SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR ELITE, AIIMS S60 & NEET MPL DATE: 06-04-2022
Sub: BOTANY NEET GRAND TEST - 8 Max.Marks: 720
Guidelines:
In every subject:
a) In Section-A, 35 Questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from Section-A
b) In Section-B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which answer 10 questions

BOTANY (1) Strawberry

SECTION – A (2) Pineapple
1. Which of the following groups, act as (3) Mint
decomposers of litter and useful in
(4) Potato
mineral cycle
5. Haem is the prosthetic group of
(1) Diatoms
(1) Carboxylase
(2) Euglenoids
(3) Sporozoans (2) Urease
(4) Deuteromycetes (3) Catalase
2. Which one of the following is a correct (4) Alcohol dehydrogenase
match? 6. Which one of the following is darker and
(1) Colonial algae – Volvox has a higher density?
(2) Air bladders – Polysiphonia (1) Early wood
(3) Oogamous – Udorina (2) Late wood
(4) Chlorophyll-a, d – Brown alga (3) Sap wood
3. Statement-I: The liverworts have an (4) Wood parenchyma
elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal
7. Which of the following plasma membrane
Statement-II: Thalloid, multicellular free extensions of prokaryotes involved in cell
living and mostly photosynthetic wall formation, DNA replication,
gametophytes are produced by Cedrus respiration etc?
and Pinus
(1) Mesosomes
(1) Statement-I and II are correct
(2) Chromatophores
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement
II is incorrect (3) Fimbriae
(3) Statament-I is incorrect but (4) Flagella
statement-II is correct 8. Which of the following is the scar on seed
(4) Statement I and II are incorrect coat.
4. In which one of the following the lateral (1) Testa
branches originate from under ground (2) Hilum
portion of the stem, and come out (3) Raphae
obliquely upwards giving rise to leafy (4) Microphyle
shoot?
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9. Identify the figure given below

