DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL

FARIDABAD

ASSIGNMENT 2023-2024
UNIT - III

CLASS - XII
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
English Assignment- 2023-2024
Class – XII, Unit-III
SECTION A (READING)
Read the passage given below:
(1) The sage of science, Einstein, was playing violin and sitting in a depressive and pensive mood one
evening. His eyes were brimming with tears. The pain was evident on his face. He peeped out of the
window of his room. The sun had set a few minutes back. The sky was filled with a reddish glow. At this
sunset, he felt that it was humanity that had sunk into devilish darkness and the reddish glow in the sky
was the blood of humanity spilling all over the sky from earth. With tired steps, he walked back to his
chair and settled down. It was the 9th of August 1945. Three days back, he had felt the same agony as
if someone had torn him apart. He was deeply hurt and depressed when he heard on the radio that
America had dropped an atom bomb on the Japanese city, Hiroshima. Today, within three days another
bomb was dropped on another city, Nagasaki and lakhs of people had been killed.
(2) He could not sleep that night. Lying down, he was thinking how he had drawn the attention of the then
American President Roosevelt towards the destructive powers of an atomic bomb. He had thought that
this would be used to scare Hitler and put an end to the barbarism that Hitler was up to. However,
Roosevelt kept him in the dark and made false promises. Eventually, he had abused Einstein’s
equation of E= me2 that resulted in the destructive experiments. His actions had made science and
scientists as murderers. Einstein kept on thinking for a long time. Eventually, he slipped into sleep.
When he woke up at dawn, there was a new dawn in him too. The atomic threat had transformed his
heart.
(3) The next day, he decided to disassociate himself from the scientific policy of the government and all
governmental institutions. He decided to open educational institutions for children, adolescents, and
youth-institutions where along with science, spirituality will be compulsorily taught.
(4) To inaugurate this institution, he had invited two great philosophers, Bertrand Russell and Albert
Schweitzer. Ten other great scientists who had won Nobel Prizes in different fields were also invited.
They all saw a different Einstein, not a great scientist but a sage in him. The institution was opened by
garlanding a photo of Mahatma Gandhi. While garlanding the Mahatma, he became emotional and said
with a lump in his throat, ‘I bow down to the great man who fought for the independence of his country
through nonviolence. He could do so because he was a truthful man and true spiritualist’.
(5) Those who teach science should be taught spirituality too. Without harmony between science and
spirituality, the destruction would continue unabated. A few years after this institution was built, a
Japanese delegation came to meet him. Einstein broke down in the meeting and said, ‘You can give
me any punishment and I will accept it. Anyway, I have decided to lead my life in penitence’. The
Japanese were moved by his sincerity and forgot their grief.
(i) Which musical instrument did Einstein play when he was in grief?
(A) Harmonium (B) Guitar
(C) Violin (D) Flute
(ii) Einstein came to know that America had dropped an atom bomb on the Japanese city, Hiroshima
through ‘
(A) television (B) Newspaper
(C) radio (D) a telephonic message
(iii) Einstein said to the Japanese delegation,
(A) ‘You can give me any punishment and I will accept it.’
(B) ‘I am not at fault.’
(C) ‘What could I do?’
(D) ‘The President didn’t agree to my advice.’
 (iv) What did Einstein do to show his displeasure over the atomic attack?
(A) He decided to open a science laboratory.
(B) He decided to establish an Educational Institution.
(C) He disassociated himself from governmental institutions.
(D) He invited two great philosophers.
(v) The depressive mood of Einstein was compared to:
(A) Sunrise (B) Sunset
(C) Devilish darkness (D) Tired steps
(vi) What made Einstein more restless and sleepless?
(A) When America was hit by atomic bomb
(B) When Nagasaki was hit by atom bomb
(C) When atom bomb was dropped on Hiroshima by America
(D) Both (B) and (C)
(vii) Pick out the event after which Einstein could not control himself and tried to play instrument to
divert his mind.
(A) After getting the news of atomic attack
(B) By inventing sad notes
(C) Over barbarism of Hitler
(D) When he was pained by false promises
(viii) Which event in 1945, according to Einstein, turned science and scientists into murderers?
(A) The wrong use of Einstein’s equation
(B) False promises of Roosevelt
(C) The dropping of atom bombs on the two Japanese cities
(D) None of these
(ix) Einstein invited which philosopher to inaugurate the new institution?
(A) Bertrand Russell
(B) Albert Schweitzer
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Read the passage given below:
(1) Andy Dehart is a shark expert and TV presenter who lives in the United States of America. He has had
a lifelong interest in sharks and is always trying to look for ways to educate the public about them.
Many people think that sharks have little or no intelligence, but Andy points out that recent studies have
shown that many shark species possess powerful problem-solving abilities and social skills. “Sharks do
not want to attack humans,” he asserts. “There is no shark species that eats humans as part of its
regular diet. In most shark attack cases, sharks leave after realising that it has mistakenly bitten a
human and not its intended prey.”
(2) In Andy’s opinion, all shark fishing should be stopped until the shark populations have had time to grow
again. We then need to do a better job of managing the fishing of sharks. However, even if the direct
fishing of sharks is stopped, many will still be killed when they are caught up in the nets of boats fishing
for other species of fish.
(3) When Andy was a boy, his father worked for a national oceanic organisation, and Andy travelled with
him all over the Caribbean. He grew up by the coast and he has been connected with the sea for as
long as he can remember. He also lived near one of the best aquariums in America. Andy then went on
to build a career working with sharks in an aquarium environment. More recently, he has been involved
with television and the making of programmes about the sharks.
(4) Andy and his wife had their first child two years ago. They were amused and amazed to see what
extent their work with animals has proved to be useful in bringing up their daughter. They know how to
observe her behaviour and teach her how to do things by rewarding her.
(5) Andy loves sharks and is very passionate about their survival and protection. He feels extremely lucky
to have had opportunities working at the National Aquarium and the television station which presents
the Nature Channel. He never wastes a moment in either place that could be spent educating people
about sharks. He does admit that it is probably not possible for everyone to love sharks as he does.
However, he does hope to persuade people personally or through the media to respect sharks and the
critical role they play in our environment. His main objective is to keep spreading awareness that sharks
are not dangerous man-eaters but essential creatures in our oceans, as they provide ecological
balance and help to control other species.

Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer the questions given below by choosing the
most appropriate option:
1. How can it be proved that many shark species are intelligent?
(A) Their problem solving and social skills
(B) Their social skills
(C) Eating humans and their immediate realization
(D) Their oceanic organisation
2. Why does Andy believe that sharks only attack humans by mistake?
(A) They don’t eat humans as a part of their diet.
(B) They leave after realising that it has mistakenly bit humans.
(C) Human is not its intended prey.
(D) All of these
3. How did Andy’s work help him when bringing up his daughter?
(A) They knew how to teach her things by rewarding her.
(B) They taught her by reprimanding her.
(C) They taught her to observe behaviour of others.
(D) Connection of animals to the daughter’s keenness.
4. According to the graph, how many sharks were caught in 1990?
(A) 650,000 (B) 700,000
(C) 750,000 (D) 800,000.
5. How does Andy hope to educate people about sharks?
(A) Through his work at the National Aquarium.
(B) Through the media.
 (C) Through the Nature Challenge.
(D) All of these.
6. In the graph given, over the period of five decades, how much increase do we find in the number
of sharks caught?
(A) 460,000 (B) 560,000
(C) 260,000 (D) 860,000.
7. Even after the ascending trend, in which year the number of sharks caught remained the same?
(A) 1970 (B) 1975
(C) 1980 (D) 1985.
8. Realize: Realization:: Grow: ?
(A) Growing (B) Growth
(C) Grown (D) Grew
Section B
3. Sunshine Public School, Pune requires two sports coaches (one male and one female). Each should be
a degree holder in physical education as well as a SAI certified coach in athletics. You have seen their
advertisement and you know that you have these qualifications. Write a job application in 120 – 150
words along with your resumé. You are Praveen /Praveena of M – 114, Najafgarh, Delhi.
4. You have received an invitation to be the judge for a literary competition in St. Ann’s School. Send a
reply in not more than 50 words, confirming your acceptance. You are Mohan/Mohini
5. You were invited by the local unit of Boogie Woogie, a talent search organisation, to make a selection
of the local teams for participation in the zonal competition and performance at the national level. But
you are not in a position to do so because you have met with an accident. Write a letter to the convener
regretting your inability to honour the request explaining to him your position. You are Arun/Aruna
Joglekar.
6. You were invited by your friend S. Kumar to the marriage of his son, but due to some unavoidable
circumstances you can’t leave the station. Write a reply confirming that you will attend the function. You
are V.K Malhotra of 235, Mayur Vihar, Delhi.
7. Namita, your cousin has come out successful in class XII examination. She has invited you to a family
get together but you will not be able to attend as you have some other engagement. Draft a suitable
reply

Section C
A Thing of beauty

Reference to Context
A. A flowery band to bind us to the earth,
Spite of despondence, of the inhuman dearth
Of noble natures, of the gloomy days,
Of all the unhealthy and o'er-darkened ways
Made for our searching: yes, in spite of all,
Some shape of beauty moves away the pall
From our dark spirits.
Such the sun, the moon, Trees old, and young, sprouting a shady boon.
1) Which poetic device has been used in 'Noble natures'?
a. Pun b. Personification
c. Alliteration d. Transferred Epithet
2) What keeps us connected us to this earth?
a. Nature b. Human nature
c. Materialistic things d. All of these
3) Who is responsible for gloomy days and despondence in human's life?
a. Nature b. Human himself
c. Optimistic approach of human d. All of these
4) Why does human love life in spite of all the troubles and problems?
a. For he is surrounded by beautiful things
b. For he is surrounded by poor people
c. For he is surrounded by mean people
d. None of these
5) What does the poet mean by 'Dark spirits' in A Thing of beauty?
a. Overburdened souls of humans
b. Optimistic approach of humans towards life
c. Human spirits painted with dark colour
d. None of these
6) What does the poet mean by 'Inhuman dearth' in A Thing of Beauty?
a. Excess of inhumane people
b. Dearth of sensitivity among humans.
c. Shortage of such people that have inhumane nature
d. None of these
7) What does the poet mean by 'Pall' in A Thing of Beauty?
a. Shroud b. Cover
c. Burial Garment d. All of these
8) What does the poet mean by 'Moves away the pall' in A Thing of Beauty?
a. Moves away the blanket of comfort. b. Moves away the blanket of discomfort.
c. Moves away the blanket of solace. d. None of these

B. Therefore, on every morrow, are we wreathing

A flowery band to bind us to the earth,
Spite of despondence, of the inhuman dearth
Of noble natures, of the gloomy days,
Of all the unhealthy and o’er darkened ways
Made for our searching: yes, in spite of all,
Some shape of beauty moves away the pall
From our dark spirits.
i. In which of the following options can the underlined words be replaced with ‘despondence’?
a) The man paced about the room showing restlessness.
b) A chat with a close friend can take away our blues.
c) I was in jitters, seeing the boy trapped in the trench,
d) Being dogged is what led him to negotiate the challenges.
ii. Pick the option that is NOT an example of ‘unhealthy and o’er darkened ways.’
a) A person who is egoistic and looks down upon others.
b) A person who seeks God’s help for all his problems.
c) A person who is uses evil ways to deceive others.
d) A person who is corrupt and manipulative.
iii. Pick the option that enumerates what ‘noble natures’ would include.
1. selflessness
2. insensitivity
3. enthusiasm
4. aggression
5. meticulousness
6. judiciousness
a) 1, 4 and 5 b) 2, 3 and 6
c) 2, 4 and 5 d) 1, 3 and 6
iv. Based on the poem, choose the correct option with reference to the two statements given below.
Statement 1: The earth without the beautiful things is a place full of despair and unpleasantness.
Statement 2: The ornate band created by human beings; ushers hope in their lives.
a) Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.
b) Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.
c) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 can be inferred.
d) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 cannot be inferred.
c. Rich with a sprinkling of fair musk-rose blooms;
And such too is the grandeur of the dooms
We have imagined for the mighty dead;
All lovely tales that we have heard or read;
An endless fountain of immortal drink,
Pouring unto us from the heaven’s brink.
i. Pick the quote that matches best with—
‘And such too is the grandeur of the dooms we have imagined for the mighty dead.’
a) In the night of death, hope sees a star, and listening love can hear the rustle of a wing.
b) When a great man dies, for years the light he leaves behind him, lies on the paths of men.
c) Endings are not always bad, most times they’re just beginnings in disguise.
d) Cowards die many times before their death; the valiant never taste of death but once.
ii. Pick the option that refers to what ‘an endless fountain of immortal drink’ suggests.
1. inspirational deeds of great men
2. a ceaseless series of dreams
3. an infinite source of strength
4. an elixir of life for upliftment of the soul
5. an eternal source of delight
6. a boundless gift of love
a) 1, 4 and 5
b) 2, 3 and 5
c) 1, 2 and 6
d) 2, 4 and 6
iii. Pick the option that pairs the TRUE statements based on the extract, from the list below.
1. The bushes with fragrant flowers lift the human spirit and bring joy.
2. Death is inevitable and everyone faces it no matter how powerful.
3. Immortality is achieved by man when he drinks the nectar of joy.
4. Legendary heroes and their heroic deeds instil inspiration in us.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 4
c) 1 and 4
d) 2 and 3
SAQs
8. If you were given an opportunity to share your perception of beauty, what would you say?
9. What does the line, ‘Therefore are we wreathing a flowery band to bind us to earth’ suggest to you?
10. Why is ‘grandeur’ associated with the ‘mighty dead’?
11. What image does the poet use to describe the beautiful bounty of the earth?
12. What does Keats consider an endless fountain of immortal drink and why does he call its drink
immortal?
LAQs
13. We have often heard the phrase: ‘Beauty is skin deep’. In spite of that, we often see people idolising
actors and celebrities who are good looking and attractive. You have a conversation regarding this with
your friend who believes that physical beauty defines a person. Write down that conversation.
14. You are a blogger who loves to record travel stories. You recently visited a picturesque location and
you were enamoured by its beauty. Pen down the post for your blog giving vivid descriptions of the
natural beauty of this place. Supplement your writing with Keats’ ideas about beauty.
 The Rattrap
Reference to Context

A.…………….it was a big and confusing forest which he had gotten into. He tried, to be sure, to walk in
a definite direction, but the paths twisted back and forth so strangely! He walked and walked without
coming to the end of the wood, and finally he realised that he had only been walking around in the
same part of the forest. All at once he recalled his thoughts about the world and the rattrap. Now his
own turn had come. He had let himself be fooled by a bolt and had been caught. The whole forest, with
its trunks and branches, its thickets and fallen logs, closed in upon him like an impenetrable prison from
which he could never escape.
Questions
i. How would you characterize the mood of the above extract?
a) mysterious, restful
b) ominous, despairing
c) thoughtful, whimsical
d) philosophical, anguished
ii. By what bait had the peddler been fooled?
a) He had chosen to take the safe forest route.
b) He had decided to avoid the public highway.
c) He had stolen money from the trusting crofter.
d) He didn't realize the power of his rattrap analogy.
iii. The consequence of 'his own turn' having come was that the peddler had
a) got irreversibly lost in the thick, warped forest.
b) been fooled and imprisoned in a hopeless prison.
c) been walking around the same part of the forest.
d) walked the whole forest without finding the end.
4. The above extract richly employs literary devices. Look at the table below. Choose the option that
correctly matches the instances / examples in Column A with the literary devices in Column B:
Column A Column B
1. The forest closed in upon the peddler like an impenetrable (i) Imaginary
prison
2. The big and confusing forest with its twisted paths, truncks, (ii) Allegory
branches, thickets and fallen logs
3. The lost peddler was reminded of the world and the rattrap (iii) Metaphor
4. It was a big and confusing forest which he had gotten into. The (iv) Simile
peddler had been fooled and was trapped in the forest.

a) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv) b) 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)

c) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii) d) 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(i)
B. “Since you have been so nice to me all day long, as if I was a captain, I want to be nice to you, in
return, as if I was a real captain — for I do not want you to be embarrassed at this Christmas season by
a thief; but you can give back the money to the old man on the roadside, who has the money pouch
hanging on the window frame as a bait for poor wanderers. The rattrap is a Christmas present from a
rat who would have been caught in this world’s rattrap if he had not been raised to captain, because in
that way he got power to clear himself. “Written with friendship and high regard, Captain von Stahle.

i Which of the following CANNOT be attributed to the peddler, according to the above extract?
a) indebtedness b) reform
c) self-pity d) self-awareness
ii. Why did the peddler gift a rattrap as a Christmas present?
a) It was all the peddler had that he could give away, and represented his turn to honesty.
 b) It symbolized his successful escape from entrapment as he returned the stolen money.
c) It served as a reminder for Edla to be wary of the dangerous temptations of the world.
d) It was a practical and convenient present that the lady of the house could effectively use.
iii The word ‘frame’ has been used to indicate a rigid structure that surrounds something such as a
picture, door, or windowpane. There are other meanings of ‘frame’ too.
Choose the option that DOES NOT list the meaning of ‘frame’.
(1) A person’s body with reference to its size or build
(2) A single complete picture in a series forming a cinema, television, or video film
(3) The triangular structure for positioning the red balls in snooker.
(4) A thin solid object that seals a container or hole, a lid
a) Option (1) b) Option (2)
c) Option (3) d) Option (4)
iv. This communication includes
1) a promise
2) regret
3) an apology
4) shame
a) only 4 b) only 1
c) 1&3 d) 2&4
SAQs
15. Why was the peddler surprised when he knocked on the door of the cottage?
16. Why did the peddler derive pleasure from his idea of the world as a rattrap?
17. What hospitality did the peddler receive from the crofter?
18. What was the content of the letter written by the peddler to Edla?
19. Why was the peddler amused by the idea of the world being a rattrap?

Important Point-
– While pondering over the traps made by him
– Comforts of riches, shelter, food, and clothing were baits
– Once trapped everything comes to an end.
– was never treated kindly
– world ensnares all those who succumbed to temptations of riches and joys
LAQs
20. Despite his philosophical insights, the vagabond fails to resist temptations. What would you attribute
this to? Explain with reference to any instance from the text
21. What might be the significance of setting the story’s events during Christmas? Justify your opinion.
22. How does the story ‘The Rattrap’ highlight the importance of community over isolation? Support your
rationale with textual evidence.
Or
The Rattrap focuses on human loneliness and the need to bond with others. Comment.
23. What made the peddler finally change his ways?
Or
What miracle did Edla perform in the peddler’s life?
Or
How did Edla bring about a change in the peddler?
Journey to the end of the Earth
Reference to Context
A. You lose all earthly sense of perspective and time here. The visual scale ranges from the
microscopic to the mighty: midges and mites to blue whales and icebergs as big as countries (the
largest recorded was the size of Belgium). Days go on and on and on in surreal 24-hour austral
summer light, and a ubiquitous silence, interrupted only by the occasional avalanche or calving ice
sheet, consecrates the place. It’s an immersion that will force you to place yourself in the context of the
earth’s geological history. And for humans, the prognosis isn’t good.
 i. The ‘visual scale’ refers to
a) a measuring device
b) range of things one can see
c) visionary’s belief
d) the magnitude of preparation
ii Four people give a reason for the author’s feeling while travelling. Choose the option that correctly
summarizes it based on your understanding of the extract.
Person 1 Person 2 Person 3 Person 4

I think the According to As far as I can In my opinion,

author is being me, she is judge, Tishani is she is amazed
paranoid about bewildered by being hypocritical by the grandeur
leaving her the travel because she is of the icy region.
hometown. duration. comparing the two
places.

a) Person 1 b) Person 2
c) Person 3 d) Person 4
iii. Select the option that correctly fits the category of ‘microscopic to the mighty’ out of the ones
given below.
1. trace of a skin cell: trace of a bird’s egg
2. a grain of rice: field of wheat
3. a scoop of ice cream: an ice-cream cone
4. a drop of water: Pacific Ocean
a) 1, 2 b) 3, 4
c) 1, 3 d) 2, 4
iv. Choose the option listing the elements that influences one to think of earth’s physicality.
1. breakage of an iceberg from a glacier
2. midges and mites
3. a regular seen avalanche
4. summer light in the Southern hemisphere
a) 1, 2 b) 3, 4
c) 1, 4 d) 2, 3
B. Students on Ice, the programme I was working with on the Shokalskiy, aims to do exactly this by taking
high school students to the ends of the world and providing them with inspiring educational
opportunities which will help them foster a new understanding and respect for our planet. It’s been in
operation for six years now, headed by Canadian Geoff Green, who got tired of carting celebrities and
retired, rich, curiosity-seekers who could only ‘give’ back in a limited way. With Students on Ice, he
offers the future generation of policy makers a life-changing experience at an age when they’re ready to
absorb, learn, and most importantly, act.

i. Students on Ice is …………. headed by Geoff Green. Select the option to fill in the blank correctly.
a) a travelogue
b) an expedition
c) a globetrotting
d) a tour
ii. Choose the option that marks the ODD ONE OUT based on your reading of the above extract.
a) Sumit donates 10% of his monthly income to the environment-friendly NGOs.
b) Manmeet and her twin plant a new plant on their birthday every year.
c) Vivek invests in eco-friendly cosmetics that are packaged in plastic containers.
d) Afsana plans to device a machine that recycles the biodegradable wastes from home.
iii. Pick the option that characterizes the celebrities based on your understanding of the extract.
1. overachiever
 2. zealous
3. miserly
4. impassive
a) 1, 2 b) 3, 4
c) 1, 3 d) 2, 4
iv. Choose the option that lists the reasons for Green’s programme.
1. making youngsters realize the gory reality of the planet.
2. provoking the youth to think about the future earnestly.
3. giving a chance of exploring the north pole to the young generation
4. providing travel opportunities to students that were unfortunate.
a) 1, 2 b) 3, 4
c) 1, 3 d) 2, 4
SAQs
24. What was the objective of the ‘Students on Ice Programme’?
OR
Students on Ice is a programme that prepares global citizens. Discuss.
25. How did the Antarctica amaze the writer when he first saw it?
26. What are phytoplanktons? How are they important to our ecosystem?
27. Why was Tishani Doshi filled with relief and wonder when he set foot on the Antarctic continent?
28. Why is Antarctica the place to go to if we want to study the earth’s past, present and future?
OR
Antarctica is unlike any other place on Earth. Justify the statement.
29. Based on the chapter, elucidate any three consequences that global warming will have on Antarctica.
LAQs
30. Imagine you are the narrator writing to your parents back home telling them about your experience in
Antarctica and how it is similar to that back home in some ways.

Antarctica
02 August X
Dear mom It is so different here. I can’t post this letter but I write to capture these amazing moments I
am spending here. Antarctica is……………………………… With love
31. The author of Journey to the end of the Earth is Tishani Doshi who is now a famous poet and dancer.
As the narrator, write a speech discussing the impact of the Students on Ice programme on your life
and writing. You may begin this way:

The Making of a Writer

Dear audience,
I did not simply take to writing. Many experiences of my life forced me to pick up the pen…
SECTION D ( BEYOND THE TEXTBOOK)
Activity 1. We must all appreciate things of beauty around us. The poem ‘A Thing of Beauty’ has taught us
that a thing of beauty is a joy forever. What things provide you joy? Make a list of such things in your
copy.
Activity 2. Mjolis is a card game of Sweden. Try to learn about other such indoor games played in various
countries. Submit a project giving information about such unknown, unexplored and interesting games
played around the world. Use colourful pictures and make your presentation attractive. (AIL)
Activity 3. Imagine an interview where Green is asked to explain more about his work and why he decided
to initiate programs for students. Keeping both Green and the interviewer’s perspectives in mind, pen
down this interview.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Physics Assignment - 2023-2024
Class - XII, Unit-III
Chapter 6 : Electromagnetic Induction
Section A (Objective type Questions)
Q.1 The average e.m.f. induced in a coil in which the current changes from 2 ampere to 4 ampere in
0.05 second is 8 volt, what is the self inductance of the coil?
a. 0.1 henry b. 0.2 henry c. 0.4 henry d. 0.8 henry
Q.2 A coil is wound on a former of rectangular cross-section. If all the linear dimensions of the former
are increased by a factor of 3 and the numbers of turns per unit length remains the same, the
self-inductance increases by a factor of :
a. 3 b. 9 c. 27 d. 81
Q.3 The current passing through a choke coil of 15 henry is decreasing at the rate of 0.2 ampere per
second. The e.m.f. developed across the coil :
a. 3 volt b. 7.5 volt c. 15 volt d. 30 volt
Q.4 In a coil of area 10 cm and 10 turns with magnetic field directed perpendicular to the plane and is
2

changing at t he r at e of
10 gauss/second. The resistance of the coil is 20 ohm. The current in the coil will be :
8

a. 5 A b. 0.5 A c. 0.05 A d. 5×108 A

Q.5 A 50 hertz alternating current of peak value 2 ampere flows through the primary coil of a transformer.
If the mutual inductance between the primary and the secondary be 0.5 henry then the peak value
of the induced voltage, is:
a. 100 volt b. 150 volt c. 200 volt d. 250 volt
Q.6 Two coils X and Y are placed in a circuit such that a current changes by 3 ampere in coil X and
the magnetic flux change of 1.2 weber occurs in Y. The value of mutual inductance of the coil is :
a. 0.2 henry b. 0.4 henry c. 0.6 henry d. 3.6 henry
Q.7 When the current changes from +2A to –2A in 0.05 second, an e.m.f. of 8 volt is induced in a coil.
The coefficient of self induction of the coil is :
a. 0.1 H b. 0.2 H c. 0.4 H d. 0.8 H
Q.8 The network shown in figure is a part of a complete circuit. If at a certain instant, the current I is
5A and decreasing at the rate of 103 A/s, then VB–VA is :

a. 5 V b. 10 V c. 15 V d. 25 V
Q.9 Fig. represents two bulbs B1 and B2, resistor R and an inductor L. When the switch S is turned off :

a. Both bulbs B1 and B2 die out promptly

b. Both bulbs B1 and B2 die out with some delay
c. B1 dies out promptly but B2 with some delay
d. B2 dies out promptly by B1 with some delay.
Q.10 A loop abcd of side l moves with velocity  in a uniform magnetic field B, directed into the paper.

l
If PQ= , then potential difference across PQ is :
2

Blv
a. Blv, and P is positive with respect to Q b. and P is positive with respect to Q
2

1B 3B
c. and Q is positive with respect to P d. and P is positive with respect to Q
2 2
Q.11 A current from A to B is increasing in magnitude. What is the direction of induced current, if any in
the loop shown in figure?

a. clockwise b. anticlockwise
c. no current d. first clockwise and then anticlockwise
Q.12

AB and CD are smooth, parallel, horizontal rails on which a conductor T can slide. A cell, E,
drives current i through the conductor T.
a. The current in the rails will set up a magnetic field over T.
b. T will experience a force to the right.
c. T will experience a force to the left.
d. T will not experience any force.
Q.13 In which of the following cases will the mutual inductance be maximum?

a. b.

c. d.
ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS
Note: Read the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and mark the correct option out of the options give
below
(a) If both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion
(b) If both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion
(c) If Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) If Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is also false.
Q.1 Assertion (A): Induced emf in two coils made of wire of the same length and the same thickness,
one of copper and another of aluminium is same. The current in copper coil is more than the
aluminium coil.
Reason (R) : Resistance of aluminium coil is more than that of copper coil.
Q.2 Assertion (A): A changing magnetic flux may produce an induced emf.
Reason (R): Faraday experimentally demonstrated the induced emf.
Q.3 Assertion (A): An induced emf is generated across the two ends of a solenoid coil when a magnet
is withdrawn from the solenoid coil.
Reason (R): The relative motion between magnet and the solenoid coil induces an emf. : When
two coils of enamelled copper wire are wound on each other, the mutual
Q.4 Assertion (A) inductance between the coils is maximum.
Reason (R): Mutual inductance does not depend on the orientation of the coils.
Q.5 Assertion (A) Self-inductance of a coil is also called its 'electrical inertia".
Reason (R): Self-inductance is the phenomenon due to which an induced emf is set up in a coil
as a result of change in current in the coil.
Q.6 Assertion (A): Direction of induced emf in a circuit is predicted by Lenz's law.
Reason (R): Lenz's law is a consequence of the law of conservation of energy.
Q.7 Assertion (A): An inductor coil is usually prepared using copper wire.
Reason (R) : Induced current is more if resistance of the coil is less,
Q.8. Assertion (A): The induced emf will be same in two identical loops of copper and aluminium when
rotated with same angular speed in the same magnetic field.
Reason (R): Induced emf is given by rate of change of magnetic flux linked with the loop.
Section B
Very Short Answer Type Questions
Q.1 Write SI unit of magnetic flux. Is it a scalar or a vector quantity?
Q.2 Predict the directions of induced currents in metal rings 1 and 2 lying in the same plane where
current l in the wire is increasing steadily

Q.3 If the number of turns of a solenoid is doubled, keeping the other factors constant, how does the
self-inductance of the solenoid change ?
Q.4 Define mutual inductance of a pair of coils and write its SI unit
Q.5 How does the mutual inductance of a pair of coils change when
i. distance between the coils is decreased and
ii. number of turns in the coils is decreased ?
Q.6 What is an induced emf? Write Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction. Express it
mathematically.
Q.7 Predict the direction of the induced current in the rectangular loop abcd as it is moved into the
region of a uniform magnetic field B directed normal to the plane of the loop.

Q.8 The electric current in a wire in the direction from B to A is decreasing. What is the direction of
induced current in the metallic loop kept above the wire as shown in the Fig.

Q.9 A magnet is moved in the direction indicated by an arrow between two coils AB and CD, as shown
in the Fig. Suggest the direction of current in each coil.

Q.10 Mention any one useful application of eddy currents.

Section C (Short answer type questions - 2 or 3 marks)
Q.1 A plot of magnetic flux () versus current (I) is shown in the figure for two inductors A and B. Which
of the two has larger value of self-inductance ?

Q.2 A solenoid is connected to a battery so that a steady current flows through it. If an iron core is
inserted into the solenoid, will the current increase or decrease ? Explain.
Q.3 A bar magnet M is dropped so that it falls vertically through the coil C (Fig.). The graph obtained
for voltage produced across the coil vs time is shown in Fig.

(a) Explain the shape of the graph.

(b) Why is the negative peak longer than the positive peak ?
Q.4 State and Explain Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction.
Q.5 State Lenz' Law and show that it is in accordance with the law of conservation of energy.
Q.6 Which physical quantity is called the INERTIA OF ELECTRICITY? Why is it called so?
Q.7 Define self induction and self inductance. What is in the unit and dimension of self inductance.
Section D (Long answer type questions)
Q.1 State Lenz's law.
Two identical loops, one of copper and the other of aluminium, are rotated with the same speed
in a uniform magnetic field acting normal to the plane of the loops. State with reason, for which
of the coils (i) induced emf, (ii) induced current will be more.
Q.2 (a) Describe a simple experiment (or activity) to show that the polarity of emf induced in a coil
is always such that it tends to produce a current which opposes the change of magnetic flux
that produces it.
(b) The current flowing through an inductor of self inductance L is continuously increasing. Plot
a graph showing the variation of
(i) Magnetic flux versus the current
(ii) Induced emf versus dl/dt
(iii) Magnetic potential energy stored versus the current.
Q.3 (i) Derive the expression for maximum value of the induced emf and state the rule that gives
direction of the induced emf in a generator.
(ii) How is magnetic flux linked with the armature coil changed in a generator ?
(iii) Show the variation of the emf generated versus time as the armature is rotated with respect
to the direction of the magnetic field.
Q.4 Explain the phenomenon of mutual induction and define mutual inductance. Write the unit and
dimensions of mutual inductance.
Section E (Case Based Questions)
Q.1 The Figure shows two identical rectangular loops (1) and (2), placed on a table along with a
straight long current carrying conductor between them.

i. What will be the directions of the induced currents in the loops when they are pulled away
from the conductor with same velocity v ?
ii. Will the emf induced in the two loops be equal ? Justify your answer.

Q.2 As shown in Figure, a rectangular loop and a circular loop are moving out of a uniform magnetic
field region to a field free region with a constant velocity v. In which loop do you expect the induced
emf to be constant during the passage out of the field region ? The field is normal to the loops.
Q.3 Figure shows planar loops of different shapes moving out of or into a region of a magnetic field
which is directed normal to the plane of the loop away from the reader. Determine the direction
of induced current in each loop using Lenz's law.

Q.3 A rectangular conductor LMNO is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T. The field is directed
perpendicular to the plane of the conductor. When the arm MN of length of 20 cm is moved
towards left with a velocity of 10 ms–1, calculate the emf induced in the arm. Given the resistance
of the arm to be 5 (assuming that other arms are of negligible resistance) find the value of the
current in the arm.

Q.4 A metallic rod of length l is rotated with a frequency f with one end hinged at the centre and the
other end at the circumference of a circular metallic ring of radius r, about an axis passing through
the centre and perpendicular to the plane of the ring. A constant uniform magnetic field B parallel
to the axis is present every where. Using Lorentz force, explain how emf is induced between the
centre and the metallic ring and hence obtain the expression for it.
Q.5 Figure shows a rectangular conducting loop PQRS in which the arm PQ is free to move. A uniform
magnetic field acts in the direction perpendicular to the plane of the loop. Arm PQ is moved with
a velocity v towards the arm RS. Assuming that the arms QR, RS and SP have negligible
resistances and the moving arm PQ has the resistance r, obtain the expression for (i) the current
in the loop (ii) the force and (iii) the power required move the arm PQ.

Q.6 The flux linked with a large circular coil of radius R is 0.5×10–3 Wb. When a current of 0.5A flows
through a small neighbouring coil of radius r, calculate the coefficient of mutual inductance for the
given pair of coils. If the current through the small coil suddenly falls to zero, what would be its
effect in the larger coil?
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Physics Assignment - 2023-2024
Class - XII, Unit-III
Topic : Chapter 7 : Alternating Current
Section A
Q.1 An alternating voltage. V  200 2 sin 100t, where V is in volt and t seconds, is connected to a
series combination of 1F capacitor and 10k resistor through an ac ammeter. The reading
of the ammeter will be

(a) 2 mA (b) 10 2 mA

(c) 2 mA (d) 20 mA
Q.2 A 40 electric heater is connected to 200 V, 50 Hz main supply. The peak value of the electric
current flowing in the circuit is approximately
(a) 2.5 A (b) 5.0 A
(c) 7A (d) 10 A.
Q.3 The rms value of the emf given by E=8sint + 6 cost volt is

(a) 5 2 V (b) 7 2 V

(c) 10 V (d) 10 2 V
Q.4 An inductor of 1 henry is connected across a 220 V, 50 Hz supply. The peak value of the current
is approximately
(a) 0.5 A (b) 0.7 A
(c) 1A (d) 1.4 A.
Q.5 An inductive coil has a resistance of 100 . When an ac signal of frequency 1000 Hz is applied to
the coil, the voltage leads the current by 45°. The inductance of the coil is

1 1
a. b.
10 20

1 1
c. d.
40 60
Q.6 A resistor R and a capacitor C are connected in series across an ac source of rms voltage 5V. If
the rms voltage across C is 3V then that across R is
(a) 1V (b) 2V
(c) 3V (d) 4V
Q.7 An LCR series circuit contains L = 8H, C = 0.5 F and R= 100 . The resonant frequency of the
circuit is

1000 500
(a) Hz (b) Hz
 

250 125
(c) Hz (d) Hz
 
Q.8 The reactance of a capacitor at 50 Hz is 10 . Its reactance at 100 Hz is
(a) 2.5 (b) 5
 (c) 10 (d) 20
Q.9 The reactance of an inductor at 50 Hz is 10. Its reactance at 100 Hz is
(a) 2.5 (b) 5
(c) 10 (d) 20
Q.10 In an LCR circuit, the energy is dissipated in
(a) R only (b) R and L only
(c) R and C only (d) R, L and C.
Q.11 A resistor, an inductor and a capacitor are connected in series to an ac source. An ac voltmeter
measures the voltages across them as 80 V, 30 V and 90 V respectively. The rms value of the
supply voltage is

(a) 100 V (b) 100 2 V

(c) 200 V (d) 200 2 V

Q.12 An alternating emf is connected across a series combination of a resistance R and an
inductance L. If the potential drop across R is 200 V and that across L is 150 V, the applied
voltage is

(a) 350 v (b) 350 2 V

(c) 250 V (d) 250 2 'V

Q.13 In an LCR series circuit, the capacitance is changed from C to 4C. For the same resonant
frequency, the inductance should be changed from L to
(a) 2L (b) L/2
(c) L/4 (d) 4L
Q.14 In an LCR series circuit, the voltages across R, L and C at resonance are 40 V, 60 V and 60 V
respectively. The applied voltage is
(a) 60 V (b) 40 V

(c) 160 V (d) 40 2  120 2 V

Q.15 An LCR series circuit consists of a resistance of lO, a capacitance of reactance 60 and an
inductor coil. The circuit is found to resonate when put across a 300 V, 100 Hz supply. The
inductarce of the coil is (take  = 3).
(a) 0.1 H (b) 0.01 H
(c) 0.2 H (d) 0.02 H
Q.16 In an ac circuit V= 100sin (100t) volt and I= 100sin(100t + /3)mA. The power dissipated in the
circuit is
(a) 104 W (b) 10 W
(c) 2.5 W (d) 5W
Q.17 An ac supply of rms voltage 30 V is fed to a pure resistor of 10. The power dissipated is
(a) 45 W (b) 90 W

(c) 90 2 W (d) 180 W

Q.18 An ideal inductor of (1/) henry is connected in series with a 300  resistor. If a 20 V, 200 Hz, ac
source is connected across the combination, the phase difference between the voltage and the
current is
 5 4
(a) tan 1 (b) tan 1
4 5

3 4
(c) tan 1 (d) tan 1
4 3

Q.19 An ac voltage E = 200 2 sin 100t volt is connected across a 1F capacitor. If a hot wire ammeter
is used to measure the current in the circuit, its reading is
(a) 10 mA (b) 20 mA
(c) 40 mA (d) 80 mA.
Q.20 An electric bulb which runs at 80 V dc and consumes 10 A current is connected across a 100 V,
50 Hz ac supply. The inductance of the choke required is (take  = 3)
(a) 0.01 H (b) 0.02 H
(c) 0.04 H (d) 0.08 H
ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS
Note: Read the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and mark the correct option out of the
options give below
(a) If both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion
(b) If both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion
(c) If Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) If Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is also false.
Q.1. Assertion (A) In a series LCR circuit connected to an a.c. source, resonance can take place.
Reason (R) At resonance XL=XC
Q.2. Assertion (A): A transformer is used to increase or decrease a.c. voltage only.
Reason (R) A transformer works on the basis of mutual induction.
Q.3. Assertion (A) A step-up transformer cannot be used as a step-down transformer.
Reason (R) A transformer work only in one direction.
Q4. Assertion (A) A capacitor blocks d.c. but offers an easy path to a.c.
Reason (R) : Capacitive reactance is inversely proportional to frequency of a.c. supply.
Q.5. Assertion (A): The current lags behind the voltage by a phase angle of through an inductor.
Reason (R) : The inductive reactance increases as the frequency of a.c. source increases.
Q.6. Assertion (A): When capacitanive reactance is smaller than the inductive reactance, the voltage
leads the current.
Reason (R) : The phase angle is the angle between the alternating voltage and current phasors
Q.7. Assertion (A) : A bulb connected in series with a solenoid coil is connected to an a.c. source. The
bulb glow becomes dimmer when a soft iron core is introduced in the solenoid coil.
Reason (R) :On introducing soft iron core in the solenoid coil, its inductance increases.
Q.8. Assertion (A) In a series LCR a.c. circuit resonance can take place when inductive and
capacitive reactances are equal.
Reason (R) : Sharpness of resonance increases if resistance presence in LCR resonance
circuit is reduced.
Q.9. Assertion (A): An alternating current does not show any magnetic effect.
Reason (R) : Magnitude of alternating current varies continuously with time.
Q.10. Assertion (A) : An a.c. ammeter is essentially based on heating effect of electric current.
Reason (R) : In an a.c. ammeter the divisions are equally spaced on the scale.
Q.11. Assertion (A) : The d.c. as well as a.c. both can be measured by a hot wire instrument.
Reason (R) : The hot wire insturment is based on heating effect of current which does not
depend on the direction of current flow.
Q.12. Assertion (A) Power factor of an ideal choke coil is zero.
Reason (R) A choke coil consists of a coil of thick enamelled copper wire wound on laminated
soft iron core.
Q.13. Assertion (A) In a LCR series a.c. circuit at the time of resonance both current and voltage are in
same phase and power factor is maximum.
Reason (R) The impedance of a resonant circuit is minimum at the time of resonance and has a
value equal to resistance R present in the circuit.
Section B
Q.1 When a lamp is connected to an alternating voltage supply, it lights with the same brightness as
when connected to a 12 V d.c battery. What is the peak value of alternating voltage source ?
Q.2 Sketch a graph showing the variation of reactance of an inductor with frequency of the applied
voltage
Q.3 Sketch a graph showing the variation of capacitive reactance with the change in frequency of the
a.c source.
Q.4 Find the capacitance of the capacitor that would have a reactance of 100 when used with an
5
a.c. source of frequency kHz.

Q.5 Mention the two characteristic properties of the material suitable for making core of a
transformer.
Section C
Q.1 Distinguish between the terms 'average value' and 'rms value' of an alternating current The
instantaneous current from an a.c source is I = 5 sin (314 t) ampere. What are the average and
' rms values of the current ?


Q.2 Show that in an a.c circuit containing a pure inductor, the voltage is ahead of current by in
2
phase.
Q.3 In a series LCR circuit, the voltages across an inductor, a capacitor and a resistor are 30 V, 30 V
and 60 V respectively. What is the phase difference between the applied voltage and the current
in the circuit?
Q.4 The instantaneous current and voltage of an a.c. circuit are given by I = 10 sin 300 t A and V=200
sin300 t V. What is the power dissipation in the circuit?
Q.5 State the conditions under which power factor is (i) maximum, and (ii) minimum.
Q.6 What is the power dissipated in an a.c. circuit in which voltage and current are given by
 
v=230 sin  t   and I=10 sint.
 2

Q.7 Can a transformer be used in d.c.circuits? Why?

Q.8 An inductor of reactance X L is connected in series with bulb B to an a.c. source as shown in the
Fig. Briefly explain how does the brightness of the bulb change, when
(i) number of turns of the inductor is reduced ? and
(ii) a capacitor of reactance X C= X L is included in series in the same circuit ?
L=100mH

Q.9 An electric lamp having coil of negligible inductance connected in series with a capacitor and an
a.c. source is glowing with certain brightness. How does the brightness of the lamp change on
reducing the (i) capacitance, and (ii) the frequency ? Justify your answer.

Q.10 A coil of inductance L, a capacitor of capacitance C and a resistor of resistance R are all put in
series with an alternating source of emf E = Em sin t. Write an expression for the
(i) total impedance of the circuit,
(ii) frequency of the source emf for which the circuit will show resonance.
Section D
Q.1 An alternating voltage of frequency f is applied across a series LCR circuit Let f r be the
resonance frequency for the circuit. With the current in the circuit lag, lead or remain in phase
with the applied voltage when (i) f>f r (ii) f<f r? Explain your answer in each case.
Q.2 Mention the factors on which the resonant frequency of a series LCR circuit depends. Plot a
graph showing variation of impedance of a series LCR circuit with the frequency of the applied
a.c. source.
Q.3 When an a.c. source is connected to an ideal inductor, show that the average power supplied by
the source over a complete cycle is zero.
Q.4 A voltage V= Vm sin t is applied to a series L-C-R circuit. Derive the expression for the average
power dissipated over a cycle.
Under what condition (i) no power is dissipated even though the current flows through the circuit,
(ii) maximum power is dissipated in the circuit ?
Q.5 For a given a.c. circuit, distinguish between resistance, reactance and impedance.
Q.6 Discuss the phenomenon of resonance in a LCR series a.c. circuit.
Q.7 Find an expression for natural oscillation frequency of an L-C oscillatory circuit. Also explain
formation of electromagnetic oscillations.
Q.8 A circuit, containing an 80 mH inductor and a 250 F capacitor in series, is connected to a 240V,
100 rad s–1 supply. The resistance of the circuit is negligible.
(i) Obtain rms value of current
(ii) What is the total average power consumed by the circuit ?
Q.9 When an inductor L and a resistor R in series are connected across a 12 V, 50 Hz supply, a

current of 0.5 A flows in the circuit. The current differs in phase from applied voltage by
3
radian. Calculate the value of R.
Q.10 An inductor 200 mH, capacitor 500 F, resistor 10 are connected in series with a 100 V variable
frequency a.c. source. Calculate :
(i) frequency at which power factor in the circuit is unity,
(ii) current amplitude at this frequency
(ill) Q-factor.
Q.11 The primary coil of a transformer has 200 turns and the secondary has 1000 turns. If the power
output from the secondary at 1000 V is 9 kW, calculate
(i) the primary voltage, and
(ii) the heat loss in the primary coil if the resistance of primary is 0.2  and the efficiency of the
transformer is 90%.
Section E
Q.1 A town, situated 20 km away from a power plant generating power at 440 V, requires 600 kW of
electric power at 220 V. The resistance of the two-wire line carrying power is 0.4  per km. The
town gets power from the line through a 3000 - 220 V step down transformer at a substation in the
town.
(i) Find the line power losses in the form of heat
(ii) How much power must the plant supply, assuming there is negligible power loss due to
leakage?
Q.2 An a.c source generating a voltage V= Vm sin t is connected to a capacitor of capacitance C.
Find the expression for the current I flowing through it. Plot a graph of V and I versus t to show

that the current is ahead of the voltage.
2
A resistor of 200  and a capacitor of 15.0 F are connected in series to a 220 V, 50 Hz a.c.
source. Calculate the current in the circuit and the rms voltage across the resistor and the
capacitor. Is the algebraic sum of these voltages more than the source voltage ? If yes, resolve
the paradox.
Q.3 The primary coil of an ideal step up transformer has 100 turns and the transformation ratio is also
100. The input voltage and the power are 220 V and 1100 W respectively. Calculate
(i) number of turns in the secondary
(ii) the current in the primary
(iii) voltage across the secondary
(iv) the current in the secondary
(v) power in the secondary.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Chemistry Assignment (2023-2024)
Class - XII, Unit-III
Topic : Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers
Section A
Q. I Objective Type Questions. (May have more than 1 correct option)
1. An organic compound ‘X’ on treatment with pyridinium chlorochromate in dichloromethane
gives compound ‘Y’. Compound ‘Y’, reacts with I2 and alkali to form tri-iodomethane. The
compound ‘X’ is :
a. C2H5OH b. CH3CHO c. CH3COCH3 d. CH3COOH
2. Which among the following compounds will give a secondary alcohol on reacting with Grignard
reagent followed by acid hydrolysis?
(i) HCHO (ii) C2H5CHO (iii) CH3COCH3 (iv) HCOOC2H5
Select the correct answer using the codes given below,
a. (ii) only b. (iii) only c. (i) and (iv) d. (ii) and (iii)
3. The most suitable reagent for the conversion of primary alcohol into aldehyde with the same
number of carbon is :
a. acidified K2Cr2O7 b. acidified KMnO4
c. alkaline KMnO4 d. pyridinium chlorochromate
4. When CH2=CH–COOH is reduced with LiAIH4, the compound obtained will be :
a. CH3CH2COOH b. CH2=CHCH2OH c. CH3CH2CH2OH d. CH3CH2CHO
5. Carbolic acid is :
a. C6H5OH b. C6H6 c. C6H5COOH d. C6H5CHO
6. When vapours of ethyl alcohol are passed under pressure over heated Al2O3 at 523 K, the
product obtained is :
a. dimethyl ether b. ethyl methyl ether c. diethyl ether d. none of these
7. Ether in contact with air and light and it may cause explosion, due to formation of :
a. peroxide b. alcohol c. acid d. none of these
8. Which one is formed when sodium phenoxide is heated with ethyl iodide?
a. Phenetol b. Ethyl phenyl alcohol
c. Phenol d. None of these
9. When an ether is treated with excess of HI it gives
a. thio-alcohol b. alkyl halide c. thio-ester d. thio-acetal
10. The most suitable method of separation of a mixture of ortho and para nitrophenols mixed in the
ratio of 1:1 is :
a. steam distillation b. crystallization c. vapourization d. colour spectrum
11. Phenol when nitrated with concentrated HNO3 in presence of concentrated H2SO4 forms:
a. o-nitrophenol b. m-nitrophenol c. p-nitrophenol d. picric acid
12. Ether on heating with acetyl chloride in presence of anhydrous ZnCl2 gives :
a. ethyl alcohol b. ethyl chloride
c. ethyl acetate d. ethyl chloride and ethyl acetate
13. Inter-molecular hydrogen bonding is not present in :
a. CH3COOH b. C2H5OH c. CH3OCH3 d. C2H5NH2
14. Ethyl phenyl ether and benzyl methyl ethers are :
a. functional isomers b. metamers c. tautomers d. position isomers
15. Bromobenzene on heating with sodium methoxide gives :
a. methoxybenzene b. methyl bromide c. ethoxybenzene d. none of these
 Section B
Q. 1 Very Short Answer Questions.
1. What is the major product when 2-butanol is treated with conc. H2SO 4 at 443K? Give
mechanism.
2. Why is phenol more acidic than ethanol?
3. How is phenol prepared from benzene via cumene.
4. How will you prepare ethyl alcohol from acetaldehyde?
5. What is the order of reactivity of 1°, 2° and 3° alcohols in esterification reactions?
6. How will you prepare salicylic acid from phenol?
7. Name the main product obtained when vapour of tert-butyl alcohol are passed over heated
copper at 573 K.
8. Which of the two : Phenol or o-nitrophenol more acidic and steam volatile. Why?
9. Arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of their boiling points - Pentan-1-ol,
2-Methylbutan - 2 -ol, 3-Methybutan-2-ol.
10. How will you distinguish between 1-phenylethanol and 2-phenylethanol?
11. Two isomeric aromatic compounds A and B have the molecular formula C7H7OH. A gives
purple colour with FeCl3 solution while B does not. What are A and B?
12. Predict which is a stronger acid : Phenol or cyclohexanol. Why?
13. Cleavage of phenyl alkyl ethers with HBr always produces, phenol and alkyl bromide and not
bromobenzene and alkanols. Why?
14. Di-tertbutyl ether cannot be prepared by Williamson's synthesis. Justify.
15. Arrange the following in increasing order of property mentioned :
1-Butanol, 2-butanol, 2-Methyl-2-propanol (reactivity with Na metal)
Section C
Q. 2 Short Answer Questions.
1. How will you convert?
a. Phenol to p-hydroxyazobenzene
b. n-Propyl alcohol to isopropyl alcohol
c. Ethyl alcohol to methyl alcohol
d. ethanol to ethylene
e. acetone to 2-methylpropan-2-ol?
f. Propane to propan-1-ol
g. Benzene to anisole
h. Phenol to aspirin
i. Ethanol to ethanoic acid
j. Phenol to para - aminoazobenzene
k. ethanol to propanenitrile
l. benzoquinone from phenol
2. Write short notes on :
a. Kolbe’s reaction
 b. Reimer - Tiemann reaction
c. Diazotisation
d. Hydroboration oxidation
3. Write equations for the reactions which take place when 1-propanol is treated with
a. SOCl2
b. a small amount of conc. H2SO4
c. excess HBr under reflux
4. How will you distinguish between
a. ethyl alcohol and methyl alcohol.
b. phenol and ethanol
c. 2-propanol and 2-methyl propan-2-ol
d. 1-phynylethanol and 2-phenylethanol
5. How are primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols distinguished?
6. What is the action of HI on
i. anisole ii. phenyl benzyl ether
iii. Tertbutyl n-butyl ether iv. 1-Ethoxy-2, 2-dimethylpropane
v. 1-propoxypropane
7. Give IUPAC names for

a. d. t-butyl alcohol

b. e. isopentyl alcohol

c. f. sec-butyl alcohol

g. benzyl alcohol
Section D
Q. 3 Long Answer Questions.
1. Give reasons for
a. Phenol reacts with bromine water to give 2, 4, 6 tribromophenol but only mono bromo
product is obtained with Br2/CS2.
b. Phenol does not undergo protonation reaction.
c. Phenol undergoes electrophilic substitution reaction at ortho and para position.
2. Explain :-
i. –OH group attached to the carbon of benzene ring activates it towards electrophilic
substitution.
 ii. A compound A reacts with CaO and is strongly heated to give compund B. The compound
B gives positive iodoform test and on reaction with CH3MgBr followed by hydrolysis gives
C ‘B’ has a molecular mass of 58. Identify A, B and C and give the sequence of reactions.
iii. Formation of products obtained by the reaction of ethanol with concentrated sulphuric
acid depends upon the experimental conditions. Justify your answer.
3. Complete the following :

N
OH
PH
NO2 9-10
HNO3 Sn/HCl HONO H3PO2
A H2SO4 B 0 –5°C C D
H2O
warm
J +
H CH3CoCl
CHCl3 K L M
I NaOH
E CO2/KOH 4-7 atm Pyr

Br 2 2O Br2/CS2
H
in
H
F+G

4. What is PCC reagent? Give the product of oxidation of

H
a. CH2OH

b. CH3CH = CHCH (OH)CH3

5. Compound (A) an ether C6H14O when heated with excess of hot conc. HI produced two alkyl
halides which on hydrolysis form compounds (B) and (C). Oxidation of (B) gave an acid (D)
whereas oxidation of (C) gave a ketone (E). Deduce the structural formula of (A), (B), (C), (D)
and (E).
Section E
Q.1 In the follwoing reactions

i. Compound X is
ii. The compound Y is

Q.2 Reimer-Tiemann reaction introduces an aldehyde group, on to the aromatic ring of phenol, ortho to the
hydroxyl group. This reaction involves electrophilic aromatic substitution. This is a general method for
the synthesis of substituted salicylaldehydes as depicted below.

i. Which one of the following regents is used in the above reaction.

a. aq. NaOH + CH3Cl b. aq. NaOH + CH2Cl2
c. aq. NaOH + CHCl3 d. aq. NaOH + CCl4

ii. The electrophile in this reaction is

iii. The structure of the intermediate [I] is

Activity:
To detect functional group in organic compounds
 Delhi Public School, Faridabad
Assignment, Unit-3
Definite Integration and Application of Integral
Class-XII
Session:2023-24
Mathematics(Code-041)

Section 1. Multiple-Choice

SECTION-A

Zb+c Zy
dt d2 y
1. f (x)dx is equal to 3. If x = √ and = ay, then a is
1 + 9t2 dx2
a+c 0
equal to
Zb
(a) f (x − c)dx (a) 3
a (b) 6
Zb (c) 9
(b) f (x + c)dx (d) 1
a

Zb
(c) f (x)dx
a
b−c Z1
x3 + |x| + 1
Z
(d) f (x)dx 4. dx is equal to
a−c x2 + 2|x| + 1
−1

(a) log 2
(b) 2 log 2
1
(c) log 2
2
(d) 4 log 2

2. If f and g are continuous function in [0, 1] sat-

isfying
Z f (x) = f (a−x) and g(x)+g(a−x) = a,
a
then f (x)g(x)dx is equal to
0 Z1 Z1
a et et
(a) 5. If dt = a, then dt is equal
2 1+t (1 + t)2
0 0
Za to
a
(b) f (x)dx e
2 (a) a−1+
0 2
Za e
(b) a+1−
(c) f (x)dx 2
e
0 (c) a−1−
Z a 2
(d) a f (x)dx e
(d) a+1+
0 2
1
 Z2 11. The area of the region bounded by the curve
6. |x cos πx|dx is equal to y = x2 and the line y = 16
2 32
(a)
8 3
(a)
π 256
(b)
4 3
(b)
π 64
(c)
2 3
(c)
π 128
(d)
1 3
(d)
π 12. The area of the region bounded by the y-axis
π
y = cos x and y = sin x, 0 ≤≤ is
2
√
Zπ/4 (a) 2
dx √
7. is equal to (b) ( 2 + 1)
1 + cos 2x √
−π/4 (c) ( 2 − 1)
√
(a) 1 (d) (2 2 − 1)
(b) 2 13. The area of the region bounded by the curve
(c) 3 x2 = 4y and the straight line x = 4y − 2 is
(d) 4 3
(a)
8
5
(b)
8
Zπ/2
√ 7
8. 1 − sin 2xdx is equal to (c)
8
0 9
√ (d)
(a) 2 2 8
√
(b) 2( 2 + 1) 14. The √area of the region bounded by the curve
y = 16 − x2 and x-axis is
(c) 2
√ (a) 8
(d) 2( 2 − 1)
(b) 20
(c) 16
2 2
9. The area enclosed by the circle x + y = 2 is (d) 256
equal to
15. Area of the region in the first quadrant en-
(a) 4π closed by the x-axis, the line y = x and the
√
(b) 2 2π circle x2 + y 2 = 32 is
(c) 4π 2 (a) 16π
(d) 2π (b) 4π
(c) 32π
(d) 24π
x2 y 2
10. The area enclosed by the ellipse 2 + 2 = 1 16. Area of the region bounded by the curve y =
a b
is equal to cos x between x = 0 and x = π is
(a) π 2 ab (a) 2
(b) πab (b) 4
(c) πa2 b (c) 3
2
(d) πab (d) 1

2
 17. The area of the region bounded by parabola 18. The area of the region bounded by the curve
π
y 2 = x and the straight line 2y = x is y = sin x between the ordinates x = 0, x =
2
4 and the x-axis is
(a)
3
(a) 2
2
(b) (b) 4
3
2 (c) 3
(c)
3 (d) 1
(d) 1

Section 2. Assertion-Reason

ASSERTION-REASON BASED QUESTIONS

πZ
1
19. Assertion (A): The value of integral I = cos x
dx is 2π
Z 2a Z a 0 1+e

Reason(R): f (x)dx = [f (x) + f (2a − x)]dx

0 0

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Z b Z b
1
20. Assertion (A): If f (x) = f (a + b − x), then xf (x)dx is equal to (b − a) f (x)dx
Z b Z b a 2 a

Reason(R): f (x)dx = f (a + b − x)dx

a a

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Section 3. Very Short Answer

SECTION-B
( This section comprises of very short answer type-questions(VSA) of 2 marks each)

π/2 2
tan7 x
Z Z
21. Evaluate: dx 24. Evaluate: |x3 − x|dxdx
0 cot7 x + tan7 x −1
8
√ Z π
10 − x x sin x
Z
22. Evaluate: √ √ dx 25. Evaluate: dx
2 x + 10 − x 0 1 + cos2 x
Z π/2
tan x
23. Evaluate: dx
0 1 + m2 tan2 x

Section 4. Short Answer

SECTION-C
(This section comprises of short answer type questions(SA) of 3 marks each)

3
 Z π/2 Z π/3
sin x + cos x
26. Evaluate: log sin xdx 29. Evaluate: √ dx
0 π/6 sin 2x
Z π
xdx Z 4
27. Evaluate: 30. Evaluate: [|x − 1| + |x − 2| + |x − 3|]dxdx
0 a cos x + b2 sin2 x
2 2
1
π/2 π
cos2 xdx
Z Z
x tan x
28. Evaluate: 31. Evaluate: dx
0 cos2 x + 4 sin2 x 0 sec x + tan x

Section 5. Long Answer

SECTION-D
(This section comprises of long answer-type questions(LA) of 5 marks each)

Z 3/2 1 √
32. Evaluate: |x sin(πx)|dx √ log( 2 + 1)
−1
2
Z π/2
dx
33. Evaluate
0 (a2 cos2 x + b2 sin2 x)2
35. Find the area of the region lying in the first
Z π/2 2 quadrant and enclose by the x-axis, the line
sin x
34. Show that dx = y = x and the circle x2 + y 2 = 32
0 sin x + cos x

Section 6. Case Study

SECTION-E
(This section comprises of 3 ca e-study/passage-based questions of 4 marks each with two
sub-parts. First two case study questions have three sub-parts (i), (ii), (iii) of marks 1,1,2
respectively. The third case study question has two sub-parts of 2 marks each.)

