feeds the antenna
with 10 W at 144 MHz. calculate the receive power.
A. 112 pW B. 167 pW C. 210 pW D. 296 pW*

83. A direct sequence spread-spectrum system uses FSK with a chipping

rate of 20 to 1. The signal-to-noise ratio for the spread signal is –
6 dB (that is, the signal is 5 dB weaker than the noise in the same
bandwidth). If the data is transmitted at 50 kbps, What is the
signal-to-noise ratio for the despread signal at the receiver?
A. 8 dB B. 15 dB C. 16 dB D. 7 dB*

84. Determine the sound intensity level of 70 trumpets if each trumpet

has a sound intensity of 50 microwatts per square meter.
A. 87.74 dB C. 85.47 dB

B. 79.67 dB D. 95.44 dB *

85. A PLL FM detector uses a VCO with a proportionality constant of 100

KHz/V. If it receives an FM signal with a deviation of 80 KHz and
sine wave modulation, what is the rms output from the detector?
A. 0.67 V B. 0.57 V * C. 0.75 V D. 0.55 V

86. A car horn outdoors produces a sound intensity level of 90dB at 20 ft

away. At this distance, what is the sound power in watt?
A. 23 W B. 0.23 W * C. 0.023 W D. 2.3 W

87. Vestigial sideband AM Facsimile is used in group _________ machines.

A. Group 1 C. Group 3

B. Group 2 * D. Group 4

88. In a 4-wire telephone set connection, (used to connect telephone set

to central office switching) the green coded wire is used ________.
A. as ground wire

B. to transmit the signal *

C. to receive the signal from the far end

D. as a spare or for special purpose applications

89. A province in the Philippines has an area of 2000 sq. kms. It has to
be covered by a cellular mobile telephone service using cells with a
radius of 2 kms. Assuming hexagonal cells, find the number of
cellsites needed.
A. 100 B. 500 C. 166 D. 145 *
90. Frequencies of Supervisory Audio Tones (SAT) on the voice channel are
5970 Hz, 6000 Hz, and __________.
A. 6060 Hz C. 6030 Hz *

B. 6040 Hz D. 6010 Hz

91. A transmit channel for AMPS has a frequency of 837.6 MHz. The receive
channel frequency is
A. 729.6 MHz B. 837.6 MHz C. 867.6 MHz D. 882.6 MHz *

92. Which among the IEEE standards, refer to the global specifications
for Wireless LAN?
A. 802.3 B. 802.14 C. 802.11x D. 802.11b *

93. Determine the dynamic range for a 10 bit sign-magnitude PCM code
A. 45 dB B. 54 dB * C. 70 dB D. 60 dB

94. Determine the resolution for an 8-bit linear sign-magnitude PCM for a
maximum decoded voltage of 2.55 Vp.
A. 0.02V * B. 0.03V C. 0.05V D. 0.07V

95. An asynchronous communication system uses ASCII at 9600 bits/s, with

eight bits, one start bit, one stop bit and no parity bit. Express
the data rate in words per minute. (Assume a word has five characters
or letters and one space.)
A. 9600 words/min* C. 960 words/min

B. 1200 words/min D. 1600 words/min

96. The serial binary data is mixed with higher-frequency pseudorandom

binary code at a faster rate and the result is used to phase modulate
the carrier.
A. Spread spectrum C. Frequency hopping

B. Time division multiplexing D. Direct sequence *

97. The basic building block of a parity generator circuit is the

__________ gate.
A. XNOR B. OR C. AND D. XOR *

98. A double-tuned IF transformer has k = 1.5kC. The primary Q is 30 and

the secondary Q is 20. what is the bandwidth of the transformer at a
frequency of 11.7 MHz?
A. 360 kHz C. 716 kHz*

B. 655 kHz D. 156 kHz

99. A receiver produces a noise power of 200mW with no signal. The output
level increases by 5W when a signal is applied. Calculate (S+N)/N in
decibels.
A. 10.14 dB C. 13.12 dB

B. 11.34 dB D. 14.14 dB *

100. A 500 kHz antenna radiate 500W of power. The same antenna produces a
field strength equal to 1.5 mV/m. If the power delivered by the
antenna is increased by 650 W, what would be the expected filed
intensity.
A. 1.06 mV C. 2.12 mV
B. 3.1 mV D. 2.27 mV*
 Questions from file: est-B | “Post test& removal” Set
MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. What is the actual length in feet of a one-half wavelength of a coax

with a velocity factor of 0.57 at 25 MHz?
A. 42.17 B. 44.87* C. 41.12 D. 43.25

2. The twin parallel transmission line is separated by a distance of 300

mm between the centre lines of the conductors. The diameter of the
identical conductors is 4 mm. What is the characteristic impedance of
the line if it suspended in free space?
A. 400 ohms B. 500 ohms C. 600 ohms* D. 700 ohms

3. Calculate the Doppler shift for a 500 MHz signal when the target is
moving directly towards the radar at a relative velocity of 240 m/s.
A. 500 Hz B. 600 Hz C. 700 Hz D. 800 Hz*

4. A transistor class C amplifier has a maximum permissible collector

dissipation of 20 watts and collector efficiency of 75 %. If it is
collector modulated to a depth of 90 %, calculate the power in the
sidebands.
A. 17.3 W* B. 60.2 W C. 42.7 W D. 26.67 W

5. A ratio expressing the percentage of incident voltage reflected on a

transmission line is known as the
A. Velocity factor C. Reflection coefficient*
B. standing wave ratio D. Line efficiency

6. On networks, long messages are divided into "chunks" called:

A. Packets* B. nodes C. carriers
D. tokens

7. A three-stage has stages with the following specifications: First

stage with power gain and noise figure of 10 and 2 respectively, 25
and 4 for the second stage and 30 and 5 for the third stage. Find the
noise temperature.
A. 382 K* B. 435 K C. 328 K D. 358 K

8. Which type of fiber-optic cable has the least modal dispersion?

A. Single-mode step-index* C. Sing-mode graded-index
B. Multimode step-index D. Multimode graded index

9. In a satellite communications system, free space conditions may be

assumed. The satellite is at a height of 36,000 km above earth, the
frequency used is 4000 MHz, the transmitting antenna gain is 15 dB,
and the receiving antenna gain is 45 dB. Calculate the received power
when the transmitted power is 200 W.
A. 5 pW* B. 10 pW C. 15 pW D. 20 pW

10. A radio communication link is to be established via the ionosphere.

The maximum virtual height of the layer is 110 km. at the midpoint of
the path and the critical frequency is 4 MHz. If the distance between
the radio stations is 500 km, what is the suitable value for the
optimum working frequency? Use flat terrain analysis.
A. 2.8 MHz B. 4.7 MHz C. 8.4 MHz* D. 9.1 MHz
11. Double conversion is used to overcome the problem of
A. Image frequency* C. Diagonal clipping
B. Tracking D. Poor sensitivity

12. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is:

A. it is cheaper when used in large networks
B. it is faster when used in large networks
C. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks*
D. all of the above

13. The use of two grounded conductors that sandwich a smaller conductive
strip with constant separation by a dielectric material on a printed
circuit board for use at frequencies above 500 Mhz is known as
A. Artwork traces C. Microstrip/stripline *
B. Dielectric waveguide D. MICs or MMICs

14. The FET acts like a switch. When turned “on” it provides a low
impedance path to deposit the analog sample across a capacitor. The
time when the FET is “on” is called _____time.
A. sampling C. natural
B. acquisition* D. storage

15. Ground waves are most effective:

A. below about 2 MHz*
B. above about 20 MHz
C. at microwave frequencies
D. when using horizontally polarized waves

16. The range over which the input to a receiver or amplifier provides a
usable output is called the
A. Level of acceptability C. Degree of usefulness
B. Dynamic range* D. Specified input

17. A radio communication repeater has a transmitting output power of 1

kW, a 5dB feedline loss, 6dB duplexer and circulator loss, and a 10 dB
antenna gain. Calculate the effective radiated power.
A. 79.4 W B. 394 W C. 794 W * D. 251 W

18. The ground wave eventually disappears, as one moves away from the
transmitter, because of
A. interference from the sky wave
B. loss of line-of-sight conditions
C. maximum single-hop distance limitation
D. tilting*

19. Image frequency problems would be reduced by:

A. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor
B. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer
C. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer*
D. none of the above

20. The sound power level of a jet plane flying at a height of 1.5km is
140 dB (ref 10 exponent – 12w). What is the maximum sound pressure
level on the ground directly below the plane assuming that the
aircraft radiates sound equality in all directions?
A.65.5 dB * C. 59.5 dB

B. 79.5 dB D. 45.5 dB
21. The reverberation time of a broadcast studio having a volume of 240.3
cubic meters with material used total absorption of 370.3 sabines is:
A. 0.0104 sec C. 0.078 sec

B. 0.104 sec * D. 0.84 sec

22. One of these bands is NOT used by TV broadcasting stations in the

Philippines.
A. 72-76 MHz * C. 82-88 MHz

B. 66-72 MHz D. 76-82 MHz

23. A telephone signal takes 2 quarters of a second to reach its

destination. Calculate the via net loss necessary for an acceptable
amount of echo.
A. 104 dB C. 100 dB

B. 10.4 dB D. 100.4 dB *

24. The bit length of System Identification (SID)

A. 32 B. 15 * C. 10 D. 8

25. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend

upon its
A. length * C. conductor spacing

B. conductor diameter D. dielectric material

26. The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260 V, while the
maximum is 390 V, the SWR is
A. 0.67 B. 1.0 C. 1.2 D. 1.5 *

27. A open quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a/an
A. capacitor C. series resonant circuit*

B. inductor D. parallel resonant circuit

28. How many channels doe as super group have?

A. 60 * B. 600 C. 1800 D. 10800

29. Alphabet No. 2 is commonly known as ___________.

A. ASCII codes C. Baudot codes *

B. Gray codes D. EBCDIC codes

30. Calculate the angle of declination for an antenna using a polar mount
at a latitude of 45 degrees.
A. 1.34 degrees C. 9.81 degrees

B. 6.81 degrees * D. 12 degrees

31. Counterpoise are generally used for _____.

A. Loop antenna C. Rhombic antenna

B. Marconi antenna * D. satellite dish

32. A frequency modulation system requires a signal-to-noise ratio of 40

dB at the detector output. The modulating frequency is 2 kHz and the
deviation is 50 kHz. Determine the required minimum S/N at the
detector input.
 A. 120 dB * B. 25 dB C. 80 dB D. 83.3 dB

33. An optic fiber is made of glass with a refractive index of 1.54, and
is clad with another glass with refractive index of 1.50. Launching
takes place from air. Calculate the numerical aperture of the fiber.
A. 0.352 * C. 0.0352

B. 0.00352 D. 3.52

34. Using the NTSC standard, what is the aural carrier frequency of UHF
TV channel 28?
A. 558.75 MHz C. 553.75 MHz

B. 559.75 MHz * D. 555.25 MHz

35. When measuring the voice channel at a –4dB test point level, the
meter reads –76 dBm. Calculate the reading in dBrnC0?
A. 80 * B. 18 C. 8 D. 28

36. An uplink transmitter of a satellite system operates at 6 GHz with a

transmitter power of 12 kW and an antenna gain of 50 dBi. The
receiver in a geostationary satellite has an antenna gain of 40 dBi.
The elevation angle to the satellite from the ground is 45 deg.,
calculate the received signal strength at the satellite (height of
the satellite above the equator is 365,000 km., earth radius is 6400
km).
A. 38.7 dBm C. –70.8 dBm

B. 70.89 dBm D. –38.7 dBm *

37. If the transmission rate of a digital communication system of 10 Mbps

modulation scheme used is 16 QAM, determine the bandwidth efficiency.
A. 5 bits/cycle C. 4 bits/cycle *

B. 10 bits/cycle D. 3 bits/cycle

38. The carrier transmitted 1.25 MHz above the bottom frequency in the
Philippines TV channel is the_____.
A. intercarrier C. picture *

B. sound D. sub-picture carrier

39. Channel 4 in Philippine TV uses ____ as its visual carrier frequency.

A. 67.25 MHz* C. 71.75 MHz

B. 70.83 MHz D. 72 MHz

40. On a Smith Chart, you "normalize" the impedance by:

A. assuming it to be zero C. multiplying it by 2pi
B. dividing it by 2pi D. dividing it by Z0*

41. Broadcast station towers, by convention, is painted with colors

________.
A. white and red C. white and orange *
B. white and yellow D. orange and yellow

42. A phase modulation system operates with a modulation index of 1.2.

What is the maximum phase shift in degrees?
A. 69 degrees* C. 216 degrees
 B. 4 degrees D. 1.2 degrees

43. It is a modulation and multiplexing technique that distributes the

signal and its sidebands over a very wide bandwidth
A. Spread spectrum * C. Frequency division multiplexing
B. Phase shift keying D. Quadrature amplitude modulation

44. Telephone switch that connects only to other switches, and not to
individual customers.
C. central office C. toll station
D. tandem office * D. PSTN

45. One neper (Np) is how many decibles?

A. 8.866 B. 8.686* C. 8.688 D. 8.868

46. A open-circuited transmission line less than quarter-wavelength long.

A. inductive C. parallel resonant circuit

B. capacitive* D. series resonant circuit

47. A pulsed magnetron with an average power of 2.1 kW and a peak power
of 13.7 kW. One pulse is generated every 25 ms. Find the length of a
pulse.
A. 0.65 ms B. 2.3 ms C. 3.8 ms* D. 0.56 ms

48. Two half-wave dipole antennas are separated by 50 km. The antennas
are aligned for optimum reception. The transmitter feeds the antenna
with 10 W at 144 MHz. calculate the receive power.
A. 112 pW B. 167 pW C. 210 pW D. 296 pW*

49. A direct sequence spread-spectrum system uses FSK with a chipping

rate of 20 to 1. The signal-to-noise ratio for the spread signal is –
6 dB (that is, the signal is 5 dB weaker than the noise in the same
bandwidth). If the data is transmitted at 50 kbps, What is the
signal-to-noise ratio for the despread signal at the receiver?
A. 8 dB B. 15 dB C. 16 dB D. 7 dB*

50. Determine the sound intensity level of 70 trumpets if each trumpet

has a sound intensity of 50 microwatts per square meter.
A. 87.74 dB C. 85.47 dB

B. 79.67 dB D. 95.44 dB *

51. A PLL FM detector uses a VCO with a proportionality constant of 100

KHz/V. If it receives an FM signal with a deviation of 80 KHz
and sine wave modulation, what is the rms output from the detector?
A. 0.67 V B. 0.57 V * C. 0.75 V D. 0.55 V

52. A car horn outdoors produces a sound intensity level of 90dB at 20 ft

away. At this distance, what is the sound power in watt?
A. 23 W B. 0.23 W * C. 0.023 W D. 2.3 W

53. Vestigial sideband AM Facsimile is used in group _________ machines.

A. Group 1 C. Group 3

B. Group 2 * D. Group 4

54. In a 4-wire telephone set connection, (used to connect telephone set

to central office switching) the green coded wire is used ________.
A. as ground wire
 B. to transmit the signal *

C. to receive the signal from the far end

D. as a spare or for special purpose applications

55. The ultra pure glass used to manufacture optical fibers is

approximately
_______pure.
A. 99.9% B. 99.99% C. 99.999% D. 99.9999%*

56. The normal design limitation of a telephone loop of its value of loop
resistance, Rz, the maximum value of Rloop must not exceed _____.
A. 5400 ohms C. 2300 ohms

B. 1300 ohms * D. 2800 ohms

57. What is the characteristic impedance of a basic parallel wireline, if

its diameter is 0.023 inches with spacing of 0.4 inches apart, if it
uses a dielectric material made of continuous polyvinyl chloride er =
3.4?
A. 128.7 ohms C. 234 ohms *

B. 99 ohms D. 188 ohms

58. Calculate the peak envelope power of a single sideband (SSB)

transmitter that produces a peak-to-peak voltage of 240 volts across
a 100-ohm antenna load.
A. 144 W * B. 120 W C. 72 W D. 24 W

59. A phase-locked loop has a VCO with a free-running frequency of 14

MHz. As the frequency of the reference input is gradually raised from
zero, the loop locks at 12 MHz and comes out again at 18 MHz. Find
the hold-in range.
A. 10 MHz B. 15 MHz C. 4 MHz* D. 8 MHz

60. A certain antenna has a gain of 9 dB with respect to an isotropic

radiator. How much power would it absorb from a signal with a field
strength of 36 uV/m if the frequency is 200 MHz?
A. 3.08 pW B. 5.95 pW C. 8.03 pW D. 4.88 pW*

61. The L+R stereo channel in FM broadcasting is between

A. 50 Hz to 15 kHz* C. 23 kHz to 53 kHz

B. 60 kHz to 74 kHz D. 20 Hz to 20 kHz

62. The noise produced by a resistor is to be amplified by a noiseless

amplifier having a voltage gain of 65 and a bandwidth of 100 kHz. A
sensitive meter at the output reads 220 microvolts rms. Assuming
operation at 37 degrees, calculate the resistor’s resistance.
A. 4.1 kilo ohms C. 6.7 kilo ohms*

B. 5.2 kilo ohms D. 7.6 kilo ohms

63. Maximum frequency deviation of an FM signal occurs at

A. zero-crossing points

B. peak positive amplitudes

C. peak negative amplitude

 D. peak positive and negative amplitude*

64. A province in the Philippines has an area of 2000 sq. kms. It has to
be covered by a cellular mobile telephone service using cells with a
radius of 2 kms. Assuming hexagonal cells, find the number of
cellsites needed.
A. 100 B. 500 C. 166 D. 145 *

65. Frequencies of Supervisory Audio Tones (SAT) on the voice channel are
5970 Hz, 6000 Hz, and __________.
A. 6060 Hz C. 6030 Hz *

B. 6040 Hz D. 6010 Hz

66. A transmit channel for AMPS has a frequency of 837.6 MHz. The receive
channel frequency is
A. 729.6 MHz B. 837.6 MHz C. 867.6 MHz D. 882.6 MHz *

67. Which among the IEEE standards, refer to the global specifications
for Wireless LAN?
A. 802.3 B. 802.14 C. 802.11x D. 802.11b *

68. Determine the dynamic range for a 10 bit sign-magnitude PCM code
A. 45 dB B. 54 dB * C. 70 dB D. 60 dB

69. Determine the resolution for an 8-bit linear sign-magnitude PCM for a
maximum decoded voltage of 2.55 Vp.
A. 0.02V * B. 0.03V C. 0.05V D. 0.07V

70. An asynchronous communication system uses ASCII at 9600 bits/s, with

eight bits, one start bit, one stop bit and no parity bit. Express
the data rate in words per minute. (Assume a word has five characters
or letters and one space.)
A. 9600 words/min* C. 960 words/min

B. 1200 words/min D. 1600 words/min

71. The serial binary data is mixed with higher-frequency pseudorandom

binary code at a faster rate and the result is used to phase modulate
the carrier.
A. Spread spectrum C. Frequency hopping

B. Time division multiplexing D. Direct sequence *

72. The basic building block of a parity generator circuit is the

__________ gate.
A. XNOR B. OR C. AND D. XOR *

73. A double-tuned IF transformer has k = 1.5kC. The primary Q is 30 and

the secondary Q is 20. what is the bandwidth of the transformer at a
frequency of 11.7 MHz?
A. 360 kHz C. 716 kHz*

B. 655 kHz D. 156 kHz

74. A receiver produces a noise power of 200mW with no signal. The output
level increases by 5W when a signal is applied. Calculate (S+N)/N in
decibels.
A. 10.14 dB C. 13.12 dB
 B. 11.34 dB D. 14.14 dB *

75. A 500 kHz antenna radiate 500W of power. The same antenna produces a
field strength equal to 1.5 mV/m. If the power delivered by the
antenna is increased by 650 W, what would be the expected filed
intensity.
A. 1.06 mV C. 2.12 mV

B. 3.1 mV D. 2.27 mV*

76. Find the maximum dynamic range for a linear PCM system using 16-bit
quantizing.
A. 11.12 dB B. 76.45 dB C. 255 dB D. 98.08 dB*

77. A TV tower has a height of 200 m. What is the maximum distance up to

which TV transmission can be received?
A. 35.77 km* B. 32.7 km C. 50.6 km D. 40.77 km

78. Compared to PCM, adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice:

A. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality
B. with a lower bit rate but the same quality*
C. only over shorter distances
D. only if the voice is band-limited

79. T1 carrier caries how many DS-0?

A. 24* B. 45 C. 60 D. 12

80. A signal at the input to a mu-law compressor is positive with its

voltage one-half the maximum value. What proportion of the maximum
output voltage is produced?
A. 0.786Vmax B. 0.876Vmax * C. 0.867Vmax D. 0.678Vmax

81. What should be done to increase the transmission distance at

frequencies higher than HF bands?
A. increase antenna gain C. increase antenna height*
B. increase transmitter power D. increase receiver sensitivity

82. As per ITU-R Recc. V.431-6 Tables 1 & 2 Wavelength Classifications,

what is the classification of Super High Frequency?
A. metric B. decimetric C. centimetric* D. millimetric

83. In the OSI model, the most important services to be performed by the
Session Layer are:
A. sampling and quantizing C. sign-on and log-out
B. log-in and terminating D. log-in and log-out procedures*

84. What do you call the ratio that compares the power density generated
by a practical antenna in some directions, with that of an isotropic
antenna radiating the same total power?
A. directive gain* C. antenna directivity
B. directivity gain D. antenna gain

85. The frequency band used by cellular telephones and mobile

communication services is_____.
A. UHF* B. EHF C. VHF D. VLF

86. An octave is an interval of ratio of two frequencies of what

proportion?
 A. 3:1 B. 1:1 C. 8:1 D. 2:1 *

87. Audio signals are not propagated directly to space because_____.

A. to do so will entail additional costs.

B. the signal will be highly attenuated

C. they will require antennas that are too long *

D. the signal that will be propagated will be too weak

88. A filter-type SSB generator uses an ideal bandpass filter with a

center frequency of 5.0 MHz and a bandwidth of 2.7 kHz. What
frequency should be used for the carrier oscillator if the generator
is to produce a USB signal with a baseband frequency response having
a lower limit of 280 Hz.
A. 4990.37 kHz C. 5001.35 kHz

B. 4996.65 kHz * D. 5001.63 kHz

89. The aspect ratio of the 6 MHz NTSC television standard is_____.
A. 1.63 B. 1.66 C. 0.75 D. 1.33 *

90. A portable radio transmitter has to operate at temperature from –5

degrees C to 35 degrees C. If its signal is derived from a crystal
oscillator with temperature coefficient of –1 ppm per degree
Centigrade, and it transmits at exactly 145 MHz at 20 degrees C, find
the transmitting frequency at 35 degrees C.
A. 144.9942 MHz C. 145.0029 MHz

B. 144.9978 MHz D. 145.00362 MHz*

91. A transistor has a power dissipation rating of 30 W. Assuming that

the transistors is the only element that dissipates power in the
circuit, calculate the power an amplifier, using this transistor,
could deliver to the load if it operates as class-A with an
efficiency of 30%
A. 35.7 W B. 7.5 W C. 22.5 W D. 12.86 W *

92. An AM signal has the following characteristics: carrier frequency =

150 MHz; modulating frequency = 3 MHz; peak carrier voltage = 40
volts and peak modulation voltage is 30 volts. Calculate the peak
voltage of the lower sideband frequency.
A. 15 volts * C. 70 volts

B. 10 volts D. 20 volts

93. What is the result of a balanced modulator if not perfectly balanced?

A. the lower sideband is transmitted

B. both sidebands are transmitted

C. the carrier is transmitted *

D. the SB is filtered
94. The scientist who profounded the theory of electro-magnetic radiation
is
A. Thomas Edison C. James Maxwell *

B. Guglielmo Marconi D. Heinrich Hertz

95. The amplitude of a sine wave which is modulated by a musical program

will
A. be complex and contain fundamental and harmonic frequencies *

B. contain harmonic frequencies

C. be complex

D. contain fundamental frequencies

96. A telephone line has a bandwidth of 3.2 kHz and signal-to-noise ratio
of 34 dB. A signal is transmitted down this line using a four-level
code. What is the maximum theoretical data rate?
A. 72.6 kbps C. 36.3 kbps

B. 12.8 kbps * D. 25.6 kbps

97. What is known as Johnson’s noise?

A. cosmic noise C. solar noise

B. white noise * D. static noise

98. What is the reliable measurement for comparing amplifier noise

characteristics?
A. signal-to-noise C. nosie factor *

B. thermal agitation noise D. noise margin

99. In acoustics, if the low frequency edge of a band is 10 Hz, what is

the high frequency edge of the band 10 octaves wide?
A. 10240 Hz* C. 800 Hz
B. 100 Hz D. 1000 Hz

100. An SI MM fiber has a core of 62.5 um diameter and a numerical

aperture of 0.2424. The number of modes that would occur using a
light of wavelength of 865 nm would be:
A. 1514 B. 1513* C. 378 D. 379
 Questions from file: est-removal | “Post test& removal” Set
MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A radio communication link is to be established via the ionosphere.