This stage belongs to

(1) Prophase I
(2) Metaphase I
(3) Anaphase I
(4) Telo phase I
(1) A-Carboxylation,
Carboxylation, B-
B Fixation into
10. Statement I: Substances with hydrophilic
C4 acid, C- Decarboxylation
moiety easily ly pass through the plasma
membrane (2) A- Decarboxylation, B-
Statementt II: The movement of Regeneration, C- Fixation by calvin cycle
substances showing hydrophilic moiety (3) A- Decarboxylation, B B- Fixation by
need not be facilitated calvin cycle, C- Regeneration
(1) Statement-II and II are correct (4) A- Regeneration,, B- B Fixation by
(2) Statement-II is correct but statement
state calvin cycle, C- Carboxylation
II is incorrect 13. Genotypic ratio of the phenotype of 9/16
(3) Statament-II is incorrect but in dihybrid hybridization
statement-II is correct (1) 1 : 2 : 1 : 3
(4) Statement I and II are incorrect (2) 1 : 2 : 2 : 4
11. How many of the following statements (3) 2 : 2 : 1 : 4
are correct? (4) 3 : 2 : 3 : 1
A) Unloading of mineral ions occurs at 14. Deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase,
hydroxyla
the fine vein endings through active leads to
process (1) Phenyluria
B) Xylem vessels and tracheids are (2) Cystic fibrosis
parts of the apoplast (3) Alkeptonurea
C) Turgor pressure is responsible for (4) Phenyl ketonuria
enlargement
largement and extension growth of 15. Which of the following is restriction
cells endonuclease
(1) PBR322
D) Zn 2+ is an activator of pyruvic
pyr
(2) Cosmid
oxidase
(3) ECoRI
(1) A and B are incorrect
(4) Ligase
(2) C and D are correct
16. P1542 is a cultivated variety of
(3) B, C and D are incorrect
(1) Mung bean
(4) B and C are correct
(2) Soya bean
12. Study the Hatch and Slack pathway and
(3) Sweet pea
identify A, B and C
(4) Garden pea
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17. Match the following 22. Statement-I: During stomatal opening
Column-I Column-II there is relative change in T.P of guard
A) Cuticle I. Guard cells cells and subsidary cells.
B) Bulliform cells II. Single layer Statement-II: OP of guard cells is lowest
C) Stomata III. Waxy layer during opening of stomata
D) Epidermis IV. Empty (1) Statement-I and II are correct
colourless cells (2) Statement-I is correct but statement
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II II is in correct
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (3) Statament-I is incorrect but
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV statement-II is correct
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (4) Statement I and II are incorrect
18. How many of the following belongs to 23. Which of the following is an initiation
the family Fabaceae? codon.
Petunia, Tulip, Trifolium, Muliathi, (1) UAG
Atropa, Arhar, Withania, Sem, Lupin
(2) AUG
(1) 6
(3) AGU
(2) 5
(4) GGU
(3) 8
24. Statement-I: Bacteria as a group shows
(4) 7
extensive metabolic diversity
19. The bond between 1st carbon of the Statement-II: Vast majority of bacteria
pentose sugar and 1st or 9th N-of nitrogen
are autotrophs
bases in the structure of a nucleoside is
(1) Glycosidic bond (1) Statement-I and II are correct
(2) Peptide bond (2) Statement-I is correct but statement
(3) H-bond II is in correct
(4) Ester bond (3) Statament-I is incorrect but
20. In which one of the following members, statement-II is correct
the flowers are usually tetramerous, (4) Statement I and II are incorrect
stamens are tetradynamous and ovules on 25. Agarose gel electrophoresis is employed
parietal placentation? to check
(1) Fabaceae (1) The process of ligation of desired
(2) Solanaceae gene fragment with the vector
(3) Liliaceae (2) The progress of restriction enzyme
(4) Brassicaceae digestion of DNA molecule
21. In the alcohol fermentation, starting from (3) Amplification of gene of Interest
glycolysis (4) The progress of identification of
(1) Triose phosphate is the electron desired DNA fragment by southern
donor and acetaldehyde is the electron blotting
acceptor 26. In which one of the following, the style is
(2) Triose phosphate is the electron absent, but ovary is multicarpellary
donor while pyruvic acid is the electron syncarpous
acceptor (1) Michelia
(3) There in no electron donor or (2) Strawberry
acceptor (3) Papaver
(4) Oxygen is the electron acceptor (4) Mango
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27. In which of the following the male and (1) Rice
female gametophytes do not have an (2) Wheat
independent free-living existance? (3) Jowar
(1) Bryophytes (4) Bajra
(2) Bryophytes and pteridophytes 33. Identify the incorrect match of the
(3) Both gymnosperms and following
Angiosperms (1) Cyclosporin A– Immuno suppressive
(4) Algal and fungal members agent
(2) Pusa sawani of Bhindi – Resitant to
28. In Mendel’s dihybrid cross, 1280 progeny
shoot and fruit borer
of daughter plants are produced in F2
(3) Parbhanikranti – Resistant to
generation, then how many of them are
Bacterial blight
recombinants?
(4) Garden pea – P1542- Hybrid pea
(1) 360
variety
(2) 480
34. Thousands of daughter plants produced
(3) 720 by micropropagation, are genetically
(4) 240 identical and are called
29. Match the following (1) Mutants
Column-I Column-II (2) Recombinant
a) Diptera i) Homosapiens (3) Explants
b) Primata ii) Cat and Dog (4) Somaclones
c) Poales iii) Musca 35. How many of the following statements
d) Carnivora iv) Triticum are correct?
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv A) In India, agriculture accounts for 62
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv percent in the total GDP
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii B) Sonalika and Kalyan Sona are high
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i yielding Rice varieties
30. Which one of the following involved in C) Semi-dwarf rice varieties were
the production of large amount of CO2 to derived from IR-8 and Taichung native-1
from large holes in swiss cheese? D) A Okra variety called Pusa sawani
(1) Cornybacterium shows resistance to shoot and Fruit borer
(2) Acetobacter (1) A and B correct
(3) Thermoacetobacter (2) B and C correct
(4) Propionibacterium (3) C and D correct
31. Which one of the following cow pea (4) B, C, D are in correct
varieties shows resistance to Bacterial SECTION – B
blight? 36. Bt toxin which is coded by “cryIAb”
(1) Pusa swarnim control…
(2) Pusa komal (1) Tobacco bud worm
(3) Pusa shubhra (2) Corn borer
(4) Pusa sadabahar (3) Coleopterans
32. The richest crop diversity in India is (4) Cotton boll worm
shown by
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37. Which of the following statements is (2) B, C, D and E
correct? (3) B and D only
(1) The repressor in the ‘lac operon’ is (4) B, D and E
activated by allolactose 42. During the process of transcription in
(2) The switching on and off of “lac eukaryotic cells, RNA polymerase III is
operon” is by corepressor responsible for the formation of
(3) UTR required for efficient (1) hn RNA molecules
translation process (2) rRNAs- 28S, 18S, 5.8S
(4) The unequivocal proof that DNA is (3) tRNA, 5S rRNA, and snRNA
the genetic material came from the (4) only snRNA
experiment of M. Nirenberg et,al. 43. Cell walls of ‘Algal’ members made up
38. During ETS of aerobic respiration UQ- of
Cycle operates between (1) Cellulose, hemicelluloses and pectin
(1) Complex I and Complex IV; (2) Chitin and polysacchanides
Complex II and III (3) Cellulose, carragin and algin only
(2) Complex I and Complex III; (4) Cellulose, galactans, mannans and
Complex II and IV calcium carbonate
(3) Complex I and Complex III; 44. Which one of the following is an
Complex II and III incorrect statements
4) Complex III and IV only (1) Mendel selected 14 true breeding
39. Which one of the following does not pea plant varieties for his experiments
occur naturally in plants (2) The most common limiting factor for
(1) Adenine photosynthesis is CO2
(2) Adenosine (3) Guttation occurs not only through