36. CASE STUDY:1

A poor deceased farmer had agriculture land bounded by the curve y = cos x , between x = 0 and
the line x = 2π. The farmer had two sons. Now they want to distribute this land in two parts as
decided by their deceased father.

For the information given above, answer the following using integration :

(i) What is the area of the region shaded in green (above x-axis)?
(ii) What is the area of the region shaded in grey (below x-axis)?

4
 (iii) What is the area of the region between x = 0 to x = π ?
OR
(iii) What is the area of the region between x = π to x = 2π ?

37. Case Study:2

A designer uses a square piece of paper (OPQRO) to craft a specific design. For this he draws two
parabolas over the paper and fills the color as shown below. Let these parabola be y = x2 and x = y 2
.

For the information given above, answer the following using integration :

(i) What is the area A1 of the region (ORQMO) shaded in the figure?
(ii) What is the area A2 of the region (OMQNO) shaded in the figure?
(iii) What is the area A3 of the region (OPQNO) shaded in the figure?
OR
What is the relation between the areas A1 , A2 , and A3 ?

38. CASE STUDY 3: The bridge connects two hills 100 feet apart. The arch of the bridge is 10 feet
above the road at the middle of the bridge as seen below.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:

(i) Find the equation of the parabola designed on the bridge.

(ii) Find the area formed between x2 = 250y, y−axis, y = 2 and y = 4.

5
 Answer Key for Exam A
Section 1. Multiple-Choice

1. (b) 6. (a) 11. 16. (a)

2. (b) 7. (a) 12. (c)
3. (c) 8. (d) 13. (d) 17. (a)
4. (b) 9. (d) 14. (a)
5. (b) 10. (b) 15. (b) 18. (d)

Section 2. Assertion-Reason

19. (d) 20. (d)

Section 3. Very Short Answer

π 11
21. 24.
4 4
22. 3
log m π2
23. 25.
m2 − 1 4

Section 4. Short Answer

π √
26. − log 2 −1 3−1
2 29. 2 sin
2
π2 19
27. 30.
2ab 2
π π
28. 31. (π − 2)
6 2

Section 5. Long Answer

3 1 34. Prove
32. + 2
π π
π a2 + b 2
 
33. 35. 4π sq. units
4 a3 b 3

Section 6. Case Study

36. (i) 2 sq. units

(ii) 2 sq. units
(iii) 2 sq. units
OR
2 sq. units

1
 1
37. (i) sq. units
3
1
(ii) sq. units
3
1
(iii) sq. units
3
OR
A1 = A2 = A3

38. (i) x2 = −250y

√
10 10 √
(ii) (8 − 2 2) sq. units
3

2
 Delhi Public School, Faridabad
Assignment, Unit-3
Indefinite Integration
Class-XII
Session:2023-24
Mathematics(Code-041)

Section 1. Multiple-Choice

SECTION-A

x9
Z
dx
Z
1. is equal to 4. dx is equal to
sin(x − a) sin(x − b) (4x2 + 1)6
sin(x − b) 1

1
−5
(a) sin(b − a) log +C (a) 4+ 2 +C
sin(x − b) 5x x
sin(x − a) 1

1
−5
(b) cosec(b − a) log +C (b) 4+ 2 +C
sin(x − b) 5 x
sin(x − b)  −5
(c) cosec(b − a) log +C 1 1
sin(x − a) (c) 4+ 2 +C
10x x
sin(x − a) −5
(d) sin(b − a) log +C

1 1
sin(x − b) (d) 4+ 2 +C
10 x

Z
dx
5. If = a log |1 + x2 | +
(x + 2)(x2 + 1)
√ 1
2. int tan−1 xdx is equal to b tan−1 x + log |x + 2| + C, then
√ √ 5
(a) (x + 1) tan−1 x − x + C −1 −2
√ √ (a) a = ,b =
(b) x tan−1 x − x + C 10 5
√ √ 1 −2
(c) x − x tan−1 x + C (b) a = , b =
√ √ 10 5
(d) x − (x + 1) tan−1 x + C −1 2
(c) a = ,b =
10 5
1 2
(d) a = , b =
10 5
 2
x−1 x3
Z
x
3. inte dx equal to 6. is equal to
1 + x2 x+1
ex x2 x3
(a) +C (a) x+ + − log |1 − x| + C
1 + x2 2 3
−ex x2 x3
(b) +C (b) x+ − − log |1 − x| + C
1 + x2 2 3
ex x2 x3
(c) +C (c) x− − − log |1 + x| + C
(1 + x2 )2 2 3
−ex x2 x3
(d) +C (d) x− + − log |1 − x| + C
(1 + x2 )2 2 3
1
 cos 2x − cos 2θ
Z Z
x + sin x
7. dx is equal to 12. dx is equal to
1 + cos x cos x − cos θ
(a) log |1 + cos x| + C (a) 2(sin x + x cos θ) + C
(b) log |x + sin x| + C (b) 2(sin x − x cos θ) + C
x (c) 2(sin x + 2x cos θ) + C
(c) x − tan
2
x (d) 2(sin x − 2x cos θ) + C
(d) x tan + C
2

√ 1
Z 3 √ 13. The anti-derivative of x + √ equals
x dx x
8. If √ = a(1 + x2 )3/2 + b 1 + x2 + C,
1 + x2 1 1/3
then (a) x + 2x1/2 + C
3
1
(a) a = ,b = 1 2 2/3 1 2
3 (b) x + x +C
3 2
−1
(b) a= ,= 1 2 3/2
3 (c) x + 2x1/2 + C
3
1
(c) a = − , b = −1 3 3/2 1 1/2
3 (d) x + x +C
2 2
1
(d) a = , b = −1
3

d 3
14. If (f (x)) = 4x3 − such that f (2) = 0.
9.
R
ex (cos x − sin x)dx is equal to dx x4
Then, f (x) is
(a) ex cos x + C 1 129
(a) x4 + 3 −
(b) ex sin x + C x 8
1 129
(c) −ex cos x + C (b) x3 + 4 +
x 8
(d) −ex sin x + C 1 129
(c) x4 + 3 +
x 8
1 129
(d) x3 + 4 −
x 8
Z
dx
10. 2 is equal to
sin x cos2 x
(a) tan x + cot x + C
10x9 + 10x loge 10
Z
(b) (tan x + cot x)2 + C 15. dx equals
x10 + 10x
(c) tan x − cot x + C
2
(a) 10x − x10 + C
(d) (tan x − cot x) + C
(b) 10x + x10 + C
(c) (10x − x10 )−1 + C
3ex − 5e−x log(10x + x10 ) + C
Z
(d)
11. If dx = ax+b log |4ex +5e−x |+C,
4ex + 5e−x
then
1 7
(a) a = − ,b = Z
sin2 x − cos2 x
8 8 16. dx is equal to
1 7 sin2 x cos2 x
(b) a = ,b =
8 8 (a) tan x + cot x + C
1 7 (b) tan x + cosecx + C
(c) a = − ,b = −
8 8
(c) − tan x + cot x + C
1 7
(d) a = ,b = − (d) tan x + sec x + C
8 8
2
 √
Z
1 x3
Z
17. √ dx equals 18. If √ dx = a(1+x2 )3/2 +b 1 + x2 +C,
9x − 4x2 1 + x2

1 −1 9x − 8
 then
(a) sin +C 1
9 8 (a) a = ,b = 1
  3
1 −1 8x − 9 1
(b) sin +C (b) a = − ,b = 1
2 9 3
 
1 −1 9x − 8 1
(c) sin +C (c) a = − , b = −1
3 8 3

1 −1 9x − 8
 1
(d) sin +C (d) a = , b = −1
2 9 3

Section 2. Assertion-Reason

ASSERTION-REASON BASED QUESTIONS

Z  3    4
1 1 1 1
19. Assertion (A): x+ 1− 2 = x+ +C
x x 4 x
xn+1
Z
n
Reason(R): x dx = + C, n ̸= −1
n+1
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
e3x
Z
20. Assertion (A): e3x sin 4xdx = (4 sin 4x − 3 cos 4x) + C
25
eax
Z
Reason(R): eax sin bxdx = 2 (a sin bx − b cos bx) + C
a + b2
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Section 3. Very Short Answer

SECTION-B
( This section comprises of very short answer type-questions(VSA) of 2 marks each)

sin8 x − cos8 x
Z
21. Evaluate: dx
1 − 2 sin2 x cos2 x
x2
Z
22. Evaluate: dx
(a + bx)2
x3
Z
23. Evaluate: dx
x+2
Z
8x + 13
24. Evaluate: √ dx
4x + 7
25. Evaluate:

3
 Z Z
4 sin x
(i) sin xdx (iii) dx
sin(x − a)
sin x − x cos x
Z Z
(ii) sin x sin 2x sin 3xdx (iv) dx
x(x + sin x)

Section 4. Short Answer

SECTION-C
(This section comprises of short answer type questions(SA) of 3 marks each)
Z Z
1 5x + 3
26. Evaluate: dx 29. Evaluate: √ dx
x + x1/3
1/2
x2 + 4x + 10
x3 + 1
Z
sin x + cos x
Z
27. Evaluate: dx 30. Evaluate: dx
9 + 16 sin 2x x3 − x
√
Z Z
1
28. Evaluate: dx 31. Evaluate: sec x − 1dx
sin x + sec x

Section 5. Long Answer

SECTION-D
(This section comprises of long answer-type questions(LA) of 5 marks each)

x3 x2
Z Z
32. Evaluate: dx 34. Evaluate: dx
(x − 1)(x − 2) (x2 + 1)(x2 + 4)
(x − 1)(x − 2)(x − 3)
Z Z
x+1
33. Evaluate dx 35. Evaluate: dx
(x − 4)(x − 5)(x − 6) x(1 + xex )2

Section 6. Case Study

SECTION-E
(This section comprises of 3 ca e-study/passage-based questions of 4 marks each with two
sub-parts. First two case study questions have three sub-parts (i), (ii), (iii) of marks 1,1,2
respectively. The third case study question has two sub-parts of 2 marks each.)

36. CASE STUDY:1

Express
Z the integral as the sum Z of two integrals,
Z one consisting of f (x) and other containing f ′ (x)
i.e., ex {f (x) + f ′ (x)} dx = ex f (x)dx + ex f ′ (x)dx = ex f (x) + C

Evaluate the first integral on RHS using integration by parts by taking ex as the second function.
The second integral on RHS will cancel out from the second term obtained by evaluating the first
integral.
Based on the above information, Evaluate the following
R
(i) {sin(log x) + cos(log x}dx
Z  
2x 1 + sin 2x
(ii) e dx
1 + cos 2x
x2 + 1
Z
(iii) ex dx
(x + 1)2

4
 OR
Z  
1
(iii) log(log x) + dx
(log x)2
37. Case Study:2
Integrals of the form
x2 + 1 x2 − 1
Z Z Z
1
4 2
dx, 4 2
dx, dx, where λ ∈ R
x + λx + 1 x + λx + 1 x + λx2 + 1
4

To evaluate this type of integrals, we use the following algorithm. Step I Divide numerator and
denominator by x2
 2
1
Step II Express the denominator of integral in the form x + ± k2
x
   
1 1
Step III Introduce d x + or d x − or both in the numerator.
x x
1 1
Step IV Substitute x + = t or x − = t as the case may be.
x x Z
1 1
The substitution reduces the integral in one of the following forms 2 2
dx, 2 dx
x +a x − a2
Step V Use the appropriate formula.
On the basis of above algorithm, Evaluate:
Z 2
x +1
(i) dx
x4 + 1
R√
(ii) tan θdθ
Z
1
(iii) 4
dx
x +1
OR
Z √ √
{ tan θ + cot θ}dθ
Z
1
38. CASE STUDY 3: Integrals of the form dx can be evaluated by using the
a sin x + b cos x + c
following steps:
2 tan x/2 1 − tan2 x/2
Step I Put sinx = and cos x = and simplify.
1 + tan2 x/2 1 + tan2 x/2
x x
Step II Replace 1 + tan2 in the numerator by sec2
2 2
x 1 x
Step III Put tan = t so that sec2 dx = dt. This substitution reduces the integral in the form
Z 2 2 2
1
dt
at2 + bt + c
Stpe IV Evaluate the integral so obtained.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
Z
1
(i) dx
1 + 2 sin x
Z
1
(ii) dx
sin x + cos x

5
 Answer Key for Exam A
Section 1. Multiple-Choice

1. (c) 6. (d) 11. (c) 16. (a)

2. (a) 7. (d) 12. (a)
3. (c) 8. (d) 13. (c) 17. (b)
4. (d) 9. (a) 14. (a)
5. (c) 10. (c) 15. (d) 18. (d)

Section 2. Assertion-Reason

19. (a) 20. (d)

Section 3. Very Short Answer

1
 
1 sin 4x
21. − sin 2x + C 25. (i) 3x − 2 sin 2x + +C
2 8 4
a2
 
1
22. 3 bx − 2a log |bx + a| − +C
 
1 cos x cos 2x cos 6x
b bx + a (ii) − − + +C
4 4 2 6
x3
23. − x2 + 4x − 8 log |x + 2| + C
3 (iii) x cos x + sin a log | sin(x − a)| + C
1 1
24. (4x + 7)3/2 − (4x + 7)1/2 + C (iv) log x − log(x + sin x) + C
3 2

Section 4. Short Answer

√ √ √
26. 2 x − 3x1/3 + 6x1/6 − 6 log |x1/6 + 1| + C 29. 5 x2 + 4x + 10−7 log |x+2+ x2 + 4x + 10|+
C
1 5 + 4(− cos x + sin x)
27. log +C
40 5 − 4(− cos x + sin x) x−1
30. x + log +C
√ x
1 3 + (sin x − cos x)
28. √ log √ + tan−1 (sin x +
2 3 3 − (sin x − cos x) √
 
1
cos x) + C 31. − log cos x + + cos2 x + cos x + C
2

Section 5. Long Answer

x2 1 2 x
32. + 3x − log |x − 1| + 8 log |x − 2| + C 34. − tan−1 x + tan−1 + C
2 3 3 2
1
33. x+3 log |x−4|−24 log |x−5|+30 log |x−6|+C 35. log(xex ) − log(1 + xex ) + +C
1 + xex

Section 6. Case Study

36. (i) x sin(log x) + C

1
(ii) e2x tan x + C
2
1
 x 2ex
(iii) e − +C
x+1
OR
x
x log(log x) − +C
log x
 2 
1 −1 x −1
37. (i) √ tan √ +C
2 2x
  √
1 tan θ − 1 1 tan θ − 2 tan θ + 1
(ii) √ tan−1 √ + √ log √ +C
2 2 tan θ 2 2 tan θ + 2 tan θ + 1
 2 √
x2 − 2x + 1

1 −1 x −1 1
(iii) √ tan √ − √ log √ +C
2 2 2x 4 2 x2 + 2x + 1
OR
√
 
tan θ − 1
2 tan−1 √ +C
2 tan θ
x √
1 tan + 2 − 3
38. (i) √ log 2 +C
x √
3 tan + 2 3
2
1  π  π
(ii) √ log cosec x + − cot x + +C
2 4 4

2
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Biology, Assignment- 2023-2024
Class – XII, Unit-III
HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASES
SETION A
1. Many diseases can be diagnosed by observing the symptoms in the patient. Which group of symptoms are
indicative of pneumonia?
a. Difficulty in respiration, fever, chills, cough, headache
b. Constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, blood clots
c. Nasal congestion and discharge, cough, constipation, headache
d. High fever, weakness, stomach pain, loss of appetite and constipation
2. In malignant tumors, the cells proliferate, grow rapidly and move to other parts of the body to form new tumors.
This stage of disease is called:
a. metagenesis b. metastasis
c. teratogenesis d. mitosis
3. When an apparently healthy person is diagnosed as unhealthy by a psychiatrist, the reason could be that:
a. the patient was not efficient at his work
b. the patient was not economically prosperous
c. the patient shows behavioural and social maladjustment
d. he does not take interest in sports
4. Which of the following are the reason(s) for Rheumatoid arthritis? Choose the correct option.
i. The ability to differentiate pathogens or foreign molecules from self cells increases.
ii. Body attacks self cells
iii. More antibodies are produced in the body
iv. The ability to differentiate pathogens or foreign molecules from self cells is lost
a) i and ii b) ii and iv
c) iii and iv d) i and iii
5. Smack' is a drug obtained from the:
a. latex of Papaver somniferum b. leaves of Cannabis sativa
c. flowers of Dhatura d. fruits of Erythroxyl coca
6. The substance produced by a cell in viral infection that can protect other cells from further infection is:
a. serotonin b. colostrum
c. interferon d. histamine
7. Transplantation of tissues/organs to save certain patients often fails due to rejection of such tissues/organs by the
patient. Which type of immune response is responsible for such rejections?
a. auto-immune response b. humoral immune response
c. physiological immune response d. cell-mediated immune response
8. Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate secretion of adrenaline and nor-adrenaline. The component causing
this could be:
a. Nicotine b. Tannic acid
c. Curamin d. Catechin
9. Antivenom against snake poison contains:
a. Antigens b. Antigen-antibody complexes
c. Antibodies d. Enzymes
10. Haemozoin is a:
a. precursor of hemoglobin
b. toxin released from Streptococcus infected cells
c. toxin released from Plasmodium infected cells
d. toxin released from Haemophilus infected cells
11. Which of the following is not the causal organism for ringworm?
a. Microsporum b. Trichophyton
c. Epidermophyton d. Macrosporum
12. In which of the following diseases is/are the parasites transmitted to a healthy individual through the bite of a
female mosquito?
P) malaria Q) ascariasis R) filariasis
a. only P b. only P and Q
c. only P and R d. all - P, Q and R
13. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Lactose intolerance (1) Excessive passage of loose & Watery feces

(B) Celiac disease (2) Disability to synthesize lactase

(C) Diarrhoe (3) Inflammation of pancreas

(D) Pancreatitis (4) Inflammation of small intestine

a. A- 4, B-2, C-3, D-1 b. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

c. A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2 d. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
14. The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds upon
a. mucosa and submucosa of colon only
b. food in intestine
c. blood only
d. erythrocytes, mucosa and submucosa of colon
15. Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various parts of the body is symptom of which infectious disease?
a. Filaria b. Ascariasis
c. Ringworm d. None of these
16. Read the following statements carefully and choose the option that correctly identifies the true statements.
(I) Many infectious diseases can be prevented and controlled by maintaining personal and public hygiene
(II) Proper disposal of waste and excreta is particularly essential for the air- borne diseases.
(III) Malaria can be prevented by eliminating its vector and their breeding places.
(IV) Chikungunya is a vector-borne disease.
a. (I), (II) and (III) b. (II), (III) and (IV)
c. (IV), (II) and (I) d. (I), (III) and (IV)
17. Subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicits a/an
a. secondary response b. highly intensified response
c. anamnestic response d. all of these
18. Humans have acquired immune system that produces antibodies to neutralize pathogens. Still innate immune
system is present at the time of birth because it
a. provides passive immunity
b. is very specific and uses different macrophages
c. produces memory cells for mounting fast secondary response
d. has natural killer cells which can phagocytose and destroy microbes
19. Choose the incorrect statement from the following.
a. Primary immune response is of low intensity.
b. The primary and secondary immune responses are carried out with the help of B-lymphocytes and T-
lymphocytes.
c. B-cells themselves do not secrete antibodies but help T-cells to produce them.
d. Antibodies are found in blood, therefore it is called humoral immune response.
20. Choose the correct statements about carcinogens.
(I) Carcinogens transform normal cells into cancerous cells.
(II) These carcinogens could be physical, chemical or biological.
(III) Ionizing radiations like UV-rays damage DNA leading to neoplastic transformation.
(IV) Several proto-oncogenes have been identified in neoplastic cells that get activated under certain conditions.
a. (I) and (III) b. (I) and (II)
c. (III) and (IV) d. all of these
Question No. 21 to 25 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the
appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is False but R is true.
21. Assertion: Diseases are characterized by the appearance of various signs and symptoms.
Reason: Disease always adversely affects only one organ or system.
22. Assertion: AIDS is an infectious disease.
Reason: AIDS can be easily transmitted from one person to another.
23. Assertion: Pneumonia is caused by the infection of Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Reason: Streptococcus pneumoniae bacteria infect respiratory passage.
24. Assertion: Wuchereria bancrofti affects the blood vessels of the lower limbs.
Reason: This pathogen is transmitted to a healthy person through the bite of male mosquito vectors.
25. Assertion: Bone marrow is a secondary lymphoid organ.
Reason: In secondary lymphoid organs maturation of lymphocytes occur.
SECTION B
1. What does the cartoon represent? Label A and B.

2. a) Identify the plant

b) Name the drug obtained from the seeds of this flower. What is it commonly called?
c) How is it obtained?
3. The diagram shows the life cycle of the pathogen causing a human disease.

a) Name the pathogen, Disease and vector.

b) Label the stages 1 to 9
4. This is a photograph of a common plant abused for drug.

a) Name the plant.

b) Which part of this plant is used as drugs?
c) What are the different forms of drugs
5. In a patient, a mass of cells removed from the liver was found to be producing large amounts of the enzyme
pepsin. In the same patient, a tumor was found in the stomach.
a) What property of a tumor can be identified based on the statements above? Give a reason to support your
answer.
b) What are tumors exhibiting the property identified in (a) called?
c) How will the tumors identified in (b) affect liver cells?
6. Principle of vaccination is based on the property of “memory” of the immune system. Taking one suitable
example, justify the statement.
7. Mention any six differences between active immunity and passive immunity
8. A young boy when brought a pet dog home started to complaint of watery eyes and running nose. The symptoms
disappeared when the boy was kept away from the pet.
(a) Name the type of antibody and the chemicals responsible for such a response in the boy.
(b) Mention the name of any one drug that could be given to the boy for immediate relief from such a response
9. Name the causative organisms and the identifying symptoms for the following diseases :
(i) Elephantiasis
(ii) Ringworm
(iii) Amoebiasis
10. Why is blood group identification not required for transfusing serum?
11. (a) Explain the property that prevents normal cells becoming cancerous.
(b) All normal cells have inherent characteristics of becoming cancerous. Explain.
12. Why does a doctor administer tetanus antitoxin and not a tetanus vaccine to a child injured in a road side accident
with a bleeding wound? Explain.
13.
(i) Write the scientific names of the two species of filarial worms causing filariasis.
(ii) How do they affect the body of infected persons?
(iii) How does the disease spread?
14. (a) Name a drug used
(i) as an effective sedative and pain killer
(ii) for helping patients cope with mental illness like depression but often misuse.
(b) How does the moderate and high dosage of cocaine affect the human body?
SECTION C
1. The immune system of a person is suppressed. In the ELISA test, he was found positive to a pathogen.
a. Name the disease the patient is suffering from.
b. What is the causative organism?
c. Which cells of body are affected by the pathogen?
2. AIDS is a disease caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) and, over time, this causes an individual
to become immuno-deficient. The virus attaches itself to an animal cell where the viral genome replicates and
produces more virus particles.
(a) Drugs that exist to treat AIDS are only partially effective. What process, after a virus has infected an animal
cell, are these drugs most likely to target? Give a reason to support your answer.
(b) Why is the integration of the viral genome with the host genome important for the virus to form new virus
particles?
(c) ELISA is a test commonly used in the detection of an HIV infection. State one situation in which a false
negative result can be obtained.
3. Acquired immunity is pathogen specific and characterised by memory. Whenever our body encounters a
pathogen for the first time, it produces a response. Subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicts a highly
intensified secondary response.
(a) Name the two lymphocytes which are responsible for acquired immunity.
(b) Briefly explain the structure shown in the figure and give it significance.

(c) It is generally observed that the children who had suffered from chicken-pox in their childhood may not
contract the same disease in their adulthood. Explain giving reasons the basis of such an immunity in an
individual. Name this kind of immunity
4. Why are stimulants and hallucinogens categorized as psychotropic drugs? Give example of each of two types
mentioned.
5. A) Explain the role of the following in providing defence against infection in human body
(i) Histamines
(ii) t-cells
(iii) B-cells.
B) Describes the role of lymph nodes in providing immunity.
6. What is the basis of classifying cancer? Name and explain the different categories of cancer. Mention any two
approaches for cancer treatment.
7. Explain briefly the various types of disorders arising from improper immune system.
8. Why do doctors have to carry out many tests for selecting a person to be a suitable donor for someone who is
going for an organ transplant and not take the organ from just anybody? Explain giving a reason.
9.

SECTION D (CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS )

1. In the late 18th century, smallpox was a widely spreading disease causing the death of several affected
individuals in Britain. Edward Jenner, who pioneered the concept of vaccination, inoculated matter from the
cowpox lesions of a dairymaid into an 8- year-old boy. Post-inoculation, the boy developed a mild fever, loss of
appetite and discomfort but was better after a few days. Next, he was inoculated with matter from a smallpox
lesion and he did not develop any disease.
(a) What form of immunity, now known, did Edward Jenner provide the boy with? Give a reason to support your
answer.
(b) Describe the form/s of immunity that is provided when an individual is vaccinated/immunised? Use an
appropriate example/s to justify your answer.
OR
(b) Which form of immunization does not generate a memory response? Give a reason to support your answer.
2. Refer to the given figure showing replication of retrovirus.
 I) How is it different from the replication of other viruses ?
a) Viral DNA is produced from viral RNA by reverse transcriptase.
b) Viral RNA produces dsRNA by RNA polymerase.
c) Viral DNA is produced from viral RNA by DNA polymerase.
d) Viral DNA is produced from host DNA by DNA polymerase.
II) Assertion: AIDS leads to a progressive decrease in number of helper T- lymphocytes in the infected person.
Reason: HIV virus replicates and produces progeny virus in helper T- lymphocytes which are released in
blood.
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Both assertion and reason are false.
III) HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying
a) leucocytes b) helper T-cells
c) thrombocytes d) B-lymphocytes
IV) HIV is a member of a group of viruses called
a) rota virus b) retro virus
c) rhino virus d) None of the above
3. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (iv) given below: Acquired immunity and Graft
Rejection:
Acquired immunity, on the other hand, is pathogen specific. It is characterised by memory. This means that our
body when it encounters a pathogen for the first time produces a response called primary response which is of
low intensity. Subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicits a highly intensified secondary or anamnestic
response. This is ascribed to the fact that our body appears to have memory of the first encounter. The primary
and secondary immune responses are carried out with the help of two special types of lymphocytes present in our
blood, i.e., B-lymphocytes and T- lymphocytes. The B-lymphocytes produce an army of proteins in response to
pathogens into our blood to fight with them. These proteins are called antibodies. The T-cells themselves do not
secrete antibodies but help B cells produce them. Each antibody molecule has four peptide chains, two small
called light chains and two longer called heavy chains. Hence, an antibody is represented as H2 L2 . Different
types of antibodies are produced in our body. IgA, IgM, IgE, IgG are some of them.
(i) What type of response mediated by antibodies?
(ii) Which cell is responsible for cell mediated immunity?
(iii) Which molecules are most responsible for rejection of transplant?
(iv) Which immunoglobulin does constitute the largest percentage in human milk?
SECTION E
1. a) Briefly explain the lifecycle of plasmodium. What measures would you take to control malaria?
b) Why do the symptoms of malaria not appear immediately after the entry of sporozoites into the human body
when bitten by female Anopheles? Explain.
2. a) What measures do you suggest for prevention and control of alcohol and drug abuse among adolescents?
b) The outline structure of a drug is given below.
 (i) Which group of drugs does this represent? Name the plant from which it is obtained.
(ii) What are the modes of consumption of these drugs?
(iii) Name the organ of the body which is affected by consumption of these drugs.
3. Siddharth is a chain smoker He got into this habit in early adolescence due to peer pressure and gradually got
addicted to this habit. It’s now almost 20 years he is into the habit of smoking. Since few months he is
experiencing pain in the chest, shortness of breath, wheezing and chronic cough with phlegm. He sought advice
from the doctor.
a) What do you think is the possible carcinogen for Siddharths’s lung cancer?
b) From which type of cancer is Siddharth suffering from?
c) How is lung cancer diagnosed?
PORTFOLIO ACTIVITY
STREET PLAY
Time =35 min.
* Time distribution:
-To discuss among themselves in their group =15 min.
Presentation time for each group = 5min. (5min.*4 gr.=20 min.)
No. of group =4 (each group made up of 10 students)
Each group will be given individual topic.
Gr. 1 Drugs abuse its effect and preventation.
Gr. 2 Alcohol abuse its effect and preventation .
Gr. 3 AIDS.
Gr. 4 Smoking - it’s effect and prevention
Out comes – After presentation of each group , each and every student will note down the important point related to
above topics.
Evaluation – Subject teacher will evaluate the students.
Peer group will evaluate the students.
PRACTICAL ACTIVITY:
Common disease causing organisms like Ascaris, Entamoeba, Plasmodium, any fungus causing ringworm through
permanent slides, models or virtual images or specimens. Comment on symptoms of diseases that they cause.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Biology, Assignment- 2023-2024
Class – XII, Unit-III
Evolution
SETION A
MCQs
1. The Miller-Urey abiotic synthesis experiment (and other subsequent, similar experiments) shows that:
A) simple organic molecules can for spontaneously under conditions like those thought to prevail early in the
earth's history.
B) The earliest life forms introduced large amounts of oxygen to the atmosphere.
C) Life can be created in a test tube.
D) Long chains of DNA can form under abiotic conditions.
2. The atmosphere of early earth probably contained no O2 until the emergence of organisms that:
A) Were chemoautotrophic.
B) Were oxygen-respiring.
C) used hydrogen sulfide as a hydrogen source for photosynthesis
D) Used water as a hydrogen source for photosynthesis.
3. A population of organisms has a gene for which there are two alleles, D and d. The allele frequency of D = 0.8. If
this population satisfies all five of the Hardy-Weinberg conditions, what are the genotype frequencies that are
expected in the next generation?
A) DD = 0.04; Dd = 0.32; dd = 0.64
B) DD = 0.64; Dd = 0.32; dd = 0.64
C) DD = 0.04; Dd= 0.64; dd= 0.32
D) DD = 0.64; Dd = 0.32; dd = 0.04
4. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Saltation I. Darwin
B. Formation of life was preceded II. Louis Pasteur
C. Reproductive fitness III. De Vries
D. Life comes from pre-existing life IV. Oparin and haldance
A) A-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II B) A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I
C) A-II; B-III; C-I; D-IV D) A-I; B-IV; C-III; D-II
5. Following is the diagrammatic representation of the operation of natural selection of different traits. Which of the
following options correctly identifies all the three graphs A, B and C.
 A B C
A) Directional Stabilising Disruptive
B) Stabilising Directional Disruptive
C) Disruptive Stabilising Directional
D) Directional Disruptive Stabilising
6. Which of the following is/are incorrect about Neanderthal man?
(i) Had large brain around 900 c.c.
(ii) Lived in near east and central Asia between 100000-40000 years back.
(iii) Used hides to protect their body and buried their dead.
(iv) Had no religious feeling.
A) All of these B) None of these
C) (i) and (iv) D) (ii) and (iii)
7. The similarity of mitochondrial DNA among different human races suggests that the races:
A) All arose from a single ancestral population.
B) Are closely related to chimpanzees.
C) Share no recent common ancestor.
D) Arose from distinct ancestral populations.
8. The finches of Galapagos islands provide an evidence in favour of:
A) Evolution due to mutation.
B) Retrogressive evolution.
C) Biogeographical evolution.
D) Special creation
9. Choose the incorrect statement regarding Hardy-Weinberg principle.
A) Allele frequencies in a population are stable and constant from generation to generation.
B) Sum total of all the allelic frequencies in a population is 1.
C) Variation due to genetic drift results in changed frequency of genes and alleles in future generations.
D) Genetic recombination helps in maintaining Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
10. Which of the following pairs of terms is not related?
A) Evolution - Natural selection
B) Vestigial structure - Appendix.
C) Analogous structures - Butterfly wings
D) Adaptive radiations - Vertebrates hearts or brains
11. Select the correct order of geological time scale of earth.
A) Palaeozoic - Archaeozoic - Coenozoic
B) Archaeozoic -Palaeozoic -Proterozoic
C) Palaeozoic -Mesozoic -Coenozoic
D) Mesozoic -Archaeozoic -Proterozoic
12. The diversity within the wild bird species in the diagram below can best be explained by which process?

A) Natural selection
B) Ecological succession
C) Adaptive radiation
D) Both [a] and [c]
13. Read the following three statements (i-iii) and mark the right option.
(i) The thorns in Bougainvillea and tendrils in cucurbits represent divergent evolution.
(ii) The similarity in the eyes of Octopus and monkeys is the result of convergent evolution.
(iii) The potato and sweet potato are the examples of homology.
A) (i) and (ii) B) (ii) and (iii)
C) (i) and (iii) D) Only (i)
14. The given figure shows an example of

A) Homologous organs B) Convergent evolution

C) Divergent evolution D) Both [a] and [c]
15. A geneticist mixed together many different kinds of fruit flies-some with long wings, some with short wings, some
with red eyes, some with .brown eyes, and so on. He allowed the flies to feed, mate randomly, and reproduce by
the millions. After many generations, most of the flies in the population had medium wings and red eyes, and most
of the extreme types had disappeared. This experiment appears to demonstrate:
A) Stabilising selection
B) Geographic variation
C) Diversifying selection
D) Genetic drift
II. Assertion and Reason Type Questions:
The following questions consist of two statements : Assertion and Reason. Four responses are given, choose any
one of the correct response.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
1. Assertion: Theory of chemical evolution proposed that life comes from pre-existing non-living organic molecules.
Reason: The primitive earth conditions led to production of organic molecules.
2. Assertion: Louis Pasteur showed that in flask open to air, new living organisms appeared in the heat killed yeast
culture.
Reason: Life arises from pre-existing life.
3. Assertion : Darwin's finches show a variety of beaks suited for eating large seeds, flying insects and cactus seeds.
Reason : Ancestral seed-eating stock of Darwin's finches radiated out from South America main land to different
geographical areas of the Galapagos Islands, where they found competitor-free new habitats.
4. Assertion: Analogous structures are different in appearance with same function.
Reason: Divergent evolution leads to analogy.
5. Assertion: Thorns and tendrils of Bougainvillea and cucurbita represent homology.
Reason: Homologous organs have similar functions but are different in their structural details and origin.
6. Assertion: Moths living in the industrial areas became dark to match body color to the tree trunks.
Reason: Smoke from industries covers the moths, making them appear dark.
7. Assertion: The embryos of fish, salamander, tortoise, chick and a man, of same age resemble one another
closely.
Reason: Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny.
8. Assertion : DDT has now become almost in effective against mosquitoes.
Reason : Introduction of DDT brought a change in the gene frequency with a shift from DDTsensitive to DDT-
resistant mosquitoes.
9. Assertion: Neanderthal man is the intermediate between Ramapithecus and Homo erectus.
Reason: Neanderthal man, with brain size of 800 cc, used hides to protect their body
 Section B
1. Why are the wings of butterfly and bird said to be analogous organs? Name the type of evolution analogous
organs are a result of.
2. What is spontaneous generation theory?Name the scientist who disproved it.
3. When does a species becomes founders to cause founder effect?
4. Name the scientist who also came to similar conclusion as Darwin. Where did he work?
5. i. Name the island and the bird where Darwin made most of his observation during his voyage.
ii. What evolutionary phenomenon is illustrated by the different marsupials found in Australia?
6. Classify the following as examples of homology and analogy.
i. Mouth parts of cockroach and butterfly
ii. Eyes of octopus and mammals
iii. Stings of honey bee and scorpion
iv. Sweet potato and potato
7. Life originated from the earth's inorganic atmosphere in the post, but this no longer happens today. Give two
reasons.
8. Can host parasite relationship provide evidence for evolution? Explain.
9. State the theory given by Oparin-Heldane for origin of life on Earth.
10. Explain taking one example of vertebrate anatomy that evolution of life forms has occurred on earth.
Section C
1. Anthropogenic action can hasten the evolution. Explain with the help of suitable examples.
2. State the significance of
i. the study of fossils in evolution.
ii. biochemical similarities amongst diverse organisms in evolution.
iii. State the significance of coelacanth in evolution.
3. Differentiate between divergent and convergent evolution.
4. Give the characteristic features of :
Homo habilis, Homo erectus, Neanderthals
5. Refer to the figures given below and answer the questions that follows:

i. Name and explain the process by which Tasmanian wolf evolved.

ii. Name the process that result s in the evolution of wolf and Tasmanian wolf.
iii. Compare and contrast the two animals shown.
6. Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and get selected by nature. Explain with suitable example.
7. The rate of appearance of new forms is linked to the life span of an organism. Explain with the help of a suitable
example.
8. Identify A,B,C,D and E in the given sketch of evolution of plant forms through geological periods.

9. Identify and explain the phenomenon shown in the following figure. Name the scientist who described it and the
place where it was first observed.

10. Evolution is a change in gene frequencies in a population in response to changes in the environment in a time
scale of years and not centuries. Justify this statement with reference to DDT. How does the theory of Hugo de
Vries support this?
Section D
Case 1
Observe the figure given below and answer the questions that follow:
 (a) State the hypothesis which S.L. Miller tried to prove in the laboratory with the help of the set up given
above.
(b) State in what ways he simulated the conditions of :
i. Primitive atmosphere on earth.
ii. Energy source at the time of origin of life.
(c) Name the organic compound observed by him in the liquid water after running the above experiment.
(d) A scientist simulated a similar set up and added CH4, NH3 and water vapour at 800°C. Which important
component is missing in his experiment?
CASE 2 The forelimbs of four vertebrates are shown in the diagram shown below:

.
(a) Identify A,B,C and D.
(b) What type of evolution is exhibited by the similarity among these organs in those organisms?
(c) What are such organs known as?
(d) What do they indicate?
(e) Give any other examples of such type of evolution in vertebrates.

Section E
1. a) In a sampled population the frequency of the recessive trait is 16%. Find out the frequency of homozygous
dominant and heterozygous dominant individuals.
b) In a population 49% are homozygous with genotype tt, find out the gene frequency of alleles T and t.
2. A population has been exhibiting genetic equilibrium. Answer the following with regard to the above statement :
i. Explain the above statement.
ii. Name the underlying principle.
iii. List the factors which could upset the genetic equilibrium of the population.
Take up any one such factor and explain how the gene pool will change due to that factor.
3. (a) Name the primates that lived about 1.5 million years ago. List their characteristic features.
(b) Where was the first man-like animal found?
(c) Write the order in which Neanderthals. Homo habilis and Homo erectus appeared on earth. State the brain
capacity of each one of them.
(d) When did modern Homo Sapiens appear on this planet?
4. (a) Explain Darwinian theory of evolution with the help of one suitable example. State the two key concept of
the theory.
(b) How is Hugo de Vries-theory of mutation different from it?
5. The evolutionary story of moths in England during industrialisation reveals that ‘evolution is apparently reversible’.
Clarify this statement.
Activities
1. Prepared pedigree charts of any one of the genetic traits such as rolling of tongue, blood groups, ear lobes,
widow's peak and colour blindness
2. Flash cards models showing examples of homologous and analogous organs.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Accountancy Assignment, Session 2023-2024
Class – XII, Unit-III
ACCOUNTING FOR PARTNERSHIP

SECTION A
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
1. In the absence of Partnership deed the profit of a firm are divided among the partners:
(a) In the ratio of Capital
(b) Equally
(c) In the ratio of time devoted for the firm’s business
(d) According to the Managerial abilities of the Partners

2. Which of the following is true regarding salary to a partner when the firm maintains fluctuating
capital account?
(a) Debit Partner’s Loan A/c and Credit P&L Appropriation A/c
(b) Debit P&L Appropriation A/c and Credit Partner’s Capital A/c
(c) Debit P&L Appropriation A/c and Credit Partner’s Current A/c
(d) Debit P&L A/c and Credit Partner’s Capital A/c

3. In the absence of Partnership deed, a partner is entitled to an interest on the amount of additional
capital advance by him to the firm at a rate of:
(a) Entitled for 6%p.a. on their additional Capital, only when there are profits.
(b) Entitled for 10%p.a. on their additional capital
(c) Entitled for 12%p.a. on their additional capital
(d) Not entitled for any interest on their additional capital.

4. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertions (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Transfer to Reserves is shown in P&L Appropriation A/c.
Reason (R): Reserves are Charge against the profits.
In the Context of the above statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(b) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

5. Sarvesh, Sriniketan and Srinivas are partners in the ratio of 5:3:2. If Sriniketan’s share of profit at the
end of the year amounted to ₹1,50,000, what will be Sarvesh’s share of profit?
(a) ₹5,00,000 (b) ₹1,50,000
(c) ₹3,00,000 (d) ₹2,50,000

6. Abhay and Baldwin are partners sharing profit in the ratio 3:1. On 31st March, 2021, Firm’s net profit
is ₹1,25,000. The Partnership deed provides interest on Capital to Abhay and Baldwin ₹15,000 and
₹10,000 respectively and interest on drawings for the year amounted to ₹6,000 from Abhay and
₹4,000 from Baldwin. Abhay also entitled to commission @10% on net divisible profits. Calculate
profit to be transferred to Partner’s Capital A/c’s.
(a) ₹1,00,000 (b) ₹1,10,000
(c) ₹1,07,000 (d) ₹90,000
7. A, B and C are partners, their partnership deed provides for interest on drawings at 8%p.a. B
withdrew a fixed amount in the middle of every month and his interest on drawings amounted to
₹4,800 at the end of the year. What was the amount of his monthly drawings?
(a) ₹10,000 (b) ₹5,000
(c) ₹1,20,000 (d) ₹48,000
8. Mickey, Tom and Jerry were partners in the ratio of 5:3:2. On 31st March, 2021, their books reflected
a net profit of ₹2,10,000. As per the terms of partnership deed, they entitled for interest on capital
which amounted to ₹80,000; ₹60,000 and ₹40,000 respectively. Beside this a salary of ₹60,000 each
was payable to Mickey and Tom.
Calculate the ratio in which the profit would be appropriated.
(a) 1:1:1 (b) 5:3:2
(c) 7:6:2 (d) 4:3:2

9. Ajay and Vinod are partners in the ratio of 3:2. Their fixed Capital were ₹3,00,000 and ₹4,00,000
respectively. After the close of Accounts for the year it was observed that the interest on capital
which was agreed to be provided at 5% p.a. was erroneously provided at 10% p.a. By what amount
will Ajay’s account be affected if partners decide to pass an adjustment entry for the same.

(a) Ajay’s Current A/c will be debited by ₹15,000.

(b) Ajay’s Current A/c will be credited by ₹6,000.
(c) Ajay’s Current A/c will be credited by ₹35,000.
(d) Ajay’s Current A/c will be debited by ₹20,000.

10. E, F and G are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3:3:2. According to the partnership agreement,
G is to get a minimum amount of ₹80,000 as his share of profits every year and any deficiency on
this account is to be personally borne by E. The net profit for the year ended 31st March 2021
amounted to ₹3,12,000. Calculate the amount of deficiency to be borne by E?
(a) ₹1,000 (b) ₹4,000
(c) ₹8,000 (d) ₹2,000
11. If average capital employed in a firm is ₹8,00,000, average of actual profits is ₹1,80,000 and normal
rate of return is10%, then value of goodwill as per capitalization of average profits is:
(A) ₹10,00,000 (B) ₹18,00,000
(C) ₹80,00,000 (D) ₹78,20,000

12. Anubhav, Shagun and Pulkit are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:2:1. On
1st April 2021, they decided to change their profit-sharing ratio to 5:3:2. On that date, debit balance
of Profit & Loss A/c ₹30,000 appeared in the balance sheet and partners decided to pass an adjusting
entry for it. Which of the undermentioned options reflect correct treatment for the above treatment?
(A) Shagun's capital account will be debited by ₹3,000 and Anubhav’s capital account credited by
₹3,000
(B) Pulkit's capital account will be credited by ₹3,000 and Shagun's capital account will be credited
by ₹3,000
(C) Shagun's capital account will be debited by ₹30,000 and Anubhav’s capital account credited by
₹30,000
(D) Shagun's capital account will be debited by ₹3,000 and Anubhav’s and Pulkit’s capital account
credited by ₹2,000 and ₹1,000 respectively.

13. Gain / loss on revaluation at the time of change in profit sharing ratio of existing partners is shared
by ___(i)______ whereas in case of admission of a partner it is shared by____(ii)_____.
(A) (i) Remaining Partners, (ii) All Partners.
(B) (i) All Partners, (ii) Old partners.
(C) (i) New Partner, (ii) All partner.
(D) (i) Sacrificing Partner, (ii) Incoming partner.

14. Arun and Vijay are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:1.
BALANCE SHEET (EXTRACT)
LIABILITIES AMOUNT (₹) ASSETS AMOUNT (₹)
Machinery 40,000
 If the value of machinery reflected in the balance sheet is overvalued by 33 %, find out the value of
Machinery to be shown in the new Balance Sheet:
(A) ₹ 44,000 (B) ₹48,000
(C) ₹ 32,000 (D) ₹30,000

15. At the time of reconstitution of a partnership firm, recording of an unrecorded liability will lead to:
(A) Gain to the existing partners
(B) Loss to the existing partners
(C) Neither gain nor loss to the existing partners
(D) None of the above

16. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertions (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Valuation of Goodwill is necessary at the time of firm’s reconstitution because
gaining partners have to compensate the sacrificing partners for gaining profit share.
Reason (R): Goodwill is an intangible asset which is recognised in the books of account if an
amount is paid for it.
In the Context of the above statements, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(B) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct but the Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is not correct.
(D) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are not correct.
17. Revaluation of assets at the time of reconstitution is necessary because their present value may be
different from their:
(A) Market Value. (B) Net Value.
(C) Cost of Asset (D) Book Value.

18. Machinery appeared in the books of the firm at ₹1,80,000 and furniture at ₹1,00,000. On
Revaluation, it was found that Machinery is overvalued by 20%. Net loss on revaluation is calculated
at ₹40,000. What will be the revalued value of furniture?
(A) ₹24,000 (B) ₹90,000
(C) ₹30,000 (D) ₹50,000

19. Due to change in profit sharing ratio, shiv’s gain is while Om’s sacrifice is . They decide to
record the effect of following revaluations without affecting the book values of the assets and
liabilities, by passing a single adjusting entry.
BOOK FIGURE (₹) REALISED FIGURE (₹)
Building 1,00,000 1,50,000
Machinery 1,50,000 1,40,000
Trade Creditors 50,000 45,000
Outstanding Rent 45,000 60,000
The necessary adjustment entry will involve
(A) Dr. Shiv and Cr. Om with ₹10,000
(B) Dr. Om and Cr. Shiv with ₹10,000
(C) Dr. Shiv and Cr. Om with ₹5,000
(D) Dr. Om and Cr. Shiv with ₹9,000

20. Which of the following items are not added to the previous year profits for finding normal profits for
valuation of goodwill?
(A) Loss on sale of Fixed Assets
 (B) Loss due to fire, earthquake etc.
(C) Undervaluation of closing stock
(D) Income tax refund

SECTION – B
CASE STUDY
Case Study 1
On 1st September 2020, Twenty Students of Modern college started their partnership firm in the name of “Be
Safe” for selling sanitizers on digital mode. Since they were good friends of each other, they were not
having any explicit agreement in place. All of them have agreed to invest ₹15,000 each as capital. The books
were closed on 31st March 2021, on which date the following information was provided by the firm:

PARTICULARS AMOUNT (₹)

Sale of Sanitizers 1,20,000
Cost of Goods sold 50,000
Total Remuneration to Partners 2,000 Per Month
Rent to a Partner 1,000 per Month
Manager’s Commission 5,000
Closing Stock as on March 31,2021 9,000
6% Fixed Deposit (Made on 20,000
31.3.2021)

1. Calculate the amount of profits to be transferred to Profit & Loss Appropriation Account: -
(a) Profit ₹58,000 (b) Profit ₹44,000
(c) Profit ₹59,200 (d) Profit ₹58,700
2. On 31.03.2021, Remuneration to partners will be provided to the Partners of “Be Safe” but only out of:
(a) Profit of the Accounting year (b) Reserves
(c) Accumulated Profits (d) Goodwill
3. On 1st December 2020 one of the Partner of the firm introduced Additional capital of ₹30,000 and also
advanced a loan of ₹40,000 to the firm. Calculate the amount of interest that partner will receive for the
current accounting Period:
(a) ₹4,200 (b) ₹1,400
(c) ₹1,575 (d) ₹800

Case Study 2
Priti and Rani are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2. They admit Sudha as a new partner
on 1st January 2021 and the new profit-sharing ratio is agreed at 2:1:1. At the time of admission, goodwill
was valued on the basis of 2.5 year’s purchase of the average profits of the last five years. The profit and
losses for the years were: - 2015 ₹80,000; 2016 ₹1,00,000; 2017 Loss ₹30,000; 2018 ₹1,70,000; 2019
₹1,60,000 and 2020 ₹1,80,000. You are informed that the profits of the year ending 31 st March 2019
included profit on sale of a fixed asset amounting to ₹50,000 and the profit for the year 2020 were affected
by a loss due to fire amounting to ₹20,000.
(i) The average profits of the firm for the last five years were: -
(A) ₹1,05,000 (B) ₹86,000
(C) ₹1,22,000 (D) ₹1,10,000
(ii) Sudha’s share of goodwill will be:
(A) ₹2,75,000 (B) ₹68,750
(C) ₹53,750 (D) ₹65,625
(iii) Priti’s share of goodwill will be:
(A) ₹41,250 (B) ₹26,250
 (C) ₹27,500 (D) ₹39,375

Case study 3
Parul, Paras and Param are Partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:3:2. Parul was unable to
devote time to business due to her other commitments. Therefore, adjustments were required in the agreed
terms of partnership. They decided to share future profits and losses in the ratio of 2:3:5 with effect from 1st
April, 2021.
The value of assets and liabilities did not require any adjustment. However, an unrecorded computer of
value ₹60,000 and a claim of a Customer of ₹30,000 was to be brought in the books. The Balance Sheet has
goodwill of ₹10,000 as an asset, other assets (excluding Goodwill) were ₹6,00,000 whereas the liabilities
were ₹50,000.
Normal rate of return is 15% and average profit is ₹90,000. Choose the correct options to the questions on
the basis of above information.
(i) Goodwill under Capitalisation of Average profit will be
(A) ₹20,000 (B) ₹40,000
(C) ₹50,000 (D) ₹60,000

(ii) Sacrificing and Gaining Ratio of the partners will be

(A) Parul (Sacrifice); Paras Nil; Param (Gain)
(B) Parul (Sacrifice); Paras (Gain); Param Nil
(C) Parul (Sacrifice); Paras (Gain); Param (Gain)
(D) Parul Nil; Paras (Sacrifice); Paras Nil; Param (Gain)

(iii) Gaining partner or partners will compensate the sacrificing partner as follows:
(A) Param will compensate Parul by paying ₹6,000 as Goodwill
(B) Paras will compensate Parul by paying ₹6,000 as Goodwill
(C) Paras will compensate Parul by paying ₹2,000 as Goodwill while Param will pay Parul ₹4,000.
(D) Paras will compensate Param by paying ₹6,000 as Goodwill

(iv) Gain on Revaluation will be credited to the capital Account of the partners
(A) Parul ₹15,000; Paras ₹10,000 and Param ₹5,000
(B) Parul ₹5,000; Paras ₹10,000 and Param ₹15,000
(C) Parul ₹15,000; and Param ₹15,000
(D) Parul ₹7,500; and Param ₹7,500

(v) Journal entry to record the effect of new value of Goodwill will be:
(A) Dr. Parul’s Capital A/c and Cr. Param’s Capital A/c ₹6,000
(B) Dr. Paras’s Capital A/c and Cr. Parul’s Capital A/c ₹6,000
(C) Dr. Parul’s Capital A/c and Cr. Paras’s Capital A/c ₹6,000
(D) Dr. Param’s Capital A/c and Cr. Parul’s Capital A/c ₹6,000

(vi) Who is neither a Gaining nor a Sacrificing Partner?

(A) Parul (B) Paras
(C) Param (D) Parul and Param
Case Study 4
Tapas and Anirudh had been in partnership since 1st January, 2017 investing ₹3,00,000 each as capitals and
shared profits and losses equally. Tapas had ventured into new business with the consent of Anirudh and
Anirudh was handling business all by himself. He was not happy with the situation as he was handling the
business alone and profits were being shared equally. He raised the matter with Tapas and after discussion
they agreed to new term of partnership and entered into new Partnership Deed w.e.f. 1st April, 2020. The
terms and conditions were as follows:
1. Bank Accounts of the firm shall be operated under the signatures of Anirudh alone.
2. Business decisions taken by Anirudh will not be objected to by Tapas and shall be binding on him.
3. Profits sharing ratio between Tapas and Anirudh will change to 1:4.
4. Interest on Capital to be allowed @5% P.a. and
5. Anirudh will be paid monthly salary of ₹6,000.
Following balances exists in the books as on 31st March, 2021.
Tarun (₹) Varun (₹)
Capital Account Balance 5,00,000 6,00,000
Current Account Balance 72,000 28,000
Drawings 1,00,800 81,500
st
General Reserves as on 1 April, 2020 was ₹2,50,000. The firm was in need of funds, Tapas gave loan of
₹4,00,000 to the firm on 1st October, 2020. Interest was agreed to be paid @5% p.a. On the Same date,
Anirudh took a loan from the firm of ₹1,00,000 for personal use. Net profit for the year ended 31st March,
2021 was ₹4,00,000. Assets were revalued and liabilities were reassessed. As a result, thereof there was a
loss of ₹1,00,000. Anirudh suggested to induct more partners in the firm because the business needed
capital. He Shared a list of 10 persons who were willing to be partners and each introducing ₹2,00,000 as
capital. However, decision could not be taken on it in the light of objection by Tapas.
Based on the above information, Choose the correct answer to the following questions.
(i) Anirudh has gained while Tapas has sacrificed
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(ii) Loss of Revaluation Account will be shared by them in the ratio of
(A) 1:4 (B) 4:1
(C) 3:1 (D) 1:1
(iii) Partner’s Capital Account will be credited by
(A) ₹25,000 (Tapas) and ₹30,000 (Anirudh) as interest on Capital
(B) ₹15,000 each
(C) ₹25,000 each
(D) None of the above
(iv) Partner’s Capital Account will be credited for profit share by
(A) ₹1,36,500 each
(B) ₹2,00,000 each
(C) ₹1,00,000 Each
(D) None of these
(v) Interest on Capital will be paid to the partners if provided for in the agreement but only from
(A) Current year’s Profit
(B) General Reserve
(C) Accumulated Profits
(D) Any of the Above
(vi) Since 10 more partners are proposed to be inducted, maximum number of partners allowed in
a firm needs to be verified which is stated in
(A) The Companies Act, 2013
(B) The Partnership Act, 2013 and The Companies Act, 2013 (BOTH)
(C) The Partnership Act, 1932
(D) None
(vii) Capital Accounts of partners are fixed capitals and they have credit balances in their current
Accounts, interest will be allowed on
(A) Balance of Capital A/c
(B) Balance of Current A/c
(C) Balance of both Capital and Current Account added together
(D) Balance of Capital and Current Account whichever is higher.
(viii) Interest will be allowed on loan by Tapas
(A) 6% (B) 5%
(C) 5% P.a. (D) 6% P.a.
(ix) Interest will be charged on loan to Anirudh
(A) Nil (B) 5%
(C) 5% p.a. (D) 6% P.a.
SECTION C
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Q1. X Y and Z are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 2:2:1. Fixed capitals of the partners
were X ₹5,00,000: Y ₹5,00,000 and ₹22,50,000 respectively. The Partnership Deed provides that
interest on capital is to be allowed @ 10% pa. Z is to be allowed salary of 2,000 per month. Profit of
the firm for the year ended 31st March, 2023 after debiting Z's salary was ₹4,00,000. Prepare Profit
& Loss Appropriation Account.

