AAP 7 AERODYNAMICS FINAL EXAM

1. The international lapse rate for temperature in the atmospheric region known as
the troposphere is:
a. 1.98ºC per 500 ft
b. 1.98ºC per 1000 ft
c. 2.20ºC per 1000 ft

2. The composition of air in the atmosphere is approximately:

a. 78% oxygen, 21% nitrogen, 1% other gases
b. 21% oxygen, 78% carbon dioxide, 1% other gases
c. 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 1% other gases

3. Which of the following is correct?

a. Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure
b. Absolute pressure + Atmospheric pressure = Gauge pressure
c. Atmospheric pressure = Absolute pressure + Gauge pressure

4. Density of air increases as altitude

a. Stays the same
b. Increases
c. Decreases

5. Increase of moisture in the air has the effect of:

a. reducing the density
b. increasing the density
c. reducing the pressure

6. With reference to altimeters, QFE is:

a. setting aerodrome atmospheric pressure so that an altimeter reads zero on
landing
b. setting aerodrome atmospheric pressure so that an altimeter reads
zero on landing and take off
c. setting aerodrome atmospheric pressure so that an altimeter reads sea level
on landing and take off

7. Bernoulli’s Theorem states that at any point in a flow of a gas:

a. The static pressure is less than the dynamic pressure
b. The static pressure and dynamic pressure are equal
c. The total energy remains constant
8. The pressure of air as it passes the throat of a venturi tube
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains the same

9. A pitot-static tube will measure:

a. The static pressure only
b. The dynamic pressure only
c. The static plus dynamic pressure

10. A flow is described as uniform if:

a. the velocity at any given instant is the same in magnitude and
direction at every point in the fluid
b. the velocity at any given instant is different in magnitude and direction
c. the velocity at any given instant is the same in magnitude but different in
direction

11. Behind anybody moving in air is a system of eddies which moves at a lower
speed than the main stream. This is known as:
a. Downwash
b. Wake
c. Trailing edge effect

12. The layer of air over the surface of an aerofoil which is moving at a velocity less
than free stream air is known as:
a. stagnation layer
b. turbulent layer
c. boundary layer

13. The mean camber line of an aerofoil is:

a. a line, each point of which is equidistant from the upper and lower
surfaces of an aerofoil section
b. a straight line drawn through the centres of curvature at the leading and
trailing edges of an aerofoil section
c. a straight line tangential to the top surface at the leading edge

14. The angle of attack of an aerofoil is the angle that the:

a. chord line makes with the longitudinal axis
b. chord line makes with the relative airflow
c. airframe makes with the horizontal when the aircraft is in a rigging position
15. The angle of incidence is the angle between the:
a. Mean camber line and the chord line
b. Chord line and the relative airflow
c. Chord line and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft

16. Increasing the incidence angle towards the wing tip is known as:
a. Wash out
b. Wash in
c. Wing dihedral

17. The dihedral angle is the angle between the:

a. wing plane and the lateral axis
b. wing plane and the longitudinal axis
c. leading edge and the lateral axis

18. The induced drag of an aircraft is the drag due to:

a. lift being produced
b. surface roughness
c. the size of the frontal area

19. The purpose of ‘streamlining’ is to reduce:

a. Skin friction drag
b. Induced drag
c. Form drag

20. Interference drag can be reduced by the use of:

a. fairings at junctions between fuselage and wings
b. streamlining
c. high aspect ratio wings

21. Minimum total drag of an aircraft occurs:

a. at the stalling speed
b. when induced drag is least
c. when profile drag equals induced drag

22. With increase in passengers and cargo Vmd will occur at:
a. higher speed
b. same speed
c. lower speed
23. The centre of pressure is:
a. the point on the chord line through which the total resultant lift
force on the aerofoil may be said to act
b. the point of maximum pressure on the under surface of a wing
c. the point at which the four forces acting on an aircraft are said to act

24. For a high cambered wing section, the zero lift angle of attack will be:
a. negative
b. positive
c. zero

25. Which of the following forces act on an aircraft in level flight?

a. lift, thrust, and weight
b. lift, drag, thrust
c. lift, thrust, weight, and drag

26. An aircraft in straight and level flight is subject to:

a. A load factor of unity
b. A load factor of two
c. Zero load factor

27. If the weight of an aircraft is increased, its glide range will:

a. be the same
b. be increased
c. be reduced

28. An aircraft can climb at a particular speed when:

a. power available from the engine is less than power required
b. power available from the engine is greater than power required
c. power available from the engine is equal to power required

29. The power required in a horizontal turn:

a. is greater than that for level flight at the same airspeed
b. must be the same as that for level flight at the same airspeed
c. is less than that for level flight at the same airspeed

30. Wing loading means the ratio of:

a. The weight of the aerofoil and the wing area
b. The lift and the aircraft weight
c. The total weight of the aircraft and the wing area
31. The take-off ground run is defined as:
a. The distance travelled from the position of rest to the point where
the aircraft first leaves the ground and becomes fully airborne
b. The horizontal distance from position of rest to the point at which no part of
the aircraft is less than 10.7m above the ground
c. The distance travelled from rest to the point where the aircraft achieves the
speed V1 up

32. The weather cock effect on an aircraft executing a take-off performance is

caused by a:
a. cross wind
b. tail wind
c. head wind

33. Stability of an aircraft is:

a. the tendency of the aircraft to stall at low airspeed
b. the ability of the aircraft to rotate about an axis
c. the tendency of the aircraft to automatically return to its original
trimmed position after having been displaced

34. The three axes concerned with stability of an aircraft have:

a. longitudinal axis nose to tail, lateral axis at furthest span point, normal axis
through centre of pressure
b. normal axis through C of G, lateral axis – wing tip to wing tip, longitudinal
axis – nose to tail but not through C of G
c. longitudinal, lateral and normal axis all passing through aircraft
centre of gravity