(3) Kinetins hydathodes, but also lenticels
(4) Zeatin (4) Succinic dehydrogenase of complex
40. In the process of Genetic engineering to II not only involved in FAD reduction but
make finished product for marketing. also in the oxidation of FADH2
Which of the following vary form product 45. Find out the correct statement of the
to product? following
(1) Down stream processing (1) During ethyl alcohol fermentation
(2) Quality control testing pyruvic acid is the terminal acceptor of
(3) Type of bioreactor hydrogen
(4) Both 1 and 2 (2) An F1 garden pea plant with AA Bb
41. Which of the following events are taking CC genotype, when self pollinated, its F2
place during diakinesis? phenotypic ratio is 3 : 1
A) Crossing over (3) A very significant contribution of
B) Terminalization of chiasmata mitosis is vegetative reproduction
C) Recombinase activity (4) Manganese is the activator for the
D) Full condensation of chromosomes enzyme catalase, which act up on H2O2
E) Centriole duplication
(1) A, C, E
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46. Which one of the following prevents (4) 6
precocious reproductive development late ZOOLOGY
in the growing season? SECTION – A
(1) Photoperiodism 51. Identify correct set of pseudocoelomates
(2) Vernalisation from the following
(3) 2, 4 –D (1) Planaria, Taenia, Schistosoma
(4) Ethephon (2) Nereis, Pheretima, Bombyx
47. Chemiosmosis does not require one of (3) Ascaris, Enterobius, Ancylostoma
the following, directly? (4) Adamsia, Sycon, Anopheles
(1) Plasmamembrane 52. Cells containing stinging capsules are
(2) Ferredoxin and FNR present in this animal
(3) A proton pump and proton gradient (1) Pleurobrachia
(4) CF0-CF1 complex (2) Pila
48. Identify the correct match of the (3) Planaria
following (4) Pennatula
(1) Lady bird and Dragon flies – Attack 53. Match the following and choose the
aphids and mosquitoes correct option
(2) ‘rop’ – codes for a protein used as a Column –I Column –II
selectable marker a) Osteichthyes I. Lancelet
(3) Nucleopolyhedrovirus – Broad b) Cyclostomata II. Toad
spectrum insecticidal application c) Amphibia III. Hagfish
(4) ampR – ampicillin producing gene d) Cephalochordata IV. Flying fish
49. Which of the following statements is (1) a-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV
incorrect? (2) a-IV,b-III,c-II,d-I
(1) Size of vascular bundles are (3) a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV
depending on the size of the veins in a (4) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
dorsiventral leaf 54. In human body ciliated epithelium is
(2) In a monocotyledonous leaf associated with
anatomy, nearly similar sizes of V.B’s are (1) Pancreas
present in all veins including main vein (2) Liver
(3) Phellogen, phellem and phelloderm (3) Fallopian tube
are collectively called as periderm (4) Testis
(4) Conjoint V.B are common in stems 55. Choose the incorrect statement regarding
and leaves frog
50. How many of the following are related to (1) During aestivation and hibernation
Chinarose? skin acts as respiratory organ
Opposite phyllotaxy, Hypogynous flower, (2) Simple eyes are large spherical
Twisted aestivation; Parietal Placentation, structures located in the orbit
Zygomorphic flower; Monoadelphous (3) Male urethra can carry both urine and
stamens, Simple leaves sperm cells
(1) 3 (4) Medulla oblongata passes through
(2) 4 foramen magnum and continues into
(3) 5 spinal cord
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56. Which of the following numbers correctly (2) Relaxation of external intercostals
match the total number of molars, and phrenic muscles
incisors, premolars and canines (3) Relaxation of abdominal muscles
respectively in a 30 year old person? (4) Contraction of external and internal
(1) 8, 4, 12, 8 intercostals muscles
(2) 12, 8, 8, 4 59. Volume of air that will remain in the
(3) 4, 8, 8, 12 lungs after normal expiration is equal to
(4) 8, 4, 8, 12 (1) IRV+RV
57. Identify correct statements from the (2) TV+ERV
following (3) ERV+RV
a) Hepatic lobules are covered by a thin (4) IRV+RV
connective tissue sheath called the 60. Which of the following statements is
Bowman’s capsule in liver incorrect?
b) Trypsinogen is activated by an (1) AB blood group is universal recipient
enzyme, enterokinase secreted by (2) A person of ‘A’ blood group can’t
intestinal mucosa donate blood to a person of ‘B’ blood
c) In constipation, the faeces are group
retained with in the rectum as the bowel (3) A person of ‘O’ blood group has anti
movements occur irregularly ‘A’ and ‘B’ antibodies in his blood
d) The activities of the gastro intestinal plasma
tract are under neural and hormonal (4) Blood group is designated on the basis
control for proper coordination of of the presence of antibodies in blood
different parts plasma
(1) a and c 61. Match the terms given under column-I
(2) b and d with their functions given under column-
(3) b and c II and select the answer from the options
(4) All are correct given below
58. The movement of air observed in the Column-I Column-II
following diagram is caused by the A. Lymphocytes p. To drain back the
tissue fluid to
circulatory system
B. Thrombocytes q. Immune response
C. Lymphatic system r. Coagulation of
blood
D. Pulmonary artery s. Carries
deoxygenated blood
(1) A-r, B-q, C-p, D-s
(2) A-q, B-r, C-p, D-s
(1) Contraction of external intercostal (3) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s
and phrenic muscles (4) A-q, B-r, C-s, D-p
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62. Which one of the following statements is (1) The neurons of the olfactory
incorrect? epithelium extend from the outside
(1) Cartilaginous fishes, mammals and environment directly into olfactory bulbs
frogs are ureotelic which are extensions of the brain’s
(2) Aquatic amphibians, bony fishes and limbic system
aquatic insects are ammonotelic (2) Thalamus is a major coordinating
(3) Birds, insects and land snails are centre for sensory and motor-signaling
uricotelic (3) Impulse transmission across an
(4) Reptiles, birds and insects are electrical synapse is always faster than a
ureotelic chemical synapse
63. Identify incorrect statement from the (4) Brain stem include mid brain,
following cerebellum, pons and medulla oblongata
(1) Glomerulus along with Bowman's 67. If there is damage to hypothalamic
capsule is called the renal corpuscle neurons which synthesize vasopressin it
(2) Bowman’s capsule, proximal may result in
convoluted tubule and distal convoluted (1) Irregular Bowels
tubule of the nephron are present in (2) Retention of more water in body
cortical region of kidney fluids
(3) The cortical region extends in (3) Diabetes mellitus
between the medullary pyramids as renal (4) Diminished ability of kidney to
pelvis in kidney conserve water
(4) The medullary zone of kidney is 68. Match the following regarding hormonal
divided into a few conical masses called disorder
medullary pyramids projecting into Hormone Hyposecretion
calyces A. Thyroxine p. Tetany
64. Which one of the following is showing B. Parathyoid hormone q. Addison’s disease
the correct sequential order of vertebrae
C. Insulin r. Cretinism
in the vertebral column of man?
D. Cortisol s. Diabetes mellitus
(1) Cervical-Sacral-Thoracic-Lumbar-
A B C D
Coccygeal
(1) r p q s
(2) Cervical-Thoracic-Lumbar-Sacral-
(2) p s q r
Coccygeal
(3) r p s q
(3) Cervical-Lumbar-Sacral-Thoracic-
(4) s p q r
Coccygeal
69. In a female child of six years age, the
(4) Cervical-Sacral-Thoracic-Lumbar-
stages of oogenesis found in her ovary
Coccygeal
(1) Primary follicle with secondary
65. In human ear organ of Corti is located on
oocyte
(1) Tectorial membrane
(2) Primary follicle with primary oocyte
(2) Reissner’s membrane
(3) ootid
(3) Basilar membrane
(4) Secondary follicle with primary
(4) Peritrophic membrane
oocyte
66. Identify the incorrect from the following