Q2. X and Yare partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3:2 with capitals of ₹8,00,000 and ₹6,00,000
respectively. Interest on capital is agreed @ 5% pa. Y is to be allowed an annual salary of ₹60,000
which has not been withdrawn. Profit for the year ended 31st March, 2023 before interest on capital
but after charging Y's salary was ₹2,40,000. A provision of 5% of the net profit is to be made in
respect of commission to the Manager.
Prepare Profit & Loss Appropriation Account showing the allocation of profits.

Q3. Reema and Seema are partners sharing profits equally. The Partnership Deed provides that both
Reema and Seema will get monthly salary of 15,000 each, interest on Capital will be allowed 5% pa.
and Interest on Drawings will be charged @ 10% pa. Their capitals were 25,00,000 each and
drawings during the year were 60,000 each. The firm incurred net loss of 1,00,000 during the year
ended 31st March, 2023,
Prepare Profit & Loss Appropriation Account for the year ended 31st March, 2023.

Q4. A and B are partners in the ratio of 3:2. The firm maintains Fluctuating Capital Accounts and the
balance of the same as on 31st March, 2020 amounted to ₹1,60,000 and 1,40,000 for A and B
respectively. Their drawings during the year were ₹30,000 each.
As per Partnership Deed, interest on capital 10% pa. on opening capitals had been provided to them
Calculate opening capitals of partners given that their profit was ₹90,000. Show your workings
clearly.

Q5. Josh and Krish are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:1. Their capitals at the end of
the financial year 2021-2022 were ₹3,67,000 and ₹1,49,000. During the year 2021-2022, Josh's
drawings were ₹20,000 and the drawings of Krish were ₹5,000, which had been duly debited to
partner's capital accounts. Profit before charging interest on capital for the year was ₹16,000. The
same had also been credited in their profit sharing ratio. Krish had brought additional capital of
 ₹50,000 on October 1, 2021. Calculate interest on capital @ 12% p.a. for the year 2021-2022.

Q6. X and Y are partners in a firm. X is entitled to a salary of ₹10,000 per month and commission of
10% of the net profit after partners salaries but before charging commission, Y is entitled to a salary
of ₹25,000 p.a. and commission of 10% of the net profit after charging all commission and partners
salaries. Net profit before providing for partners salaries and commission for the year ended 31st
March, 2023 was ₹4,20,000. Pass necessary Journal Entries in the books of firm.

Q7. The capital accounts of Tisha and Divya showed credit balances of ₹10,00,000 and ₹7,50,000
respectively after taking into account drawings and net profit of ₹5,00,000. The drawings of partners
during the year ended 31st March, 2024 were:
i. Tisha withdrew ₹25,000 at the end of each quarter.
ii. Divya’s drawings were:
31st May, 2023 ₹20,000
1st November, 2023 ₹17,500
1st February, 2023 ₹12,500
Calculate interest on partner’s capitals @ 10% p.a and interest on partner’s drawings @ 6% p.a. for
the year ended 31st March, 2024.

Q8. Calculate the amount of Manan's monthly drawings for the year ended 31st March, 2023, in the
following alternative cases when Partnership Deed allows interest on drawings 10% p.a.
i. If interest on drawings is ₹1,950 and he withdrew a fixed amount in the beginning of each
month.
ii. If interest on drawings is ₹2,400 and he withdrew a fixed amount in the middle of each month
iii. If interest on drawings is ₹2,750 and he withdrew a fixed amount at the end of each month.

Q9. Calculate the amount of Shiv's quarterly drawings for the year ended 31st March, 2023, in the
following alternative cases when Partnership Deed allows interest on drawings @ 12% p.a.
i. If interest on drawings is ₹1,500 and he withdrew a fixed amount in the beginning of each
quarter.
ii. If interest on drawings is ₹1,200 and he withdrew a fixed amount in the middle of each quarter.
iii. If interest on drawings is ₹900 and he withdrew a fixed amount at the end of each quarter.

Q10. Piyush, Harmesh and Atul are partners. Each partner regularly withdrew ₹20,000 per month as given
below:
i. Piyush withdrew in the beginning of the month
ii. Harmesh withdrew in the middle of the month
iii. Atul withdrew at the end of the month
Interest on drawings charged for the year ended 31st March, 2023 was ₹15.600, ₹14,400 and
₹13,200 respectively
Determine the rate of interest charged on drawings.

Q11. Calculate the Rate of interest on Drawings of Mohan in the following cases:
i. If he withdrew ₹6,000 in the beginning of each quarter for the year ended 31st March, 2023 and
interest on drawings is ₹1,500
ii. If he withdrew ₹6,000 at the end of each quarter for the year ended 31st March, 2023 and
interest on drawings is ₹900.
iii. If he withdrew ₹6,000 per quarter for the year ended 31st March, 2023 and interest on drawings
is ₹1,200.

Q12. Amit, Binita and Charu are three partnees. On 1st April, 2022, their Capitals stood as: Amit
₹1,00,000, Binita ₹2,00,000 and Charu ₹3,00,000. It was decided that:
(a) they would receive interest on Capitals@ 5% pa.
(b) Amit would get a salary of 10,000 per month,
(c) Binita would receive commission @ 5% of net profit after deduction of commission, and
 (d) 10% of the net profit would be transferred to the General Reserve.
Before the above items were taken into account, profit for the year ended 31st March, 2023 was
₹5,00,000 Prepare Profit & Loss Appropriation Account and the Capital Accounts of the Partners.

Q13. Sonu and Rajat started a partnership firm on April 1, 2017. They contributed ₹8,00,000 and
₹6,00,000 respectively as their capitals and decided to share profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2.
The partnership deed provided that Sonu was to be paid a salary of ₹20,000 per month and Rajat a
commission of 5% on turnover. It also provided that interest on capital be allowed @ 8% p.a. Sonu
withdrew ₹20,000 on 1st December, 2017 and Rajat withdrew ₹5,000 at the end of each month.
Interest on drawings was charged @ 6% p.a. The net profit as per Profit and Loss Account for the
year ended 31st March, 2018 was ₹4,89,950. The turnover of the firm for the year ended 31st March,
2018 amounted to ₹20,00,000. Pass necessary journal entries for the above transactions in the books
of Sonu and Rajat.
Q14. Kabir, Zoravar and Parul are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 5:3:2. Their capitals as on 1st
April, 2019were: Kabir - 5,20,000, Zoravar- 3,20,000 and Parul- 2,00,000.The Partnership Deed
provided as follows:
(i) Kabir and Zoravar each will get salary of ₹24,000 p.a.
(ii) Parul will get commission of 2% of Sales.
(iii) Interest on capital is to be allowed @ 5% p.a.(iv) Interest on Drawings is to be charged @ 5%
p.a.
(v) 10% of Divisible Profit is to be transferred to General Reserve.
Sales for the year ended 31st March, 2020 were ₹50,00,000.
Drawings by each of the partners during theyear was 60,000. Net Profit for the year was
₹1,55,500.
Prepare Profit and Loss Appropriation Account for the year ended 31st March, 2020.

Q15. Azad and Benny are equal partners. Their capitals are ₹40,000 and ₹80,000 respectively. After the
accounts for the year had been prepared, it was noticed that interest @ 5% pa, as provided in the
Partnership Deed was not credited to their Capital Accounts before distribution of profits. It is
decided to pass an adjustment entry in the beginning of the next year Record the
necessary Journal entry.

Q16. Ram, Mohan and Sohan sharing profits and losses equally have capitals of ₹1,20,000, ₹90,000 and
₹60,000 respectively. For the year ended 31st March, 2023, interest was credited to them 6% p.a.
instead of 5% pa Pass the adjustment Journal entry.

Q17. Profit earned by a partnership firm for the year ended 31st March, 2023 were distributed equally
between the partners-Pankaj and Anu-without charging interest on Drawings. Interest due on
Drawings was Pankaj ₹3,000 and Anu-₹1,000, Pass necessary adjustment entry.

Q18. Mita and Usha are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 2:3. Their Capital Accounts as on
1st April, 2015 showed balances of ₹1,40,000 and ₹1,20,000 respectively. The drawings of Mita and
Usha during the year 2015-16 were ₹32,000 and ₹24,000 respectively. Both the amounts were
withdrawn on 1st January, 2016. It was subsequently found that the following items had been
omitted while preparing the final accounts for the year ended 31st March, 2016:
(a) Interest on Capital @ 6% p.a.
(b) Interest on Drawings @ 6% p.a.
(c) Mita was entitled to a commission of ₹8,000 for the whole year.
Showing your working clearly, pass a rectifying entry in the books of the firm.

Q19. Ajay, Manish and Sachin were partners sharing profits in the ratio 5:3:2. Their Capitals were ₹
6,00,000; ₹ 8,00,000 and ₹ 11,00,000 as on April 01, 2021. As per Partnership deed, Interest on
Capitals were to be provided @ 10% p.a. For the year ended March 31, 2022, Profits of ₹ 2,00,000
were distributed without providing for Interest on Capitals. Pass an adjustment entry and show the
workings clearly.
Q20. On 31stMarch 2022 the balance in the Capital Accounts of Kavita, Krishna and Gopal, after making
adjustments for profits and drawings were ₹ 8,00,000, ₹ 6,00,000 and ₹ 4,00,000 respectively.
Subsequently it was discovered that interest on capital and interest on drawings had been omitted.
The partners were entitled to interest on capital @ 10% p.a. and were to be charged interest on
drawings @ 6% p.a.
The drawings during the year were: Kavita ₹20,000 drawn at the end of each month, Krishna
₹50,000 drawn at the beginning of every half year and Gopal - ₹1,00,000 withdrawn on 31 st October
2021. The net profit for the year ended 31stMarch 2022 was ₹ 1,50,000. The profit-sharing ratio was
2:2:1.
Pass necessary adjusting entry for the above adjustments in the books of the firm. Also show your
working clearly.

Q21. Ashmit, Abbas and Karman are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3:2:1. Abbas is guaranteed
minimum profit of ₹1,50,000 per annum. The firm incurred loss for the year ended 31st March, 2023
of ₹30,000. Prepare Profit & Loss Appropriation Account for the year.

Q22. Nimrat, Maira and Kabir are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 2:2:1. Nimrat is guaranteed
minimum profit of ₹1,60,000 per annum. Net Profit for the year ended 31st March, 2023 is ₹1,00,000
Prepare Profit & Loss Appropriation Account for the year.

Q23. Ajay, Binay and Chetan were partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3:3:2. The Partnership Deed
provided for the following:
(i) Salary of 2.000 per quarter to Ajay and Binay.
(ii) Chetan was entitled to a commission of ₹8,000.
(iii) Binay was guaranteed a profit of 50,000 p.a.
The profit of the firm for the year ended 31st March, 2015 was ₹1,50,000 which was distributed
among Ajay, Binay and Chetan in the ratio of 2:2:1, without taking into consideration the provisions
of Partnership
Deed. Pass necessary rectifying entry for the above adjustments in the books of the firm. Show your
workings clearly.

Q24. Three Chartered Accountants Abhijit, Baljit and Charanjit form a partnership, profits being shared in
the ratio of 3 2:1 subject to the following:
(a) Charanjit's share of profit guaranteed to be not less than ₹15,000 p.a.
(b) Baljit gives a guarantee to the effect that gross fee earned by him for the firm shall be equal to
his average gross fee of the preceding five years when he was carrying on profession alone,
which on an average works out at ₹25.000. The profit for the first year of the partnership is
75,000. The gross fee earned by Baljit for the firm is ₹16,000 You are required to show Profit
& Loss Appropriation Account after giving effect to the above.

Q25. Jay, Vijay and Karan were partners of an architect firm sharing profits in the ratio of 2 : 2 : 1.
Their partnership deed provided the following :
(i) A monthly salary of ₹ 15,000 each to Jay and Vijay.
(ii) Karan was guaranteed a profit of ₹ 5,00,000 and Jay guaranteed that he will earn an annual fee
of ₹ 2,00,000.
Any deficiency arising because of guarantee to Karan will be borne by Jay and Vijay in the ratio of 3
: 2. During the year ended 31st March, 2018 Jay earned fee of ₹ 1,75,000 and the profits of the firm
amounted to ₹ 15,00,000. Showing your workings clearly prepare Profit and Loss Appropriation
Account and the Capital Account of Jay, Vijay and Karan for the year ended 31st March, 2018

Q26. Calculate goodwill of the firm on the basis of 3 year’s purchase of the average profits of the last five
years. The profits of the last five years were:
Year Amount(₹)
 2013-14 4,00,000
2014-15 5,00,000
2015-16 (60,000)
2016-17 1,50,000
2017-18 2,50,000
Additional information:
i. On 1st January, 2016 a fire broke out which resulted into a loss of goods of ₹3,00,000. A claim
of ₹ 70,000 was received from insurance company.
ii. During the year ended 31st March, 2018 the firm received an unexpected tax refund of ₹
80,000.

Q27. A and B are partners sharing profits equally. They agree to admit C for equal share. For this purpose
goodwill is to be valued at 150% of the average annual profits of the last 5 year’s profits.
Year ₹
31st March, 2019 40,000
31st March, 2020 60,000
31st March, 2021 1,00,000
st
31 March, 2022 20,000 (Loss)
31st March, 2023 1,50,000
It was observed that:
(1) During the year ended 31st March 2020, an asset of the original cost of ₹ 2,00,000 with book
value of ₹1,50,000 was sold for ₹1,24,000.
(2) On 1st April, 2021, 2 Computer's costing ₹ 1,00,000 were purchased and were wrongly debited
to Travelling Expenses. Depreciation on Computers was to be charged @ 20% p.a. on written
down value basis.
Calculate the value of goodwill.

Q28. A and B are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio 2:1. They decide to take C into
partnership for 1/5th share on 1st April, 2022. For this purpose goodwill is to be valued at 80% of the
average annual profits of the previous three of four years, whichever is higher:
The profits for the last four years are: ₹
Year ending on 31st March, 2019 98,000
Year ending on 31st March, 2020 80,000
Year ending on 31st March, 2021 76,000
st
Year ending on 31 March, 2022 1,20,000
Calculate the value of goodwill.

Q29. It was agreed to calculate the value of goodwill of a firm at three year’s purchase of the weighted
average profits of the past four years. The appropriate weights to be used to each year ended on 31st
March are : 2018 – 1; 2019 – 2; 2020 – 3; 2021 – 4.
The profits for these years ended on 31st March are: 2018 ₹ 20,200; 2019 ₹24,800; 2020 ₹
20,000 and 2021 ₹ 30,000.
On a scrutiny of the accounts the following matters are revealed:-
i. On 1st December, 2019 a major repaid was made in respect of the plant incurring ₹ 6,000 which
amount was charged to revenue. The paid sum is agreed to be capitalized for goodwill
calculation subject to adjustment of depreciation of 10% p.a. on reducing balance method.
ii. The closing stock for the year ending on 31st March, 2019 was over-valued by ₹ 2,400.
iii. To cover management cost an annual charge of ₹ 4,800 should be made for the purpose of
goodwill valuation.
Compute the value of goodwill.

Q30. The average Net Profits expected in the future by ABC Firm are ₹36,000 per year. The average
capital employed in the business by the firm is ₹2,00,000. The rate of return expected from
capital invested in this class of business is 10%. The remuneration of the partners is estimated
 to be ₹76,000 per annum. Find out the value of goodwill on the basis of two years' purchase
of Super Profits.

Q31. On April 1, 2023 an existing firm had assets of ₹ 75,000 including cash of ₹5,000. The
partner's capital accounts showed a balance of ₹2,60,000 and reserve constituted the rest. If the
normal rate of return is 10% and the goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹24,000 at 4 year's
purchase of super profits, find the average profits of the firm.

Q32. Varun and Kuber are partners in a business. Balance in Capital and Current Accounts on 31 st
March, 2023 were:
Capital Account Current Account
Varun ₹5,00,000 ₹80,000
Kuber ₹3,50,000 ₹20,000 (Dr.)

Profits of the last five consecutive years ending 31st March were: 2019 ₹60,000; 2020 Loss ₹
40,000; 2021 ₹ 1,30,000; 2022 ₹ 2,00,000 and 2023 ₹ 2,50,000.
General reserve appeared in the books at ₹ 50,000.
If the normal rate is 10%, find the value of goodwill by Capitalisation of average profit method.

Q33. The following information relates to a partnership firm:

a. Profits for the last five years:
2017 ₹ 80,000
2018 ₹ 1,00,000
2019 ₹ 2,00,000
2020 ₹ 1,50,000
2021 ₹ 2,70,000
b. Average Capital Employed is ₹ 5,00,000.
c. Rate of normal profit 20%.
Find out the value of goodwill on the basis of:
i. Three year’s purchase of average profits
ii. Three year’s purchase of super profits
iii. Capitalization of super profits
Q34. A, B and C are partners sharing profits in the ratio 5:3:2. It is now agreed that they will share profits
in the ratio 5:4:3. Goodwill is valued at ₹ 1,20,000. Pass a single journal entry for the treatment of
goodwill.

Q35. A, B and C were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio 1:3:2. They decided that with effect
from 1st April, 2021 they will share profits in the ratio of 4:6:5. For this purpose goodwill of the firm
is valued at the total of preceding three year’s profits. The profits were:
₹
2016-2017 40,000
2017-18 10,000 (Loss)
2018-19 80,000 (Loss)
2019-20 1,20,000
2020-21 1,40,000
Reserves and profits appeared in the balance sheet at ₹40,000 and ₹30,000 respectively. Partners do
not want to distribute the reserves and profits appearing in the balance sheet. Pass a single journal
entry to record the change.

SECTION D
HOTS/APPLICATION BASED QUESTIONS
Q1. Mannu and Shrishti are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3:2. Following information is
of the firm as on 31st March, 2023:
Liabilities ₹ Assets ₹
 Mannu’s Capital 3,00,000 Drawings:
Shrishti’s Capital 1,00,000 4,00,000 Mannu 40,000
Shrishti 20,000 60,000
Other Assets 3,40,000
4,00,000 4,00,000
Profit for the year ended 31st March, 2023 was ₹50,000 which was divided in the agreed ratio, but
interest @ 5% p.a. on capital and @ 6% p.a. on drawings was inadvertently omitted. Adjust interest
on drawings on an average basis for 6 months. Give the adjustment entry.

Q2. Maanika, Bhavi and Komal are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 6:4:1. Komal is guaranteed a
minimum profit of ₹2,00,000. The firm incurred a loss of ₹ 22,00,000 for the year ended 31st March,
2018 Pass necessary Journal entry regarding deficiency borne by Maanika and Bhavi and prepare
Profit & Loss Appropriation Account.
Q3. Ram, Shyam and Mohan were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:1:2. Their
capitals were fixed at ₹3,00,000, ₹1,00,000, ₹2,00,000. For the year ended 31st March, 2023, interest
on capital was credited to them 9% instead of 10% pa. The profit for the year before charging
interest was 2.50,000 Show your working notes and pass the necessary adjustment entry.

Q4. X, Y and Z entered into partnership on 1st October, 2022 to share profits in the ratio of 4:3:3. X
personally guaranteed that Z's share of profit after allowing interest on capital @ 10% pa. would not
be less ₹80,000 in a year. Capital contributions were: X-₹3,00,000, Y-₹2,00,000 and Z- ₹1,50,000.
Profit for the year ended 31st March, 2023 was ₹1,60,000. Prepare Profit & Loss
Appropriation Account.

Q5. A and B are in partnership sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2. They admit C, their Manager,
as a partner with effect from 1st April, 2022, for 1/4th share of profits. C while a Manager, was in
receipt of a salary of ₹27,000 p.a. and a commission of 10% of net profit after charging such salary
and commission. In terms of the Partnership Deed, any excess amount, which C will be entitled to
receive as a partner over the amount which would have been due to him if he continued to be the
Manager, will be borne by A. Profit for the year ended 31st March, 2023 amounted to ₹2,25,000.
Prepare Profit & Loss Appropriation Account for the year ended 31st March, 2023.

Q6. Naveen, Qadir and Rajesh were Partners doing an Electronic Goods Business in Uttarakh and. After
the accounts of partnership were drawn up and closed, it was discovered that interest on capital has
been allowed to Partners @ 6% Per Annum for the years ending 31st March, 2017 and 2018,
although there is no provision for interest on capital in the partnership deed. On the other hand,
Naveen and Qadir were entitled to a Salary of Rs 3,500 and Rs 4,000 Per Quarter respectively, which
has not been taken into consideration. Their respective Fixed Capitals were Rs 4,00,000, Rs 3,60,000
and Rs 2,40,000. During the last two years, they had shared the Profits and Losses as follows:
Year ended
31st March, 2017 3:2:1
31st March, 2018 5:3:2
Pass necessary Adjusting Entry for the above Adjustments in the Books of the Firm on 1st April,
2018. Show your workings clearly.
 SECTION E
LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS
Q1. The following is the balance sheet of a firm as at 31st March, 2023:
Liabilities ₹ Assets ₹
Capital Accounts: Building 6,50,000
A 4,00,000 Plant and Machinery 5,00,000
B 4,00,000 Stock 3,00,000
C 3,00,000 Debtors 2,40,000
D 3,00,000 14,00,000 Bills receivable 10,000
Reserves 1,50,000 Cash at Bank 20,000
Profit and Loss A/c 90,000
Creditors 80,000
17,20,000 17,20,000

On 1st April, 2023 the assets and liabilities were revalued as under: ₹
Building 8,00,000
Plant and Machinery 3,20,000
Stock 2,60,000
Creditors 84,000
A provision of 5% was required on debtors. Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 1,70,000. Partners
agreed that from 1st April, 2023 they will share profits in the ratio of 4:3:2:1 instead of their former
ratio of 5:4:2:1. They do not want to record the revised values of assets and liabilities in the books.
They also do not want to disturb the reserves and Profit and Loss A/c.
Pass a single Journal entry to give effect to the above.

Q2. Dinesh, Ramesh and Suresh are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio 3:3:2. From
1st April, 2018 they decided to share the future profits equally. On this date the General Reserve
showed a balance of ₹ 1,60,000; Revaluation of fixed assets resulted into a gain of ₹1,02,000 and
stock resulted into a loss of ₹ 22,000. On this date the goodwill of the firm was valued at ₹3,60,000.
Pass necessary Journal entries for the above transactions on reconstitution of the firm.

Q3. Arun and Barun were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 5: 3. Their fixed capitals on 1st
April, 2022 were: Arun ₹26,00,000 and Barun ₹28,00,000. They agreed to allow interest on capital
12% pa and to charge on drawings 15% pa. Profit of the firm for the year ended 31st March, 2023
before all above adjustments was ₹1,26,000, Drawings by Arun were ₹20,000 and by Barun ₹40,000
during the year. Prepare Profit & Loss Appropriation Account of Arun and Barun. Show your
calculations clearly. The interest on capital will be allowed even if the firm incurs a loss.

Q4. Shreya and Vivek were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio 3:2. The balances in their capital
and current accounts as on 1st April, 2017 were as under:
SHREYA VIVEK
Capital Accounts 3,00,000 2,00,000
Current Accounts 1,00,000 (Cr.) 28,000 (Dr.)
The partnership deed provided that Shreya was to be paid a salary of ₹5,000 p.m. whereas Vivek was
to get a remuneration of ₹30,000 for the year.
Interest on capital was to be allowed @ 8% p.a. whereas interest on drawings was to be charged @
6% p.a. The drawings of Shreya were ₹3,000 at the beginning of each quarter while Vivek withdrew
₹30,000 on 1st September, 2017. The net profit of the firm for the year before making the above
adjustments was ₹1,20,000.
Prepare Profit and Loss Appropriation A/c and Partner’s Capital and Current Accounts.

Q5. Vanya, Manya and Tanya are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:2:1. Their Fixed
Capitals on April 01, 2021 were: Vanya ₹6,00,000; Manya ₹5,00,000 and Tanya ₹4,00,000.
As per the partnership deed following appropriations were allowed:
- Partners are entitled to interest on capital @5% p.a.
 - Vanya is to be paid a Salary of ₹5,000 per month
- Manya is allowed a commission of ₹12,000 p.a.
- Vanya is to be paid Rent ₹2,000 per month for her personal building to be used as godown firm.
Their Drawings during the year were: Vanya ₹40,000 and Manya ₹30,000. Tanya also withdrew for
her personal use ₹10,000 on 1st October 2021. Interest on these drawings to be charged @10% p.a.
At the end of the year Loss of the firm before providing the above was ₹55,000. Prepare an account
showing the distribution of Profit/loss.

SECTION F
ACTIVITIES
1. Students are required to prepare final accounts of a partnership from Trial Balance available
online for any actual business.
2. Determine the amount paid for purchased goodwill in the business deals where acquisition is
involved.
3. Understand and bring out the impact of Change is PSR on Goodwill on any 2 hypothetical
partnership business.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Business Studies Assignment- 2023-2024
Class - XII, Unit-III

Chapter 6 : Staffing
Section A
Multiple Choice Questions
Point out the most appropriate alternative answer in the following cases :
Q.1 Staffing involves ....... of the staff;
a. recruitment and selection b. training and development
c. orientation and appraisal d. all the above.
Q.2 Staffing is......
a. part of organisation b. function of management
c. part of personnel management d. all the above.
Q.3 Staffing is mainly concerned with......
a. managerial executives b. non-managerial workers
c all employees d. all the above.
Q.4 Staffing is the responsibility of......
a. top level management b. middle level management
c. first line supervisors d. all the above.
Q.5 Which of the following on-the-job training method puts the trainee under the guidance of a master
worker ?
a Apprenticeship Programmes b Coaching
c Internship Training d Job Rotation
Q.6 Recruitment is required......in the life span of the organisation.
a. once b. twice
c. occasionally d. continuously.
Q.7 Recruitmnet involves......
a study of existing employees b future availability of personnel
c future utilisation of emplooyes d all the above.
Q.8 Development of personnel involves employees' ......
a training b transfer
c promotion d all the above.
Q.9 Personnel development involves ......
a continued supply of competent employees
b optimum utilisation of human resource
c growth potential talent
d all the above.
Q.10 Staffing is a process which involves a series of steps. Arrange the following steps in correct order:
(i) Placement and Orientation (ii) Recruitment
(iii) Selection (iv) Estimating manpower requirement
a (iv), (ii), (iii), (i) b (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
c (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) d (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
Q.11 Which aspect of staffing is concerned with upgradation of the knowledge and skills of the
employees?
a Placement and Orientation
b Training and Development
c Selection
d Estimating manpower requirement
Q.12 What does workforce analysis reveal?'
a Number of human resources available.
b Type of human resources available
c Both number and type of human resources available.
d None of the above
Q.13 Which of the following steps in the process of selection, helps the manager to eliminate, unqualified
or unfit job-seekers based on the information supplied in the application form?
a Preliminary Screening
b Employment Interview
c Reference and Background Checks
d Selection Decision
Q.14 Which of the following statements is false with respect to training ?
a Enhances employee productivity. b Equips future manager
c Increases employee morale d None of the above
Q.15 Which of the follwoing statement is incorrect?
a When jobs are simple, easy to learn and influenced to only a small degree by technological
changes, there is little need for employees to upgrade or alter their skills.
b Training and development help only the organisation and not the individual.
c Training attempts to improve their performance on the current job or prepare them for
any intended job.
d Development is any process by which the aptitudes, skills and abilities, of employees to
perform specific jobs are increased:
Q.16 Directions: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:-
a. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both (A) and (R) are true,but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
i. Assertion (A): Staffing is the most fundamental and critical drive of organisational performance.
Reason (R): No, organisation can be successful unless it can fill and keep ‘filled' the various
positions
Ans (a)
ii. Assertion (A): Training helps the employees in promotion.
Reason (R) : Training makes employees perform their takes more efficiently.
Ans. (a)
iii. Assertion (A): Staffing ensures the continuous survival & growth of the enterprise through
the succession planning of by managers.
Reason (R): The function of staffing enables the manager to find out as to how many workers
are required and with what qualifications and experience.
Ans. (a)
Q.17 Match the STEPS in the staffing process in Column I with their correct Explanation in column II

Column I Column II
(a) Placement and Orientation (i) Opportunity for higher position with more pay,
responsibility, etc.
(b) Performance Appraisal (ii) Employees occupies the post and gets familiar with the
organization.
(c) Promotion and Career (iii) Search prospective employees and stimulate them to
Planning apply for the job.
(d) Recruitment (iv) Employee’s performance is evaluated for salary hike,
promotion, etc.

a. (i), (iii), (ii), (iv) b. (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

c. (ii), (iv), (i), (ii) d. (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
Ans. (c)
IDENTIFY THE CONCEPT
1. Identify the term highlighted in the following cases:
(i). This method of training aims to familiarize the new employee to the organisation.
(ii) It involves attracting existing employees to apply for the vacant job position.
(iii) It aims to determine number and type of employees required.
(iv) It involves introducing the selected employee to other employees and familiarising him
with the rules and policies of the organisation.
(v) It refers to shifting of existing employee from a lower level position to a higher level position.
(vi) It is a face-to-face conversation between employer and applicant.
(vii) Many organisations conduct interview in various institutes, universities and colleges to attract
candidates.
(vill) This test is conducted to determine ability of a candidate to learn skills needed for the job.
TRUE OR FALSE
1. Staffing is the responsibility of managers at all levels of management.
2. Internal recruitment involves attracting workers of other Industries.
3. Vestibule training is imparted at the work place.
4. Casual caller is an internal source of recruitment.
5. Staffing function comes to an end with selection of right persons for various jobs in the organisation.
6. Internal recruitment is less time consuming than external recruitment.
7. Workload analysis reveal the number and types of human resources available with the organisation.
8. Selection of an employee helps in enhancement of self-esteem.
9. By offering the opportunity for career advancement, an organisation can attract new talented people.
10. External recruitment brings down the morale of the employee as there will be no scope of
growth for them.
Section B
Very short answer questions
Q.1 Why are selections tests conducted?
Q.2 What is manpower planning?
Q.3 Is selection considered a negative process? Give reason.
Q.4 What is the objective of Trade Test?
Q.5 What is the limitation of employment exchange?
Q.6 What purpose is served by references given by the applicants?
Q.7 Staffing is closely linked to organising. How?
Q.8 What are the various activities involved in the process of recruitment?
Q.9 Name the type of selection test which measures the individuals potential to learn new skills.
Q.10 Name the process of identifying and choosing the best person out of a number of prospective
candidates for a job.
Q.11 Identify the step of selection process, which helps in eliminating unqualified applicants on the
basis of information supplied in the application form.
Section C
Short answer questions
Q.1 State three demerits of external sources of recruitment.
Q.2 What is the need for training the employees?
Q.3 How is recruitment different from selection.
Q.4 Why are the external sources of recruitment better than internal sources of recruitment?
Q.5 What is the importance of staffing function of management?
Q.6 Briefly explain the three aspects of staffing.
Q.7 How is training different from education?
Section D
Long answer questions
Q.1 Explain on the job methods of training.
Q.2 Explain the selection process usually followed by business organisations.
Q.3 For recruitment of marketing manager which external sources of recruitment can be used? Why?
Q.4 Distinguish between internal and external sources of recruitment.
Q.5 State any five limitations of internal sources of recruitment.
Q.6 Explain the steps involved in the process of selection after Preliminary Screening and 'Selection
Tests’.
Section E
Case study 1
Patliputra tyres has some vacant posts in their company. In order to fill the same, it adopted a
process of identifying & choosing the best person out of a number of prospective candidates for a
job and for this purpose the company conducted many steps like preliminary screening, selection
tests, final interviews and medical test. Through these steps he selected persons out of many
states like Karnataka, Delhi, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan.
Q.1 In the above case one of the functions of management has been highlighted. Identify and
explain the function
Q.2 Name the element of function of management considered above.
Case study 2
Rohit the Managing Director of Alpha Garments Ltd. is planning to manufacture bags for the
utilisation of waste material from one of his garments units. He has decided that this manufacturing
unit will be set up in a rural area of Tamil Nadu where people have very few job opportunities and
labour is available at very low rates.
For this he wants four different heads for Marketing, Finance, Purchase and Production. He gives
an advertisment and shortilists ten candidates for each post after conducting different selection
tests.
(a) Identify and state the next three steps for choosing the best candidate out of the candidates
short listed.
Case study 3
Atul - The Assistant Manger, Vikas - The Marketing Head and Heena - The Human Resource
Manager of 'Mortac Enterprises Ltd.' decided to leave the Company. The Chief Executive officer of
the company called the Human Resource Manager, Leena and requested her to fill up the vacancies
before leaving the organisation. Leena suggested that her subordinate Miss Rama Wadhwa is
very competent and trust worthy, if she could be moved up in the hierarchy, she would do the
needful. The Chief Executive Officer agreed for the same. Miss Rama Wadhwa contacted 'Smith
Recruiters' who advertised for the post of marketing head for 'Montac Enterprises Ltd.'They were
able to recruit a suitable candidate for the company. Atul's vacancy was filled up by screening the
database of unsolicited applications lying in the office.
(a) Name the internal/external sources of recruitment used by 'Montac Enterprises Ltd.' To fill
up the above stated vacancies.
(b) Also state any one merit of each of the above identified source of recruitment.
Case study 4
Resolutions Pvt. Ltd. is a publishing company. Its book on Business Studies for class XII is in great
demand. As a result, the employees in the marketing department are always racing against time.
The employees have to work overtime and on holidays to cater to the demand.
Managers in the marketing department are under stress as they have to handle more than two
territories. The work stress has led to dissatisfaction among the employees and managers.
a) Name and explain the step of staffing process which has not been performed properly.
b) State the next two stages immediately following the step identified in part 'a',

Motorcycles Rides Pvt. Ltd. decided to modernize the plant as they are going to manufacture on large scale
and cater to the export markers well as the domestic market. So, it has become necessary to provide
knowledge and skills, to the existing workers to cope with new technology. The company believes that
training will help its workers to improve their functioning and performance in- many areas. Thus, the company,
has. decided to train its workers, so as-to. equip them with the . latest production- technology. But the
company is in a dilemma with respect to the training method- to be adopted: The HR department wants to
adopt a- training method which is more suitable for a manufacturing concern than a- trading, concern as
the workers' will be involved in operating many sophisticated machines, majority of which the company is
planning to import from Japan. Thus, they have decided- to create actual work environments in a class-
room and employees to use the same materials, files and equipment in order- to equip themselves with the
imported- new technology; Some of the employees are kept-under guidance of a masterworker for a
prescribed period of time. This will enable firm; to reduce accidents as employees will be more efficient to
handle. machines. They also plan to recruit more, people especially freshers to-meet the rise in demand
and train them aocordingly. For this purpose they have decided to select candidates who are studying but
will also work in their, factory or office to acquire practical knowledge and skills.
Q.1 Identify the benefit of training stated in the above paragraphs.
a Makes employees more efficient to handle machines.
b. Prepare them for any intended job.
c. Equips the future manager who can take over incase of emergency.
d. All of the above
Ans. (a)
Q.2 Which training 'method has been choosen by Motorcycles Rides Pvt. Ltd. to train its existing
workers ?
a. Apprenticeship Training
b. InternshipTraining
c. Vestibule Training
d. None of the above
Ans. (a)
Q.3 Which training method has been chosen by Motorcycles Rides Pvt. Ltd to train its new workers?
a. Lectures b. Internship Training
c. Vestibule Training d. Apprenticeship Training
Ans. (b)
Q.4 "Some of the employees are kept under guidance of a master worker for a prescribed period
of time." Which method is the company following?
a. Internship Training b. Vestibule Training
c. Apprenticeship Training d. None of the above
Ans. (b)
Mr. Vikas. Goel is an H.R. Manager of "Sanduja Furniture Private Limited." At the beginning of the new year
he anticipated that the company will need 30 new additional persons to fill up different vacancies. He gave
an advertisement in the newspaper inviting applications for filling up different vacant posts. As many as 120
applicatians were received. The same were scrutinized. Out of these, conditions of 15 applicants were not
acceptable to the company. Letters of regret, giving reasons, were sent to them. Remaining candidates,
were called for preliminary interview.The candidates called for were asked to fill up blank application forms.
Thereafter, they were given four tests.
The objective of the first test was to find out how much interest the applicant takes in his work.
The objective of the second test was to find out 'specialization' of the applicant in any particular area.
Third test aimed at making sure whether the applicant was capable of learning through training or not.
The purpose of the fourth test was to find out how much capability a person has to mix-up with other
persons, and whether he can influence other persons and get influenced by them.
Q.1 The purpose of the fourth test was too find out how much capability a person has.to mix-up
with other persons, and whether he can influence other persons and get influenced by them."
Which tests is indicated in this situation?
a. Personality test b. Intelligent test
c. Aptitude test d. Trade test
Ans. (a)
Q.2 At the beginning of the new year he anticipated that the company will need 30 new additional
persons to fill up different vacancies." Identify the first step of staffing.
a. Placement and Orientation b. Training-arid Development
c. Recruitment d. Estimating Manpower Requirement
Ans. (d)
Q.3 From the given lines, 'Out of these, conditions of 15 applicants were not acceptable to the company.
Letters of regret, giving, reasons, were sent to them'. Which aspect of staffing is highlighted in
the statement?'
a. Recruitment b. Selection
c. Training d. Education
Ans. (b)
Q.4 The applicants were given four tests like intelligent test to interest test after filling up blank
application form. Identify which step of selection process was followed by the management.
a. Selection decision b. Selection-test
c. Job offer d. Medical examination
Ans. (b)
A c t i v it y:
Students will simulate the process of selection in class including the relevent steps of the
process.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Business Studies Assignment- 2023-2024
Class - XII, Unit-III
Chapter 7 : Directing
Section A
Multiple Choice Questions
Point out the most appropriate alternative answer in the following cases :
Q.1 Direction is effective......of employees.
a. motivation b. leadership c. supervision d all the above.
Q.2 More direction is required at......level.
a top b. middle c lower d. directors'.
Q.3 Direction is related to ...... employees.
a. all b. higher level c. middle level d. low level.
Q.4 Directors are......of the company also.
a. shareholders b. paid executives
c. both (a) and (b) d. none of the above
Q.5 Direction......
a. converts plans into practice b. is practical aspect of management
c is inter-personal aspect of management d. all of these
Q.6 Motivation .......
a. means the complex of forces inspiring a person to work
b. is a process of generating enthusiasm
c. is a process of stimulating people to act
d. all the above.
Q.7 In case of......motivation employees are rewarded.
a. negative b positive c. intrinsic d. none of the above.
Q.8 Which is the effect of motivation on all the employees of an organisation?
a. Invariable b. Same c. Variable d. Uniform
Q.9 Motivational means should be determined on the basis of......
a. individuals b. jobs
c. working conditions d. all the above.
Q.10 According to Maslow......needs are satisfied at last.
a. physiological b. safety c. self-fulfilment d. unsafety.
Q.11 'Which of the following statements is not true regarding Democratic Style of Leadership?
a. The leader exercises more control by using forces within the group.
b. The leader encourages subordinates to participate indecision making.
c. The leader gives orders and insiststhat they are obeyed.
d. The leader supports and respects the subordinates' opinion.
Q.12 Which of the following statements is true regarding Laissez Faire Style of Leadership?
a. The leader gives complete freedom to the subordinates.
b. The leader gives orders and insists that they are obeyed.
c. The leader does not change or wish to be contradicted.
d. All are true
Q.13 Which of the following is a financial incentive?
a. Productivity linked wage incentive b. Organisational climate
c. Status d. Job enrichment
Q.14 ....... flow downward
a. Orders b. Requests c. Advice d. Representations.
Q.15 In an effective communication......language should not be used.
a. decent b. courteous c. ambiguous d. impressive.
Q.16 If you want to keep a proof of your communication you should use.......communication.
a. formal b. informal c. verbal d. gestural.
Q.17 Which of the following is a financial incentive?
a. Productivity linked wage incentive b. Organisational climate
c. Status d. Job enrichment
Q.18 Final step in a communication process is......
a. ideation b. action
c. follow up and feedback d. decoding messages.
Q.19 Effective communication does not require......
a. simplicity b. clarity c. ambiguity d. all the above.
Q.20 .......communication is known as grapevine communication.
a. Formal b. Informal c. Written d. Gestural.
Q.21 The management should adopt......communication to convey its point of view.
a written b. verbal c. gestural d. all the above.
Q.22 Directing is initiated at _____________________ level of Management.
a. Lower b. Middle c. Top d. All of these
Q.23 A company wants to replace manual production technique with mechanised techniques. Labour -
unions are resisting this change. Which function of management will help in the introduction bf this
change?
a. Planning b. Organising c. Controlling d. Directing
Q.24 Which of the following, Maslow's needs include factors such as. self-respect, autonomy status
recognition and attention?
a. Esteem Needs b. Self-Actualisation Needs.
c. Affiliation/Belonging Needs d. Safety/Security Needs
Q.25 Which of the following is not an assumption of Maslow's Need Hierarchy Theory?
(a) People's behaviour is based on their needs
(b) People's needs are in hierarchical order
(c) People are motivated by unfulfilled needs
(d) A person moves to next higher level need even if lower need is not satisfied.
Q.26 Poor telephone connection during the process of communication is an example of:
(a) Decoding (b) Media (c) Encoding (d) Noise
Q.27 Which leadership style gives complete freedom to subordinates?
(a) Democratic Leadership (b) Free Rein Leadership
(c) Autocratic Leadership (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.28 Which of the following describes 'Democratic Leadership Style?
(a) Leader develops action plan in consultation with subordinates
(b) Communication is only one way with subordinates
(c) Manager is only to support and provide information
(d) Followers have high degree of independence
Q.29 Out of the following, which need is concerned with sense of belongingness?
(a) Esteem Need (b) Affiliation Need
(c) Self Actualisation Need (d) Safety Need
Q.30 Which of the following is not a measure to improve communication effectiveness?
(a) Convey things of help and value to listeners
(b) Communicate according to the needs of receiver
(c) Unclarified Assumptions
(d) Consult others before communicating
Q.31 Which of the following statement is not correct?
(a) Motivation is an external feeling
(b) Motivation is a complex process
(c) Motivation produces goal directed behaviour
(d) Motivation is only positive
Q.32 Which of the following is not an advantage of formal communication?
(a) Ensures orderly flow of information (b) Facilitates control
(c) Provides social satisfaction (d) Helps in foing responsibility
Q.33 Match the ELEMENTS of Directing in Column I with their correct EXPLANATION in Column II.

Column I Column II
(a) Supervision (i) Process of influencing to strive willingly for
groups objective
(b) Motivation (ii) Process of stimulating people to action to
accomplish desired goals of organization.
(c) Esteem (iii) Process of exchange of ideas between or
Needs among person and create understanding
(d) Belonging (iv) Process of overseeing the work
Needs

a. (i), (iii), (ii), (iv) b. (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

c. (iv), (ii), (i), (iii) d. (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
Ans. (c)
Q.34 Match the NEEDS as per Maslow's Need Hierarchy Theory of Motivation in Column I with their
correct Examples in Column II

Column I Column II
(a) Security Needs (i) Friendship.
(b) Self-actualisation Needs (ii) Recognition
(c) Esteem Needs (iii) Achievement of goals
(d) Belonging Needs (iv) Stability of income

a. (i), (iii), (ii), (iv) b. (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

c. (iv), (iii), (ii), (i) d. (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
Ans. (c)
Q.35s Directions: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:-
a. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both (A) and (R) are true,but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
i. Assertion (A): Supervisor acts as a link between workers and management.
Reason (R) : Supervisor plays a key role in maintaining group unity among workers placedunder
his control.
Ans. (b)
ii. Assertion (A):Motivation helps to change negative or indifferent attitudes of employee to positive
attitudes so as to achieve organisational goals.
Reason (R): Motivation helps to improve performance levels of eployees as well as the organsiation.
Ans. (a)
iii. Assertion (A): Maslow’s Theory focuses on the needs as the basis for motivation.
Reason (R): Motivation theory helps mangers to realise that need level of employee should
be identified to provide motivation to them.
Ans. (a)
iv. Assertion (A): A leader maintain personal relations and helps followers in fulfilling their
needs.
Reason(R): A leader handles conflicts effectively and does not allow adverse effects
resulting from the conflicts.
Ans. (b)
TRUE OR FALSE
Q.1 Semantic barrier occurs due to linguistic problems.
Q.2 All managers are leaders but all leaders are not managers.
Q.3 Direction is called as management in action.
Q.4 Verifiability of communication is not required for effective communication.
Q.5 Leadership is continuous process of influencing behaviour.
Q.6 Horizontal communication flows between officers of the same status.
Q.7 Stability of income is an example of Basic Physiological Needs.
Q.8 Motivation is always positive and it can never be negative
Q.9 Motivation is a simple process as the individuals are homogenous in their expectations
Q.10 If jobs are enriched and made interesting, the job itself becomes a source of motivation to the
individual
Section B
Very short answer questions
Q. 1 How does directing initiates action?
Q. 2 How does motivation bring a change in the attitude of employees?
Q. 3 Mention the elements of directing.
Q. 4 How does directing function bring about balance in the organisation?
Q. 5 “Directing function of management integrate employees’ efforts” Explain.
Q. 6 How does directing facilitate change in the organisation?
Q. 7 “Leadership is required only for less efficient subordinates.” Comment.
Q. 8 How does formal communication differ from informal communication in respect of
a. Mutual relationship
b. Speed of communication
c. Needs
Section C
Short answer questions
Q.1 Give any three features of informal communication.
Q.2 “Money is the only motivator’. Discuss.
Q.3 Distinguish between managership and leadership.
Q.4 Mr. Umang production manager of Creative Concepts discusses with his staff about the new
export order. All the staff members unanimously agree that they all will work together to do overtime
to complete the order and meet the deadline, State the leadership style being followed by Umang.
Q.5 "Motivation can be either positive or negative". Comment
Q.6 Name the incentive scheme in which company offers shares to employees at a price less than
market price.
Section D
Long answer questions
Q.1 Explain Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory.
Q.2 What is informal communication? Describe briefly its advantages and disadvantages.
Q.3 Hindustan Ltd. offers to its employee shares at a price which is less than the market value.
a. Name and explain the type of incentive offered to the employer’s.
b. Explain one more incentive of the same category.
Q.4 The President of KK Innovations Ltd., Ms. Nidhi Gupta, has been serving the company for the last
20 years on this position and the company has increased its revenue by twenty times in last 20
years.
Ms. Gupta has an excellent eye for detail and surrounds herself with like-minded people to follow
her lead. She is incredibly demanding of her people and wants to involve herself in every detail.
She is always at the centre of everything in her company and makes sure that all processes are
being followed as per her guidance.
Identify and explain the leadership style followed by Ms. Gupta.
Case study 1
XYZ Gears Ltd. one of the topmost companies in Automobile sector, once slashed its incentive
scheme a few years ago when it had cash flow problems. It resulted in workers' 'go slow' that
almost "closed down the company"
Q.1 What was the reason behind poor performance of workers?
Q.2 What should be done by management to motivate its employees.
Q.3 How can the cash flow problems be resolved by managers?
Case study 2
Harshita is working in Croks Ltd. on a permanent basis. As per the job agreement she had to work
for 8 hours a day and was free to work overtime. Harshita worked overtime. Due to overtime she
fell ill and had to take leave from office. No one showed concern and enquired about her health.
She realized that she was fulfilling only some of her needs while some other needs still remained
to be fulfilled.
Q.1 Identify and explain the needs of Harshita discussed in the above para, by quoting the lines.
Q.2 Also explain two other needs of Harshita followed by the above needs, which still remained
to be satisfied.
Case study 3
'A.S. Environs Ltd.' is dealing in Environment Consultancy. To get the business, the team leader
and his team used to travel to different states to give presentation to their clients. As per the policy
of the company, the team leader used to travel by air whereas his team travelled by road/train. It
was not only time consuming but also at times forced the female team members to travel alone.
As a result, the - subordinates were not acting in a desired manner to achieve organisational
goals. The CEO of the company came to know about it. He called the team leader, discussed the
matter with him and decided to change the travel policy of the company. It was decided that in
future all the members including the leader would travel together and usefully utilise the travelling
time in discussion about the presentation to be given to the clients. This made a positive impact
and ' every member of the team started acting in a manner as desired by the team leader. .
State the features of the element of the function of management used by the CEO.
Case study 4
Kamal is working as a gang boss in the assembly unit of Sokia Ltd; a laptop manufacturing
company. He supervises the work of ten trained workers who perform the various activities related
to the assembly of the laptops. One day when he was supervising the work of his workers, he told
Ashok, a worker that his work could be improved. Ashok interpreted the comments of Kamal as
 that his work was not good. Identify the type of barrier to effective communication in this case.
Case study 5
Ravi, the Marketing Manager of Weaver Garments Ltd. does not allow the salesmen working
under him to freely express their frank opinion and feelings regarding work related matters.
Identify the organizational barrier to communication that has been created by Ravi.
Case study 6Identify the Maslow's hierarchy need highlighted in the following statements:
(i) Autonomy status and prestige in the society help to satisfy this need.
(ii) This need is satisfied when one becomes what he is capable of becoming.
(iii) Motivators like pension plans and job security help to satisfy these needs.
(iv) These needs include need for food, shelter, clothing and other basic necessities of life.
(v) Informal groups are often formed to satisfy this need.
(vi) This need aims to get recognition and respect from others.
(vii) This need aims to ensure that one will be able to meet the physiological needs in future also.
(viii) Challenging jobs and opportunities for innovation help to satisfy this need.
(ix) This need satisfies the need for love and social interaction.
Section E
Read the following text and answer the questions given below:
Hema-is a permanent employee of a very large company called Global Pvt. Ltd. She has been working with
the company for the last 5 years and is now eligible for retirement benefits as well. She likes, her work and
performs her responsibilities, with due diligence. She has always, displayed utmost dedication while being
at work. As. per tire job agreement, she had to work for 40 hours per week and was free to work overtime.
Hema worked overtime during the weekdays. and- on some occasions,she also used to work on weekends
for 8 to 10 hours. On account of which, she fell sick and. had to take leave from her work as. she got
hospitalized for a fairly long period of time. The company did not show any concern and neither, did it
enquire about her health. She realised that on one hand, she was able to fulfill only some of her needs as
she only had the stability of income and pension pians since she had completed 5years, already with the
organization. On the. other hand' some other needs still remained unfulfilled which she realized on account
of the indifferent attitude of the company daring her sickness. Thus, Hema felt that though her most basic
needs are being met as per Maslow's need hierarchy theory she has a long way to go before her highest
level needs are met.
Q.1 Which of the following need of Hema is-being fulfilled?
a. Security needs. b. Belongingness needs
c. Exteem needs d. All of the above
Ans. (a)
Q.2 Which need of Hema is not being fulfilled
a. Belongingness-Needs. b. Esteem Needs
c. Both (a) and (b) d. Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans. (c)
Q.3 In the light of the above case, what are the most basic needs of Hema known as?
a. Safety needs b. Affiliation needs
c. Physiological needs. d. Self-actualization Needs
Ans. (c)
Q.4 In the. light of the above case, which is the highest level of needs of Hema which she believes
will take a fairly long time to fulfill?
 a. Security needs b. Belongjngness needs
c. Esteem needs d. Self-actualization needs.
Ans. (d)
Zeba Ltd., an-.e-commerce company operatirg for the past, 10 years, is a company which strongly
believes in motivating its employees by offering them various incentives. It is so because they
are very focused on their goaIs and objectives and want their people to improve their performance
because there is a lot of competition in the market and Zeba Ltd. has the vision to become the
market leader to the next 5 years.
Aman who is an alumnus, of IIM Ahmedabad and has done his specialization in Marketing is a marketing
employee employed with the company for the last 3years has. often been rewarded with a pay hike for Ms
growing performance.
Samay, who is a Chartered Accountant and has been working in the company for the last 7 years,from the
finance department and has been allotted some shares by the management in lieu of various incentives
payable in cash for his continuous efforts towards ensuring timely availability of funds and their effective utilization
at all times.
Aadvika, who recently graduated from FMS Delhi, is working in the Human Resources department of the company
and joined as a contractual employee but is now on the payrolls of the company.
The company also organizes annual functions to provide public appreciation to its higher performance as it
strongly believes in uplifting their spirits towards working for the company as well as preventing
them from joining their competitors
Q.1 What type of incentive has been provided to Aman?
a. Profit sharing b. Bonus
c. Pay and allowances d. Stock option
Ans. (c)
Q.2 What type of incentive has been provided to Samay?
a. Retirement benefits b. Perquisites
c. Pay and allowances d. Co-partnership
Ans. (d)
Q.3 What type of incentive has been provided to Aadvika?
a. Job enrichment b. Job security
c. Employee-participation d. Employee empowerment
Ans. (b)
Q.4 What type of incentive does the company provide by organizing annual functions to provide
public appreciation to its high performers?
a. Employee recognition programmes b. Job security
c. Career advancement opportunity d. Employee empowerment
Ans. (a)
ABC Ltd. is a company which is successfully running in the insurance sector for the past 15
years. It is one of the leading companies and Mr.Ghosh, the Zonal Sales Head has been working
in the company for the past 8 years spearheading its sales continuously. He has a wide and rich
experience in the insurance sector and has worked with two other major insurance companies
previously. In the company, the employees always feel that they are under enormous unnecessary
stress as their manager Mr. Ghosh does not provide any information about future plans but simply
instructs them what to do. He also does not listen to any of the suggestions given by the
Subordinates. Mr. Ghosh does not provide any flexibility to his subordinates; he is extremely rigid
while taking decisions and does not like to be interrupted. Thus, he is extremely unpopular as a
manager due to his leadership style. But Mr. Ghosh strongly believes in his style of leadership
and has seen effective results on-account of this. He has been able to increase the sales number
of insurance policies in the last quarter of the financial year for the past three years in a row and
thus has been able to meet the annual sales targets successfully .On account of this, he has been
awarded foe 'Best Employee' Trophy for two years by the management.
Q.1 What is the leadership style of the manager, Mr. Ghosh
a. Autocratic b. Democratice
c. Laissez faire d. Participative
Ans. (a)
Q.2 Citing from the above paragraph, which of the following features does Mr.Ghosh-depict
above? .
a. Such a leader does not change or wish to be contradicted.
b. Such a leader respects the other's opinion and -supports his subordinates.
c. Such a leader gives a high degree of independence to his followers.
d. All of the above
Ans. (a)

Q.3 Quoting, lines from- the paragraph, in which circumstances has. Mr. Ghosh's leadership style
proved'effective ?oo
a. In meetingthe annual sales target.
b. In increasing his team's productivity in the last quarter.
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans. (c)
Q.4 What is. the nature of communication in ihe leadership style of. Mr. Ghosh identified in Q.1 above?
a. Informat and Two-way b. Informal and One-way
c. Formal and Two-way d. Formal and One-way
Ans. (d)
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Business Studies Assignment- 2023-2024
Class - XII, Unit-III