The maximum virtual height of the layer is 110 km. at the midpoint of
the path and the critical frequency is 4 MHz. If the distance between
the radio stations is 500 km, what is the suitable value for the
optimum working frequency? Use flat terrain analysis.
A. 2.8 MHz B. 4.7 MHz C. 8.4 MHz*
D. 9.1 MHz

2. The use of two grounded conductors that sandwich a smaller conductive

strip with constant separation by a dielectric material on a printed
circuit board for use at frequencies above 500 Mhz is known as
A. Artwork traces C. Microstrip/stripline *
B. Dielectric waveguide D. MICs or MMICs

3. Find the maximum dynamic range for a linear PCM system using 16-bit
quantizing.
A. 11.12 dB B. 76.45 dB C. 255 dB
D. 98.08 dB*

4. What is the actual length in feet of a one-half wavelength of a coax

with a velocity factor of 0.57 at 25 MHz?
A. 42.17 B. 44.87* C. 41.12
D. 43.25

5. A transistor class C amplifier has a maximum permissible collector

dissipation of 20 watts and collector efficiency of 75 %. If it is
collector modulated to a depth of 90 %, calculate the power in the
sidebands.
A. 17.3 W* B. 60.2 W C. 42.7 W
D. 26.67 W

6. A ratio expressing the percentage of incident voltage reflected on a

transmission line is known as the
A. Velocity factor C. Reflection coefficient*
B. standing wave ratio D. Line efficiency

7. On networks, long messages are divided into "chunks" called:

A. Packets* B. nodes C. carriers D. tokens

8. A three-stage has stages with the following specifications: First

stage with power gain and noise figure of 10 and 2 respectively, 25
and 4 for the second stage and 30 and 5 for the third stage. Find the
noise temperature.
A. 382 K* B. 435 K C. 328 K D. 358 K

9. Which type of fiber-optic cable has the least modal dispersion?

A. Single-mode step-index* C. Sing-mode graded-index
B. Multimode step-index D. Multimode graded index

10. In a satellite communications system, free space conditions may be

assumed. The satellite is at a height of 36,000 km above earth, the
frequency used is 4000 MHz, the transmitting antenna gain is 15 dB,
and the receiving antenna gain is 45 dB. Calculate the received power
when the transmitted power is 200 W.
 A. 5 pW* B. 10 pW C. 15 pW
D. 20 pW

11. A TV tower has a height of 200 m. What is the maximum distance up to

which TV transmission can be received?
A. 35.77 km* B. 32.7 km C. 50.6 km
D. 40.77 km

12. Compared to PCM, adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice:

A. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality
B. with a lower bit rate but the same quality*
C. only over shorter distances
D. only if the voice is band-limited

13. T1 carrier caries how many DS-0?

A. 24* B. 45 C. 60
D. 12

14. What should be done to increase the transmission distance at

frequencies higher than HF bands?
A. increase antenna gain C. increase antenna height*
B. increase transmitter power D. increase receiver sensitivity

15. As per ITU-R Recc. V.431-6 Tables 1 & 2 Wavelength Classifications,

what is the classification of Super High Frequency?
A. metric B. decimetric C. centimetric* D. millimetric

16. What do you call the ratio that compares the power density generated
by a practical antenna in some directions, with that of an isotropic
antenna radiating the same total power?
A. directive gain* C. antenna directivity
B. directivity gain D. antenna gain

17. The FET acts like a switch. When turned “on” it provides a low
impedance path to deposit the analog sample across a capacitor. The
time when the FET is “on” is called _____time.
A. sampling B. acquisition* C. natural D. storage

18. Ground waves are most effective:

A. below about 2 MHz*
B. above about 20 MHz
C. at microwave frequencies
D. when using horizontally polarized waves

19. The range over which the input to a receiver or amplifier provides a
usable output is called the
A. Level of acceptability C. Degree of usefulness
B. Dynamic range* D. Specified input

20. A radio communication repeater has a transmitting output power of 1

kW, a 5dB feedline loss, 6dB duplexer and circulator loss, and a 10 dB
antenna gain. Calculate the effective radiated power.
A. 79.4 W B. 394 W C. 794 W * D. 251 W

21. The ground wave eventually disappears, as one moves away from the
transmitter, because of
A. interference from the sky wave
B. loss of line-of-sight conditions
C. maximum single-hop distance limitation
D. tilting*
22. Image frequency problems would be reduced by:
A. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor
B. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer
C. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer*
D. none of the above

23. The sound power level of a jet plane flying at a height of 1.5km is
140 dB (ref 10 exponent – 12w). What is the maximum sound pressure
level on the ground directly below the plane assuming that the
aircraft radiates sound equality in all directions?
A.65.5 dB * C. 59.5 dB

B. 79.5 dB D. 45.5 dB

24. One of these bands is NOT used by TV broadcasting stations in the

Philippines.
A. 72-76 MHz * B. 66-72 MHz C. 82-88 MHz D. 76-82 MHz

25. A telephone signal takes 2 quarters of a second to reach its

destination. Calculate the via net loss necessary for an acceptable
amount of echo.
A. 104 dB B. 10.4 dB C. 100 dB D. 100.4 dB *

26. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend

upon its
A. length * C. conductor spacing

B. conductor diameter D. dielectric material

27. A open quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a/an
A. capacitor C. series resonant circuit*

B. inductor D. parallel resonant circuit

28. How many channels doe as super group have?

A. 60 * B. 600 C. 1800
D. 10800

29. Calculate the angle of declination for an antenna using a polar mount
at a latitude of 45 degrees.
A. 1.34 degrees B. 6.81 degrees* C. 9.81 degrees
D. 12 degrees

30. Counterpoise are generally used for _____.

A. Loop antenna C. Rhombic antenna

B. Marconi antenna * D. satellite dish

31. A frequency modulation system requires a signal-to-noise ratio of 40

dB at the detector output. The modulating frequency is 2 kHz and the
deviation is 50 kHz. Determine the required minimum S/N at the
detector input.
A. 120 dB * B. 25 dB C. 80 dB D. 83.3 dB

32. An optic fiber is made of glass with a refractive index of 1.54, and
is clad with another glass with refractive index of 1.50. Launching
takes place from air. Calculate the numerical aperture of the fiber.
 A. 0.352 * B. 0.00352 C. 0.0352
D. 3.52

33. Using the NTSC standard, what is the aural carrier frequency of UHF
TV channel 28?
A. 558.75 MHz B. 559.75 MHz * C. 553.75 MHz
D. 555.25 MHz

34. If the transmission rate of a digital communication system of 10 Mbps

modulation scheme used is 16 QAM, determine the bandwidth efficiency.
A. 5 bits/cycle C. 4 bits/cycle *

B. 10 bits/cycle D. 3 bits/cycle

35. The carrier transmitted 1.25 MHz above the bottom frequency in the
Philippines TV channel is the_____.
A. intercarrier C. picture *

B. sound D. sub-picture carrier

36. An AM signal has the following characteristics: carrier frequency =

150 MHz; modulating frequency = 3 MHz; peak carrier voltage = 40
volts and peak modulation voltage is 30 volts. Calculate the peak
voltage of the lower sideband frequency.
A. 15 volts * B. 10 volts C. 70 volts
D. 20 volts

37. Determine the total harmonic distortion for a fundamental frequency

with an amplitude of 8Vrms, a second harmonic amplitude of 0.2Vrms,
and a third harmonic amplitude of 0.1Vrms.
A. 1.25% B. 2.795% * C. 2.5%
D. 1.645%

38. Partition noise is not a problem in

A. FET * C. BJT

B. Vacuum Tubes D. none of the above

39. Which of the following is a desirable value of signal-to-noise ratio

in dB?
A. 0 B. 100 * C. 1 D. 50

40. Occurs when a receiver picks up the same station at two nearby points
on the receiver tuning dial.
A. overmodulation C. spurious spotting

B. double spotting * D. gang spot

41. The SCA subcarrier has been standardize at

A. 75 KHz B. 74 KHz C. 67 KHz* D. 10.7 MHz

42. which is an example of correlated noise ?

A. Solar noise

B. Shot noise

C. Impulse noise

D. Intermodulation distortion *
43. The PLL begins to lock at 54MHz, its free running frequency is at
59MHz, as the frequency decreases, it comes out of lock at 48MHz,
determine the pull-in range of this PLL.
A. 10MHz B. 11Mhz C. 5MHz * D. 22MHz

44. Determine the noise power at the input of an amplifier operating at

25 degrees celcius and a 3 dB bandwidth of 300 KHz determined by an
LC tuned circuit at its input.
A. 1.28 x 10-15 W C. 0.814 x 10-15 W

B. 0.814 x 10-12 W D. 0.002 x 10-15 W *

45. Which of the following is a better NF

A. 40 dB B. 30 dB C. 20 dB
D. 10 dB *

46. A double-tuned IF transformer has k = 1.5kC. The primary Q is 30 and

the secondary Q is 20. what is the bandwidth of the transformer at a
frequency of 10.7 MH
A. 360 kHz B. 655 kHz * C. 750 kHz D. 156 kHz

47. The square of the thermal noise voltage generated by a resistor is

not proportional to
A. Its resistance

B. Its temperature

C. Boltzmann’s constant*

D. The bandwidth over which it is measured

48. The ideal value of SWR is

A. 1 * C. 0

B. infinity D. undefined

49. These are frequencies used in two-way or amateur radio CB

communications.
A. VLF B. LF C. MF D. HF *

50. At very high frequencies, transmission lines are used as

A. tuned circuits * C. insulators

B. antennas D. resistors

51. 87 Mhz falls on what ITU band.

A. UHF B. EHF C. VHF * D. HF

52. A 300-ohm resistor is connected across the 300-ohm antenna input of a

television receiver. The bandwidth of the receiver is 6MHz, and the
resistor is at 68 degrees Fahrenheit. Find the noise voltage applied
at the receiver input.
A. 24.4 fV B. 5.4 uV C. 2.7 uV * D. 5.4 fV

53. Atmospheric attenuation is caused by ______

A. mist and fog C. water vapor and oxygen *

B. gasses in atmosphere D. rain

54. What is the gain of a pyramidal horn in dB, with width and height of
12cm and 10 cm respectively with an operating frequency of 10 GHz?
A. 19.23 dB * C. 12.54 dB

B. 34.5 dB D. 31 dB

55. What power density is required to produce an electric field strength

of 250 volts per meter in air?
A. 26.5 W/m^2 C. 165.75 W/m^2 *

B. 0.265 W/m^2 D. 176.56 W/m^2

56. The absorption of radio waves by the atmosphere depends on

___________.
A. their distance from the transmitter

B. the polarization of the waves

C. the polarization of the atmosphere

D. their frequency *

57. Refers to the orientation of the electric field radiated from an

antenna.
A. efficiency C. polarization *

B. beamwidth D. accuracy

58. The vertical radiation pattern of a vertically polarized dipole is

A. A circle C. A figure of eight *

B. A clover leaf D. A narrow beam

59. Helical antennas are often used for satellite tracking at VHF because
of
A. troposcatter C. ionospheric refraction

B. superrefraction D. the Faraday effect *

60. MUF is also known as the __________.

A. Secant Law * C. Angle Law

B. Cosine Law D. Inclination Law

61. Frequencies in the UHF range normally propagate by means of _____.

A. surface waves C. ground waves

B. space waves * D. sky wave

62. A Bluetooth "piconet" has:

A. 2 nodes C. 2 to 8 nodes*

B. 2 to 4 nodes D. 2 to 16 nodes

63. In a cellular system, what is the transmit frequency if the receive

frequency is 871.75 MHz?
A. 916.75 MHz C. 851.75 MHz

B. 826.75 MHz* D. 891.75 MHz

64. Which is not a type of AGC?
A. simple AGC C. delayed AGC

B. forward AGC D. complex AGC *

65. Class of switching office which is the local exchange where the
subscriber loops terminated and received dial tone.
A. Class 5 * C. Class 3

B. Class 4C D. Class 1

66. What layer is tasked with the end-to-end accountability through the
network.
A. Transport layer * C. Physical layer

B. Network layer D. Application layer

67. List of definitions for interchange circuits between data terminal

equipment (DTE) and data circuit-terminating equipment (DCE.
A. V.24* B. V.23 C. V.29 D. V.32

68. The modulator transmits symbols, each of which has sixty-four

different possible states, 10,000 times per second. How much is the
bit rate?
A. 64 kbps B. 10 kbps C. 60 kbps* D. none of these

69. What is the letter-number designation for suppresed carrier and one
SB?
A. J3E* B. H3E C. A3E D. F3E

70. Two half-wave dipole antennas are separated by 50 km. The antennas
are aligned for optimum reception. The transmitter feeds the antenna
with 10 W at 144 MHz. calculate the receive power.
A. 112 pW B. 167 pW C. 210 pW D. 296 pW*

71. An antenna is aimed by adjusting the two "look angles" called:

A. azimuth and elevation* C. azimuth and declination

B. declination and elevation D. apogee and perigee

72. The amplitude of a sine wave which is modulated by a musical program

will
A. be complex and contain fundamental and harmonic frequencies *

B. contain harmonic frequencies

C. be complex

D. contain fundamental frequencies

73. A telephone line has a bandwidth of 3.2 kHz and signal-to-noise ratio
of 34 dB. A signal is transmitted down this line using a four-level
code. What is the maximum theoretical data rate?
A. 72.6 kbps B. 12.8 kbps * C. 36.3 kbps D. 25.6 kbps

74. The frequency band used by cellular telephones and mobile

communication services is_____.
A. UHF* B. EHF C. VHF D. VLF
75. Audio signals are not propagated directly to space because_____.
A. to do so will entail additional costs.

B. the signal will be highly attenuated

C. they will require antennas that are too long *

D. the signal that will be propagated will be too weak

76. The aspect ratio of the 6 MHz NTSC television standard is_____.
A. 1.63 B. 1.66 C. 0.75 D. 1.33 *

77. A portable radio transmitter has to operate at temperature from –5

degrees C to 35 degrees C. If its signal is derived from a crystal
oscillator with temperature coefficient of –1 ppm per degree
Centigrade, and it transmits at exactly 145 MHz at 20 degrees C, find
the transmitting frequency at 35 degrees C.
A. 144.9942 MHz C. 145.0029 MHz

B. 144.9978 MHz D. 145.00362 MHz*

78. What is the reliable measurement for comparing amplifier noise

characteristics?
A. signal-to-noise C. nosie factor *

B. thermal agitation noise D. noise margin

79. In acoustics, if the low frequency edge of a band is 10 Hz, what is

the high frequency edge of the band 10 octaves wide?
A. 10240 Hz* C. 800 Hz
B. 100 Hz D. 1000 Hz

80. Channel 4 in Philippine TV uses ____ as its visual carrier frequency.

A. 67.25 MHz* C. 71.75 MHz

B. 70.83 MHz D. 72 MHz

81. It is a modulation and multiplexing technique that distributes the

signal and its sidebands over a very wide bandwidth
A. Spread spectrum * C. Frequency division multiplexing
B. Phase shift keying D. Quadrature amplitude modulation

82. Telephone switch that connects only to other switches, and not to
individual customers.
A. central office C. toll station
B. tandem office * D. PSTN

83. The normal design limitation of a telephone loop of its value of loop
resistance, Rz, the maximum value of Rloop must not exceed _____.
A. 5400 ohms C. 2300 ohms

B. 1300 ohms * D. 2800 ohms

84. Calculate the peak envelope power of a single sideband (SSB)

transmitter that produces a peak-to-peak voltage of 240 volts across
a 100-ohm antenna load.
A. 144 W * B. 120 W C. 72 W D. 24 W
85. A phase-locked loop has a VCO with a free-running frequency of 14
MHz. As the frequency of the reference input is gradually raised from
zero, the loop locks at 12 MHz and comes out again at 18 MHz. Find
the hold-in range.
A. 10 MHz B. 15 MHz C. 4 MHz* D. 8 MHz

86. The L+R stereo channel in FM broadcasting is between

A. 50 Hz to 15 kHz* C. 23 kHz to 53 kHz

B. 60 kHz to 74 kHz D. 20 Hz to 20 kHz

87. Maximum frequency deviation of an FM signal occurs at

A. zero-crossing points

B. peak positive amplitudes

C. peak negative amplitude

D. peak positive and negative amplitude*

88. The noise produced by a resistor is to be amplified by a noiseless

amplifier having a voltage gain of 65 and a bandwidth of 100 kHz. A
sensitive meter at the output reads 220 microvolts rms. Assuming
operation at 37 degrees, calculate the resistor’s resistance.
A. 4.1 kilo ohms C. 6.7 kilo ohms*

B. 5.2 kilo ohms D. 7.6 kilo ohms

89. A open-circuited transmission line less than quarter-wavelength long.

A. inductive C. parallel resonant circuit

B. capacitive* D. series resonant circuit

90. A pulsed magnetron with an average power of 2.1 kW and a peak power
of 13.7 kW. One pulse is generated every 25 ms. Find the length of a
pulse.
A. 0.65 ms B. 2.3 ms C. 3.8 ms* D. 0.56 ms

91. A direct sequence spread-spectrum system uses FSK with a chipping

rate of 20 to 1. The signal-to-noise ratio for the spread signal is –
6 dB (that is, the signal is 5 dB weaker than the noise in the same
bandwidth). If the data is transmitted at 50 kbps, What is the
signal-to-noise ratio for the despread signal at the receiver?
A. 8 dB B. 15 dB C. 16 dB D. 7 dB*

92. Determine the sound intensity level of 70 trumpets if each trumpet

has a sound intensity of 50 microwatts per square meter.
A. 87.74 dB C. 85.47 dB

B. 79.67 dB D. 95.44 dB *

93. Vestigial sideband AM Facsimile is used in group _________ machines.

A. Group 1 C. Group 3

B. Group 2 * D. Group 4

94. In a 4-wire telephone set connection, (used to connect telephone set

to central office switching) the green coded wire is used ________.
A. as ground wire
 B. to transmit the signal *

C. to receive the signal from the far end

D. as a spare or for special purpose applications

95. Which among the IEEE standards, refer to the global specifications
for Wireless LAN?
A. 802.3 B. 802.14 C. 802.11x D. 802.11b *

96. Determine the dynamic range for a 10 bit sign-magnitude PCM code
A. 45 dB B. 54 dB * C. 70 dB D. 60 dB

97. An asynchronous communication system uses ASCII at 9600 bits/s, with

eight bits, one start bit, one stop bit and no parity bit. Express
the data rate in words per minute. (Assume a word has five characters
or letters and one space.)
A. 9600 words/min* C. 960 words/min

B. 1200 words/min D. 1600 words/min

98. The serial binary data is mixed with higher-frequency pseudorandom

binary code at a faster rate and the result is used to phase modulate
the carrier.
A. Spread spectrum C. Frequency hopping

B. Time division multiplexing D. Direct sequence *

99. Impedance inversion may be obtained with

A. a short-circuited stub C. a quarter-wave line *

B. an open-circuited stub D. a half-wave line

100. The key circuit used in a DPSK modulator is the _________.

A. XOR C. XNOR *

B. OR D. AND
 Questions from file: est.doc | “2013 post test” Set
MULTIPLE CHOICE

Signal Spectra

1. What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall
time (or vice versa)?
A. A sawtooth wave * C. A cosine wave

B. A square wave D. A sine wave

2. What is the period of a wave?

A. The time required to complete one cycle *

B. The number of degrees in one cycle

C. The number of zero crossings in one cycle

D. The amplitude of the wave

3. Which part of the sinewave expression cannot be varied in accordance

with the low-frequency intelligence to create a modulated signal?
a. Phase c. Time*

b. Frequency d. Amplitude

4. Indicate the false statement. Fourier analysis shows that a sawtooth

wave consist of
a. fundamental and subharmonic sine waves*

b. a fundamental sine wave and an infinite number of harmonics

c. fundamental and harmonic sine waves whose amplitude decreases with

the harmonic number

d. sinusoidal voltages, some of which are small enough to ignore in

practice

5. The frequency band used by cellular telephones and mobile communication

services is_____.
A. UHF* B. EHF C. VHF D. VLF

Principles Of Communication

6. What is the frequency range of EHF?

A. 3 – 30 GHz C. 30 – 300 MHz

B. 30 – 300 GHz * D. 300 – 3000 MHz

7. In a double-tuned circuit, minimum bandwidth is obtained with _____

coupling
A. under * B. over C. optimum
D. critical

8. In PLL frequency demodulator, the information or the modulating signal

is the _____ signal.
A. phase shift B. error * C. VCO D. input
9. Also known as lock range
A. capture range C. natural frequency

B. free-running frequency D. tracking range*

10. Indicate the false statement regarding the advantages of SSB over
double sideband, full-carrier AM
a. More channel space is available.

b. Transmitter circuits must be more stable, giving better reception.*

c. The signal is more noise-resistant

d. Much less power is required for the same signal strength

11. The value of a resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise
power generator is therefore
a. halved b. quadrupled c. doubled d. unchanged*

12. Why are image frequencies somewhat less of a problem in FM receivers

than they are in SSB or AM receivers?
a. SSB uses less bandwidth than does FM.

b. FM signals have a capture effect characteristic.*

c. FM mixer stages are square-law devices.

d. FM receivers do not use the superheterodyne design.

13. The hold-in range for a PLL concerns the

a. Range of frequencies in which it will remain locked *

b. Allowable range of dc voltage

c. Allowable range of ac input voltage

d. Satisfactory range of operating temperatures

14. Carson's rule is used to approximate the necessary

a. Frequency deviation C. Capture ratio

b. Bandwidth* d. Modulation index

15. Which of the following would occur in a receiver not having AGC?
a. The speaker output level would drastically change while tuning from a
weak signal to a strong signal.

b. Local stations would easily produce distorted signals in the speaker.

c. There would be a constant need to readjust the volume control as the

weather and ionosphere change.

d. All the above *

16. What is the result of a balanced modulator if not perfectly balance

A. the lower sideband is transmitted C. the carrier is transmitted *

B. both sidebands are transmitted D. the SB is filtered

17. The sensitivity of a receiver has to do with its ability to
a. Withstand shock

b. Receive one station versus another

c. Receive weak stations*

d. All the above

18. It is the measure of the ability of a communications system to

produce, at the output of the receiver, an exact replica of the original
source information.
A. reciprocity C. fidelity *

B. distortion D. sensitivity
19. Maximum frequency deviation of a FM signal occurs at
A. zero-crossing points

B. peak positive amplitudes

C. peak negative amplitude

D. peak positive and negative amplitude*

20. First symbol in the designation of radio signals emission which

refers to use of a full carrier and one sideband.
A. J B. N C. H* D. A

21. The difference between the actual local oscillator frequency and the
desired frequency is called _____.
A. quantizing error C. absolute error

B. tracking error* D. image frequency

22. What determines the selectivity of a receiver?
A. the bandwidth of the tuned circuits *
B. the frequency stability
C. the power handling capability
D. the gain of the amplifier
23. What is the purpose of a buffer amplifier stage in a transmitter?
a. It prevents transmitters from producing spurious frequencies in the
output signals.
b. It provides power amplification with high efficiency.
c. Its high input impedance prevents oscillators from drifting off
frequency. *
d. It amplifies audio frequencies before modulation occurs.
24. The main problem with the TRF design is
a. Lack of selectivity in receiving all AM stations
b. Poor demodulation of an AM station
c. Frustration in tuning to receive more than one station *
D. Lack of sensitivity in receiving all AM stations
25. State the chief advantage(s) of a standard SSB system.
a. Maximum signal range with minimum transmitted power
b. Easy carrier reinsertion
 c. Elimination of carrier interference
d. a and c *
26. Standard FM broadcast stations use a maximum bandwidth of
a. 150 kHz b. 200 kHz * c. 75 kHz d. 15 kHz
27. A phase-locked loop has a VCO with a free-running frequency of 14
MHz. As the frequency of the reference input is gradually raised from
zero, the loop locks at 12 MHz and comes out again at 18 MHz. Find the
hold-in range.
A. 10 MHz B. 15 MHz C. 4 MHz* D. 8 MHz

28. A transistor has a power dissipation rating of 30 W. Assuming that

the transistors is the only element that dissipates power in the
circuit, calculate the power an amplifier, using this transistor, could
deliver to the load if it operates as class-A with an efficiency of 30%
A. 35.7 W B. 7.5 W C. 22.5 W D. 12.86 W *

29. A double-tuned IF transformer has k = 1.5kC. The primary Q is 30 and

the secondary Q is 10. what is the bandwidth of the transformer at a
frequency of 10.7 MH
A. 360 kHz B. 655 kHz C. 927 kHz* D. 156 kHz

30. Determine the peak frequency deviation ad modulation index (m) for an
FM modulator with a deviation sensitivity K1 = 5 kHz/V and a modulating
signal vm(t) = 2 cos (2pi2000t).
A. 5* B. 4 C. 3 D. 2

31. A receiver has a 30-dB noise figure, a 1.5 Mhz bandwidth, a 6-dBm
third intercept point, and a 3-dB signal-to-noise ratio. Its sensitivity
is
a. –94 dB b. –82.2 dB c. –79.2 dB * d. –81 dB

32. The noise produced by a resistor is to be amplified by a noiseless

amplifier having a voltage gain of 75 and a bandwidth of 100 kHz. A
sensitive meter at the output reads 240 microvolts rms. Assuming
operation at 37 degrees, calculate the resistor’s resistance.
A. 4 kilo ohms B. 5 kilo ohms C. 6 kilo ohms * D. 7 kilo ohms

33. A transistor class C amplifier has a maximum permissible collector

dissipation of 20 watts and collector efficiency of 75 %. If it is
collector modulated to a depth of 90 %, calculate the power in the
sidebands.
A. 17.3 W* B. 60.2 W C. 42.7 W D. 26.67 W

34. A three-stage has stages with the following specifications: First

stage with power gain and noise figure of 10 and 2 respectively, 25 and
4 for the second stage and 30 and 5 for the third stage. Find the noise
temperature.
A. 382 K* B. 435 K C. 328 K D. 358 K

35. An AM signal has the following characteristics: carrier frequency =

150 MHz; modulating frequency = 3 MHz; peak carrier voltage = 40 volts
and peak modulation voltage is 30 volts. Calculate the peak voltage of
the lower sideband frequency
A. 15 volts * B. 10 volts C. 70 volts D. 20 volts

Digital Communication

36. It is a modulation and multiplexing technique that distributes the

signal and its sidebands over a very wide bandwidth
 A. Spread spectrum * C. Frequency division multiplexing
B. Phase shift keying D. Quadrature amplitude modulation

37. The serial binary data is mixed with higher-frequency pseudorandom

binary code at a faster rate and the result is used to phase modulate
the carrier.
A. Spread spectrum C. Frequency hopping

B. Time division multiplexing D. Direct sequence *

38. Compared to PCM, adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice:

A. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality
B. with a lower bit rate but the same quality*
C. only over shorter distances
D. only if the voice is band-limited

39. The FET acts like a switch. When turned “on” it provides a low
impedance path to deposit the analog sample across a capacitor. The time
when the FET is “off” is called _____time.
A. sampling B. acquisition C. natural D. storage*

40. The quantizing error of PCM systems for weak signals can be made less
significant by
a. Companding*
b. Using time-division multiplexing
c. Using frequency-division multiplexing
d. Filtering out the alias frequency

41. Aliasing can be defined as errors occurring when

a. The input frequency exceeds the sample rate.*
b. The bandwidth is less than the input frequency.
c. The type of modulation has been incorrectly identified.
d. The sampling signal has been incorrectly identified.

