Meteorology Mock test-1

1. The average height of the tropopause at 50°N is about

a. 11 km
b. 8 km
c. 14 km
d. 16 km

2. What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause?

a. -75°C.
b. -55°C.
c. -35°C.
d. -25°C.

3. On January 3rd at 1800 UTC, the surface temperature, under shelter, is 3°C. The
sky is covered by 8 oktas of stratus. QNH is 1033 hPa. If the sky is covered all
night, the minimum temperature of the night of January 3rd to January 4th should
be
a. slightly below +3°C.
b. significantly below 0°C.
c. slightly above +3°C.
d. significantly above +3°C.

4. A significant inversion at low height is a characteristic of

a. nocturnal radiation
b. the passage of cold front
c. advection fog
d. cumulus clouds

5. The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure
a. reduced to sea level
b. at flight level
c. at height of observatory
d. at a determined density altitude

6. What is the approximate vertical interval which is equal to a pressure change of 1

hPa at an altitude of 5500 m?
a. 15 m (50 FT).
b. 8 m (27 FT).
c. 32 m (105 FT).
d. 64 m (210 FT).

7. An isohypse (contour)
a. indicates the true altitude of a pressure level
b. is the longest slope line of a frontal surface
c. is the limit between two air masses of different temperature
d. indicates the altitude of the zero degree isotherm

8. At FL 180, the air temperature is -35°C.The air density at this level is:
a. Greater than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
b. Less than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
c. Equal to the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
d. Unable to be determined without knowing the QNH.

9. Half the mass of the atmosphere is found in the first

 a. 5 km
b. 3 km
c. 8 km
d. 11 km

10. A 200 hPa pressure altitude level can vary in height. In temperate regions which
of the following average heights is applicable?
a. FL 390.
b. FL 300.
c. FL 100.
d. FL 50.

11. If you are flying at FL 120 and the outside temperature is -2°C, at what altitude
will the ""freezing level"" be?
a. FL 110
b. FL 130
c. FL 150
d. FL 90

12. In what hPa range is an upper weather chart for FL 340 situated?
a. 300 - 200 hPa
b. 400 - 300 hPa
c. 500 - 400 hPa
d. 600 - 500 hPa

13. During a flight over the sea at FL 135, the true altitude is 13500 feet, local QNH is
1019 hPa. What information, if any, can be gained about the air mass in which the
aircraft is flying?
a. It is colder than ISA
b. Its average temperature is the same as ISA
c. It is warmer than ISA
d. There is insufficient information to make any assumption

14. You are planning to fly across a mountain range. The chart recommends a
minimum altitude of 12000 feet above mean sea level. The air mass you will be
flying through is an average 10°C warmer than ISA. Your altimeter is set to 1023
hPa (QNH of a nearby airport at nearly sea level). What altitude will the altimeter
show when you have reached the recommended minimum altitude?
a. 11520 feet
b. 12210 feet
c. 11250 feet
d. 11790 feet

15. Assume that an aircraft is flying in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa
pressure surface on a heading of 270 degrees. Which of the following statements
is correct?
a. If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 360 degrees,
then true altitude is increasing
b. If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 180 degrees, then true
altitude is increasing
c. If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 270 degrees, then true
altitude is increasing
d. If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 090 degrees, then true
altitude is increasing
16. After landing at an aerodrome (aerodrome elevation 1715 FT), the altimeter
indicates an altitude of 1310 FT. The altimeter is set to the pressure value of 1013
hPa. What is the QNH at this aerodrome?
a. 1028 hPa.
b. 1015 hPa.
c. 1013 hPa.
d. 998 hPa.

17. An aircraft is descending to land under IFR. If the local QNH is 1009 hPa, what
will happen to the altitude reading when the altimeter is reset at the transition
level?
a. It will decrease
b. It will increase
c. It will remain the same
d. It will not be affected

18. What pressure is defined as QFE?

a. The pressure at field elevation
b. The pressure of the altimeter
c. The pressure reduced to sea level using actual temperatures
d. The pressure reduced to sea level using ISA temperatures

19. An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. After the second altimeter
has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be approximately
a. 7650 FT.
b. 8600 FT.
c. 8350 FT.
d. 8000 FT.