Chapter 8 : Controlling
Section A
Multiple Choice Questions
Pick out the appropriate answer in the following cases :
Q.1 Controlling is the..............function of the management.
(a) first (b) last (c) both (a) and (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b).
Q.2 Controlling is required for effective..............
(a) planning (b) organizing (c) directing (d) all the above.
Q.3 In business enterprises controlling is required..............
(a) while establishing business (b) in the beginning of the year
(c) at the end of the year (d) continuously.
Q.4 Effective controlling is................
(a) dynamic (b) static (c) predetermined (d) all the above.
Q.5 Controlling is...................function of the management.
(a) optional (b) compulsory (c) essential (d) all the above
Q.6 Controlling is required at...............levels.
(a) higher (b) lower (c) middle (d) all.
Q.7 Controlling is related to..............
(a) efforts (b) results (c) functions (d) all the above.
Q.8 Controlling means ensuring that activities in an organisation are performed as. per the
(a) Plans (b) Goals (c) Resources (d) None of these
Q.9 What should be the 'focus point' for a manager while controlling as-controlling at each and every
step is.not possible?'
(a) Special area (b) Key result area (c) Normal area (d) None of these
Q.10 Identify an important principle of management control in which only significant deviations which go
beyond the permissible limit should be brought to the notice of management.
(a) Management by'Control (b) Control by exception
(c) Critical point control (d) Both (A) and (B)
Q.11 Which of the following steps in the Controlling process state that comparison becomes easier
when standards are set in quantitative terms ?
(a) Analysing deviations
(b) Measurement of actual performance
(c) Comparing actual,performance with standards
(d) Setting performance standards
Q.12 Employee know well in advance what they are expected to do and what are the standards of
performance on the basis of which they will be appraised, which inturn help, them to give better
performance."Which, importance of controlling is highlighted above?
(a) Facilitating coordination in action
(b) Making efficient use of resources
(c) Accomplishing organisational goals
(d) Improves employee motivation
Q.13 Controlling is required at all the levels of management. Which feature of controlling is being
highlighted?
(a) Controlling is a goal-oriented function
(b) Controlling is pervasive
(c) Controlling is a continuous function
(d) Controlling is both a backward looking as well as forward looking function.
Q.14 Controlling involves:
(a) Comparison of actual and standard performance
(b) Setting Objectives
(c) Taking corrective actions
(d) All of the above
Q.15 Controlling function of an organisation is:
(a) Forward looking (b) Backward looking
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
Q.16 Which of the following is the appropriate sequence of steps of Controlling Process:
(a) Setting Performance Standards Measurement of Actual Performance Comparison
of Actual Performance with Standards Taking Corrective Action Analysing Deviations
(b) Setting Performance Standards Measurement of Actual Performance Comparison
of Actual Performance with Standards ? Analysing Deviations? Taking Corrective Action
(c) Setting Performance Standards Comparison of Actual Performance with
Standards Measurement of Actual Performance Analysing Deviations Taking
Corrective Action
(d) Setting Performance Standards Measurement of Actual Performance Analysing
Deviations Comparison of Actual Performance with Standards Taking Corrective
Action
Q.17 Critical point control focuses on:
(a) Actual Output (b) Key Result Areas
(c) Every Activity (d) Planned Output
Q.18 Out of the following, which standard can be maintained in Marketing?
(a) Cost (b) Advertising Expenditure
(c) Quantity (d) Liquidity
Q.19 Which principle is based on the following belief: If you try to control everything, you may end up
controlling nothing
(a) Management by Exception (b) Critical Point Control
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Q.20 Management by exception states that management should:
(a) Check everything without exception
(b) Invariably take corrective action without exception
(c) Accept exceptions in emergencies
(d) Give attention to significant deviations
Q.21 The main objective behind controlling is:
(a) Punishing the guilty
(b) Fixing responsibility of the subordinate
(c) Ensuring conformity of performance with established standards
(d) Creating a fear for discipline
Q.22 Controlling is required at all the levels of management. Which feature of controlling is being
highlighted?
(a) Controlling is a goal-oriented function
(b) Controlling is pervasive
(c) Controlling is a continuous function
(d) Controlling is both a backward looking as well as forward looking function.
Q.23 Controlling involves:
(a) Comparison of actual and standard performance
(b) Setting Objectives
(c) Taking corrective actions
(d) All of the above
Q.24 Controlling function of an organisation is:
(a) Forward looking (b) Backward looking
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
Q.25 Which of the following is the appropriate sequence of steps of Controlling Process:
(a) Setting Performance Standards Measurement of Actual Performance
Comparison of Actual Performance with Standards Taking Corrective Action
Analysing Deviations
(b) Setting Performance Standards Measurement of Actual Performance
Comparison of Actual Performance with Standards Analysing
Deviations Taking Corrective Action Jo
(c) Setting Performance Standards Comparison of Actual Performance with Standards
Measurement of Actual Performance Analysing Deviations Taking
Corrective Action
(d) Setting Performance Standards Measurement of Actual Performance Analysing
Deviations Comparison of Actual Performance with Standards aking Corrective
Action
Q.26 Critical point control focuses on:
(a) Every Activity (b) Key Result Areas
(c) Actual Output (d) Planned Output
Q.27 Out of the following, which standard can be maintained in Marketing?
(a) Cost (b) Advertising Expenditure
(c) Quantity (d) Liquidity
Q.28 Which principle is based on the following belief: If you try to control everything, you may end up
controlling nothing!.
(a) Management by Exception (b) Critical Point Control
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Q.29 Management by exception states that management should:
(a) Check everything without exception
(b) Invariably take corrective action without exception
(c) Accept exceptions in emergencies
(d) Give attention to significant deviations
Q.30 An efficient control system helps to:
(a) Accomplish organisational objectives
(b) Boost employee morale
(c) Judge accuracy of standards
(d) All of the above
Q.31 Standards are set in:
(a) Qualitative terms (b) Quantitative terms
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
Q.32 Which function is prerequisite for Controlling?
(a) Planning (b) Organizing
(c) Staffing (d) Directing
Q.33 Which of the following is the part of controlling process?
(a) Setting performance standards (b) Assignment of Duties
(c) Taking corrective action (d) All of the above
Q.34 Which one of the following is not the step in the process of controlling?
(a) Comparison of Actual Performance with Standards
(b) Establishing Reporting Relationship
(c) Setting Performance Standards
(d) Taking Corrective Action
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS (ARQs)
Directions: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:-
a. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both (A) and (R) are true,but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q.1 Assertion(A): Controlling ensures that resources are used in the most effective and efficient manner.
Reason (R): In controlling, each activity is performed in accordance with predetermined
standards and norms.
Q.2 Assertion (A): A small enterprise cannot afford to install an expensive control system.
Reason (R): -Control system loses some of its effectiveness when standards can not be defined
in quantitative terms.
Q.3 Assertion (A); The controlling function measures progress towards the organisational goals.
Reason (R): Controlling guides the organisation and keeps it on the right track so that organisational
goals might be achieved.
Q.4 Assertion (A): Controlling can prevent deviations.
Reason (R): Controlling helps to minimise deviations by taking actions and decisions that
reduce their recurrence. Alternatives:
Q.5 Assertion (A): Control is exercised at all levels of management.
Reason (R): Controlling is a pervasive function.
Q.6 Assertion (A): Controlling aims to ensure that resources are used effectively and efficiently to
achie predetermined goals.
Reason (R): Controlling is both a backward looking as well as forward looking function
TRUE OR FALSE
1. Control is pervasive.
2. Controlling is not forward looking.
3. Control is the first function of management.
4. A good control system should be preventive.
5. If you try to control everything, you may end up by controlling nothing.
6. Planning and controlling are mutually inter-dependent.
7. External factors can also be controlled.
8. Standards of performance are set in qualitative terms only.
 Section B
Very short answer questions
Q.1 Define ‘deviation’.
Q.2 How does controlling help in monitoring sales?
Q.3 What is meant by ‘Management by Exception’.
Q.4 Name any one standard used in personnel management to gauge performance.
Q.5 What is compared with what in controlling?
Q.6 Controlling is a pervasive function. Explain
Q.7 Is controlling the end of management functions cycle?
Q.8 Is it true to say that controlling is both looking back and looking ahead?
Q.9 Why should standards be flexible?
Q.10 Which two aspects of performance are compared in controlling?
Q.11 Which two steps in the process of control are concerned with compelling events to conform to the
plan?
Section C
Short answer questions
Q.1 ‘Planning is prescriptive, whereas controlling is evaluative.” Explain the statement.
Q.2 What are the advantages of critical point control?
Q.3 ‘Is controlling the last function of management?’ Give reasons.
Section D
Long answer questions
Q.1 Explain to a newly appointed foreman, under whose supervision school bags are being made,
how he has to carry out the process of control?
Q.2 Why is controlling function of management regarded as the key to organisational success?
Q.3 If you try to control everything, you may end up controlling nothing. Explain.
Section E
1. Vinay was the Chief Operating Officer of Easy Solutions Ltd. a company providing advanced
software solutions to Indian Defence Services They had been carrying on business successfully
for the last twelve years and earning enough profits. But from the last one year, they realised that
though the business is getting big orders which are being fulfilled on time, even then the revenues
kept on decreasing. Vinay was not able to find out where the problem was. He started keeping a
dose check on the progress of activities as he could sense that something was wrong. He wanted
to -take some action before any major damage could be done to the business. Vinay appointed a
cyber security expert who monitored the company's processes and found out that the computer
operator was deleting the entries from, the computers and pocketing the revenues. He was caught
and handed over to the police. This created an atmosphere of order and disdpline in the organisation
and helped in minimizing dishonest behaviour on the part of the employees
Q.1 Which management function proved helpful in creating an atmosphere of order and disdpline in
the organisation and helped in minimizing dishonest behaviour on the part of the employees?
a. Planning b. Organizing c. Directing d. Controlling
Ans. (d)
Q.2 What did the measurement of performance reveal?
a. The company was earningenough profits.
b. Declining revenues despite -getting big orders which were being fulfilled on time.
c. The company was running successfully.
d. All of the above.
Ans. (b)
Q.3 What did the analysis by Vinay reveal ?
a. Nothing was wrong.
b. The computer operator was deleting the entries from the computers and pocketing the
revenues.
c. Vinay was not able to find out where the problem was.
d. None of the above.
Ans. (b)
Q.4 What corrective action did Vinay take?
a. He did not take any action as no major damage was done.
b. Computer operator was caught and -handed over tothe police.
c. Computer -operator was warned with dire consequences.
d. None of the above.
Ans. (b)
2. A critical point control (CPC) approaches followed by McDonald in the cooking and handling
process so that any food safety threat can be prevented, eliminated, or reduced loan acceptable
level. Hence, continuous monitoring of activities, are undertaken to ensure that the process is right
at each critical point control. The main principle followed for cooking at McDonald is "less, amount
many time" . which can ensure the high qualify and high fresh- level of the food. For instance, if
four hamburgers have to be made, a worker cannot cook all the four hamburgers at one time. The
time figured out for making one hamburger is- one hundred and forty-five seconds. Moreover,
nearly aH'foods in " the McDonald have the specific holding time, the holding time for hamburgers
is-ten minutesand for french fries is seven minutes. If it is not sold within that time it is.throivn
away. AIso the temperature of the milk sent by the supplier must beunder 4°C, otherwise; it will be
returned.
Q.1 Which of the following steps, involved in the controlling process is discussed-in the above-
lines?
a. Analysing deviation b. Taking-corrective action
c. Both (A) and (B) d. Setting Performance Standards
Ans. (c)
Q.2 Which of the following statements is true with respect to critical point control?
a. Control focus on-key result areas.
b. CPCs may -be located at any point in the food production plant where hazards need to be
prevented, eliminated, or reduced-to acceptable levels.
c. It helps in saving-time, and thus manager-can focus on-other relevant issues.
d. All of the above.
Ans. (d)
Q.3 Identify the point which highlights the importance of the controlling function in the above text.
a. Accomplishing organisational goals b. Making efficient use of resources
c. judging accuracy of standards d. All of the above
Ans. (d)
3. Kanu is appointment as a Factory Manager in a gel-pen manufacturing company. He was given a
target of producing one lac gel-pens per month. He knew that the essence of management is to
achieve desired results' but he does not know how to ensure that the work goes on according to
plans Guide him by explaining the process so that he is able to achieve the desired results
4. AS Ltd is a large company engaged in assembly of air-conditioners. Recently the company had
conducted the Time' and Motion' study and concluded that on an average a worker can assemble
ten air-conditioners in a day. The target volume of the company in a day is assembling of 1,000
units of air-conditioners. The company is providing attractive allowances to reduce labour turnover
 and absenteeism. All the workers are happy. Even then the assembly of air-conditioners per day is
300 units only. To find out the reason the company compared actual performance of each worker
and observed through CCTV. that some of the workers were busy in gossiping
a. identify the function of management discussed above.
b. State those steps in the process of the function identified which are discussed in the above
paragraph
5. Tyre Centre Ltd. manufacturers of tubeless radial tyres for cars. It recruits large number of unskilled
workers at short notice. It has laid down the quality standards as follows :
Weight 6.5 kilos
Content of Rubber – 90%
Steel wiring used for making beading of the tyre –10%
Depth – 8 mm to 10 mm
After manufacturing some tyres, they adopted a system which would enable them to verify whether
the above standards set were accurate and objective or not. But they found that it was not accurate
in terms of quality. Therefore they re-processed it.
a. Identify and explain the management function referred above.
OR
Identify and explain the concept being referred above.
b. Identify the system which enables the management to verify whether the standards set are
accurate and objective or not.
c. Identify the recruitment source being referred above.
d. Give two importance of the management function identified in part (a).
6. As per the terms of the employment, each employee in Gupta Ltd. should manufacture 50 buckets
per day. A group of employees is manufacturing only 40 buckets per day whereas all other groups
are meeting the said target. To have a proper check on the activities of the employees, the
management has, installed Closed Circuit televisions (CCTVs) in the factory. There is no resentment
from the employees union for this. The company also decided to motivate the employees by
increasing their salary.
(a) Name the managerial function involve-in installing the CCTVs in the factory.
(b) Identify and explain the step of this managerial function’s process that can be completed by
installing CCTV.
(c) Also identify and explain the step followed by the step identified in (b).
(d) Identify the incentive being given to motivate the employees.
(e) Name the value emphasized on the part of employees by not resisting the installation of
CCTVs in the factory.
Activity:
Name and explain at least three ways through which your school exercises control over key result areas.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Economics Assignment 2023-2024
Class - XII, Unit -III
Govt Budget and the Economy
Section A
Multiple Choice Questions :
Q.1 The responsibility of fiscal policy lies with
(a) the government. (b) the state government..
(c) the commercial banks. (d) the stock exchanges.
Q.2 Fiscal deficit in a budget is measured as
(a) Total expenditure minus total revenue.
(b) Total expenditure minus total capital receipts!
(c) Total expenditure minus total revenue receipts. .
(d) Total expenditure minus sum of total revenue receipts and total non-debt creating capital
receipts.
Q.3 Administrative revenue includes
(a) fines and penalties (b) dividends
(c) commercial revenue (d) loans from abroad
Q.4 Revenue expenditure does not include the following:
(a) subsidies (b) interest on government loans
(c) public administration (d) investment expenditure by PSUs.
Q.5 The difference between the revenue receipts and revenue expenditure of the government is known
as
(a) revenue deficit (b) budget deficit
(c) fiscal deficit (d) primary deficit
Q.6 Given the following data:
(i) Total budgeted expenditure 1,000 (ii) Total budgeted revenue receipts 700
(iii) Proceeds of Disinvestment 150 (iv) Loans 150
The fiscal deficit equals
(a) 150 (b) 300
(c) 700 (d) 1,000
Q.7 Primary deficit in a budget will be zero when
(a) revenue deficit is zero
(b) net interest payments to be made by a government are zero
(c) fiscal deficit is zero
(d) any of the above
Q.8 Income tax in India is an example of
(a) progressive taxation (b) proportional taxation
(c) regressive taxation (d) degressive taxation
 Section B
Very Short answer questions
Q.1 Define a govt budget. State any four of its main objectives?
Q.2 Distingush between revenue receipt and capital receipt. Give two examples of each?
Q.3 How does a budget affect the level of aggregate demand in an economy?
Q.4 State the major sources of non-tax revenue receipts of the govt?
Q.5 What are tax revenue receipts. How are they different from non-tax revenue receipts?
Q.6 Distinguish between revenue expenditure and capital expenditure?
Section C
Short answer questions
Q.1 What is balanced regional growth. How a budget can promote balanced regional growth?
Q.2 How can a budget be used as an instrument to achieve equalities in income distribution in an
economy?
Q.3 Give the meaning of (a)progressive taxation (b)proportional taxation and (c)regressive taxation
Q.4 Classify the following into direct and indirect taxes:
Gift tax, entertainment tax, corporation tax, wealth tax, sale tax, income tax
Q.5 What is fiscal deficit. What are its implications?
Section D
Long Answer Type Questions :
Q.1 Give reasons, categories the following into revenue receipts and capital receipts.
a. Loans taken from USA for the infrastructural developments.
b. Profits of LIC, a public enterprise
c. Financial help from WTO for the victims of flood attracted areas.
Q.2 Identify the following as revenue expenditure and capital expenditure. Give reasons.
a. Pension Paid to the retired Govt. employees.
b. Loans given to Union Territories by Govt.
c. 25% shares purchased by the Govt. in a private company.
Q.3 Distinguish between the following :
a. Revenue receipts and capital receipts
b. Revenue deficit and fiscal deficit.
Q.4 What is meant by non-tax revenue? Explain the different sources of non-tax revenue.
Q.5 From the following data about a Government budget, find out (a) Revenue deficit, (b) Fiscal deficit
& (c) Primary deficit.
Particulars Rs. in arab
i. Capital receipts net of borrowings 95
ii. Revenue expenditure 100
iii. Interest payments 10
iv. Revenue receipts 90
v. Capital expenditure 110
Q.6 What is government budget? Explain how taxes & subsidies can be used to influence allocation of
resources.
 Section E
CASE STUDY-1
The government budget is an annual fiscal statement depicting the revenues and expenditures for a financial
year that is often moved by the legislature, sanctioned by the Chief Executive or President, and given by the
Finance Minister to the country. The budget is also known as the Annual Financial Statement of the nation.
Components of Government Budget
In terms of Article 112 (1) of the Constitution of India, a statement of estimated receipts and expenditure of
the Government of India is presented to the Parliament every year. Article 112(2) provides that the estimate
of expenditure embodied in this annual financial Budget, shall show separately. This Annual Financial
Statement comprises the main budget document of the government.
Whilst the budget document relates to the receipts and expenditures of the government for a particular
fiscal year, the effect of it will be there in the following years.
* There is an obligation to have two accounts that are associated with the current financial year
and are incorporated in the revenue account which is also known as revenue budget.
* Those that concern the assets and liabilities of the government into the capital account are
known as the capital budget.
* In order to comprehend the accounts, it is significant to understand the aims of the government
budget.
Elements of Government Budget
There are two main elements of the Government Budget. They are as follows:
Budget receipts: It refers to the estimated receipts of the government from all the sources during a fiscal
year. It is of two types.
1. Capital receipts
2. Revenue receipts
Budget expenditure: It refers to the estimated expenditure of the government on various developmental as
well as non-developmental programs during a fiscal year. It is of two types.
1. Capital expenditure
2. Revenue expenditure
Read the paragraph on Government Budget and answer the following questions:
1. State three objectives of a government budget.
2. What is a government budget? Name two sources each of non-tax revenue receipts and capital
receipts.
3. Distinguish between revenue receipts and capital receipts.
4. Reduction in income inequalities raises welfare of the people. How can government help through
government budget, in this regard? Explain.
5. Explain (a) Allocation of resources and (b) Economic Stability as objective of Government
Budget.
CASE STUDY-2
Union Budget - Introduction
The Union Budget is also known as the Annual Financial Statement. Article 112 of the Constitution of India
lays down that it is a statement of the estimated expenditure and receipts of the Government for a particular
year.
* The Budget keeps the account of the finances of the government for the fiscal year (from 1st
April to 31st March).
* The Budget is presented on 1st February (until 2016, it was presented on the last working day
of February) so that it can materialise before the commencement of the new financial year
which starts on 1st April.
* In 2017, a 92-year-old tradition was broken when the railway budget was merged with the
Union Budget and presented together.
* The Budget has to be passed by the Lok Sabha before it can come into effect.
The Union Budget is divided into Revenue Budget and Capital Budget.
* In the Union Budget, the disbursements and receipts of the government comprise the various
types of government funds in India namely, the Consolidated Fund of India, the Contingency
Fund and the Public Account.
* The Economic Survey of India is released ahead of the presentation of the Budget.
Union Budget 2022 focusses on 4 pillars:
1. PM GatiShakti
2. Inclusive Development
3. Productivity Enhancement & Investment, Sunrise Opportunities, Energy Transition, and Climate
Action
4. Financing of Investments
The institutional framework of public finance is the government budget or public budget. The budgetary
system is a system of popular approval and oversight of the financial activities of the state. The history of
constitutional politics can be described as the history of the establishment of the modern budgetary system.
The budget is, in economic and technical terms, a schedule for the comparison of government revenues
and expenditures, a mechanism for allocating resources in modern economic society. The budget, determined
through the political process, determines, first of all, the proportion and structure of the allocation of the
resources of society as a whole between the various sectors, and therefore the scale and direction of the
financial allocation of resources. In essence, the budget is a mechanism by which the taxpayers and their
representative bodies control the financial activities of the government, a distribution of public power between
different subjects as a means of allocating resources, a structure of checks and balances and a democratic
political process. The taxpayers, who have the right to independent assets, are responsible for the financial
provision of the State, which necessarily requires control of the State's finances and a legal procedure to
ensure that government revenues and expenditures do not deviate from the interests of the taxpayers. In
conclusion, the government budget, as a rule of the allocation of resources by public power, is a system of
control and organisation of the operation of public finances, and is the basis of representative politics, the
core of whose values is democratic finance.
1. Explain the role the government can play through the budget in influencing allocation of resources.
2. What is the difference between direct tax and indirect tax.
3. Explain the distinction between fiscal deficit and primary deficit.
4. Discuss briefly how the Government budget can be used as an effective tool in the process of
employment generation.
5. Explain the role of government budget in fighting inflationary and deflationary tendencies.
Activity:
1. Comapre the budget plans of Donald Trump and Joe Biden in their respective years of power.
Whose plan do you think is better and why?
2. Discuss the current year Indian budget plans and present your opinion on the same.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Economics Assignment 2021-2022
Class - XII Unit -III
Foreign Exchange Rate and Balance of payments

Section A
Multiple Choice Questions :
Q.1 Globalisation means
(a) selling out all domestic enterprises to foreign corporations.
(b) removal of all passport and visa restrictions on movement of people.
(c) facilitating smooth flow of goods and services between nations.
(d) removing all check points at international borders.
Q.2 Find the odd one out among the following:.
(a) Net inflow of capital (b) Balance of trade
(c) Balance of invisibles (d) Balance of unrequited transfers'.
Q.3 _____________ is a systematic record of all the economic transactions between one country and rest of the
world.
(a) Balance of trade (b) Balance, of transactions
(c) Budget (d) Balance of payments.
Q.4 External deficit refers to
(a) fiscal deficit. (b) current account deficit in BOP.
(c) revenue deficit. (d) trade deficit.
Q.5 If at a point of time the rate of exchange of $1 = 60 has changed into $ 1 = 50, we will say that
(a) the rupee has appreciated. (b) the rupee has revalued.
(d) the rupee has devalued. (d) the dollar has appreciated.
Q.6 The following event can be expected to lead to an expansion of exports of India
(a) appreciation of rupee. (b) depreciation of dollar.
(c) depreciation of rupee, (d) any of the above.
Q.7 If rupee is getting depreciated fast and is considered undesirable by the government, the RBI may be advised
to
(a) sell dollars in the foreign exchange market.
(b) purchase dollars in the foreign exchange market.
(c) print more currency notes.
(d) raise tariffs on imports.
Q.8 If in an effort to check depreciation of rupee the RBI puts more dollars in the supply, it-may only further worsen
the situation, because it may lead to more inflation, caused by the following factors:
(a) increase in money supply in the economy
(b) reduced availability of goods due to increased exports
(c) reduced availability of goods due to reduced imports
(d) all of the above.
Q.9 If a country has a deficit in its current account, this deficit can be financed by
(a) printing of new currency
(b) raising the rate of corporate taxes
(c) restricting imports
(d) borrowing foreign exchange from an international source
Section B
Very Short answer questions
Q.1 How is foreign exchange rate determined? Use diagram
Q.2 State four sources each of demand for and supply of foreign exchange?
Q.3 What is meant by foreign exchange rate. Give three reasons why people desire to hold foreign exchange?
Q.4 Why does a rise in foreign exchange rate causes a rise in its supply?
Q.5 Why does the demand for foreign exchange rise when its price falls?
Section C
Short answer questions
Q.1 State the merits and demerits of (a) fixed exchange rate and (b) flexible exchange rate?
Q.2 What do you mean by ‘depreciation of currency’ and ‘appreciation of currency’?
Q.3 How is depreciation of currency is different from devaluation of currency?
Q.4 What is meant by visible and invisible items in the balance of payment account. Give two examples of invisible
items?
Section D
Long Answer Type Questions :
Q.1 State the different components balance of payment on current account?
Q.2 State the causes in the disequilibrium in the balance of payment. What measures do you suggest to correct it?
Q.3 Distinguish between balance of trade and balance of payment.
Q.4 State the different components balance of payment on capital account?
Q.5 Classify whether the following transactions will be recorded in current account or capital account. Give reasons.
i. Purchase of shares of Reliance by Microsoft.
ii. Imports of computer spare parts from Germany.
iii. Purchase of land in England.
iv. Shipping service by an Indian company to a foreign company.
Q.6 Mention the major sources of demand and supply for foreign exchange.
Q.7 Are the following statements true or false? Give reasons.
i. Depreciation of domestic currency leads to rise in exports.
ii. Huge international reserves are required to be maintained by the Government in fixed and flexible
exchange rate system.
iii. An increase in demand for imported goods raise the demand for foreign exchange.
iv. Demand for American Goods will rise in India due to appreciation of Indian Currency.
Q.8 Give the meaning of ‘Foreign Exchange’ and foreign exchange rate’. Giving reason, Explain the relation
between foreign exchange rate and demand for foreign exchange.
Q.9 Explain the distinction between autonomous and accommodating transactions in BOP. Also explain the concept
of BOP ‘deficit’ in this context.
Q.10 a. In which sub-account & on which side of balance of payments account, will foreign investments in India
 be recorded? Give reasons.
b. What will be the effect of foreign investments in India on exchange rate? Explain.
Q.11 How does giving incentives for exports influence foreign exchange rate? Explain.
VALUE BASED QUESTIONS (Macro Economics)
Q.1 At the time of inflation, Govt. should opt. for surplus budget. Do you agree with the given statement?
Q.2 Govt. raises its expenditure on producing public goods. Which economic value does it reflect? Explain.
Q.3 Govt. has started spending more on producing fee services like education and health to the poor. Explain the
economic value it reflects.
Q.4 Is improvement in exchange rate of the country’s currency always beneficial?
Q.5 Should greater savings imply greater investment and greater flow of goods and services?
Q.6 Savings in both a virtue as well as a vice. Explain how?
Q.7 During inflation, credit creation by the commercial banks is beneficial for the banks, but not for
the economy. Comment.
Q.8 Although India’s GDP is increasing, but the welfare of the people is not increasing with that
pace. Do you think that concept of ‘Green GNP’ should be followed?
Q.9 The plastic Industry contributes to GDP the country. However it is not considered as an index
of social welfare. Why? Identify the value highlighted.
Q.10 A soap manufacturing company wishes to pay compensation to its employees in the form of
soaps. However, the employees want. Compensation in the form of money. Why compensation
is more convenient in terms of money than in soaps?
Q.11 Domestic Income of a country includes contribution of only resident producers within the
domestic territory of the country. Do you agree with the given statement?
Section E
Managed Floating Exchange Rates
Exchange rate is determined by the forces of demand and supply of foreign exchange, but the Central Bank intervenes to
buy or sell foreign currency to moderate the exchange rate Buctuations. This system is also called 'dirty floating". This
system is the amalgamation (mixture) of the flexible exchange rate system and the fixed exchange rate system because
managed floating exchange rate is decided by market forces (the float part) but remains within a specific range as
decided by central bank (the managed part)
(a) The flexible exchange rate system gives the government more flexibility to maintain large stocks of foreign
exchange reserves.
(b) In the Managed floating exchange rate system, the government intervenes to buy and sell foreign currencies.
(c) In the Managed floating exchange rate system, the central bank intervenes to moderate exchange rate
fluctuations.
(d) In the Fixed exchange rate system, market forces fix the exchange rate.
Activity:
1. a) Keep a record of fluctuations in INR & US dollar.
b) EURO and INR for a period of 15 days.
2. What would be the possible effect of rise and fall in US dollar & EURO on India’s export and
import.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
History Assignment- 2023-2024
CLASS - XII, Unit-III

Themes in India History (II)

Chapter 5 : Though the Eyes of Travellers
Section A
MCQ’s
Q.1 Which of the following traveller was appointed as the Qazi of Delhi by the Sultan Muhammad bin
Tughlaq?
a) Abdur Razzaq b) Al Biruni
c) Ibn Battuta d) Barbosa
Q.2 Which of the following traveller was a physician to Prince Dara Shikoh?
a) Abdur Razzaq b) Al Biruni
c) Ibn Battuta d) Bernier
Q.3 Who was the author of 'Kitab ul Hind'?
a) Abdur Razzaq b) Al Biruni
c) Ibn Battuta d) Bernier
Q.4 Name the French traveller who visited India 6 times & was fascinated with the trading conditions
in India.
a) Tavernier b) Al Biruni
c) Ibn Battuta d) Bernier
Q.5 Whose account is often compared with that of Marco Polo?
a) Tavernier b) Al Biruni
c) Ibn Battuta d) Bernier
Q.6 Among the following which traveller described Mughal cities as 'camp towns'?
a) Tavernier b) Al Biruni
c) Ibn Battuta d) Bernier
Q.7 'Rihla'' a book by Ibn Battuta describes--
a) The caste system by looking parallels in other societies.
b) A detailed account of trade and society in South India.
c) About the social & cultural life in the Indian subcontinent in the 14 century.
d) Comparison of Mughal India with European society.
Q.8 'Travels in the Mughal Empire'' is an account of which foreign traveller?
a) Tavernier b) Al Biruni
c) Ibn Battuta d) Bernier
Q.9 Who dedicated his account to Louis XIV, the king of France?
a) Tavernier b) Al Biruni
c) Bernier d) Barbosa
Q.10 Which Sulatn invaded Khwarizm and captured several scholars including Al Biruni?
 a) Sultan Mahmud b) Sultan Bahram
c) Mohammad Ghori d) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
True / Fasle
Q.1 Kitab-ul-Hind was written in Persian.
Q.2 Francois Bernier was a physician to Prince Dara Shikoh, eldest son of Shah Jahan.
Q.3 The important work of Ibn Batuta was his book of travels called Kitab-ul-Hind.
Q.4 Sultan Mahmud attacked Khwarizm and took Al-Biruni to his capital Ghazni
Q.5 Ibn-Batuta was amazed by the efficiency of the postal system.
Q.6 Bernier dedicated his major writings to Louis XIV, the king of France.
Q.7 Dawa and Uluq were two types of postal system.
Q.8 Al-Beruni spent years in the company of Brahmin priests and scholars learning Sanskirt and
studying religion and philosophical texts.
Q.9 Al-Beruni called Mughal cities as 'Camp towns' which were dependent upon imperial protection
for their survival.
Q.10 The two things that fascinated Ibn-Batuta were coconut and paan.
Fill in the blanks :
Q.1 Al-Beruni called Mughal cities as _________, which were dependent upon imperial protection for
their survival.
Q.2 Ibn-Battuta reached Sindh, and purchased horses, camels and ______ as gifts for the Sultan
Q.3 Al-Beruni was born in 973 in ______ in present day Uzbekistan.
Q.4 Ibn-Battuta described ______ and paan, two kinds of plant produce that were completely unfamiliar
to his audience.
Q.5 The Sultan of Delhi, Muhammad Bin Tughluq appointed Ibn-Battuta as the ______ of Delhi.
Q.6 The important work of Ibn Battuta was his book of travels, called ---------written in Arabic.
Q.7 Al Beruni’s book, -----, written in Arabic is simple and lucid.
Q.8 The Sultan of Delhi--------------ordered Ibn Battuta to proceed to China in 1342 CE.
Q.9 Francois Bernier in his book -----------------constantly compared Mughal Imdia with contemporary
Europe.
Q.10 Ibn Battuta reached----------- in 1333, travelling from Central Asia.
Section B
Very short answer type questions :
Q.1 Who was Al-Biruni? Name the book written by him.
Q.2 Who was Ibn Battuta? Name the book written by him.
Q.3 Who was Francois Bernier? How many years did he spent in India?
Q.4 What does the word antyaja mean?
Q.5 Who was Montesquieu?
Q.6 Name the different kinds of towns.
Q.7 Who were included in professional classes?
 Section C
II. Short answer type questions :
Q.1 What information is contained in Kitat-ul-Hind?
Q.2 In what ways were the writings of Bernier different from Ibn Battuta while discussing his travels in
India?
Q.3 What information does Ibn Battuta give about Indian cities? Discuss.
Q.4 Discuss the system of landownership under the Mughals.
Q.5 Write a note on slaves, state and labourers in the medieval period.
Q.6 Discuss the caste-system as mentioned by Al-Biruni.
Section D
III. Long Answer Type Questions:
Q.1. What were the elements of the practice of sati that drew the attention of Bernier?
Q.2. Do you think Ibn Battuta's account is useful in arriving at an understanding of life in contemporary
urban centres? Give reasons for your answer.
Q.3. Discuss the extent to which Bernier's account enables historians to reconstruct contemporary
rural society.
Section E
I V. Read this excerpt from Bernier and answer the questions that follow:
Numerous are the instances of handsome pieces of workmanship made by persons destitute of
tools, and who can scarcely be said to have received instruction from a master. Sometimes they
imitate so perfectly articles of European manufacture that the difference between the original and
copy can hardly be discerned. Among other things, the Indians make excellent muskets, and
fowling pieces, and such beautiful gold ornaments that it may be doubted if the exquisite
workmanship of those articles can be exceeded by any European goldsmith. I have often admired
the beauty, softness, and delicacy of their paintings.
i. Name the crafts mentioned in the passage.
ii. What reference does he make for Indian crafts persons?
iii. What does he admire in the Indian paintings?
Section F
Activities:
• Class Quiz on the topic.
• PPT presentation by students on the various sub topics of the chapter.
• Making of brochure of any one of the travellers.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
History Assignment- 2023-2024
CLASS - XII, Unit-III

Chapter 6 : Bhakti - Sufi Traditions

Section A
MCQ’s
Q.1 Lord Jagannath was a popular deity by the 12th century in --
a) Pune b) Ajmer
c) Puri d) Allahabad
Q.2 Andal was associated with which community?
a) Nayanars b) Alvars
c) Jainism d) Buddhism
Q.3 Which Chola ruler had consecrated the images of Appar, Sambandar & Sundarar in a Shiva
temple?
a) Rajaraja Chola b) Rajendra Chola
c) Parantaka I d) Raja Chola
Q.4 Identify the main belief of Lingayats-
a) The believe that on death the devotee will be united with Shiva and will not return to this
world.
b) The believe that on death the devotee will be united with Vishnu and will not return to this
world.
c) The believe that on death the devotee will be united with Shiva and will return to this world.
d) The believe that on death the devotee will be united with Vishnu and will return to this world.
Q.5 Name the term used to describe the tomb-shrine of the Shaikh(sufi)-
a) Mosque b) Dargah
c) Khanqah d) Mausoleum
Q.6 Which Chishti Sufi saint is known as 'Garib Nawaz'?
a) Nizammuddin Auliya b) Bakhtiyar kaki
c) Muiniddin Sijzi d) Ganj-i-shakkar
Q.7 The theme of book 'Padmavat' is-
a) Religious verses b) Love story
c) Murder mystery d) Sayings of saints
Q.8 According to biographies of Mira Bai, she belongs to-
a) Rajput family from Merta b) Alvar saints
c) Nayanar saints d) Lingayat saints
Q.9 Which idea was challenged was Lingayats?
a) Idea of caste discrimination b) Idea of singing hymns
c) Idea of temple construction d) Idea of marriage
Q.10 Which one of the following is a basic principle of Islam?
a) Practice Violence b) Worship Statues
c) Offer prayers five times a day d) Observe celibacy
True / False
Q.1 Basavanna was a Kshatriya ruler.
Q.2 The worship of an abstract form of God is known as nirguna bhakti.
Q.3 Alvars were devotees of Lord Vishnu.
Q.4 Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti is also known as Garib Nawaz.
Q.5 Kabeerpanth is a sect of the followers of Kabeer.
Q.6 Guru Gobind Singh was the founder of Sikhism.
Q.7 Kabir Bijak contains the verses of Kabir.
Q.8 Virshaiva was the founder of the Lingayat community.
Q.9 Akbar was the first king to visit the dargah of Muin-ud-din Chisti.
Q.10 Zimmi was a group of population following Islam under the Muslim rulers.
Fill in the blanks :
Q.1 Karaikkal Ammaiyar was a devotee of _________
Q.2 Lingayats, usually men used to wear a small __________ in a silver case on a loop strung over
the left shoulder
Q.3 During the 16th century, Mughal rulers were o be guided by ________, who were expected to
ensure that they ruled according to sharia law
Q.4 Islamic community offer prayers five times a day, known as ___________
Q.5 Pilgrimage called _____________, to tombs of sufi saints is prevalent all over the Muslim world
Q.6 Kabir Granthavali is associated with the _______________ in Rajasthan
Q.7 Guru Nanak was born in a village called __________ in the predominantly Muslim Punjab
Q.8 Guru Nanak's hymns called _________ are composed in various languages
Q.9 Mirabai was married to a prince of the ____________ clan of Mewar
Q.10 Nirguna Bhakti is worship of an ---- form of God.
Section B
I. Very short answer type questions :
Q.1 Name the major deities of the Brahmanical religion.
Q.2 Who was the main deity of Orissa?
Q.3 Name the principle duties of Vedic pantheon.
Q.4 Define Saguna & Nirguna form of worship.
Q.5 Who were Alvars?
Q.6 Who were Nayanars?
Q.7 Define Bhakti.
Q.8 Name the major anthology composed by the Alvars.
Q.9 Who started Lingayat tradition?
Q.10 Define Zimni.
Q.11 What is Jizya?
Q.12 Define Zakat.
Q.13 Define Sufism.
Q.14 What was silsila?
Q.15 What is Khangah?
Q.16 Who was Mirabai?
Q.17 What is Gurbani?
Section C
II. Short answer type questions :
Q.1 Discuss the beliefs of the Alvars & Nayanars.
Q.2 What were the teachings of the Chistis?
Q.3 Discuss the major beliefs and practices of Sufism.
Q.4 Discuss the main teachings of Kabir and Guru Nanak.
Q.5 Discuss the teachings of Islam.
Section D
III. Long Answer Type questions
Q.1 Discuss the ways in which the Alvars, Nayanars and Virashaivas expressed critiques of the
caste system.
Q.2 Describe the major teachings of either Kabir or Baba Guru Nanak, and the ways in which these
have been transmitted.
Q.3 Discuss the major beliefs and practices that characterised Sufism.
Q.4 Examine how and why rulers tried to establish connections with the traditions of the Nayanars
and the sufis.
Q.4 Analyse, with illustrations, why bhakti and sufi thinkers adopted a variety of languages in which
to express their opinions.
Section E
I V. Source Based Questions:
Here is a composition attributed to Kabir:
Tell me, brother, how can there be No one lord of the world but two? Who led you so astray? God
is called by many names: Names like Allah, Ram, Karim, Keshav, Hari, and Hazrat. Gold may
be shaped into rings and bangles. Isn't it gold all the same? Distinctions are only words we invent
… Kabir says they are both mistaken. Neither can find the only Ram. One kills the goat, the other
cows. They waste their lives in disputation.
i. What is Kabir's argument against the distinction made between gods of different
communities?
ii. Which types of names does he refer for God?
Section F
Activities:
• Class Quiz on the topic.
• PPT presentation by students on the various sub topics of the chapter.
• Making of chart of various teachings of bhakti saints.
• Making a flow chart depicting hagiography of Bhakti and Sufi saints.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Geography Assignment- 2023-2024
CLASS - XII, Unit-III

Chapter 9 : International Trade

Section A
Q.1 How many types of trade exist?
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four
Q.2 In which year WTO was formed?
a. 1995 b. 1996 c. 1998 d. 2000
Q.3 In which year GATT was formed?
a. 1946 b. 1948 c. 1950 d. 1955
Q.4 Which association is the largest single market in the world?
a. EU b. OPEC c. SAFTA d. ASEAN
Q.5 India is the member of which trading block?
a. OPEC b. SAARC c. SAFTA d. ASEAN
Q.6 What are the components of International trade?
a. Volume b. Composition c. Direction d. All
Q.7 Which is the largest trading partner of India?
a. UAE b. USA c. CHINA d. JAPAN
Q.8 Which of the following is a Oil port?
a. Tripoli b. Mumbai c. London d. New york
Q.9 Where is WTO Headquarter located?
a. Geneva b. Rome c. Hegue d. Paris
Q.10 Where is the headquarter of OPEC located
a. Vienna b. Singapore c. Jakarta d. Mumbai
Section B
Very Short Answer
Q.1 State two functions of World Trade Organisation (WTO).
Q.2 What does the term ‘Volume of Trade’ mean?
Q.3 What do you mean by balance of trade?
Q.4 How is Inland port different from Outport?
Q.5 What are Comprehensive ports?
Q.6 Define the term ‘Dumping’.
Section C
Short Answer
Q.1 Mentionr the positive aspect of ‘trade liberalisation’.
Q.2 Discuss the reasons for the emergence of the Regional Trade Blocs.
Q.3 How do population factors affect the type and volume of goods traded between countries? Explain
with examples.
Q.4 How do nations gain from International trade?
Q.5 Explain the three aspects of International trade.
Section D
Long answer type questions :
Q.1 Explain the factors which form the basis of International trade.
Q.2 Explain with example how ‘stage of economic development’ and ‘Foreign investment’ become the
bases of international trade.
Q.3 Explain the two types of international trade. Examine any 3 possible negative impacts of globalisation
along with free trade in the world.
Q.4 Globalisation along with the free trade can adversely affect the economics of the developing
countries. Support the statement with examples.
Q.5 Trace the major perspectives of the history of International Trade.

Q.6 ‘Trade is the base of the world economy in the modern times’. Justify the statement with appropriate
arguments.
Q.7 Why are ports called ‘gateways of international trade’? Explain any three facilities provided by them.
Q.8 Describe different types of ports on the basis of their functions.
Q.9 What is WTO? Why has it been criticised and opposed?
Section E
International trade is the result of specialization in production. It benefits the world economy if
different countries practise specialisation and division of labour in the production of commodities
or provision of services. Each kind of specialisation can give rise to trade. Thus international trade
is based on the principle of comparative advantage, complimentarity and transferability of goods
and services and in principle, should be mutually beneficial to the trading partners.
Read the above passage and answer the following questions.
i) What are the values on which the international trade is based?
ii) Do you think the above values are being followed in the international trade all over the world?
Activities
1. Identify the important sea ports on the outline political map of the world.
2. Study the Silk Route and mark it on the world map.
3. Prepare the mind map of different types of seaports.
4. Study the practice of dumping and how it is becoming a serious issue among the trading
nations.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Geography Assignment- 2023-2024
CLASS - XII, Unit-III

Text Book : India - People and Economy

Chapter 1 : Population : Distribution, Density, Growth & Composition
Section A
Multiple choice questions :
Q.1 Which of the following is a reason for the concentration of population being high in regions falling
in coastal and river plains?
a) Industrialisation b) Climate
c) Terrain d) None of these
Q.2 Which of the following has the highest relative proportion of the total population of the country?
a) Deltas b) Central Indian states
c) Western Indian states d) Himalayas
Q.3 Which of the phases of population growth were characterised by 'stationary' growth?
a) Phase I, 1901-21 b) Phase II, 1921-51
c) Phase III, 1951-81 d) Phase IV, 1981 onwards
Q.4 During which phase/phases of population growth was the highest average annual growth rate
recorded?
a) Phase I, 1901-21
b) Phase II, 1921-51
c) Phase III, 1951-81
d) Both Phase II and Phase III, 1921-81 (had a similar birth rate)
Q.5 Which state records the lowest population growth rate?
a) Odisha b) Kerala
c) Goa d) Tamil Nadu
Q.6 Which of these states has a low percentage of rural population?
a) Bihar b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Sikkim d) Goa
Q.7 Which of the following is not one of the factors regulating the concentration of rural population?
a) Degree of urbanisation b) Extent of rural-urban migration
c) Historical reasons d) None of these
Q.8 Into how many language families can the languages spoken in India be divided into?
a) Two b) Three
c) Four d) More than four
Q.9 Which of the following is not a division of the working population of the country based on
economic status?
a) Main workers b) Marginal workers
c) Temporary workers d) Non-workers
Q.10 In which of the following areas do Hindus make up a majority?
a) Nepal-India border b) Bangladesh-India border
c) Pakistan-India border d) Hill States of North-eastern India
 Section B
Very short Answer Questions :
Q.1 Which state of India has the lowest female literacy rate?
Q.2 Mention any two causes of the negative growth rate of population in India during 1911–1921.
Q.3 What is the average density of population of India according to 2011 census?
Q.4 What is population Doubling Time?
Q.5 Who are marginal workers?
Q.6 In which areas of India are Hindus not a major group?
Q.7 What are the causes of considerable increase of urban population?
Section C
Short Answer type Questions :
Q.1 What is density of population? Describe the spatial variation of population density in India.
Q.2 Define the term ‘growth of population’? Describe the third phase of growth of population in India.
Q.3 Explain the main aspects of the ‘National Youth Policy’ of Government of India lunched in 2003.
Q.4 How is agricultural density of population different from physiological density of population?
Q.5 Explain any three economic factors responsible for uneven distribution of population in India.
Section D
Long Answer type Questions : (5 marks questions)
Q.1 ‘The decades 1921-51 are referred to as the period of steady growth of population whereas the
decades 1951-1981 are referred to as the period of population explosion in India. Explain giving
reasons.
Q.2 The uneven spatial distribution of population in India indicates a close relationship between
Population & Physical factors – Support the statement with examples.
Q.3 What is the source of population data in India? Explain the distribution of population in India.
Q.4 Give an account of rural urban composition of India's Population.
Q.5 Give an account of roccupational structure of India's Population.
 Section E

The above map shows the distribution of population of India. Answer the questions based on
the map.
1. What does the term Distribution of population mean?
2. Which region of India is most populated?
3. Name 2 states which are thinly populated.
Activities
1. Prepare a choropleth map to show the density of population in different states ofIndia.
2. Prepare a distribution map of population of India using dot method.
3. Correlate the population distribution map of India with the physical map of India and discuss
the observations in the class.
4. Show the sectoral composition of work force in India with the help of pie diagram
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Geography Assignment, Session- 2023-2024
CLASS - XII, Unit-III

Text Book : India - People and Economy

Chapter 4 : Human Settlements
Section-A
Multiple choice questions :
Q.1 Which of the following isn't true for urban settlements?
a) They depend on processing raw materials, manufacturing finished goods, and providing
services for their economic needs
b) Urban dwellers are not mobile and have intimate social relationships
c) Urban areas act as nodes of economic growth
d) None of these
Q.2 In which kind of rural settlements is the general living area said to be distinct and separated
from the surrounding farms?
a) Clustered settlements b) Semi-clustered settlements
c) Dispersed settlements d) Hamleted settlements
Q.3 Which of the following is *not true* regarding urban settlements, with respect to rural
settlements?
a) They're more compact
b) They're more fragmented
c) They're larger
d) They're functionally linked to surrounding settlements
Q.4 Which of the following is a modern town?
a) Madurai b) Delhi
c) Lucknow d) Pondicherry
Q.5 Into how many classes does the Census of India classify our cities into?
a) Five b) Six
c) Four d) Seven
Q.6 Which of the following is not classed an industrial town?
a) Mumbai b) Salem
c) Koyampuththoor (Coimbatore) d) Agra
Q.7 How many mega cities does India have?
a) Five b) Six
c) Seven d) Nine
Q.8 What percentage of India's total urban population lives in mega cities?
a) 60% b) Half
c) One-fourth d) One-fifth
Q.9 Which of the following is not a mining town?
a) Raniganj b) Jharia
c) Digboi d) Jamshedpur
Q.10 Extremely fragmented terrain can cause the formation of which of the following kinds of
settlements?
a) Cities b) Hamleted rural settlements
c) Dispersed rural settlements d) Semi-clustered rural settlements

1. The examples of two ancient towns are ----------and ------------

I. Lucknow and Aurangabad II. Agra and Hyderabad
III. Patna and Madurai IV. Prayag and Varanasi
a) I and II b) II and III
c) III and IV d) I and IV
2. Match the column X and column Y and make the correct pairs
Column X Column Y
I. Clustered 1. Himachal Pradesh
II. Semi clustered 2. Bihar
III. Hamletted 3. Gujarat
IV. Dispersed 4. Rajasthan
Which is the correct match?
a) 1.-III, 2. IV, 3. - I, 4. II b) 1-II, 2- III, 3- II, 4- I
c) 1- I, 2- II, 3- III, 4- IV d) 1-IV,2- III, 3- II, 4- I
3. Assertion : Social relations among rural people are intimate.
Reason : Rural people are less mobile .
a) A and R are true and R is the reason for A
b) A and R are true and R is not the reason for A
c) A is true and R is false.
d) A is false and R is true.
4. Consider the following statements.
I. When the population of a city crosses one million, it is called a Metropolitan city.
II. There are 6 metropolitan cities in India.
Which among the above statements is/are true/
a) Only I b) Only II
c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II
5. Match the column X and column Y and make the correct pairs
Column X(Metropolitan city) Column Y(State)
I. Jodhpur 1. Tamil Nadu
II. Vadodara 2. Maharashtra
III. Coimbatore 3. Gujarat
IV. Nagpur 4. Rajasthan
Which is the correct match/
a) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II b) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I
c) 1-IV, 2-III, 3- III, 4-IV d) 1-I, 2-III, 3-II, 4-I
6. Assertion : The objective of the Smart Cities Mission is to promote cities that provide clean and
sustainable environment.
Reason: Smart services apply smart solutions to infrastructure and services in order to make
them better.
a) A and R are true and R is the reason for A
b) A and R are true and R is not the reason for A
c) A is true and R is false.
d) A is false and R is true.
7. Consider the following statements. Which of them hold true for the Semi clustered settlements?
I. The land owing community occupies the central part of the village.
II. These units are locally called panna, para, palli, nagla
III. The menial workers settle on the outer flanks of the village.
a) I and II are true b) I, II and III are true
c) Only I is true d) I and III are true
8. Assertion : Clustered settlements are found in the Bundelkhand region.
Reason: People settle in clustered settlements for the maximum utilization of available water.
a) A and R are true and R is the reason for A
b) A and R are true and R is not the reason for A
c) A is true and R is false.
d) A is false and R is true.
9. Match the column X and column Y and make the correct pairs
Column X (population size) Column Y(town category)
I. 10,000-19,999 1. Class I
II. 20,000-49,999 2. Class II
III 50,000-99,999 3. Class III
IV 1,00,000 and above 4. Class IV
Which is the correct match?
a) 1.-II, 2. IV, 3. - I, 4. II b) 1-III, 2- IV, 3- II, 4- I
c) 1- IV, 2- III, 3- II, 4- I d) 1-I,2- III, 3- II, 4- I

Section B
Very short Answer Questions :
Q.1 How is the level of urbanisation measured in India?
Q.2 Which two factors mostly helped in the development of ancient towns in India?
Q.3 Explain the function of a Garrison town with the help of an Indian example.
Q.4 Give any 2 examples of ancient towns of India.
Q.5 Give an example of an ancient historical town from Bihar.
Q.6 Give names of any two modern towns of India.
Q.7 Name four types of rural settlements found in India.
Q.8 Name any two metropolitan cities of Andhra Pradesh.
Q.9 Give two examples of mining towns in India.
Q.10 Name the ‘urban agglomeration’ having the highest share of immigrant population in India.
Section C
Short Answer type Questions :
Q.1 How is the level of urbanisation measured in India?
Q.2 What are metropolitan cities & megacities? Give 2 examples of each metropolitan cities &
megacities from India.
Q.3 Differentiate between Urban & Rural settlements in India.
Q.4 Mention any three characteristics of semi-clustered rural settlements of India.
Q.5 Explain any 3 physical factors responsible for different types of rural settlements in India.
Section D
Long Answer type Questions :
Q.1 Explain any three characteristics of clustered rural settlements of India.
Q.2 Give the meaning of ‘dispersed settlement’. Explain any 2 reasons for the development of such
settlements in India.
Q.3 Classify the Indian towns on the basis of their evolution in different periods. Write one feature
of each.
Q.4 What are hamleted settlements? Mention any two areas of India where such settlements are
found.
Section-E
The level of urbanisation is measured in terms of percentage of urban population to total population.
The level of urbanisation in India in 2011 was 31.16 per cent, which is quite low in comparison to
developed countries. Total urban population has increased eleven-fold during the twentieth century.
Enlargement of urban centres and emergence of new towns have played a significant role in the growth
of urban population and urbanisation in the country. But the growth rate of urbanisation has slowed down
during last two decades.
Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions.
1. Which factors have led to growth of urbanization in India?
a) Enlargement of urban centres b) Emergence of new towns
c) Both a and b d) Only a
2. How is the level of urbanization measured in a country?
a) Percentage of urban population to total population.
b) Number of mega cities in the country
c) Number of villages in the country.
d) None of them.
3. How much has been the increase in the urban population in the twentieth century?
a) Twofold b) Fivefold
c) Sevenfold d) Elevenfold
Activities
1. Mark the million plus cities of India on the political map of India.
2. Prepare a line graph to show the growth of urban population in India since 1901
3. Prepare a pie diagram to show the distribution of urban population according to size class of urban
centres.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Political Science Assignment — 2023-2024
Class - XII, Unit III
Ch.7 : Regional Aspirations
Section A
1. Punjab accord was signed in:
a. 1985 b. 1984
c. 1980 d. 1997
2. 'Akali Dal' was formed in ________________.
a. 1950 b. 1920
c. 1980 d. 1990
3. 'Operation Blue Star' was carried out in ________________.
a. June 1984 b. June 1983
c. June 1982 d. June 1981
4. 'The Dravidian movement led to the formation of D.K (later on DMK) under the leadership of:
a. E.V. Ramaswami b. M. Karunanidhi
c. Annadurai d. None of the above
5. Punjabi Accord was also known as.
a. Indira-Longowal Accord b. Akali-Congrees Accord
c. Rajiv-Longowal Accord d. None
6. N.F.F stand for:
a. National Fire workers Forum b. National Fish workers Forum
c. National Factory workers Forum d. None of the above
7. In which year agreement took place between Sheikh Abdullah and Prime Minister Indira
Gandhi?
a. 1970 b. 1974
c. 1976 d. 1980
8. Master Tara Singh was a leader of:
a. SGPC b. AIADMK
c. MDMK d. PDP
9. With which country North-East states do not share their borders?
a. China b. Afghanistan
c. Myanmar d. Bhutan
10. Nagaland states was created in:
a. 1980 b. 1963
c. 1950 d. 1970
11. Which of the following states were formed in 1987?
a. Mizoram b. Meghalaya
c. Manipur d. Tripura
12. What were the main issues of dominating in the politics of North East?
a. Demand for autonomy b. Movement for secession
c. Opposition to outsiders d. All of the above
13. Which state declared Independence from India in 1951?
a. Mizoram b. Nagaland
53
c. Manipur d. Assam
14. The first democratic elections to Sikkim assembly in 1974 were swept by:
a. Sikkim National Congress b. Indira Congress
c. Janta Party d. SDF
15. When Anandpur Sahib Resolution was passed?
a. 1962 b. 1965
c. 1967 d. 1973
16. Who was the leader of M.N.F?
a. Lal Denga b. V.P. Singh
c. Dalai Lama d. None of these
17. A section of MGP desired that Goa as Marathi speaking area should merge with:
a. Maharashtra b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Manipur d. None
18. In which year Shiv Sena was established?
a. 1955 b. 1960
c. 1966 d. 1970
19. Sikkim became the _____________________ State of Indian Union.
a. 25th b. 29th
c. 22nd d. 20th
20. State of Goa was formed in the year __________________.
a. 1991 b. 1990
c. 1987 d. 1961
21. Which of the following states demanded separation from India.
a. Nagaland b. Mizoram
c. Both (a) and (c) d. None
22. Who was the ruler of Kashmir at the time of partition?
a. Ravi Singh b. Sheikh Abdullah
c. J. L. Nehru d. Hari Singh
23. Who was the leader of the Naga National Council?
a. V. P. Singh c. Lal Denga
c. Karuna Nidhi d. Angame Japu Phizo
24. Who was the main leader of Dravidhian movement?
a. E. V. Ramasami b. Stalin
c. C. Annadurai d. Jaya lalitha
25. When sikkim was merged with India?
a. 1965 b. 1967
c. 1975 d. 1977
26. Which article gives a special status to the state of Jammu & Kashmir?
a. Article 470 b. Article 570
c. Article 270 d. Article 370
Section B
Q.1 Very short answer type questions :
i. Name the first PM of J&K.
ii. What is an elementary lesson of national integration?
iii. Name the states which were carved out of Assam?
iv. Write to 2 sentences on Laldenga. 54
 v. Write the full form of : AASU and MNF.
vi. During which period Akali Government was dismissed?
vii. In which countries do the regional aspirations prevail?
viii. What is the major issue between India & Pakistan?
ix. What is ‘Kashmir issue’?
x. Write two sentences on the people of J & K.
xi. What is special about Article?
xii. Who became the first Chief Minister of J&K?
Section C
Q.2 Short answer type questions :
i. Why did Akalis think that their position remained precarious in Punjab till 1970s.
ii. Write a brief note on Anandpur Sahib Resolution.
iii. How did the idea of Khalistan emerge?
iv. Write a brief of note on Goa's liberation.
v. What is the basic principle of the Indian approach to diversity?
vi. In a democratic country, regional issues are dealt with in a special way. How?
vii. What is ‘Azad Kashmir’?
viii. What do you understand by Punjab crisis?
Section D
Q.3 Long answer type questions :
i. Write a note on Dravidian movement.
ii. What are the grievances of a section of Kashmiries?
iii. How did insurgency start in J&K?
iv. What are the various positions on the issue of regional autonomy for Kashmir? Which of
these do you think are justifiable? Give reasons.
v. Write a note on ‘Operation Blue Star’.
vi. What have been the areas of tension with regard to the regional aspirations?
vii. What was the status of J&K before independence?
viii. What were the reasons of a complicated set of demands from different states of the North-
East?
ix. “The Union Government has to play a very active and positive role in the political economy
of North-East”. Explain.
x. What are the demands of AASU and ULFA?
xi. “All the regional movements need not lead to separatist demands”. Explain by giving
examples.
xii. Write a note on Sikkim's merger.
Section E
Q.4 Read the following passage and answer the questions given below :
Since then, the politics of Jammu and Kashmir always remained controversial and conflict ridden
both for external and internal reasons. Externally, Pakistan has always claimed that Kashmir valley
should be part of Pakistan. As we noted above, Pakistan sponsored a tribal invasion of the State
in 1947, as a consequence of which one part of the State came under Pakistani control. India
claims that this area is under illegal occupation. Pakistan describes this area as ‘Azad Kashmir’.
Questions :
a. What issue is being discussed in this passage?
b. Since when J&K has remained controversial?
c. What was the result of a tribal invasion of J&K in 1947?