42. The major difficulty faced by delta modulators is

a. Excessive noise producing errors
b. Slope overload *
c. Insufficient frequency response of the intelligence signal
d. Complexity of design

43. If the magnitude of a sample exceeds the highest quantization

interval is called:
A. Peak limiting * C. Quantizing error
B. Aliasing D. Sampling error

44. In PCM system, the minimum sampling rate is

A. twice the highest audio input frequency *
B. twice the lowest audio input frequency
C. twice the highest carrier frequency
D. not a function of audio signal nor carrier

45. In order to reduce quantizing noise, one must

a. increase the number of standard amplitudes*
b. send pulses whose sides are more nearly vertical
c. use an RF amplifier in the receiver
d. increase the number of samples per second

46. A phase modulation system operates with a modulation index of 1.2.

What is the maximum phase shift in degrees?
A. 69 degrees* B. 4 degrees C. 216 degrees D. 1.2 degrees
47. The modulator transmits symbols, each of which has 32 different
possible states, 10,000 times per second. How much is the bit rate?
A. 64 kbps B. 50 kbps* C. 60 kbps D. none

48. If the transmission rate of a digital communications system of 10

Mbps modulation scheme used is 64 QAM, determine the bandwidth
efficiency in bits per cycle.
A. 5 bits/cycle B. 10 bits/cycle C. 4 bits/cycle D.6 bits/cycle*

49. Determine the resolution for an 9-bit linear sign-magnitude PCM for a
maximum decoded voltage of 2.55 Vp.
A. 0.02V B. 0.01V* C. 0.05V D. 0.07V

50. Find the maximum dynamic range for a linear PCM system using 16-bit
quantizing.
A. 11.12 dB B. 76.45 dB C. 255 dB D. 98.08 dB*

51. A signal at the input to a mu-law compressor is positive with its

voltage one-half the maximum value. What proportion of the maximum
output voltage is produced?
A. 0.786Vmax B. 0.876Vmax * C. 0.867Vmax D. 0.678Vmax

52. When measuring the voice channel at a –4dB test point level, the
meter reads –76 dBm. Calculate the reading in dBrnC0?
A. 80 * B. 18 C. 8 D. 28

53. A telephone line has a bandwidth of 3.2 kHz and signal-to-noise ratio
of 34 dB. A signal is transmitted down this line using a four-level
code. What is the maximum theoretical data rate?
A. 72.6 kbps B. 12.8 kbps* C. 36.3 kbps D. 25.6 kbps

54. A direct sequence spread-spectrum system uses FSK with a chipping

rate of 20 to 1. The signal-to-noise ratio for the spread signal is –6
dB (that is, the signal is 5 dB weaker than the noise in the same
bandwidth). If the data is transmitted at 50 kbps, What is the signal-
to-noise ratio for the despread signal at the receiver?
A. 8 dB B. 15 dB C. 16 dB D. 7 dB*

55. An asynchronous communication system uses ASCII at 9600 bits/s, with

eight bits, one start bit, one stop bit and no parity bit. Express the
data rate in words per minute. (Assume a word has five characters or
letters and one space.)
A. 9600 words/min* C. 960 words/min

B. 1200 words/min D. 1600 words/min

Transmission Lines

56. The field associated with the energy stored in the antenna is the
A. Fresnel field C. Fraunhoffer Field *

B. Capacitance field D. Tank field

57. High-frequency waves are

A. absorbed by the F2 layer
B. reflected by the D layer
C. capable of use for long-distance communications on the moon
D. affected by the solar cycle *
58. In electromagnetic waves, polarization
 A. is caused by reflection

B. is due to the transverse nature of the waves *

C. results from the longitudinal nature of waves

D. is always vertical in an isotropic medium

59. At the ends of the half-wave antenna, what values of current and
voltage exist compared to the remainder of the antenna?
A. minimum voltage and maximum current
B. minimum voltage and minimum current
C. equal voltage and minimum current
D. maximum voltage and minimum current *

60. A ratio expressing the percentage of incident voltage reflected on a

transmission line is known as the
A. Velocity factor C. Reflection coefficient*
B. standing wave ratio D. Line efficiency

61. What should be done to increase the transmission distance at

frequencies higher than HF bands?
A. increase antenna gain C. increase antenna height*
B. increase transmitter power D. increase receiver sensitivity

62. As per ITU-R Recc. V.431-6 Tables 1 & 2 Wavelength Classifications,

what is the classification of Super High Frequency?
A. metric B. decimetric C. centimetric* D. millimetric

63. The ground wave eventually disappears, as one moves away from the
transmitter, because of
A. interference from the sky wave
B. loss of line-of-sight conditions
C. maximum single-hop distance limitation
D. tilting*

64. A open-circuited transmission line less than quarter-wavelength long.

A. inductive C. parallel resonant circuit

B. capacitive* D. series resonant circuit

65. Audio signals are not propagated directly to space because_____.

A. to do so will entail additional costs.

B. the signal will be highly attenuated

C. they will require antennas that are too long *

D. the signal that will be propagated will be too weak

66. A dipole antenna has an efficiency of 95%. Calculate the gain in

decibels.
A. 3.51 dB B. 1.93 dB * C. 1.64 Db D. 1.87 dB

67. A properly matched transmission line has a loss of 1.5 dB/50m. If 10W
is supplied to one end of the line, how many watts reach the load, 30 m
away?
A. 9.1 W B. 9.5 W C. 10.9 W D. 8.12 W *
68. Calculate the time delay in nanosecond introduced by a 100 ft coaxial
cable with a dielectric constant of 2.3.
A. 230 B. 152 C. 154 * D. 15.2

69. Calculate the minimum length of a pair of conductors to be considered

as a transmission line, if its operating frequency is 800 MHz.
A. 37.5 mm * B. 375 mm C. 37.5 cm D. 3.75 mm

70. A radio communication link is to be established via the ionosphere.

The maximum virtual height of the layer is 110 km. at the midpoint of
the path and the critical frequency is 4 MHz. If the distance between
the radio stations is 500 km, what is the suitable value for the optimum
working frequency? Use flat terrain analysis.
A. 2.8 MHz B. 4.7 MHz C. 8.4 MHz* D. 9.1 MHz

71. The twin parallel transmission line is separated by a distance of 300

mm between the centre lines of the conductors. The diameter of the
identical conductors is 4 mm. What is the characteristic impedance of
the line if it suspended in free space?
A. 400 ohms B. 500 ohms C. 600 ohms* D. 700 ohms

72. A TV tower has a height of 200 m. What is the maximum distance up to

which TV transmission can be received?
A. 35.77 km* B. 32.7 km C. 50.6 km D. 40.77 km

73. The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260 V, while the
maximum is 390 V, the SWR is
A. 0.67 B. 1.0 C. 1.2 D. 1.5 *

74. A certain antenna has a gain of 9 dB with respect to an isotropic

radiator. How much power would it absorb from a signal with a field
strength of 36 uV/m if the frequency is 200 MHz?
A. 3.08 pW B. 5.95 pW C. 8.03 pW D. 4.88 pW*

75. A 500 kHz antenna radiate 500W of power. The same antenna produces a
field strength equal to 1.5 mV/m. If the power delivered by the antenna
is increased by 650 W, what would be the expected filed intensity.
A. 1.06 mV B. 3.1 mV C. 2.12 mV D. 2.27 mV*

Data Communication

76. On a_________, a data stream has a channel all to itself for the
duration of the connection.
A. Message switched C. packet switching

B. circuit-switched network* D. all of the choices

77. Token passing can be implemented as a

A. Mesh or a star C. ring or as a bus. *

B. Point to point or a star D. Star or a mesh

78. In a circuit-switched network:

A. communication is half-duplex only

B. each channel carries only one data stream *

C. connection is usually done using a bus topology

D. all of the above

79. One type of network that never has a collision is:
A. CSMA

B. Ethernet

C. Token passing *

D. All networks have collisions

80. A switch:
A. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it

B. sends incoming packets out to specific ports *

C. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network

D. are more common in token-passing networks

81. TCP/IP is a ______ hierarchical protocol suite developed ____ the OSI
model
A) seven-layer; before C) six-layer; before

B) five-layer; before* D) five-layer; after

82. The physical, data link, and network layers are the ______ support
layers.
A) user C) both (a) and (b)

B) Network* D) neither (a) nor (b)

83. In the OSI model, when data is transmitted from device A to device B,
the header from A's layer 5 is read by B's _______ layer.
A) physical C) Session*

B) transport D) presentation

84. Exchange of predetermined signals when a connection is established

between two dataset devices.
A. handshaking * C. formatting

B. transmission D. internet

85. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is:

A. it is cheaper when used in large networks
B. it is faster when used in large networks
C. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks*
D. all of the above

86. On networks, long messages are divided into "chunks" called:

A. Packets* B. nodes C. carriers D. tokens

87. In the OSI model, the most important services to be performed by the
Session Layer are:
A. sampling and quantizing C. sign-on and log-out
B. log-in and terminating D. log-in and log-out procedures*

88. The basic building block of a parity generator circuit is the

__________ gate.
A. XNOR B. OR C. AND D. XOR *
89. How would you determine if data transmission in computers and
terminals is/are done in parallel transfer?
A. If bits move one by one over a single line.

B. If group of bits move over a single line one at a time.

C. If group of bits move over several lines at the same time *

D. If bits move several lines regardless of either single or group

90. A process of sending data in computing technology by asking each

remote computer terminal one at a time if such computer terminal has
data to send.
A. selection B. polling* C. networking D. coding

91. What layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model handles
the transmission of bits over a communications channel?
A. physical layer * C. data link layer

B. transport layer D. network layer

92. Half-duplex operation involves communication

a. In one direction only

b. In both directions, but only one can talk at a time *

c. Where both parties can talk at the same time

d. All the above

93. The RS-232 interface

A. interconnects data sets and transmission circuits*

B. uses several different connectors

C. permits custom wiring of signal lines to the connector pins as

desired

D. all of the above

94. A digital transmission has an error probability of 10^ -4 and is 10^

9 bits long. Calculate the expected number of error bits
A. 10^4 B. 10^5 * C. 10^6 D. 10^9

95. For an Ethernet bus that is 500 meters in length, using a cable with
a velocity factor of 0.66, and a communication rate of 10 Mb/s,
calculate the total number of bits that would be sent by each station
before it detects a collision, if both stations begin to transmit at the
same time.
A. 5 bits B. 50 bits C. 2.5 bits D. 25 bits*

96. A direct sequence spread-spectrum system uses FSK with a chipping

rate of 20 to 1. The signal-to-noise ratio for the spread signal is –6
dB (that is, the signal is 5 dB weaker than the noise in the same
bandwidth). If the data is transmitted at 50 kbps, What is the signal-
to-noise ratio for the despread signal at the receiver?
A. 8 dB B. 15 dB C. 16 dB D. 7 dB*
97. Which of the following words has the correct parity bit? Assume odd
parity. The last bit is the parity bit.
A. 11111111 B. 11001101* C. 00110101 D. 00000000

98. Determine the Hamming distance for the codewords ( 10101, 11001)
a. one b. two* c. three d. five

99. For a compressor with Mu= 200, determine the output for input value
of 4 volts. The maximum uncompressed voltage is 8 volts.
a. 6.96 V* b. 7.57 V* c. 5.86 V d. 4.26 V

100. A network with bandwidth of 10 Mbps can pass only an average of 12000
frames per minute with each frame carrying an average of 10000 bits.
What is the throughput of this network?
a. 1 Mbps b. 2 Mbps* c. 3 Mbps d. 4 Mbps
 Questions from file: est(1).doc | “post test part2” Set
MULTIPLE CHOICE

Signal Spectra and Processing

1. A voltage V(t) is a Gaussian ergodic random process with a mean of zero

and a variance of 4 volt2. If it is measured by a dc meter. The reading
will be
A. 0* B. 4 C. 2 D. 2

2. The analog signal m(t) is given below m(t) = 4 cos 100 pt + 8 sin 200 pt
+ cos 300 pt, the Nyquist sampling rate will be
A. 1/100 B. 1/200 C. 1/300* D. 1/600

3. A function having frequency f is to be sampled. The sampling time T

should be

a.

b.

c. *

d.

4. A voltage wave having 5% fifth harmonic content is applied to a series

RC circuit. The percentage fifth harmonic content in the current wave
will be
A. 5% B. more than 5%* C. less than 5% D. equal or more than 5%

5. If transfer function of a system is H(z) = 6 + z-1 + z-2 then system is

A. minimum phase* B. maximum phase C. mixed phase D. none

Principles of Communication

6. What type of modulation is most commonly used for VHF packet radio
transmissions?
A. FM* B. SSB C. AM D. Spread Spectrum

7. Which type of voice mode is most often used for long-distance (weak
signal) contacts on the VHF and UHF bands?
A. SSB* B. FM C. DRM D. PM

8. The number of noise sources in a BJT are

A. 3* B. 2 C. 1 D. 4

9. What is the approximate bandwidth of a single sideband voice signal?

A. 3 kHz* B. 1 kHz C. 6 kHz D. 15 kHz

10. Assertion (A): Free space does not interfere with normal radiation and
propagation of radio waves
Reason (R): Free space has no magnetic or gravitational fields.
A. Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A*
B. Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
C. A is correct but R is wrong
D. A is wrong but R is correct

11. Energy content of atmospheric noise

A. does not depend on frequency
 B. decreases as frequency is increased*
C. increases as frequency is increased
D. either (a) or (c) depending on the temperature

12. VSB modulation is preferred in TV because

A. it reduces the bandwidth requirement to half*
B. it avoids phase distortion at low frequencies
C. it results in better reception
D. none of the above

13. In a superheterodyne receiver

A. the IF stage has better selectivity than RF stage*
B. the RF stage has better selectivity than IF stage
C. the RF stage has same selectivity than IF stage
D. none of the above

14. Which of the following should be used in order to prevent overloading

or the last IF amplifier in a receiver?
A. Variable selectivity
B. Variable sensitivity*
C. Double conversion
D. Squelch

15. A radio communication link is to be established via the ionosphere.

The maximum virtual height of the layer is 110 km. at the midpoint of
the path and the critical frequency is 4 MHz. If the distance between
the radio stations is 500 km, what is the suitable value for the optimum
working frequency? Use flat terrain analysis.
A. 2.8 MHz
B. 4.7 MHz
C. 8.4 MHz*
D. 9.1 MHz

16. A transistor class C amplifier has a maximum permissible collector

dissipation of 20 watts and collector efficiency of 75 %. If it is
collector modulated to a depth of 90 %, calculate the power in the
sidebands.
A. 17.3 W* B. 60.2 W C. 42.7 W D. 26.67 W

17. A three-stage has stages with the following specifications: First

stage with power gain and noise figure of 10 and 2 respectively, 25 and
4 for the second stage and 30 and 5 for the third stage. Find the noise
temperature.
A. 382 K* B. 435 K C. 328 K D. 358 K

18. Ground waves are most effective:

A. above about 20 MHz C. at microwave frequencies
B. below about 2 MHz* D. when using horizontally polarized waves

19. Image frequency problems would be reduced by:

A. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor
B. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer*
C. having a narrowband RF amplifier after the mixer
D. none of the above

20. A frequency modulation system requires a signal-to-noise ratio of 40

dB at the detector output. The modulating frequency is 2 kHz and the
deviation is 50 kHz. Determine the required minimum S/N at the detector
input.
A. 120 dB * B. 25 dB C. 80 dB D. 83.3 dB
21. An AM signal has the following characteristics: carrier frequency =
150 MHz; modulating frequency = 3 MHz; peak carrier voltage = 40 volts
and peak modulation voltage is 30 volts. Calculate the peak voltage of
the lower sideband frequency.
A. 15 volts * B. 10 volts C. 70 volts D. 20 volts

22. The modulated peak value of a signal is 125V and the unmodulated
carrier value is 85V. What is the modulation index?
A. 0.68 B. 0.19 C. 0.47* D. 1.0

23. A filter type SSB generator uses an ideal bandpass filter with a
center frequency of 20 MHz and a bandwidth of 30 kHz. What frequency
should be used for the carrier oscillator if the generator is to produce
a USB signal with a baseband frequency response having a lower limit of
400 Hz.
A. 19.9846 MHz* B. 20.0154 MHz C. 20.015 MHz D. 19.985 MHz

24. A PLL has the following characteristics:

Free running frequency: 3 MHz, Lock range: 200 kHz, Capture range: 50
kHz. What is the pull-in range?
A. 100 kHz B. 25 kHz* C. 47 kHz D. 150 kHz

25. If two signals, Va = sin(ωat) and Vb = sin(ωbt), are fed to a mixer,

the output:
a. will contain ω1 = ωa + ωb and ω2 = ωa – ωb*
b. will contain ω1 = ωa / ωb and ω2 = ωb / ωa
c. will contain ω= (ωa + ωb ) / 2
d. none of the above

26. In amplitude modulation, how much of the transmitted power is in the

carrier?
a. one-half b. three-quarters c. one-third d. two-thirds*

27. In high-level AM, the modulator varies the voltage and power in the
a. carrier oscillator c. intermediate RF amplifier
b. audio amplifier d. final RF amplifier*

28. The image frequency of a superheterodyne receiver

a. is created within the receiver itself
b. is due to insufficient adjacent channel rejection
c. is not rejected be the IF tuned circuits*
d. is independent of the frequency to which the receiver is tuned

29. Image frequencies occur when two signals:

a. are transmitted on the same frequency
b. enter the mixer, with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF
frequency
c. enter the mixer, one below and one above the local oscillator by a
difference equal to the IF*
d. enter the mixer, and the difference between the two signals is equal
to twice the IF

30. Which of the following describes a simple dipole mounted so the

conductor is parallel to the Earth's surface?
A. A horizontally polarized antenna* C. A ground wave antenna
 B. A rhombic antenna D. A vertically polarized antenna

31. The amplitude of a sine wave which is modulated by a musical program

will
A. be complex and contain fundamental and harmonic frequencies *
B. contain harmonic frequencies
C. be complex
D. contain fundamental frequencies

32. The frequency band used by cellular telephones and mobile

communication services is_____.
A. UHF* B. EHF C. VHF D. VLF

33. A portable radio transmitter has to operate at temperature from –5

degrees C to 35 degrees C. If its signal is derived from a crystal
oscillator with temperature coefficient of –1 ppm per degree Centigrade,
and it transmits at exactly 145 MHz at 20 degrees C, find the
transmitting frequency at 35 degrees C.
A. 144.9942 MHz B. 144.9978 MHz* C. 145.0029 MHz D. 145.00362 MHz

34. What is the reliable measurement for comparing signal noise

characteristics?
A. signal-to-noise* C. nosie factor
B. thermal agitation noise D. noise margin

35. The L+R stereo channel in FM broadcasting is between

A. 50 Hz to 15 kHz*
B. 60 kHz to 74 kHz
C. 23 kHz to 53 kHz
D. 20 Hz to 20 kHz

Digital Communication

36. Find the maximum dynamic range for a linear PCM system using 16-bit
quantizing.
A. 11.12 dB B. 76.45 dB C. 255 dB D. 98.08 dB*

37. A telephone line has a bandwidth of 3.2 kHz and signal-to-noise ratio
of 34 dB. A signal is transmitted down this line using a five-level
code. What is the maximum theoretical data rate?
A. 72.6 kbps B. 12.8 kbps C. 34.8 kbps D. 14.9 kbps*

38. Compared to PCM, adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice:

A. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality
B. with a lower bit rate but the same quality*
C. only over shorter distances
D. only if the voice is band-limited

39. The FET acts like a switch. When turned “on” it provides a low
impedance path to deposit the analog sample across a capacitor. The time
when the FET is “on” is called _____time.
A. aperture* B. acquiring C. natural D. storage

40. A direct sequence spread-spectrum system uses FSK with a chipping rate
of 20 to 1. The signal-to-noise ratio for the spread signal is –6 dB
(that is, the signal is 5 dB weaker than the noise in the same
bandwidth). If the data is transmitted at 50 kbps, What is the signal-
to-noise ratio for the despread signal at the receiver?
 A. 8 dB B. 15 dB C. 16 dB D. 7 dB*

41. Determine the resolution for an 8-bit linear sign-magnitude PCM for a
maximum decoded voltage of 2.55 Vp.
A. 0.02V * B. 0.03V C. 0.05V D. 0.07V

42. The serial binary data is mixed with higher-frequency pseudorandom

binary code at a faster rate and the result is used to phase modulate
the carrier
A. Spread spectrum C. Frequency hopping
B. Time division multiplexing D. Direct sequence *

43. A multiplexer combines four 100-kbps channels using a time slot of 2

bits, determine the frame duration in microseconds.
A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20*

44. In _______, the stations share the bandwidth of the channel in time.
A) FDMA B) TDMA* C) CDMA D) none of the above

45. A telephone subscriber line must have an SNRdB above 40. What is the
minimum number of bits?
a. 3.56 b. 5.63 c. 6.35* d. 3.65

46. Circuit for digitizing voice at a low data rate by using knowledge of
the way in which voice sounds are produced
a. vocoder* b. codec c. sample-and-hold circuit d. ADC

47. It is an undesired shift or width change in digital bits of data due

to circuitry action which causes bits to arrive at different times
a. alias b. impulse c. jitter* d. parity

48. In PCM system, it is the ratio of the maximum input voltage level to
the smallest voltage level that can be quantized
a. Dynamic range* b. Figure of merit c. Quality factor d. Noise figure

49. A computer monitor has a resolution of 1200 by 1000 pixels. If each

pixel uses 2048 colors, how many bits are needed to send the complete
contents of a screen?
a. 12 Gigabits b.13.2 Gigabits* c.132 Megabits d.12 Megabits

50. A PCM TDM multiplexes 25 VB channels. Each sample is encoded into 8

bits and a framing bit is added to each frame. The sampling rate is
8,000 samples per second. Using BPRZ-AMI encoding as the line format,
waht is its line speed?
a. 2.456 Mbps b. 1.608 Mbps* c. 4.182 Mbps d. 3.128 Mbps

51. What is the category of data transmission if the binary pulse is

maintained for the entire bit time.
A. RZ B. Bipolar C. NRZ* D. Unipolar

52. It is a numerical indication of how efficiently a PCM code is utilized

A. Companding efficiency C. Preemphasis

B. Coding efficiency* D. Dynamic range

53. The quantizing error of PCM systems for weak signals can be made less
significant by
a. Companding*
b. Using time-division multiplexing
c. Using frequency-division multiplexing
d. Filtering out the alias frequency
54. If the magnitude of a sample exceeds the highest quantization interval
is called:
A. Overload Distortion
B. peak limiting
C. Quantizing error
D. both a and b*

55. In order to reduce quantizing noise, one must

a. increase the number of samples per second
b. send pulses whose sides are more nearly vertical
c. use an RF amplifier in the receiver
d. increase the number of standard amplitudes*

Transmission Lines

56. A loss less line of characteristic impedance Z0 is terminated in pure

reactance of -jZ0 value. VSWR is
A. 10 B. 2 C. 1 D. infinity*

57. What is the primary purpose of a dummy load?

A. To prevent the radiation of signals when making tests*
B. To prevent over-modulation of your transmitter
C. To improve the radiation from your antenna
D. To improve the signal to noise ratio of your receiver

58. A radio station operates at 11 meter wavelength. What is the

designated band of station’s frequency?
A. MF B. HF* C. VHF D. UHF

59. What is the actual length in feet of a one-half wavelength of a coax

with a velocity factor of 0.57 at 25 MHz?
A. 42.17 B. 44.87* C. 41.12 D. 43.25

60. A telephone signal takes 2 quarters of a second to reach its

destination. Calculate the via net loss necessary for an acceptable
amount of echo.
A. 104 dB B. 10.4 dB C. 100 Db D. 100.4 dB *

61. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend

upon its
A. length * C. conductor spacing

B. conductor diameter D. dielectric material

62. Counterpoise are generally used for _____.

A. quarter-wave antenna
B. Marconi antenna
C. Rhombic antenna
D. both a and b*

63. A certain antenna has a gain of 9 dB with respect to an isotropic

radiator. How much power would it absorb from a signal with a field
strength of 36 uV/m if the frequency is 200 MHz?
A. 3.08 pW B. 5.95 pW C. 8.03 pW D. 4.88 pW*

64. In a satellite communications system, free space conditions may be

assumed. The satellite is at a height of 36,000 km above earth, the
frequency used is 4000 MHz, the transmitting antenna gain is 15 dB, and
 the receiving antenna gain is 45 dB. Calculate the received power when
the transmitted power is 200 W.
A. 5 pW* B. 10 pW C. 15 pW D. 20 pW

65. As per ITU-R Recc. V.431-6 Tables 1 & 2 Wavelength Classifications,

what is the classification of Super High Frequency?
A. metric B. decimetric C. centimetric* D. millimetric

66. In which direction is the radiation strongest from a half-wave dipole

antenna in free space?
A. Broadside to the antenna* C. Equally in all directions
B. Off the ends of the antenna D. In the direction of the feed line

67. Two half wave dipole antennas are separated by 50 km. Both are
alligned for optimum reception. If the transmitter feeds its antenna
with 10 Watts power at 144 MHz, the receive power would be equal to
_________ x 10^-10 Watts.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3* D. 4

68. A system with a sampling rate of 5,000 samples per second and a 7-bit
compressed PCM code, calculate its line speed.
A. 35 kbits per sample* c. 15 kbits per sample
B. 25 kbits per sample D. 5 kbits per sample

69. The maximum voltage standing wave of an RG-11/U foam coaxial cable is
52 V and its minimum voltage is 17 V. How many percent of the incident
power is the reflected power?
A. 18% B. 33% C. 23%* D. 51%

70. Determine the phase-shift represented by a 75 ns delay of a 4 MHz

signal to a 75-ft cable with a dielectric constant of 2.3.
A. 126 degrees B. 192 degrees c. 108 degrees* d. 100 degrees

71. Which of the following antennas has no gain in any direction?

A. Isotropic antenna *
B. Quarter-wave vertical
C. Yagi
D. Half-wave dipole

72. Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?
A. To match impedances for maximum power transfer from a feed line *
B. To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting
antenna
C. To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna
D. To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna

73. What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical

antenna?
A. Improved radiation efficiency * C. Lower Q
B. Greater structural strength D. Higher losses

74. Why is a loading coil often used with an HF mobile antenna?

A. To cancel capacitive reactance * C. To improve reception
B. To lower the losses D. To lower the Q

75. What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower

impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two
places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?
A. The delta matching system * C. The gamma matching system
B. The omega matching system D. The stub matching system
Data Communication

76. What layer in the TCP/IP stack is equivalent to the Transport layer of
the OSI model?
A. Application B. Host-to-Host* C. Internet D. Network Access

77. Which of the following is private IP address.

A. 12.0.0.1 B. 168.172.19.39 C. 172.15.14.36 D. 192.168.24.43*

78. You have 10 users plugged into a hub running 10Mbps half-duplex. There
is a server connected to the switch running 10Mbps half-duplex as well.
How much bandwidth does each host have to the server?
A. 100 kbps B. 1 Mbps C. 2 Mbps D. 10 Mbps*

79. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is:

A. it is cheaper when used in large networks
B. it is faster when used in large networks
C. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks*
D. all of the above

80. Alphabet No. 2 is commonly known as ___________.

A. ASCII codes B. Gray codes C. Baudot codes* D. EBCDIC codes

81. Standard Ethernet (10-Mbps) uses _______ encoding

A) NRZ B) AMI C) Manchester* D)differential Manchester

82. In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte
is 0, the address is _________.
A) unicast* B) multicast C) broadcast D) none of the above

83. In Bluetooth, multiple ________ form a network called a _________.

A) scatternet; piconets

B) piconets: scatternet*

C) piconets: bluenet

D) bluenet; scatternet

84. The most reliable convolutional coding scheme for error detection
a. checksum b. LRC c. CRC* d. VRC

85. A ________ is normally a computer that operates in all five layers of

the Internet model or seven layers of OSI model.
A) repeater B) bridge C) router D) gateway*

86. An error detection method which uses one’s complement arithmetic

a. Checksum*

b. CRC

c. Simple-parity check

d. Two-dimensional parity check

87. Determine the Hamming distance for the codewords ( 11101, 11001)
a. one* b. two c. three d. five
88. How many hamming bits are required for a 14-bit data string?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5* D. 6

89. Which of the following words has the correct parity bit? Assume even
parity. The last bit is the parity bit.
A. 111111111 B. 110011001 C. 001101001* D. 000000000

90. A process of sending data in computing technology by asking each

remote computer terminal one at a time if such computer terminal has
data to send.
A. selection B. networking C. polling* D. coding

91. On a_________, a data stream has a channel all to itself for the
duration of the connection.
A. Message switched C. packet switching

B. circuit-switched network* D. all of the choices

92. When measuring the voice channel at a –4dB test point level, the meter
reads –76 dBm. Calculate the reading in dBrnC0?
A. 80 * B. 18 C. 8 D. 28

93. How do you connect two digital terminal equipment (DTE) in the absence
of a modem?
a.) Line Bridging.
b.) Direct connection with the use of a null modem.*
c.) Sharing of line.
d.) Using a router.