20. Which of the following statements is true?

a. QNH can be equal to QFE
b. QNH is always lower than QFE
c. QNH is always higher than QFE
d. QNH is always equal to QFE

21. For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa. The approximate
elevation of the airfield is
a. 160 metres
b. 600 metres
c. 540 metres
d. 120 metres

22. Which weather condition lowers true altitude as compared to pressure altitude to
a position where flight over mountains could be dangerous?
a. Cold low.
b. Warm depression.
c. Cold high.
d. Warm high.

23. Which forces are balanced with geostrophic winds?

a. Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force.
b. Friction force, pressure gradient force, Coriolis force.
c. Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force, centrifugal force.
d. Pressure gradient force, centrifugal force, friction force.
24. An aircraft flying in the southern hemisphere at 2000 feet, has to turn to the right
in order to allow for drift. In which direction, relative to the aircraft, is the centre
of low pressure?
a. In front.
b. Behind.
c. To the left.
d. To the right.

25. Geostrophic wind

a. is perpendicular to the horizontal pressure gradient force
b. is directly proportional to the density of the air
c. always increases with increasing height
d. veers with height if cold air is advected in the northern hemisphere

26. The geostrophic wind depends on

a. density, earth's rotation, geographic latitude
b. earth's rotation, geographic latitude, centripetal force
c. geographic latitude, centripetal force, height
d. centripetal force, height, pressure gradient

27. Which of the following is true concerning an aircraft that is flying at FL180 in the
northern hemisphere, where wind is geostrophic and the true altitude remains
constant?
a. There is no cross wind
b. There is a cross wind from the left
c. There is a cross wind from the right
d. Without knowing temperature at FL 180 this question cannot be answered

28. Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the subtropical high-pressure
belt?
a. 25° - 35°.
b. 10° - 15°.
c. 35° - 55°.
d. 55° - 75°.

29. In the central part of the Atlantic Ocean between 10°N and 20°N the prevailing
winds are
a. NE trade winds
b. NE monsoon in winter and SW monsoon in summer
c. SE trade winds
d. SW winds throughout the whole year

30. Friction between the air and the ground results in the northern hemisphere in:
a. backing of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface.
b. veering of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface.
c. backing of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface.
d. veering of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface.

31. If a place reports a wind of 19015KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you
expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground?
a. 22030KT
b. 16020KT
c. 25025KT
d. 22010KT

32. During a descent from 2000 FT above the surface to the surface (no frontal
passage) the wind normally
 a. backs and decreases
b. veers and increases
c. backs and increases
d. veers and decreases

33. In a land- and sea-breeze circulation the land-breeze blows :

a. during the night and is weaker than the sea-breeze.
b. during the day and is stronger than the sea-breeze.
c. during the day and is weaker than the sea-breeze.
d. during the night and is stronger than the sea-breeze.

34. An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is
parallel to the coast. When downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the right.
What wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a
sunny afternoon?
a. Crosswind from the right
b. Crosswind from the left
c. Tailwind
d. Headwind

35. Where, as a general rule, is the core of the polar front jet stream to be found?
a. In the warm air mass.
b. In the cold air mass.
c. Just above the warm-air tropopause.
d. Just below the cold-air tropopause.

36. While crossing a jet stream at right angles in (3000 FT below its core) and OAT is
decreasing, what would be the prevailing wind?
a. Crosswind from the left
b. Crosswind from the right
c. A headwind.
d. A tailwind.

37. What name is given to the jet stream lying over North Africa?
a. Sub-tropical jet stream
b. Equatorial jet stream
c. Polar front jet stream
d. Arctic jet stream

38. What is the average height of the arctic jet stream core?
a. 20000 FT.
b. 30000 FT.
c. 40000 FT.
d. 50000 FT.

39. In the month of August you prepare a flight (cruising level FL 370) from Bombay
(19°N - 73°E) to Bangkok (13°N - 100°E). What wind conditions can you expect?
a. Headwinds.
b. Light winds diagonal to the route.
c. Tailwinds.
d. Strong northerly winds.