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70. Unpaired gland associated with human (2) The largest human gene dystrophin is
male reproductive organs is present in chromosome 1
(1) Bartholin (3) DNA from a single cell is enough to
(2) Seminal vesicle perform DNA fingerprinting analysis
(3) Bulbo-urethral (4) Scientists have identified about 1.4
(4) Prostate billion locations where single base DNA
71. One of the following function is not differences occur in human
related to oral contraceptive pill 76. Which of the following is not a dinosaur?
(1) Inhibits ovulation (1) Brachiosaurus
(2) Alters the cervical mucous (2) Stegosaurus
(3) Inhibits Implantation (3) Ophiosaurus
(4) Inhibits coitus (4) Tyrannosaurus
72. Risk of ectopic pregnancy is more in a 77. Identify incorrect combination
female with STI. What is ectopic
(1) Disruptive selection- More individuals
pregnancy?
(1) Fertilization in fallopian tube acquire peripheral character value at both
(2) Pregnancy during late reproductive ends of distribution curve
phase (2) Convergent evolution - Evolution of
(3) Implantation of embryo in uterus flying squirrel and flying phalanger in
(4) Implantation of embryo outside uterus Australia
73. Match the columns (3) Natural selection- Charles Darwin,
Column –I Alfred Wallace
A. Sickle cell anaemia (4) Divergent evolution- Sweet potato and
B. Klinefelter’s syndrome potato
C. Down’s syndrome 78. Mean annual precipitation is more in
D. Thalassemia (1) Grass land
Column – II (2) Temperate forest
i. Allosomal Non disjunction
(3) Coniferous forest
ii. Qualitative problem
iii. Quantitative problem (4) Tropical forest
iv. Autosomal non disjunction 79. Identify incorrect statement from the
(1) A-ii,B-i,C-iv,D-iii following
(2) A-iii,B-i,C-iv,D-ii (1) Many desert plants have a special
(3) A-ii,B-iv,C-i,D-iii photosynthetic pathway (CAM) that
(4) A-iii,B-iv,C-i,D-ii enables their stomata to remain closed
74. In a honeybee colony haploid, fertile during day time
insect is (2) Snails and fish exhibit aestivation to
(1) Queen avoid winter related problems
(2) Drone (3) Thermo regulation is energetically
(3) Worker expensive for small birds and mammals
(4) Scout bee living in colder areas
75. Identify correct statement from the (4) Desert lizards basks in the sun and
following absorb heat is an example of behavioural
(1) BAC and YAC are commonly used response
hosts in HGP
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80. By the process of ------ water soluble SECTION – B
inorganic nutrients go down into the soil 86. Select the incorrect statement
horizon and get precipitated as (1) Limulus is a living fossil arthropod
unavailable salts (2) Peripatus is a connecting link
(1) Fragmentation between Annelida and Arthropoda
(2) Catabolism (3) Ctenophores such as comb jellies,
(3) Bleaching move by cilia and have Nematocysts to
(4) Leaching capture food
81. Identify mismatch (4) Mantle and Radula are unique to
(1) Joint forest management - 1980s phylum Mollusca
(2) National forest policy - 1988 87. Which of the following tissue constitutes
(3) Air Act - 1981 Glisson’s capsule?
(4) Environmental protection Act - 1987 (1) Epithelial
82. Study the following (2) Connective
[Sacred groves, Zoological park, (3) Muscular
Biosphere reserve, Wild life Safari park, (4) Neural
National park, Seed banks, Sanctuaries] 88. In cigarette smokers incidence of a
How many of them are included under in respiratory disorder emphysema is high in
situ conservation such cases
(1) 6 (1) The respiratory muscles are found
(2) 5 damaged
(3) 4 (2) The bronchioles are found damaged
(4) 7 (3) The diaphragm is found damaged
83. Identify the disorder in which body (4) The alveolar walls are found damaged
produces antibodies that attack its own 89. What would be the cardiac output of a
tissues, leading to the destruction of such person having 80 beats per minute and a
tissue stroke volume of 80 ml?
(1) Gout (1) 5000 ml
(2) Myasthenia gravis (2) 6000 ml
(3) Jaundice (3) 6400 ml
(4) Cholera (4) 7200 ml
84. Plant with hallucinogenic property 90. Assertion (A) : When renal fluid is
(1) Ocimum flowing through proximal convoluted
(2) Papaver tubule all the essential nutrients, 70-80
(3) Atropa percent of electrolytes and water are
(4) Nicotiana reabsorbed by this segment
85. The following animal culture during Reason (R) : PCT is lined by simple
flowering period is beneficiary even for cuboidal brush border epithelium
crop yields also (1) Both A & R are true
(1) Fish (2) Both A & R are false
(2) Honey bee (3) A is true R is false
(3) Silk moth (4) A is false R is true
(4) Fowl
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91. Light induces dissociation of the A from (1) Corals
B resulting in changes in the structure of (2) Lichens
C to generate potential differences in D (3) Cat fishes
choose the option which fill the blanks A, (4) Lycopodium
B, C and D correctly 97. Which one of the following is a marine
(1) A-opsin, B-Retinal, C-Retinal, D- fish?
Ganglionic cells (1) Catla
(2) A-Retinal, B-Opsin, C-Retinal, D- (2) Labeo
ganglionic cells (3) Rohu
(3) A-Opsin, B-Retinal, C-Opsin, D- (4) Pomfret
Bipolar Neurons 98. Pathophysiology is the
(4) A-Retinal, B-Opsin, C-Opsin, D- (1) Study of pathogen
Photoreceptor cells (2) Study of physiology of pathogen
92. Muscles with characteristic striations and (3) Study of morphology of host
involuntary are present in (4) Study of altered physiology of host
(1) Eyelids 99. Observe the following diagram. Identify
(2) Wall of alimentary canal correctly at least two of A-D
(3) Wall of heart
(4) Wall of urinary bladder
93. Hormone action is highly specific.
Hormones bind with receptors of targeted
cell. In case of hormones of protein
nature, where are the receptors
(1) Blood
(2) Cytoplasm of cell
(3) Intercellular matrix
(4) plasma membrane
94. Which of the following hormone is not
(1) A-Neurotransmitter, B-Synaptic cleft
secreted by human placenta?
(1) Progesterone (2) B-Synaptic vesicle, D- Ca ++
(2) Human chorionic gonadotropin (3) A-Receptor, C-Synaptic vesicle
(3) Luteinising hormone (4) C-Nuerotransmitter, D- K +
(4) Estrogens 100. Orchid
95. In vaccination programme, where a) Shows mutualism with bumblebee
COVID-19 Vaccine injected into body b) Is a parasite on hedge plant
(1) Blood of vein c) Is a commensal on mango tree
(2) Blood of artery d) Is an ammensal for wasp
(3) Lymph vessel In the above, the correct ones are
(4) Deltoid muscle (1) a and c
96. Which of the following is used as an (2) b and d
atmospheric pollution indicator? (3) c and d
(4) a and b
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 PHYSICS (4) 128 kg
SECTION – A 106. If the pressure of a gas contained in a
101. An ideal heat engine works between closed vessel is increased by 0.4% when
temperatures T1 = 500 K and T2 = 375 K . If heated through 10 C , the initial
the engine absorbs 600J of heat from the temperature has been
source, then the amount of heat released (1) 2500K
to the sink is (2) 250K
(1) 450J (3) 2500 C
(2) 600J
(3) 45J (4) 250 C
(4) 500J 107. Under which of the following conditions
102. In a two slit experiment with white light, does an avalanche breakdown in a
a white fringe is observed on a screen. semiconductor diode occurs?
When the screen is moved away by (1) When potential barrier is reduced to
0.05m. This white fringe zero
(1) Disappears (2) When reverse bias potential exceeds a
(2) Displaced from earlier position certain value
(3) Becomes coloured (3) When forward bias potential exceeds
(4) Does not move at all a centain value
103. A monochromatic source of light is (4) When forward bias current exceeds a
placed at a large distance ‘d’ from a centain value
metal surface photoelectrons are ejected 108. A body contained to move in y-direction
at rate n, the kinetic energy being E. If the is subjected to a force given by