94. The input and output ports of a router perform the ________ layer
functions of the router.
A) physical and data link* C) transport

B) network D) none of the above

95. Which encoding method uses alternating positive and negative values
for 1s?
A) NRZ-I B) RZ C) Manchester D) AMI*

96. A tone measures 80 dBrnc at the output of a four wire central office.
What will it be at a local loop that is at -8 dB TLP.
A. 72 dBrnc B. 82 dBrnc C. 74 dBrnc* D. 84 dBrnc

97. Digital signatures are now being used to “sign” important documents
that are sent electronically. The 128 bits used produced by mathematical
function is called
A. flag B. hash* C. header D. private key

98. The process-to-process delivery of the entire message is the

responsibility of the _______ layer.
A) Network B) Transport* C) Application D) Physical

99. A one-to-all communication between one source and all hosts on a

network is classified as a _______ communication.
A) unicast B) multicast C) broadcast* D) none of the above

100. TCP is a ___________ protocol.

A) connection-oriented* C) both a and b

B) connectionless D) none of the above

 Questions from file: est(2).doc | “post test part3” Set

MULTIPLE CHOICE

Signal Spectra and Processing

1. What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall
time (or vice versa)?
A. A sawtooth wave* B. A square wave C. A cosine wave D. A sine wave

2. Indicate the false statement. Fourier analysis shows that a sawtooth

wave consist of
a. fundamental and subharmonic sine waves*

b. a fundamental sine wave and an infinite number of harmonics

c. fundamental and harmonic sine waves whose amplitude decreases with

the harmonic number

d. sinusoidal voltages, some of which are small enough to ignore in

practice

3. Which part of the sinewave expression cannot be varied in accordance

with the low-frequency intelligence to create a modulated signal?
a. Phase b. Frequency c. Time* d. Amplitude

4. What type of wave is made up of a sine wave plus all of its odd
harmonics?
a. A square wave * b. A sine wave c. A cosine wave d. A tangent wave

5. What type of wave is made up of sine waves of a given fundamental

frequency plus all its harmonics?
a. A sawtooth wave * b. A square wave c. A sine wave d. A cosine wave

Principles of Communication

6. For a 3 stage system with an input power Pin = -20 dBm and power gains
of the 3 stages A1 = 13 dB, A2 = 16 dB, A3 = -6 dB, determine the output
power in watts.
a. 1 mW b. 2 mW* c. 3 mW d. 4 mW

7. Determine the equivalent noise voltage for a diode with forward bias of
5 mA over a 20 MHz bandwidth.
a. 243 nV b. 573 nV c. 732 nV d. 931 nV*

8. The noise produced by a resistor is to be amplified by an amplifier

having a voltage gain of 125 and a bandwidth of 100 kHz. An oscilloscope
connected at the output reads 340 uVpeak. Assuming operation at 95
degrees Fahrenheit, calculate the resistor’s resistance.
a. 1.85 kohm b. 2.17 kohm*
c. 3.11 kohm d. 4.91 kohm

9. The RF amplifier of a receiver has an input resistance of 1500 ohm, and

equivalent shot-noise resistance of 200 ohm, a gain of 25, and a load
resistance of 125 kohm. Given that the bandwidth is 1.0 MHz and the
temperature is 25 C, calculate the equivalent noise voltage at the input
to this RF amplifier.
a. 5.3 uV b. 5.6 uV* c. 10.5 uV d. 10.8 uV
10. If receiver in problem 9 is connected to an antenna with an impedance
of 75 ohms, calculate the noise factor.
a. 23.67 b. 26.33* c. 90.33 d. 101.1

11. A 20 MHz crystal oscillator has a temperature coefficient of negative

5 ppm/degree C. It operates over a frequency range from + 100 C to + 300
C and has been set to exactly 20 MHz at 200 C. What is its output
frequencies at 100?
a. 19.999 MHz b. 20.001 MHz* c. 18.999 MHz d. 21.001 MHz

12. A varactor in series with a 40 pF capacitor in a Colpitts oscillator

has a maximum capacitance of 80 pF used in a tuned circuit with a 50 uH
inductor. Find the tuning voltage necessary for the circuit to resonate
at double the frequency.
a. 9.5 V b. 29.5 V c. 39.5 V d. 49.5 V*

13. For a citizens band receiver using high-side injection with an RF

carrier of 25.04 MHz and a 12.65 MHz first IF, determine IFRR in dB for
a pre-selector Q of 90.
a. 21.34 dB b. 36.35 dB c. 42.68 dB* d. 58.27 dB

14. Calculate the percentage modulation of an AM wave if the positive RF

peaks of the voltage wave rises to a maximum value of 16 Volts and drops
to a minimum value of 6 Volts.
a. 37.5% b. 45.0%* c. 51.3% d. 61.3%

15. Determine the worst-case output S/N for a broadcast FM program that
has a maximum intelligence frequency of 5 kHz. The input S/N is 2
a. 10 b. 20 c. 30* d. 40

16. An FM transmitter system is using a 1MHz crystal oscillator to

generate a very stable 108MHz final carrier frequency. The output of
the crystal oscillator is fed to a x36 multiplier circuit then mixed
with a 34.5 MHz signal. The sum output of the mixer is filtered out,
while the difference is fed to another multiplier in order to generate
the final carrier frequency. What is the multiplier value?
a. 31 b. 59 c. 72* d. 94

17. For an angle modulated carrier Vc = 6cos(2pi110 MHzt) with 75 kHz

frequency deviation due to the information signal and a single frequency
interfering signal Vn = 0.3cos(2pi109.985 MHzt), determine the frequency
of the demodulated interference signal.
a. 4.5 kHz b. 15 kHz* c. 750 Hz d. 1 kHz

18. What is the noise voltage of a parallel combination of 3 1kilo ohm

resistors on a 1 MHz frequency range?
a. 4 uV b. 3.91 uV c. 2.31 uV* d. 1.79 uV

19. The input to the FM receiver has a signal-to-noise of 2.8, the

modulating frequency is 1.5 kHz. The maximum permitted deviation is 4
kHz. Calculate the frequency deviation caused by noise.
a. 712 Hz b. 162 Hz c. 397 Hz d. 547 Hz*

20. A receiver has an effective noise temperature of 33 degrees C and a

0.7 Hz bandwidth. Calculate the equivalent thermal noise of the radio
receiver.
 a. -205 dBW* b. -105 dBW c. -55 dBw d. 5 dBW

21. Which of the following parameters would a typical spectrum analyzer

display on the horizontal axis?
a. Frequency * b. SWR c. Q d. Time

22. How might lowering the noise figure affect receiver performance?
a. It would increase signal to noise ratio *

b. It would reduce the signal to noise ratio

c. It would reduce bandwidth

d. It would increase bandwidth

23. Which of the following is most likely to be the limiting condition

for sensitivity in a modern communications receiver operating at 14 MHz?
a. Atmospheric noise * c. The noise figure of the RF amplifier

b. Mixer noise d. Conversion noise

24. What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in

the IF section of a receiver?
a. Undesired signals may be heard * c. Output-offset overshoot

b. Filter ringing d. Thermal-noise distortion

25. How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?

a. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in one
or both transmitter final amplifiers *

b. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause
feedback in one or both transmitter final amplifiers

c. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase
from airplanes passing overhead

d. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from
airplanes passing overhead

26. Also known as lock range

A. capture range C. natural frequency

B. free-running frequency D. tracking range*

27. In PLL frequency demodulator, the information or the modulating

signal is the _____ signal.
A. phase shift B. error * C. VCO D. input

28. Which of the following would occur in a receiver not having AGC?
a. The speaker output level would drastically change while tuning from a
weak signal to a strong signal.

b. Local stations would easily produce distorted signals in the speaker.

c. There would be a constant need to readjust the volume control as the

weather and ionosphere change.

d. All the above *

29. Maximum frequency deviation of a FM signal occurs at
A. zero-crossing points C. peak negative amplitude

B. peak positive amplitudes D. peak positive and negative amplitude*

30. First symbol in the designation of radio signals emission which

refers to use of a full carrier and one sideband.
A. J B. N C. H* D. A

31. A phase-locked loop has a VCO with a free-running frequency of 14

MHz. As the frequency of the reference input is gradually raised from
zero, the loop locks at 12 MHz and comes out again at 18 MHz. Find the
hold-in range.
A. 10 MHz B. 15 MHz C. 4 MHz* D. 8 MHz

32. A transistor has a power dissipation rating of 30 W. Assuming that

the transistors is the only element that dissipates power in the
circuit, calculate the power an amplifier, using this transistor, could
deliver to the load if it operates as class-A with an efficiency of 30%
A. 35.7 W B. 7.5 W C. 22.5 W D. 12.86 W *

33. Determine the overall bandwidth for two single tuned IF amplifiers
each with a bandwidth of 10 kHz.
a. 20 kHz b. 6.436 kHz* c. 5.098 kHz d. 4.35 kHz

34. If a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz receives an intermodulation-product

signal whenever a nearby transmitter transmits on 146.52 MHz, what are
the two most likely frequencies for the other interfering signal?
a. 146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz * c. 146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz

b. 146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz d. 73.35 MHz and 239.40 MHz

35. If the signals of two transmitters mix together in one or both of

their final amplifiers, and unwanted signals at the sum and difference
frequencies of the original signals are generated, what is this called?
a. Intermodulation interference * c. Neutralization

b. Amplifier desensitization d. Adjacent channel interference

Digital Communication

36. A system with a sampling rate of 5,000 samples per second and a 7-bit
compressed PCM code, calculate its line speed.
a. 35.0 kbits per sample* c. 55.0 kbits per sample

b. 45.0 kbits per sample d. 65.0 kbits per sample

37. The modulator transmits symbols, each of which has 32 different

possible states, 10,000 times per second. How much is the bit rate?
A. 64 kbps B. 50 kbps* C. 60 kbps D. none

38. Determine the quantization error for an 10-bit linear sign-magnitude

PCM for a maximum decoded voltage of 2.55 Vp.
A. 0.005V B. 0.01V C. 0.05V D. 0.0025V*

39. Find the maximum dynamic range for a linear PCM system using 16-bit
quantizing.
A. 11.12 dB B. 76.45 dB C. 255 dB D. 98.08 dB*
40. A signal at the input to a mu-law compressor is positive with its
voltage one-half the maximum value. What proportion of the maximum
output voltage is produced?
A. 0.786Vmax B. 0.876Vmax * C. 0.867Vmax D. 0.678Vmax

41. When measuring the voice channel at a –6dB test point level, the
meter reads –76 dBm. Calculate the reading in dBrnC0?
A. 20* B. 18 C. 8 D. 28

42. A telephone line has a bandwidth of 3.2 kHz and signal-to-noise ratio
of 34 dB. A signal is transmitted down this line using a eight-level
code. What is the maximum theoretical data rate?
A. 72.6 kbps B. 12.8 kbps C. 36.3 kbps D. 19.2 kbps*

43. A direct sequence spread-spectrum system uses FSK with a chipping

rate of 20 to 1. The signal-to-noise ratio for the spread signal is –6
dB (that is, the signal is 5 dB weaker than the noise in the same
bandwidth). If the data is transmitted at 50 kbps, What is the signal-
to-noise ratio for the despread signal at the receiver?
A. 8 dB B. 15 dB C. 16 dB D. 7 dB*

44. An asynchronous communication system uses ASCII at 9600 bits/s, with

eight bits, one start bit, one stop bit and no parity bit. Express the
data rate in words per minute. (Assume a word has seven characters or
letters and one space.)
A. 9600 words/min C. 960 words/min

B. 7200 words/min* D. 1600 words/min

45. Calculate the S/N of a -40 dBm signal measurement with 18 dBrnc noise
level taken at -40 TLP.
a. 32 dB* b. 42 dB c. 71 dB d. 81 dB

46. The advantage(s) of digital and/or data communications over analog

include
a. Noise performance

b. Regeneration

c. Digital signal processing

d. All the above*

47. The type of modulation that uses sampling on one of the parameters of
the transmitted and received signal is known as
a. Phase modulation

b. Pulse modulation*

c. Amplitude modulation

d. Frequency modulation

48. The quantizing error of PCM systems for weak signals can be made less
significant by
a. Companding*

b. Using time-division multiplexing

c. Using frequency-division multiplexing

 d. Filtering out the alias frequency

49. The value left in the CRC dividing circuit after all data have been
shifted in is the
a. Quantile interval b. Codec c. BCC d. Syndrome*

50. Using an oscilloscope to display overlayed received data bits that

provide information on noise, jitter, and linearity is called a(n)
a. Constellation pattern c. Statistical Concentration

b. Loopback d. Eye pattern *

51. The technique that uses the BPSK vector relationship to generate an
output with logical 0s and 1s determined by comparing the phase of two
successive data bits is
a. CSU/DSU b. TDM c. CVSD d. DPSK *

52. The bit error rate is

a. The number of bit errors that occur for a given number of bits
transmitted

b. The most common method of referring to the quality of a digital

communication system

c. Virtually the same as the error probability

d. All the above *

53. ASK, PSK, FSK, and QAM are examples of _________ encoding.
a. Digital-to-digital

b. Digital-to-analog*

c. Analog-to –analog

d. Analog-to-digital

54. Which of the following is most affected by noise?

a. PSK b. ASK* c. FSK d. QAM

55. If the frequency spectrum of a signal has a bandwidth of 500 Hz with

the highest frequency at 600 Hz, what should be the sampling rate
according to the Nyquist theorem?
a. 200 samples/sec

b. 500 samples/sec

c. 1000 samples/sec

d. 1200 samples/sec*

Transmission Lines

56. Medium 1 is made of glass, while medium 2 is made of ethyl alcohol.

Their refractive indexes are 1.45 and 1.34 respectively. For an angle of
incidence of 37 degrees, determine the angle of refraction.
a. 30.12 degrees b. 40.63 degree* c. 71.12 degrees d. 87.19 degrees
57. Calculate the capacitance in uF/ft of a coaxial line whose
characteristic impedance is 50 Ohms and a dielectric constant of 2.23.
It is ________ x 10^3 uF/ft.
a. 0.0128 b. 0.0303* c. 1.2750 d. 1.9827

58. Two half wave dipole antennas are separated by 50 km. Both are
alligned for optimum reception. If the transmitter feeds its antenna
with 10 Watts power at 144 MHz, the receive power would be equal to
_________ x 10^-10 Watts.
a. 1.0 b. 2.0 c. 3.0* d. 4.0

59. What is the refractive index of an ionospheric layer with 100x10^5

free electrons per m^3. Assume frequency to be at 20 MHz.
A. 0.99 * B. 0.88 C. 0.77 D. 0.66

60. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.7, what length of cable is

required for a 90° phase shift at 100 MHz?
A. 0.6 meters B. 0.9 meters C. 0.52 meters * D. 0.72 meters

61. An isolator has a forward loss of 0.7 dB and a return loss of 26 dB.
A source provides 1 W to the isolator, and the load is resistive with an
SWR of 3. How much power is dissipated in the load?
A. 638 mW* B. 345 mW C. 165 mW D. 876 mW

62. What is the effective height of a broadcast antenna if the voltage

induced in the antenna is 2.7 volts and the measured field intensity
received in the antenna site is 27 mV/m?
A. 29.7 meters B. 100 meters* C. 72.9 meters D. 127 meters

63. Determine the phase-shift represented by a 75 ns delay of a 4 MHz

signal to a 75-ft cable with a dielectric constant of 2.3.
A. 134 degrees B. 68 degrees C. 108 degrees* D. 47 degrees

64. What is the opposition to the transfer of energy which is considered

the dominant characteristic of a cable or circuit that emanates from its
physical structure?
a. Conductance b. Resistance c. Reactance d. Impedance*

65. When load impedance equals to Zo of the line, it means that the load
_____ all the power.
a. reflects b. absorbs* c. attenuates d. radiates

66. Transmission lines are either balanced or unbalanced with respect to

a. Negative terminal b. Reference c. Ground* d. Positive terminal

67. The current maximum in a Marconi antenna is found at

A. the base of the antenna*

B. the center of the antenna

C. some point between the base and the center of the antenna

D. the top of the antenna

68. If an antenna is too short for the wavelength being used, the
effective length can be increased by adding:
A. capacitance in series C. resistance in parallel

B. inductance in series * D. resistance in series

69. What is the gain, in dB of a helical antenna with diameter of λ/3, 10
turns at pitch of λ/4, used at 100 MHz?
A. 16 * B. 41.1 C. 31.4 D. 1.25

70. How is it possible to lower the resonant frequency of Hertz dipole

antenna?
A. By reducing the frequency at the transmitter

B. By connecting a capacitor in series with the antenna

C. By the connecting a resistor in series with the antenna

D. By connecting an inductor in series with the antenna *

71. What is the approximate line impedance of a parallel-strip line

spaced 1 cm apart with the length of 50 cm?
a. 10 ohms * b. 15 ohms c. 18 ohms d. 23 ohms

72. A condition which manifest itself in the form of double-image

distortion
a. running b. fading c. ghosting* d. snowing

73. At distance greater than the skip distance, two rays can take
different paths and still be returned to the same point on Earth. The
two rays are called lower rays and _________.
a. Pedersen ray* b. Light ray c. Huygen’s ray d. Miller’s ray

74. VLF waves are used for some types of services because
a. of the low power required

b the transmitting antennas are of convenient size

c. they are very reliable*

d. they penetrate the ionosphere easily

75. Distances near the skip distance should be used for sky-wave
propagation
a. to avoid tilting

b. to prevent sky-wave and upper ray interference*

c. to avoid the faraday effect

d. so as not to exceed the critical frequency

Data Communication

76. Which is not a major function of a protocol?

a. Framing b. Line control c. Flow control d. Topology *

77. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper
layers, headers are _______.
A) added B) removed* C) rearranged D) modified

78. In the OSI model, when data is transmitted from device A to device B,
the header from A's layer 5 is read by B's _______ layer.
A) physical B) transport C) session* D) presentation
79. The ________ address, also known as the link address, is the address
of a node as defined by its LAN or WAN.
A) port B) physical* C) logical D) none of the above

80. The physical, data link, and network layers are the ______ support
layers.
A) user C) both (a) and (b)

B) network* D) neither (a) nor (b)

81. A device interconnecting LANs together that usually have identical

protocols at the physical and data link layers is called a
a. Bridge * b. Gateway c. Router d. Node

82. How many hamming bits are required for a 14-bit data string?
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5* d. 6

83. An RG 11/U coaxial cable has a maximum voltage standing wave of 50

Volts and a minumum voltage of 15 Volts. Determine the value of a
resistive load.
a. 11.5 ohms b. 22.5 ohms* c. 33.5 ohms d. 44.5 ohms

84. In a circuit-switched network:

A. communication is half-duplex only

B. each channel carries only one data stream *

C. connection is usually done using a bus topology

D. all of the above

85. One type of network that never has a collision is:

A. CSMA C. Token passing *

B. Ethernet D. All networks have collisions

86. Exchange of predetermined signals when a connection is established

between two dataset devices.
A. handshaking * B. transmission C. formatting D. internet

87. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is:

A. it is cheaper when used in large networks

B. it is faster when used in large networks

C. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks*

D. all of the above

88. How would you determine if data transmission in computers and

terminals is/are done in parallel transfer?
A. If bits move one by one over a single line.

B. If group of bits move over a single line one at a time.

C. If group of bits move over several lines at the same time *

D. If bits move several lines regardless of either single or group

89. A digital transmission has an error probability of 10^ -4 and is 10^
9 bits long. Calculate the expected number of error bits
A. 10^4 B. 10^5 * C. 10^6 D. 10^9

90. Which of the following words has the correct parity bit? Assume even
parity. The last bit is the parity bit.
A. 11111111* B. 11001101 C. 10110101 D. 00000010

91. Determine the Hamming distance for the codewords ( 10101, 11001)
a. one b. two* c. three d. five

92. A network with bandwidth of 10 Mbps can pass only an average of 12000
frames per minute with each frame carrying an average of 10000 bits.
What is the throughput of this network?
a. 1 Mbps b. 2 Mbps* c. 3 Mbps d. 4 Mbps

93. ________ is a virtual-circuit wide-area network that was designed in

response to demands for a new type of WAN in the late 1980s and early
1990s.
A)X.25 C)ATM

B)Frame Relay* D)none of the above

94. In IPv4, class _______ has the greatest number of addresses in each
block.
A) A* B) B C) C D) D

95. In _______, a table associating a logical address with a physical

address is updated manually.
A) static mapping*

B) dynamic mapping

C) physical mapping

D) none of the above

96. UDP is an acronym for _______.

A) User Delivery Protocol C) User Datagram Protocol*

B) User Datagram Procedure D) none of the above

97. The _________ is a standard for specifying any kind of information on

the Internet.
A)URL* B)ULR C)RLU D)none of the above

98. According to the Nyquist theorem, we need to sample an analog signal

________times the highest frequency.
A)three B)two* C)four D)none of the above

99. The constellation diagram of 16-QAM has ______ dots.

A)4 B)16* C)8 D)none of the above

100. Which error detection method uses one's complement arithmetic?

A)Simple parity check C)CRC

B)Two-dimensional parity check D)Checksum*

 Questions from file: esat-pre-test.doc | “1-17-23” Set
MULTIPLE CHOICE

SIGNAL SPECTRA

1. What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall
time (or vice versa)?
A. A sawtooth wave * C. A cosine wave

B. A square wave D. A sine wave

2. What is the period of a wave?

A. The time required to complete one cycle *

B. The number of degrees in one cycle

C. The number of zero crossings in one cycle

D. The amplitude of the wave

3. Which part of the sinewave expression cannot be varied in accordance

with the low-frequency intelligence to create a modulated signal?
a. Phase b. Frequency c. Time* d. Amplitude

4. Indicate the false statement. Fourier analysis shows that a sawtooth

wave consist of
a. fundamental and subharmonic sine waves*

b. a fundamental sine wave and an infinite number of harmonics

c. fundamental and harmonic sine waves whose amplitude decreases with

the harmonic number

d. sinusoidal voltages, some of which are small enough to ignore in

practice

5. Why does a 5-kHz square wave require a greater bandwidth than a 2-kHz
sinewave?
a. The square wave has a larger frequency than the sinewave.

b. The square wave has an infinite number of harmonics, whereas the

sinewave has only one.*

c. The square wave is much easier to cover by noise.

d. The square wave must also include an offset (dc) voltage, whereas the
sinewave does not.

PRINCIPLES OF COMMUNICATION

6. Which of the following is a desirable value of signal-to-noise ratio in

dB?
A. 0 B. 100* C. 1 D. 50
7. When the speed of radio signals is known, radar can be used to determine
the _________ of a target.
A. range * B. speed C. acceleration
D. position

8. One of the following statement is false, regarding making the IF value

very high.
A. the image rejection will be very good

B. there is no need to make the local oscillator extremely stable

C. tracking will be greatly improved

D. the selectivity will be very poor *

9. The field associated with the energy stored in the antenna is the
A. Radiation field C. Induction field *

B. Capacitance field D. Tank field

10. High-frequency waves are

A. absorbed by the F2 layer

B. reflected by the D layer

C. capable of use for long-distance communications on the moon

D. affected by the solar cycle *

11. Using very narrow beamwidth antennas to isolate signals on the same
frequency is known as _________.
A. antenna polarization C. frequency reuse

B. footprinting D. spatial isolation*

12. The AM detector is sometimes called _____.

A. first detector C. second detector *

B. third detector D. fourth detector

13. Maximum frequency deviation of a PM signal occurs at

A. zero-crossing points *

B. peak positive amplitudes

C. peak negative amplitude

D. peak positive and negative amplitude

14. The absorption of radio waves by the atmosphere depends on

___________.
A. their distance from the transmitter C. the polarization of the
atmosphere

B. the polarization of the waves D. their frequency *

15. A frequency shift of sound, radio, or light waves that occurs as a

result of the relative motion between objects is called the __________
effect.
 A. Doppler * B. Kepler C. Kendall D. Herringbone

16. For optimum reflection from a target, the wavelength of the radar
signal should be ________ compared to the size of the target.
A. long B. medium C. short *
D. very long

17. In electromagnetic waves, polarization

A. is caused by reflection

B. is due to the transverse nature of the waves *

C. results from the longitudinal nature of waves

D. is always vertical in an isotropic medium

18. Considered as the main source of an internal noise.

A. Flicker C. Device imperfection

B. Thermal agitation * D. Temperature change

19. Also known as lock range

A. capture range C. natural frequency

B. free-running frequency D. tracking range*

20. The value of a resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise
power generated is therefore
A. Halved B. Quadrupled C. Doubled
D. Unchanged*

21. Electrical noise inherent to a particular device, circuit or system

that remains when no other signal is present.
A. Shot noise B. Thermal noise C. Background noise* D.
Static noise

22. The sensitivity of a receiver has to do with its ability to

a. Withstand shock c. Receive weak stations*

b. Receive one station versus another d. All the above

23. First symbol in the designation of radio signals emission which

refers to use of an unmodulated carrier.
A. J B. N* C. H
D. A

24. One of the following statement is false, regarding making the IF

value very high.
A. the image rejection will be very good

B. there is no need to make the local oscillator extremely stable

C. tracking will be greatly improved

D. the selectivity will be very poor*

25. The oscillator design that uses a third capacitor in the tank circuit
for swamping out the effect of the transistor's internal capacitances
is the
 a. Hartley design b. Clapp design * c. Colpitts design
d. Crystal design

26. A double-tuned IF transformer has k = 1.5kC. The primary Q is 30 and

the secondary Q is 20. what is the bandwidth of the transformer at a
frequency of 10.7 MH
A. 360 kHz B. 655 kHz * C. 750 kHz
D. 156 kHz

27. What is the 12th octave for a 1-KHz repetitive wave?

A. 6.012 MHz B. 4.096 MHz * C. 8.89 MHz
D. 3.504 MHz

28. A varactor has a maximum capacitance of 80 pF and is tuned circuit

with 100 uH inductor. Find the tuning voltage necessary for the circuit
to resonate at triple the frequency produced by the varactor.
A. 7.5 V B. 40 V* C. 70 V
D. 80 V

29. A phase-locked loop has a VCO with a free-running frequency of 14

MHz. As the frequency of the reference input is gradually raised from
zero, the loop locks at 12 MHz and comes out again at 18 MHz. Find the
lock range.
A. 16 kHz B. 15 kHz C. 4 kHz
D. 8 MHz*

30. A transmitter and receiver operating at 7 GHz are separated by 90 km.

How much power (in dBm) in delivered to the receiver if the transmitter
has an output power of 5W, the transmitting antenna has a gain of 20
dBi, and the receiving antenna has a gain of 40 dBi?
A. –51.4 dBm* B. –62.1 dBm C. –54.1 dBm
D. –26.1 dBm

31. The antenna and feedline combination with a equivalent noise

temperature of 143 K. Calculate the thermal noise power in dBm, referred
to the receiver input, if the receiver has a bandwidth of 15 MHz.
A. -100 dBm B. -150 dBm C. -101 dBm
D. –105 dBm*

32. At a certain time, the MUF for transmission at an angle of incidence

of 67 degrees is 13 MHz. What is the critical frequency?
A. 4.4 MHz B. 5.07 MHz * C. 50.7 MHz D. 44.4 MHz

33. A certain antenna has a gain of 9 dB with respect to an isotropic

radiator. How much power would it absorb from a signal with a field
strength of 36 uV/m if the frequency is 200 MHz?
A. 3.08 pW * B. 5.95 pW C. 8.03 Pw
D. 9.55 pW

34. A transmitter having a 900-W carrier transmits 1188 W when modulated

with a single sinewave. If the carrier is simultaneously modulated with
another sinewave at 60% modulation, calculate the total transmitted
power.
a. 1084 W b. 1170 W c. 1350 W*
d. 1224 W

35. Determine the peak frequency deviation ad modulation index (m) for an
FM modulator with a deviation sensitivity K1 = 5 kHz/V and a modulating
signal vm(t) = 2 cos (2pi2000t).
 A. 5* B. 4 C. 3 D. 2

DIGITAL COMMUNICATION

36. It is a modulation and multiplexing technique that distributes the

signal and its sidebands over a very wide bandwidth
A. Spread spectrum * C. Frequency division multiplexing

B. Phase shift keying D. Quadrature amplitude modulation

37. The serial binary data is mixed with higher-frequency pseudorandom

binary code at a faster rate and the result is used to phase modulate
the carrier.
A. Spread spectrum C. Frequency hopping

B. Time division multiplexing D. Direct sequence *

38. Compared to PCM, adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice:

A. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality

B. with a lower bit rate but the same quality*

C. only over shorter distances

D. only if the voice is band-limited

39. The FET acts like a switch. When turned “on” it provides a low
impedance path to deposit the analog sample across a capacitor. The time
when the FET is “off” is called _____time.
A. sampling B. acquisition C. natural
D. storage*

40. The major difficulty faced by delta modulators is

a. Excessive noise producing errors

b. Slope overload *

c. Insufficient frequency response of the intelligence signal

d. Complexity of design

41. Which of the following is not a common RZ code?

a. RZ-unipolar b. RZ-bipolar c. RZ-M*
d. RZ-AMI

42. Which is not a type of pulse modulation?

a. Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM) c. Pulse-frequency modulation
(PFM) *

b. Pulse-width modulation (PWM) d. Pulse-position modulation

(PPM)

43. The technique that uses the BPSK vector relationship to generate an
output with logical 0s and 1s determined by comparing the phase of two
successive data bits is
a. CSU/DSU b. TDM c. CVSD
d. DPSK *
44. The circuit used to produce BPSK is ________.
A. field effect transistor C. amplifier

B. balanced modulator * D. multiplexer

45. The key circuit used in a DPSK modulator is the _________.

A. XOR B. OR C. XNOR *
D. AND

46. Determine the resolution for an 8-bit linear sign-magnitude PCM for a
maximum decoded voltage of 2.55 Vp.
A. 0.02V * B. 0.03V C. 0.05V
D. 0.07V

47. The modulator transmits symbols, each of which has 32 different

possible states, 10,000 times per second. How much is the bit rate?
A. 64 kbps B. 50 kbps* C. 60 kbps
D. none

48. If the transmission rate of a digital communications system of 10

Mbps modulation scheme used is 64 QAM, determine the bandwidth
efficiency in bits per cycle.
A. 5 bits/cycle B. 10 bits/cycle C. 4 bits/cycle
D. 6 bits/cycle*

49. A digital transmission has an error probability of 10^ -4 and is 10^

9 bits long. Calculate the expected number of error bits
A. 10^4 B. 10^5 * C. 10^6
D. 10^9

50. An asynchronous communications system uses ASCII at 9600 bits/sec,

with 8 data bits, one start bit, one stop bit, and no parity bits.
Calculate the maximum percent efficiency in this system
A. 75% B. 80% * C. 85%
D. 90%

51. A digital transmission has an error of probability of 10 raised to

the minus 5 power, and is 1000 million bits long. Calculate the expected
bit error rate (BER).
A. 500 million B. 5 billion C. 100,000 * D. 10,000

52. Determine the dynamic range for a 10 bit sign-magnitude PCM code
A. 45 dB B. 54 dB * C. 70 dB D. 60 dB

53. A signal at the input to a mu-law compressor is positive with its

voltage one-half the maximum value. What proportion of the maximum
output voltage is produced?
A. 0.786Vmax B. 0.876Vmax * C. 0.867Vmax D. 0.678Vmax