35. Movement of an aircraft about its normal axis is:

a. Pitching
b. Yawing
c. Rolling

36. Pitching is the movement of the aircraft about:

a. The normal axis
b. The lateral axis
c. The longitudinal axis

37. After an aircraft has been disturbed from its straight and level flight, it returns to
its original attitude with a small amount of decreasing oscillation. The aircraft is:
a. statically unstable but dynamically stable
b. statically stable but dynamically unstable
c. statically stable and dynamically stable
38. An aircraft which is stable about its axis of roll is said to possess:
a. Longitudinal stability
b. Lateral stability
c. Directional stability

39. Lateral stability is reduced by increasing:

a. Anhedral
b. Dihedral
c. Sweepback

40. The phenomenon exhibited by sweptback wing airplanes in response to a

disturbance from equilibrium in a combined rolling yawing oscillation in which the
rolling motion is phased to precede the yawing motion is known as:
a. Dutch roll
b. Adverse yaw
c. Spiral instability

41. The rotational slip stream from the propeller:

a. will have no effect on the vertical stabilizer due to its symmetrical section
b. may cause a yawing moment by giving the vertical stabilizer an
angle of attack
c. will only produce a force on the vertical stabilizer when the aircraft is
stationary

42. For the vast majority of aircraft, control in three axes of rotation is achieved by
three distinct movable surfaces which are:
a. Elevators for pitch control, ailerons for roll control and rudder for
yaw control
b. Fin for roll control, rudder for yaw control and elevators for pitch control
c. Elevators for roll control, ailerons for yaw control and trim tab pitch control

43. The tendency of the nose of an airplane to start to travel in the direction
opposite to that desired at the beginning of a turn is called:
a. Aerodynamic Drift
b. Side Slip
c. Adverse Yaw

44. Adverse yaw when rolling about the longitudinal axis may be prevented by use
of:
a. Increased dihedral
b. A smaller fin
c. Differential ailerons
45. In a Frise Aileron control system:
a. The up-going aileron moves through a greater angle than the down-going
aileron
b. The up-going aileron produces increased drag
c. The down-going aileron leading edge protrudes into the airflow

46. A movable tail surface which combines the functions of a rudder and elevator is
called:
a. Empennage
b. Ruddervator
c. Stabilator

47. An anti-balance (anti-servo) tab is designed to:

a. provide a force to move the main control surface to relieve control column
effort
b. provide “feel”, increasing the pilot’s awareness of the loads imposed
by control surface deployment
c. position the control surface in the streamed position in flight after balance tab
deployment

48. The purpose of a spring tab is to:

a. provide a reduction in the pilot’s effort to move the controls against
high air loads
b. provide a constant spring tension to a trim tab system
c. provide “feel” feedback in a control system

49. Krueger flaps are fitted to the:

a. leading edge on top of the wing
b. leading edge on the bottom of the wing
c. trailing edge on the bottom of the wing

50. A Fowler Flap will increase:

a. wing area only
b. camber only
c. wing area and camber

51. Why does the speed of sound change with altitude?

a. because the density changes with altitude
b. because the pressure changes with altitude
c. because the temperature changes with altitude
52. If an aircraft is travelling at Mach 3 when the speed is 324 ms-1, the local speed
of sound will be:
a. 975 ms-1
b. 108 ms-1
c. 650 ms-1

53. Transonic airspeeds are considered to be from:

a. Mach 0.5 to 0.75
b. Mach 0.75 to 1.2
c. Mach 0.75 to 2.0

54. The formation of shock wave on a wing causes:

a. loss of lift and increased drag
b. loss of lift and reduced drag
c. increased lift and drag

55. Mcrit is the speed at which:

a. A shock wave forms on the wings
b. The aircraft is considered to be fully supersonic
c. A shock wave forms at the nose of the aircraft

56. ‘Tuck under’ occurs when:

a. the aircraft reaches Mcrit
b. a shock stall warning occurs on the inboard position of a straight wing
c. a shock stall occurs on the outboard portion of the swept wing

57. The primary purpose of a propeller is to:

a. create lift on the fixed aerofoils at take-off
b. build up enough slipstream to support the aerofoil
c. change engine Horsepower to thrust

58. Propeller blade station numbers increases from:

a. hub to tip
b. tip to hub
c. leading edge to aft edge

59. The actual distance a propeller moves forward through the air during one
revolution is known as the:
a. Effective pitch
b. Geometric pitch
c. True pitch
 60. Propeller blade angle is the angle between the:
a. chord of the blade and the relative wind
b. chord of the blade section and the plane of rotation of the propeller
c. relative wind and the plane of rotation of the propeller

ESSAY
1. The TB-9 aircraft has a wing surface area of 20m2, a weight of 20,000N and a
lift/drag ratio of 25

(a) What is the drag coefficient when the aircraft speed is 400km/h in a straight,
steady and level flight at an altitude of 2km?

(b) What will be the angle of inclination if the engine power is put off?
(Assume at an altitude of 2km, pressure is 79.5KN/m2, relative density is 0.822, density
is 1.007kg/m3 and speed of sound is 332m/s) (20 marks)

2 (a) List the five (5) forces acting on an aircraft propeller (5 marks)

(b) List five (5) ways of overcoming heat problems in a high speed aircraft
(5 marks)

(c) List the three (3) main factors that influence longitudinal stability (3 marks)

(d) List the three (3) primary control surfaces and the axis each controls (3 marks)

(e) List two (2) methods of avoiding Adverse yaw effect (2 marks)

(f) List the two (2) forms of drag (2 marks)