source is brought nearer to distance ,

d ( )
F = −2ɵi + 15ɵj + 6ɵ
k N
2 The work done by this force in moving
the rate and kinetic energy per the body a distance of 10m along the y-
photoelectron becomes nearly axis is
(1) 2n and E (1) 20J
(2) 4n and 4E
(2) 150J
(3) 4n and E
(4) n and 4E (3) 160J
104. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed (4) 190J
in water and water rises in it to a height h. 109. Two junction diodes one of silicon (si)
The mass of water in the capillary tube is and the other Germanium (Ge) are
5g. Another capillary tube of radius 2r is connected to a battery of emf 6V and a
immersed in water. The mass of water load resistance 10kΩ. The silicon diode
that will rise in this tube is conducts at 0.7V and germanium diode
(1) 2.5g conducts at 0.3V. When current flows in
(2) 5.0g the circuit, the potential difference across
(3) 10g load resistance
(4) 20g
105. A boat having a length of 3 metre and
breadth 2 metre is floating on a lake. The
boat sinks by one cm when a man gets on
it. The mass of the man is (1) 6.0 V
(1) 60kg (2) 5.0 V
(2) 62 kg (3) 5.3 V
(3) 12 kg (4) 5.7 V
Sri Chaitanya Page
12
110. A beaker is completely filled with water 115. A charged particle moves with a velocity
r
at 40 C. It will overflow if v in a uniform magnetic field B . The
(1) heated above 40 C magnetic force experienced by the
(2) cooled below 40 C particle is:
3) both heated and cooled above and
(3) (1) never zero
below 40 C respectively (2) always zero
r r
(4) None of the above (3) zero, if B and are v perpendicular
r r
eld intensity due to dipole of
111. Electric field (4) zero, if B and v are parallel
dipole moment 2.4µcm at a point 2m, 116. A magnet of magnetic moment 4Am 2 is
which is equidistance from two charges is held in a uniform magnetic field
(1) 27 × 102 v / m 5 × 10−4 T with the magnetic moment
mo
0
(2) 270 v/m vector making an angle 30 with the field.
(3) 27 v/m The work done in increasing the angle
(4) 2.7 v/m form 300 and 450 is about
112. Two solid spheres of same metal but mass (1) 3.2 × 10 −4 J
M and 8M fall ll simultaneously on a (2) 4.3 × 10 −4 J
viscous liquid and their terminal
(3) 7.3 × 10 −4 J
velocities are v and nv, then value of n is
(4) Zero
(1) 16
117. Under the influence of a uniform
(2) 8
magnetic field a charged particle is
(3) 4
moving in a circle of radius R with
(4) 2
constant speed V the time period of
113. A capacitor of capacitance 2µ F can not
motion
with stand a voltage more than 5000V 1) Depends on V and bot on R
(1)
and another capacitor of capacitance (2)
2) Dependa on both R and V
4µ F can not with stand more than (3) Independent
dent of both R & V
4000V. If these capacitors are connected (4)
4) Depends R and not on V
in series, maximum voltage which the 118. AB and CD are long current carrying
combination can with stand is wires placed as shown. Wire AB is fixed
(1) 6000V while CD is free to move then
(2) 5000V B
(3) 4000V
(4) 7500V i2
C D i1
lowing thorugh a
114. If a steady current I is flowing
cylindrical element ABC. Choose the
correct relationship A
(1)
1) Wire CD has translational motion and
also has rotational mo
motion in
anticlockwise sense
2) Wire CD has translational motion and
(2)
(1) VAB = 2VBC also has rotational motion in clockwise
(2)
2) Power across BC is 4times the power sense
across AB 3) Wire CD has rotational motion only in
(3)
3) Current densities in AB and BC are
(3) clockwise
equal 4) Wire CD has translational motion
(4)
(4)
4) Electric field in side AB and BC are only because it is not a loop and so it
equal experiences
es a force only and not a torque