54. When measuring the voice channel at a –4dB test point level, the
meter reads –76 dBm. Calculate the reading in dBrnC0?
A. 80 * B. 18 C. 8 D. 28

55. A direct sequence spread-spectrum system uses FSK with a chipping

rate of 20 to 1. The signal-to-noise ratio for the spread signal is –6
dB (that is, the signal is 5 dB weaker than the noise in the same
bandwidth). If the data is transmitted at 50 kbps. What is the signal-
to-noise ratio for the despread signal at the receiver?
A. 8 dB B. 15 dB C. 16 dB D. 7 dB*
TRANSMISSION LINES

56. The chief advantage of coaxial cable over open-wire line is

a. Minimized radiation losses * c. Low noise pick up

b. Low cost d. Low resistive losses

57. The ratio of actual velocity to free-space velocity is called

a. Velocity factor * c. Velocity of propagation

b. Relative dielectric constant d. Delay time

58. A non-lossy transmission line terminated with a short circuit has an

a. In-phase reflected voltage that is equal in magnitude to the incident
voltage

b. Opposite-phase reflected voltage that is equal in magnitude to the

incident voltage*

c. In-phase reflected voltage that is smaller in magnitude than the

incident voltage

d. Opposite-phase reflected voltage that is smaller in magnitude than

the incident voltage

59. A short-circuited transmission line less than quarter-wavelength

long.
A. inductive * C. parallel resonant circuit

B. capacitive D. series resonant circuit

60. In AWG, the higher the wire gauge _____

A. the higher the diameter and the lower the resistance

B. the smaller the diameter and the higher the resistance *

C. the smaller the diameter and the higher the conductance

D. the larger the diameter and the higher the resistance

61. A flat conductor sandwich between two ground planes.

A. Stripline *B. Waveguide C. Microstrip D. Coaxial cable

62. It is a wire structure placed below the antenna and erected above the
ground.
A. ground plane B. counterpoise * C. ground lines D. top hat

63. At the ends of the half-wave antenna, what values of current and
voltage exist compared to the remainder of the antenna?
A. minimum voltage and maximum current
B. minimum voltage and minimum current
C. equal voltage and minimum current
D. maximum voltage and minimum current *

64. A shorted quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a(n)
A. series resonant circuit C. capacitor

B. parallel resonant circuit * D. inductor

65. At very high frequencies, transmission lines are used as
A. tuned circuits* B. antennas C. insulators D. resistors

66. What is the length of a quarter-wavelength section of RG-8A/U coaxial

cable at a frequency of 144.2 MHz if its velocity factor is 0.69.
a. 52.1 cm b. 35.9 cm * c. 143.6 cm d. 2.08 m
67. Using TDR, a transmission line impairment is located 3000m from the
source. For a velocity propagation of 0.9c, determine the time elapsed
from the beginning of the pulse to the reception of the echo
A. 11.11 us B. 10.12 us C. 22.22 us * D. 21.14 us
68. A properly matched transmission line has a loss of 1.5 dB/50m. If 10W
is supplied to one end of the line, how many watts reach the load, 30 m
away?
A. 9.1 W B. 9.5 W C. 10.9 W D. 8.12 W *

69. Calculate the minimum length of a pair of conductors to be considered

as a transmission line, if its operating frequency is 800 MHz.
A. 37.5 mm * B. 375 mm C. 37.5 cm D. 3.75 mm

70. Calculate the velocity of propagation of a coaxial cables, used as a

transmission line, with a characteristic impedance of 50 ohms,
capacitance is 40 pF/m, and inductance equal to 50 uH/m.
A. 22.36 x 10^6 m/s * C. 23.56 x 10^6 m/s

B. 17.87 x 10^6 m/s D. 24.14 x 10^6 m/s

71. A receiver requires 0.9 uV of the signal for satisfactory reception.

How strong in microvolts must the signal be at the antenna if the
receiver is connected to the antenna by 40 m of the matched line having
an attenuation of 6 dB per 100m?
A. 1.816 uV B. 1.186 uV * C. 0.954 uV D. 0.594 uV

72. Calculate the time delay in nanosecond introduced by a 100 ft coaxial

cable with a dielectric constant of 2.3.
A. 230 B. 152 C. 154 * D. 15.2

73. The twin parallel transmission line is separated by a distance of 300

mm between the centre lines of the conductors. The diameter of the
identical conductors is 4 mm. What is the characteristic impedance of
the line if it suspended in free space?
A. 400 ohms B. 500 ohms C. 600 ohms* D. 700 ohms

74. The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260 V, while the
maximum is 390 V, the SWR is
A. 0.67 B. 1.0 C. 1.2 D. 1.5 *

75. with a wall separation of 3 cm and a desired frequency of operation

of 6 GHz?
A. 5.43 x 108 m/s*
B. 3.27 x 108 m/s
C. 8.12 x 108 m/s
D. 1.27 x 108 m/s

DATA COMMUNICATION

76. Token passing can be implemented as a

A. Mesh or a star C. ring or as a bus. *

B. Point to point or a star D. Star or a mesh

77. A switch:
A. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it

B. sends incoming packets out to specific ports *

C. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network

D. are more common in token-passing networks

78. In a __________ network, all nodes are connected to a central

computer.
A. Mesh B. Star * C. Ring D. Point to point

79. The physical, data link, and network layers are the ______ support
layers.
A) user C) both (a) and (b)

B) Network* D) neither(a)nor(b)

80. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is:

A. it is cheaper when used in large networks
B. it is faster when used in large networks
C. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks*
D. all of the above

81. On networks, long messages are divided into "chunks" called:

A. Packets* B. nodes C. carriers D. tokens

82. What layer is tasked with the end-to-end accountability through the
network.
A. Transport layer* C. Physical layer

B. Network layer D. Application layer

83. Device that comply with ISDN network interface and can be connected
directly to the digital network.
A. Modem B. TE2 C. TE1* D. TA

84. What layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model handles
the transmission of bits over a communications channel?
A. physical layer* C. data link layer

B. transport layer D. network layer

85. An 802 standard used for wireless regional area network.

A. 802.25 B. 802.16 C. 802.19 D. 802.22*

86. What term is used in asynchronous transfer mode (ATM) system to

describe a byte?
A. harmonic B. octet* C. octave D. bit

87. How many voice channels are there in a DS-2 Digital Signal Hierarchy
for TDM signals?
A. 672 B. 24 C. 48 D. 96*

88. The HDLC ________ field defines the beginning and end of a frame.
A. flag * B. address C. control D. FCS
89. A process of sending data in computing technology by asking each
remote computer terminal one at a time if such computer terminal has
data to send.
A. selection B. polling* C. networking D. coding

90. __________ is a group of binary digits including data and call

control signals which are switched as a composite whole. The control
signals and error-correction information are arranged in a specific
format.
A. Protocol B. Code * C. Packet D. Parity

91. A digital transmission has an error probability of 10^ -4 and is 10^

9 bits long. Calculate the expected number of error bits
A. 10^4 B. 10^5 * C. 10^6 D. 10^9

92. For an Ethernet bus that is 500 meters in length, using a cable with
a velocity factor of 0.66, and a communication rate of 10 Mb/s,
calculate the total number of bits that would be sent by each station
before it detects a collision, if both stations begin to transmit at the
same time.
A. 5 bits B. 50 bits C. 2.5 bits D. 25 bits*

93. A direct sequence spread-spectrum system uses FSK with a chipping

rate of 20 to 1. The signal-to-noise ratio for the spread signal is –6
dB (that is, the signal is 5 dB weaker than the noise in the same
bandwidth). If the data is transmitted at 50 kbps, What is the signal-
to-noise ratio for the despread signal at the receiver?
A. 8 dB B. 15 dB C. 16 dB D. 7 dB*

94. Which of the following words has the correct parity bit? Assume odd
parity. The last bit is the parity bit.
A. 11111111 B. 11001101* C. 00110101 D. 00000000

95. Determine the Hamming distance for the codewords ( 10101, 11001)
a. one b. two* c. three d. five

96. For a compressor with Mu= 200, determine the output for input value
of 4 volts. The maximum uncompressed voltage is 8 volts.
a. 6.96 V* b. 7.57 V c. 5.86 V d. 4.26 V

97. A network with bandwidth of 10 Mbps can pass only an average of 12000
frames per minute with each frame carrying an average of 10000 bits.
What is the throughput of this network?
a. 1 Mbps b. 2 Mbps* c. 3 Mbps d. 4 Mbps

98. Calculate the minimum data rate needed to transmit audio with
sampling rate of 30 Khz and 14 bits per sample.
a. 420 kbps* b. 110 kbps c. 390 kbps d.172 kbps

99. What is the speed of 1 data channel, if a PCM has a sampling rate of
8000 samples per second?
a. 64 kbps* b. 32 kbps c. 128 kbps d. 256 kbps

100. Determine the hamming bit for ASCII character (1011001). Insert the
hamming bit using odd parity.
a. 01110110001* b. 01110110000 c. 01010110001 d. 01110110101
 Questions from file: esat-post-test.doc | “1-17-23” Set
MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A radio communication link is to be established via the ionosphere.

The maximum virtual height of the layer is 110 km. at the midpoint of
the path and the critical frequency is 4 MHz. If the distance between
the radio stations is 500 km, what is the suitable value for the
optimum working frequency? Use flat terrain analysis.
A. 2.8 MHz B. 4.7 MHz C. 8.4 MHz*
D. 9.1 MHz

2. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is:

A. it is cheaper when used in large networks
B. it is faster when used in large networks
C. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks*
D. all of the above

3. Find the maximum dynamic range for a linear PCM system using 16-bit
quantizing.
A. 11.12 dB B. 76.45 dB C. 255 dB
D. 98.08 dB*

4. A transistor class C amplifier has a maximum permissible collector

dissipation of 20 watts and collector efficiency of 75 %. If it is
collector modulated to a depth of 90 %, calculate the power in the
sidebands.
A. 17.3 W* B. 60.2 W C. 42.7 W
D. 26.67 W

5. A ratio expressing the percentage of incident voltage reflected on a

transmission line is known as the
A. Velocity factor C. Reflection coefficient*
B. standing wave ratio D. Line efficiency

6. On networks, long messages are divided into "chunks" called:

A. Packets* B. nodes C. carriers D. tokens

7. A three-stage has stages with the following specifications: First

stage with power gain and noise figure of 10 and 2 respectively, 25
and 4 for the second stage and 30 and 5 for the third stage. Find the
noise temperature.
A. 382 K* B. 435 K C. 328 K
D. 358 K

8. Which type of fiber-optic cable has the least modal dispersion?

A. Single-mode step-index* C. Sing-mode graded-index
B. Multimode step-index D. Multimode graded index

9. Compared to PCM, adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice:

A. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality
B. with a lower bit rate but the same quality*
C. only over shorter distances
D. only if the voice is band-limited

10. What should be done to increase the transmission distance at

frequencies higher than HF bands?
A. increase antenna gain C. increase antenna height*
 B. increase transmitter power D. increase receiver sensitivity

11. As per ITU-R Recc. V.431-6 Tables 1 & 2 Wavelength Classifications,

what is the classification of Super High Frequency?
A. metric B. decimetric C. centimetric* D. millimetric

12. What do you call the ratio that compares the power density generated
by a practical antenna in some directions, with that of an isotropic
antenna radiating the same total power?
A. directive gain* C. antenna directivity
B. directivity gain D. antenna gain

13. The FET acts like a switch. When turned “on” it provides a low
impedance path to deposit the analog sample across a capacitor. The
time when the FET is “on” is called _____time.
A. sampling B. acquisition* C. natural D. storage

14. The range over which the input to a receiver or amplifier provides a
usable output is called the
A. Level of acceptability C. Degree of usefulness
B. Dynamic range* D. Specified input

15. A radio communication repeater has a transmitting output power of 1

kW, a 5dB feedline loss, 6dB duplexer and circulator loss, and a 10 dB
antenna gain. Calculate the effective radiated power.
A. 79.4 W B. 394 W C. 794 W * D. 251 W

16. The sound power level of a jet plane flying at a height of 1.5km is
140 dB (ref 10 exponent – 12w). What is the maximum sound pressure
level on the ground directly below the plane assuming that the
aircraft radiates sound equality in all directions?
A.65.5 dB * C. 59.5 dB

B. 79.5 dB D. 45.5 dB

17. One of these bands is NOT used by TV broadcasting stations in the

Philippines.
A. 72-76 MHz * C. 82-88 MHz

B. 66-72 MHz D. 76-82 MHz

18. A telephone signal takes 2 quarters of a second to reach its

destination. Calculate the via net loss necessary for an acceptable
amount of echo.
A. 104 dB C. 100 dB

B. 10.4 dB D. 100.4 dB *

19. The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260 V, while the
maximum is 390 V, the SWR is
A. 0.67 B. 1.0 C. 1.2 D. 1.5 *

20. A open quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a/an
A. capacitor C. series resonant circuit*

B. inductor D. parallel resonant circuit

21. A frequency modulation system requires a signal-to-noise ratio of 40

dB at the detector output. The modulating frequency is 2 kHz and the
 deviation is 50 kHz. Determine the required minimum S/N at the
detector input.
A. 120 dB * B. 25 dB C. 80 dB D. 83.3 dB

22. Using the NTSC standard, what is the aural carrier frequency of UHF
TV channel 28?
A. 558.75 MHz B. 559.75 MHz * C. 553.75 MHz D. 555.25 MHz

23. If the transmission rate of a digital communication system of 10 Mbps

modulation scheme used is 16 QAM, determine the bandwidth efficiency.
A. 5 bits/cycle B. 10 bits/cycle C. 4 bits/cycle * D. 3 bits/cycle

24. The scientist who profounded the theory of electro-magnetic radiation

is
A. Thomas Edison C. James Maxwell *

B. Guglielmo Marconi D. Heinrich Hertz

25. A telephone line has a bandwidth of 3.2 kHz and signal-to-noise ratio
of 34 dB. A signal is transmitted down this line using a four-level
code. What is the maximum theoretical data rate?
A. 72.6 kbps B. 12.8 kbps* C. 36.3 kbps D. 25.6 kbps

26. What is known as Johnson’s noise?

A. cosmic noise C. solar noise

B. white noise* D. static noise

27. An octave is an interval of ratio of two frequencies of what

proportion?
A. 3:1 B. 1:1 C. 8:1 D. 2:1 *

28. A portable radio transmitter has to operate at temperature from –5

degrees C to 35 degrees C. If its signal is derived from a crystal
oscillator with temperature coefficient of –1 ppm per degree
Centigrade, and it transmits at exactly 145 MHz at 20 degrees C, find
the transmitting frequency at 35 degrees C.
A. 144.9942 MHz C. 145.0029 MHz

B. 144.9978 MHz D. 145.00362 MHz*

29. It is a modulation and multiplexing technique that distributes the

signal and its sidebands over a very wide bandwidth
A. Spread spectrum * C. Frequency division multiplexing
B. Phase shift keying D. Quadrature amplitude modulation

30. Telephone switch that connects only to other switches, and not to
individual customers.
A. central office C. toll station
B. tandem office * D. PSTN

31. Calculate the peak envelope power of a single sideband (SSB)

transmitter that produces a peak-to-peak voltage of 240 volts across
a 100-ohm antenna load.
A. 144 W * B. 120 W C. 72 W D. 24 W

32. The L+R stereo channel in FM broadcasting is between

A. 50 Hz to 15 kHz* C. 23 kHz to 53 kHz
 B. 60 kHz to 74 kHz D. 20 Hz to 20 kHz

33. The noise produced

34. A open-circuited transmission line less than quarter-wavelength long.
A. inductive C. parallel resonant circuit

B. capacitive* D. series resonant circuit

35. A transmit channel for AMPS has a frequency of 837.6 MHz. The receive
channel frequency is
A. 729.6 MHz B. 837.6 MHz C. 867.6 MHz D. 882.6 MHz *

36. Which among the IEEE standards, refer to the global specifications
for Wireless LAN?
A. 802.3 B. 802.14 C. 802.11x D. 802.11b *

37. A double-tuned IF transformer has k = 1.5kC. The primary Q is 30 and

the secondary Q is 20. what is the bandwidth of the transformer at a
frequency of 11.7 MHz?
A. 360 kHz C. 716 kHz*

B. 655 kHz D. 156 kHz

38. A 500 kHz antenna radiate 500W of power. The same antenna produces a
field strength equal to 1.5 mV/m. If the power delivered by the
antenna is increased by 650 W, what would be the expected filed
intensity.
A. 1.06 mV C. 2.12 mV

B. 3.1 mV D. 2.27 mV*

39. What is the frequency range of EHF?

A. 3 – 30 GHz B. 30 – 300 GHz * C. 30 – 300 MHz D. 300 – 3000 MHz

40. The radio wavelength known as _____ falls within the medium frequency
range.
A. centimetric B. decametric C. hectometric* D. myriametric

41. What is the percent total harmonic distortion for a fundamental

frequency with amplitude of 9 Vrms, second harmonic amplitude of 0.3
Vrms, and the third harmonic amplitude of 0.1 Vrms?
A. 2.795% B. 1.25% C. 2.5% D. 3.5%*

42. Determine the noise figure for an equivalent noise temperature of 75K.
A. 1 dB* B. 3 dB C. 2 dB D. 1.25 dB

43. Also known as lock range

A. capture range C. natural frequency

B. free-running frequency D. tracking range*

44. An amplifier has a noise figure of 2 dB. What is its equivalent noise
temperature?
A. 288.5 degrees K C. 28.25 degrees K

B. 16.8 degrees K D. 168 degrees K*

45. A phase-locked loop has a VCO with a free-running frequency of 14 MHz.

As the frequency of the reference input is gradually raised from
 zero, the loop locks at 12 MHz and comes out again at 18 MHz. Find
the lock range.
A. 16 kHz B. 15 kHz C. 4 kHz D. 8 MHz*

46. For an AM envelope with a maximum peak voltage of 52V and a minimum
peak voltage of 24V, what is the percent modulation?
A. 0.368* B. 0.735 C. 0.415 D. 0.321

47. A microwave antenna is 500ft high. The receive antenna is 150 feet
high. The maximum transmission distance is ____.
A. 142 miles B. 421 miles C. 94 miles D. 49 miles *

48. The E layer is sometimes called

A. sporadic E C. sporadic F
B. ionosphere layer D. Kennely- layer*
49. When the amplitude of the information in an AM modulator is equal to
zero, what is the value of the modulation index?
A. 1 B. 0 * C. 100 D. infinity

50. Calculate the time delay in nanosecond introduced by a 100 ft coaxial

cable with a dielectric constant of 2.3.
A. 230 B. 152 C. 154 * D. 15.2

51. A dipole antenna has an efficiency of 95%. Calculate the gain in

decibels.
A. 3.51 dB B. 1.93 dB * C. 1.64 dB D. 1.87 dB
52. Calculate the efficiency of an antenna that has a radiation
resistance of 73 ohms and an effective dissipation resistance of 5
ohms.
A. 98.3% B. 93.6% * C. 90.7% D. 95.5%
53. It is a wire structure placed below the antenna and erected above the
ground.
A. ground plane C. ground lines
B. counterpoise * D. top hat
54. At the ends of the half-wave antenna, what values of current and
voltage exist compared to the remainder of the antenna?
A. minimum voltage and maximum current C. equal voltage and
minimum current
B. minimum voltage and minimum current D. maximum voltage and
minimum current*
55. Which is not a type of AGC?
A. simple AGC B. forward AGC C. delayed AGC D. complex AGC*
56. Antenna _____ is simply the angular separation between the two half-
power points on the major lobe of an antenna’s plane radiation
pattern.
A. bandwidth C. beamwidth *
B. input resistance D. polarization
57. It is the measure of the ability of a communications system to
produce, at the output of the receiver, an exact replica of the
original source information.
A. reciprocity B. distortion C. fidelity * D. sensitivity
58. Calculate the EIRP in dBW for a 25 W transmitter into a dipole with
90 % efficiency.
A. 16.65 dBw B. 63.38 dBw C. 36.83 dBw D. 15.66 dBw *
59. First symbol in the designation of radio signals emission which
refers to use of an unmodulated carrier.
A. J B. N* C. H D. A
60. Standard FM broadcast stations use a maximum bandwidth of
a. 150 kHz b. 200 kHz * c. 75 kHz d. 15 kHz
61. Carson's rule is used to approximate the necessary
a. Frequency deviation c. Capture ratio
b. Bandwidth* d. Modulation index
62. Which is not a type of pulse modulation?
a. Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM) c. Pulse-frequency modulation
(PFM)*
b. Pulse-width modulation (PWM) d. Pulse-position modulation
(PPM)
63. The type of wave that is most affected by the D, E, and F layers of
the ionosphere is:
a. Ground wave b. Space wave c. Sky wave* d. Satellite
64. An antenna that is a quarter-wavelength long connected such that the
ground acts as a reflecting quarter-wavelength section is called a
a. Hertz antenna c. Marconi antenna*
b. Dipole antenna d. All the above
65. An optical fiber and its cladding have refractive indexes of 1.44 and
1.32 respectively. Determine the numerical aperture.
A. 0.256 B. 30.39 C. 0.75 D. 0.57*

66. Medium 1 is made of silicon and medium 2 is made of glass. Their

refractive indexes are 2.3 and 1.5, respectively. For an angle of
refraction of 50 degrees, determine the angle of incidence.
A. 9 deg B. 10 deg C. 20 deg D. 30 deg*

67. How long does it take to dial the number 422-93-42 using pulse dialing
with 0.35 sec interdigit time?
A. 2.5 s B. 4.1 s* C. 3.25 s D. 4.35 s

68. A province in the Philippines has an area of 2000 sq. kms. It has to
be covered by a cellular mobile telephone service using cells with a
radius of 2 kms. Assuming hexagonal cells, find the number of cellsites
needed.
A. 100 B. 500 C. 166 D. 145*

69. An 8-bit data code in IBM systems is known as _________.

A. ASCII B. EBCDIC* C. Morse Code D. Baudot Code
70. Calculate the power of one photon for infrared light energy at 1.33
um in a 1.5 ms pulse.
A. 9.96x10^-19 W
B. 9.96x10^-16 W
C. 99.6x10^-22 W
D. 0.099x10^-15 W*
71. What layer is tasked with the end-to-end accountability through the
network.
A. Transport layer* C. Physical layer
 B. Network layer D. Application layer

72. Device that comply with ISDN network interface and can be connected
directly to the digital network.
A. Modem B. TE2 C. TE1* D. TA

73. How many hamming bits are required for a block length of 21 message
bits?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 * D. 6

74. In a communications system, noise is most likely to affect the signal

a. at the transmitter c. in the information source
b. in the channel* d. at the destination

75. The value of a resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise
power generator is therefor
a. halved b. quadrupled c. doubled d. unchanged*

76. Indicate which one of the following is not an advantage of FM over

AM:
a. Better noise immunity is provided
c. The transmitted power is more useful
b. Lower bandwidth is required*
d. Less modulating power is required
77. Impedance inversion may be obtained with
a. a short-circuited stub c. a quarter-wave line*
b. an open-circuited stub d. a half-wave line
78. Magnetic field is perpendicular to the earth’s surface
A. Circular Polarization C. Horizontal Polarization *
B. Vertical Polarization D. Elliptical Polarization
79. The Clapp oscillator is:
A. a modified Hartley oscillator
B. a type of crystal-controlled oscillator
C. a modified Colpitts oscillator*
D. only built with FETs
80. Which of the following is not a common RZ code?
a. RZ-unipolar b. RZ-bipolar c. RZ-M* d. RZ-AMI

81. Which of the following is not an example of code error detection and
correction in a data communication channel?
a. Parity c. Block-check character

b. Frequency-shift keying * d. Hamming code

82. Channel 12 on U.S. television extends from 204 to 210 Mhz. The
channel 12 carrier frequency is approximately
a. 204.5 Mhz b. 205.25 Mhz * c. 211.25 Mhz d. 211.75 Mhz

83. What layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model handles
the transmission of bits over a communications channel?
A. physical layer* C. data link layer
 B. transport layer D. network layer

84. Time for a vertical retrace.

A. 1.33 ms * C. 1.33 usec

B. 13.3 ms D. 13.3 usec

85. The field associated with the energy stored in the antenna is the
A. Radiation field C. Induction field *
B. Capacitance field D. Tank field

86. In AWG, the higher the wire gauge _____

A. the higher the diameter and the lower the resistance
B. the smaller the diameter and the higher the resistance *
C. the smaller the diameter and the higher the conductance
D. the larger the diameter and the higher the resistance

87. Helical antennas are often used for satellite tracking at VHF because
of
A. troposcatter C. ionospheric refraction
B. superrefraction D. the Faraday effect*

88. Determine the noise current for a diode with a forward bias of 1 mA
over a 1 MHz bandwidth.
A. 19.8 nA B. 17.9 nA* C. 12.3 nA D. 15 nA

89. When the incident ray strikes the interface at an angle greater than
the critical angle, ________ occurs.
A. refraction B. diffraction C. reflection* D. dispersion

90. One of the following types of noise becomes of great importance at

high frequencies. It is the
A. shot noise C. impulse noise
B. random noise D. transit-time noise*

91. Which of the following is not a common type of fiber-optic cable?

A. Single –mode step-index C. Single –mode graded-index*
B. Multimode graded-index D. Multimode step-index

92. Stretching of the light pulse is called _________.

A. modal dispersion C. chromatic dispersion
B. pulse spreading * D. wavelength dispersion

93. The tone measures 80 dBrnC at the output of a four-wire central

office. What will it be at local loop that is – 8 dB TLP?
A. 74 dBrnC * B. 70 dBrnC C. 82 dBrnC D. 72 dBrnC

94. A Bluetooth "piconet" has:

A. 2 nodes B. 2 to 4 nodes C. 2 to 8 nodes* D. 2 to 16 nodes

95. An interconnection of users that allows communication with one another

is known as a
A. Modem B. UART C. Network * D. Protocol

96. Which of the following words has the correct parity bit? Assume odd
parity. The last bit is the parity bit.
A. 11111111 B. 11001101* C. 00110101 D. 00000000
97. A phase modulator has kp = 4 rad/V. what is the rms voltage of a sine
wave that would cause a peak phase deviation of 30 degrees?
A. 0.13 V B. 0.092 V* C. 0.45 V D. 0.154 V

98. If no sound is heard from a receiver, the most likely problem area is
the
A. Power supply* B. RF section C. Audio amplifier D. AGC diode
99. Find the roentgen equivalent man for a person of age 38.
A. 35 B. 80 C. 40 D. 100 *

100. Best description of a collinear and broadside antenna radiation

pattern.
A. bidirectional * C. perfect circle
B. omnidirectional D. unidirectional
 Questions from the UM ESAT February Pre-Test 2023

1.) There are two basic methods for analyzing the behavior or response of a
linear system to a given input signal. One method is:

a. output equation
b. differential equation – ChatGPT
c. difference equation
d. Analog

2.) In radar applications, if there is no target in space the received

signal y(n) consists of:

a. Finite memory
b. noise alone – ChatGPT
c. static charges
d. impulses

3.) To avoid aliasing effects the sampling frequency must be equal to the
Nyquist rate. However, if you sample exactly equal to the Nyquist rate zero
crossing point makes signal undetectable. What must be done?

a. The sampling rate must be higher than the Nyquist rate. – ChatGPT
b. The sampling frequency must be lower than the Nyquist rate.
c. The quantization must have finer resolution.
d. A filter should be used to remove harmonics.

4.) Time requirements of carrier frequency are:

A. both (a) and (b)

B. low frequency drift
C. precise frequency value – ChatGPT
D. neither (a) nor (b)

5.) A voltage wave having 5% fifth harmonic content is applied to a series

RC circuit. The percentage fifth harmonic content in the current wave will
be

A. 5%
B. more than 5%
C. less than 5% – ChatGPT
D. equal or more than 5%

6.) The bandwidth of DSB suppressed carrier modulation system when the
modulating frequency varies between 500 Hz and 5 KHz is

A. 555 KHz
B. 505 KHz
C. 500 KHz
D. 9 KHz

7.) A 200 Hz sound wave is to be transmitted by a 1000 KHz radio wave using
frequency modulation. The instantaneous frequency variation will be
a. 1000 times a second.
b. 400 times a second.
c. 200 times a second. – IndiaBix
d. 100 times a second.