55
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Political Science Assignment- 2023-2024
Class - XII, Unit-III
Ch.8 : Indian Politics : Trends and Development
Section A
1. UPA Stands for
a. United Political Alliance b. Union of Provincial Alliance
c. United Progressive Alliance d. United political Association
2. In which year was Babri Masjid demolished?
a. 1975 b. 1985
c. 1989 d. 1992
3. How many seats were secured by the congress in the iok Sabha election held in 1989?
a. 300 b. 250
c. 210 d. 197
4. Who headed the coalition government of 1989?
a. Chandra Shekher b. V.P. Singh
c. I.K. Gujral d. Rajiv Gandhi
5. What % reservation for Backward-Castes was recommended byihe mandal Commission?
a. 30% b. 50%
c. 10% d. 27%
6. OBC stands for
a. Outer Backward Castes b. Other Backward Castes
c. Other Backward Classes d. OF Backward Class
7. In which year was Janta Dal formed?
a. 1975 b. 1982
c. 1985 d. 1988
8. First coalition government in India was formed in:
a. 1963 b. 1965
c. 1967 d. 1969
9. In which state in 2002 large scale violence against Muslims took place?
a. Gujarat b. Himachal
c. Haryana d. Punjab
10. Which politicalgroup emerged as the biggest group after 2004 parliamentary elections?
a. The NDA b. The United Front
c. The Left Front d. The UPA
11. Who was the PM for thirteen days?
a. I.K. Gujral b. A.B. Vajpayee
c. N.Modi d. Rajiv Gandhi
12. Who was the PM of India at the time of Babri demolition?
a. Chandrashekhar b. H.D. Deve Gowda
c. P.V. Narasimha Raod. d. Rajiv Gandhi
13. Which party got majority in 2014 and 2019 lok Sabha elections?
a. Congress. b. Janta Dal
56
c. Samajwadi Party d. BJP
14. Who among the following was not the Prime Minister of India ever?
a. A.B.Vajpayee b. I.K. Gujaral
c. Narasimha Rao d. None
15. Who was the founder of BAMCFF?
a. Mayawati b. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
c. Kanshi Ram d. Mulayam singh
16. Ayodhya is a part of
a. Uttar Pradesh b. Rajasthan
c. West Bengal d. Bihar
17. NDA stands for-
a. National Development Alliance b. National Democratic Alliance
c. New Development Association d. None
18. Which political party emerged as the single largest party after 2004 elections?
a. The Congress b. The BJP
c. The JantaDal d. Jhe United Front
19. The Government of India appointed the Mandal Commission in the year:
a. 1976 b. 1977
c. 1979 d. 1980
20. In which year did Left and BJP supported the National Front government?
a. 1977 b. 1985
c. 1989 d. 1990
21. Who was the PM for thirteen days?
a. I. K. Gujral b. A. B. Vajpayee
c. N. Modi d. Rajiv Gandhi
Section B
Q.1 Very short answer type questions :
i. Who were the Young Turks?
ii. Who were called as the ‘Syndicate’?
iii. Mention an important dimension of the disturbed situation in North-East.
iv. What did the Industrial Policy, 1991 declare?
v. Name the founder of Bahiyan Samaj Party.
vi. Who coined the term ‘Hindutva’?
vii. What do you mean by ‘Karseva’?
viii. What do you understand by ‘coalition’?
Section C
Q.2 Short answer type questions :
i. Write a brief note on Sikh communalism.
ii. Explain the birth of Janata Dal and its support base.
iii. What does ‘Hindutva’ mean?
iv. Write a brief note on Ayodhya dispute.
v. What were the white paper in connection of Babri Masjid?
vi. Explain the ideology & programmes of Janata Dal.
vii. Write a brief note on CPI and CPI(M).
viii. Give any two features of a coalition government. 57
 Section D
Q.3 Long answer type questions :
i. Write a note on the emergence of BJP in the post Emergency politics.
ii. In the midst of severe competition and many conflicts a consensus appears to have emerged
among most parties. This consensus has 4 elements. Explain any two.
iii. Write a note on the Mendal Commission.
iv. Enumerate the two most important issues in Indian politics in the period after 1989.
v. Write a note on anti-Muslim riots in Gujarat.
vi. Write an essay on Naxelite movement.
vii. How would you explain Dalit politics in the last few years.
viii. Write an essay on implications of coalition politics in India.
Section E
Q.4 Long answer type questions :
i. Two states where left parties won the majority of Lok Sabha seats (2004) - Kerala and West
Bengal.
ii. Two states where NDAwonthe majority seats in LokSabha-(2004) -Uttrakhand and
Chhattisgarh.
iii. Two states of North East which were not part of the state of Assam -Tripura, Manipur.
iv. The state whose leader signed an agreement with Rajiv Gandhi in 1986- Mizoram.
v. The-state which declared independence from India in 1951 - Nagaland.
vi. 22nd state of India - Sikkim.
vii. Two states with the common capital Chandigarh Punjab and Haryana.
viii. Newly carved state from the state of Andhra Pradesh - Telengana.
ix. Identify the states from their capitals-
a. Kohima-Nagaland
b. Aizawi- Mizoram
c. Shillong-Meghalaya
d. Itanagar-Arunachal Pradesh
x. 4 North Indian states where congress did not get majority in 1967-Punjab, Himachal
Pradesh. Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan.

xi. Two states where congress could not win majority in 1952 elections - Jammu and Kashmir
and Kerala.
xii. State two which Nizam belonged to -Hyderabad.
58
xiii. State from where J.P Narayan demanded the dismissal of congress government in 1974 -
Bihar.
xiv. States involved in Ravi - Beas river water dispute - Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan.
xv. A Princely State of - North India -Jammu and Kashmir, North East - Manipur South - Mysore,
Hyderabad, West - Junagarh.
xvi. First state formed on linguistic basis - Andhra Pradesh.
xvii. Food crisis in 1960s - Bihar.
xviii. 6 States where Janta Party won in 1977-Punjab, Haryana, (J.P, Bihar, M.P and Gujarat.
xix. Two.states where congress managed to win in 1977 - Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
xx. Formation of Dalit Panthers - Maharashtra

59
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Physical Education Assignment- 2023-2024
Class - XII, Unit-III
Chapter 7 - Physiology and Injuries in Sports
SECTION A
MCQs (1 mark each)
Q.1 Muscle fibre helps to determine
a. Strength b. Speed
c. Endurance d. All the above
Q.2 Overuse of muscles and joints can cause this injury.
a. Soft tissue b. Joint
c. Bone d. All the above
Q.3 A sprain means injury to _____________
a. Ligament b. Muscles
c. Bone d. Joint
Q.4 On the spot aid to an injured person is called :
a. RICE b. PRICE
c. First Aid d. Medical help
Q.5 The blood expelled by the heart in a beat is called :
a. Cardiac output b. Stroke volume
c. Lidal volume d. VO2 max
Q.6 Muscle strength comes from
a. Muscle size b. Low body weight
c. Less flexibility d. Low muscle fibres
Q.7 The capacity of muscles to inhale oxygen is called
a. Oxygen intake b. Oxygen uptake
c. Oxygen gain d. Oxygen transfer
Q.8 Another name for strain is
a. Muscle in b. Muscle pull
c. Muscle push d. Muscle rupture
Q.9 What does P stand for in PRICES?
a. Protection b. Precaution
c. Preserve d. None of the above
Q.10 RICE is standard treatment for
a. Sprain b. Strain
c. Fracture d. Sprain and strain
Q.11 When their is tiny hole in the bone due to overuse of muscle.
a. Communated b. Stress fracture
c. Multiple fracture d. None of the above
Q.12 When the fracture line is perpendicular to the longer part of the bone is known as
a. Transverse fracture b. Oblique fracture
c. Stress fracture d. Green stick fracture [ 21 ]
Q.13 What is the importance of Elevation ?
a. Reduce swelling b. Reduce pain
c. Raise limb above level of your heart d. Both A and B
Q.14 The components of physical fitness are-
a. Strength b. Speed
c. Endurance d. All of the above
Q.15 In this fracture bone is broken into pieces-
a. Communated b. Green stic
c. Transverse d. Stress
Q.16 What does 'E' stand for in RICE
a. Evaluation b. Extra stress
c. Elevation d. Examination
Q.17 Physiological changes due to ageing .Find the odd one out-
a. Weakness in muscles b. Cardiovascular disease
c. Wrinkles on face d. Reaction improves
Q.18 Extra stress put on muscles,joints,tendons and ligaments is known as-
a. Bone injury b. Sports injury
c. Joint injury d. None of the above
Q.19 Immediate care given to injured person before medical assistance in called-
a. First aid b. RICE
c. Injury d. Rehabilitation
Q.20 It is a soft tissue injury-
a. Luxation b. Abrasion
c. Oblique d. Sub-luxation
Q.21 Injury to muscle is called-
a. Sprain b. Strain
c. Contusion d. Abrasion
Q.22 Injury to the ligaments due to fall is called-
a. Sprain b. Strain
c. Abrasion d. Bruise
Q.23 The effect of exercise on muscular system are-
a. cardiac output b. Hypertrophy of muscles
c. Tidal volume d. I.R.V
Q.24 The amount of oxygen which can be consumed by the working muscles from the blood.
a. Oxygen uptake b. Oxygen intake
c. Cardiac output d. Oxygen diffusion
Q.25 Name the injury due to cut-
a. Abrasion b. Fracture
c. Incision d. Dislocation
Q.26 The term 'aerobic' means.
a. With oxygen b. Oxygen intake
c. Without oxygen d. Oxygen uptake
Q.27 Heart's ability to deliver blood to the working muscles and their ability to use it is called-
a. Endurance b. Cardio-respiratory endurance
c. Agility d. Running long distance
Q.28 Internal injury below the skin because of hard impact.The affected part becomes blue black
a. Abrasion b. Contusion
c. Bruise d. Laceration
Q.29 Khushi falls on a hard surface and her skin is scrapped or rubbed by friction.She got
a. Abrasion b. Cut
c. Sprain d. Strain
Q.30 Abrasion is which type of injury-
a. Soft tissue b. Hard tissue
c. Indirect injury d. None of these
Q.31 Prevention is better than cure explain as...................
a. Proper warm up b. Use of protective equipment
c. Proper sports shoes d. All of the above
Q.32 Classify sports injuries.
a. Soft tissue b. Joint
c. Bone d. All the above
Q.33 The skin has actually cut through its full thickness with sharp edges.
a. Sprain b. Strain
c. Contusion d. Laceration
Q.34 Mention the correct soft tissue injury.
a. Transverse b. Oblique
c. Greenstic d. Sprain
Q.35 In what situation first -aid is given ?
a. chronic injury b. old wounds
c. sudden injury d. after two days of injury
Q.36 This is not the physiological factor determining strength component .
a. Size of muscle b. Muscle composition
c. Nerve impulse d. Cardiac output
Q.37 What is hypertrophy in the muscle?
a. Increase in aerobic b. Cardio-respiratory endurance
c. Working muscle d. Increase in size of muscle
Q.38 Name the fractures in sports
a. Greenstic b. Transverse
c. Multiple d. All the above
Q.39 Displacement of socket from its original position is called.
a. Break in bone b. Fracture
c. Dislocation d. Sprain
Q.40 Which of the following activities does not contribute to the development of cardiorespiratory endurance
?
a. Low impact aerobic b. Jogging
[ 23 ]
 c. 400 yard dash d. Racket ball
Q.41 Bone come out of the socket in shoulder dislocation
a. Femur b. Humerus
c. Tibia d. Fibula
Q.42 Fracture where the bone bends rather than breaking and only one cortex of bone is involved
a. Simple b. Compound
c. Greenstic d. Oblique
Q.43 First aid is focused on what are called 3 'P' s, preserve life , prevent deterioration and
a. Promote life b. promote comfort
c. Promote recovery d. Promote pain
Q.44 Injuries or damage of one or more ligaments in a joint is known as
a. Strain b. Sprain
c. Bruise d. Incision
Q.45 Physiological factor determining flexibility are
a. Muscle strength b. Aerobic capacity
c. Joint structure d. Both A and C
Q.46 When the bone is broken into many pieces at one place or different places it is called...
a. Impacted fracture b. Green stick fracture
c. Comminuted fracture d. Compound fracture
Q.47 Overstretching of the ligaments near the joints is known as...
a. Contusion b. Sprain
c. Laceration d. Fracture
Q.48 The amount of oxygen taken and absorbed by the muscles is known as...
a. Oxygen intake b. Oxygen uptake
c. Oxygen transport d. Oxygen expenditure
Q.49 The Slow-twitch muscles ,which predominanty are supplied with red fibres ,are adapted for.
a. Strength b. Speed
c. Endurance d. Dynamic balance
Q.50 Physical Exercise done in the presence of oxygen is called
a. Aerobic b. Speed
c. Isometric d. Isokinetic
Q.51 What type of first aid should be given to a person suffering from heat storke.
a. Have the patient lie down in a cool place. b. Give him a glass of cold water
c. Let him stay in the sun for some more tme d. Surround the patient
Q.52 It is the injury of the skin in which skin is scrapped or rubbed by friction;
a. Fracture b. Dislocation
c. Sprain d. Abrasion
Q.53 The most important measure that ensures safety against injuries in games and sports is,
a. Proper physical conditioning b. Acquiring mechanically correct skill
c. Use of protective gear d. Correct layout of fields
Q.54 Breaking of a bone is called
a. abrassion b. fracture [ 24 ]
 c. dislocation d. sprain
Q.55 Physiological factor determining speed are
a. Explosive strength b. Muscle composition
C. Body weight D. Both A and B
Q.56 Dislocation is related to
a. Bone injury b. Skin injury
c. Muscular injury d. Joint injures
Answer:-

1d 11 b 21 b 31 d 41 b 51 a
2a 12 a 22 a 32 d 42 c 52 d
3a 13 d 23 b 33 d 43 c 53 c
4c 14 d 24 a 34 d 44 b 54 b
5b 15 a 25 c 35 d 45 d 55 d
6a 16 c 26 a 36 d 46 c 56 d
7a 17 d 27 b 37 d 47 b
8b 18 b 28 b 38 d 48 b
9a 19 a 29 a 39 c 49 c
10 d 20 b 30 a 40 d 50 a

Q.1 Match list i with list ii and select the correct answer
List - i List - ii
1) First aid i) Sprain
2) Muscle injury ii) Joint
3) Ligament injury iii) Strain
4) Dislocation iv) R.I.C.E
a. iii ,iv ,i ,ii b. iv, iii , i, ii
c. iv, i, ii, iii d. i ,ii ,iii ,iv
Q.2 Given below are the two statements labeled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Physical education is an elective discipline.
Reason (B) : Physical education borrows principles from other allied fields. in the contest of above
two statements which one of the following is correct.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation A
b. both A and R are true , but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true
Q.3 Match the following
List I list II
A. Abrasion i. Joint injury
B Green stick fracture ii. Soft tissue injury
C Shoulder dislocation iii. Cause of sports injury
D. Lack of fitness iv. Bone injury

[ 25 ]
 a. ii ,iv ,i ,iii b. iv, iii, i, ii
c. i ,ii ,iii ,iv d. i, iv, iii, ii
Q.4 Identify the injury

a. Sprain b. Strain
c. Abrasion d. contusion
Q.5 Identify the injury.

a. Laceration b. Dislocation
c. Incision d. Fracture

Answer:- 1. (B) , 2. (A) ,3. (A), 4. (A), 5(D)

SECTION B
Q.1 Explain the term:
a. Fracture
b. Dislocation
c. Contusion
d. Abrasion
Q.2 Write the full form of R.I.C.E.
Q.3 Enlist the types of Fracture.
Q.4 List down the factors determining speed.
Q.5 What do you mean by the term oxygen in take and oxygen uptake.
SECTION C
Short answer type questions (3 marks each)
Q.1 Mention the effect of exercise on the muscular system.
Q.2 What is strain? Write about the treatment of strain.
Q.3 What is sprain? Write about the treatment of sprain.
Q.4 Discuss the role of Regular exercises on ageing process.
Q.5 What is fracture? Explain the types of fracture.
Q.6 Explain the terms luxation and subluxation.
SECTION D
Long answer type questions (5 marks each)
Q.1 Explain in brief the Physiological Components of physical fitness.
Q.2 Explain in brief the Physiological factors determining the strength, endurance, speed, flexibility.

[ 26 ]
Q.3 Explain the effects of exercises on cardio respiratory system.
Q.4 What is dislocation? Write the treatment of dislocation of shoulder joint.
Q.5 What are the Aims and objectives of First Aid?
Q.6 Write the complete first aid for fracture.
SECTION E
Q.1 Early morning, we observe many older people following fitness regime. One day Ramu observed
a 60-year-old man was holding his chest on the ground.When Ramu approached him, he said
that he felt chest pain regularly after jogging. What is the rate of normal heart beat of an adult?
a. 80 b. 72
c. 92 d. 69
Ans (b)
Q.2 The Godavari school attended a CBSE Cluster Basketball Tournament. During the semi-final
match Varun, one of the players fell down and was injured on the shoulder. He was immediately
given first aid by the coach Mr. Rahul, who had the knowledge of first aid. Warm-up session is
essential for players to avoid any serious injuries during the match. Example: Dislocation and
fracture, Sprain and Strain.
The first-aid given to sprain injury are
a. RICE b. Giving massage to affected part
c. Following doctor advice d. Applying ointment
Ans. (a)
Q.3

a. Identify the injury ____________________________.

b. Name the injury related to joints ________________________.
c. Mention any two fracture _________________________.
d. Which injury caused while playing Basketball? __________.

Activity
First Aid of sports injuries

[ 27 ]
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Computer Science, Assignment- 2023-2024
Class – XII, Unit-III
Chapter: Exception Handling & Data Structure
Section - A
1. What happens when ‘1’ == 1 is executed?
a) we get a True
b) we get a False
c) an TypeError occurs
d) a ValueError occurs
2. What will be the output of the following Python code?
def foo():
try:
print(1)
finally:
print(2)
foo()
a) 12 b) 1
c) 2 d) none of the mentioned
3. What will be the output of the following Python code?
def foo():
try:
return 1
finally:
return 2
k = foo()
print(k)
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) error, there is more than one return statement in a single try-finally block
4. Can one block of except statements handle multiple exception?
a) yes, like except TypeError, SyntaxError [,…]
b) yes, like except [TypeError, SyntaxError]
c) no
d) none of the mentioned
5. Which of the following statements is true in Python?
a) Stack is a static data structure.
b) Stack is a dynamic data structure.
c) Stack is an empty data structure.
d) All of these
6. Which of the following operations does a stack perform?
a) Push and Pull b) Push and Pop
c) Pull and Push d) None of these
7. Which of the following situations may appear while working with a stack in Python?
a) Overflow and Underflow situations are possible.
b) Overflow is possible but Underflow is not possible.
c) Overflow and Underflow both are possible.
d) Underflow is possible but Overflow is not possible.
8. When will the else part of try-except-else be executed?
a) always
b) when an exception occurs
c) when no exception occurs
d) when an exception occurs in to except block
9. What will be the output of the following Python code?
x=10
y=8
assert x>y, 'X too small'
a) Assertion Error b) 10 8
c) No output d) 108
10. What will be the output of the following Python code?
def a():
try:
f(x, 4)
finally:
print('after f')
print('after f?')
a()
a) No output b) after f?
c) error d) after f
11. Which of the following is not an exception handling keyword in Python?
a) try b) except
c) accept d) finally
12. Consider the following operation performed on a stack of size 5.
Push(1);
Pop();
Push(2);
Push(3);
Pop();
Push(4);
Pop();
Pop();
Push(5);
After the completion of all operation, the number of elements present in stack is?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
13. __________ is a python object that represents an error.
a) Interpreter b) Compiler
c) Exception d) Module
14. (i) generally all exceptions are generated when a program is syntactically correct
(ii) SyntaxError is not considered as exception.
a) (i) True, (ii) False
b) (i) False, (ii) True
c) Both are True
d) Both are False
15. It is raised when the file specified in a program statement cannot be opened.
a) NameError
b) IOError
c) ImportError
d) EOFError
16. Which of the following describes the exception handling process correctly?
a) Exception raised -> searches for exception handler -> create exception object -> execute code of exception
handler
b) Exception raised -> create exception object -> searches for exception handler -> execute code of exception
handler
c) Create exception object -> exception raised -> searcher for exception handler -> execute code of exception
handler
d) Create exception object searches for exception handler-> exception raised -> execute code of exception
handler
 ASSERTION AND REASONING based questions. Mark the correct choice as :
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A
c) A is True but R is False
d) A is False but R is True
17. Assertion (A): Lists and tuples are linear data structures. Whereas, stack and queue are non-linear data
structures.
Reason (R): A structure that contains the values sequentially or linearly is known a linear data structure. The
traversing of a linear data structure takes place in a single run only.
18. Assertion (A): The stack is a memory structure that works on the principle of FIFO (First In First Out).
Reason (R): The stack is created with the help of a list with some restriction. It manages a pointer called Stack
Pointer (SP) that will increase or decrease by one (1), if an element is entered or retrieved from the stack
respectively.
Section B
19. “Every syntax error is an exception but every exception cannot be a syntax error.” Justify the statement.
20. When are the following built-in exceptions raised? Give examples to support your answers.
a) ImportError
b) IOError
c) NameError
d) ZeroDivisionError
21. What is the use of a raise statement? Write a code to accept two numbers and display the quotient. Appropriate
exception should be raised if the user enters the second number (denominator) as zero (0).
22. Use assert statement in Question No. 21 to test the division expression in the program. 23. Define the following:
a) Exception Handling
b) Throwing an exception
c) Catching an exception
24. Explain catching exceptions using try and except block.
25. Consider the code given below and fill in the blanks.
print (" Learning Exceptions...")
try:
num1= int(input ("Enter the first number"))
num2=int(input("Enter the second number"))
quotient=(num1/num2)
print ("Both the numbers entered were correct")
except _____________: # to enter only integers
print (" Please enter only numbers")
except ____________: # Denominator should not be zero
print(" Number 2 should not be zero")
 else:
print(" Great .. you are a good programmer")
___________: # to be executed at the end
print(" JOB OVER... GO GET SOME REST")
Section C
26. Write a function in python, Push(Stu) and MakePop(Stu) to add a new student and delete student from a List of
Stu contain rollno, Sname and Class as list, considering them to act as push and pop operations of the Stack data
structure
27. Write a function in python, Push(Package) and Pop(Package) to add details of employee contain information
(Empid, Ename and Salary) in the form of tuple in Package and delete a Package from a List of Package
Description, considering them to act as push and pop operations of the Stack data structure.
28. Jiya has a list containing 8 integers. You need to help her create a program with two user defined functions to
perform the following operations based on this list.
• Traverse the content of the list and push those numbers into a stack which are divisible by both 5 and 3.
• Pop and display the content of the stack.
For example: If the sample Content of the list is as follows:
L=[5,15,21,30,45,50,60,75] Sample Output of the code should be: 75 60 45 30 15
29. (a) Write a function in python named PUSH(STACK, SET) where STACK is list of some numbers forming a
stack and SET is a list of some numbers. The function will push all the EVEN elements from the SET into a
STACK implemented by using a list. Display the stack after push operation.
(b) Write a function in python named POP(STACK) where STACK is a stack implemented by a list of numbers.
The function will display the popped element after function call. Also, display “Stack Empty” if there are no
elements in the stack.
30. A stackBook contains the following details of various books – [book_no, book_title, book_price]. Write a function
PushBook(Book) in Python that inputs the book details from the user and pushes into the stack. Also, display the
stack elements.
Section D
31. The functions to perform PUSH and POP operations on a stack are as defined below.
def PUSH(st, top, n):
top=top + ______ # Line 1
st.______(n) # Line 2
def POP(st, top):
if(top == -1):
print("Underflow")
else:
st.________ # Line 3
top = ________ -1 # Line 4
In the above functions, some places are left blank to be filled with values/functions.
Answer the following questions:
(a) What value/function will be filled in the blank of Line 1?
 (b) What value/function will be filled in the blank of Line 2?
(c) What value/function will be filled in the blank of Line 3?
(d) What value/function will be filled in the blank of Line 4?
32. Write a Python code to create a stack that should contain different names. Make use a function Push() to enter a
name in the stack each time it is called. The elements of the updated stack will be displayed after each push
operation. The number of calls to the function should be managed with the user's choice.
For example:
Push a name: Kuntal
Elements of the stack:
['Kuntal']
Push a name: Jyoti
Elements of the stack:
['Kuntal', 'Jyoti']
and so on.
33. Strange is an entity which can hold integers. The operational restriction of Strange is that an integer can only be
added from the top or removed from the top. This is like a pile of China plates where we can add or remove a
plate from the top only. The other details are as given below:
Strange[ ] : a linear list to hold integer elements
top : : to point the index of the topmost element.
Pushitem(Strange, value): adds an integer value at the top of the Strange
Popltem(Strange): removes an integer from the top of Strange. If Strange[ ] empty, output a message
"Stack Underflows"
(i) Write a code in Python using the functions mentioned above to enable the task.
(ii) What is the common name of the entity described above?
(iii) State one of its real world applications.
Section E
34. Vedika has created a dictionary containing names and marks as key-value pairs of 5 students. Write a program,
with separate user-defined functions to perform the following operations:
Push the keys (name of the student) of the dictionary into a stack, where the corresponding value (marks) is
greater than 70.
Pop and display the content of the stack.
The dictionary should be as follows:
d={“Ramesh”:58, “Umesh”:78, “Vishal”:90, “Khushi”:60, “Ishika”:95}
Then the output will be: Umesh Vishal Ishika
35. A list contains following records of students:
[Adm_no,SName,DOB,Mobile]
Write the following user defined function to perform given operations on the stack named 'Admission':
i) PUSH() To insert an object containing admission number, student name and Mobile of the students who's
birth year is after 2008 to the stack. If stack holds more than 3 elements show "stack is full"
 ii) POP() To pop the object from the stack and display them in stack one by one.
For Example:
If the lists of students detail are :
["20221017","Guru","20-7-2008","9988779988"]
["20221018","Ragunath","06-8-2009","9977889988"]
["20221019","Jenifer","31-12-2007","9988996677"]
["20221020","Priya","21-10-2009","9966557864"]
The stack should contain
["20221017","Guru","9988779988"]
["20221018","Ragunath","9977889988"]
["20221020","Priya","9966557864"]
The output should contain
["20221017","Guru","9988779988"]
["20221018","Ragunath","9977889988"]
["20221020","Priya","9966557864"]
Stack is full
Beyond Classroom
1. Write a function in Python, Push(Ride) where , Ride is a dictionary containing the details of Cab ride ,
Ride={driver: billamt }.
The function should push the names of those driver in the stack INCENTIVE who have billed greater than 400.
Also display the count of names pushed into the stack
For example:
If the dictionary contains the following data:
Ride={‘Raghu’:389,’Anbu’:560,’Siraj’:768,’Syed’:450 }.
The stack INCENTIVE should contain
[‘Anbu’,’Siraj’,’Syed’]
The output should be:
The count of Drivers in the stack is 3
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Informatics Practices, Assignment- 2023-2024
Class – XII, Unit-III
Topic: Data Visualisation
Section A
Multiple Choice Questions:
1. _______________________ plot indicates comparison of discrete variables.
a. Bar plot
b. Line plot
c. Histogram
d. Pie chart
2. _______________ function is used to view the plot in Pyplot.
a. view ()
b. show ()
c. disp()
d. showplot()
3. Read the statements given below. Identify the right option from the following for histogram:
Statement A: To make a histogram with Matplotlib, we use the plt.hist() function.
Statement B: It takes one numerical variable as input.
a. Only Statement A is correct.
b. Only Statement B is correct
c. Both Statement A and B are correct
d. None of the above statements are correct
4. __________ function is used to give title to the plot.
a. title ()
b. plotitle ()
c. title ()
d. legend ()
5. Which of the following is the appropriate command to import pyplot in Python?
a. import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
b. import matplot as plt
c. import pyplot.matplotlib as plt
d. import pyplot as plt
6. Which of the following statements is used to draw a histogram with 20 bins?
a. plt.hist(x, bins=20)
b. plt.histogram(x, bins= 20)
c. plt.hist(x, bin=20)
d. plt.plot(x, bins = 20)
7. Which function is used to show legends in a plot?
a. legends ()
b. show()
c. legend ()
d. display(}
8. Which of the following function will create a horizontal bar chart?
a. ploth()
b. barh()
c. plotbar()
d. bar()
9. __________ are column-charts, where each column represents a range of values, and the height of a
column corresponds to the number of values present in that range.
a. Bar plot
b. Line graph
c. Histogram
d. Pie chart
10. Read the following code and choose the correct option for plotting the bar graph:
import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
year= [‘2020’, '2019’, ‘2018’, '2017']
NumOfStudents = [1200,700, 1500, 800)
___________________________
plt.show ()
a. plt.plot(year, NumOfStudents)
b. plt.bar(year, NumOfStudents}
c. plt.hist(year, NumOfStudents}
d. plt.histh(year, NumOfStudents)
11. Out of the following, which function cannot be used for customization of charts in Python?
a. xlabel()
b. colour()
c. title()
d. xticks()
12. What is the minimum number of arguments required for plot(} function in matplotlib?
a. 1 b. 2
c. 3 d. 4
13. ________ is the function to save the graph.
a. savefig() b. savefigure()
c. savegraph() d. savechart()
14. Observe the following figure. Identify the coding for obtaining this as output.

a. import matplotlib.pyplot as plt

plt.plot([ 1, 2], [4,5] )
plt.show ()
b. import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
plt.plot( [ 1, 2, 3], [ 4, 5, 1] )
plt.show()
c. import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
plt.plot ([2, 3], [5,1])
plt.show()
d. import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
plt.plot ([1, 3], [4, 1])
plt.show()
15. Read the statements given below and identify the right option to draw a histogram.
Statement A: To make a Histogram with Matplotlib, we can use the plt.hist() function.
Statement B: The bin parameter is compulsory to create histogram.
a. Statement A is correct
b. Statement B is correct
c. Statement A is correct, but Statement B is incorrect
d. Statement A is incorrect, but Statement B is correct
16. Which graph should be used where each column represents a range of values, and the height of a
column corresponds to how many values are in that range
a. plot
b. line
c. bar
d. histogram
17. Read the statements given below. Identify the right option from the following for Attribute and
method/function.
Statement A: Attribute always ends without parenthesis.
Statement B: Function/Method cannot work without arguments.
a. Both statements are correct.
b. Both statements are incorrect.
c. Statement A is correct, but Statement B is incorrect
d. Statement A is incorrect, but Statement B is correct
18. The command used to give a heading to a graph is __________.
a. plt. show()
b. plt .plot()
c. plt.xlabel ()
d. plt.title()
19. Using Python Matplotlib ___________ can be used to count how many values fall into each interval.
a. line plot
b. bar graph
c. histogram
d. none of these
20. Which python library is not used for data science?
a. Panda
b. bar graph
c. Matplotlib
d. none of these
21. Which library is imported to draw charts in Python?
a. csv
b. matplotlib
c. numpy
d. pandas
22. To change the width of bars in a bar chart, which of the following arguments with a float value is used?
a. hwidth
b. width
c. breath
d. barwidth
23. Which of the following command is used to import matplotlib for coding?
a. import matplotlib.pyplot as plt_
b. import plt .matplotlib as plt
c. import py.matplotlib as plt
d. import pyplot.matplotlib as plt
24. Consider the following statements with reference to Line charts:
Statement A: A Line graphs is a tool for comparison and is created by plotting a series of several
points and connecting them with a straight line.
Statement B: You should never use line chart when the chart is in a continuous data set.
a. Statement A is correct
b. Statement B is correct
c. Statement A is correct but Statement B is incorrect
d. Statement A is incorrect, but Statement B is correct
25. What is not true about Data Visualization?
a . Graphical representation of information and data.
b. Helps users in analyzing a large amount of data in a simpler way.
c. Data Visualization makes complex data more accessible, understandable, and usable.
d. No library needs to be imported to create charts in Python language.
Fill in the blanks:
1. ____________ function is used to give label to x axis of the plot.
2. ___________ function is used to give title to a plot.
3. ___________ library of Python is used to draw plots in Python.
4. ___________ function is used to draw the bar plot horizontally in Pyplot.
5. It is advisable to provide _________ in case we have more than one plotted data.
6. The ___________ parameter in the hist()method is used to set the number of bins that your data will
be divided into.
7. To use Python's Data Visualisation library, we need to import the __________ module from Matplotlib
library.
8. __________ function is used to display the plots.
9. A _________ is a graphical representation of a data set which is also known as a graph or chart.
10. The __________ of each column in the histogram is proportional to the number of data points its bin
contains.
State whether the statement is True or False:
1. The bins in histogram are consecutive, non-overlapping intervals of a variable.
2. All bars in the bar chart are of the same width.
3. Bar plots show comparisons among discrete categories.
4. The bars can be plotted horizontally or vertically in the bar plot.
5. The number of observations per bin is represented by the width of the bar in histogram.
Section – B
1. Name the plot in which bars need not to be of the same width.
2. Identify the right type of chart using the following hints:
a. This chart is often used to visualize a trend in data over intervals of time.
b. It shows a change in one or more variables over time.
3. Name the function which is used to plot the line plot.
4. Which graphs are used to show results of continuous data, such as: weight, height, how much time etc.
5. Reeta has given the following code to draw the line plot but her plot is not visible. Help her correct the
code:
import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
x = [ 1,5,3,7]
y = [ 12, 15, 10, 20]
plt.plot(x,y)
6. Name the method which is used to plot the horizontal bar plot.
Give the output of the following code:
import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
x = [ 1,5,3,7]
plt.plot(x)
plt.show()
 Section – C
1. Write a python code to create a histogram chart from the following set of data
[12,23,45,67,44,31,78,98,56,87]
2. Write a program to create bar chart of winners of five largest parties in election 2021. Display
appropriate label.
Party Winners
ABL 34
BBN 24
BKP 20
CCT 45
MNT 30

3. Mr. Y wants to draw a line chart using a list of elements named LIST with 6 numeric values. Complete
the code to perform the following operations:
i. To plot a line chart using the given LIST.
ii. To give a y-axis label in the line chart named “Sample numbers”
4. Why is following code not producing any result?
import matplotlib.pyplot
a = [10,50,12,16,18]
b = [90,200,20,60,50]
matplotlib.pyplot.plot(a,b)
5. Draw histogram for the following code:
import matplotlib.pyplot as m
english=[77,66,88,99,55,44,33,79,68,83]
maths=[56,89,70,50,60,65,90,80,47,82]
m.hist([english,maths], orientation='horizontal')
m.show()
6. Consider the following graph. Write the code to plot it.

Section – D
1. Write a python code to draw a line plot for the number of students in each class from class 1 to 5. Add
appropriate title and x and y labels.
2. Write a python code to draw a histogram of the marks obtained by 20 students out of 100.
(take bins =5)
3. Write a python code to draw a bar plot for the number of fruits in 6 shops from shop1 to shop6. Add
appropriate title and x and y labels.
4. Consider the following graph. Write code to plot it.

5. Consider the following code:

import matplotlib.pyplot as m
x = [1.0, 2.0, 3.0, 4.0, 5.0]
y = [250, 330, 180, 450, 80]
m.plot(x,y)
m.xlabel(“Days of week”)
m.ylabel(“Number of people”)
m.title(‘Line Plot’)
m.show()
What will be the output of the above code?
Section – E
1. Write a python code to draw the bar plot of the following data:
Year 2016 – 17 2017 – 18 2018 – 19 2019 – 20 2020 – 21
No. of Students 750 975 1530 1210 1425

2. Read the following Python code:

#Bar graph showing distances of 4 cities from Delhi
..................... #statement 1
City=[‘Kolkata’, 'Mumbai', ‘Chennai’, 'Hyderabad']
Distance_from_Delhi= [1340, 1100, 1700, 1220]
m.bar(City,Distance_from_Delhi)
..................... #statement 2
m.ylabel("DISTANCE FROM DELHI .lIN. KM)")
m.show()
Answer the following questions:
a. Write python code to be used in the blank space in line marked as statement 1.
b. Ragini wants to draw horizontal bar chart instead of vertical bar chart. Help her to write code.
c. Fill in the blanks in Statement 2 to set the x label for the bar chart.
3. Gaurav has written a python code to create a bar plot as given below using the following data:
City Happiness_Index male Happiness_Index Female
Delhi 60 30

Beijing 40 60

Washington 70 70

Tokyo 65 55

Moscow 85 75
 import _______________ #Statement 1
city=['Delhi','Beijing','Washington','Tokyo','Moscow']
Gender=['Male','Female']
Happiness_Index_Male=[60,40,70,65,85]
Happiness_Index_Female=[30,60,70,55,75]
plt.bar([0.25,1.25,2.25,3.25,4.25],Happiness_Index_Male,color='blue',
label='Male',width=.5)
plt. __________ ([0.75,1.75,2.75,3.75,4.75],Happiness_Index_Female,color='green',
label='Female',width=.5) #Statement 2
pos=range(len(city))
plt.xticks(pos,city, fontsize=10)
plt.xlabel("City",fontsize=16)
plt.ylabel("Happiness_Index",fontsize=16)
______________________________ # Statement 3
______________________________ # Statement 4
______________________________ # Statement 5

Write suitable python code to be used in the blank space in line marked as Statement 1, Statement 2,
Statement 3, Statement 4, and Statement 5.

Beyond Classroom:
1. Write a python program to generate line graph with suitable title and labels. Where x is the year of
performance with values 2014, 2015, 2016, 2017,2018 and 2019. And y axis shows the profit of a
particular company in Rs.(Millions).
2. Given the following data of rainfall in different zones of India in mm for 12 months.
 Create multiple line charts in a Figure to observe any trends from Jan to Dec.

3. Consider the data given below in the table, create a bar chart depicting the downloads of the app.

4. Given the following data of rainfall in North & South zones of India in mm for 12 months.

Create multiple Bar charts in a Figure to compare rail fall of North and South zone from Jan to Dec.
5. Given the ages of 50 participants in some game. Write a program to plot a histogram from given data
with 10 bins.
Data=[ 10,11,13,13,15,16,17,18,19,21,23,23,23,24,24,25,25,25,25,25,26,26,27,27,27,27,
29,30,30,30,30,31,33,34,34,35,36,36,37,37,37, 38,39,40,40,40,41,42,43,43]
Also plot a cumulative frequency histogram.
6. Given below are the sugar levels for men and women in a city. Compare the sugar levels amongst
them.
men = [113,85,90,150,149,88,93,115,135,80,77,82,129]
women=[67,98,89,120,133,150,84,69,89,79,120,112,100]
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Informatics Practices, Assignment- 2023-2024
Class – XII, Unit-III
Topic: Societal Impacts
Section A
1. What is a good way to maintain a positive digital footprint?
a. Don’t overshare
b. Only post things that you would want everyone to see
c. Use Privacy settings
d. All of the above
2. Software with source code that anyone can view, modify, and enhance. It is to be free of charge
a. Freeware Software
b. Free Software
c. Open Source Software
d. None
3. IT Act 2000 amendment was in which year
a. 2007
b. 2008
c. 2006
d. None
4. Name of IT law in India
a. IT Act 2000
b. IT Act 1990
c. IT Act 2005
d. None
5. Harassing someone on Internet by posting threats
a. Cyber bullying
b. Phishing
c. Spam
d. None
6. Which of the following element make e-waste hazardous in nature?
a. Plastic
b. Iron
c. Glass
d. Lead
7. The image is an example of
a. Digital property
b. Intellectual property
c. None
8. The term “Intellectual property Rights” covers
a. Trade marks
b. Patents
c. Copy right
d. All of the above
9. Choose Open Source software among them
a. Open Office
b. MS Office
c. Linux
d. MS Windows
10. Everything that is posted online is saved for how long?
a. 1 week
b. 1 year
c. Forever
d. None
11. The practice of attempting to acquire sensitive information from individuals over the internet.
a. Phishing
b. Spamming
c. Cyber Bullying
d. None
12. Creative Creations of mind such as patents, trademarks, and copyright are called
a. Digital property
b. Intellectual Property
c. Both
d. None
13. Copying your friends answer and using it by own name
a. Plagiarism
b. Cyber stalking
c. Cyber bullying
d. None
14. An ethical hacker must ensure that proprietary information of the firm does not get leaked (True / False)
15. Symbol of McDonald is
a. Patent
b. Trademark
c. Copyright
d. All of the above
16. __________ are attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you to falsifying their
identity
a. Phishing Scams
b. Spyware Scams
c. Computer Viruses
d. Phishing trips
17. What is your digital footprint?
a. All the information online about a person that is started online
b. Having a blog, Facebook or twitter page
c. A scanned image of your foot
d. All
18. Any criminal offense that includes the use of electronic communication medium, over the internet is
referred as
a. Cyber crime
b. Crime
c. Online crime
d. Internet crime
19. Companies track what you search for (True / False)
20. E-waste can cause water pollution and air pollution also. (True / False)
 Section B
1. List any two health hazards related to excessive use of Technology.
2. Priyanka is using her internet connection to book a flight ticket. This is a classic example of leaving a
trail of web activities carried by her. What do we call this type of activity? What is the risk involved by
such kind of activity?
3. How to manage e-waste efficiently?
4. What are the impacts of E-waste on the environment?
5. What are the impacts of E-waste on humans?
6. Explain the following terms:
a. Phishing
b. Denial-of-service
c. Identity theft
d. Hacking
e. Cracking
Section C
1. While sitting in front of the computer which points should be taken care of?
2. Write some important point should be kept in mind to reduce the risk of cybercrime
3. What are the ways to use protected material or IPR?
4. What are the types of digital footprints? Explain them in detail.
5. Write some guidelines to manage digital footprints?
6. “You should use the internet ethically”. – Justify this in detail.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
TYPOGRAPHY AND COMPUTER APPLICATIONS, Assignment- 2023-2024
Class – XII, Unit-III
POWERPOINT
Section A
1. How many views are present in the PowerPoint?
a. 4 b. 6 c. 3 d. 5
2. The individual page of the document is called ____________.
a. Slide b. Slide Layout c. Animations d. Transitions
3. Which of the following should be used if all the slide in the presentation to have the same “look”?
a. The slide layout option. b. Add a slide option.
c. Outline view. d. A presentation design template.
4. Special effects used to introduce slides in a presentation are called
a. Effects. b. Custom animations.
c. Transitions. d. Present animations.
5. How can you create a uniform appearance by adding a background image to all slides?
a. Create a template. b. Edit the slide master.
c. Use the autocorrect wizard. d. All of the above.
6. Which of the following section does not exist in a slide layout?
a. Titles. b. Lists c. Charts. d. Animations.
7. The effect applied to display when slides changes in slide show view is
a. Slide Animation. b. Custom Animation.
c. Custom Transition. d. Slide Transition.
8. It displays a page layout of the notes and the slide.
a. Slide show View b. Notes Page View
c. Normal View d. Slide sorter view
9. It displays the presentation from the beginning with animation.
a. Slide show View b. Notes Page View
c. Normal View d. Slide sorter view
10. It displays the thumbnails of all the slides in the presentation. It allows to sort, move, add and delete slides easily.
a. Slide show View b. Notes Page View
c. Normal View d. Slide sorter view
SECTION B
Answer the following questions in detail:
1. What is Ms. PowerPoint/ PPP?
2. What is the extension of PowerPoint?
3. Explain the meaning and use of Clip-Art.
4. What is Presentation? What are its uses?
5. What are different views options available in PowerPoint?
6. What is the difference between a presentation and a slide?
7. Write the steps to insert ClipArt in a slide.
8. Write steps to insert textbox and WordArt.
9. What is the difference between animation and transition?
10. Define the following:
i. Slide
ii. Slide Layout
iii. Normal View
iv. Slide Sorter View
11. What do you understand by PPP? What are its components.
12. Mention the purpose of PowerPoint.
SECTION C
ICT Skills
1. Spreadsheet programs have become very popular not because of which of the following features:
a. Built-in functions make calculations easier, faster, and more accurate.
b. Large volumes of data can be easily handled and manipulated.
c. Data can be exported to or imported from other software.
d. Formulae are not automatically recalculated whenever underlying data values are changed.
2. What is the difference between MAX and MIN functions in Calc?
a. The MAX function is used to find the maximum of numbers in a given range of cells and the MIN function is used to
find the minimum of values in the given range of cells
b. The MAX function is used to find the maximum numbers in a given range of cells and the MIN function is used to
find the minimum of numbers in the given range of cells
c. The MAX function is used to find the maximum prime numbers in a given range of cells and the MIN function is
used to find the minimum of prime numbers in the given range of cells
d. The MAX function is used to find the maximum of even numbers in a given range of cells and the MIN function is
used to find the minimum of odd values in the given range of cells
3. The contents of cell A1, A2, A3, and A4 in a Spreadsheet application are 10, 15, 20, 25 respectively. If the formula
=COUNT(A1:A4) is entered in cell A5, ___________ value will be displayed in A5.
a. 70 b. 4 c. 45 d. 65
4. In Spreadsheets, a _______________ is an arrangement of cells in vertical order.
a. Column b. Row c. Table d. Worksheet
5. Identify the correct option used to perform addition in spreadsheets?
a. Format option b. Charts c. Graphs d. Formula
6. The ________ is located below the Title bar. It has commands like File , Edit, etc. Clicking on each menu option displays a
list of commands.
a. Standard bar b. Menu bar c. Formatting bar d. Formula bar
7. Select a short step for opening a workbook
a. Ctrl+A b. Ctrl+N c. Ctrl+O d. Ctrl+S
8. What is the shortcut key to insert current date in a cell?
a. CTRL +; b. CTRL + T c. CTRL + D d. CTRL +’
9. What is the short cut key to select the entire row in which the cell pointer is positioned?
a. SHIFT + SPACEBAR b. CTRL + SPACEBAR
c. CTRL + A d. CTRL + Z
10. The software which contains rows and columns is called
a. Database b. PowerPoint c. Spreadsheet d. Word processing
11. Which menu option will you click on to insert shapes and images?
a. Format b. Tools c. Edit d. Insert
12. What are the steps to insert a square shape in a presentation?
a. Insert > Shape> Line> Square b. Tools > Shape> Line> Square
c. Insert > Shape> Basic > Square d. Format > Text > Basic> Square
13. What happens when you change the layout of a slide?
a. The format of the text changes
b. New slide is inserted
c. The arrangement of content (text, images, shapes) changes
d. The title gets aligned to the center of the slide
14. Which menu option do you use to insert a slide?
a. Edit b. Insert c. Slide d. Tools
15. How will you, usually, align the title of a slide?
a. Left b. Right c. Center d. Justify
16. Which option will you use to change the colour of the text?
a. Font Color b. Font c. Highlight Color d. Format
II . The following questions are for 2 marks each.
1. What are the steps to insert a text box in a slide?
2. Write down the steps to insert picture from file.
3. What do you mean by Handouts in presentation software?
4. Write down the difference between Normal view and Handout view?
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Music Assignment- 2023-2024
Class – XII, Unit-III
Section A

1. संगीत र ाकर के रचियता कौन

a. ह रदास जी b. ास का

c. पंिडत सारं ग दे व d. दीनानाथ

2. बड़े गुलाम अली जी का ज कहां आ

a. कसूर नामक गांव b. वृं दावन

c. ािलयर d. जयपुर

3. राग भै रव म िकतने िवकृत र है

a. 4 b. 3

c. 2 d. 1

4. 4 िकसी एक र को अित शी ता से गाने को ा कहते ह

a. खटका b. गमक

c. मूचना d. कण

5. मुक म िकतने रों का कण िदया जाता है

a. 2 b. 3

c. 4 d. 5

6. गमक िकतने कार के होते ह

a. 2 b. 15

c. 16 d. 17

7. गं भीरतापू वक रों का उ ारण ा कहलाता है

a. गमक b. मूचना

c. खटका d. अलं कार

8. ाम िकतने कार के होते ह

a. 3 b. 5

c. 6 d. 7

9. मूचना िकतने भागों मh बांटा गया है

a. 4 b. 7

c. 2 d. 6
10. खटका का ा िच है

a. () b. *

c. ₩ d. %

11. सात रों को म से आरोह अवरोह करना ा कहलाता है

a. अलं कार b. मूचना

c. गमक d. ाम

12. सं गीत पा रजात के रचियता कौन है

a. पं िडत होबल b. तानसेन

c. सारं गदे व d. ह रदास

13. सं गीत पा रजात की फारसी म िकसने अनुवाद िकया

a. पं िडत दीनानाथ b. ास

c. ह रदास d. तानसे न

14. संगीत पा रजात िकस शता ी म िलखा गया

a. 1665 b. 1670

c. 1680 d. 1690

15. सं गीत पा रजात फारसी म िकस ई ी म अनुवाद िकया

a. 1724 b. 1778

c. 1790 d. 1780

16. राग मालकौंस म िकतने र विजत है

a. 2 b. 5

c. 1 d. 3

17. राग मालकोश का थॉट बताइए

a. भैरवी b. भैरव

c. आसावरी d. पूव

18. राग मालकोश का वादी संवादी बताइए

a. मसा b. ग सा

c. िन सा d. गधा

19. राग मालकोश म िकतने कोमल र लगते ह

a. 3 b. 2

c. 4 d. 1

20. आलाप राग का कौन सा प है

a. भावना क प b. कला प

c. नृ d. आदश प
21. तान राग का कौन सा प है

a. आ कप b. भाव

c. कला क प d. नृ प

22. पक ताल म िकतनी मा ा होती है

a. 7 b. 16

c. 10 d. 13

23. पक ताल िक िवभाग व था ा है

a. 3,2,2 b. 3,1,3

c. 3,3,2 d. 1,3,3

24. संगीत प रजात म िकतनी रागों का वणन है

a. 122 b. 156

c. 165 d. 125

25. सं गीत पा रजात म िकतने ोक का वणन िकया

a. 500 b. 600

c. 300 d. 200

26. पं िडत अहोबल न स क को िकतने ुित म िवभािजत माना है

a. 22 b. 34

c. 25 d. 26

27. गा_ म नी_धा_नी _. कौन से राग का र समूह है

a. राग मालकोश b. राग भैरव

c. राग बागे री d. राग शु सारं ग

e. उ ाद फैयाज खान

28. साहब जी का ज िकस सन म आ

a. 1886 b. 1885

c. 1876 d. 1898

29. धमार ताल म िकतनी मा ा होती है

a. 14 b. 10

c. 12 d. 7

30. फैयाज खान कौन सी गायकी गाते थे

a. ुपद तथा ाल b. ठु मरी

c. ट ा d. धमार

31. फैयाज खान साहब जी की मृ ु कब ई

a. 1847 b. 1848

c. 1849 d. 1856
32. धमार ताल की िवभाग व था ा है

a. 5.2.3.4 b. 5.4.2.6

c. 1.2.4.6 d. 5.3.4.1

33. तानपु रा के बीच के दो तार िकस नाम से जाने जाते ह

a. जोड़ा b. सरगम

c. पलटा d. कण

34. अगर राग म पा विजत है तो तानपु रे के तार को िकस र से िमलाया जाएगा

a. म म b. पं चम

c. िनषाद d. गंधार

SECTION B

35. आल प िकसे कहते ह िकसे कहते ह

36. तान िकसे कहते ह

37. पं िडत कृ और शं कर जी का ज कहां आ

38. गमक िकतने कार के होते ह उनके नाम िल खए

39. ाम िकसे कहते ह ाम िकतने कार के होते ह

40. धमार ताल म िकतनी मा ा होती है िवभाग व था समझाइए

41. सं गीत पा रजात पर िट णी िल खए

42. राग भैरव का प रचय दीिजए

राग मालकोश का आरोह अवरोह पकड़ िल खए

43. तानपुरे की िमलाने की िविध िल खए

44. धमार ताल का प रचय िलखते ए ठह िल खए

SECTION C

45. अपने पा म म से बड़े ाल का नोटे शन िल खए 32 मा ा की तान िल खए

46. अपने पा म म से िकसी एक राग मै धमार. की रिलिप िल खए

47. िक ी तीन तालों म दो-दो अलं कार िल खए

48. ुपद खयाल गायकी गाने वाले कलाकार का प रचय दे ते ए सं गीत म उनका ा योगदान रहा िल खए

49. धमार का प रचय दे ते ए दु गुन ितगु न चौगुन िल खए

50. राग मालकौस राग बागे ी का 50 रम र िव ार कीिजए

 SECTION D

51. िदये गए िच म से सुिषर वा का नाम बताइये।

52. उपरो सुिषर वा पर पाँच अलं कार बजाइये ।

53. हमारे रा गीत के लेखक का नाम बताइये ।

54. रा गीत का स र उ ारण कीिजये ।

 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Dance Assignment — 2023-2024
Class – XII, Unit-III
Section A

MCQ

1. संचारी भाव िकतने कार के ह?

क) 30 ख) 31

ग) 33 घ) 34

2. यु एवं साहसपू ण किठन काय के िलए ह्दय म उ भाव

क) वीर रस ख) अद् भुत रस

ग) हा रस घ) रौ रस

3 .मु ा धान अिभनय।

क) आं िगक अिभनय ख) वािचक अिभनय

ग) आहाय अिभनय घ) सा क अिभनय

4. ______________________ समय, प र थत और पा ों की शारी रक-मानिसक दशा के अनुकूल ही िकया जाता है।

क) अिभनय ख) भाव

ग) गत घ) चलन

5. यह भाव मनु के दय म सदै व िव मान रहता है ।

क) थायी भाव ख) िवभाव भाव

ग) अनु भाव भाव घ) संचारी भाव

6. पु एवं मुखौटे इस अिभनय के अंतगत आते ह?

क) आं िगक अिभनय ख) वािचक अिभनय

ग) आहाय अिभनय घ) सा क अिभनय

7. वीभ रस का थायी भाव।

क) घृणा ख) स ता

ग) दया घ) भय

8. र,वचन,वाणी िकस अिभनय के अंतगत आते ह?