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119. A ballon has 8gram of air. A small hole is 2 2π
prerced into it. The air escape at a (2)
5
uniform rate of 7cm s −1. If the ballon
2π
shrinks in 5.6 seconds then the average (3)
force acting on the ballon is 5
(1) 10 −4 N 4π
(4)
(2) 10 −2 N 5
(3) 56 dyne 123. In the relation: y = a cos (ωt + Kx ) , the
(4) 10 −6 N dimensional formula for Kx is same as
120. X and Y are two cables of equal length that of
for carrying current. X has a single wire (1) a / ω
of area of cross section A and Y has (2) a / y
15wires in parallel and each of aarea of
(3) ωt / a
A
cross section , regarding their (4) ya / ωt
15
suitability for passing ac and dc 124. Dimensional formula of a physical
(1) X for dc and Y for ac quantity x is  M −1L3T −2  . The errors in
(2) X for ac adn Y for dc measuring the quantities M, L and T
(3) Either for dc but Y for ac respectively are 2%, 3% and 4%. The
(4) X for dc and either for ac maximum percentage of error that occurs
121. The vibration of a string of length 60cm ntity x is
in measuring the quantity
fixed at both ends are represented by the (1) 9%
πx
 cos ( 96π t ) where
equation y = 4sin  (2) 10%
 15  (3) 14%
x and y are in cm and ‘t’ in seconds. The (4) 19%
maximum displacement at x=5cm is 125. A cyclist moves in such a way that he
(1) 2 3cm takes 600 turn after 100m. What is the
(2) 3 2cm displacement when he takes the eight turn
(1) 100m
(3) 2cm
(2) 200m
(4) 3cm
(3) 100 3m
122. A particle of mass 2kg moves in S.H.M.
Its potential energy U varies with position (4) 100 / 3m
x as shown. The period of oscillation of 126. Ratio of minimum kinetic energies of two
the particle is projectiles of same mass is 4:1. The ratio
of the maximum height attained by them
is also 4:1. The ratio of their ranges
would be
(1) 16:1
(2) 4:1
(3) 8:1
2π (4) 2:1
(1)
5
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127. A particlee is moving along a circular path
with uniform speed. Through what angle
does its angular velocity change when it
completes half of the circular path?
(1) 00
(2) 450 (1) LA = LB
(3) 1800 (2) LA > LB
(4) 3600 (3) LA < LB
128. Aeroplanes are streamlined to reduce (4)
4) The relationship between
(1) fluid friction 132. Two blocks of equal masses m are
released from the top of a smooth fixed
(2) sliding friction
wedge as shown in the figure. fig The
(3) kinetic friction acceleration of the centre of mass of the
(4) limiting friction two blocks is
129. A particle is released from a height S. At
certain height its kinetic energy is three
times its potential energy. The height and
speed of the particle at that instant are
respectively
(1) g
S 3 gS g
(1) , (2)
4 2 2
S 3 gS 3g
(2) , (3)
4 2 4
S 3 gS g
(3) , (4)
2 2 2
133. The escape velocity of a projectile on the
S 3 gS
(4) , earth’s surface is 11.2km s −1. A body is
4 2
projected out with thrice this speed. The
130. Two indentical balls A and B having speed of the body far away from the earth
velocities of 0.5 m/s and -0.3 m/s will be
respectively collide elastically in one (1) 22.4km s −1
dimension. The velocities of B and A
(2) 31.7km s −1
after the collision respectively will be
(3) 33.6km s −1
(1) 0.3m/s and 0.5m/s
(4) none of these
(2) -0.5m/s and 0.3m/s
134. Copper of fixed volume V is drawn into
(3) 0.5m/s and -0.3m/s wire of length l. When this wire is
(4) -0.3m/s and 0.5m/s subjected to a constant force F, the
131. A paricle of mass m moves in the X-Y X extension produced in the wire is ∆l.
plane with a velocity υ along the straight Which of the following graphs is a
line AB. If the angular momentum of the straight line?
particle with respect to origin O is L A (1) ∆ l versus1 / l
(2) ∆ l versus l 2
when it is A and LB when it is at B, then
(3) ∆ l versus 1/ l 2
(4) ∆ l versus l
Sri Chaitanya Page
135. Wave nature of light is verified by
(1) Interference
(2) Photoelectric effect
(3) Reflection
(4) Refraction
SECTION – B
136. Auniformally charged and infinitely long (1) 0
line having a linear charge density ' λ ' is (2) 1mJ
passingthrough the centre of a sphere of (3) 1µ J
radius R. Electric flux through the surface (4) 0.1mJ
of sphere is
140. The network shown in the figure is a part
(1) zero
of a complete circuit. If at a certain
2λ R 2 − y 2 instant, the current ‘I’ is 5A and
(2)
∈0
decreasing at the rate of 103 As −1 , then
2λ ( R − y
2 2
) VB − V A is
(3)
∈0
2λ R
(4)
∈0
(1) 5 V
137. A parallel plate capacitor having plate
separation of 2mm is charged by (2) 10 V
connecting it to a 300V supply. The (3) 15 V
energy density is (4) 20 V
(1) 0.01 J / m3 141. A man on the ground finds that, when he
(2) 0.1 J / m3 sees a jet plane just over his head, the
sound is heard at an angle 300 with
(3) 1.0 J / m3
vertical from his left. If velocity of sound
(4) 10 J / m3 is V, what is velocity jet plane
138. When a conducting wire is connected in V
(1)
the left gap and a known resistance in the 2
right gap, the balancing length is 75 cm. V
If the wire is cut into 3 equal parts and (2)
3
one part is connected in the left gap, then V
the balancing length becomes (3)
3
(1) 25 cm
(2) 50 cm 3V
(4)
(3) 62.5 cm 2
(4) 22.5 cm 142. Transformer working is based on the
principle of
139. A square loop of area 2.5 × 10−3 m 2 and
(1) self induction
having 100 turns with total resistance of
(2) mutual induction
100Ω is moved out of uniform magnetic
(3) eddy current
field of 0.4T in 1sec with constant speed.
(4) none of these
Then work done in pulling the loop is
Sri Chaitanya Page
16
143. A particle at rest explodes, breaking it given to system consequently, the spring
into three pieces. Two pieces having stretches to an equilibrium length
le L. The
equal mass fly-off
off perpendicular to one value Q is
another with the same speed of 30m/s.
The third piece has three times the mass
of each other piece. What is the direction
and magnitude of its velocity immediately
after the explosion?
(1) 10 2m / s,1350 (1) 4π ∈0 KL
(2) 10 2m / s,900 (2) L 4π ∈0 K ( L − L0 )
(3) 10 2m / s,600 (3) 2 L 4π ∈0 K ( L − L0 )
(4) 4π ∈0 K ( L − L0 )
0
(4) 10 2m / s,30
144. An electron moving in a circular orbit of 147. Which of the following is different from
radius r makes n rotations per second. others?
The magnetic
gnetic field produced at the centre (1) watt–second
has magnitude (2) coulomb–farad
(1) Zero (3) newton–metre
µ0ne (4) coulomb–volt
(2)
2π r 148. Two friends A and B are waiting for
µ0ne another friends for tea. A took the tea in a
(3) cup and mixed the cold milk and then
2r
waits. B took the tea in the cup and then
µ0 n 2e mixed the cold milk when the friend
(4)
2r comes. Then, the tea will beb hotter in the
145. Calculate the value of h in U--tube shown cup of
in the following figure. (1) A
Density of oil = 0.9 g / cm3 (2) B
Density of carbon tetrachloride = 1.6 g / cm3 3) Tea will be equally hot in both cups
(3)
(4) Friend’s cup
Density of mercury = 13.6 g / cm3
149. If an obsever sees the bottom of the
vessel at 8cm, for a vessel as shown. Find
the refractive index of medium in which
the observer is present