40. During the winter months in mid-latitudes in the northern hemisphere, the polar
front jet stream moves toward the
a. south and speed increases
b. north and speed decreases
c. south and speed decreases
 d. north and speed increases

41. At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely to
be encountered is
a. altocumulus lenticularis.
b. cirrostratus.
c. cirrus.
d. cumulus mediocris.

42. The difference between temperature and dew point is greater in

a. dry air
b. moist air
c. air with high temperature
d. air with low temperature

43. The process by which water vapour is transformed directly into ice is known as
a. sublimation
b. supercooling
c. supersaturation
d. radiation cooling

44. During an adiabatic process heat is

a. neither added nor lost
b. added
c. lost
d. added but the result is an overall loss

45. If in a 100 m thick layer the temperature at the bottom of the layer is 10°C and at
the top of the layer is 8°C then this layer is
a. absolutely unstable
b. absolutely stable
c. conditionally unstable
d. neutral

46. The stability in a layer is increasing if

a. warm air is advected in the upper part and cold air in the lower part
b. warm air is advected in the lower part and cold air in the upper part
c. warm and moist air is advected in the lower part
d. cold and dry air is advected in the upper part

47. What flying conditions may be encountered when flying in cirrus clouds?
a. Average horizontal visibility more than 1000 m, nil icing.
b. Average horizontal visibility less than 500 m, nil icing.
c. Average horizontal visibility less than 500 m, light to moderate icing.
d. Average horizontal visibility more than 1000 m, light to moderate rime ice.

48. Under which of these conditions is radiation fog most likely to form?
a. Little or no cloud
b. Very dry air
c. Strong surface winds
d. Very low temperatures

49. Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of steam
fog (arctic smoke)?
a. Cold air moving over warm water
b. Warm air moving over cold water
c. The sea is warmed by strong radiation from the sun
 d. The coastal region of the sea cools at night

50. Frontal fog is most likely to occur

a. in advance of a warm front
b. in rear of a warm front
c. in summer in the early morning
d. in winter in the early morning

51. Precipitation in the form of showers occurs mainly from

a. convective clouds
b. stratified clouds
c. cirro-type clouds
d. clouds containing only ice crystals

52. The approximate inclined plane of a warm front is:

a. 1/150
b. 1/50
c. 1/300
d. 1/500

53. If you have to fly through a warm front when freezing level is at 10000 feet in the
warm air and at 2000 feet in the cold air, at which altitude is the probability of
freezing rain the lowest ?
a. 12000 feet
b. 9000 feet
c. 5000 feet
d. 3000 feet

54. What is the surface visibility most likely to be, in a warm sector of tropical
maritime air, during the summer?
a. Moderate (several km).
b. Very poor (less than 1 km).
c. Good (greater than 10 km).
d. Very good (greater than 50 km).

55. Which of the following describes a warm occlusion?

a. The coldest air mass is ahead of the original warm front
b. The air mass behind the front is more unstable than the air mass ahead of the front
c. The air mass ahead of the front is drier than the air mass behind the front
d. The warmer air mass is ahead of the original warm front

56. When do cold occlusions occur most frequently in Europe?

a. Summer
b. Winter
c. Autumn and winter
d. Winter and spring

57. In temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be expected over land during
the summer in the centre of a stationary high pressure zone?
a. Calm winds, haze.
b. TS, SH.
c. CB, TS.
d. NS.

58. Which is true of a typical non frontal thermal depression?

a. It forms over land in summer
b. It forms over the ocean in summer
c. It forms over the ocean in winter
d. It forms over land in winter

59. Which wind systems converge on the ITCZ, when it lies at the equator?
a. SE trade winds and NE trade winds
b. SW monsoon and NW monsoon
c. SW monsoon and NW trade winds
d. NW monsoon and SW trade winds

60. What weather is prevalent in the zone of easterly waves?

a. Thunderstorms and rain.
b. Continuous rain.
c. Clear skies.
d. Frontal weather.