क) आं िगक अिभनय ख) वािचक अिभनय

ग) आहाय अिभनय घ) सा क अिभनय

Section B

9. नम या ोक को भावाथ सिहत िल खए।

10. सा क अिभनय के आठ त पर िटप ी कर।

11. ृं गार रस को प रभािषत कर एवं इनके कारों पर काश डािलए।

12. शांत रस को प रभािषत कीिजए।

13. िन िल खत म से िक ी दो को प रभािषत कीिजए।

क) वीर रस

ख) वीभ रस

ग) अद् भु त रस

Section C

14. "भाव" का आ य कीिजए एवं इनके भे दों पर काश डािलए।

15. अिभनय को प रभािषत करते ए इनके भेदों पर काश डािलए।

16. नवरस को मां िकत करते ए इनके संबंिधत भाव िल खए एवं िक ी चार रसों को प रभािषत कीिजए।

Section D

प रयोजना काय:-

17. नवरस को िच ों के मा म से दशाऐं।

18. नेप िविध के साम ी के िच ों को फाइल म लगाइऐ।

 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Home Science Assignment - 2023-2024
Class - XII, Unit-III
Chapter: Early childhood care and Education
SECTION - A
Multiple choice questions:
1. ECCE has the possibility to nurture caring, capable and responsible future citizens according to
________.
a. WHO b. UNICEF
c. UNESCO d. UNAID
2. -----------------is the period between birth and one year, when a child is dependent upon adults for
everyday needs.
a. Neonate b. Infancy
c. Childhood d. Prenatal
3. _____________ is a type of institutional setting especially designed for the care of infants and
young children in the absence of home care.
a. Creche b. Special home
c. Observation home d. Nursing home
4. The child between two and three is referred to as a term derived from the jumpy walk that a young
child has at this age.
a. Tottler b. Toddler
c. Toppler d. Jumper
5. Government of India has addressed the needs of toddlers by offering pre-school education through
the ______________that operates in urban and rural areas under its Integrated Child Development
Services (ICDS)
a. Creches b. Day care centres
c. Aanganwadis d. Child care centres
6. _____________is period from birth to eight years and a period of rapid growth & development.
a. Early childhood b. Middle childhood
c. Late childhood d. Infant hood
7. Development of "sense of self" & ability to differentiate between themselves & others is developed
in their_____________ year.
a. Birth to 1 year b. Birth to 3 year
c. 4 – 5 year d. 5 – 6 year
8. When children are taken care of by other people in absence of his /her parents, it is called
______________.
a. Remedial care b. Substitute care
c. Day care d. All the above
9. Montessori schools are based on the principles of early childhood education given by
_____________.
a. Marina Montessori b. Marry Montessori
c. Maria Montessori d. Magarita montessori
10. What is/are the basic objectives of ECCE?
a. Development of the child to enable him/her to realize the potential.
b. Preparation for school
c. Support services for women and children
d. All of the above
11. Based on the developmental changes in these stages, early childhood may be divided into how
many periods?
a. Two b. Three
 c. One d. Four
12. Early childhood is defined as the period from.
a. Birth to 3 years b. 3 to 8 years
c. Birth to 8 years d. 1 to 8 years
13. Riya opens creche in her home for business , it is an example of:
a. Substitute care b. Informal family based care
c. Creche d. Institutionalized centre
14. With the development of______________ infants understand that objects continue to exist when
out of sight.
a. Personal fable b. Identity crisis
c. Object permanence d. Conservation
15. Government of India offers pre-school education through in urban and rural areas under its ICD
Scheme
a. Anganwadis b. Play school
c. Mid-day meals d. Creches
16. Which of the below given statement/s is /are not true?
i. ECCE services focusess on education and providing safe setting to meet the basic needs of
children of working parents.
ii. ECCE provides unscientific understanding of development and growth of children through
informal interaction.
iii. The child between two and three is called an infant.
iv. Separation anxiety is discarded with the development of object permanance in infants.
v. Around three years of age curiosity develops and they ask lot of 'why'questions.
a. ii, iii, v b. i, iii, v
c. ii, iii d. ii, iii, iv
17. An important milestone of cognitive development of toddlers is ___________.
a. Play and supervision
b. Play and monitoring
c. Activity and play based
d. Activity and coordination
18. “Young children need a supportive environment to explore phenomena in the their own ways”. This
was stated by
a. Vygotsky b. Andre-Marie Ampere
c. John Logie Baird d. Piaget
19. As an early childhood professional, Ms Harpreet kaur wants to open up primary-school in her
locality, Which, guiding principles of ECCE should be considered by her?
i. Blend of textual and cultural reosurces
ii Use of local materials
iii. Focus only on nutrtious meals
iv. Health, well-being and healthy habits.
Choose the correct option
a. i, ii and iv b. ii,iii and iv
c. i and iii d. ii and ii
20. Which of the below given services are not included in the field of ECCE?
a. Creches b. ICDS
c. Nursery schools d. High schools and colleges
Reason-Assertion type
Two statements are given, Assertion (A) and Reason (R) chose the correct option on the basis of the below
given instructions
a. If both 'A' and 'R' are true, and 'R' is true explanation for 'A'
b. If both 'A' and 'R' are true but 'R' is not correct explanation for A
c. If 'A' is true and 'R' is false
d. If 'A' is false 'R' is true
Q.1 Assertion (A) : Child should be exposed to a variety of people and lot of play materials should be
used.
Reason (R) : A good learning environment should be provided to make child feel safe, secure and
loved.
a. b. c. d.
Q.2 Assertion (A) : Institutional settings like crèche and Day Care Centres are established for small
children.
Reason (R) : Some children need substitute care.
a. b. c. d.
Q.3 Assertion(A)- Three-year-old children are curious to learn more.
Reason( R) - Satisfying a child's curiosity by providing an optimal learning environment is an
essential consideration at this age.
a. b. c. d.
Q.4 Assertion (A): The pre school educator must have knowledge specially about the child’s capabilities,
more than information around the world.
Reason (R): The tasks given to the child should be extremely easy so that the child succeeds in
accomplishing them.
a. b. c. d.
Section B
Very Short answer questions
Q.1 What do you understand by the term early childhood care and education?
Q.2 What are the different care arrangements young children may require?
Q.3 What is meant by a child - centered approach?
Q.4 Why are some pre-schools known as Montessori Schools?
Q.5 After schooling, your elder sister completed her training in ECCE, suggest two wage employement
oppotunities available to her.
Q.6 Your sister wants to send her 3 year old son to the Montessori school. Write two reasons for
choosing such school.
Q.7 Reena wants to send her 2 year old daughter in a creche. Which two features should she look for, in
selecting a good creche?
Q.8 What is meant by child centred approach?
Q.9 What are the two types of ECCE services?
Q.10 Why is substitute care needed?
Section C
Short answer questions
Q.1 What are some of the reasons due which young children need a special informal programme at
school?
Q.2 What is crèche, and what services does this centre provide?
Q.3 What is substitute care? Name the types of substitute care.
Q.4 How is a crèche different from Day care?
Q.5 Why do young children need a supportive environment to explore phenomena in their own ways?
Q.6 What are the characteristics of early childhood?
Q.7 Explain the role of teacher or adult in the life of a child?
Q.8 Explain in detail the importance of early childhood care and education.
Q.9 Explain the basic concepts of early childhood care and education.
Q.10 Which qualifications are needed for being a teacher in a play school
Section D
Long answer questions
Q.1 List the skills an ECCE worker must have.
Q.2 Explain how one can prepare for a career in ECCE.
Q.3 What essential skills should an early childhood professional have?
Q.4 Mr Anil wants to open up an institution for children
a. Guide him about any four principles given by NCF(2005) to be kept in mind.
b. Which four facilities must be included in the institution for children
Q.5 Sarika has started a new pre-school, What are the eight points by which she can make parents
aware of the benefits of a pre-school education?
SECTION E
Case Study Based Questions
I. Day care and crèches are usually all-day programmes. Teachers and helpers in these programmes
need to be especially trained for the care of very young children, their safety, their feeding, toilet
habits, language development, social and emotional needs and learning. Teachers, who have to
deal with children above three years of age, require different skill sets. The child between two and
three is sometimes referred to as a toddler, a term that is derived from the jumpy walk that a young
child has at this age. A preschool child is so called because he or she is now ready for experiencing
some sort of environment beyond that of the family (extra-familial). Even for this programme, a
teacher needs to be specially trained as a pre-school or nursery school teacher. Some pre-schools
for young children are often called Montessori schools. These are schools based on the principles
of early childhood education as outlined by a well-known educationist Maria Montessori. It is worth
mentioning that the Government of India has addressed the needs of this age grouping by offering
pre-school education through the anganwadis that operate under its Integrated Child Development
Services (ICDS). There are anganwadis in urban and rural areas.
1. Institutionalised centres are examples of___________
a. Primary care taker agencies
b. Substitute care
c. Maids procured from placement agencies.
d. None of the above
2. Which of the following statements is not true?
a. Montessori schools provide education through play.
b. Art should be the basis of education.
c. Preparation of reading and writing starts during pre-school years.
d. Creches and day care centres do not cater to the emotional needs of children.
3. Child centred approach of education refers to which of the following?
a. Child is seated in the centre of the room
b. Child is the centre of attraction and planning.
c. Positive learning experience is the centre of planning
d. All of the above
4. In Anganwadi centres, education is provided through-
a. Rhymes b. Play
c. Clay d. All of the above
II. Early childhood care and education is a very important area of study in Human Development. In
several communities, especially those living in remote areas or those with fewer resources at their
disposal, older children who are of school going age are often given the responsibility for the care of
younger ones, as parents go out for work. Consequently, the older child is unable to participate in
schooling. Therefore institutional care for young children is beneficial for the older child as well since
he/she is released from the task of child care and can attend school. Thus, children, both young and
of school age, can be helped to have access to services when they live in difficult circumstances.
Further these services also provide for interventions in nutrition, health, besides learning as and
when there is a requirement. Thus, there is a support to society in the task of developing and
building the next generation for the future. Early childhood education and care is an activity that
benefits childhood in different circumstances, as well as families by providing the support to parents
and the community in these basic tasks.
As per the NCF (2005) Position Paper on Early Childhood Education published by NCERT, the
basic objectives of ECCE are:
" Holistic development of the child to enable him/her to realise the potential
* Preparation for school
* Providing support services for women and children
Answer the following questions:
1. Which of the below given option does not refer to substitute care?
a. Creche b. Day care centres
c. Grandparents at home d. Schools and colleges
2. What are the guiding principles of ECCE?
a. Play as the basis for learning
b. Art as the basis of education
c. Recognition of the special features of children's thinking
d. All the above
3. Creche can be considered as an example of:
a. Institutionalised substitute care b. Informal substitute care
c. Montessori school d. None of the above
SECTION F
Practical/Activity:
Practical: Preparation and use of any one teaching aid to communicate socially relevant messages
for children/ adolescents/ adults in the community.
Or
Preparation of any one toy for children (age appropriate) using locally available and indigenous
material.
Activity: A day visit to a play school to observe the functioning.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Home Science Assignment - 2023-2024
Class - XII, Unit-III
Chapter: Management of Support Services, Institutions and programmes for children, youth and elderly.
SECTION - A
Multiple choice questions:
1. The___ 2000 is the primary legal framework for future in India.
a. Juvenile Justice Act b. Child Justice Act
c. Adolescent Justice Act d. Children Justice Act
2. To participate in the implementation of relief works and rehabilitation programs, youth can become a
part of__________
a. commonwealth youth programme
b. National service self sustaining scheme
c. National service scheme
d. All of the above
3. _________________provide medical care to the older persons living in rural isolated and backward
areas.
a. Multi service centres b. Day care centres
c. Mobile medicare units d. Counseling centres
4. Discrimination against girls in our society is reflected in:
a. Decreasing level of education
b. Decreasing level of economic progress
c. Declining birth rate ratio
d. All of the above
5. Composition and structure of the family varies according to different stages of its______ _.
a. Growth b. Life cycle
c. Finances d. Family members
6. In 2011 -2012 as per planning commission______% of population was below National Poverty line.
a. 45 b. 29.5
c. 49.5 d. 19.5
7. Youth are persons considered in the age group of ___________yrs.
a. 15 to 29 b. 20 to 39
c. 10 to 29 d. 30 to 40
8. In 2016 elderly number was nearly ___________of the population.
a. 15% b. 30%
c. 9% d. 27%
9. Section of a society which is more likely to be affected by adverse circumstances is referred to as :
a. Vulnerable groups b. Poor groups
c. Diseased groups d. Privileged groups
10. The Juvenile Act considers the following category of children
a. Who are "in conflict with law"
b. Who are considered to be "in need of care and protection"
c. Who belong to poor families
d. Both 'a' and 'b'
11. _______________________is an independent non-governmental social Organisation which
follows a family approach to the long term care of orphaned and abandoned children.
a. SOS b. ICDS
c. UNICEF d. WHO
12. Children homes where children stay temporarily till the completion of an investigation to track down
their parents is done are called
a. Observation Homes b. Special Homes
c. Juvenile Homes d. Children's Homes
13. The ___________________ provides opportunities to students who have completed their first
degree, to participate in programmes of national development through Nehru Yuva Kendras
a. National Service Volunteer Scheme
b. National Service Scheme
c. Youth Programmes
d. ICDS
14. India is the home to second largest population of senior citizens in World after
a. Brazil b. Pakistan
c. Japan d. China
15. NOAPS stands for
a. National Old Age pension scheme
b. National Orphanage Scheme
c. National Old Age Pension Subsidiary
d. National Orphanage Service
16. In India, when was the first SOS village set up?
a. 1890 b. 1920
c. 1964 d. 1899
17. What are the special features of the elderly population in India?
a. Feminisation of the elderly population
b. Increase in the number of the older - old
c. A large percentage (30%) of the senior citizens is below the poverty line.
d. All of the above
18. In which kind of homes, Juveniles (children under 18 years of age) are found guilty in terms of
violation of law, are placed in custodial care?
a. Observation homes b. Special homes
c. Juvenile / children's home d. None of the above
Two statements are given, Assertion (A) and Reason (R) chose the correct option on the basis of the below
given instructions
a. If both 'A' and 'R' are true, and 'R' is true explanation for 'A'
b. If both 'A' and 'R' are true but 'R' is not correct explanation for A
c. If 'A' is true and 'R' is false
d. If 'A' is false 'R' is true
19. Assertion (A) : Young children need formal education..
Reason (R) : A family cannot always provide all the specialized services needed for optimal growth
and development of its members. .
a. b. c. d.
20. Assertion (A) : Youth is a vulnerable period.
Reason (R) : Youth show various changes during pruberty.
a. b. c. d.
21. Assertion(A) : Through Nehru Yuva Kendras school going students are provided with the
opportunity to participate in programs related to social and national service.
Reason(R) : Through NYKs students are involved in setting adult clubs, organising work camps,
youth leadership training programmes, vocational training, programs to promote rural sports and
games.
a. b. c. d.
22. The elderly are vulnerable group due to various reasons. The reasons are:
(i) Decreased defence mechanism
(ii) Increased Financial resources
(iii) Improved physiological resources
(iv) Nuclear family concepts.
Choose the correct option:
a. (i) and (ii) b. (ii) and (iii)
c. (i) and (iv) d. (ii) and (iv)
23. Select the programmes operating in the country to meet the needs of vulnerable children.
(i) Special homes
(ii) ICDS
(iii) NSS
(iv) NOAPS
Choose the correct option:
a. (i) and (ii) b. (i) and (iii)
c. (i) and (iv) d. (ii) and (iv)
24. Youth are vulnerable because
(i) They are undergoing many biological changes
(ii) Peer pressure
(iii) Health is major concern
(iv) Reduced support within the family.
Choose the correct option:
a. (i) and (ii) b. (i) and (iii)
c. (ii) and (iii) d. (ii) and (iv)
25. Match the column I with Column II
Column I Column II
A. New Juvenile Justice Act I. 1999
B. First SOS village in India II. 2014
C. New National Youth Policy III. 1964
D. National Policy For Older Persons IV. 2015
a. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II b. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
c. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III d. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Section B
Very Short answer questions
Q.1 Why are children, vulnerable?
Q.2 Define Juvenile Justice Act 2000.
Q.3 Who are referred as ‘ Juvenile delinquents’?
Q.4 Which two categories of children are considered in Juvenile Justice Act?
Q.5 State the full forms of
a. ICDS
b. CARA
Q.6 In India when and where was the first SOS village set up?
Q.7 Which programme for elderly takes care of old people who are seriouly ill and require continous
nursing care and respite.
Q.8 Rohit’s Grandfather is old, stays in rural area far off from city and needs medical care. Which
programme for elderly suits his needs?
Q.9 For availing NOAPS which two conditions are essential?
Q.10 What is the main objective of scouts and Guides programme for youth?
Section C
Short answer questions
Q.1 What types of programmes is appropriate for youth?
Q.2 What are some of the concerns with respect to the elderly?
Q.3 Describe two programmes each for children, youth and Elderly?
Q.4 Discuss about three kinds of homes run by Government for children from 3-18 years.
Q.5 Name the groups who are especially vulnerable under youth.
Q.6 Give the important features of a family.
Q.7 State the aim of Nehru Yuva Kendras.
Q.8 What educational qualifications are required for working in support services, institutes and programs
for children, youth and elderly?
Q.9 What are the abilities and skills required to have a successful career in management of support
services for children, youth and elderly?
Q.10 Compare NSS scheme with NSVS scheme for youth.
Section D
Long answer questions
Q.1 What advice will you give to someone who is planning to set up her / his institution for children/
youth / elderly?
Q.2 Describe the knowledge and skills you will need in order to pursue a career in management of
institutions and programmes for children / youth / elderly?
Q.3 Explain the various youth programmes being run in India.
Q.4 Which children are identified in need of care and protection according to Juvenile Justice Act 2000?
Q.5 Explain the functioning of SOS children's villages.
Section E
Case Study Based Questions
I. All children-are vulnerable, but some are more vulnerable than, others. These are the children who
are living in such challenging conditions and difficult-circumstances that their basic needs of food,-
health, care and nurturance are not met and this prevents them from developing their full potential.
Given below information clearly highlights that the needs of a large proportion of child population
are not met.
* Nearly two-thirds of children under five years of age suffer from moderate or severe
malnutrition. Malnutrition affects development in all areas.
* About 3 million children live-on the streets without any shelter.
* Only one in three children of the pre-school age has the opportunity to be in an early learning
programme.
* Less than half of India's children between ages 6 and 14 years go to school.
* A little -over one-third of all children who enroll in Standard I reach Standard VIII. The others
drop out of school for one or the other reason.
* 17 million children in India work, as per official estimates. The actual numbers may be even
more. According to the World Bank the number may Be 44 million.
 (i) Effect of malnutrition among children can be seen in the form of-
(a) Obesity (b) Kwashiorkor
(c) Marasmus (d) All of above
(ii) Children's homes are run by Government for children from-
(a) 3-6 years in centre custody
(b) 3-11 years in state custody
(c) 3-15 years in centre custody
(d) 3-18 years in state custody
(iii) Major reason for drop out of children from school is-
(a) Abusing by peer group
(b) Substance abuse
(c) Sex abuse
(d) (b) and (c) both
(iv) The Vision of providing family based care to orphans and abandoned children is met by-
(a) SOS (b) CARA
(c) UNICEF (d) ICDS
Section F
Activity: Visit to SOS village and preparing a report on it.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Home Science Assignment - 2023-2024
Class - XII, Unit-III
Chapter: Design for Fabric and Apparel
SECTION - A
Multiple choice questions:
1. ______________ is a popular contemporary term which has different connotations and meanings.
a. Fashion b. Design
c. Apparel d. Ornament
2. ______________ depends on form and not superimposed ornamentation.
a. Structural Design b. Applied Design
c. Embroidery d. None
3. ______________ is the part of the design which has been super imposed on the basic structure.
a. Structural Design b. Applied Design
c. Embroidery d. None
4. are the tools of Art which includes colour, texture, line, shape and form.
a. Characteristics of Design b. Element of Design
c. Shades of Design d. Forms of Design
5. When all light rays are reflected the object appears ______________, when none are reflected it
appears ______________.
a. Black, White b. White, Black
c. Red, Black d. Black, Red
6. Yellow- green, blue-green and blue-purple colours are called _______________colours.
a. Primary colours b. Secondary colours
c. Tertiary colours d. Achromatic colours
7. ______________, ________________ and _________________ are primary colours.
a. Orange, Green, Blue b. Orange, Red, Yellow
c. Red, Yellow, Blue d. Red, Green, Orange
8. ______________ colours are made by mixing one primary and one secondary colour, lying
adjacent to each other
in a colour wheel.
a. Tertiary b. Monochromatic
c. Secondary d. Primary
9. White, black, grey, silver colour are called____________.
a. Achromatic colours b. Secondary Colours
c. Compound Colours d. Complementary Colours
10. ______________ describes lightness or darkness of a hue.
a. Value b. Hue
c. Chroma d. Intensity
11. The______________ card shows all possible hues, and is recognized Internationally.
a. Pantene b. Pantane
c. Pantone d. Pantair
12. ______________ lines emphasise height whereas _______ lines create on illusion of width.
a. Horizontal, Vertical b. Vertical, Horizontal
c. Diagonal, Horizontal d. Horizontal, Diagonal
13. ______________ lines given the impression of feminity and daintiness.
a. Horizontal b. Vertical
c. Diagonal d. Curved
14. A ______________ is formed when shapes are grouped together.
a. Form b. Pattern
c. Group d. Creation
15. ______________ balance gives a feeling of stability, dignity and formality.
a. Formal b. Radial
c. Assymetrical d. Informal
16. Which of the below given element is not the element of design?
a. Colour b. Shape and form
c. Emphasis d. Line
17. Light rays of short wavelengths produce
a. Receding colours b. Advancing colours
c. Restful colours d. both 'a' and 'c'
18. Which of the below given colours is not an achromatic colour?
a. White b. black
c. Red d. Silver
19. Grey scale and value chart are___________grades scale for judging value
a. 0 - 10 b. 1 - 10
c. 0 - 15 d. 1 - 15
20. Tie - Die and batik patterns are produced by dyeing at______________ stage
a. fibre b. yarn
c. fabric d. weaving
21. Harmony based on one hue is called ______________
a. Monochromatic harmony b. complementary harmony
c. Achromatic harmony d. Analogous harmony
22. Analogous harmony refers to :
a. Colour combination using two or three hues that lie side by side on the colour wheel
b. use of only neutral colours
c. use of only single hue
d. use of one hue and an achromatic colour
23. ______________ and _______________ are two elements which together create the pattern or
plan of every design.
a. Line and colour b. colour and shape
c. Line and shape d. Line and texture
24. A tall and thin girl should avoid wearing a dress with ___________ _ lines
a. Horizontal b. Vertical
c. Zig Zag d. None
25. ______________ refers to the relation of one part of an object to another
a. balance b. harmony
c. proportion d. rhythm
26. In which kind of balance body irregularities may become more prominent?
a. Formal balance b. Informal balance
c. Radial balance d. None
27. Use of embroidery, lace etc on dress helps to create_______________ principle of design.
a. Balance b. Proportion
c. Rhthym d. Emphasis
28. Rhthym in a dress can be created by______________
a. Repetition b. Cordation
c. Radiation d. All of the above
29. ______________ colour has the maximum value
a. White b. black
c. Grey d. Red
30. Dyeing done at stage creates multifarious designs.
a. Yarn b. Fabric
c. Fibre d. None
II Complex MCQ and Assertion Reason Type
1. Match the follwoing
A. Horizontal, Vertical, Slant i Line
B. Feel, Appearance ii Principles of Design
C. Lightness or Darkness of colours iii Value
D. Harmony, Balnce, Rhythm iv Texture
a. A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
b. A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
c. A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
d. A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
2. Match the follwoing
A. Red, Yellow, Blue i Neutral Colour
B. Orange, Green, Voilet ii Primary Colour
C. Yellow-orange, Blue, Purple iii Secondary Colour
D. Black and White iv Intermediate colour
a. A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii b. A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
c. A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i d. A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
3. _________is a combination of three hues that lie equidistant from one another on the colour wheel.
a. Triadic Harmany
b. Complementary Colour Harmony
c. Compound or Split complementary
d. Double complementary or tetradic
4. Which of the below given statements is/are incorrect?
i. White has maximum value, Black has the least.
ii. Pure hues are low intensity colours.
iii. Achromatic harmony uses only neutrals.
iv. Dyeing at the fibre stage is the most common.
a. i, ii b. ii, iv
c. i, ii, iv d. iii, iv
5. In an Angrakha Kurta the buttons and the opening is on one side, this is an example of
a. Radial balance b. Informal Balance
c. Formal Balance d. Emphasis
6. Which of the following will help to achieve rhthym in a dress?
i. Gradation
ii. Parallelism
iii. Geometric Shapes
iv. Alternation
v. Abstract shapes
a. i, ii, iv b. i, ii, iii, v
c. ii, iii, v d. i, ii, v
7. Assertion (A): Harmony in a dress is created when all elements of design come together to give a
pleasing harmonious effect.
Reason (R): Harmony is a critical factor in producing marketable designs.
a. Both A and R are correct, R is the reason for A.
b. Both A and B are true, But R is not not the reason of for A.
c. A is true, R is False.
d. A is false, R is true.
8. Assertion (A): An object appears green, as it reflects the green light.
Reason (R): The wavelengths of reflected light determine what colour we see.
a. Both A and R are correct, R is the reason for A.
b. Both A and B are true, But R is not not the reason of for A.
c. A is true, R is False.
d. A is false, R is true.
9. Assertion (A): People with figure problems can emphasize or camouflage their figure problems.
Reason (R): Rhythm can be created by use of lines, shapes, colours and textures in such a way
that it gives visual unity.
a. Both A and R are correct, R is the reason for A.
b. Both A and B are true, But R is not not the reason of for A.
c. A is true, R is False.
d. A is false, R is true.
10. Assertion (A): Monochromatic colour scheme is made up of a single colour with different tints and
shades used to create variation.
Reason (R): The colour scheme is very versatile but difficult to create.
a. Both A and R are correct, R is the reason for A.
b. Both A and B are true, But R is not not the reason of for A.
c. A is true, R is False.
d. A is false, R is true.
Section B
Very Short answer questions
1. What do you understand by the term design?
2. What are tints and shades?
3. How is value in colour different from intensity in colours?
4. What is a pantone card?
5. What are primary colours? Name them
6. Give two examples of secondary colours.
7. Define emphasis.
8. Why should a thin, tall person wear horizontal lines and not vertical lines?
9. Why should a small baby be made to wear small, dainty prints and pastel colours?
10. Give an example of triadic colour harmony.
 Section C
Short answer questions
1. Give any four qualities of a Good design.
2. How is structural design different from Applied dsign?
3. Name the various elements of design and various principles of design.
4. Define the following terms :
a. Hue
b. Value
c. Intensity
5. Differentiate between :
a. Monochromatic harmony and Achromatic harmony.
b. Split complementary harmony and Analogous complementary harmony.
6. Define line. Differentiate between straight lines and curved lines.
7. Define pattern with illustration.
8. Differentiate between formal and Informal balance.
9. Define Harmony. How can harmony by shape be created?
10. What are the factors that affect the texture of fabric during its manufacture?
11. Explain giving examples ;
a. Proportion of colour
b. Proportion of texture
c. Proportion of shape and form.
12. Upasana wants to wear a skirt and a shirt. Illustrate two ways by which rhythm and emphasis can
be created in this dress.
13. Tarun is wearing a pant and a shirt. State two ways each by which you can create harmony and
emphasis in this dress.
Section D
Long answer questions
1. What are the different types of lines and shapes? How do they create different effects and moods?
2. How do you achieve Rhythm in a dress? Explain with illustrations.
3 How can Emphasis be created in a dress? Support your answer with illustrations.
4. What are the ways to create harmony? Give illustrations showing poor & good harmony.
5. "Colour added at various stages of fabric production give a vast range of designs". Explain the
statement.
6. Name and define the four basic groups of shapes. Also state what does shape and form in fabric
refer to?
7. Write down the career opportunities for a person with a flair for design. What are the qualifications
required for choosing a profession in this field?
8. Swati wants to design a Sari and blouse for a woman who has fat arms. Show her how she can use
all the four elements of design in designing this dress.
9. Mention four ways our clothes can help us hide our figure flaws.
10. Keeping all the elements of design in mind give four suggestions each for choosing / designing a
dress for:
a. short and fat girl
b. Tall and thin girl
 Section E (Case Study Based Questions)
I. Elements of Design are the tools of the Art. These are colour, texture, and line, shape or form.
Colour is all around us in many forms. The identity of the product is most often attributed to colour.
Everyone responds to colour and has definite preferences. Colour reflects the season, events and
the spirit of people. The choice is affected by culture, tradition, climate, season, occasion or purely
personal reason. Colour is an important part of Fashion. Designers carefully choose fabric colours
to make a definite statement. Colour can be seen in fabrics in various design forms. Some fabrics
may have one uniform solid colour, while the colour follows the yarn interlacing in others or may be
coloured in other patterns.
i. Which word can be used for brightness of a colour?
a. Value b. Intensity
c. complementary d. Hue
ii. Colors are said to be contrasting if they are_________________.
a. Different in lightness and darkness
b. Light in value
c. Dark in value
d. Bright and intense
OR
Yellow-orange, red-orange, and yellow-green are examples of ______________
a. Intermediate or Teritary colour
b. Secondary colour
c. Primary colour
d. Triadic colour
iii. When white colour is added to any other colour it is called as ______________ of a colour.
a. Shade b. Tone
c. Tint d. Hue
iv. Complementary colours are said to be contrasting if they are______________.
a. Different in lightness and darkness
b. Light in value
c. Dark in value
d. Bright and Intense
OR
Blue-gree, blue-violet, and red-violet are examples of ___________
a. Intermediate/Tertiary colour
b. Secondary colour
c. Primary colour
d. Triadic colour
v. Which of the follwoing visual elements is concerned with the shade of a colour?
a. Line b. Texture
c. Value d. Size
OR
These colours are called dominance harmony ______________.
a. Monochromatic
b. Analogous
c. Complementary
d. Triadic
II. Line is defined as a mark that connects two points; it has beginnings and an end. When used as an
element of design, it indicates the shape of things. Straight lines are rigid unbroken lines and create
different effects depending on their direction. They can also express mood and indicate force,
strength and rigidity. Vertical lines emphasize height and give the effect of slimness, severity, dignity
and reserve. Horizontal lines signify sideways movement, create illusion of width and reduce height.
They are parallel to the ground and give stable and placid effect. Diagonal lines increase or
decrease width and height, depending on the degree and direction of the angle. Curved lines have a
degree of roundness. The degree of roundness determines the curve. They give the impression of
femininity and daintiness.
i. Which element of design provides movement and determines direction?
a. Shape b. Pattern
c. Line d. Colour
ii. What do vertical lines signify?
a. Upward movement
b. Side wise movement
c. Diagonal movement
d. Curved movement
iii. Which of the following lines create dramatic effect?
a. Horizontal lines b. Vertical lines
c. Curved lines d. Diagonal lines
iv. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
a. Hue is name of the colour
b. Intensity is the dullness or brightness of colour
c. Shapes are made by connecting lines
d. Parabola is not a curved line
III. Colour is all around us in many forms. It is one of the most important aspects of all textile materials -
be it for apparel, household, commercial or institutional use. The identity of the product is most often
attributed to colour. Everyone responds to colour and has definite preferences. Colour reflects the
season, events and die spirit of people. The choice is affected by culture, tradition, climate, season,
occasion or purely personal reason. Colour is an important part of fashion. Designers carefully
choose fabric colours to make definite statements.
i. The lightness or darkness of a colour is called
a. Hue
b. Value
c. Intensity (Chroma)
d. Spectrum
ii. White, black, grey, silver and metallics colours are called.
a. Primary Colours
b. Secondary Colours
c. Tertiary Colours
d. Neutral Colours
OR
iii. Study of colour is dependent on________________ .
a. Line b. Form
c. Texture d. Light
iv. Colour has maximum value on gray scale
a. Black b. White
c. Gray d. Red
 OR
_________________ utilises one hue and a neutral or an achromatic colour.
a. Monochromatic harmony
b. Achromatic harmony
c. Accented neutral harmony
d. Analogous harmony
IV. Design is the human power to conceive, plan, and realise products that serve human beings in the
accomplishment of any individual or collective purpose." A good design is more than aesthetically
pleasing. It is the right use of materials, to give what people expect in price, colour and service.
i. Which from the below is not a surface ornamentation?
a. Starching
b. Gumming
c. Tufting
d. Knitting
ii. ______________ Harmony is called Dominance Harmony.
a. Analogous Harmony
b. Complementary
c. Double - Complementary Harmony
d. Accented Neutral Harmony
OR
____________________ harmony is also called tetradic Harmony.
a. Analogous Harmony
b. Company Harmony
c. Double - Complementary Harmony
d. Accented Neutral Harmony
iii. Harmony is combination of three hues that lie equidistant from one another on the colour
wheel.
a. Achromatic Harmony
b. Accented Harmony
c. Analogous Harmony
d. Triadic Harmony
OR
Jacquard and brocade patterning is done for dyeing at which stage.
a. Yarn stage
b. Fibre Stage
c. Fabric Stage
d. All of the above
Section F
Practical: Preparation of any one article using applied textile design techniques; Tie and dye/ Batik/ Block
printing
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Painting / Sculpture / Commercial Arts Assignment-2023-2024
Class - XII, Unit-III

Chapter : BENGAL SCHOOL / INDIAN NATIONAL FLAG

Section A
Multiple Choice Questions : Choose the correct answer :
Q.1
i. Who alongwith Gagendranath Tagore founded the Indian society of Oriental arts?
(a) Rabindranath Tagore (b) Abanindranath Tagore
(c) Nandlal Bose (d) Raja Ravi Varma
ii. Which of the following is painted by M.A.R Chughtai
(a) Shiv & Sati (b) Meghdoot
(c) Radhika (d) Tiller of soil
iii. What is the medium of the painting Radhika
(a) Acrylic (b) Watercolors
(c) Oil on canvas (d) Pastels
iv. What does (he middle white stripe in the Indian flag signify ?
(a) Homage to martyrs (b) Peace and truth
(c) Non-aligned status (d) Growth and development
v. What does each of the following symbolize in our National Flag :
(a) India Saffron (b) White
(c) India Green (d) Navy Blue
(e) 24 Spokes in the Ashoka Wheel (Chakra)
Section B
Answer to be written for each in about 30 words:
Q.2 Write the main features of Bengal school of paintings.
Q.3 Describe the subject matter of Bengal school.
Q.4 Write a short note on Indian National Flag.
Q.5 Write an essay on origin and development, subject matter and characteristic features of Bengal
School.
Q.6 Bengal school led to the revival of Indian art. How?
Q.7 Describe .he following paintings with the help of theme, subject matter, color scheme and
compositional arrangement :
(a) Journey's End - Abanindranath Tagore
(b) Radhika - M.A.R. Chughtai
(c) Meghdoot - Ram Gopal Vijaivargiya
Q.8 Do you agree with the following statement? Support your opinion with the help of a painting/paintings
included in your course of study :
The creation of mystic and mellow style by using gloomy colouring with diffused light background
and absence of any dark line or tone, which provide the experience of the astral world.
Q.9 Describe the paintings of Bengal school in terms of the human values (wherever applicable) that
they portray.
 Section C
Answer the following questions in 100/200 words :
Q.10 Describe the three main stages of the evolution of Indian National flag to its present form.
Q.11 Why do you like or dislike the paintings of the Bengal school. Give appropriate reasons with clear
reference to the paintings.
Q.12 Write an essay on contribution of Bengal School/Artists in promoting nationalism.
Q.13 Describe the evolution of the Indian National Flag and the symbolic significance of its forms and
colours.
Q.14 Write an essay on the contribution of artists in the Indian freedom struggle?
Q.15 Describe the painting Shiv & Sati.
Q.16 How far has the painter been successful in depiciting the subject matter of the painting 'Ram
Vanquishing the pride of the ocean'? Submit your reasons on the basis of the gesthetical
parameters.
Q.17 Why do you like or dislike the paintings of the Bengal School. Give your appropriate reasons?
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
German Assignment- 2023-2024
CLASS – XII, Unit-III
Section A
I. Lies den Texte und beantworte die folgende Fragen.
Alois Blog
14. Mai
Ich möchte heute von meinem gestrigen Erlebnis berichten, das mich sehr beeindruckt hat. Vor ein paar Tagen lernte
ich eine ältere Dame, Frau Mohlau, in der Straßenbahn kennen. Ich bot ihr meinen Sitzplatz an und so kamen wir ins
Gespräch. Es stellte sich heraus, dass sie an derselben Station ausstieg wie ich. Sie wohnt nämlich, seit sie in Pension
gegangen ist, im Generationen-Wohnheim bei uns in der Nähe. Beim Abschied lud sie mich mit Familie zum
Kaffeetrinken zu sich ein.
Gestern bin ich also mit Gertrud und den Buben hin. Frau Mohlau wohnt in einem geschmackvoll eingerichteten
Appartement im Parterre. In den Wohnungen nebenan leben zwei Lehrlinge und eine alleinerziehende Mutter. Zum
Kaffee gab es selbstgemachte Topfentorte. Wir saßen gemütlich beisammen und sie erzählte uns vom Leben im
Wohnheim. Frau Mohlau traf die Entscheidung, dorthin zu ziehen, weil sie hier betreut wird, wenn sie es braucht,
ohne ihre Selbstständigkeit aufgeben zu müssen. Doch der größte Vorteil ist zweifellos das Zusammenleben der
verschiedenen Generationen. Ein Beispiel hierzu: Da Frau Mohlau noch gesundheitlich gut drauf ist und viel Zeit zur
Verfügung hat, passt sie zweimal die Woche auf das Kind ihrer Nachbarin auf. Das sei ihr keineswegs zu anstrengend,
es mache ihr große Freude,,,Großmutter" zu sein. So sei sie nützlich und das gebe ihrem Leben Sinn.
Nach dem Kaffeetrinken schauten wir uns dann ein wenig die Anlage an. Den Buben gefiel besonders der Garten mit
dem Spielplatz im hinteren Teil des Wohnheims. Es waren auch andere Kinder da, mit denen sie herumtollen konnten,
während wir auf einer Bank saßen. Frau Mohlau erzählte uns, dass das Zusammenleben hier nicht nur in den
gemeinschaftlich genutzten Räumen und Grünflächen stattfindet. Regelmäßig werden auch gemeinsame Ausflüge
organisiert. Der letzte ging ins Burgenland. Sie selbst nimmt zurzeit an einer Kochgruppe teil, wo Jung und Alt
voneinander lernen.
Ich hatte den Eindruck, eine sehr lebensfrohe, aktive Frau vor mir zu haben, die gar nicht meiner bisherigen
Vorstellung von "alt" entsprach. Liegt das an der Wohnform??
Am Sonntag kommt Frau Mohlau zum Mittagessen zu uns. Wir freuen uns alle schon drauf.
Euer Alois
Was stimmt?
1. Alois lernte Frau Mohlau gestern kennen.
2. Frau Mohlau wohnt nicht weit von Alois entfernt.
3. In Frau Mohlaus Wohnung wohnt auch eine Mutter mit ihrem Kind.
4. Der alten Dame ist es wichtig, selbstständig zu leben.
5. Frau Mohlau kümmert sich regelmäßig um das Kind ihrer Nachbarin.
6. Den Spielplatz des Wohnheimes benutzen nur seine Bewohner.
7. Frau Mohlau nahm an einem Ausflug ins Burgenland teil.

II. Barbie: schon über ein halbes Jahrhundert alt

Barbie ist nun auch schon über 50 Jahre alt. Wer hätte das gedacht? Man sieht es ihr nicht an, aber
schließlich ist sie aus Plastik. Auch wenn sie schon viele Jobs hatte, Flugbe gleiterin oder
Präsidentschaftskandidatin zum Beispiel, ist sie immer noch so jung wie am ersten Tag. Das war 1959 auf
der Spielwarenmesse in New York in den USA. Die bei den Gründer der Spielzeugfirma Mattel stellten
sie dort vor. Ken, ihr Ex-Freund, war damals übrigens noch nicht dabei. Damals hatte niemand damit
gerechnet, dass Barbie einmal die am meisten verkaufte Puppe der Welt werden würde. Und nicht nur
dieses Ziel hat sie erreicht, sie gilt auch als Synonym einer Modepuppe schlechthin. Warum ist sie so
beliebt? Bestimmt ist ein Grund dafür, dass sie immer mit zahlreichen modernen Klamotten an gezogen
werden kann und stets mit der Zeit gegangen ist-sie wurde praktisch nie altmodisch. Außer ihren Kleidern
kann man auch Autos und Häuser für sie kaufen und so ein Leben nachspielen, das kaum ein Mädchen je
haben wird. Bisweilen wird sie auch zum Star, beispielsweise gibt es eine Barbie, die der Sängerin
 Madonna nachgebildet wurde. Aber Barbie war nie überall beliebt. Viele Frauen kritisie ren ihre Figur,
die es in Lebensgröße kaum auf der Welt gibt.

(aus einem deutschen Magazin)

1. In diesem Text geht es darum, dass...

a. Barbie ein Verkaufshit ist.
b. Barbie eine tolle Erfindung ist.
c. Barbie zu alt ist
2. Barbie trägt...
a. meistens Kleider von Madonna.
b. Dimmer aktuelle Mode
c. Kleidung, die zu ihrem Auto passt.
3. Im Jahr 1959...
a. wurde Barbies Freund Ken auf den Markt gebracht.
b. hatte die Firma Mattel großen Erfolg auf der Spiel zeugmesse.
c. gab es die erste Barbie-Puppe.

III. Lange Nacht der Museen

Wollen Sie in der Nacht in den Räumen des Alien Muse ums neben antiken Vasen und Schätzen ein
klassisches Konzert hören? Wären vielleicht eine Nachtwanderung im Wald und der Besuch des
Waldmuseums für Sie interessant? Oder sind Sie lieber im Museum für Film und Fernsehen zu später
Stunde auf Spurensuche nach einem unvollendeten Romy-Schneider-Film? Das kin nen Sie alles auch
dieses Jahr bei der Langen Nacht der Museen in Berlin. Eine inzwischen in vielen deutsches Städten
angebotene Attraktion, die 1997 in den Me der Hauptstadt geboren wurde. Zweimal im Jahr im nuar und
im August, öffnen viele Museen in Berlin he Tore auch für einen Nachtbesuch, der bis um 2 Uhr d ern
kann. Um von einem Museum zum anderes langen, gibt es für die Nachtschwärmer auch einen B Shuttle
Service, der im Ticket inbegriffen ist. Es dürfen mit diesem Ticket auch alle regulären Verkehrm
mitbenutzt werden. Schüler und Studenten kinnes e mäßigte Karten bekommen und Kinder unter 12
dürfen sogar umsonst die Lange Nacht genießen

(aus einer deutschen Zeng)

1. In vielen deutschen Städten...
a. haben die Museen auch nachts auf.
b. gibt es ähnliche Attraktionen wie in Berlin.
c. gibt es eine “Lange Nacht der Museen".
2. n diesem Text geht es darum, dass...
a. man nachts umsonst zu den Museen fahren kann.
b. an zwei Tagen im Jahr die Nächte besonders lang sind.
c. die Museen Berlins eine besondere Idee hatten
3. Während der Langen Nacht der Museen"...
a. gibt es einen besonderen Busverkehr für die Museumsbesucher.
b. gibt es günstige Eintrittspreise.
c. dürfen keine Kinder ins Museum
4. Ein Berliner Museum...
a. Obietet in der Langen Nacht der Museen" ein Open-Air-Konzert an.
b. organisiert in der Langen Nacht der Museen" eine Nachtwanderung.
c. zeigt einmal pro Stunde einen Romy Schneider Film.

Section B

I. Sie haben gestern jemanden kennengelernt. Sie fanden ihn/sie sehr nett und haben auch Handy nummern
ausgetauscht. Berichten Sie einem Freund/einer Freundin darüber.
  Wo und wie haben Sie ihn/sie kennengelernt?
 Was hat Ihnen an ihm/ihr sofort gut gefallen und warum?
 Bitten Sie um Rat, was Sie jetzt machen sollen.
Schreiben Sie eine E-Mail (circa 80 Wörter).

Schreiben Sie etwas zu allen drei Punkten. Achten Sie auf den Textaufbau (Anrede, Einleitung,
Reihenfolge der Inhaltspunkte, Schluss).

II. Sie haben im Fernsehen eine Diskussionssendung zum Thema „Musik im Zeitalter des Internets gesehen.
Im Online-Gästebuch der Sendung finden Sie folgende Meinung:
Markus: Die Musikindustrie hat jahrelang sehr sehr viel Geld verdient und nicht immer mit
Qualitätsmusik. Original-CDs sind immer noch alles andere als preiswert. Und endlich mal bietet uns das
Internet die Möglichkeit, kostenlos Musik zu hören. Warum sollte man von dieser Möglichkeit nicht
Gebrauch machen?
Schreiben Sie nun Ihre Meinung (circa 80 Wörter).

III. In Ihrer alten Schule findet ein großes Sommerfest statt. Sie wollen mit zwei Freunden
Informieren Sie Ihre Freunde über das Fest und laden Sie sie ein. - Erzählen Sie, was es auf dem Fest
geben wird.
Schlagen Sie einen Treffpunkt vor.
Schreiben Sie eine E-Mail (circa 80 Wörter).
Schreiben Sie etwas zu allen drei Punkten. Achten Sie auf den Textaufbau (Anrede, Einleitung,
Reihenfolge der Inhaltspunkte, Schluss).

IV. Sie haben im Fernsehen eine Diskussionssendung zum Thema „Behindertensport in unserer Gesellschaft
gesehen. Im Online-Gästebuch der Sendung finden Sie folgende Meldung:
Manuel: Ich finde, Behindertensport müsste häufiger im Fernsehen gezeigt werden. Es ist mir abso lut
klar, dass dieser Sport nicht so populär ist. Aber es ist wirklich faszinierend, was für Leis tungen
behinderte Sportler vollbringen kön nen. Deshalb verdienen sie unseren Respekt.
Schreiben Sie nun Ihre Meinung (circa 80 Wörter).
Section C
I. Passiv

A. Bilden Sie Sätze im Passiv Präsens.

BEISPIEL: Schottland - Whisky - trinken In Schottland wird Whisky getrunken.

1. Italien - Pizza - essen
___________________________________________________________________________________________
2. Deutschland - Bier - trinken
___________________________________________________________________________________________
3. Bayern - Lederhosen (pl.) - tragen
___________________________________________________________________________________________
4. Brasilien - Fußball - spielen
___________________________________________________________________________________________
5. Wien - Walzer (pl.) - tanzen
___________________________________________________________________________________________

B. Was wird heute gemacht? Transformieren Sie die aktiven Sätze ins Passiv Präsens, mit Agenten.

BEISPIEL: Die Mutter kocht das Essen. Das Essen wird von der Mutter gekocht.
1. Der Koch serviert das Essen.
 ___________________________________________________________________________________________
2. Meine Schwester schreibt viele Briefe.
___________________________________________________________________________________________
3. Der Lehrer spielt Klavier.
___________________________________________________________________________________________
4. Mein Bruder macht die Fenster (pl.) sauber.
___________________________________________________________________________________________
5. Die Kinder räumen das Zimmer auf.
___________________________________________________________________________________________

C. Probleme im Hotel. Schreiben Sie die Sätze im Passiv Präteritum. Passen Sie auf: manche Sätze sind schwer oder
haben irgendein ‘Trick.’

BEISPIEL: Die Gäste bezahlten die Rechnung nicht. Die Rechnung wurde von den Gästen nicht bezahlt.
1. Die Putzfrau machte das Zimmer nicht sauber.
___________________________________________________________________________________________
2. Die laute Musik ärgerte die Hotelgäste.
___________________________________________________________________________________________
3. Das Hotel gab den Gästen keine Handtücher.
___________________________________________________________________________________________
4. Bis zwei Uhr spielte ein Nachbar laute Musik.
___________________________________________________________________________________________
5. Der Concierge half den Gästen nicht.
___________________________________________________________________________________________

D. Auf deutsch! Übersetzen Sie die Sätze ins Deutsche. Alle sind im Passiv: manche stehen im Präsens (=is being
done), andere im Präteritum (=was done).

1. My TV was stolen (=gestohlen).

___________________________________________________________________________________________
2. Her car is being repaired by the mechanic.
___________________________________________________________________________________________
3. Houses are being built (=gebaut) here.
___________________________________________________________________________________________
4. My friends were not invited to the party.
___________________________________________________________________________________________
5. The books are being sold by the library.
___________________________________________________________________________________________
6. I was helped by an old woman.
___________________________________________________________________________________________

II. Bilde Passiv.

1. Peter schreibt einen Aufsatz.
..........................................................................................................................
2. Das Kind machte am Nachmittag die Hausaufgabe.
..................................................................................................................
3. Sein Vater kocht die Suppe.
..........................................................................................................................
 4. Ich habe die Tomatensuppe gegessen.
..........................................................................................................................
5. Die Mutter wusch das Kind.
.........................................................................................................................
6. Meine Schwester hat einen Roman gelesen.
.........................................................................................................................
7. Die Lehrerin kontrollierte die Klassenarbeiten.
.........................................................................................................................
8. Meine Eltern planen eine Reise.
.........................................................................................................................
9. Die Studenten stellen dem Professor Fragen.
.........................................................................................................................
10. Ich habe das Formular falsch ausgefüllt.
.........................................................................................................................
11. Die Schüler haben die Grammatik wiederholt.
.........................................................................................................................
12. Der Gast brachte uns die Blumen.
.........................................................................................................................
13. Man trinkt in Bayern viel Bier.
.........................................................................................................................
14. Japan exportierte moderne Maschinen.
..........................................................................................................................
15. Ich habe die Theaterkarten schon bestellt.
..........................................................................................................................
16. Der Kellner bringt den Gästen das Essen.
..........................................................................................................................
17. Man raucht hier viel.
..........................................................................................................................
18. Der Bauer bearbeitet das Feld.
..........................................................................................................................
19. Er hört aufmerksam die Lieder.
...........................................................................................................................
20. Am Wochenende kaufte Ilse frische Äpfel.
...........................................................................................................................
21. Der Arzt operierte den Kranken.
...........................................................................................................................
22. Wir haben die Wände neu tapeziert.
...........................................................................................................................
23. Meine Eltern trinken gern Tee.
..........................................................................................................................
24. Eine Lawine hat das Auto verschüttet.
...........................................................................................................................
25. Der Dieb stahl dem Mann die goldene Uhr.
..........................................................................................................................
26. Ich habe gestern einen Unfall gesehen.
..........................................................................................................................
27. Das Mädchen sammelte gestern Kastanien.
..........................................................................................................................
28. Die Verkäuferin bot mir einen Mantel an.
.........................................................................................................................
29. Der Schüler macht die Hausaufgabe nicht.
..........................................................................................................................
30. Der Junge hat das neue Mädchen ins Kino eingeladen.
............................................................................................................
31. Besuchte dich deine Tante ?
..........................................................................................................................
32. Der Mechaniker repariert mein Auto.
..........................................................................................................................
33. Die Oma erzählt uns interessante Geschichten.
..........................................................................................................................
34. Hilft das Kind seiner Mutter ?
..........................................................................................................................
35. Die Polizei hat die Dokumente gefunden.
.........................................................................................................................
36. Die Kinder haben im Winter einen Schneemann gebaut.
.........................................................................................................
III. Setze das richtige Personalpronomen im Dativ ein!

1. Wem gehört die Jacke? – Das ist meine Jacke. Sie gehört _______.
2. Wem gehört das Buch? – Das ist das Buch von Laura. Es gehört _______.
3. Gehört die Tasche dem Lehrer? – Nein. Sie gehört _______ nicht.
4. Ist das mein Stift? – Ja, er gehört _______.
5. Gehören die Bücher ihnen? – Ja, sie gehören _______.
6. Gehört die Flasche Ihnen? – Ja, sie gehört _______.
7. Gehören die Hefte euch? – Ja, _____________________________________.
8. Kannst du _______ bitte helfen? – Ja. Ich helfe _______ gerne.
9. Kannst du mir und Sarah bitte helfen? – Ja. Ich helfe _______ gerne.
10. Kannst du uns bitte helfen? – Ja. Ich helfe _______ gerne.
11. Können Sie mir den Weg zeigen? – Ja. Ich zeige _______ den Weg.
12. Wir ziehen am 12.3. in eine neue Wohnung. Kannst du _______ mit dem Umzug helfen?
13. Alex und Thomas verstehen die Hausaufgabe nicht. Kannst du _______ helfen?
 14. Frau Müller repariert das Fahrrad. Vielleicht können wir _______ helfen.
15. Kannst du _______ deinen Radiergummi geben? – Ja, du kannst ihn haben.
16. Könnt ihr _______ unsere Bücher geben? – Ja, hier habt ihr sie.
17. Können Sie _______ / _______ einen Stift geben? – Ja, ich habe einen Bleistift für Sie.
18. Ich gehe zur Bäckerei. Soll ich _______ etwas mitbringen? – Ja, einen Kaffee bitte. Ich danke _______.
19. Ich gehe zum Supermarkt. Soll ich _______ etwas mitbringen? – Ja, Markus und ich brauchen Milch. Ich
danke ________.
20. Hassan hat ________ mit den Hausaufgaben geholfen. – Hast du _______ gedankt?
IV. PERSONALPRONOMEN IM AKKUSATIV ODER IM DATIV.
1. Setz die Personalpronomen im Akkusativ oder im Dativ ein.
2. Wir helfen (du)……………….. gern.
3. Max kauft (wir) …………… im Supermarkt ein.
4. Die Gemüsesuppe schmeckt (ich)……. nicht.
5. Das Armband gefällt (sie) …………. sehr.
6. Unsere Eltern schenken (ich) ………..die Sportschuhe.
7. Habt ihr für (ich)………. ein Geschenk?
8. 7. Was nimmst du für (er)………..?
9. 8. Schenkt er(sie) …………..die Pralinen?
10. 9. Wie gefallen (du) ……….. die Blumen?
11. Wie schmecken (ihr) …………….. die Bratkartoffeln?
12. Ich gebe(sie Sg.)……………. das Halstuch.
13. Was hast du für (ihr) ……………….?
14. Was kaufen deine Eltern(er) ………………………….?
15. Wann gebt ihr (sie Sg.) ………….. die Ohrringe?
16. Warum hilfst du (wir)……….. nicht?
17. …………….(wir) schmeckt Apfelkuchen mit Rosinen.
18. Marika und Thomas geben (Sie Pl.) ……………… den Blumenstrauß.
19. Die Kinder kaufen für (sie Pl.) …………….die Süßigkeiten.
20. Ich helfe ………………, Herr Meier.
21. Wir helfen (er)…….. am Montag.
22. Nehmt ihr für (sie Pl.)…………. die Mütze?
23. Die Lehrerin gibt (wir) …………immer viel auf.
24. Schenkt ihr (Sie Pl.) …………………. die Bücher?
25. Wir geben (er) …………….. das Spielzeugauto als Geschenk.
26. Wann helfen sie (sie Pl.) …………..?
27. Sie schenken (wir) …………….. den Poster.
28. Möchten Sie für (sie) ……………das Buch kaufen?
29. Die Mütze gefällt (er) …….. nicht, denn sie ist out.

V. Ergänzen Sie die Sätze mit Reflexivpronomen und mit den fehlenden Buchstaben

Beispiel: Was wünschst du dir zum Geburtstag?

1. Habt ihr _____schon für eine neue Wohnunge__tsch_ e__ __n?

2. Ich bin so müde. Ich muss _____ ein bisschen e__ h__ l__ __.

3. Entschuldigung? Wie heißen Sie? Ich kann _____ leider nicht so gut e__ __ nn __ __ __.

4. Ich habe Fieber und Halsschmerzen. Ich glaube, ich habe _______ schon __ r__ä__ __ ä__.

5. Ich f__ __ u __ _____ über das Geschenk von dir.

 6. Alle sind laut, reden immer, spielen mit den Handys! Ich __ __hl________ nicht wohl hier.

7. Mitra i__ter__s__ __ __ __ _________ für einen Computerkurs.

8. Seid ihr bitte leise! Ich kann _____ nicht k__n__e__t__i__r___n.

9. Die Miete ist teuer. Ich kann sie _____ nicht mehr l__ ist__ n. Kann ich mit dir wohnen?

10. Wir unter__ __ __ __ __n______ über Filme und Musik.

11. Ein Lehrer muss ______ vor dem Unterricht gut v__ __ __erei__ __ __.

12. Kannst du _______vorst__ll__ __ was er gemacht hat?! Er hat mir gelogen!

13. Ooo! Sajad! Ich wu__d__ __ _________, dass du pünktlich gekommen bist!

14. Soll ich zu Fuß gehen oder mit der Straßenbahn fahren?

15. Das muss ich ______ noch ü__erl__ g __ __.

16. Oh, nein! Blut?! Hast du _________ verl__t__t?

17. Die Eltern sagen immer den Kindern, wie sie ______be__eh__ __ __ müssen.

18. Der Dieb hat _______ im Wald verst__ __ __ __. Die Polizei sucht ihn noch.

19. Komm Zaid! Wir müssen _________eei__ __ __ sonst sind wir wieder zu spät!

20. Es war schön mit dir! Wann können wir _______ wieder ___e___ab___eden?

VI. Past {artizip

Transform the verbs into adjectives using the present participle (z.B. kommend-).