(1) 18.9 cm 4
(2) 20.9 cm (1)
3
(3) 16.0 cm 32
(4) 14.9 cm (2)
146. Two identical blocks made of a 28
conducting material. These are placed
place on 16
(3)
horizontal friction less table and 15
connected by a light conducting spring of 5
(4)
spring constant ‘K’, unstretched length of 4
spring is L0 . A total charge Q is now
Sri Chaitanya Page
150. A radioactive nucleus is being produced (2) 1800
at a consant rate α per second. Its decay (3) 00
constant is λ . If N 0 are the number of (4) 1200
nuclei at t = 0, the maximum number of 153. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by
nuclei possible are substitution to form an alkyl bromide B,B
α undergoes Wurtz reaction to give a
(1)
λ gaseous hydrocarbon containing less than
α four carbon atoms.
(2) N 0 Formula of (A) is
λ
(1) CH ≡ CH
(3) N 0
(2) CH 2 = CH 2
λ
(4) + N0 (3) CH 3 − CH 3
α
(4) CH 4
CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A 154. The molar conductivities at infinite
151. Which order for basic character of amine dilution of barium chloride, sulphuric
acid and hydrochloric acid are 280,860,
is correct for following compounds? and 426 S cm2 mol-1 respectively. The
NH2 NHCH3 molar conductivity at infinite dilution of
barium sulphate is ________ S cm2 mol-1.
(1) 714
(1) (2) (2) 1428
(3) 1140
(4) 288
CH2NH2
NH2
155. The parameters of the unit cell of a
substance are
a = 2.5, b = 3.0, c = 4.0,α = 900 , β = 1200 , γ = 900 .
(3) (4)
The crystal system of the substance is
(1) Orthorhombic
NO2
(2) Triclinic
NH2
(3) Hexagonal
(4) Monoclinic
156. During ozonolysis of 1 mole of benzene,
number of moles of ozone consumed is
(5) (1) 1
(2) 2
NO2 (3) 3
(1) 3>1>2>5>4 (4) 4
(2) 3>2>1>5>4 157. The relative number of atoms of different
(3) 3>1>2>4>5 elements in a compound are as follows
(4) 3>2>1>4>5 A=1.33, B=1 and C = 1.5. The empirical
formula of the compound is
152. The dihedral angle between two C-H
(1) A2 B2C3
bonds in the stagered conformation of
ethane is (2) ABC
(1) 600 (3) A8B6C9
(4) A3B3C4
Sri Chaitanya Page
18
 CH 3 160. Given,

CH3 − CH − CHO CH 3 CH 3
CH 3
158. and
CH 3
CH 3
CH3 − CH 2 − CH − CHO
are a pair of
(1) position isomers
(2) metamers O O
(3) chain isomers (I) (II)
(4) homologues
159. Which one of the following is the correct
PV vs P plot at constant temperature for CH 3
an ideal gas? (P and V stand for pressure
CH 3
and volume of the gas respectively)
O
(III)
Which of the given compounds can
PV exhibit tautomerism?
(1) (1) I and II
(2) I and III
P (3) II and III
(4) I,II and III
161. Match List-I with List-II
PV
List-I List-II
(2)
(Species) (Hybrid Orbitals)

P (A) SF4 i) sp3d2

(B) IF5 ii) d2sp3

(C) NO2+ iii) sp3d

PV
(D) NH 4+ iv) sp3
(3)
v) sp
P
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below
A B C D
PV
(1) iii i v iv
(4) (2) ii i iv v
(3) iv iii ii v
P
(4) i ii v iii
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19
162. Given below are two statements: all the octahedral sites is AxB. The value
Statement I:Sphalerite is a sulphide ore of of x is
zinc and copper galance is a sulphide ore (1) 2
of copper (2) 3
Statement II: It is possible to separate two (3) 1
sulphide ores by adjusting proportion of (4) ½
oil to water or by using ‘depressants’ in a 167. Which of the following reaction is the
froth flotation method. metal displacement reaction?
Choose the most appropriate answer from (1) 2 Na + 2 H 2O → 2 NaOH + H 2
the options given below (2) 2 Pb ( NO3 )2 → 2 PbO + 4 NO2 + O2
(1)Statement I is true but statement II is ∆
false (3) 2 KClO3  → 2 KCl + 3O2
(2) Both statement I and statement II are (4) TiCl4 + 2 Mg  → Ti + 2 MgCl2
true 168. For a reaction A → B , enthalpy of
(3) Both statement I and statement II are reaction is +20 kJ mol-1 and enthalpy of
false activation is 32 kJ mol-1. The corect
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is potential energy profile for the reaction is
true shown in option
163. Among the following, the set of
parameters that represents path function,
is
A) q + w B) q PE
B
A
C) w D) H-TS (1)
(1) B and C
(2) A and D reaction Progress
(3) B,C and D
(4) A,B and C
164. Which of the following statement (s) is /
are correct?
A) Fluorine forms two oxygen fluorides; PE
OF2 and O2F2 B
(2) A
B) Only OF2 is thermally stable at 298K
C) Both O2F2 and OF2 are strong Reaction Progress
Fluorinating agents
D) OF2 is used in removing plutonium as
PuF6 from spent nuclear Fuel
(1) All A
(2) A,C PE
(3) B,C,D (3)
B
(4) A,B,C
165. The colloid used for curing kalaazar is Reaction Progress
(1) ‘Au’ sol
(2) ‘Sb’ sol
(3) ‘Sn’ sol
(4) Argyrol
PE
166. The empirical formula for a compound
with a cubic close packed arrangement of (4) A B
anions B and with cations A occupying
Reaction Progress

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20
169. The pKa of a weak acid, HA is 4.8. The (2) All spontaneous processes are
pKb of a weak base, BOH is 4.78. The pH thermodynamically irreversible
of an aqueous solution of the (3) Heat can be converted into work
corresponding salt, BA will be completely without causing some
(1) 4.79 permanent change in the system (or)
(2) 7.01 surroundings
(3) 9.22 (4) Perpectual motion machine of
(4) 6.99 second kind is not possible
170. Four successive members of the first-row 175. Noble gases are named because of their
transition elements are listed below with inertness towards reactivity. Identify the
their atomic numbers. Which one of them incorrect statement about them
is expected to have the highest third (1) Neon bulbs are used in botanical
ionisation enthalpy? gardens and in green houses
(1)Vanadium (Z=23) (2) The compound of radon that has been
(2) Chromium (Z=24) isolated and identified is RnF2
(3) Iron (Z=26) (3) ‘He’ has lowest boiling point of 4.2K
(4) Manganese (Z=25) of any known substance
171. Which among the following is not a (4) The only type of interatomic
polyester? interation among Noble gases is weak
(1)Glyptal dispersion forces
(2) PHBV 176. Given below are two statements
(3) Novolac Statement-I: Drugs that bind to the
(4) Dacron receptor site and inhibit its natural
172. Which one of the following compounds function are called agonists
contains β − D − [ C1 − C4 ] glycosidic Statement –II: Drugs that mimic the
linkage? natural messenger by switching on the
(1) Sucrose receptor are called antagonists
(2) Amylose choose the correct option from the
(3) Lactose answers given below
(4) Maltose (1) Both statements are correct
173. For 1 molal aqueous solution of the (2) Statement I is correct but
following compounds, which one will Statement II is incorrect
show the highest freezing point? (3) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is correct
(1) Co ( H 2O )6  Cl3
(4) Both statements are incorrect
(2) Co ( H 2O )5 Cl  Cl2 .H 2O 177. Which refining process is generally used
(3) Co ( H 2O )4 Cl2  Cl.2 H 2O in the purification of low melting metals;
i.e metal melting point is less than
(4) Co ( H 2O )3 Cl3  .3H 2O impurities
174. The incorrect statement according to (1)Chromatographic method
second law of thermodynamics is (2) Electrolysis
(1) Heat cannot flow from colder body (3) Zone refining
to a hotter body of its own (4) Liquation
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21
178 CH3