8.) If the input in a transmitter is collector-modulated, the system is

called a

a. low-level modulator – ChatGPT

b. high-level modulator – CourseHero
c. lattice modulator
d. differential-amplifier modulator

9.) The DC voltage on plate modulated class C amplifier is 8 kV. If the

peak modulating voltage is 4 kV, the peak RF voltage delivered to load is

a. 24 kV – IndiaBix
b. 0.5 kV
c. 32 kV
d. 12 kV – ChatGPT

10.) The maximum voltage standing wave of an RG-11/U foam coaxial cable is
52V and its minimum voltage is 17V. How many percent of the incident power
is the reflected power?

a. 51% – HOLOOLY
b. 3%
c. 97%
d. 26% – ChatGPT

11.) The modulated peak value of a signal is 125V and the unmodulated
carrier value is 85V. What is the modulation index?

a. 0.32
b. 1.47
c. 0.47 – CourseHero
d. 0.68

12.) The input to an FM receiver has a S/N of 2.8. What is the frequency
deviation caused by the noise if the modulating frequency is 1.5 kHz and
the permitted deviation is 4 kHz?

a. 1,460.8 Hz
b. 547. 8 Hz – HOLOOLY
c. 2.67 Hz
d. 4,107.3 Hz

13.) For a sample rate of 40 kHz, determine the maximum analog input
frequency.

a. 10 kHz
b. 20 kHz – ChatGPT & Me
c. 40 kHz
d. 30 kHz
14.) What is the Shannon limit for information capacity for a standard
voice band communications channel with a signal-to-noise ratio of 30 dB and
a bandwidth of 2.7 kHz?

a. 0.90
b. 0.92
c. 0.93
d. 0.91

15.) Determine the worst-case output S/N for a narrowband FM receiver with
deviation maximum of 10 kHz and a maximum intelligence frequency of 3 kHz.
The S/N input is 3:1.

A. 14
B. 12
C. 10 – CourseHero
D. 16

16.) A receiver is operated at a temperature of 300K. The transistor used

in the receiver have an average output resistance of 1 kOhms. The Johnson
noise voltage for a receiver with a bandwidth of 200 kHz is

a. 12.6 uV
b. 1.8 uV – Sanfoundry
c. 8.4 uV
d. 4.3 uV

17.) What circuit is used to return the frequency response of a signal to

its normal "flat" level?

a. carrier-recovery
b. de-emphasis – ChatGPT
c. frequency-multiplier
d. pre-emphasis

18.) If a matched attenuator with a loss of 3.2 dB is placed between the

source and the amplifier's input, what is the operating spot noise figure
of the attenuator amplifier cascade if the attenuator's physical
temperature is 290K?

a. 10.4 dB
b. 13.3 dB – Sanfoundry
c. 11.3 dB
d. 9 dB

19. The received signal frequency at any time of a super-heterodyne

receiver having IF = 456 kHz is 1 MHz. The corresponding image signal is

a. depends on Modulating
b. outside the medium band – ChatGPT
c. within the medium band frequency
d. depend upon modulation index.

20.) A telephone channel has an S/N of 1024. Determine the capacity of the
telephone channel.
a. 30 kbps
b. 23 kbps
c. 31 kbps – by me, assuming B = 3100 Hz
d. 29 kbps

21.) Energy content of atmospheric noise

a. does not depend on frequency

b. increases as frequency is increased – ChatGPT
c. decreases as frequency is increased – IndiaBix
d. either (a) or (c) depending on the temperature

22.) One of the advantages of DSB is the savings of great deal of power.
Which of the following is the reason why it is not widely used.

a. the signal has a low S/N

b. the signal is difficult to demodulate frequencies – Scribd
c. the signal occupies a narrow bandwidth
d. the signal is weak at high

23.) The value of a resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise
power generator is therefore

a. doubled
b. unchanged
c. halved
d. quadrupled

24.) In a receiver the input signal is 100 uV, while the internal noise at
the input is 10 uV. With amplification the output signal is 2V, while the
output noise is 0.4V. The noise figure of receiver is

a. 2 – Sanfoundry
b. 0.5
c. 0.2
d. None of the above

25.) Assuming a UHF frequency range of 405.0125 MHz; to 405.0875 MHz at 25

kHz channeling plan, how many channels can you produce?

a. 4
b. 2
c. 3 – ChatGPT
d. 1

26.) The total transmitted power of an AM broadcast transmitter with a

carrier power of 50kW when modulated 80 percent is:

a. 66W
b. 66kW – by Me
c. 62.5kW
d. 40kW

27.) A radio wave may follow two or more different paths during propagation
and produce slowly-changing phone differences between signals at the
receiver resulting in a phenomenon called:
a. baffling
b. absorption
c. fading – ChatGPT
d. skip

28.) If the amplitude of the voltage is kept constant, but its frequency is
raised to 6 kHz, the new deviation will be for the modulation index is, if
fm = 500 Hz, Δf = 2.25.

a. 27 kHz - IndiaBix
b. 12 kHz
c. 6 kHz
d. 54 kHz

29.) What type of modulation is most commonly used for VHF packet radio
transmissions?

a. FM
b. SSB
c. AM
d. Spread Spectrum

30.) Which type of voice mode is most often used for long-distance (weak
signal) contacts on the VHF and UHF bands?

a. SSB
b. FM
c. DRM
d. PM

31.) The number of noise sources in a BJT are

a. 3
b. 2
c. 1
d. 4

32.) What is the approximate bandwidth of a single sideband voice signal?

a. 3 kHz – WH6FQE
b. 1 kHz
c. 6 kHz
d. 15 kHz

33.) Energy content of atmospheric noise

a. does not depend on frequency

b. increases as frequency is increased
c. decreases as frequency is increased - IndiaBix
d. either (a) or (c) depending on the temperature

34.) VSB modulation is preferred in TV because

a. it reduces the bandwidth requirement to half - ExamVeda

b. it results in better reception
c. it avoids phase distortion at low frequencies
d. none of the above

35. In a superheterodyne receiver

a. the IF stage has better selectivity than RF stage - IndiaBix

b. the RF stage has better selectivity than IF stage
c. the RF stage has same selectivity than IF stage
d. none of the above

36.) Given the pulse-spreading constant equal to 10 ns/m and the cable
length equal to 100 meters, determine the maximum bit rate in Mbps for
UPNRZ transmission.

a. 0.75 Mbps
b. 1.5 Mbps
c. 1 Mbps
d. 0.5 Mbps - PinoyBix

37. In PCM, assuming uniform quantization what is the signal-to-noise ratio

in dB for an 8-bit code word?

a. 49.8 dB – by Me
b. 45.5 dB
c. 50.21 dB
d. 60.21 dB

38. What minimum bandwidth is required to pass a pulse train without

distortion if its rise time is 6 ns?

a. 35.45 MHz
b. 55.33 MHz
c. 38.37 MHz
d. 33.55 MHz

39.) Determine the phase-shift represented by a 75 ns delay of a 4 MHz

signal to a 75-ft cable with a dielectric constant of 2.3.

a. 108 degrees
b. 52 degrees
c. 4.8 degrees
d. 250 degrees - ChatGPT

40.) Determine the output voltage of a u-law compander with a maximum

voltage range of 1V and an input of 0.25V.

a. 0.75 V
b. 0.87 V
c. 0.51 V
d. 0.66 V

41.) For a binary phase shift keying (BPSK) modulation with a carrier
frequency of 80 MHz and an input bit rate of 10 Mbps, determine the minimum
Nyquist bandwidth.
a. 10 MHz - PinoyBix
b. 20 MHz
c. 40 MHz
d. 30 MHz

42.) It is the most common means of overcoming the problems of quantizing

error and noise.

a. multiplexing
b. anti-aliasing
c. companding - ChatGPT
d. amplifying

43.) In A-law companding, determine the output voltage if the input voltage
to the compander is 0.8V and the maximum possible input voltage is 1V
(Vmax).

a. 0.96V – by Me
b. 0.97V
c. 0.98V
d. 0.95V

44.) Determine the resolution for an 8-bit linear sign-magnitude PCM for a
maximum decoded voltage of 2.55 Vp.

a. 0.01 V - ChatGPT
b. 0.04 V
c. 0.02 V
d. 0.03 V

45.) If the transmission rate of a digital communication system of to 10

Mbps modulation scheme used is 16 QAM determine the bandwidth efficiency.

a. 4 bits/cycle
b. 3 bits/cycle
c. 5 bits/cycle
d. 2 bits/cycle

46.) Determine the dynamic range for a 10-bit sign magnitude code.

a. 911
b. 325
c. 511 – ask-public
d. 411

47.) A receiver has a sensitivity of 0.6 uV and a blocking dynamic range of

66 dB. What is the strongest signal that can be present along with a 0.6 uV
signal without blocking taking placed?

a. 700 uV
b. 600 uV
c. 800 uV
d. 900 uV
48.) The input square wave to an oscilloscope has a rise time of 15 ns.
What is the rise time of the displayed square wave if the bandwidth of the
oscilloscope is 60 MHz?

a. 13.4 ns
b. 15.67 ns
c. 17.7 ns - HOLOOLY
d. 47.5 ns

49.) The reactance of coupling capacitor for AC signals in an amplifier,

should be

a. as low as possible
b. as high as possible
c. neither low nor high
d. either low or high

50.) For digital communications, determine the signal to noise ratio in dB,
which could be required for an ideal channel with a bandwidth of 3500 Hz.

a. 5.2 dB
b. 4.8 dB – by Me
c. 2.6 dB
d. 7.2 dB

51.) For digital communications, determine the signal to noise ratio in dB,
which could be required for an ideal channel with a bandwidth of 2500 Hz.

a. 4.11 dB
b. 4.77 dB – by Me
c. 2.35 dB
d. 2.87 dB

52.) Find the maximum dynamic range for a linear PCM system using 16-bit
quantizing.

a. 11.12 dB
b. 76.45 dB
c. 255 dB
d. 98.08 dB – thru SlideShare and Me

53.) A telephone line has a bandwidth of 3.2 kHz and signal-to-noise ratio
of 34 dB. A signal is transmitted down this line using a five-level code.
What is the maximum theoretical data rate?

a. 72.6 kbps
b. 12.8 kbps
c. 34.8 kbps
d. 14.9 kbps – by Me

54.) Compared to PCM, adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice:

a. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality

b. only over shorter distances
c. with a lower bit rate but the same quality - PinoyBix
d. only if the voice is band-limited
55.) The FET acts like a switch. When turned "on" it provides a low
impedance path to deposit the analog sample across a capacitor. The time
when the FET is "on" is called time

a. aperture
b. acquiring
c. natural
d. storage

56.) Solve for the total height extended in feet for an obstacle situated
27-mi away from a 35-mi microwave system assuming if the tree growth
exists, add 40 ft for the trees and 10 ft for additional growth (use 6 GHz
and 0.6F1).

a. 305 ft
b. 122 ft
c. 202 ft
d. 150 ft

57.) Calculate the 5th Fresnel zone radius to clear a 35 mi radio link
operating at 12 GHz if the Fresnel zone radius is 61.57 ft

a. 120.12 ft
b. 142.35 ft
c. 135.67 ft
d. 137.67 ft

58.) At exactly one-quarter wavelength, the short-circuited transmission

line behaves as a(an) circuit.

a. inductive
b. parallel-resonant - Pinoybix
c. capacitive
d. series-resonant

59.) To minimize interference, a 500-MHz dish needs to have a 1° beamwidth.

What diameter dish is required, in wavelength and meters?

a. 42 m
b. 24 m
c. 12 m
d. 41 m

60.) A rectangular horn antenna operating at 4 GHz has the wavelength of

0.075m and gain of about 13 dBi. What will be its required capture area?

a. 0.0475 m2
b. 0.5521 m2
c. 0.9732 m2
d. 0.0149 m2 - this

61.) A certain earth station transmitter output power is 10 kW,

transmitting antenna gain 100 dBi, receiving antenna gain 75 dB; uplink and
downlink frequency of 2.4 GHz and 2 GHz respectively. What is the received
signal level at the satellite?
a. 7.71 mW
b. 6.21 uW
c. 6.21 mW
d. 7.71 uW

62.) An optic fiber is made of glass with a surface index of 1.55 and is
clad with another glass with a refractive index of 1.51. Launching, takes
place on air. Determine the numerical aperture of the fiber.

a. 0.61
b. 0.30
c. 0.55
d. 0.35 - PinoyBix

63.) In a reactance FET, gm = 9x10^-3 Siemens, gate to source resistance is

one-ninth of reactance of gate to drain capacitor and frequency is 4 MHz.
The capacitive-reactance is

a. 1/1000 Ω
b. 1000 Ω - IndiaBix
c. 36 x 103 Ω
d. 4/9 x 103 Ω

64.) What type of fiber optic cable has core diameters ranging from 50 to
100 micron?

a. dual-mode fibers
b. graded-index fiber
c. step-index multimode fiber
d. single-mode fibers

65.) A mixer stage has a noise figure of 20 dB. This mixer stage is
preceded by an amplifier which has a noise figure of 9 dB and an available
power gain of 15 dB. The overall noise figure referred to the input is

a. 11.07 - Sanfoundry
b. 56.48
c. 97.38
d. 18.23

66.) A shortwave transmitter uses a skywave propagation. What is the angle

of incidence if the MUF is 19 MHz and the critical frequency is 5 MHz?

a. 66.4°
b. 35.7°
c. 74.7° - by Me
d. 44.8°

67.) For avoiding ground losses, better is the surface conductivity, less
is the

a. propagation constant
b. phase velocity
c. tilt angle
d. attenuation
68.) Indicate the antenna that is not sideband:

a. Helical
b. Folded Dipole
c. Marconi
d. Discone

69.) In skywave propagation what is the critical frequency if the maximum

number of free electrons in a certain ionospheric layer is 1.5 x 10^12 per
cubic meter?

a. 13 MHz
b. 10 MHz
c. 11 MHz – ChatGPT and Me
d. 12 MHz

70.) The skip distance of radio signals is determined by the:

a. both the height of the ionosphere and the angle of radiation from the
antenna - ChatGPT
b. type of transmitting antenna used
c. power fed to the final amplifier of the transmitter
d. only the angle of radiation from the antenna

71.) A helical antenna is used to track satellites in space. If the antenna

consists of 15 turns, spacing 15 cm and diameter 19.1m, what is the
operating frequency of the antenna to transmit the signal efficiently?

a. 400 MHz
b. 300 MHz
c. 500 MHz
d. 200 MHz

72.) An increase in the effective power radiated by an antenna in a certain

desired direction at the expense of power radiated in other directions.

a. Antenna efficiency
b. Antenna back lobe ratio
c. Antenna total ratio
d. Antenna gain - ChatGPT

73.) When energy is fed into open-wire transmission line the energy may get
dissipated due to

a. radiation
b. dielectric heating
c. all if the above
d. conductor heating

74.) The velocity of sound waves in air

a. varies inversely as absolute temperature

b. is constant at all temperatures
c. varies directly as square root of absolute temperature
d. varies directly as temperature
75.) What is the effective noise bandwidth of & parallel resonant circuit
that has a Q-factor of 100 and resonant frequency of 5 MHz?

a. 78.54 kHz
b. 50 kHz – ChatGPT and Me
c. 33.67 kHz
d. 55.67 kHz

76.) In an office with 20 PCs, how many interconnecting wires or links are
required so that any computer can communicate with any other computer?

a. 200 links
b. 400 links
c. 300 links
d. 190 links - HOLOOLY

77.) PLDT has 1000 cells with a 1,000,000 subscribers. If each subscriber
uses the phone in the average of 45 minutes per day then determine the
average traffic in Erlangs per cell.

a. 33.85
b. 31.25
c. 41.24
d. 56.7

78.) Mr. Banzuelo uses tone-dialing phone to dial the number 784-3742. If
the digits pushbuttons are held down 0.25s and the interdigit time is also
0.25s, how long will it take him to dial the said number?

a. 9.45s
b. 3.25s - Scribd
c. 0.52s
d. 5.61s

79.) Equalization network is used to:

a. compensate transmission loss

b. eliminate quantization distortion
c. eliminate non-linear distortion
d. none of the above - ChatGPT

80.) In a cellular communication system, path loss between transmitter and

receiver is due to

a. scattering from building, trees, vehicles. and other structure

b. reason at A. and B. above along reflections from ionosphere only
c. reason at A. above and due to reflections from ground only
d. reasons at A., B. and C. above along with loss due to surface wave
phenomenon – ChatGPT

81.) Assuming there is negligible noise what would be the data rate of one
satellite transponder used for binary data transmission?

a. 128 Mbps
b. 36 Mbps
c. 72 Mbps
d. 64 Mbps

82.) An Engr. Didoy is asked to determine the maximum number of cells with
20 km radius needed to cover a certain area with 300 km radius.

a. 266 cells
b. 305 cells
c. 204 cells - Probably
d. 102 cells

83.) For an ethernet bus that is 500 meters in length, using a cable with a
velocity factor of 0.66 and a communication rate of 10 Mb/s, calculate the
total number of bits that would be sent by each station before it detects a
collision, if both stations begin to transmit at the same time.

a. 38.25 kbps
b. 28.334 kbps
c. 33.654 kbps
d. 31.22 kbps

84.) DIWATA satellite is located 35000 km above the earth's surface.

Assuming free space condition what is the path loss of the signal if the
operating frequency is 3 GHz?

a. 140.89 dB
b. 205.22 dB
c. 193.07 dB
d. 127.38 dB

85.) An asynchronous communication system uses ASCII at 9600 bits/sec with

eight bits, One start bit, one Stop bit and no parity bit. Express the data
rate in words per minute. Assume a word has five characters or letters and
one space.

A. 3600 wpm
B. 9600 wpm
C. 6345 wpm
D. 8600 wpm

86.) Calculate the via net loss (VNL) of a telephone signal that takes 3 ms
to reach its destination for an acceptable amount of echo.

a. 4 dB
b. 1 dB - Scribd
c. 3 dB
d. 2 dB

87.) Calculate the energy of the photon of infrared light energy at 1.55
um.

a. 1.28 x 10-19 J
b. 2.38 x 10-19 J
c. 3.44 x 10-19 J
d. 4.48 x 10-19 J
88.) The word 'LORAN' means

a. either B. or C.
b. long range TV transmission
c. long range navigation
d. long range cable transmission

89.) A cellphone used by a woman inside a traveling car is operated at 825

MHz. If the car is traveling at 90 kph then find the time between fades.

a. 5.4 ms
b. 4.9 ms
c. 7.27 ms – by Me, from
d. 6.63 ms

90.) In cellular system cell-splitting, what is the number of cells

required for a 100,000 m2 given area assuming hexagonal cells? The radius
of a circle inscribed in the hexagon is 100 m.

a. 1
b. 3 - Probably
c. 4
d. 2

91.) Find the frequency to which a 400 Hz baseband frequency will be

translated, for channel 8 of a group

a. 40 kHz
b. 86 kHz
c. 36 kHz
d. 80 kHz - here

92.) What is the fastest rise time that a circuit will pass a pulse train
faithfully if the bandwidth is 200 kHz?

a. 3.45 us
b. 4.75 us
c. 1.75 us - ChatGPT
d. 2.24 us

93.) If all the stages in a tandem circuit have identical sigmal-to-noise

of 15dB, then what is the overall signal-to-noise ratio in dB of the
connection when there are 5 stages?

a. 7.87 dB
b. 4.02 dB
c. 8.01 dB
d. 3.45 dB

94.) In order for a light ray to propagte along a fiber-optic cable, what
must be the relationship be between the angle of incidence and the critical
angle?

a. θi>θc - IndiaBix
b. θi<θc
c. none of the above
d. θi=θc

95.) Determine the number of usable host for class A IP-address.

a. 16,777,214
b. 14
c. 252
d. 65,534

96.) Calculate the peak power in a 120 millivolts NRZ square wave on a 600-
ohm channel of a digital system

a. 32.47 uW
b. 24.00 uW - here
c. 25.02 uW
d. 31.37 uW

97.) What is the transmission rate of a system for transmitting the output
of a microcomputer to a line printer operating at a speed of 30
lines./minutes? Assume that the line printer has 8 bits of data per
character and prints out 80 characters/line

a. 332 bps
b. 435 bps
c. 320 bps - here
d. 640 bps

98.) The process-to-process delivery of the entire message is the

responsibility of the layer

a. Network
b. Transport
c. Application
d. Physical

99.) A one-to-all communication between one source and all hosts on network
is classified as a communication.

a. unicast
b. multicast
c. broadcast
d. none of the above

100.) TCP is a protocol

a. connection-oriented
b. connectionless
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
 Questions from the BEERS Refresher – 001; May

Communication Fundamentals

1. The value of a resistor creating thermal noise is doubled.

The noise power generated is therefore:
(a) halved
(b) quadrupled
(c) doubled
(d) unchanged

2. This is an oscillator that uses a capacitive voltage divider

instead of a tapped inductor to provide feedback.
(a) Clapp
(b) Colpitts
(c) Hartley
(d) Armstrong

3. Which of broad classifications of noise are most difficult

to treat?
(a) noise in the receiver
(b) noise in the transmitter
(c) external noise
(d) none of the above

4. Which of the steps is not included in the process of recep-

tion?
(a) encoding
(b) decoding
(c) demodulating
(d) filtering

5. What is the function of a radio receiver?

(a) to produce radio waves
(b) modulate a message signal
(c) to convert one form of energy to another
(d) to detect and amplify information signal from the carrier

6. In a sinusoidal wave, this indicates how much of a cycle

has been completed at any given instant of time.
(a) amplitude
(b) phase
(c) frequency
(d) period

7. Find the noise voltage in microvolts applied to a receiver

input if a 300 Ω resistor is connected in series to a 300
Ω antenna of a television receiver assuming that they are
subjected in a temperature of 290 K and the television re-
ceiver has a bandwidth of 6 MHz.
(a) 2.7
(b) 2.9
(c) 3.1
(d) 3.3
8. This is a material which is a compromise of two other
materials which can produce piezoelectric voltage. Tour-
maline is structurally sound but is very expensive, and
Rochelle salts have the greatest piezoelectric activity but
is not structurally sound and may disintegrate easily upon
application of voltage. What is this material?
(a) zinc oxide
(b) lithium tantalate
(c) quartz
(d) aluminum nitride

9. When two noise voltages, V1 and V2 are combined, the

total voltage VT is:
(a) VT = sqrt[(V1^2+V2^2)]
(b) VT = (V1+V2)/2
(c) VT = sqrt(V1x V2)
(d) VT = V1 + V2

10. Distortion is caused by:

(a) creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies
(b) baseband frequencies “mixing” with each other
(c) shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies
(d) all of the above

11. If two signals, Va = sin(ωat) and Vb = sin(ωbt) are fed

to a mixer, the output:
(a) will contain ω1 = ωa + ωb and ω2 = ωa − ωb
(b) will contain ω1 = ωa/ωb and ω2 = ωa/ωb
(c) will contain ω1 = (ωa + ωb)/2
(d) none of the above

12. The ______________ of a communication system is a

measure of how much unwanted noise the system adds
to the signal, with a lower value indicating better perfor-
mance and less added noise.
(a) signal-to-noise ratio
(b) noise figure
(c) modulation index
(d) resolution

13. The VHF band starts at what frequency?

(a) 3 MHz
(b) 300 MHz
(c) 30 MHz
(d) 3000 MHz

14. In free space, radio signals travel at approximately

____________________ meters per second.
(a) 331
(b) 3E8
(c) 334
(d) 2E8

15. These are frequencies that range from 30000 kHz to

300000 kHz. The applications in this frequency band in-
clude mobile radio, and all frequency modulation (FM)
systems. What is this band?
(a) UHF
(b) VHF
(c) HF
(d) MF

16. A three-stage amplifier is subjected to room temperature

and to have an overall noise temperature no greater than
70 K. The overall gain of the amplifier is to be at least 45
dB. The amplifier is to be build by adding a low-noise first
stage to an existing amplifier with existing characteristics
as follows: Stage 2 has a 20 dB power gain; 3 dB noise
figure; Stage 3 has 15 dB power gain and 6 dB noise figure.
Calculate the maximum noise figure in dB that the first
stage can have.
(a) 0.56 dB
(b) 0.66 dB
(c) 0.76 dB
(d) 0.86 dB

17. Thermal noise is generated in:

(a) transistors and diodes
(b) resistors
(c) copper wire
(d) all of the above

18. A varactor is:

(a) a voltage-controlled capacitor
(b) a diode
(c) used in tuner circuits
(d) all of the above

19. A complete communication system must include:

(a) a transmitter, a receiver
(b) a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer
(c) a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel
(d) a transmitter, a receiver, and a demultiplexer

20. In a microwave communications system, determine the

noise power in dBm for an equivalent noise bandwidth of
10 MHz.
(a) -99.38 dBm
(b) -103.98 dBm
(c) -99.98 dBm
(d) -103.38 dBm

21. The _________ of an information signal is simply the dif-

ference between the highest and lowest frequencies con-
tained in the information.
(a) bandwidth
(b) bandpass
(c) bandlimit
(d) band adjustment

22. It is a logarithmic unit that can be used to measure ratios

of virtually anything. This is commonly seen in commu-
nication systems to express input or output power. What
is this?
(a) watts
(b) volts
(c) decibels
(d) unitless

23. Find the total harmonic distortion of a heterodyned signal

which is generated by mixing input signals with voltage
amplitudes of 1.24, 2.73, 1.71, 3.09, 2.54 V with a carrier
signal which has a voltage amplitude of 3.68 V.
(a) 1.44
(b) 1.55
(c) 1.66
(d) 1.77

24. In this particular frequency band, the wavelengths of

these signals have values ranging from 1-10 millimeters.
Up and coming applications such as 5G and other high-
speed data transfer protocols is at the forefront of today.
What is this?
(a) Light
(b) SHF
(c) EHF
(d) X-rays

25. An _________________ is a repetitive change in a voltage

or current waveform.
(a) mechanical oscillations
(b) magnetic oscillations
(c) electrical oscillations
(d) natural oscillations

Modulation Schemes

1. Music on AM radio stations is “low-fidelity” because:

(a) AM is susceptible to noise
(b) commercial AM stations use low power
(c) commercial AM stations have a narrow bandwidth
(d) all of the above

2. Two tones modulate an AM carrier. One tone causes a

modulation index of m1 and the other tone causes a mod-
ulation index of m2. The total modulation index is:
(a) m1 + m2
(b) (m1 + m2)/2
(c) sqrt(m1 x m2 + m2 x m1)
(d) sqrt(m1 x m1 + m2 x m2)

3. Calculate the maximum frequency deviation for the FM

signal: v(t) = 10cos(6000t + 5sin2200t)
(a) 2200 Hz
(b) 6000 Hz
(c) 1750 Hz
(d) 11000 Hz

4. Which among the following is the characteristic value of

intermediate frequency (IF) while converting the carrier
frequencies from medium waves to short waves in case of
a superhet receiver?
(a) 535 kHz
(b) 480 kHz
(c) 450 kHz
(d) 455 kHz

5. The FM modulation index:

(a) increaes with both deviation and modulation frequency
(b) increases with deviation and decreases with modulation frequency
(c) decreases with deviation and increaes with modulation frequency
(d) is equal to twice the deviation

6. A receiver has two uncoupled tuned circuits before the

mixer, each with a Q of 75. The signal frequency is 100.1
MHz and the intermediate frequency is 10.7 MHz. If the
local oscillator uses high-side injection, what is the image
frequency rejection ratio in dB?
(a) 27.33 dB
(b) 28.33 dB
(c) 29.33 dB
(d) 30.33 dB

7. AM wave may be represented as E(t)cosωct where E(t)

is:
(a) the envelope of the signal
(b) carrier signal
(c) amplitude of modulating signal
(d) none of the above

8. The equation v(t) = Acos[ωct + kpφ(t)] represents the

signal as:
(a) phase modulated signal
(b) SSBSC signal
(c) DSBSC signal
(d) none of the above

9. FM bandwidth can be approximated by:

(a) Armstrong’s Rule
(b) Bessel’s Rule
(c) Carson’s Rule
(d) none of the above

10. What FM channel number does a carrier of 107.5 MHz

belong to?
(a) 296
(b) 298
(c) 300
(d) 302

11. FM systems are better than AM systems because:

(a) it is less immune to noise
(b) it has less adjacent channel interference
(c) amplitude limiters are used to avoid amplitude vari-
ations
(d) all of the above