61. The degree of clear air turbulence experiencied by an aircraft is proportional to

the
a. intensity of vertical and horizontal windshear
b. height of the aircraft
c. stability of the air
d. intensity of the solar radiation

62. What is the effect of a strong low level inversion?

a. It promotes vertical windshear.
b. It promotes extensive vertical movement of air.
c. It prevents vertical windshear.
d. It results in good visual conditions.

63. What weather condition would you expect at a squall line?

a. Thunderstorms
b. Strong steady rain
c. Fog
d. Strong whirlwinds reaching up to higher levels

64. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized

predominantly by downdrafts?
a. Dissipating stage
b. Cumulus stage
c. Mature stage
d. Anvil stage

65. In which of the following areas is the highest frequency of thunderstorms

encountered?
a. Tropical
b. Polar
c. Subtropical
d. Temperate

66. The diameter and the life time of a typical microburst are in the order of
a. 4 km and 1-5 minutes
b. 4 km and 30-40 minutes
c. 8 km and 5-15 minutes
d. 12 km and 5-10 minutes

67. Which thunderstorms move forward the fastest?

a. Frontal thunderstorms.
b. Thunderstorms formed by lifting processes.
 c. Thermal thunderstorms.
d. Orographic thunderstorms.

68. Hoar frost is most likely to form when

a. taking off from an airfield with a significant ground inversion.
b. flying inside convective clouds.
c. flying inside stratiform clouds.
d. flying in supercooled drizzle.

69. In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest rate
of accretion?
a. Freezing rain.
b. Cirrus clouds.
c. Stratus clouds.
d. Snow.

70. What winds are mainly associated with the winter monsoon in the monsoon
regions of the Indian sub-continent ?
a. Northeasterly winds bringing dry and hazy air.
b. Southwesterly winds carrying warm and humid air.
c. Northwesterly winds bringing dry and hazy air.
d. Southeasterly winds carrying warm and humid air.

71. A trough of low pressure on a surface synoptic chart is an area of

a. convergence and widespread ascent
b. divergence and subsidence
c. divergence and widespread ascent
d. convergence and subsidence

72. What is the most likely cause of a lack of clouds at higher levels in a stationary
high?
a. Sinking air
b. Rising air
c. Instability
d. Divergence at higher levels

73. Steady precipitation, in contrast to showery precipitation falls from

a. stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence
b. convective clouds with little or no turbulence
c. stratiform clouds with severe turbulence
d. convective clouds with moderate turbulence

74. Freezing fog consists of

a. supercooled water droplets
b. frozen water droplets
c. frozen minute snow flakes
d. ice crystals

75. What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog?

a. 500 FT.
b. 2 000 FT.
c. 5 000 FT.
d. 10 000 FT.
76. Fall streaks or virga are
a. water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before
reaching the ground
b. strong downdraughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaks
c. gusts associated with a well developed Bora
d. strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy
precipitation

77. The rate of decrease of temperature with height per 100 m in the International
Standard Atmosphere is :
a. 0.65°C
b. 1°C
c. 0.5°C
d. Variable

78. In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known?
a. Elevation of the airfield.
b. Temperature at the airfield.
c. Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL.
d. Elevation and the temperature at the airfield.

79. The barometric compensator of an altimeter is locked on reference 1013.2 hPa.

The aircraft has to land on a point with an elevation of 290 feet where the QNH is
1023 hPa. Assuming that 1 hPa corresponds to 27 FT, the reading on the altimeter
on the ground will be:
a. 20 FT.
b. 11 FT.
c. -10 FT.
d. 560 FT.

80. In the southern hemisphere what wind effect would you expect when flying from
a high pressure area towards a low pressure area at FL 100?
a. Wind from the right.
b. Wind from the left.
c. Tailwind with no drift.
d. Headwind with no drift.