OH →
alc.KOH
Cl − KCl
A , Product A is (3) H3C C CH CH3
final
− H2 O

CH3 OH
CH3
H H
OH
(4) H3C C CH2 CH2

(1) CH3 OH
180. The number of bridging CO ligand (s)
and Co-Co bonds (s) in Co2(CO)8
respectively are
(2) O
(1) 0 and 2
(2) 4 ad 0
(3) 2 and 0
O (4) 2 and 1
181. The incorrect statement regarding
KMnO4 is (Molar mass of KMnO4 = 158)
(3) (1) It forms dark purple crystals which are
isostructural with that of KClO4
(2) At 293 K its molality is nearly 0.40
(3) It on heating at 513 K gives Green
(4) colour Potassium manganate, pyrolusite
and colourless O2 gas
Cl (4) KMnO 4 has less oxidising power in
179. neutral medium or dilute alkaline medium
CH3 CH 3

OH
PCC
CH 3 (A)
H 2O / H +
H3C C CH CH2 
→
CH 3
182.
CH3 The structure of A in the above
A + B
Major product Minor product mentioned reaction is
(1)
The product A in the above mentioned
reaction is
CH3
(2)
O
(1) H3C C CH CH3

(3)
OH CH3
CH3

(2) CH2 C CH2 CH3 (4)

OH CH3 O

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22
183. Which shows decarboxylation by heating (4) ∆ Vmix = − ve
O 187. The threshold frequency, ν 0 for a metal is
7 ×1014 S −1 . Calculate the kinetic energy of
(1) an electron emitted when radiation of
OH
frequency 1× 1015 S −1 hits the metal
O ( h = 6.626 ×10 −34
Js )
O (1) 20.00 ×10−20 ergs
(2) 19.87 ×10−20 J
(3) 19.88 ×10 −20 J
(2) (4) 19.88 × 10−20 ergs
188. A pair of species that have identical
COOH
shapes is
O
(1) NO2+ and NO2−
(3) (2) PCl5 and BrF5
(3) XeF4 and ICl4−
COOH
(4) TeCl4 and XeO4
O
189. A gaseous mixture containing 0.35g of N2
(4) and 5600 ml of O2 at STP is kept in a 5
litre’s flask at 300K. The total pressure of
COOH the gaseous mixture is
184. Misch metal is an alloy consisting mainly (1) 1.293 atm
of (2) 1.2315 atm
(1) lanthanoid metals (3) 12.315 atm
(2) actinoid and transition metals (4) 0.616 atm
(3) lanthanoid and actinoid metals 190. A molten ionic hydride on electrolysis
(4) actinoid metals gives
185. Hoffmann Bromamide degradation (1) H+ ion moving towards the cathode
reaction is shown by _____ (2) H+ ion moving towards the anode
(1) ArNH 2 (3) H2 is liberated at anode
(4) H2 is liberated at cathode
(2) ArCONH 2
191. Mercury, aluminum, lead, copper, DDT,
(3) ArNO 2
etc. are an example of
(4) ArCH 2 NH 2 (1)Biodegradable Pollutant
SECTION – B (2) Non-biodegradable pollutant
186. 1 mole liquid A and 2 moles of liquid B (3) Chemical pollutant
make a solution having a total vapour (4) Noise pollutant
pressure of 42 torr. The vapour pressures 192. Highly soluble hydroxide in water is
of pure A and pure B are 45 torr and 36
formed by
torr respectively. The described solution
(1) is an ideal solution (1) Ni2+
(2) shows negative deviation (2) K+
(3) shows positive deviation (3) Zn2+
(4) Al3+
Sri Chaitanya Page
23
193. For the reaction A → B , the rate constant 198. In which of the following arrangements

(inS-1) is given by log10 K = 20.35 −

( 2.47 ×10 )
3 the given sequence is not strictly
T according to the properties indicated
The energy of activation in kJ/mol is against it
( R = 8.314 Jk −1
mol −1 ) (1) Ar>Ne>He>Kr>Xe: Decreasing order
of abundance in atmosphere by volume
(1) 47
(2) HF<HCl< HBr<HI: Increasing order
(2) 2.47 ×103 of Bond length
(3) 20.35 (3) H2O>H2S>H2Se>H2Te: Decreasing
(4) 23.5 order of Boiling point
194. The ion useful in the neuromuscular (4) NH3>PH3>AsH3>SbH3: Decreasing
function is order of HEH angle in degree (0)
(1) Zn +2 199.
(2) Mg +2 Eext

(3) Ca +2
(4) Ba +2
195. Diborane on hydrolysis gives
(1) B4C Zn rod Cu rod
-ve +ve
(2) H 3BO3
(3) HBO 2 Salt
(4) B3 N 3H 6
1M bridge 1M
ZnSO4 CuSO4
soln soln
196. The overall dissociation equilibrium
2+
0
ECu = +0.34V
constant for the complex Cu ( NH 3 )4 
2+
|Cu

0
EZn = −0.76V
ion will be (stability constant ( β4 ) for
2+
| Zn

Identify the incorrect statement from the

this complex is 2.0 × 1013
options below for the above cell
(1) 5.0 × 10−14 (1) If Eext > 1.1 V, e − flows from Cu to
(2) 2.1 × 1013 Zn
(3) 11.9 × 10−2 (2) If Eext <1.1 V, Zn dissolves at Zn
(4) 2.1× 10−13 anode and Cu deposits at Cu cathode
197. A primary amine heated with CS2 in (3) If Eext = 1.1 V, no flow of e− or
presence of excess of HgCl2 gives current occurs
isothiocyanate. The reaction is called (4) If Eext>1.1V, Zn dissolves at Zn
(1) Hofmann’s bromamide reaction electrode and Cu deposits at Cu electrode.
(2) Hofmann’s mustard oil reaction 200. In benzylamine, amino group is
(3) Perkin’s condensation (1) – IE group
(4) Hofmann’s elimination (2) + ME group
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) + IE group
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