12. To generate a SSB signal:

(a) start with a full-carrier AM and eliminate the carrier
(b) start with a DSBSC signal and eliminate one of the
sidebands
(c) start with a quadrature signal
(d) none of the above

13. What is the change in the value of transmitted power

when the modulation index in an AM system changes
from 0 to 1?
(a) 100%
(b) remains unchanged
(c) 50%
(d) 80%
14. What frequency deviation is caused by noise in an FM
receiver which has an input S/N of 2.8 and the modulating
frequency of 1.5 kHz?
(a) 548 Hz
(b) 550 Hz
(c) 552 Hz
(d) 545 Hz

15. The ability of the receiver to select wanted signals among

the various incoming signals is termed as:
(a) sensitivity
(b) selectivity
(c) stability
(d) none of the above

16. The frequency deviation produced in a VHF carrier by a

signal of 100 Hz is 50 kHz. The frequency modulation
index is:
(a) 100 radians
(b) 250 radians
(c) 500 radians
(d) 750 radians

17. Guard bands are provided in FM signals to:

(a) prevent interference from adjacent channels
(b) to increase bandwidth
(c) to decrease noise
(d) none of the above

18. The output signal of a PM demodulator is 0.54 V. What is

the sensitivity of the demodulator if the phase deviation
is 30°?
(a) 0.97 rad/V
(b) 1.01 rad/V
(c) 1.05 rad/V
(d) 1.09 rad/V

19. The audio signal having a frequency of 500 Hz and a peak

amplitude of 2.6V, shows a deviation of 5.2KHz in a fre-
quency modulation system. If the audio signal voltage
changes to 8.6V, calculate the new deviation obtained.
(a) 19.6 kHz
(b) 14.6 kHz
(c) 25.6 kHz
(d) 17.2 kHz

20. Carrier swing is defined as:

(a) the total variation in frequency from the lowest point
to the highest point
(b) frequency deviation above or below the carrier fre-
quency
(c) width of the sideband
(d) none of the above

21. Calculate the power in one sideband of an AM signal

whose carrier power is 50 watts. The unmodulated cur-
rent is 2 A while the modulated current is 2.4 A.
(a) 33 W
(b) 22 W
(c) 11 W
(d) 44 W

22. What are FM and AM collectively referred together as?

(a) modulation
(b) angle modulation
(c) fastband modulation
(d) Hi-fi modulation

23. An amplitude modulated signal has a maximum positive

envelope voltage of 14 V and a minimum of 2 V. What is
the total transmitted power if the carrier power is 10 kW
and suppressing one of the sidebands?
(a) 11.4 kW
(b) 11.7 kW
(c) 11.1 kW
(d) 11.9 kW

24. The type of information that can be sent using FM signals

is/are:
(a) audio
(b) video
(c) data
(d) all of the above

25. The ________________ effect is seen when an FM re-

ceiver is exposed to two FM signals that are close to each
other in frequency.
(a) capture
(b) threshold
(c) flywheel
(d) limit

Digital Communications & Data Communications

1. An asynchronous transmission system uses ASCII at 9600

bps with seven bits, one start bit, ond stop bit and no par-
ity bit. Express the data rate in words per minute. Assume
a word has five characters or letters and one space.
(a) 10667 wpm
(b) 9600 wpm
(c) 10333 wpm
(d) 9667 wpm

2. Most packet switches use this principle to send packets

through nodes. What is this principle?
(a) Stop and wait
(b) Store and forward
(c) Store and wait
(d) Stop and forward

3. Which is true about aliasing/spectral foldover/foldover

distortion?
(a) they are two types of sampling error
(b) you can have one or the other but not both
(c) aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover distortion
(d) they are the same thing

4. Bluetooth is an example of a:
(a) personal area network
(b) local area network
(c) virtual private network
(d) wide area network

5. The immediate result of sampling is a:

(a) sample alias
(b) PAM signal
(c) PCM signal
(d) PDM signal

6. In a 10 bit PCM system, a message signal having a max-

imum frequency of 4 kHz is to be transmitted. If the bit
rate of this system is 60 kbps, the appropriate sampling
frequency is:
(a) 7 kHz
(b) 8 kHz
(c) 9 kHz
(d) 10 kHz

7. Which network topology requires a central controller or

hub?
(a) star
(b) mesh
(c) ring
(d) bus

8. Which modulation technique does not use past informa-

tion for modulation?
(a) delta modulation
(b) pulse code modulation
(c) adaptive differential pulse code modulation
(d) adaptive delta modulation

9. The IP address 134.192.33.73 belongs to what class?

(a) Class A
(b) Class B
(c) Class C
(d) Classless

10. Compared to PCM, delta modulation:

(a) transmits fewer bits per sample
(b) requires a much higher sampling rate
(c) can suffer slope overload
(d) all of the above

11. In the OSI model, when data is sent from device A to de-
vices B, the fifth layer to receive data at B is?
(a) application layer
(b) transport layer
(c) session layer
(d) data link layer

12. Where is a hub specified in the OSI model?

(a) session layer
(b) physical layer
(c) data link layer
(d) application layer

13. For an 8-PSK modulator with an input data rate of 10

Mbps and a carrier frequency of 70 MHz, determine the
baud rate.
(a) 1.33 Mbaud
(b) 2.33 Mbaud
(c) 3.33 Mbaud
(d) 4.33 Mbaud

14. A telephone line has a bandwidth of 3.2 kHz and a signal-

to-noise ratio of 140. A signal is transmitted down thsi
line using an eight level code. What is the maximum the-
oretical data rate?
(a) 22.8 kbps
(b) 12.8 kbps
(c) 19.2 kbps
(d) 25.6 kbps

15. Hartley’s Law can be expressed by which formula?

(a) I = kT B
(b) C = 2B log2 M
(c) C = Blog2(1 + SN )
(d) SR = 2fmax

16. What does it mean to say that a packet has a lifetime mea-
sured in hops?
(a) Each packet contains a number representing the
maximum number of allowed hops. At each hop, this
number is reduced by one. When it gets to zero, the
packet is deleted from the network.
(b) Each packet contains a number representing the
maximum number of allowed hops. At each hop, this
number is reduced by two. When it gets to zero, the
packet is deleted from the network.
(c) No packet contains a number representing the max-
imum number of allowed hops. It will only wander
around the network until its allowable lifetime.
(d) cannot be determined

17. Quantization is the process of converting an infinite num-

ber of possibilities to a finite number of conditions. Ana-
log signals contain an infinite number of amplitude possi-
bilities. Thus, converting an analog signal to a PCM code
with a limited number of combinations requires quanti-
zation. In essence, quantization is the process of round-
ing off the amplitudes of flat-top samples to a manage-
able number of levels. The decimal value added to or sub-
tracted from the original value is considered an error and
is called quantization error. Which of the following de-
creases quantization error?
(a) decrease the number of levels
(b) decrease the sampling pulse frequency
(c) increase the sampling pulse frequency
(d) decrease the step size

18. What Internet protocol version uses 16 byte addresses

to identify 3.4 · 1038 devices, and has the form
xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:xxxx:xxxx wherein x is
any hexadecimal value?
(a) IPv3
(b) IPv4
(c) IPv5
(d) IPv6

19. The bandwidth of a video signal is 4.5 MHz. The signal

is to be transmitted using PCM with 1024 quantization
levels. The minimum bit rate required for transmission
is:
(a) 90 Mbps
(b) 45 Mbps
(c) 4.5 Mbps
(d) 10 Mbps

20. What is the typical bandwidth of a telephony system?

(a) 5.2 kHz
(b) 4.2 kHz
(c) 3.2 kHz
(d) 2.2 kHz

21. You want to improve network performance by increasing

the bandwidth available to hosts and limit the size of the
broadcast domains. Which of the following options will
achieve this goal?
(a) Managed hubs
(b) Bridges
(c) Switches
(d) Switches configured with VLANs

22. Determine the quantization error for an 10-bit linear sign-

magnitude PCM for a maximum decoded voltage of 2.55
Vp.
(a) 0.005 V
(b) 0.01 V
(c) 0.05 V
(d) 0.0025 V

23. Which of the following are benefits of VLANs?

1. increase the size of collision domains
2. allow logical grouping of users by function
3. can enhance network security
4. can increase the size of broadcast domains while
decreasing the number of collision domains
5. simplify switch administration
6. increase the number of broadcast domains while
decreasing the size of the broadcast domains
(a) 1 and 5
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 5
(d) 2, 3 and 6

24. How do you logically divide a network? By this process,

you are dividing a larger network into smaller networks.
Its purpose is to improve network efficiency and orga-
nization, and to enhance security. It is typically imple-
mented using the Internet Protocol (IP).
(a) subnetting
(b) netting
(c) logical division of networks
(d) network division

25. What is the main reason the OSI model was created?
(a) to create a layered model larger than the DoD model
(b) so application developers can change only one
layer’s protocols at a time
(c) so different networks could communicate
(d) so Cisco could use the model

Wave Propagation, Antenna Systems, Transmission

Lines and Microwave Communication

1. A helical antenna has the following dimensions: pitch is

λ3 , diameter is λ4 and turn count is 27. What is the gain in
dB?
(a) 19.2 dB
(b) 20.2 dB
(c) 18.2 dB
(d) 21.2 dB

2. An example of an unbalanced line is:

(a) a coaxial cable
(b) 300-ohm twin-lead TV cable
(c) an open-wire-line cable
(d) all of the above

3. The “attenuation of free space” is due to:

(a) losses in the characteristic impedance of free space
(b) losses due to weather effects
(c) the decrease in energy per square meter due to ex-
pansion of the wavefront
(d) the decrease of energy per meter separating anten-
nas

4. The receiving installation whose G/T was found to be 10.6

dB is used as a ground terminal to receive a signal from
a satellite at a distance of 38,000 km. The satellite has a
transmitter power of 40 watts and an antenna gain of 30
dBi. Assume losses between the satellite transmitter and
its antenna are negligible. The frequency is 11 GHz. Cal-
culate the carrier-to-noise at the receiver, for a bandwidth
of 1 MHz.
(a) 30.6 dB
(b) 25.6 dB
(c) 20.4 dB
(d) 35.4 dB

5. Sky waves:
(a) are line-of-sight
(b) “bounce” off the ionosphere
(c) are the same as space waves
(d) are radio waves used for satellite communications

6. A radio frequency transmission line has a characteristic

impedance of 75 Ω. If the line is terminated by an aerial
with an input impedance of 72 Ω, calculate the SWR of
the line.
(a) 1.14
(b) 1.24
(c) 1.04
(d) 1.34

7. If a transmission line with an inductive reactance of 41.97

Ω and a capacitive reactance of 1132.5 Ω is operated at 1
GHz, then its phase constant is:
(a) 0.0019
(b) 0.3
(c) 30.3
(d) 0.19

8. The solid area through which all of the power is radiated

by an antenna is called:
(a) beam area
(b) effective area
(c) aperture area
(d) beam efficiency

9. The velocity factor of a transmission line depends on:

(a) temperature
(b) skin effect
(c) relative permittivity of dielectric
(d) none of the above

10. Which of the following lines are non-radiating?

(a) open two-wire
(b) coaxial
(c) both
(d) none of the above

11. The polarity of a radio wave is determined by the orien-

tation of (a) what moving field with respect to (b) what
reference?
(a) electric, earth
(b) electric, antenna
(c) magnetic, antenna
(d) magnetic, earth

12. If the optimum working frequency for a communications

link is 4,250 kHz, what is the approximate maximum us-
able frequency?
(a) 4,500 kHz
(b) 5,000 kHz
(c) 5,500 kHz
(d) 6,000 kHz

13. Calculate the EIRP in dbW for a 25 W transmitter into a

dipole with 90% efficiency.
(a) 16.65 dBw
(b) 63.38 dBw
(c) 36.84 dBw
(d) 15.66 dBw

14. In planning for microwave transmission, we always see

to it that the signal is at a certain Fresnel zone clearance.
If the microwave frequency is increased, what is its effect
on the radius of the Fresnel zone?
(a) decreased
(b) increased
(c) undetermined
(d) stay the same

15. When a transmission line is not terminated in its charac-

teristic impedance, what happens to the incident energy
that is not transferred to the load?
(a) it is returned along the transmission line
(b) it is radiated in to space
(c) it is absorbed by the line
(d) it is converted to heat energy

16. What is the angle of incidence of the radio wave signal

as it moves from air to glass, if the angle of refraction is
8.2°. Is it less or more than the angle of refraction? The
refractive index of glass is 1.52.
(a) more than
(b) less than
(c) equal
(d) none of the above

17. To some degree, transmission lines always exhibit which

of the following types of losses?
(a) I2R losses
(b) inductor losses
(c) dielectric losses
(d) each of the above

18. If a transmission line has a voltage of 300∠0° V is open

circuited at the far end, VSWR is equal to:
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) ∞
(d) 2

19. The end-to-end length of a Hertzian antenna is actually:

(a) one wavelength
(b) one half-wavelength
(c) slightly longer than a half-wavelength
(d) slightly shorter than a half-wavelength

20. A quarter wave line open circuited at the far end behaves
as:
(a) an inductance
(b) a parallel resonant circuit
(c) a capacitance
(d) a series resonant circuit

21. Arrays can be:

(a) phased
(b) driven
(c) parasitic
(d) all of the above

22. The total power delivered to a radiator of an isotropic an-

tenna is 200,000 W. Determine the power density at a dis-
tance of 100 meters.
(a) 1.59 W/m2
(b) 1.49 W/m2
(c) 1.39 W/m2
(d) 1.29 W/m2

23. If an antenna has a length of 0.125λ, then what is the

radiation resistance?
(a) 12.44 Ω
(b) 12.54 Ω
(c) 12.34 Ω
(d) 12.24 Ω
24. The microwave signal path should clear obstacles by at
least:
(a) 60% of the Faraday zone
(b) 60% of the Fresnel zone
(c) 60% of the height of the antenna tower
(d) 60% of the highest obstacle height

25. A parabolic antenna used in a satellite earth station has

beamwidth of 3°. Calculate the effective area in square
meters if it has an illumination efficiency of 0.7 at 3 GHz.
(a) 2.75
(b) 2.85
(c) 2.95
(d) 2.65

26. The typical reliability of a microwave system is about:

(a) 90%
(b) 99%
(c) 99.9%
(d) 99.99%

27. Which describes the loss of energy of a radio wave be-

cause of the spreading of the wavefront as it travels from
the generating source?
(a) emission
(b) induction
(c) scattering
(d) absorption

28. What proportion of the incident power is reflected back

from the load for a 75 Ω line terminated with a load
impedance of ZL = 50 − j25 Ω?
(a) 7.84%
(b) 8.84%
(c) 9.84%
(d) 10.84%

29. The maximum gain of the antenna is determined by the

size of the dish and the frequency. What is the effect to the
gain of the antenna if the diameter of the dish is reduced
by half?
(a) decrease two times
(b) increase four times
(c) increase two times
(d) decrease four times

30. Which of the following is used in integrated circuits?

(a) microstrip line
(b) coaxial line
(c) twin wire line
(d) shield cable

31. What is the characteristic impedance of a coaxial cable

using a solid polyethylene dielectric having a relative per-
meability of 2.3, an inner conductor of 1 mm diameter and
an outer conductor of diameter 5 mm?
(a) 63.2 Ω
(b) 63.4 Ω
(c) 63.6 Ω
(d) 63.8 Ω
32. LPDA stands for:
(a) low power dipole array
(b) low power directed array
(c) log periodic dipole array
(d) log power dipole array

33. A microwave transmitting antenna is 600 feet high. The

receive antenna is 240 feet high. The maximum transmis-
sion distance is?
(a) 57 miles
(b) 58 miles
(c) 59 miles
(d) 55 miles

34. Which of the following are electromagnetic waves?

(a) radio waves
(b) light
(c) gamma waves
(d) all of the above

35. The characteristic impedance of a cable depends on:

(a) the resistance per foot of the wire used
(b) the resistance per foot and the inductance per foot
(c) the resistance per foot and the capacitance per foot
(d) the inductance per foot and the capacitance per foot

36. In a coaxial line, if the inner diameter is 0.51 cm and the

center conductor has a diameter of 0.22 cm, what is the
characteristic impedance?
(a) 50.7 Ω
(b) 50.4 Ω
(c) 50.1 Ω
(d) 50.9 Ω

37. A 15 km digital radio link with a carrier frequency of 6

GHz, is operating in a non-obstructed environment. With
the following data, what is the RSL (in dBm) of the link?
Transmit power = 37dBm, receiver sensitivity = -89 dBm
antenna Tx & Rx gain = 25 dB each, miscellaneous losses
= 10 dB.
(a) 54.48 dBm
(b) 55.48 dBm
(c) 56.48 dBm
(d) 58.48 dBm

38. The troposphere is the:

(a) highest layer of the atmosphere
(b) middle layer of the atmosphere
(c) lowest layer of the atmosphere
(d) the most ionized ayer of the atmosphere

39. Fading in microwave signals are caused by:

(a) multipath reception
(b) attenuation due to weather
(c) ducting
(d) all of the above
40. Calculate the beamwidth of a parabolic antenna which
operates at a frequency of 3 GHz and a diameter of 0.5 m.
(a) 14°
(b) 16°
(c) 13°
(d) 15°
 Questions from the BEERS Refresher – 002; May

1.) A MODULATING SIGNAL CONSISTS OF A SYMMETRICAL TRIANGULAR WAVE HAVING

ZERO DC COMPONENT AND PEAK-TO-PEAK VOLTAGE OF 11 V. CALCULATE THE VALUE OF
MODULATION INDEX IF IT USED TO AMPLITUDE MODULATE A CARRIER OF PEAK VOLTAGE
10 V.

A. 0.55
B. 0.65
C. 1
D. 1.2

2.) TRANSMISSIONS CAN OCCUR ONLY IN ONE DIRECTION. SOMETIMES CALLED

ONEWAY-ONLY, RECEIVE-ONLY, OR TRANSMIT-ONLY.

A. SIMPLEX
B. HALF- DUPLEX
C. FULL DUPLEX
D. FULL/FULL DUPLEX

3.) POSSIBLE TO TRANSMIT AND RECEIVE SIMULTANEOUSLY, BUT NOT NECESSARY

BETWEEN THE SAME TWO LOCATIONS (I.E. ONE STATION CAN TRANSMIT TO A SECOND
STATION AND RECEIVE FROM A THIRD STATION AT THE SAME TIME).

A. SIMPLEX
B. HALF- DUPLEX
C. FULL DUPLEX
D. FULL/FULL DUPLEX

4.) TRANSMISSIONS CAN OCCUR IN BOTH DIRECTIONS AT THE SAME TIME. SOMETIMES
CALLED TWO-WAY-SIMULTANEOUS, DUPLEX, OR BOTH-WAY LINE.

A. SIMPLEX
B. HALF- DUPLEX
C. FULL DUPLEX
D. FULL/FULL DUPLEX

5.) TRANSMISSIONS CAN OCCUR IN BOTH DIRECTIONS, BUT NOT AT THE SAME TIME.
SOMETIMES CALLED TWO-WAY-ALTERNATE, EITHER-WAY, OR OVER-AND-OUT SYSTEMS.

A. SIMPLEX
B. HALF- DUPLEX
C. FULL DUPLEX
D. FULL/FULL DUPLEX

6.) A TYPE OF TRANSMISSION IMPAIRMENT IN WHICH THE SIGNAL LOSES STRENGTH

DUE TO THE RESISTANCE AND LENGTH OF THE TRANSMISSION MEDIUM.

A. NOISE
B. DISTORTION
C. ATTENUATION
D. ABSORPTION

7.) THE ALTERATION OF INFORMATION IN WHICH THE ORIGINAL PROPORTIONS

ARE CHANGED, RESULTING FROM A DEFECT IN COMMUNICATION SYSTEM.
A. NOISE
B. DISTORTION
C. ATTENUATION
D. ABSORPTION

8.) A TYPE OF TRANSMISSION IMPAIRMENT IN WHICH AN OUTSIDE SOURCE SUCH AS

CROSSTALK CORRUPTS A SIGNAL.

A. NOISE
B. DISTORTION
C. ATTENUATION
D. ABSORPTION

9.) AN AMPLIFIER OPERATING OVER A 5 MHZ BANDWIDTH HAS A 100 OHMS INPUT
RESISTANCE. IT IS OPERATING AT 27°C AND HAS A VOLTAGE GAIN OF 200 AND AN
INPUT SIGNAL OF 6 𝝁𝑽𝑹𝑴𝑺. CALCULATE THE OUTPUT RMS NOISE

A. 6.76 μ𝑉𝑅𝑀𝑆
B. 7.76 μ𝑉𝑅𝑀𝑆
C. 5.76 μ𝑉𝑅𝑀𝑆
D. 8.76 μ𝑉𝑅𝑀𝑆

10.) THE RESISTORS R1 AND R2 ARE CONNECTED IN SERIES AT 300 °𝑲 AND 400 °𝑲
TEMPERATURES, RESPECTIVELY. IF R1 IS 200Ω AND R2 IS 300Ω, FIND THE POWER
PRODUCED AT THE LOAD (RL = 500Ω) OVER A BANDWIDTH OF 100 KHZ.

A. 996.8 𝑛𝑉, 0.496 𝑓𝑊

B. 100.22 𝑛𝑉, 0.698 𝑓𝑊
C. 699.8 𝑛𝑉, 0.869 𝑓𝑊
D. 899.6 𝑛𝑉, 0.899 𝑓𝑊

11.) A DIODE NOISE GENERATOR IS REQUIRED TO PRODUCE 10 𝝁𝑽 OF NOISE IN A

RECEIVER WITH AN INPUT IMPEDANCE OF 75 Ω, RESISTIVE, AND A NOISE POWER
BANDWIDTH OF 200 KHZ. WHAT MUST THE CURRENT THROUGH THE DIODE BE?

A. 276 mA
B. 350 mA
C. 999 mA
D. 560 mA

12.) A TRANSISTOR HAS A MEASURED S/N POWER OF 100 AT ITS INPUT AND 20 AT
ITS OUTPUT. DETERMINE THE NOISE FIGURE OF THE TRANSISTOR.

A. 5 dB
B. 6 dB
C. 7 dB
D. 8 dB

13.) AN AM RECEIVER IS TUNED TO A BROADCAST STATION AT 600 KHZ. CALCULATE

THE IMAGE REJECTION IN DB, ASSUMING THAT THE INPUT FILTER CONSISTS OF ONE
TUNED CIRCUIT WITH A Q OF 60.

A. 42.1 dB
B. 43.2 dB
C. 44.3 dB
D. 45.4 dB

14.) CALCULATE THE EFFICIENCY OF A DIPOLE ANTENNA THAT HAS A RADIATION

RESISTANCE OF 67Ω AND A LOSS RESISTANCE OF 5Ω, MEASURED AT THE FEED POINT.

A. 93.05%
B. 94.05%
C. 96.05%
D. 97.05%

15.) THE “ENVELOP” OF AN AM SIGNAL IS DUE TO:

A. The baseband signal

B. The carrier signal
C. The amplitude signal
D. None of the above

16.) AT 100% MODULATION, THE TOTAL SIDEBAND POWER IS:

A. Equal to the carrier power

B. Twice the carrier power
C. Half the carrier power
D. 1.414 x carrier power

17.) USING CARSON'S RULE, WHAT IS THE BANDWIDTH OF AN FM SIGNAL WITH 5 KHZ
MAXIMUM DEVIATION AND 2.5KHZ MAXIMUM MODULATING FREQUENCY?

A. 5 kHz
B. 10 kHz
C. 15 kHz
D. 20 kHz

18.) IN TWISTED PAIR CABLES, AS THE NUMBER OF TWISTS DECREASES, THE

INFORMATION CAPACITY:

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Unchanged
D. Doubles

19.) WHY IS THE IMPEDANCE MATCHING IMPORTANT?

A. So the load will draw minimum power from the source.

B. To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit.
C. To ensure the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal.
D. So the source can deliver maximum power to the load

20.) TO OBTAIN EFFICIENT POWER TRANSMISSION FROM A TRANSMITTER TO AN

ANTENNA REQUIRES:

A. High load impedance

B. Low ohmic impedance
C. Matching of impedance
D. Inductive impedance

21.) “SKIN EFFECT” REFERS TO:

A. The way radio signals travel across a flat surface
B. The tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal
C. The increase of wire resistance with frequency
D. None of the above

22.) WHAT IS THE INPUT IMPEDANCE OF A TRANSMISSION LINE OF ITS

CHARACTERISTIC IMPEDANCE IS 300 OHMS AND THE LOAD IS 600 OHMS? ASSUME A
QUARTER WAVELENGTH SECTION ONLY.

A. 50 Ω
B. 100 Ω
C. 150 Ω
D. 200 Ω

23.) FIND THE INDUCTANCE OF A 5 METER LENGTH TRANSMISSION LINE IF THE

CHARACTERISTICS IMPEDANCE IS 52 OHMS AND THE CAPACITANCE IS 75 𝒑𝑭/ .

A. 1.015 H
B. 1.015 mH
C. 1.015 𝜇𝐻
D. 1.015 n𝐻

24.) FOR A GIVEN LENGTH OF RG 8A/U COAXIAL CABLE WITH A DISTRIBUTED

CAPACITANCE OF 96.6 𝒑𝑭/ , A DISTRIBUTED INDUCTANCE OF 241.56 𝒏𝑯/𝒎 , AND A
RELATIVE DIELECTRIC CONSTANT OF 2.3, DETERMINE THE VELOCITY FACTOR.

A. 0.9
B. 0.69
C. 0.66
D. 0.8

25.) WHAT IS THE CHARACTERISTIC IMPEDANCE OF AN OPEN WIRE LINE WITH

CONDUCTORS 4 𝒎𝒎 IN DIAMETER SEPARATED BY 15 𝒎𝒎.

A. 241.52 Ω
B. 252.41 Ω
C. 421.52 Ω
D. 452.21 Ω

26.) A COAX LINE HAS A SHIELD BRAID WITH DIAMETER OF 0.2 INCH AND A CENTER
CONDUCTOR WITH A DIAMETER OF 0.057 INCH. THE CHARACTERISTIC IMPEDANCE IS:

A. 18.34 Ω
B. 75.23 Ω
C. 14.56 Ω
D. 87.61 Ω

27.) A TRANSMITTER SUPPLIES 20 W TO A LOAD THROUGH A LINE WITH SWR OF 2:1.

FIND THE POWER ABSORBED BY THE LOAD.

A. 32.1 W
B. 23.4 W
C. 17.8 W
D. 12.7 W
28.) A 52 OHMS LOAD IS BEING FED FROM A 75 OHMS TRANSMISSION LINE. WHAT
PERCENTAGE OF THE INCIDENT POWER IS ABSORBED BY THE LOAD.

A. 3.27% W
B. 87.26% W
C. 12.44% W
D. 96.7% W

29.) WHICH BEAM WIDTH REPRESENTS THE BEST ANTENNA DIRECTIVITY?

A. 7°
B. 12°
C. 19°
D. 28°

30.) THE ADDITION OF THE PARASITIC ELEMENTS TO THE YAGI-ANTENNA HAS WHICH
OF THE FOLLOWING EFFECT ON ANTENNA CHARACTERISTICS?

A. Increased gain
B. Narrower beam width
C. Narrower frequency response
D. Each of the above

31.) WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DESCRIBES A MARCONI ANTENNA?

A. An omnidirectional antenna
B. It has an impedance of 73 ohms.
C. Its drawback is that it is only limited for horizontal polarization.
D. All of these

32.) THE DIMENSIONS OF A TRANSMITTING ANTENNA ARE DETERMINED BY WHICH OF

THE FOLLOWING FACTORS?

A. Transmitting power
B. Transmitted frequency
C. Distance to the receiver
D. Antenna height above the ground

33.) USING A SMALL REFLECTOR TO BEAM WAVES TO THE LARGER PARABOLIC

REFLECTOR IS KNOWN AS:

A. Focal feed
B. Horn feed
C. Cassegrain feed
D. Coax feed

34.) DIRECTIVITY REFERS TO WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROPERTIES OF A RADIATED

BEAM?