1. Der Satz folgt. Lesen Sie bitte den ______________________________ Satz.

2. Das Wasser fließt. Das Haus hat kein ___________________________ Wasser.
3. Der Mann sieht gut aus. Er ist ein gut _____________________________ Mann.
4. Der Politiker bedeutet viel. Er ist ein _____________________________ Politiker.
5. Die Menschen arbeiten. Viele __________________________ Menschen wohnen hier.

B. Transform the verbs into adjectives using the past participle (z.B. gekommen-).

1. Die Staaten vereinigen sich. Sie sind jetzt die _________________________ Staaten.
2. Man repariert das Auto. Das ___________________________ Auto steht dort drüben.
3. Ich koche ein Ei. Ich esse ein _____________________________ Ei.
4. Du schreibst den Artikel. Das ist ein gut ____________________________ Artikel.
5. Man bäckt die Kartoffeln. Möchtest du __________________________ Kartoffeln?

C. Put the correct form of the verb (as an adjective) into the blank.

1. Sie ist eine sehr gebildete Frau. (bilden)

2. Bellende Hunde beißen nicht. (bellen)
3. “Der _________________________ Holländer” ist eine berühmte Oper. (fliegen)
4. Dieses __________________________ Klagen geht mir auf die Nerven. (dauern)
5. Die __________________________ Mannschaft verließ sofort das Spielfeld. (schlagen)
 6. Wir wollen die _________________________________ Kinder nicht stören. (schlafen)
7. Dieses Volkslied nennt man eine ____________________________ Melodie. (wandern)
8. Für meine _________________________ Arbeit erhielt ich eine gute Note. (verbessern)
9. Am ___________________________ Freitag haben wir unsere Prüfung. (kommen)
10. Ich esse sehr gern ______________________________ Hühnerfleisch. (braten)

D. Write out the ordinal numbers (e.g. viert-).

1. Mein Büro ist im __________________________ (8.) Stock.

2. Welcher Tag ist heute? Heute ist der _____________________ (3.) Mai.
3. Das Semester beginnt am _____________________________________ (29.) August.
4. Das ist der _______________________ (1.) Brief, den ich bekommen habe.
5. Ich habe am __________________________________ (30.) Oktober Geburtstag.
6. Wir brauchen ein _______________________ (2.) Auto.
7. Das war mein ________________________ (7.) Bier des Abends.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Psychology Assignment- 2023-2024
Class – XII, Unit-III
Chapter 3 MEETING LIFE CHALLENGES
Section - A
Q1. ___________ is used to describe the unpleasant emotional state that results from goal seeking, rather than the event itself.
a) Confilict b) Frustration
c) Aggression d) Regression
Q2. The physical, environmental and social causes of the stress state are termed-
a) Stress b) Stressors
c) Distress d) None of the above
Q3. The general adaptation syndrome consists of three stages which include-
a) The alarm reaction b) the stage of resistance
c) The stage of exhaustion d) all of the above
Q4. Frustration-aggression is a very famous hypothesis proposed by-
a) Roger b) Dollar and Miller
c) Maslow d) Endler and Parker
Q5. _________ are also major stressors.
a) Frustration b) Conflict
c) Aggression d) Both (a) and (b)
Q6. The father of modern stress research is –
a) Elder b) Lazarus
c) Hans Selye d) Parker
Q7. The reaction to external stressors is called-
a) Strain b) Stress
c) Tension d) Stress Response
Q8. Hans Selye defined stress as-
a) The pattern of responses an organism makes to extreme event that disturbed equilibrium and exceeds a persons
ability to cope.
b) The non-specific response of the body to any demand.
c) All challenges, problems and difficult circumstances.
d) The phenomenon that increases the probability of ones survival.
Q9. The cognitive theory of stress was proposed by-
a) Selye b) Endlar
c) Parker d) Lazarus
Q10. Which are types of stress
a) Environmental, psychological and social. b) Primary and secondary
c) Cognitive, emotional, psychological and social. d) Physcial, personal and social.
Q. 11 Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the
appropriate option.
Assertion (A): Many of us drive ourselves ruthlessly towards achieving unrealistic and high standards in achieving our goals.
This is a source of psychological stress.
Reason(R): Conflicts stem from beliefs based on expectations from inside us to ourselves.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true, R is false
d. A is false, R is true
Q.12 Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the Statements and choose the
appropriate option.
Assertion (A): People with high levels of stress but low levels of illness share three characteristics, which are referred to as
the personality traits of hardiness.
Reason(R): Hardiness consists of ‘the three Cs’, i.e., commitment, control, and challenge.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true, R is false
d. d. A is false, R is true
Q. 13 Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning ®. Read the statements and choose the
appropriate option.
Assertion (A): Overcoming unhelpful habits like procrastination is a life skill that enables individuals to deal effectively with
challenges of everyday life.
Reason(R):: Factors that act as stress buffers and facilitate positive health are diet, exercise, positive attitude & positive
thinking.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true, R is false
d. d. A is false, R is true
Q14. The measure of stressful life events was developed by –
a) Singh,Kaur and Kaur b) Homles and Rahe
c) Lazarus and Folkman d) Das,Naglieri and Kirby
Q15. The study of links between the brain, the mind and the immune system is known
a) Psychoneurology b) Psychoimmunology
c) Psychoneuroimmunology d) Psychology
Q16. T cells, B cells and Natural killer cells are kinds of-
a) Red blood cells b) White blood cells
c) Antibodies d) Antigens
Q17. Disease-causing agents are known as-
a) Leucocytes b) Antigens
c) Antibodies d) Pathogens
Q18. _____________ is a dynamic situation-specific reaction to stress.
a) Exhaustion b) Coping
c) Management of stress d) Dealing with stress
Q19. Frustration results from-
a) Incompatibility between two or more needs or motives
b) Blocking and needs/motives
c) Expectation from oneself and others
d) Excessive demands
Q20. Which of the following coping behaviors are problem-focused?
a) Making efforts to improve ones performance after a setback
b) Hiding examination result from parents
c) Finding fault with classmates for poor marks in tests
d) Feeling sorry for poor marks in a test
SECTION B (2 Marks)
Q.1 Anita says she's completely opposite to a restless and impatient husband. Identify and explain the personality type of her
husband.
Q.2 ‘Letting things out of one’s system’ through playing video games or talking things out with a friend will be considered what
kind of coping mechanism according to Lazarus? Explain the coping mechanism.
Q.3 Aman is a writer who reads a lot of books. Identify and explain Aman's trait according to Allport’s theory.
Q.4 What is burnout?
Q.5 Illustrate with example the difference between eustress and distress.
SECTION C (3 Marks)
Q.1 Madhuri is an Instagram influencer with a large fan flow following an lot of admirers. Yet when she faces stress due to
cyber-bullying, very less people come forward to actually console and help her. What kind of social support is she
receiving? What are its drawbacks and advantages?
Q.2 Explain the GAS model of stress
Q.3 Radhika is shifting to a new city for her job. What is her source of stress. Explain the other sources of stress.
Q.4 What is the difference between stress strain and stressors?
Q.5 Lifestyle can impact stress. Clarify the statement.
SECTION D (4 Marks)
Q.1 Feeling the need to complete the task as soon as you receive it. Which type of psychological stress is this? Explain the
other types of stress as well.
Q.2 An individual’s response to a stressful situation largely depends upon the perceived events and how they are interpreted.
Explain the theory supporting the statement.
Q.3 Describe how stress and the immune system are related.
Q.4 Rajan’s friend Hari tends to show less level of illness in spite of the high amount of stress he receives. What is the reason for
this?
Q.5 What is resilience and how does it impact a person?
 SECTION E (6 Marks)
Q.1 Describe how life skills can help a person to meet challenges in life.
Q.2 Nidhi is a social worker and trying to spread awareness about the factors that leads to positive health and well-being. Which
factors will she speak about?
Q.3 Discuss the factors that influences the perception of a particular situation as stressful.
Q.4 Falguni is a psychologist and makes use of many stress management techniques to help her patients handle stress. Explain
these techniques.
Q.5 Describe the general model of stress process.
SECTION F (2 Marks)
Read the case and answer the questions that follows.
1. After suffering from a serious spine injury, Akshat was made to rest on bed for around six months. He was unable to stand
on his own without any help. He had to take heavy doses of medicine that often left him drowsy and sleepy. His relationship
with his girlfriend also got strained during this time and they eventually fell apart. Akshat had to drop from a college year and
study the next year to cover for it which affected his plans to study in Germany later on. Regardless of medicines, he wasn’t
able to get much well during this time. Instead, he even started complaining of headaches. He would shout at people and the
next moment start crying. He isolated himself on his from his friends and didn’t answer many calls.
Q.1 Identify the type of stress Akshat is facing.
Q.2 Enumerate the effects of stress Akshat is going through.

2. Raj has been studying for his final examination which is going to take place tomorrow morning. He studies till 1.am at night.
turning in bed. Images flash through his mind of not being able to secure the marks he needs to opt for the subjects of his
choice. He blames himself for fooling around with his friends and not preparing thoroughly for the examination. In the
morning he wakes up with a heavy head, misses breakfast, and barely makes it in time to school for his examination. He
opens the question paper, his heart pounding, hands clammy with sweat and then he feels his mind has gone completely
blank.
Q.1 A. As he is very tense, he keeps tossing and turning in bed. Identify the effect of stress experienced by Raj.
B. "Images flash through his mind of not being able to secure the marks he needs to opt for the subjects of his
choice." Identify the type of appraisal discussed in this statement.
Q2 A "He blames himself for fooling around with his friends and not preparing thoroughly for the examination." What
type of coping strategy did Raj use to deal with his stress?
B. Which statement of the case study indicates the cognitive impact of stress.
ACTIVITY
1. Adjustment Test will be administered by students
2. Find out the stress faced by 4 of your friends. Are they different for boys and girls? How did they cope with it?
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
French Assignment- 2023-2024
Class – XII, Unit-III
Section A (Compréhension)
1.A Lisez bien ce texte et répondez aux questions données ci-dessous (cinq au choix):

L’aubergiste sert à M. Vincent un poulet délicieux. Puis, M. Vincent se met en route… Mais est-
ce l’effet du bourgogne, dont il a bu une bouteille? Il a la tête lourde… il a envie de dormir…
serait-ce une légère ivresse? Imprudent M. Vincent! C’est dangereux quand on conduit !
Pourtant il voudrait bien arriver à Lyon avant la nuit. Et, pour comble de malheur un brouillard
épais remplit la vallée de la Saône ; notre ami ne voit pas à trente mètres devant lui. Il devra
rouler avec lenteur. Ce brouillard va devenir encore plus épais, quand M. Vincent s’approchera
de Lyon. Car la ville est à cheval sur deux fleuves : la Saône et le Rhône.

i. Répondez :
a. Qu’est-ce que l’aubergiste sert à M. Vincent ?
b. Que lui a-t-on donné à boire ?
c. Pourquoi M. Vincent devra-t-il rouler avec lenteur en s’approchant de
Lyon ?

a. Trouvez dans le texte le contraire des mots suivants :

a. derrière b. sans c. prudent d. s’éloignera
ou
ii.b Complétez avec un mot/des mots du texte :
a. C’est un enfant !
b. Il son sac avec ses affaires.
c. Du haut de la montagne, on regarde la .
d. Il veut médecin quand il sera grand.

iii. Donnez la forme nominale des verbes suivants :

a. servir b. boire c. conduire d. vouloir

1.B Lisez bien ce texte et répondez aux questions données ci-dessous (cinq au choix):

L’enseignement des langues étrangères en France.

 Chère Amandine,
Je suis en France où mes parents m’ont envoyé faire un séjour de 15 jours pour améliorer
mon français. Pour vrai dire, je ne voulais vraiment pas partir car tous mes amis étaient à
Delhi. Mais quand mes parents ont reçu mes notes de français, je n’ai pas eu le choix! Le
groupe de 20 jeunes qui participaient à ce séjour devait se retrouver à l'aéroport IGI. J’avais
peur: je ne connaissais personne. Dès qu'on y est arrivé, un accompagnateur m’a présentée
aux autres élèves. On a commencé à bavarder et j’ai su tout de suite qu’on allait vraiment
bien s’amuser ensemble. Ishaan, un garçon de mon âge, a fait rire tout le monde. Il a raconté
plein d’histoires drôles sur son dernier voyage. Dans l’avion, le temps a passé très vite car on
jouait aux échecs et bavardait. Maintenant, je suis chez les Chambreau, ma famille française.
Ils sont gentils et passent beaucoup de temps à me faire pratiquer mon français. En plus,
Ishaan habite juste à côté de chez moi. Super! On part ensemble aux cours le matin.
Je t’embrasse.
Navya

i. Dites vrai ou faux: (3 au choix)

a. D’après l’image, plus d'élèves apprennent l’allemand que l’italien.
b. Navya est allée dans un autre pays pour améliorer son anglais.
c. Navya ne voulait pas partir parce qu’elle voulait rester avec ses amis.
d. Les jeunes du groupe avaient rendez-vous à l'aéroport IGI.
ii. Trouvez dans le texte: (3 au choix)
a. La forme nominale de “choisir”
b. La forme verbale de “amusant”
c. Le synonyme de “immédiatement”
d. Des mots qui veulent dire “le groupe entier”
iii. Répondez à ces questions: (2 au choix)
a. Pourquoi Navya, avait-elle peur?
b. Comment les jeunes ont-ils passé le temps dans l’avion?
c. Selon l’image donnée ci-dessus, quelles sont les trois langues les plus populaires dans
les lycées français ?

Section B (Expression Écrite)

2.A Ecrivez une lettre d’environ 120 mots sur UN des sujets suivants :
i. Une lettre à votre ami(e) francophone pour lui décrire la région où vous habitez.
ii. Vous êtes à Paris depuis une semaine. Rédigez une lettre à un(e) ami(e) qui habite à
Montréal pour décrire ce que vous faites.
iii. Vous écrivez une lettre à votre oncle qui habite en France pour décrire un voyage
que vous avez fait par le train.

2.B Rédigez un texte/ une histoire d’environ 120 mots en utilisant les mots suivants:
(UN au choix)
Alice - nouvelle voiture - chère- conduire très peu - avoir peur- un jour - ami- Londres -
admirer - voiture - proposer- voyage- conduire - prudemment -soudain -chien - traverser -
s’arrêter - difficilement.
 ou
Pauline - intelligente - aimer voyager-tour du monde - pas d’argent- un jour- un concours
- gagner - premier prix - être contente - voyager avec ses amis.

Section C (Grammaire)

3. Conjuguez les verbes suivants:

i. Avant-hier, l’actrice (prendre) son thé quand elle est tombée aux pommes.
ii. Dans quelques minutes, nous (voir) le lever du soleil.
iii. Aussitôt que les parents (sortir) de la maison, l’enfant préparera du Maggi.
iv. Je voudrais que tu (lire) des romans intéressants.
v. Après (arriver) à l'école, elle est allée voir la directrice.

4.A Mettez au discours direct ou rapporté selon le cas :

i. Maurice demande : « Maman, qu’est-ce qui est caché sous la chaise? »
ii. L’homme dit aux élèves de ne pas courir dans le couloir.
iii. Alex dit : « Je me prépare pour le contrôle de math. »
iv. L’étranger dit: « M Depardieu, donnez-moi un billet de train. »
v. Mon ami me demande : « As-tu vu le dernier film de Jason Statham ? »

4B. Mettez au négatif:

i. Les élèves ont encore du travail.
ii. Quelque chose te plaît.
iii. Il voyage toujours en famille.
iv. Vous connaissez quelqu’un au club.

4C. Remplacez les noms soulignés par les pronoms personnels/ y/en/etc:
i. Nous invitons Marc au cinéma.
ii. Les filles envoient une carte postale à leurs parents.
iii. Nous avons vu cette photo de famille.
iv. Donnez des biscuits aux enfants!
v. Jean-Pierre prend un verre dans un coin-café.
4D. Complétez avec un pronom relatif:
i. C’est la table j’avais laissé mes affaires.
ii. Les touristes tu as parlé hier sont déjà partis.
iii. Ils adorent les cadeaux vous leur aviez donnés.
iv. Quentin et Nathan achèteraient la maison il y a un grand grenier.
v. Le couple tu parles est venu nous voir le week-end dernier.

4E. Complétez avec des prépositions:

i. Les avions volent des bâtiments.
 ii. Le garçon a acheté des fleurs sa petite amie.
iii. Le collégien a laissé sa bicyclette cet arbre.
iv. On allait au théâtre nos parents pendant toute notre enfance.
v. Nous jetons les ordures de la maison.

4F. Complétez avec des adjectifs ou des pronoms interrogatifs:

i. magasins fréquentez-vous et aimez-vous le plus?
ii. couleur préfères-tu et n’aimes-tu pas?
iii. chansons écoutez-vous et ne te plaisent pas?
iv. pays visitent-ils, les Brickmans cet été et ont-ils déjà visité?
v. est ta profession et te plaît?

4G. Mettez les phrases en bonne ordre et récrivez:

i. car/ bien/ consulte/ un/ il/ il/ se/ ne/ médecin/ pas/ sent
ii. la/ le/ de/ maison/ quitter/ avant/ chauffeur/ appelle
iii. pour/ demain/ Jacques/ partent/ la / ses/ après/ parents/ et/ France
iv. faut/ examen/ des/ l’/ réussir/ pour/ à/ il/ efforts/ faire
v. avoir/ s’/ son/ il/ pris/ est/ dîner/ couché/ après

Section D (Culture)

5.A Répondez aux questions suivantes: (5 au choix)

i. Qu’est-ce qu’une omelette?
ii. La Bourgogne est-elle riche et variée? Pourquoi?
iii. Qu’est-ce qu’un col?
iv. Qu’est-ce que la récréation?
v. Quand a lieu la messe de minuit? Qu’y écoute-t-on?
vi. Que mange-t-on au réveillon?
vii. Nommez quelques sports d’hiver.
viii. Où se trouve la Provence? Quel est le vent qui souffle en Provence?

5.B Complétez et récrivez (5 au choix)

i. Les diverses sortes d’un même vin s’appellent les .
ii. On goûte le vin avec un .
iii. Les cadeaux de Noël s’appellent aussi .
iv. Pour monter aux champs de neige on prend le .
v. Les fermes provençales s’appellent les .
vi. Les sauvages vivent dans les plaines de Camargue.
vii. On chauffe la salle de l’auberge avec un .
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Legal Studies Assignment -2023-2024
Class-XII, Unit- III
Chapter-1(Law of Contract)
Objective Type Questions[1 Mark Each]
1. What is an agreement that is enforceable by law called, according to the Indian Contract Act?
a) Contract b) Offer
c) Proposal d) Promise
2. Which of the following is NOT a criterion for a valid agreement to be considered a contract?
a) Competent parties b) Lawful consideration and lawful object
c) Free consent d) Express declaration of void by the law
3. In the case of Balfour v. Balfour, why did the court dismiss the wife's claim?
a) The agreement lacked intention to create a legal relationship
b) The husband failed to send the promised amount
c) The wife did not provide proper medical documents
d) The court ruled in favor of the husband's moral obligation
4. What is the first step in the formation of a contract?
a) Acceptance b) Agreement
c) Proposal d) Offer
5. When a new contract is substituted for an old contract, it is known as _______
a) Rescission b) Merger
c) Waiver d) Novation
Read the excerpt from the decided case of Durga Prasad Vs Baldeo and answer the questions 6-11
The plaintiff constructed some shops at the request of the District Collector in a town. The constructed
shops were given for rent for doing business to the defendant. The defendant, apart from the rent,
promised to give 5% commission to the plaintiff on all articles sold through the shop in consideration of the
huge amount spent by the plaintiff in the construction of the building. The defendant failed to pay the
commission and the plaintiff initiated action to recover the commission.
6. On what ground was the action of the plaintiff rejected by the court?
a) Construction of shop was done at the desire of the District Collector and not at the desire of the
defendant.
b) Construction was done at the desire of the defendant and not the DC
c) Court did not have the jurisdiction to try the case
d) Defendant had reasonable grounds to not pay commission
7. A consideration can be for
a) Present only b) Past only
c) Future only d) Any of these
8. A contract without consideration is
a) Valid b) Not valid
c) Void ab initio d) None of the Above
9. Which of the following is the first step in the formation of a contract?
a) Acceptance b) Offer
c) Consideration d) None of the Above
10. In a similar case, A offers to sell his car to B for Rs 50,000/-. B accepts the offer. In this case, what is
the consideration for B?
a) Car b) Rs 50,000/-
c) Both Car and Money d) None of the Above.
11. Amit, a minor, takes a room on rent from Shyamlal and agrees to pay Rs 10,000/- as advance. He paid
only Rs 6000/- in cash and promised to pay the balance later. After occupying the premises for a
week, he vacated it and asked for a refund of the advance.
Which of the following options is applicable in the given situation?
a) Amit is liable to pay Rs 10,000.
b) Amit is liable to pay the remaining Rs. 4000/-
c) Shyamlal is liable to refund Rs 6000/-
d) Shyamlal is not liable to refund Rs.6000/- but Amit is under obligation to pay Rs 4000/-
12. Statement I: Time is very significant while entering into a contract.
Statement II: According to the Limitation Act, a contract should be performed within a specified time
called period of limitation.
a) Both statements are true
b) Both statements false
c) Statement I is true and Statement II is false
d) Statement II is true and Statement I is false
13. An agreement becomes a contract if
a) It is by free consent of the parties
b) Parties are competent
c) It is enforceable by law
d) It is decided by agent
14. The Act which deals with the issues relate to the contract is known as
a) The Contract Act, 1872
b) The Indian Contract Act, 1872
c) The Indian Contract Act, 1882
d) The Indian Contract Act, 1973
15. An offer and acceptance must be communicated. When the communication of a proposal is
complete?
a) When it is conveyed to the relative of the person
b) When it comes to knowledge of another person that some communication was made to the
concerned person
c) When it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made
d) When it comes to the knowledge of the whole society
16. On what condition the contract with Minor cannot be void?
a) The enforcement of such contract is beneficial for the offeree
b) The enforcement of such contract is beneficial for the minor
c) The enforcement of such contract is beneficial for the guardian
d) The enforcement of such contract is not possible
17. Consent is an agreement should be obtained by
a) Coercion
b) Fraud
c) Free
d) Undue influence
18. Atul promised to pay Rs 1000 to Bimal, if it rains and in return Bimal also promised to pay Rs 1000 to
Atul if it does not rain. It is a
a) Valid agreement
b) Contingent Agreement
c) Wagering Agreement
d) Void agreement
19. Which one is not a condition where a contract gets discharged by operation of law?
a) Death of either of the parties
b) Insolvency
c) Alteration
 d) Unauthorized alteration of the terms of the agreement
Very Short Answer Questions [2 Marks each]
20. A sells his jeep to B for a consideration of Rs 7000 whereas the price of the jeep is Rs 10,000/-.
1. Is there a valid consideration in this case?
2. Is an agreement without consideration valid?
21. Define a Contract.
22. Which legislation governs the law of Contracts in India?
Short Answer Questions [3 Marks each]
23. Give the main points of difference between Wager and Contigent contract
24. What are the criteria for a valid agreement to be considered a contract?
25. What is the significance of intention to create a legal relationship in determining whether an
agreement is a contract?
26. Explain the meaning of discharge of Contract. What are the various ways of discharge of Contract?
27. What is the meaning of damages in Law of Contract?
28. What is the basis of the Doctrine of Restitution?
29. Rashmi is a minor who looks older than her age. Sudeep is a major who enters into a contract with
Rashmi thinking that she is also a major. Later, Sudeep finds out that Rashmi is a minor.
1. Is the contract valid? Give reasons.
2. State the exception to the rule regarding the capacity of a minor to enter into a contract as per
the provisions of the Contract Act.
Long Answer Questions [5 Marks each]
30. Give the facts, contentions and judgment in:
i. Balfour vs. Balfour
ii. Carlil vs. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
iii. Durga Prasad vs. Baldeo
31. An offer and acceptance must be what to be considered valid?
a) Vague and uncertain
b) Communicated to the other person
c) Revoked before acceptance
d) Kept confidential
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Legal Studies Assignment -2023-2024
Class-XII, Unit- III
Chapter-2 Property Law
Objective Type Questions[1 Mark Each]
1. The Transfer of Property Act was enacted in the year
a. 1880
b. 1881
c. 1882
d. 1883
2. Within the meaning of provisions of the TPA, 1882, the immovable property does not include:-
a. Standing timber or grass
b. Standing timber, jewelry and crops
c. Standing timber, growing crops or grass.
d. Only grass
3. According to TPA
a. Instrument means a non-testamentary instrument.
b. Testamentary instrument.
c. Both testamentary and non-testamentary instrument
d. None of the Above
4. Under the TPA, the term “attached to earth” means:
a. Attested by two or more witnesses.
b. Attested by one witness only
c. Attested by two witnesses only
d. No condition prevails
5. Under the TPA, 1882 “attached to earth” means:
I. Rooted in earth, as in the case of trees and shrubs;
II. Embedded in the earth as in the case of walls and buildings; or
III. Attached to what is so embedded for the permanent beneficial enjoyment of that to which it is
attached.
a. Only (I) and (II) are correct.
b. Only (II) and (III) are correct.
c. Only (I) and (III) are correct.
d. All (I), (II) and (III) are correct.
6. According to section 5 of the TPA, 1882, living person includes:
a. Company or association or body of individuals
b. Individual human being only
c. Only important company or associations
d. None of the above.
7. Under the provisions of Section 7 of the TPA, the competent person to transfer means:
I. Every person competent to contract only;
II. Every person entitled to transferable properly or authorized to dispose of transferable property.
a. Only (I) is correct.
b. Both (I) and (II) are correct.
c. (II) is correct.
d. Neither is correct.
8. The foundation of doctrine of election under the Transfer of instrument:
a. Must bear the burden
b. Must not bear the burden
c. Burden is not the subject of election
d. None of the above
9. A sells his house for Rupees 8 lakhs to B. This is called : Mortgage
a. Sale
b. Hypothecation
c. Pledge
d. Mortgage
10. If X transfers the ownership of one thing for the ownership of another, the transfer is called
a. Sale
b. Gift
c. Exchange
d. Lease
11. Praneet transferred his shares to his wife Kanika and the value of the property as shares are
intangible property.
a. Requires compulsory registration irrespective of the value of the property as shares are
intangible property
b. Does not require registration as in case of transfer of shares, transfer has to be made only by
delivery.
c. Requires registration as shares are tangible property and it requires compulsory registration
d. Does not require registration as the value of the property is less than Rs 1000
12. A offers to sell his cottage to B. B in consideration of the cottage sells his farm to A. Instead of getting
money for his cottage. A has received a farm from B. Which of the following bet describes the
situation?
a. This is an example for exchange.
b. This is an example for gift
c. This is an example for sale
d. This is an example for lease
Very Short Answer Questions[2 Marks each]
13. Who can transfer Property?
14. What is a registered instrument?
15. What is the object of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
16. What are the two types of property? Which legislations govern them?
17. Define immovable property?
18. Write a short note on exchange.
Short Answer Questions[3 Marks each]
19. What are the essentials of a valid transfer?
20. What is the meaning of the doctrine of Lis Pendens? What conditions should be satisfied to constitute
lis pendens?
21. This doctrine is based on principles of equity. Under any instrument if two rights are conferred on a
person in such a manner that one right is in lieu of the other, he is bound to elect only one of them.
Explain the Doctrine
22. Shreemala has transferred her ownership rights in property by way of sale and a sale deed is to be
executed. For this, an essential legal formality is to be done by both the parties.
 i. Identify this essential legal formality
ii. State the two conditions to be fulfilled for completing the formality identified in (i) above.
Long Answer Questions[5 Marks each]

23. Give the name and examples for the following:

a. Any mark put on a product which helps people to distinguish it from other products and
services.
b. Goods and products having a specific geographical origin bearing the name of their
geographical origin.
c. The right granted over the invention of a product.
d. Protection provided to any design invented by a person.
The right obtained over the creation of any literary or artistic work
e.
24. Explain the following:
i. Exchange
ii. Gift
iii. Intellectual property
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Legal Studies Assignment -2023-2024
Class-XII, Unit- III

Chapter-3 Law of Torts

Objective Type Questions [1 Mark each]
1. Assertion(A): - In the cases of tort of negligence on the part of defendant, in order to argue
successfully that the defendant has been negligent, the victim or the claimant must establish
defendant owes a duty of care to the victim, there was a breach of such duty and such breach of duty
has resulted in the harm suffered by the claimant
Reason (R): -The liability of duty to care arises due to the violation as established in the case of MC
Mehta Vs Union of India.
a. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation
of Assertion (A)
b. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A)
c. Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
d. Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
2. Statement (1): The intentional tort of battery occurs when the defendant causes the touching of the
claimant with the intent to cause harm or offense.
Statement (2): The act of touching doesn't necessarily have to be done with defendant's
hands always.
a. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.
b. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect.
c. Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.
d. Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.
The then Chief Justice of India P.N Bhagwati, in a famous case, held: "We are of the view that an
enterprise, which is engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous industry, which poses a
potential threat to the health and safety of the persons working in the factory and residing in the
surrounding areas owes an absolute and non-delegable duty to the community to ensure that no
harm results to any one on account of hazardous or inherently dangerous activity”
3. The above observation of Justice P.N Bhagwati was made in which of the following cases?
a. MC Mehta Vs Shri Ram Foods
b. MC Mehta Vs State of Uttar Pradesh
c. MC Mehta Vs Kamal Nath
d. MC Mehta Vs State of Maharashtra
4. Which of the following principles were laid down by the Hon’ble Supreme Court?
a. Vicarious Liability
b. Strict Liability
c. Absolute Liability
d. None of the Above
5. Which of the following can be a valid defence for an enterprise engaged in an inherently dangerous
and hazardous activity?
a. That they had taken all reasonable care to prevent that harm.
b. The harm was caused without any negligence on its part.
c. It has complied with all the safety standards required for such enterprise to follow
d. None of the Above.
6. Which of the following is not an intentional tort?
a. Treaties between different nations Battery and Assault
b. False imprisonment
c. Negligence
d. Tresspass
7. Which of the following is not a purpose of the Tort law
a. Deterrence b. Loss spreading
c. Fair and just response d. Punishing the accused.
8. Mehak was passionate for dogs. She bought a small puppy for her house. The puppy grew big in a
couple of years. On day while leaving for her tuition class, she forgot to leash the god. The dog saw a
street dog and chased it. While chasing he pounced upon Mrs. Kumar. Mrs. Kumar was injured.
Decide
a. Mehak is liable for nuisance b. Mehak is not liable for strict liability
b. Mehak is liable for strict liability d. Mehak is liable for negligence.
9. Who bears the burden of proof in Tort Law?
a. Judge
b. Claimant
c. Defendant
d. Both (b) and (c)
10. Assertion(A): Tort law ensures that the defendant compensates the victim for a wrongful act
Reason (R): This deters one from injuring others as it encourages defendants to be mindful and
careful
a. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation
of Assertion (A)
b. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A)
c. Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
d. Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
11. Situation I: The intentional tort of false imprisonment is satisfied whenever there is intent to
unlawfully confine or restrain the claimant in a bounded area.
Situation II: The tort of trespass to land occurs when the defendant has the intent to physically
invade real property of the claimant.
a. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.
b. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect.
c. Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.
d. Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.

12. Sanjeev allows the growth of poisonous weed on his plot of land. He was not negligent not was he
aware of the fact that weed is poisonous. The weed spreads and grows onto the property owned by
Gurmeet. Gurmeet’s cattle die after consuming the poisonous weed. Which of the following is
applicable in the given scenario?
a. Sanjeev is not liable to Gurmeet as the latter should have taken due care of his livestock
b. Sanjeev is liable because allowing poisonous plants to grow and spread amounts to trespass to
land.
c. Sanjeev is strictly liable to Gurmeet even though he may not be negligent
d. Sanjeev is liable as it amounts to trespass to chattels
13. A purchased a car from a person who had no title to it and had sent it to a garage for repairs. X,
believing, wrongly, that the car was his, removed it from the garage.
a. X can be held responsible for trespass to goods
b. X cannot be held responsible for trespass to good as he was under a wrong belief
c. X has not committed any wrong
d. X is responsible for theft
14. Jeevan and Pawan were neighbors in residential locality. Pawan started a typing class in a part of his
house and his typing sound disturbed Jeevan, who could not put up with any kind of continuous
noise. He filed a suit against Pawan.
a. Pawan is liable, because he should not have started typing class in his house
b. Pawan is liable, because as his neighbour, he should have realized Jeevan’s delicate nature
c. Pawan is not liable, because typing sound did not disturb anyone else other than Jeevan
d. Pawan is not liable, because typing sound did not disturb anyone else other than Jeevan.
15. The defendants, who are employees of the Municipal Corporation, opened a manhole in the street.
In the evening they left the manhole open and unattended, just covered it by a canvass shelter and
surrounded it by warning lamps. The plaintiff, an eight-year-old boy, took one of the lamps into the
shelter and was playing with it there, when he stumbled over it and fell into the manhole. A violent
explosion followed and the plaintiff suffered burn injuries. The defendants are
a. Not liable because the injury to the plaintiff is not foreseeable
b. Not liable because they acted reasonably
c. Liable because they should have completed the work before they left
d. Liable because they acted unreasonably
Very Short Answer Questions[2 Marks each]
16. The claimant ‘D’ drank a soft drink manufactured by the defendant company ‘S’ The drink had a
decomposed snail in the bottle that made the claimant ill. ‘D’ filed a suit for negligence, will he
succeed. Decide citing case law.
17. What are torts?
18. Identify the kinds of torts.
Short Answer Questions[3 Marks each]
19. In the 1987 case of MC Mehta V Shri Ram Foods and Fertilizer Industries, Justice PN Bhagwati,
developed the principle of absolute liability.
I. Which principle helped in the evolution of absolute liability?
II. Explain the principle of absolute liability
III. What are the essentials of absolute liability?
20. Write a brief note on strict liability.
21. How is trespass to chattel committed?
22. What do you mean by false imprisonment? Which element the court can overlook while dealing with
a case of false imprisonment?
23. State the difference between Assault and Battery
Long Answer Questions[5 Marks each]
24.
i. What constitutes Tort of Negligence?
ii. Explain with reasons whether the following act constitutes negligence? The employees of care
cell telecom opened a manhole in the street and in the evening left that manhole open. They
covered it with canvas shelter, but left it unattended.
Prince, an 8 years old boy, who was playing there, stumbled over it and fell into the manhole
and sustained injuries.
 iii. Give one example of negligence.
25. Ishwar Devi stopped the bus of PR Transport Corp. at its authorized bus stand. She had placed her
foot on the foot-board of the bus and had not yet gone in, the conductor in great haste called on the
driver to start the bus. Ishwar Devi could not balance herself and fell down from the moving bus and
sustained serious injuries.
Identify and explain the principle of tort law under which she can claim relief. Cite a decided case in
support of your answer.
26. How does tort help in protecting against any bodily harm? Discuss with specific reference to assault
and battery.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Legal Studies Assignment -2023-2024
Class-XII, Unit- III

Chapter-4 Intellectual property(IPR)

Objective Type Questions [1 Mark each]

1. Intellectual property refers to:
a) Tangible property created through human intellect
b) Property that can be seen and touched
c) Intangible property that comes into existence through human intellect
d) Property that is protected by physical means
2. Intellectual property rights (IPR) are:
a) Rights given to creators to protect their physical property
b) Rights given to creators over the use of their intellectual property
c) Rights given to consumers to access intellectual property
d) Rights given to governments to control intellectual property
3. Which category of intellectual property includes patents, trademarks, industrial designs, and
geographic indications of source?
a) Industrial property b) Copyright
c) Literary works d) Artistic works
4. The Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Properties upholds the principle of:
a) National Treatment b) Automatic Protection
c) Framework of Priority d) Minimum Rights
5. What is the most comprehensive multilateral agreement on intellectual property that aims at
harmonizing and strengthening standards of protection?
a) World Trade Organization (WTO)
b) Trade-Related Intellectual Property Systems (TRIPS) Agreement
c) Patents Act, 1970
d) Copyright Act, 1957
6. Which legislation in India amended and consolidated the existing law relating to patents?
a) Patents Act, 1911 b) Patents Act, 1957
c) Patents Act, 1970 d) Patents (Amendments) Act, 2005
7. What is the term of protection for copyright in general?
a) 50 years b) 60 years
c) 70 years d) Perpetuity
8. Which case highlighted the importance of moral rights in protecting the reputation and integrity of an
author's work?
a) Amarnath Sehgal v. Union of India
b) Eastern Book Company & Others V. D.B. Modak & Another
c) Berne Convention case
d) WIPO Convention case
9. What is a patent?
a) A legal document granting exclusive rights to an inventor over their invention
b) A document allowing inventors to sell their inventions to the government
c) A certificate of recognition for innovative ideas
d) A legal agreement between inventors and manufacturers
10. What is the term of a patent in the Indian system?
a) 10 years from the date of filing of the application
b) 20 years from the date of filing of the application
c) Lifetime ownership rights for the inventor
d) 5 years from the date of filing of the application
11. Which act governs the patent system in India?
a) Trademarks Act, 1999 b) Copyright Act, 1957
c) Patents Act, 1970 d) Industrial Designs Act, 2000
12. What are the requirements for an idea to qualify as a patentable matter?
a) Simplicity, common knowledge, and theoretical application
b) Novelty, obviousness, and theoretical application
c) Novelty, non-obviousness, and industrial application
d) Uniqueness, common knowledge, and commercial viability
13. Which inventor is known as the Indian owning the highest number of patents?
a) Gurtej Sandhu b) Susant Pattnaik
c) National Innovation Foundation d) None of the above
14. The Universal Copyright Convention (UCC) adheres to the principle of:
a) Automatic Protection b) National Treatment
c) Minimum Rights d) Independence of Protection
Very short Answer Questions(2 Marks)
15. What are the two categories of rights associated with copyright ownership?
16. What is the role of copyright protection in modern society?
17. In the case of Eastern Book Company & Others V. D.B. Modak & Another, what was the Supreme
Court's ruling regarding copyright protection for original texts?
18. What is the primary purpose of patent law?
19. How long is the term of a patent granted in India?
20. What is a trademark?
21. How are trade secrets protected in India?
22. There was a recent tiff between the States of Odisha and West Bengal over the origin of the ever-
popular sweet dish- ‘Rasgulla’. Both states argued that the ‘Rasgulla’ had been invented in their
respective states. However, the Registrar of the Chennai GI office gave the GI tag to the Banglar
Rasogulla of West Bengal. This caused a rift between the states as both were competing to get the GI
tag for rasgulla for their respective states. In light of the above case discuss:
A. What rights does a geographical Indication provide? How would Orissa be adversely affected by
the order of the Chennai GI office?
B. For which types of products can GI tags be used?
Short Answer Questions(3 Marks)
23. What are the two types of rights associated with copyright ownership? Explain each type briefly.
24. You are an author who has written a novel in Hindi. The novel has become immensely popular and
now podcasters, serial producers and Youtubers are trying to adapt the story to be telecast on
various forms of media. There are some authors who also want to translate your novel into English.
Discuss how you will negotiate in this situation given that you have certain economic rights as a
copyright owner.
25. Explain the three requirements for an idea to qualify as a patentable matter.
26. Discuss the significance of patents in promoting scientific research, new technology, and industrial
progress.
27. What is the difference between a trade name and a trademark?
28. Discuss the importance of trademarks in differentiating and establishing the identity of goods and
services. Provide examples to support your explanation.
29. Explain the concept of trade secrets and their significance in maintaining a competitive advantage for
businesses. Discuss the legal framework and provisions that can be utilized to protect trade secrets in
India.
30. Valganciclovir hydrochloride is a medicine that is stable when stored as a solid-state under normal
conditions. The applicant tried to make a liquid form of the medicine, but it was unstable for the
required shelf life. Therefore, they focused on a powder form that could be mixed with water to
make a liquid form. The powder form was very similar to the solid form and their patent claim was
rejected. Discuss why the patent claim was rejected in view of the essential ingredients of a
successful patent claim.
Long Answer Questions(5 Marks)
31. What is meant by Intellectual Property? Why does intellectual property need to be promoted and
protected?
32. Discuss the concept of National Treatment and its evolution through the various international
Conventions on Intellectual Property Rights.
33. Describe Copyright and the works protected under copyright act.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Marketing Assignment- 2023-2024
Class – XII, Unit-III
CHAPTER-3: PLACE AND DSITRIBUTION
Section A
MCQs, Fill Ups, True/False
1 A customer bought a product which had a defect .Now the customer wants replacement or free repair
of the product. In this situation _________________function of channel of distribution is performed.
(A) Transactional (B) Facilitating function
(C) Logistical function (D) All of the above
2 Ajay was appointed as marketing head of 'Alfa Enterprise' manufacturers of toothpaste and
toothbrushes. His target sale was 2000 units a month. To achieve the target he himself started visiting
door to door along with his staff. Identify the channel of distribution 'Ajay' adopted for distribution of
toothpaste and toothbrushes.
(A) Three level channel (B) Two level channel
(C) One level channel (D) Zero level channel
3 'Yamuna Ki Bhujia' has developed a strong distribution network in India and abroad by setting up
retail outlets and reaching out to the customer through internet selling. Identify the decision related to
the element of marketing mix being discussed above.
(A) Storing and assorting products in order to create time utility
(B) Regarding the channels or using intermediaries
(C) One regarding branding, packaging and labeling
(D) Both a and b
4 Dell computers which use mail-order systems to market their products follows:
(A) One level channel (B) Two level channel
(C) Zero level channel (D) Four level channel
5 Maruti Udyog selling its cars through NEXA, company owned showrooms is an example of:
(A) One level channel (B) Two level channel
(C) Zero level channel (D) Four level channel
6 The primary function of a distribution channel is to bridge the gap between_________
and__________________.
7 Match the following
[A] Intermediaries [I] The starting point of distribution
[B] Consumers [II] They are in direct negotiation between buyer and seller.
[C] Facilitating agencies [III] Final destination for goods in the distribution system.
[D] Manufacturers [IV] Banking institutions, insurance companies, and transportation
agencies and warehousing companies.
8 Assertion (A): Negotiation is a process between manufacturer and consumer before closing a deal.
Reason (R): Marketing intermediaries are essential for consumer goods.
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) Assertion is true reason is false
(D) Assertion is false and reason is true.
9 Assertion: When a manufacturer employs one or more intermediaries to sell a product, it is called an
indirect marketing channel.
Reason: An indirect marketing channel is one in which more than one middlemen are employed.
Alternatives:
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(D) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
10 Sohan brothers, whole sellers of white goods bought goods from the producer with the intention of
selling at a profit but Government announced a decision due to which price of products fell down
which led to huge loss to Sohan brothers. Identify the function.
(A) Transactional (B) Logistical
(C) Facilitating (D) none
11 Maruti car Udyog ltd. assembles different parts of their cars manufactured at different places by
different manufactures. It keeps the purchased goods at a particular place. Which function of channel
of distribution is discussed above?
(A) logistical functIon (B) Transactional
(C) Facilitating functIon (D) Negotiations
12 Starbucks is one of the great business success stories of all time. Growing from 11 stores in 1987 to a
worldwide phenomenon with more than 20,000 locations in 62 countries. Starbucks' product has to be
high quality to get their target audience to justify buying it. You're paying for premium coffee which
means it needs to taste better than the same iced macchiato that you could get at a McDonald's drive-
through for less. Starbucks sells their coffee at least 25% higher than value brands. Which level of
distribution channel is used by Starbucks?
(A) Zero Level (B) One level
(C) Two level (D) Three level
13 An agent actually gains ownership of the product and usually makes money from commissions and
fees paid for their services. (True/ False)
14 Which of the following 4Ps of marketing mix involves decisions regarding channels coverage,
assortments, locations, inventories or transports?
(A) Product (B) Price
(C) Place (D) Promotion
15 At least how many parties should be included in "Exchange"?
(A) Two (B) Three
(C) Four (D) Five
17 Middlemen are also involved in various activities like demonstration of product, display and contest
which form a part of ___________________ function.
18 Eureka Forbes, the company which markets vacuum cleaners and water purifying equipments,
believes that if the market is in the customer's house, the best way to get there is to knock at the door.
The company has clearly demonstrated that door-to-door selling can be effective in Indian conditions.
Identify the type of distribution channel used by the company.
(A) One level channel (B) Two level channel
(C) Zero level channel (D) Four level channel
19. A distributor carries products from a single brand or company.(true/false)
20. A distributor has close relationship with the producer and consumer. (true/false)
 Section B
Very Short Answer Questions
1. Define place as per Philip Kotler.
2. Define place as per William J Stanton.
3. What do you understand by place as an element of marketing mix.
4. Sate any two participants of distribution system.
5. Explain how wholesalers assume a large number of risks in the process of distribution of goods.
6. Explain how retailers act as spokesperson of the customers.
7. How do the size and weight of the products affect the selection of the type of distribution channel?
8. Define retailing according to Stanton.
9. Briefly explain the grading and packaging function of wholesalers.
Section C
Short Answer Questions
1. What do you understand by intermediaries? Name any two intermediaries.
2. What do you understand by facilitating agencies? Name any two facilitating agencies.
3. How’s the functioning of a distributor different from a wholesaler’s functioning?
4. How’s the functioning of an agent different from the functioning of retailers and wholesalers?
5. Retailers undertake the risk of bad debts. Explain the relevant function of retailers.
6. Why is window display in residential areas a must for retailers?
7. How do wholesalers provide financial accommodation to both the manufactures and the retailers?
8. Explain any two functions performed by retailers.
9. Explain any two functions performed by wholesalers.
Section D
Long Answer Questions
1. Briefly explain the various functions performed by channels of distribution.
2. Explain the major activities involved in the physical distribution of products.
3. Differentiate between wholesaler and retailer.
4. Discuss the various factors of channel of distribution pertaining to the producer/company.
5. Availability of products depends upon how efficiently it is managed. Discuss the importance of
identified element.
6. State any two merits and two demerits of adopting direct channel of distribution.
7. Discuss the various factors of channel of distribution pertaining to the product.
8. Discuss three level channel of distribution . State any three factors as per which it is advisable to
adopt three level distribution channel.
Section E
Competency Based Questions
1. Which channel of distribution will be selected by the manufacturer if he deals in the following items
and why?
(a) Perishable goods
(b) Diamonds
2. Analyse and state the type of distribution channel that should be adopted in the following cases. Also
state the reason for choosing it:
 (a) The manufacturer is financially sound and is of a larger category and is able to appoint the sales
representatives in a large number.
(b) The manufacturer receives bulk orders.
3. Mediquip Ltd. is a company dealing in distribution of medical equipments. The company recently
imported 15,000 units of sugar testing machines to test the sugar levels without taking blood samples.
For deciding the marketing strategy, the CEO of the company called a meeting of the marketing
heads of different zones.In the meeting, Sandeep, the North Zone Marketing Head, suggested that
since the machines were sophisticated they need to visit hospitals personally, to explain its working to
the hospital staff who would be using the machines. He also suggested that additional trained people
may be recruited for the same.Himanshu, another Zonal Head, added that since lot of money had
been spent on the import of the machines, the company was short of funds to pay to the additional
staff as suggested by Sandeep.Rahul, a newly appointed Zonal Head of South Zone suggested that
since the size of the order is not large, a detailed study of the factors determining the choice of
channels of distribution is required before making the right choice.
a) Identify the factors influencing the choice of channels of distribution which were discussed in the
meeting.
b) Also, briefly explain any other consideration to be taken care of, other than what is identified in
part (a).
4. Dashmesh is a manufacturer of premium quality plastic furniture and almirahs on a large scale which
can be used by the schools exclusively. What factors should he take into consideration while selecting
the channel of distribution suitable for his business?
5. Rajesh is a manufacturer of machines used for mixing and grinding activities in many industries on a
large scale. These machines are made as per the specifications of the clients. Rajesh also provide
technical assistance at the time of installation and later whenever required by the clients. What factors
should he take into consideration while selecting the channel of distribution suitable for his business?
6. Priyash has just started a firm selling FMCG like grocery items, toiletries and many other products
which are required in every house on a regular basis. He wants to sell pan India covering the
backward and rural areas too as his products are competitively priced along with reasonably good
quality. Briefly explain the factors he should consider while selecting the distribution channel.
Beyond The Class Room
1. Take 5 products of your choice and find out which type of channels were involved before they
reached your hands.
2. Make a power point presentation on the topic: Functions of Intermediaries.
3. Brand Dum Charades
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
NCC Assignment - 2023-2024
Class-XII, Unit-III
CH-3 DISASTER MANAGEMENT
Section A
Q1 Which of the following appliances does not come under fire fighting appliances:
(a) Fire Extinguisher (b) Stirrup Pumps
(c) Bucket / Wabe / Sand Containers (d) Convectors
Q2 How many kinds of Disaster are there:
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 3
Q3 NCC cadets can help in disasters because they are trained into---
(a) first aid (b) basic home nursing
(c) civil defence (d) all of the above
Q4 International tsunami information centre is located in:
(a) Goa (b) Jakarta (c) Hunololu (d) New Delhi
Q5 Who is the president of disaster management :
(a) Prime Minister (b) President of India
(c) Home Minster (d) Finance Minister
Q6 In India when was disaster management act made:
(a) 2006 (b) 2004 (c) 2008 (d) 2005
Q7 National Institute of D.M. information is located at
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Kerala
(c) Jodhpur (d) New Delhi
Q8 Which of the following is not a manmade hazard:
(a) Leakage of toxic waste (b) Drought
(c) Environment Pollution (d) War and Civil strife
Q9 Maximum part of India comes under which seismic zone of earthquake:
(a) Zone 1 (b) Zone 2 (c) Zone 5 (d) Zone 4
Q10 Rescue of trapped persons and casualty evacuation is a part of _____
(a) Medical service (b) Transport service
(c) Communication service (d) Postal service
Q11 Dissemination of information, monitoring media coverage and quelling of tumors is include in _______
(a) Telephone service (b) Telegraph service
(c) Communication service (d) Transport service
Q12 Choking or restricting the supply of oxygen to the burning material is known as _____
(a) Cooling (b) Smothering (c) starvation (d) Oxygen
Q13 Avoid keeping inflammable material like petrol, kerosene or clothing near the fire or the gas is the preventive
measure taken for ________
(a) Public fire (b) Kitchen fire (c) Electrical fire (d) Industrial fire
Q14 Transfer of heat by the intermediary material is called.
(a) Conduction (b) Radiation \
(c) Convection (d) Flashover
Q15 Avalanches, Volcanic eruptions are related to
(a) Earth (b) Water (c) Wind (d) Ecological
Q16 What are the three essential elements for the creation of fire and its continuation?
(a) Oxygen, heat, temperature (b) Oxygen, temperature, material
(c) Oxygen, atmosphere, temperature (d) Oxygen, material, cooling agent
Q17 Name natural disasters among these.
(a) Storm, kitchen fire (b) Cyclone, road accidents
(c) Tornado, drought (d) Tsunami, chemical fire
Q18 The expansion of DDMA is
(a) Delhi Disaster Management Act (b) District Disaster Management Act
(c) District Disaster Management Authority (d) Delhi Disaster Management Authority
Q19 The Richter Magnitude Scale is used to classify and measure the magnitude of which natural disaster?
(a) Tsunami (b) Volcano (c) Drought (d) Earthquake
Q20 If, over about two weeks, there is less than 0.2mm (1/100 in) of precipitation, which natural disaster
occurs?
(a) Tsunami (b) Volcano (c) Drought (d) Flood
Q21 The group formed by NCC cadets who are employed to establish or take care of evacuation shelters and
safe houses with the requirements of food, water and medicines is called.
(a) First Aid Group (b) Sanitation Group
(c) Shelter Management Group (d) Relief Group
Q22 Who will command and control at the time of assistance, by NCC, during
natural and other calamities?
(a) Dy DG NCC of the States concerned (b) Commanding Officer of the Unit
(c) DG NCC (d) Group Commander of concerned Group
Q23 SDMA is headed by-----
(a) Chief Minister (b) Prime Minister
(c) President (d) Deputy commissioner of district
Q24 ___units will maintain close relations with the designated state governments and are available to them in
the event of any serious threatening disaster situation----
(a) NDMA (b) SDMA (c) DDMA (d) NDRF
Q25 Which is not an effect of natural disaster ---
(a) Excess loss of life (b) Collapsing of house
(c) Total destruction of essential services (d) Reestablishment of road
Q26 Which is not a part of NCC group ----
(a) Traffic control group (b) Relief group
(c) First state medical group (d) Speech group
Q27 Which is not a part of self Defence Services ---
(a) Warden services (b) Firefighting services
(c) Casualty services (d) Rescue services
Q28 Radiation Can Be Controlled By The ____________Curtain Between The Fire And The Objects.
(a) Water (b) Air (c) Sand (d) Oxygen
Q29 Giant Waves Caused By An Under-Sea Earthquake Are Called____________.
(a) Earthquake (b) Tsunami (c) Tornado (d) Tidal waves
Q30 ___________ And ___________ Extinguishers Are Used Where Blanketing The Fire To Isolate It From
Oxygen (Air) Is Required.
(a) Foam type, Dry chemical
(b) Soda Acid, Foam Type
(c) CTC Carbon dioxide, Dry chemical Extinguisher
(d) CTC Carbon dioxide, Foam Type
Q31 the full form of NDMA is
(a) National Disaster Management Authority
(b) Nationa Disaster Management Administration
(c) Native Disaster Management Authority
(d) none of the above
Q32 NDMA is an organisation of---
(a) national level (b) state level
(c) district level (d) none of the above
Q33 The full form of NEC is-----
(a) national executive committee (b) National exchange committee
(c) National endurance committee (d) None of the above
Q34 SDMA is headed by-----
(a) Chief Minister (b) Prime Minister
(c) President (d) Deputy commissioner of district
Q35 DDMA is headed by ----
(a) district collector (b) deputy commissioner
(c) district magistrate (d) any one of the above
Q36 Who is included in local authorities ---
(a) Panchayati Raj Institutions (b) Municipalities
(c) District and contaminant boards (d) all of the above
Q37 NCC cadets can help in ---
(a) maintaining law and order (b) traffic flow
(c) Telephone service (d) all of the above
Q38 Storm is a ---
(a) Natural disaster (b) wind related disaster
(c) both A and B (d) none of the above
Q39 Gas leakage is related to---
(a) man made disasters (b) industrial mashup
(c) accidents (d) None of the above
Q40 Which one is part of essential services---
(a) postal (b) transport
(c) provisions of water & electricity (d) all of the above
Q41 ___; services are maintained by government at all cost in any disasters ------
(a) Medical (b) Transport (c) Communication (d) all of the above
Section B
Very Short Answer Questions
Q.1 What is the role of NCC cadets in maintaining Essential Services?
Q.2 What are the main causes and preventions of fire?
Q.3 What are the fire fighting equipments? Explain in details.
Q.4 What are the basic points for consideration of fire and movement?
Q.5 What are the major effects of Natural Disesters?
Q.6 What are the ideal points for selection of fire position?
Q.7 When was the Civil Defence Act of India enacted by the Parliament?
Q.8 Which local authorities control and manage civil services?.
Q.9 Define 'disaster'.
Q.10 What is the basis of classification of disasters?
Q.11 Define the term 'Tsunami'.
Q.12 Give other three names for hurricanes.,
Q.13 What are the effects of natural disasters?
Q.14 Write any one major effect of natural calamities.
Q.15 What do disasters result in?
Q.16 What are the three elements of fire?
Q.17 What is the affective method to contact NCC cadets to be available for any assistance during calamities?
Q.18 Define Civil Defence?
Q.19 What are the main responsibilities of National Disaster management authority?
Q.20 Write a short note on NDRF.
Q.21 What are the different types of maintance required for essential services?
Q.22 What are man made disasters?
Q.23 What is the role of NCC cadets during disaster?
Q.24 Write down the organisation of NDMA?
Q.25 What is the organisation of civil defence at District level?
Q.26 Name any 5 man made disasters?
Q.27 Define the following :
Earthquake, Tsunami, Drought Flood
 Section C
Short Answer Questions
Q.1 What are the methods of spread of fire?
Q.2 What are the catagories of essential services?
Q.3 What is the role of NCC Cadets for maintaining essential services?
Q.4 What are the various points for consideration while employing NCC Cadets for disaster managment?
Q.5 What is the assistance required during flood cyclone.
Q.6 What are the main impact of earthquakes?
Q.7 What are the problem areas which need particular attention during relief oprations?
Q.8 What should be the ideal priority for removal of debries?
Q.9 What is the likely role of NCC Cadets for removal of debries?
Section D
Long Answer Questions
Q.1 What are the responsibilities of traffic police and where all cadets can be employed for disaster
managment?
Q.2 Describe how the assistance will be provided during any flood / cyclone by NCC cadets?
Q.3 What are important points to be kept in mind by residents of earthquake prone area?
Q.4 What are the basic considration points for setting up of relief camp for disaster management?
Q.5 What are the various types of Aid materials required during management of disasters?
Q.6 What is the source of supply of aid material?
Q.7 What is the role of NCC Cadets for collection of aid material?
Q.8 What is the role of NCC Cadets for distribution of aid material?
Q.9 What are the related resposibilities of the National Disaster Management Authority?
Q.10 Write down the employment of NCC Cadets during National Disasters?
Q.11 What are the assistance required during naturel / other calametics?
Q.12 What are the methods of providing assistance by Co group commander of NCC from the district
authorities?
Q.13 What is the present target of Civil Defence volunteers? How many are already being raised and trained?
Who administers and trains the volunteers?
Q.14 Mention any two things that NDMA is responsible for at national level.
Q.15 Name the different types of natural disasters with examples.
Q.16 Describe the following man-made disasters:
a) Industrial mistakes b) Terrorist attacks
Q.17 What are the modes of spreading Fire? Write the methods of Fire control.
Q.18 Explain the function of each firing fighting party?
Q.19 What are the do’s and dont’s before flood?
Q.20 What are the do’s and dont’s before Earthquake?
Q.21 Name some of the civil defence services?
Q.22 What are the aims of aid to civil authority?
Q.23 What do you do during earthquake if trapped under debries?
Q.24 What emergency kit you should have during disaster?
Q.25 What are the measures for prevention of fire?
 Section E
Presently, the NDRF comprises twelve battalions and further expansion may be considered in due course.
These battalions are positioned at different locations across India. NDRF units will maintain close liaison
with the designated State Governments and will be available to them in the event of any serious threatening
disaster situation. While the handling of natural disasters rests with all the NDRF battalions, four battalions
will also be equipped and trained to respond to situations arising out of Chemical, Biological, Radiological
and Nuclear (CBRN) emergencies. The NDRF units will also impart basic training to all the stakeholders
identified by the State Governments in their respective locations.
1. What is the full form of NDRF
a. national disaster response force b. natural disaster response force
c. national disaster resource force d. none of the above
2. NDRF is responsible for --
a. threatening disasters b. emergencies both natural and manmade
c. both A&B d. none of the above
3. How many battalions are acquitted and trained to respond to the situations arising out of chemical,
biological, radiological and nuclear emergencies?
a. 2 b. 4
c. 5 d. 50
4. NDRF units impart basic training to to--
a. all the stakeholders b. locals
c. police personnel d. none of the above
Beyond the classroom
** Disaster management classes will be organised by the PI staff of the NCC unit.
** Students will be asked to discuss on practical basis on the topics of disaster management.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
NCC Assignment - 2023-2024
Class-XII, Unit-III
CH- INTRODUCTION OF INFANTRY WEAPONS AND EQUIPMENT
Section A
1. How many persons are there in an infantry section.
a) 10* b) 08 c) 09 d) 06
2. Enumerate the rate of fire of 5.56 mm Insas rifle
a) 21 Rounds/Minute b) 27 Rounds/Minute
c) 09 Rounds/Minute d) 10 Rounds/Minute*
3. What is the effective range of 7.62 mm LMG :
a) 350 Yards b) 250 Yards c) 500 Yards* d) 210 Yards
4. What is the Normal rate of fire of 7.62 mm LMG:
a) 28 Rounds/Minute * b) 27 Rounds/Minute
c) 09 Rounds/Minute d) 15 Rounds/Minute
5. How many rounds are loaded in the magazine of 7.62 mm LMG:
a) 20 Rounds b) 30 Rounds* c) 10 Rounds d) 15 Rounds
6. 7.62 mm LMG works on which principle :
a) Muzzle Loading b) Pump Action
c) GAS* d) Revolving Chamber
7. How many positions are there in the change lever of 7.62 mm LMG:
a) 02 b) 01 c) 04 d) 03*
8. What is the calibre of 84 rocket launcher :
a) 42mm b) 38mm c) 84mm* d) 10mm
9. What is the range of 7.62 mm Dragunov Sniper Rifle :
a) 800 Mtrs* b) 200 Mtrs c) 940 Mtrs d) 1000 Mtrs
10. What kind of Firing is done by rifle 7.62 mm SLR :
a) Deliberate b) Snap Shooting c) Rapid Fire d) All of the Above*
11. What is the full name of Insas 5.56 mm rifle :
a) Rifle 5.56mm Indian Small Arms System*
b) Rifle 5.56mm Indian Special Arms System
c) Rifle 5.56mm Indian Small Arms Supply
d) Rifle 5.56mm Indian Small Accurate System
12. What is the caliber of rifle 5.56 mm :
a) 0.22mm b) 0.38mm c) 5.56mm* d) 9mm
13. What is the weight of rifle 5.56 mm :
a) 3.6Kg* b) 6.3Kg c) 5.6 Kg d) 4.6Kg
14 What is the effective range of rifle 5.56 mm :
a) 400Mtrs* b) 300Mtrs c) 200Mtrs d) 100Mtrs
15. What is the Normal rate of fire of rifle 5.56 mm:
a) 10 Rounds/Minute b) 60 Rounds/Minute*
c) 50 Rounds/Minute d) 25 Rounds/Minute
 Section B
Very Short Answer Questions
Q. 1 What is the caliber of Rif. 7.62 mm?
Q. 2 Write down the full name of Rif. 7.62 mm SLR?
Q. 3 What is the rate of fire of Rifle 5.56 mm?
Q.4 Answer the following in about 15 words:
(a) What stands for INSAS?
(b) What is the caliber of INSAS rifle?
(c) What is the total weight of INSAS rifle with magazine?
(d) What is the basic fighting unit of art Infantry Battalion?
(e) What is the total strength of Infantry Battalion?
(f) Name four types of company support weapons.
(g) With regard to 5.56 INSAS rifle provide the following information
a. Caliber
b. Normal rate of fire
c. Muzzle velocity
(h) What do you mean by flexibility of 30 mm Automatic Grenade Launcher?
(i) What type of ammunition is used in 81mm Mortar?
(j) Mention two Infantry Battalion Support weapons.
(k) What is the rate of fire per minute from a 81 mm Mortar?
(I) What is the maximum elevation limit of a 81 mm Mortar?
(m) What safety distance should be maintained while firing from a 81 mm Mortar?
(n) What is the guidance of ATGM?
(o) What is the hit probability when fired from Anti-Tank Guided Missile?
Section C
Short Answer Questions
Q.5 Answer the following in about 50 words:
(a) What is the caliber and effective range of 5.56 mm INSAS Rifle?
(b) What are the rates of fire for 5.56 mm INSAS Rifle?
(c) What all kinds of ammunition are fired from INSAS rifle?
(d) What do you understand by Three Round Burst?
(e) Why 5.56mm is preferred over 7.62mm?
(f) What all parts of 5.56 INSAS rifle are affected by gas and why they should be cleaned properly?
(g) What is the organization of an Infantry company?
(h) What is the organization of an Infantry support company?
(i) What is the basic role of an Infantry Battalion?
(j) Give list of any six items required for cleaning of 5.56 INSAS rifle.
Section D
Long Answer Questions
Q.6 Answer the following in about 75 words:
(a) What is the cleaning process of a rifle after firing?
(b) What all parts of a rifle are to be oiled and why?
(c) What is the inspection procedure after assembling?
(d) What is the employability of an Infantry Battalion?
 (e) What is the detailed organization of Head Quarter Company of an Infantry Battalion?
(f) with regard to 5.56 INSAS rifle provide the following information
1. Who makes it?
2. Who uses it?
3. What is its intense rate of fire?
(g) Write the number of sections types of weapon and man power in an infantry platoon
Section E
The basic role of infantry battalion is to close in with and destroy or capture the enemy and to hold
ground. Fire and movement is the basis of infantry tactics. Infantry battalion from section up wards is
based on this principle. Infantry battalion and its sub-units are trained to operate in the face of the enemy
opposition without entirely depending on support from other arms, by skillful use of ground, weapons,
and above all the infantrymen with their sheer courage, determination and valor. The basic personnel
weapons in infantry battalion are pistols, carbines, rifles and bayonets. The fire power is greatly increased
by supporting weapons. These are anti-tank guided missiles, 81mm mortars, light machine guns, medium
machine guns, automatic grenade launchers, flame throwers, sniper rifles etc
1. The basic role of Infantry battalion is ----
a. Close battle b. Destroy and capture enemy
c. Hold the ground d. All of the above
2. The main capability of Infantry battalion is --
a. Self reliance b. Mobility c. Both A & B d. None of the above
3. The basic tactics of Infantry battalion is-
a. Fire and movement b. Skillful use of ground
c. Both A and B d. None of the above
4. The basic personnel weapon in infantry battalion is---
a. Carbine b. Rifles c. Bayonets d. All of the above
5. Which kind of organization Infantry is ?
a. Basic b. Most important
c. Both A and B d. None of the above
Beyond the classroom
** Practical classes will be organised by the PI staff of the NCC unit.
** Students will be briefed about the weapons used.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
NCC Assignment - 2023-2024
Class-XII, Unit-III