A. Power gain
B. Standing-wave ratio
C. Narrowness of the beam
D. Polarization of the beam

35.) THE MAGNETIC FIELD OF AN ANTENNA IS PERPENDICULAR TO THE EARTH. THE

ANTENNA POLARIZATION:
A. Circular
B. Horizontal
C. Parabolical
D. Vertical

36.) WHAT ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVE POLARIZATION DOES A HALF-WAVELENGTH

ANTENNA HAVE WHEN IT IS PERPENDICULAR TO THE EARTH’S SURFACE?

A. Circular
B. Horizontal
C. Parabolical
D. Vertical

37.) WHAT ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVE POLARIZATION DOES A YAGI ANTENNA HAVE

WHEN ITS ELEMENTS ARE PARALLEL TO THE EARTH’S SURFACE?

A. Circular
B. Horizontal
C. Parabolical
D. Vertical

38.) THE ELECTRIC FIELD RADIATED FROM AN ANTENNA IS PRODUCED BY WHAT

ELECTRICAL PROPERTY?

A. Voltage
B. Current
C. Reactance
D. Resistance

39.) IN A YAGI ANTENNA MAXIMUM DIRECTION OF RADIATION IS TOWARDS THE:

A. Director
B. Driven Element
C. Reflector
D. Parasitic Element

40.) AN ISOTROPIC ANTENNA IS A:

A. Hypothetical point of source

B. Infinitely long piece of wire
C. Dummy load
D. Half-wave reference dipole

41.) OR HIGH-FREQUENCY OPERATION, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ANTENNA

POLARIZATION PATTERN IS PREFERRED?

A. Vertically polarized
B. Spherically polarized
C. Elliptically polarized
D. Horizontally polarized

42.) WHAT IS THE ONE EFFECT OF INCREASING THE BOOM LENGTH AND ADDING
DIRECTORS TO A YAGI ANTENNA?

A. SWR increases
B. Weight decreases
C. Wind load decreases
D. Gain increases

43.) WHAT IS THE ONE EFFECT OF INCREASING THE BOOM LENGTH AND ADDING
DIRECTORS TO A YAGI ANTENNA?

A. SWR increases
B. Weight decreases
C. Wind load decreases
D. Gain increases

44.) WHAT IS THE EFFECTIVE RADIATED POWER (ERP) OF REPEATER WITH 450 W
TRANSMITTING POWER OUTPUT, 4 𝒅𝑩 FEEDLINE LOSS, 6 𝒅𝑩 DUPLEXER LOSS, 7 𝒅𝑩
CIRCULATOR LOSS AND FEEDLINE ANTENNA GAIN OF 25 𝒅𝑩?

A. 2836.18 W
B. 2840.47 W
C. 2839.24 W
D. 2838.31 W

45.) A 500 𝒌𝑯𝒛 ANTENNA RADIATE 500 W OF POWER. THE SAME ANTENNA PRODUCES A
FIELD STRENGTH EQUAL TO 1.5 𝒎𝑽/𝒎. IF THE POWER DELIVERED BY THE ANTENNA IS
INCREASED TO 1 , WHAT WOULD BE THE EXPECTED FIELD
INTENSITY?

A. 2.12 mV/m
B. 3 mV/m
C. 6 mV/m
D. 2.25 mV/m

46.) AT 20 𝒌𝒎 FREE SPACE FROM A POINT SOURCE, THE POWER DENSITY IS 200
𝝁𝑾/ . WHAT IS THE POWER DENSITY 30 𝒌𝒎 AWAY FROM THIS SOURCE?

A. 59 𝜇𝑊/𝑚2
B. 69 𝜇𝑊/𝑚2
C. 79 𝜇𝑊/𝑚2
D. 89 𝜇𝑊/𝑚2

47.) THE TRANSMITTING ANTENNA HAS A GAIN OF 10𝒅𝑩 AND POWER OUTPUT OF 6000
W. DETERMINE THE EFFECTIVE RADIATED POWER?

A. 20,000 W
B. 40,000 W
C. 60,000 W
D. 80,000 W

48.) THE EFFICIENCY OF AN ANTENNA IS 82%. ITS RADIATION RESISTANCE IS 30 Ω.

WHAT IS THE VALUE OF ITS LOSS RESISTANCE?

A. 5.58 Ω
B. 6.58 Ω
C. 7.58 Ω
D. 8.58 Ω
49.) A 5 𝒌𝑾 TRANSMITTER PRODUCES A FIELD STRENGTH OF 50 𝝁𝑽/𝒎 WHILE A 15
𝒌𝑾 PRODUCES. HOW MUCH FIELD STRENGTH?

A. 87 𝜇𝑉/𝑚
B. 78 𝜇𝑉/𝑚
C. 67 𝜇𝑉/𝑚
D. 58 𝜇𝑉/𝑚

50.) AN EARTH SATELLITE STATION NEEDED AN ANTENNA THAT CAN AMPLIFY 2500
TIMES BIGGER THAN THE INPUT SIGNAL. IF THE ENGINEER ASSIGNED AGREED TO
BUILD AN ANTENNA WITH A PARABOLIC REFLECTOR, AND OPERATES AT 3.4 𝑮𝑯𝒛, WHAT
IS THE DIAMETER?

A. 160 cm
B. 170 cm
C. 180 cm
D. 190 cm

51.) WHAT IS THE GAIN OF A HALF-WAVE DIPOLE ANTENNA IF THE ANTENNA HAS AN
EFFICIENCY OF 92%?

A. 1.15
B. 1.51
C. 1.25
D. 1.31

52.) A PARABOLIC ANTENNA USED IN THE SATELLITE EARTH STATION HAS BEAMWIDTH
OF 3°. IF THE ANTENNA IS OPERATING AT A FREQUENCY OF 14 𝑮𝑯𝒛,. WHAT IS THE
MINIMUM DIAMETER OF THE ANTENNA?

A. 0.25 m
B. 0.50 m
C. 0.65 m
D. 0.70 m

53.) TWO OUT-OF-PHASE WAVES OF THE SAME FREQUENCY THAT ARE MOVING THROUGH
THE SAME MEDIUM ARE SAID TO PRESENT WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF
INTERFERENCES?

A. Additive
B. Constructive
C. Both A and B
D. Subtractive

54.) THE RADIO HORIZON COMPARED TO THE OPTICAL HORIZON, IS ________ GREATER
THAN THE OPTICAL HORIZON.

A. 1/3
B. 2/3
C. 4/3
D. Twice

55.) WHICH POLARIZATION CAN BE REASONABLY WELL RECEIVED BY A CIRCULARLY

POLARIZED ANTENNA:
A. Vertical
B. Horizontal
C. Circular
D. All of the above

56.) MOST WEATHER PHENOMENA TAKE PLACE IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING REGION OF
THE ATMOSPHERE?

A. Troposphere
B. Ionosphere
C. Mesosphere
D. Stratosphere

57.) THE “ATTENUATION” OF FREE SPACE” IS DUE TO:

A. Losses in the characteristic impedance of free space.

B. Losses due to absorption in the upper atmosphere.
C. The decrease in energy per square meter due to the expansion of the
wavefront.
D. The decrease in energy per square meter due to the absorption of the
wavefront.

58.) HOW LONG IS AN AVERAGE SUNSPOT CYCLE?

A. 17 years
B. 5 years
C. 11 years
D. 7 years

59.) RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION HAS THE LEAST EFFECT BECAUSE OF ITS CONSTANCY
ON WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ATMOSPHERIC LAYERS?

A. Troposphere
B. Ionosphere
C. Mesosphere
D. Stratosphere

60.) WHAT IS A SKIP ZONE?

A. An area that is too far away for ground-wave or sky-wave propagation.

B. An area covered by the sky-wave propagation.
C. An area that is too far away for the ground-wave propagation, but too
close for sky-wave propagation.
D. An area covered by ground-wave propagation.

61.) WHAT IS A SKIP DISTANCE?

A. It is the distance between the originating site and the beginning of the
ionosphere return.
B. No space wave signal will be received
C. It is the area that lies between the outer limit off the ground wave
range and the inner edge of energy return from the ionosphere.
D. All of these

62.) WHAT IS THE POWER DENSITY REQUIRED TO PRODUCE ELECTRIC FIELD STRENGTH
OF 100 VOLTS PER METER IN THE AIR?
A. 16.5 𝑊/𝑚2
B. 26.5 𝑊/𝑚2
C. 36.5 𝑊/𝑚2
D. 56.5 𝑊/𝑚2

63.) IF THE VELOCITY OF THE PROPAGATION IN A CERTAIN MEDIUM IS 200𝒙𝟏𝟎𝟔𝒎/𝒔,

WHAT IS THE REFRACTIVE INDEX?

A. 1.2
B. 1.3
C. 1.4
D. 1.5

64.) WHAT IS THE ANGLE OF REFRACTION OF THE RADIO WAVE SIGNAL AS IT MOVES
FROM AIR TO GLASS, IF THE ANGLE OF INCIDENCE IS 8.2 DEGREES?

A. 1.93 degrees
B. 2.93 degrees
C. 4.93 degrees
D. 5.93 degrees

65.) A MICROWAVE TRANSMITTING ANTENNA IS 600 FEET HIGH. THE RECEIVE ANTENNA
IS 240 FEET HIGH. THE MAXIMUM TRANSMISSION DISTANCE IS:

A. 56.55 mi
B. 56.55 km
C. 65.66 mi
D. 65.66 km

66.) THE MAIN BENEFIT OF USING MICROWAVE IS:

A. lower-cost equipment
B. Simpler equipment
C. Greater transmission distances
D. More spectrum space

67.) A RADIO COMMUNICATION LINK IS TO BE ESTABLISHED VIA THE IONOSPHERE.

THE MAXIMUM VIRTUAL HEIGHT OF THE LAYER IS 130KM AT THE MIDPOINT OF THE
PATH AND THE CRITICAL FREQUENCY IS 4 MHZ. IF THE DISTANCE BETWEEN THE RADIO
STATIONS IS 400KM, WHAT IS THE SUITABLE VALUE FOR THE OWF? USE FLAT TERRAIN
ANALYSIS.

A. 5.24 MHz
B. 6.24 MHz
C. 7.24 MHz
D. 8.24 MHz

68.) IN WAVE PROPAGATION, DETERMINE THE REFRACTIVE INDEX OF AN IONOSPHERIC

LAYER WITH 100X10^6 FREE ELECTRON PER CUBIC METER AT 5 MHZ FREQUENCY.

A. 0.99
B. 0.89
C. 0.79
D. 0.69
69.) IN SKY WAVE PROPAGATION, WHAT IS THE CRITICAL FREQUENCY OF THE MAXIMUM
NUMBER OF THE FREE ELECTRONS IN A CERTAIN IONOSPHERE LAYER IS 1.5X10^12 PER
CUBIC METER?

A. 10 MHz
B. 11 MHz
C. 12 MHz
D. 13 MHz

70.) IF THE CRITICAL FREQUENCY IS 10 MHZ IN SKY PROPAGATION, WHAT IS THE

BEST FREQUENCY TO USE ASSUMING 30 DEGREES OF RADIATION ANGLE?

A. 17 MHz
B. 18 MHz
C. 19 MHz
D. 20MHz

71.) WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM LINE-OF-SIGHT DISTANCE BETWEEN A PAGING ANTENNA

250 FEET HIGH AND A PAGER RECEIVER 3.5 FEET OF THE GROUND?

A. 25 mi
B. 15 mi
C. 25 ft
D. 15 ft

72.) WHAT POWER MUST A POINT SOURCE OF RADIO WAVES TRANSMIT SO THAT THE
POWER DENSITY AT 3000 METERS FROM THE SOURCE IS 1.3𝝁𝑾/𝒎𝟐.

A. 147 Watts
B. 140 Watts
C. 145 Watts
D. 150 Watts
 Questions from Quiz 7

1. Determine the dynamic range for a 10 bit sign-magnitude PCM code

A. 45 dB C. 70 dB
B. 54 dB* D. 60 dB

2. Determine the Nyquist sample rate for a maximum analog frequency of 4

kHz.
A. 2 kHz C. 4 kHz
B. 8 kHz* D. 16 kHz

3. Determine the SQR for the input signal of 1 Vrms and quantization noise
magnitude of 0.01 V.
A. 60.34 dB C. 36.82 dB
B. 9.48 dB D. 50.8 dB*

4. For the eight-bit compressed code, 11001010, determine the expanded 12-
bit code.
A. 100011010100* C. 110010100010
B. 100111001100 D. 100000110100

5. What is the quantization error if the analog sample voltage is +1.06 and
resolution of 1 V?
A. 0.06 V* C. 1 V
B. 1.06 V D. 2.06 V

6. What is the state of the parity bit using and odd-parity system for the
extended ASCII character M?
A. 0 B. 1* C. 2 D. 3

7. What does an incorrect VRC bit indicate?

A. start of the message
B. a good character
C. a bad character*
D. nothing

8. Adding bits for the purpose of detecting errors is called

A. redundancy checking* C. Hamming
B. ARQ D. CRC

9. A redundancy error detection scheme that uses parity to determine if a

transmission error has occurred within a message and is sometimes called
message parity.
A. VRC B. LRC* C. Checksum D. CRC

10. What do you call the remainder produced in dividing the data block by a
constant that is used for error detection?
A. Vertical redundancy check
B. Odd parity
C. Block check character
D. Cyclic redundancy check*

11. For a PCM system with a maximum analog frequency of 4kHz, determine the
minimum sample rate.
A. 8 kHz* C. 9 KHz
B. 10 KHz D. 11 KHz

12. It is the process of converting an infinite number of possibilities to

a finite number of conditions.
A. Digitization C. Quantization*
B. Aliasing D. Sampling

13. A series of pulses in which the amplitude of each pulse represents the
amplitude of the information signal at a given time.
A. PAM* C. PCM
B. PDM D. PPM

14. It refers to the rate of change of a signal on the transmission medium

after encoding and modulation have occurred.
A. Bit rate C. Baud *
B. Signaling element D. Bit

15. What is the bandwidth required to transmit at a rate of 10 Mbps in the

presence of 28 dB S/N radio?
A. 1.075 MHz * C. 5 MHz
B. 10 MHz D. 10.75 MHz

16. Delta modulation is a/an

A. 5 – bit modulation
B. integral PCM system
C. 1 – bit differential PCM *
D. is a form of PDM

17. Modulation in which no signal is present between pulses

A. QAM C. PSK
B. FSK D. Pulse modulation*

18. For a sample rate of 40 kHz, determine the maximum analog input
frequency.
A. 10 kHz C. 20 kHz *
B. 30 kHz D. 40 kHz

19. For a QPSK for a binary input of 01, determine the output phase?
A. -135 0 C. 45 0
B. 135 0 D. – 45 0 *

20. For an 8 PSK find the output phase with a binary input of 101.
A. 157.5 0 * C. -22.5 0
B. -112.5 0 D. 112.5 0

21. Determine the peak frequency deviation of an FSK with a mark frequency
of 49 kHz, a space frequency of 51 kHz and an input bit rate of 2 kbps.
A. 3 kHz C. 1 kHz *
B. 6 kHz D. 2 kHz

22. Determine the bandwidth efficiency of 64 QAM?

A. 4 bits / cycle C. 3 bits/ cycle
B. 5 bits / cycle D. 6 bits / cycle*

23. It is a system for transmitting logic ones and zeros into voltage or
current levels for transmission.
A. Coding C. Line Coding *
B. Encoding D. Sampling

24. A line code in which the polarity of the voltage or the direction of
the current remains the same.
A. Unipolar * C. Bipolar
B. Return to zero D. Non return to zero

25. In delta modulation, it is an error condition that occurs when the

analog signal to be digitized varies too quickly.
A. Flat top C. Slope overload *
B. granular noise D. none

26. The frequency band normally used to penetrate ocean depths and
therefore used for communicating with submarine.
A. EHF
B. HF
C. MF
D. ELF *

27. The range of the frequency band termed as super high frequency (SHF) is
within
_______.
A. 30 – 300 GHz
B. 30 – 300 MHz
C. 3 – 30 GHz *
D. 300 – 3000 MHz

28. Noise uniformly distributed over the voice frequency band is called
______ noise.
A. impulse C. intermodulation
B. quantizing D. white *

29. A type of noise caused by the random arrival of carriers at the output
element of an active electronic device.
A. transistor noise * C. Brownian noise
B. random noise D. thermal noise

30. It is the measure of the ability of a communications system to produce,

at the output of the receiver, an exact replica of the original source
information.
A. reciprocity C. fidelity *
B. distortion D. sensitivity

31. The value of the resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise
power generated therefore
A. halved C. doubled
B. quadrupled D. unchanged *

32. Which of the following is not used for communication?

A. X-rays * C. Infrared
B. Millimeter waves D. Microwaves

33. It is the distance between two wave fronts having the same phase at any
given instant.
A. wavefront C. wave distance
B. wavelength * D. field intensity

34. What is the standard design reference for environmental noise

temperature in degrees centigrade?
A. 32 C. 290
B. 17 * D. 273

35. Peak phase deviation is also called

A. deviation ratio C. frequency deviation
B. modulation index * D. sensitivity

36. The minimum bandwidth set by Carson’s rule is _______ compared to the
minimum bandwidth set by using a Bessel table.
A. less than * C. equal
B. greater than D. approximately equal

37. Determine the shot noise for a diode with a forward bias of 1.40 mA
over a 80 kHz bandwidth. (q = 1.6 x 10 raised to minus 19 C)
A. 0.005 uA C. 0.006 uA *
B. 0.004 Ua D. 0.007 uA

38. The signal power of an input to an amplifier is 100 uW and the noise
power 1 uW. At the output, the signal power is 1 W and the noise power is
40 mW. What is the amplifier noise figure?
A. 4 dB C. 18 dB
B. 6 dB * D. 25 dB

39. Determine the modulation index of a standard FM broadcast having a

hypothetical maximum carrier frequency deviation of +12 kHz and a maximum
modulating frequency of 4 kHz.
A. 9 C. 3 *
B. 6 D. 4

40. In microwave communications system, determine the noise power in dBm

for an equivalent noise bandwidth of 10 MHz.
A. -104 dBm * C. -244 dBm
B. -164 dBm D. -180 dBm

41. For three cascaded amplifier stages, each with noise figure of 3 dB and
power gains of 10 dB, determine the total noise figure in dB.
A. 2.11 C. 3.24 *
B. 1.67 D. 3.78

42. Determine the power saving in percent when the carrier is suppressed in
an AM signal modulated to 80%.
A. 75.8 %* C. 66.7%
B. 80% D. 100%

43. Find the modulation index if a 10 V carrier is amplitude-modulated by

three different frequencies with amplitudes of 1V, 2V and 3V respectively.
A. 0.356 C. 0.536
B. 0.374 * D. 0.473

44. An amplifier has a noise figure of 2 dB. What is the equivalent noise
temperature?
A. 170 K * C. 230 K
B. 340 K D. 145 K

45. A sine wave of frequency 1 kHz phase modulates a carrier at 123 MHz.
The peak phase deviation is 0.5 rad. Calculate the maximum frequency
deviation.
A. 500 Hz * C. 1500 Hz
B. 1000 Hz D. 2000 Hz

46. An FM signal uses a deviation of 100 kHz and a modulating frequency of

25 kHz. What is the bandwidth predicted by Carson’s rule?
A. 100 kHz C. 250 kHz *
B. 125 kHz D. 500 kHz

47. What is the peak phase deviation for a PM modulator with a deviation
sensitivity of 2 rad/V and a modulating signal of 4V.
A. 8 rad * C. 4 rad
B. 3 rad D. 10 rad
48. The equivalent noise temperature of the amplifier is 25 K. What is the
noise factor?
A. 1.86 C. 1.086 *
B. 0.1086 D. 10.86

49. A PM transmitter produces a maximum phase shift of π/3 rad for a

modulating frequency of 300 Hz What is the maximum frequency deviation of
the system?
A. 123Hz C. 314Hz *
B. 233Hz D. 150Hz

50. Are a form of electromagnetic radiation with wavelengths ranging from

one meter to one millimeter.
A. Infrared Radiation C. Ultraviolet Rays
B. Microwaves * D. Visible Light
 Questions from Quiz 8
1. The most widely used data communication code is
A. Morse
B. ASCII *
C. Baudot
D. EBCDIC

2. Which of the following is not a commonly use method of error detection?

A. Parity
B. BCC
C. CRC
D. Redundancy *

3. Data communication uses

A. Analog methods
B. Digital methods *
C. Either of these
D. Neither of these

4. Which of the following is not a common LAN medium?

A. Twin lead *
B. Twisted pair
C. Fiber optic cable
D. Coax

5. A mainframe computer connected to multiple terminals and PCs usually

uses which configuration?
A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Star *
D. Tree

6. A LAN device that interconnects two or more devices running identical

internetwork protocols
A. Bridges
B. Gateways
C. Switches
D. Routers *

7. A rule of procedure that defines how data is to be transmitted is called

A. Handshake
B. Error-detection
C. Data specifications
D. Protocol *

8. The ASCII code has

A. 4 bits
B. 5 bits
C. 7 bits *
D. 8 bits

9. A form of switching which is hold and forward

A. Packet switching *
B. Message switching
C. Circuit switching
D. Digital switching

10. The most basic digital symbol use to represent information

A. Bit *
B. Baud
C. Bits per second
D. Any of these

11. A signaling element is sometimes called

A. Information
B. Data
C. Symbol *
D. Intelligence

12. For an Ethernet bus that is 500 meters in length, using a cable with a
velocity factor of 0.66, and a communication rate of 10Mbps, calculate the
total number of bits that would be sent by each station before it detects a
collision, if both station begin to transmit at the same time.
A. 29 bits
B. 28 bits
C. 27 bits
D. 26 bits *

13. It provides between countries around the entire globe. The internet is
a good example, as it is essentially a network comprised of other network
that interconnects virtually every in the world.
A. WAN
B. LAN
C. GAN *
D. MAN

14. It refers to a suite of protocols that allows a wide variety of

computers to share the same network.
A. TCP/IP *
B. CISCO
C. Internet
D. Gateway

15. It is a worldwide public network of networks that connects a very wide

variety of computers, applications, and users.
A. World Wide Web
B. Intranet
C. LAN
D. Internet *

16. What software is used to prevent unauthorized access to computers on a

network by computers outside the network?
A. Antivirus
B. Firewall *
C. Anti-hack
D. Password

17. A network topology in which all nodes are connected individually to a

central point.
A. Hub
B. Star *
C. Mesh
D. Bus

18. It is defined as knowledge or intelligence that is communicated between

two or more points.
A. Carrier
B. Sideband
C. Information *
D. Broadband
19. The OSI layer that provides the control functions necessary to
establish manage, and terminate the connection as required to satisfy the
user request.
A. Application layer
B. Network layer
C. Session layer *
D. Physical layer

20. A LAN device that is used to interconnect two networks that use
different protocols and formats.
A. Gateways *
B. Routers
C. Bridges
D. Hubs

21. Which of the following is not common transmission line impedance?

A. 50 ohms
B. 75 ohms
C. 120 ohms *
D. 300 ohms

22. There is an impedance inversion in every

___________.
A. Half-wavelength
B. Quarter wavelength *
C. Full wavelength
D. Three-eights of a wavelength

23. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend

upon its
A. Length *
B. Conductor diameter
C. Conductor spacing
D. None of these

24. To match a transmission line with a reactive load

___________.
A. Use stub matching *
B. Use a slotted line
C. Use a Q-section
D. Use a open circuited lines

25. Using TDR, transmission line impairment is located 3000m from the
source. For a velocity propagation of 0.9c, determine the time elapsed
from the beginning of the pulse to the reception of the echo
A. 11.11 us
B. 10.12 us
C. 22.22 us *
D. 21.14 us

26. Short circuited stubs are preferred to open circuited stub because the
latter
A. More difficult to make and connect
B. Made of transmission line with different characteristic impedance
C. Liable to radiate *
D. Incapable of giving a full range of reactance

27. Which of the following is NOT a color code for Category 5 UTP?
A. Blue/white stripe and blue
B. Orange/white stripe and orange
C. Red/white stripe and red *
D. Brown/white stripe and brown

28. A transmitter delivers 50 watts into a 600ohms lossless line that is

terminated with an antenna that has an impedance of 275 ohms, resistive.
How much power actually reaches the antenna?
A. 18.55 W
B. 43.1 W *
C. 31. 45 W
D. 6.9 W

29. What is the transmission line reflection coefficient if the maximum and
minimum voltage of the standing wave is 5V and 1.5V respectively?
A. 0.67
B. 0.75
C. 0.54 *
D. 0.13

30. A transmission line of unknown impedance is terminated with two

different resistances, and the SWR is measured each time. With a 75 ohms
termination, the SWR measures 1.5, and with a 300 ohms termination, it
measures 2.67. What is the impedance of a line?
A. 50 ohms
B. 46 ohms
C. 112.5 ohms *
D. 800 ohms

31. The desirable SWR on a transmission line is

A. 0
B. 1 *
C. 2
D. Infinity

32. A short circuited half-wavelength line acts like a

A. Parallel resonant circuit
B. Series resonant circuit *
C. Oscillator
D. LC circuit

33. Sound travels approximately

A. 2200 feet per second
B. 1100 feet per second *
C. 550 feet per second
D. 600 feet per second

34. Classification of transmission line were both conductors carry current;

one conductor carries the signal, the other conductor is the return path
A. Differential transmission line *
B. Unbalance lines
C. Coaxial cables
D. Balun

35. Currents that flow in opposite direction in balanced wire pair is

called
A. Longitudinal circuit currents
B. Reverse circuit currents
C. Transverse circuit currents
D. Metallic circuit currents *

36. Type of twisted pair wire cable that consists of two copper wires where
each wire is separately encapsulated in PVC insulation.
A. Shielded Twisted pair
B. Twin lead
C. Unshielded Twisted Pair *
D. Open wire line

37. The minimum number of twist for a UTP is

A. Two twist per foot *
B. Two twist per meter
C. Three twist per foot
D. Three twist per meter

38. An antenna is being feed by a properly terminated two-wire transmission

line. The current in the line at the input end is 3A. The surge impedance
of the line is 500 ohms. How much power is being supplied to the line?
A. 3.1 kW
B. 2.5 kW
C. 1.6 kW
D. 4.5 kW *

39. Category of UTP used for virtually any voice or data transmission rate
up to 16 Mbps, has a minimum of 3 turns per inch.
A. Category 5e
B. Category 4
C. Category 5
D. Category 3 *

40. It is name given to the area between the ceiling and the roof in a
single-story building or between the ceiling and the floor of the next
higher level in
a multistory building.
A. Attic
B. Rooftop
C. Plenum *
D. Ceiling

41. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal transducer?

A. High dynamic range
C. Low linearity*
B. High repeatability
D. Low noise

42. Capacitive transducers are used for

A. Static measurement
B. Dynamic measurement*
C. Transient measurement
D. Both static and dynamic measurement

43. Capacitance increases with ______

A. Increase in plate area*
B. Decrease in plate area
C. Increase in distance between the plates
D. Increase in density of the material

44. Which of the following defines the Negative Temperature Coefficient of

a Thermistor
A. When the temperature increases, resistance
decreases*
B. When the temperature increases, resistance
increases
C. when temperature decreases, resistance
decreases
D. when temperature decreases, resistance stays
the same

45. In a measuring system what is the term used to specify difference

between higher and lower calibration values?
A. Range C. Span*
B. Drift D. Threshold

46. Change in output of sensor with change in input is

________
A. Threshold
B. Slew rate
C. Sensitivity*
D. None of the mentioned

47. Which of the following is correct for proximity

sensors?
A. Inductive type C. Capacitive type
B. Ultrasonic wave type D. All of the mentioned*

48. In inductive proximity sensor, _______

A. The bigger the coil, the smaller the active switching gap
B. There are different switching distances for different metals*
C. Metals and non-metals can be detected
D. Electrostatic field is being emitted

49. Thermocouple works on what principle

A. Seebeck effect*
B. piezoelectric effect
C. change in resistance as its temperature
changes
D. change in current density as its temperature
changes

50. Which of the following is not a feature of a

capacitive proximity sensor?
A. It can detect non-metallic targets
B. It provides low switching rate for rapid response in object counting
applications*
C. It can detect liquid targets through non-metallic barriers
D. It has long operational life with virtually
unlimited number of operating cycles
POST-TEST 1