CH- NATIONAL INTEGRATION AND AWARENESS

Section A
1. National Integration camp is known as
a) ESBS b) Exercise yogdan c) EBSB d) NIC
2. _____________ Intergration is a healthy intermingling of the beliefs and rituals of two cultures.
a) National b) Cultural c) Economic d) Social
3. __________ Injustice gives rise to indifferent tendencies in society.
a) Social b) Economic c) Religious d) All of the above
4. The decline of purchasing power of a given currency over time is called__________
a) Inflation b) Inclination c) Propensity d) Tendency
5. Social integration __
a) Acceptance of law of society
b) Adoption of common set of rules of society
c) Fundamental rights and opportunities to the society
d) All of the above
6. Nationalism requires____________________________.
a) Working in a systematic manner all the time
b) Keeping in view the nation before self
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
7. National security Doctrine includes the following key elements__
a) Political b) Social economic c) Both A and B d) None of the above
8. National Intergration refers to-
a) Feeling of togetherness
b) Unity among the people
c) Atmoshphere where all people can live together peacefully
d) All of the above
9. The feeling of togetherness and a sense of belongingness are absolutely necessary for a nation to _____
a) Survive b) Provide strength to people
c) Fight against evil forces d) All of the above
10. What kind of bond National Intergration creates amongst the people of country?
a) Emotional b) Spritual c) Economical d) Both a & b
11. What is the reason for economic inequality in Country?
a) Unemploymet / Underemployment b) Inflation
c) Formers distress d) All of the above
12. The main reason for low level of income of the majority of Indian People?
a) Unemployment b) Underemployment
c) Both a & b d) None of these
13. The economic conditions of landless workers and marginal formers ________ over the years.
a) Deteriorated b) break down c) contaminated d) meliorate
14. Social Intergration is a movement of __________ groups.
a) Majority b) Minorities
c) Economic weaker section d) Landless weakers
15. Which one is a divisive force that is working out time to divide the Nation?
a) Religious group b) Linguistic group
c) Regional group d) All of the above
16. Which factors are responsible for rise of communalism in our country?
a) Large scale illiteracy b) Superstitions
c) Both a & b d) None of the above
16. Which factors affect national integration
a) Political Motives b) Lack of education
c) Casteism d) All of the above
17. What is the measure to achieve national intergration?
a) Permotion of Seculerism b) Role of Politics
c) Education d) All of the above
18. What is socio economic reforms?
a) Provision of equal rights and opportunities
b) Provision of education to all
c) Prohibiting any sort of activity creating communal reactions in the public
d) None of the above
19. Which one of these is fundamental of unity in diversity?
a) Geographical unity b) Cultural unity
c) Ethnic coenistence d) All of these
Section-B
Very Short Answer Questions
Q.1 Define the following:
i. National Integration, Unity in diversity
ii. Communalism, National security
iii. Social Disparity, Jihaadi Terrorism
iv. Nationalism and Patriotism
Section-C
Short Answer Questions
Q.2 What is the importance of National integration, specially in India?
Q.3 Explain the necessity of National Integration.
Q.4 What are the parts of National Integration?
Q.5 List the factors affecting National Integration.
Q.6 What measures can be taken to achieve National Integration?
Q.7 What are the fundamentals of unity in Diversity?
Section-D
Long Answer Questions
Q.8 What is the role of NCC / NCC cadets in Nation Building?
Q.9 Define National security. What are the threats to National Security?
Q.10 What are the internal threats to National Security?
Q.11 What are the attributes of National Security?
Q.12 What is included in National Security doctrine?
Q.13 Why National Integration is important for the progress of any Nation?
Q.14 Write the names of five elements hindering national integration.
Q.15 Write the names of five elements helping National Integration.
Section-E (CASE STUDIES)
IMPORTANCE OF NATIONAL INTEGRATION IN INDIA
1. India is a sovereign, democratic, secular country. It is a secular country where the people of all religions
worship without any hindrance according to their religious practices, though subject to law and order.
Geographically and linguistically India has a variety, it is our unity in diversity. Indian people in different states
and regions eat different kinds of food. They wear different clothes, they speak different languages, they have
different castes and observe different religious practices, still, they are Indian. National integration is the awareness
of a common identity among citizens of the country, this means that although we belong to different religions
and speak different languages, we recognise the fact that we are all one. National Integration arises through the
behaviour and determination of citizens. It is the duty of every person as a citizen to oppose the forces and
ideas that weaken national unity and integration. National Integration makes the sense of the essential oneness
of the nation. It is the sense of identity and solidarity among all citizens of the nation. National Integration is the
cementing force that binds the citizens of the country into a unified entity. When it comes to the factors that
hinder national integration there are many. Linguism, Regionalism, Communalism, Casteism are some of
them. In India, there are many languages spoken in different parts of the country. This develops a sort of
regional patriotism which threats the unity of India. The division of the country into different states and union
territories has caused a great change in the feeling of the Indian people. Mutual jealousies and rivalries among
the people of different regions grown up so much that they went to achieve the progress and development of
their regions only. Religion is found one of the major factors that hinders national integration. A bond of
togetherness between people irrespective of their caste, creed, religion and gender is national integration. This
is a feeling of oneness and brotherhood in a country where diversity is the main ethos. National Integration
keeps the entire country strong, despite the differences in culture, language and main livelihood. A country like
India has people from different cultures, languages and races. National Integration helps in keeping the stability
of the country and helps in the development. It nourishes communal harmony and fights casteism, regionalism
and linguistic differences. It enhances the feeling of loyalty towards the nation and aims at unifying people.
Q1. Why is India called a sovereign state?
Q2. What role does secularism play promoting in national integration?
Q3. How India is a federal country?
Beyond the classroom
https://youtu.be/x2zT8Bsi4ww
Watch the above video and answer the questions that follow:-
(a) Explain the concept of national security.
(b) Explain the internal and external threats to national security.
 ELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
NCC Assignment - 2023-2024
Class-XII, Unit-III
CH- COMMUNICATION
Section -A
1. -------- is the easy transformation of thoughts and ideas from one individual to another
a. fax b. phone
c. Wi-Fi d. communication
2. Which one is not a part of communication?
a. sign language b. voice
c. written script d. Aerobics
3. Radio wave is a type of--
a. line communication b. communication
c. radio program d. none of the above
4. In modern battlefield activities of Army communication becomes very----
a. high speed b. complex
c. simple d. advance
5. What kind of communication does the commander need with his troop to get desired result
a. frequent b. regular
c. habitual d. Periodic
6. Who invented telephone --
a. Mari Cury b. Alfred Russell well
c. Alexander Graham Bell d. Thomas Edison
7. Which invention become a revolution in the field of communication?
a. Telephone b. net radio
c. Wi-Fi d. Relay radio
8. What is the basic mean of signal communication for the force ?
a. radio communication b. line communication
c. net radio d. relay Radio
9. Find out the advantages of LINE Communication -
a. Expensive to handle b. Inflexible
c. It is secure d. Energy consuming
10. Which one is not an advantage of line communication?
a. Reliable & Practically free b. Relatively secure
c. Message carring capability is more d. Takes time to construct
11. What is the best means of secret communication between individuals?
a. telephone b. internet
c. modem d. none of the above
12. One way voice communication developing on the type of equipment available is called
a. radio telephone b. radio telegraphy
c. printers d. None of these
13. Radio communication requires the use of ----. and ------ equipment?
a. energy and modem b. transmitted and receiving
c. frequency and transmission
14. A mechanical wave transfer energy through ------
a. public source b. medium
c. vacuum d. none of the above
15. Which wave can travel through the vacuum of outspace
a. mechanical b. electromagnetic
c. propagation d. none of the above
16. What is the full form of EMW -----
a. Electro magnetic waves b. extra magnetic waves
c. Electric modified waves d. none of the above
17. Radio communication involves---+
a. net and radio relay b. Wi-Fi technology
c. wireless data d. none of the above
21. Instructions: Consist of the following two items. Two statements, one labeled a Assertion (A) and the
other as Reason (R). You have to examine these two statements carefully and decide whether Assertion
(A) and Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion. Select the answer to these questions using the codes given below and mark your answer.
About the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(A) A computer is any calculating device. The name is derived from a Latin word "Computer" meaning
to reckon or compute.
(R) The term computer has come to mean a special type of calculating machine having certain
characteristics.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Section-B
Very Short Answer Questions
Q.1 What is the code sign?
Q.2 What do you mean by multiple call?
Q.3 What is the use of video phone?
Q.4 What is radiotelephony?
Q.5 How is information technology used in communication in armed forces?
Q.6 What are the rules of security in radio telephony?
Q.7 Write the characteristics of wireless technology.
Q.8 Explain different types of calls.
Section-C
Short Answer Questions
Q.1 What is the need of RT processer in Military.
Q.2 What are the benefits and demerits of mobile communications.
Q.3 What is the full form of FAX? Mention any one advantage of this type of mage system.
Q.5 What do you understand by speed in decision in mobile warfare.
Q.4 What is radio telephone?
Q.6 Which invention revolutionized the world of communication
Q.7 Enumerate any four types of satellites.
 Section-D
Long Answer Questions
Q.1 What are the advantages and disadvantages of LINE communication?
Q.2 Explain the concepts, latest trends and development in communication. List briefly about any four
communication devices.
Q.3 What are the advantages and disadvantages of internet.
Q.4 Write down the modes of communication of present age.
Q.5 What are the advantages and disadvantages of line communications?
Q.6 Why the efficient signal; communication is important for the Defence Forces?
Q.7 What are the advantages and disadvantages of Radio Relay?
Q.8 What is wireless data communication? what are its main flaws?
Section-E
Read the passage carefully and answer the question below
Information Technology or IT for short, refers to the creation, gathering, processing, storage, presentation and
dissemination of information, and also the processes and devices that enable all this to be done. IT stands
firmly on the hardware and software of a computer and the telecommunications infrastructure. Computers, as
we all know, have been in existence for over 50 years. For many of these years, they had been primarily used
for information processing. It is well known that year-by-year, computers are becoming more and more powerful
both in terms of their computational speeds and also their capacities for storing of data. What has made the big
difference in recent years is not the fact that individual computers have dramatically improved in their capabilities,
but that all those information islands are being connected by digital highways made possible through the use of
the telecommunications infrastructure by the computers, which, largely explains why the internet and the WWW
have begun to play such a significant role in our use of computers.
1. Information technology is commonly known as---
a) IT b) AT
c) FT d) None of the above
2. The creation, gathering, processing, storage, presentation and dissemination of information is called----
a) Artificial Intelligence b) Information technology
c) Informatics technology d) Both (a) and (b)
3. IT stands for------
a) Information regarding computer b) Software and hardware of computers
c) Telecommunication Infrastructure d) Both (b) and (c)
4. Indian Armed forces are using ------------------ to fulfill their requirements.
a) Information technologies b) Communication technologies
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above
Beyond the classroom
** Practical classes will be organised by the PI staff of the NCC unit based on the topic.
** Demonstration (wherever possible) will be given by the PI staff.
 िद ीप क ू ल, फरीदाबाद
िहं दी अित र काय – 2023-2024
क ा बारहवी ं , इकाई -तीन
ख -क
कैमरे म बं द अपािहज
िन िल खत ों के उ र िदए गए िवक ों म से चुिनए :
1. अब मु सकुराएँ गे हम' इस पं म 'हम' कौन ह?
क) दू रदशन वाले ख) अपािहज ग) दशक घ) किव
2. 'कैमरे म बंद अपािहज' क णा के मुखौटे म िछपी िकस की किवता है ?
क) दया की ख) परोपकार की ग) वा की घ) ू रता की
3. कैमरे म बं द अपािहज' किवता म कैमरा एक साथ ा िदखाना चाहता है ?
क) सामा की दु दशा और खु शी ख) समाचार और खे ल
ग) दशक और अपािहज रोते घ) नए और पु राने काय म
4. 'कैमरे म बंद अपािहज' किवता म समथ श वान' िकसे कहा जाता है?
क) कैमरामैन को ख) अपािहज को ग) दशकों को घ) दू रदशन वालों को
5. दू रदशन वाले बं द कमरे म िकसे लाए थे ?
क) दु बल को ख) सबल को ग) अपंग को घ) बीमार को
6. अपािहज के होठों पर ा िदखाई दे ता है ?
क) उलझन ख) कसमसाहट ग) पीड़ा घ) मु ान
7. कैमरे वाला िक साथ-साथ लाना चाहता है ?
क) नायक-नाियका ख) भाई-बहन ग) अपािहज-दशक घ) सखा-सखी
8. 'कैमरे म बंद अपािहज' किवता के किव ह-
क) रघुवीर सहाय ख) रघु वीर िसंह ग) रघुवीर साद घ) रघु वीर काश
9. हम िकसी पर बोलगे -
क) मंच पर ख) दू रदशन पर ग) रे िडयो पर घ) घर पर
10. हम ा ह?
क) श ख) दु बल ग) समथ घ) िनज व
11. हम िकसे लाएँ गे?
क) श वान को ख) शासना को ग) सेनापित को घ) दु बल को
12. दु बल को हम कहाँ ले जाएँ गे ?
क) मंच पर ख) बं द कमरे म ग) घर पर घ) मेले म
13. हम दू रदशन पर ा बोलगे ?
क) हम अश और अ ानी ह ख) हम बे कार और बे करार ह
ग) हम समथ और श वान ह घ) हम अपं ग और लाचार ह
14. अपािहज से दू रदशन काय म-संचालक िकस कार के पूछता है?
क) अथपूण ख) तकसंगत ग) भावपू ण घ) अथहीन
15. अपािहज ा नही ं बता पाएगा?
क) अपना सुख ख) अपना दु ः ख ग) अपना साम घ) अपनी श
16. काय म को रोचक बनाने के िलए हम अपािहज को ा करते ह?
क) ला दे ते ह ख) हँ सा दे ते ह ग) नचा दे ते ह घ) गाना गवा दे ते ह
17. कैमरे वाले परदे पर अपािहज की ा िदखाएँ गे ?
क) हँ सी ख) रोने से फूली आँ ख ग) अपंगता घ) नृ का
18. कैमरा एक साथ ा िदखाना चाहता है ?
क) समाचार और खे ल ख) रोशनी और अंधेरा
ग) दशक और अपािहज रोते ए घ) ुतकता और दशक रोते ए
19. परदे पर िकस की कीमत है ?
क) दशक की ख) अपािहज की ग) ुतकता की घ) व की
20. काय म समा करते ए ु तकता ा करे गा?
क) मु ारकर ध वाद ख) खे दपूण ध वाद ग) रोते ए ध वाद घ) कुछ भी नही ं
21. ुतकता दशकों को ा रखने के िलए अनुरोध करता है ?
क) शां ित ख) धैय ग) िह त घ) दया
22. ुतकता 'बस करो, नही ं आ, रहने दो' ों कहता है ?
क) अपािहज और दशक नही ं रोए ख) ु तकता और दशक नही ं रोए
ग) अपािहज और ुतकता नही ं रोए घ) कैमरा खराब हो गया
23. परदे पर िकस की कीमत बताई गई?
क) अपािहज की ख) कैमरामै न की ग) व की घ) अिभने ता की
24. कैमरे वाले एक और कोिशश ों करना चाहते ह?
क) त ीर साफ िदखाने के िलए
ख) काय म को आकषक बनाने के िलए
ग) अपािहज की अपंगता को उभारने के िलए
घ) चम ार उ करने के िलए
25. 'कैमरे म बंद अपािहज' किवता िकस पर ं है?
क) अपािहजों पर ख) दशक पर ग) व था पर घ) दू रदशन वालों पर
26. दू रदशन वाले िकस की सं वेदना से खलवाड़ कर रहे ह?
क) कैमरामै न ख) दशकों ग) ु तकता घ) अपािहज
27. दू रदशन पर िकस उ े से यु काय म िदखाया जा रहा था?
क) धािमक ख) वै ािनक ग) मनोवै ािनक घ) सामािजक
िन िल खत का ां शों को ानपूवक पढ़कर स संग ा ा कीिजए और नीचे िदए ों के उ र दीिजए-
1. हम दू रदशन पर बोलगे
हम् समथ श वान
हम एक दु बल को लाएँ गे
एक बंद कमरे म
उससे पू छगे तो आप ा अपािहज ह?
तो आप ों अपािहज ह?
आपका अपािहजपन तो दु ख दे ता होगा दे ता है ?
(कैमरा िदखाओ इसे बड़ा-बड़)
हाँ तो बताइए आपका दु ख ा ह
ज ी बताइए वह दु ख बताइए
बता नही ं पाएगा।

2. सोिचए बताइए
आपको अपािहज होकर कैसा लगता ह
कैसा
यानी कैसा लगता ह
(हम खु द इशारे से बताएँगे िक ा ऐसा?)
सोिचए
बताइए
थोड़ी कोिशश क रए
(यह अवसर खो दगे ?)
आप जानते ह िक काय म रोचक बनाने के वा े
हम पू छ-पूछकर उसको ला दगे
इं तजार करते ह आप भी उसके रो पड़ने का करते ह

3. िफर हम परदे पर िदखलाएं गे

फुल ई आँ ख काँ एक बडी तसवीर
ब त बड़ी तसवीर
और उसके होंठों पर एक कसमसाहट भी
(आशा ह आप उसे उसकी अपगता की पीड़ा मानगे )
एक और कोिशश
दशक
धीरज र खए
 दे खए
हम दोनों को एक सा लाने ह
आप और वह दोनों
(कैमरा बस् करो नही ं आ रहने दो परदे पर व की कीमत है )
अब मुसकुराएँ गे हम
आप दे ख रहे थे सामािजक उ े से यु काय म
(बस थोड़ी ही कसर रह गई)
ध वाद!
पहलवान की ढोलक
1. िसयारों का ं दन और पे चक की डरावनी आवाज़ कभी-कभी िन ता को अव भंग कर अव सु नाई
पड़ती थी ब े भी कभी-कभी िनबल कंठो से माँ - माँ पुकारकर रो पड़ते थे | पर दे ती थी | गां व की झोंपिडयों
से कराहने और कै करने की आवाज़, 'हरे राम ! हे भगवान!' की टे र अव सुनाई पड़ती थी | ब े भीकभी-
कभी िनबल कंठो से माँ माँ पु कारकर रो पड़ते थे | पर . इससे राि की िन ता म िवशेष बाधा नही ं पड़ती
थी | इससे राि की िन ता म िवशेष बाधा नही ं पड़ती थी । कु ों म प र थित को ताड़ने की एक िवशेष
बु होती है वे िदन भर राख के घूरों पर गठरी -की तरह िसकुड़कर, मन मारकर पड़े रहते थेसं ा या गं भीर
राि को सब िमलकर रोते थे | (राि अपनी भीषणताओं के साथ चलती रहती और उसकी सारी भीषणता को,
ताल ठोककर ललकारती रहती थी- िसफ पहलवान कीढोलक!
अ. राि की िन ता का ा कारण था
क. महामारी का फैलना ख. िवदे शी आ मण
ग. भयानक गरीबी घ. अँ धेरी रात
ब. िन ता िकन कारणों से और अिधक भयानक हो रही थी?
क. झोंपिडयों से कराहने और कै करने की आवाज़ से
ख. िसयारों का ं दन और पेचक की डरावनी आवाज़ से
ग. ब ों के रोने की आवाज़ से
घ. उपयु सभी
स. िकसम प र थित को ताड़ने की एक िवशे ष बु होती है ?
क. मनु ों म ख. पेड़-पौधों म
ग. कु ों म घ. ब ों म
ड. राि की भीषणता को कौन ललकारता था?
क. लु न िसंह ख. पहलवान की ढोलक
ग. राजा घ. महामारी
इ. ग ां श म िकस पहलवान का उ ेख है?
क. चाँद िसंह ख. लु न िसंह
ग. ाम िसं ह घ. दारा िसंह
2. राि की िवभीिषका को िसफ पहलवान की ढोलक ही ललकारकर चुनौती दे ती रहती थी* पहलवान सं ा से
सु बह तक, चाहे िजसखयाल से ढोलक बजाता हो, िकंतु गाँ व के अ मृत, औषिध उपचार- प िवहीन ािणयों
म यह सं जीवनी श ही भरती थी । बू ढेजवानों की श हीन आँ खों के आगे दं गल का नाचने लगता
था ंदन - श शू ायुओं म भी िबजली दौड़ जाती थी ।अव ही ढोलक की आवाज म न तो बुखार
हटाने का कोई गु ण था और न महामारी की सवनाश श को रोकने की श ही, परइसम संदेह नही ं िक
मरते ए ािणयों को आँ ख मूंदते समय कोई तकलीफ़ नही ं होती थी, मृ ु से वे डरते नही ं थे। िजस िदन
पहलवानके दोनों बेटे ू र काल की चपेटाघात म पड़े , असहवा वेदना से छटपटाते ए दोनों ने कहा था बाबा !
उठा पटक दो वाला ताल बजाओ।"

अ. पहलवान की ढोलक िकसे ललकार लगाती थी?

क. पहलवान को ख. राि की िवभीिषका को
ग. संजीवनी श को घ. इनम से कोई नही ं
ब. "बाबा उठा पटक दो वाला ताल बजाओ" यह िकसने कहा?
क. गां व वालों ने ख. दं गल के पहलवानों ने
 ग. पहलवान के लड़कों ने घ. सभी ने
स. ग ां श म गां व की िकस थित का वणन है?
क. दं गल का ख. महामारी का
ग. ू ल का घ. चुनाव का
ड. बू ढ़े ब ों और जवानों की श हीन आँ खों के आगे दं गल का ों नाचने लगता ?
क. पहलवान को दे खकर
ख. पहलवान के बेटों को दे खकर
ग. पहलवान की ढोलक की आवाज़ सु नकर
घ. पेचक की आवाज़
इ. गां व म संजीवनी श का काम कौन कराती है?
क. पहलवान की आवाज़ ख. ढोलक की आवाज़
ग. गायों की आवाज़ घ. पेचक की आवाज़
3. िवजयी लु न कूदता - फाँदता, ताल ठोंकता सबसे पहले बाजे वालों की ओर दौड़ा और ढोलों को ापूवक
णाम िकया िफरदौड़कर उसने राजा साहब को गोद म उठा िलया राजा साहब के कीमती कपडे िम ी म सन
गए मैनेजर साहब ने आपि की - "ह - ह अरे - रे !" िक ु राजा साहब ने यं उसे छाती से लगाकर ग द
होकर कहा "जीते रहो बाहदू र ! तुमने िम ी - की लाज रख ली!"
पंजाबी पहलवानों की जमायत आँ खे पोंछ रही थी । लु न को राजा साहब ने पुर ृ त ही नही ं िकया, अपने
दरबार म सदा के िलए रखिलया | तब से लु न राज-पहलवान हो गया और राजा साहब उसे लु न िसंह कहकर
पुकारने लगे । राज पं िडतों ने मुंह िबचकाया -" ज़ूर ! जाित का िसं ह!"
अ. लु न ने िवजयी होने पर सबसे पहले िकसे णाम िकया?
क. राजा को ख. सास को
ग. भगवान् को घ. ढोल को
ब. लु न ारा राजा साहब को गोद म उठाने पर िकसने आपि की?
क. राजा साहब ने ख. मैनेजर ने
ग. राज पं िडतों ने घ. पंजाबी पहलवानों ने
स. राजा साहब ने लु न को िकस कार पुर ृ त िकया?
क. इनाम दे कर ख. शं सा कर
ग. गले लगाकर घ. राज पहलवान बनाकर
ड. पंजाबी पहलवान िकसकी आँ खे पोंछ रहे थे?
क. चाँद िसंह की ख. लु ् न की
ग. राजा साहब की घ. मैनेजर की
इ. राज पं िडतों ारा लु न की िवरोध से समाज की िकस बु राई की ओर संकेत िकया गया है ?
क. दास था की ओर ख. जाित था की ओर
ग. े ीयता की ओर घ. सां दाियकता की ओर

ो र
क। लु न को कैसे कु ी के समय ढोल की आवाज और लु न के दाँ व-पच म ा तालमेल था? पाठ म आए
ा क श और ढोल की आवाज़ आपके मन म कैसी िन पैदा करते ह, उ श दीिजए।
ख। कहानी के िकस-िकस मोड़ पर लु न के जीवन म ा- ा प रवतन आए?
ग। पहलवान की ढोलक' पाठ के आधार बताइए िक लु न िसंह ढोल को अपना गु ों मानता था?
घ। महामारी फैलने के बाद गाँव म सू य दय और सूय के दू म ा अंतर होता था?
ॾ। पहलवान लु न के सुख-चै न भरे िदनों का वणन अपने श ों म कीिजए।

भ न
1.2 जीवन के दू सरे 2 प र े द म भी सु ख की अपे ा दु ख ही अिधक है। जब उसने गे ए रं ग और बिटया जै से मुख
वाली पहली क ा के दोसं रण और कर डाले तब सास और िजठािनयों ने ओठ िबचकाकर उपे ा कट
की। उिचत भी था, ोंिक तीनतीन कमाऊ वीरों कीिवधा ी बनकर मिछया के ऊपर - िवराजमान पु र खन के
पद पर अिभिष हो चु की थी और दोनों िजठािनयों काक भुशंडी जैसे कालेलालों * की मब सृ ि करके
 इस पद के िलए उ ीदवार थी ं। छोटी ब के लीक छोड़कर चलने के कारण उसे दं ड िमलना आव कहो
गया।
1. जीवन के दू सरे प र े द से ा आशय है ?
क. वैवािहक जीवन ख. अवै वािहक जीवन
ग. स ास जीवन घ. इनम से कोई नही ं ।
2. भ ारा तीन क ाओं को ज दे ने पर सास और िजठािनयों की ा िति या थी?
क. मु ु राकर शं सा की ख. ओठ िबचकाकर उपे ा कट की
ग. खु शी से नाचने लगी घ. हँ सकर खुशी कट की
3. दोनों िजठािनयां सास के पद के िलए कैसे उ ीदवार हो गई?
क. भ न का अपहास करके ख. पु ों को ज दे कर
ग. भ न से धा करके घ. मयादा पूण वहार ारा
4. लीक छोड़कर चलने ' का मतलब है
क. सभी के साथ िमलकर चलना -
ख. पुरानी परं परा पर चलना
ग. पुरातन तरीके से अलग नए तरीके से चलना
घ. इनम से कोई नही ं
5. िवधा ी का योग िकसके िलए आ है ?
क. जे ठािनयों के िलए- ख. भ न के िलए
ग. बे िटयों के िलए घ. सास के िलए।
1.3 शा का भी भ न अपनी सु िवधा के अनुसार सुलझा लेती है मुझे यों का िसर घुटाना अ ा नही ं
लगता, अतः मने भ न को रोका। उसने अकुंिठत भाव से उ र िदया िक शा म िलखा है। कुतुहलवश म
पूछ ही बैठी ा िलखा है "? तुरंत उ र िमला। कौन से तीरथ गए मुडाएँ िस - शा का यह रह म सू है
यह जान लेना मेरे िलए सं भव ही नही ं था। अतः म हार कर मौन हो रहीऔर भ न का चू ड़ाकम हर
बृ ह ितवार को, एक द र नािपत के गं गाजल से धु ले उ रे ारा यथािविध िन होता रहा ।।
1 ले खका को ा अ ा नही ं लगता?
ग. यों का िसर घुटाना ।
घ. शा की गलत ा ा दे ना
2. ा बोलकर भ ने िसर घुटने को सही माना ?
क. िव ान के उदाहरण ारा
ख. अपनी तं ता कहकर
ग. गु वचन ारा
घ. इनम से कोई नही ं
3. ले खका िकस काय म हार गयी ?
क. भ न को समझाने म
ख. भारत सं बंिधत जानकारी ा करने म
ग. भ न ारा बताए गए रह मयी सू के ोत जानने म
घ. उपरो सभी
4. यथािविध समास का नाम ा है ?
क. अ यीभाव ख. त ु ष
ग. ब ीिह घ. ं
5. अकुंिठत श के िलए उिचत िवक कौन सा है ?
क. मूल श ख. उपसग यु श
ग. य यु श - घ. उपसग और य यु श है ।

1. भ न पाठ के आधार पर पंचायतों की ा त ीर उभरती है ?

क) पं चायत गूं गी, लाचार और अयो ह
ख) वे सही ाय नहीं कर पाती ं
ग) वे दू ध का दू ध और पानी का पानी करती ह
 घ) वे अपने ाथ को पूरा करती ह
2. भ न िकस कार का भोजन बनाती थी?
क) तीखा और मसाले दार ख) तीखा और मीठा ग) सीधा-सरल भोजन घ) ािद और ग र
3. भ न म कौन-सा भाव बल था?
क) वीरता का भाव ख) ािभमान का भाव ग) घृ णा का भाव घ) ई ा का भाव
4. खोटे िस ों की टकसाल का अथ ा है ?
क) िनक े काम करने वाली प ी ख) बेकार प ी
ग) िजस टकसाल से खोटे िस े िनकलते ह घ) क ाओं को ज दे ने वाली प ी
5. महादे वी ने लछिमन को भ न कहना ों आरं भ कर िदया?
क) उसके वहार को दे खकर ख) उसके वै रा पूण जीवन को दे खकर
ग) उसके गले म कंठी माला दे खकर घ) उसकी शां त मु ा को दे खकर
6. भ न िकसके िलए लड़ाई लड़ती रही?
क) अपने अ के िलए ख) अपने पित के जीवन के िलए
ग) महादे वी के िलए घ) अपनी बेिटयों के हक के िलए
7. 'भ न' पाठ की रचियता ह
क) जैन कुमार ख) महादे वी वमा ग) सुभ ा कुमारी चौहान घ) रांगेय राघव
8. भ न महादे वी से िकतने वष बड़ी थी?
क) पं ह वष ख) प ीस वष ग) तीस वष घ) बीस वष
9. भ न िकसके समान अपनी मालिकन के साथ लगी रहती थी?
क) छाया के समान ख) धूप के समान ग) वायु के समान घ) पालतु पशु के समान
10. भ न का शूरवीर िपता िकस गाँव का रहने वाला था?
क) मूंसी ख) लूसी ग) झूसी घ) हँ िडया
11. भ न का वा िवक नाम ा था?
क) भ न ख) लछिमन (ल ी) ग) दािसन घ) पावती
12. भ न का िववाह िकस गाँव म आ?
क) हँ िडया ख) कँिडया ग) पँ िडया घ) मँ िडया
13. भ न का गौना िकस आयु म आ?
क) नौ वष ख) बारह वष ग) ते रह वष घ) दस वष
14. भ न की िकतनी िजठािनयाँ थी ं?
क) तीन ख) चार ग) दो घ) पाँच
15. भ न का िववाह िकस आयु म आ?
क) सात वष ख) चार वष ग) आठ वष घ) पाँच वष
16. महादे वी ने भ न के जीवन को िकतने प र े दों म िवभ िकया है ?
क) तीन ख) चार ग) सात घ) पाँच
17. भ न का नामकरण िकसने िकया?
क) सास ने ख) पित ने ग) िजठािनयों ने घ) महादे वी ने
18. ससुराल म भ न के साथ स वहार िकसने िकया?
क) िजठािनयों ने ख) पित ने ग) सास ने घ) ससुर ने
19. सास और िजठािनयाँ भ न के साथ कैसा वहार करती थी ं?
क) ू रतापू ण ख) ेहपू ण ग) दयापूण घ) ेमपूण
20. भ न के ससुराल वालों ने उसके पित की मृ ु पर उसे पु निववाह के िलए ों कहा?
क) तािक भ न सुखी वैवािहक जीवन तीत कर सके
ख) तािक वे भ न की घर-संपि को हिथया सक
ग) तािक वे भ न से छु टकारा पा सक
घ) तािक वे भ न को पुनः समाज म स ान दे सक
21. हमारा समाज िवधवा के साथ कैसा वहार करता है ?
क) ेहपू ण ख) अस ानपू ण ग) सहानुभूितपूण घ) स ानपू ण

िन िल खत गदयांशों को पढ़कर पूछे गए ों के उ र दीिजए-

1:
से वक- धम म हनुमान जी से ् धा करने वाली भ न िकसी अंजना की पु ी न होकर एक अनामध ा गोपािलका की क ा
है -नाम है लछिमन अथात ल ी। पर जैसे मेरे नाम की िवशालता मेरे िलए दु वह है , वैसे ही ल ी की समृ भ न के
 कपाल की कुंिचत रे खाओं म नही ं बँध सकी। वै से तो जीवन म ाय: सभी को अपने-अपने नाम का िवरोधाभास लेकर
जीना पड़ता है; पर भ न ब त समझदार है , ोंिक वह अपना समृ सूचक नाम िकसी को बताती नही ं। :
2: िपता का उस पर अगाध ेम होने के कारण भावत: ई ालु और सं पि की र ा म सतक िवमाता ने उनके मरणांतक
रोग का समाचार तब भे जा, जब वह मृ ु की सूचना भी बन चुका था। रोने -पीटने के अपशकुन से बचने के िलए सास ने
भी उसे कुछ न बताया। ब त िदन से नैहर नही ं गई, सो जाकर दे ख आवे , यही कहकर और पहना-उढ़ाकर सास ने उसे
िवदा कर िदया। इस अ ािशत अनु ह ने उसके पै रों म जो पं ख लगा िदए थे , वे गाँ व की सीमा म प ँचते ही झड़ गए।
'हाय लछिमन अब आई' की अ पुनरावृ ि याँ और सहानुभूितपू ण ि याँ उसे घर तक ठे ल ले गई। पर वहाँ न
िपता का िचहन शेष था, न िवमाता के वहार म िश ाचार का लेश था। दु ख से िशिथल और अपमान से जलती ई वह
उस घर म पानी भी िबना िपए उलटे पै रों ससुराल लौट पड़ी। सास को खरी-खोटी सु नाकर उसने िवमाता पर आया आ
ोध शां त िकया और पित के ऊपर गहने फक-फककर उसने िपता के िचर िवछोह की मम था की।

जूझ
1. लेखक का दादा ज ी को ों चलाता था?
क) ज ी काम ख करने के िलए ख) अिधक पै से के िलए
ग) अपनी आवारागद के िलए घ) आराम करने के िलए
2. लेखक की क ा के मॉनीटर का नाम ा था?
क) वसंत पाटील ख) च ाण पाटील ग) मनोहर पाटील घ) राव पाटील
3. कहानी के शीषक 'जूझ' का अथ है -
क) संघष ख) चालाकी` ग) मे हनत घ) किठनाई
4. 'जूझ' पाठ के रचियता का नाम है -
क) फणी र नाथ रे णु ख) आनंद यादव ग) धमवीर भारती घ) मनोहर ाम जोशी
5. 'जूझ' उप ास मूलतः िकस भाषा म रिचत है ?
क) मराठी ख) गु जराती ग) अवधी घ) ज
6. 'जूझ' के कथानायक का ा नाम बताया गया है ?
क) आनंदा ख) द ा जी राव ग) मोहन आनंद घ) कमल आनं द
7. पाठशाला जाने की बात ले खक ने सबसे पहले िकससे की?
क) दादा से ख) माँ से ग) द ा जी राव से घ) सौंदलगेकर से
8. पढ़ाई के िलए ले खक अपनी माँ के साथ िकसके पास गया?
क) द ा जी राव ख) दादा ग) सौंदलगेकर घ) इनम से कोई नही ं
9. सौंदलगे कर िकस िवषय का अ ापक था?
क) अं े ज़ी का ख) गिणत का ग) मराठी का घ) सं ृ त का
10. ले खक की माँ के अनुसार उसका पित िदनभर िकसके पास रहता है?
क) बाला बाई ख) रखमाबाई ग) लखमा बाई घ) मु ी बाई
11. खेत का कौन-सा काम समा होने के बाद लेखक ने माँ से पढ़ाई की बात की?
क) पानी लगाने का काम ख) िबजाई का काम ग) कटाई का काम घ) को का काम
12. लेखक पढ़ना ों चाहता है ?
क) ान के िलए ख) नौकरी के िलए ग) िव ान बनने के िलए घ) किव बनने के िलए
13. लेखक की माँ के अनुसार पढ़ाई की बात करने पर लेखक का िपता कैसे गु राता है ?
क) कु े के समान ख) शेर के समान
ग) जंगली सूअर के समान घ) चीते के समान
14. ले खक की माँ के अनुसार उसके पित ने ले खक को पाठशाला जाने से ों रोक िदया?
क) खच से बचने के िलए ख) बीमारी से बचने के िलए
ग) अनपढ़ता से बचने के िलए घ) खु द काम से बचने के िलए
15. दादा राव साहब के यहाँ त ाल ों चला गया?
क) अपना स ान समझकर ख) डरकर ग) पै सों के लालच से घ) घबराकर
16. लेखक के िपता का नाम ा था?
क) रतना ा ख) कृ ा ा ग) रामा ा घ) मोहना ा
17. शत के अनुसार पाठशाला जाने से पहले लेखक को सवेरे िकतने बजे तक खेत म काम करना होता था?
क) 10 बजे तक ख) 9 बजे तक ग) 11 बजे तक घ) 8 बजे तक
18. ू ल से छु ी के बाद लेखक को िकतने घंटे पशु चराने होते थे?
क) दो घं टे ख) तीन घं टे ग) चार घं टे घ) एक घंटा
19. लेखक के क ा अ ापक का नाम ा था?
 क) वसंत ख) सौंदलगे कर ग) मं ी घ) मोहन
20. "जूझ' कहानी से लेखक की िकस वृि का उद् घाटन आ है?
क) पढ़ने की वृ ि का ख) किवता करने की वृ ि का
ग) लेखन वृि का घ) संघषमयी वृि का
21. िजस शरारती लड़के ने लेखक के िसर से गमछा छीना था, उसका नाम ा था?
क) वसंत ख) च ाण ग) मनोहर घ) सु र
22. लेखक को गिणत पढ़ाने वाले मा र का ा नाम था?
क) वसंत ख) सौंदलगे कर ग) मं ी घ) रतना ा
23. ले खक के दादा (िपता) की कैसी वृि थी?
क) प र मी ख) गु ैल और िहं सक ग) िवन घ) अिहं सक

ख -ब
फीचर लेखन फ़ीचर िकसे कहते ह?
अथवा
फ़ीचर से आप ा समझते ह? फ़ीचर अं े जी भाषा का श है , िजसका अथ है-आकृित, ल ण, िवशेषता या
। समाचार प एवं पि काओं म फ़ीचर श का योग एक िवशे ष कार के ानवधक, मनोरं जक
और उ ु कता उ करने वाले लेख के संदभ म िकया जाता है।

2. फ़ीचर की प रभाषा दीिजए।

उ र फ़ीचर एक सु व थत, सृजना क और आ िन लेखन होता है, िजसका उ े पाठकों को सूचना
दे ने एवं िशि त करने के साथ-साथ उनका मनोरं जन करना भी होता है ।
3. फ़ीचर और समाचार म मु अंतर समझाइए।
उ र फ़ीचर सु व थत, सृ जना क और आ िन लेखन होता है , िजसका उ े पाठकों को सूचना दे ना
िशि त करना तथा उनका मनोरं जन करना होता जबिक समाचार पाठकों को ता ािलक घटना म स
अवगत कराते ह।
4. फ़ीचर लेखन और समाचार लेखन के तरीके म ा अंतर होता है ?
उ र फ़ीचर लेखन म ले खक के पास अपनी राय, ि कोण और भावनाएँ करने का अवसर होता है ,
जबिक समाचार लेखन म व ु िन ता और श ों की शु ता - पर जोर िदया जाता है िजसम संपादक
अपने िवचार नहीं डाल सकता है।
5. फ़ीचर लेखन और समाचार लेखन की शै ली म ा अंतर होता है ?
उ र फ़ीचर लेखन की कोई िवशे ष शै ली नही ं होती ह। इसे मु तया कथा क शैली म िलखा जाता है
जबिक समाचारों को उलटा िपरािमड शैली म िलखा जाता है।
6. फ़ीचर की भाषा की ा िवशे षता होती है ?
उ र फ़ीचर की भाषा सरल, पा क, आकषक और मन को छू लेने वाली होती है । इसम यह भी ान
रखना चािहए िक भाषा अिधक अलं का रक और दु ह न बनने पाए।
7. फ़ीचर लेखन की श -सीमा कीिजए।
उ र फ़ीचर लेखन की कोई अिधकतम श -सीमा नही ं होती है । फ़ीचर आकार म समाचारों से बड़े होते ह।
अख़बारों एवं पि काओं म फीचर 250 श ों से 2000 श ों तक िलखे जाते ह।
8. फीचर को अ ा और रोचक बनाने के िलए करना चािहए?
उ र फीचर को अ ा और रोचक बनाने के िलए इसके साथ फोटो, रे खां कन, ािफ आिद भी करने
चािहए।
9. फ़ीचर िलखते समय िकन बातो का ान रखना चािहए?
उ र फीचर िलखते समय उससे जुड़े पा ों मौजू दगी ज री है । उ ी ं के मा म से कहानी के पहलु ओं को
सामने लाना चािहए। इसके अलावा फ़ीचर मनोरं जक तथा सू चना क होने चािहए।
10. फीचर िकतने कार के होते ह?
उ र फीचर कई कार के होते ह समाचा बैक ाउं डर, खोजपरक फ़ीचर, सा ा ार फ़ीचर, जीवन शै ली
फ़ीचर, पा क फ़ीचर, गत फ़ीचर, या ा फ़ीचर आिद।
11. फ़ीचर टु कड़ों म बँ टा न िदखे, इसके िलए ा र करना चािहए?
उ र फ़ीचर टु कड़ों म बँ टा न िदखे इसके िलए उसके हर पै रा ाफ को अपने पहले वाले पैरा ाफ से सहजता
से जोड़ना चािहए तािक शु से अं त तक उसकी गित एवं वाह बना रहे । इसके अलावा पै रा ाफ छोटे
रखने चािहए।

दीर् घ)उ रा क
ो र
1. फ़ीचर से आप ा समझते ह?
उ र 'फ़ीचर' अं े जी भाषा का श है , िजसका अथ है-आकृित, ल ण, िवशेषता या ा ।फ़ीचर श संग
और संदभ के अनु सार अपने अथ म बदलाव लाता है । समाचार-प ों, पि काओं की दु िनया म फ़ीचर श का
योग एक िवशे ष कार के लेख के िलए िकया जाता है । समाचार प ों म िलखा गया फ़ीच ानवधक,
मनोरं जक और उ ु कता उ करने वाली वह सजना क िवधा है , िजसम िकसी घटना, संग अथवा सूचना
की पृ भूिम पर मनोरं जक ढं ग से िलखा गया कथा क िववरण होता है ।
2. फ़ीचर और समाचार म ा अंतर होता है
उ र फ़ीचर एक सु व थत, सृजना क और आ िन लेखन है । िजसका उ े पाठकों को सू चना
दे ना िशि त करना और उनका मनोरं जन करना होता है । यह पाठकों को िकसी घटना की ता ािलक
जानकारी नही ं दे ता है। इसके लेखन की शैली समाचार िलखने की शैली से अलग होती है। यह ऐसा आ िन
लेखन होता है , िजसमे लेखक अपनी राय और भावनाएं नही ं कर सकता। समाचार आकार म छोटे
होते ह िजनका उ े पाठकों को सूचना दे ना होता है ।
3. फ़ीचर लेखन म िकन-िकन बातों का ान रखना चािहए?
उ र फ़ीचर ऐसा लेख होता है िजसकी अपनी एक िवशे षता और पहचान होती है । इस कारण फ़ीचर समाचार प
और पि काओं म अपना िवशे ष थान रखता है । अ ा फ़ीचर िलखते समय उसे सजीव बनाने के िलए उसम
उस िवषय से जुड़े लोगों की उप थित ज़ री होती है । इसकी कहानी को उ ी ं के मा म से कहने का यास
करना चािहए तथा िविभ पहलुओं को सामने लाना चािहए िजससे पाठकों को यह अनु भव हो िक वे उसे खुद
दे ख-सुन रहे ह। फ़ीचर सूचना क होने के साथ-साथ मनोरं जक होता है, इस बात का सदै व ान रखना
चािहए। फ़ीचर का एक उ े होता है , िजसके चारों ओर सम ासंिगक सू चनाएँ , त और िवचार िमले-
जुले होते ह।
4. फ़ीचर को आ िन लेखन कहने के कारणों को कीिजए ।
उ र • फ़ीचर का लेखक अपने िवचारों, भावनाअ ि कोण को फ़ीचर म कर पाता है इसिल इसे
आ िन लेखन की े णी म रखा जाता है।
• कथा क शैली का योग, सरल-सहज भाष आकषक भाषा इ ािद के कारण।
• िवषय हलका अथवा गंभीर कुछ भी हो सकता है ।
िन िल खत िवषयों पर रचना क लेख िल खए :
क) झरोखे से बाहर
ख) इ हान के िदन
ग) हम नया सोचने- िलखने का यास नही ं करते ोंिक
 Delhi Public School, Faridabad
Applied Maths Assignments-2023-2024
Class-XII, Unit-III
Section A
Q.1 The function f(x)= + has a local minimum at
(a) x=1 (b) x=2 (c) x=-2 (d) x=-1
3 2
Q.2 The maximum slope of the curve y=-x +3x +9x-27 is
(a) 0 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 32
Q.3 If the cost function of a certain commodity is C(x) = 2000+50x- x2 , then the average cost
of producing 5 units is ₹
(a) ₹451 (b) ₹450 (c) ₹449 (d) ₹2245
Q.4 If the selling price of a commodity is fixed ₹ and the cost function is C(x)= 30x+ 240, then
the breakeven point is
(a) x=10 (b) x=12 (c) x=15 (d) x=16
Section B
Q.1 Show that the function f(x) = 4x - 18x2 + 27x - 7 is strictly increasing on R.
3

Q.2 Prove that the function f(x) = 5 - 3x + 3x2- x3 is decreasing on R.

Q.3 Prove that the following functions are neither increasing nor decreasing:
1
(i) f(x) = x2-x+1 on (-1,1) (ii) f(x) = +1
on R x2+1
Q.4 Find the intervals in which the function strictly increasing or strictly decreasing:
(i) f(x) = 4x3-6x2-72x+3
Q.5 Find the intervals in which the function f(x)= 2log(x-2)-x2+4x-5 is stricktly increasing or
strictly decreasing.
Q.6 Find the coordinates of stationary points on curve y = x3-3x2-9x+7, and distinguish between
points of local maxima and minima.
Q.7 Find the point of local maxima and minima (if any ) of the following functions. Find also
the local maxima and minimum values:
(i) f(x) = x2 (ii) f(x) = x3-3x
(iii) f(x) = x3-3x+3 (iv) f(x) = 2x3-6x2+6x+5
Section C
Q.1 A sheet of paper is to contain 18 cm2 of printed matter. The margins at the top and bottom
are 2 cm each, and at the sides 1 cm each. Find the dimensions of the sheet which require
the least amount of paper.
Q.2 A wire of length 36 cm is cut into two pieces. One of the piece is turned into the form of a
square and the other in the form of an equilateral triangle. Find the length of each piece so
that the sum of the areas of the two figures be minimum.
Q.3 Find the point on the curve x2=8y which is nearest to the point (2, 4).
Q.4 An open tank with a square base and vertical sides is to be constructed from a metal sheet
 so as to hold a given quantity of water. Show that the cost of material will be least when the
depth of the tank is half of its width.
Q.5 A cone is inscribed in a sphere of radius 12 cm. If the volume of the cone is maximum, find
its height.
Q.6 A manufacturer plans to construct a cylindrical can to hold one cubic metre of oil. If the
cost of constructing top and bottom of the can is twice the cost of constructing the side,
what are the dimensions of the most economical can?
Section D
Q.1 A publishing house that the cost directly attributed to each book is ₹30 and that the fixed
costs are ₹15,000. If each book can be sold for ₹45, then determine
(i) the cost function (ii) the revenue function
(iii) the breakdown point
Q.2 A firm paid ₹25,000 as rent of its office and ₹15,200 as the interest of the loan taken to
produce x units of a commodity. If the cost of production per unit is ₹8 and each item is
sold at a price of ₹75, find the profit function. Also, find the breakdown point.
Q.3 If the cost of production of x units is C(x) = 40-20x+10x2, find the average cost function
and the output x where average cost is minimum. Verify that the average cost is equal to the
marginal cost at this level of output.
Q.4 A product can be manufactured at a cost C(x)= + 100x+40, where x is the number of
units produced. The price at which each unit can be sold is given by P(x)=200- .
Determine the production level x at which the profit is maximum. What is the price per unit
and total profit at this level of production?

Q.5 A manufacturer can produce x items at a total cost ₹ 120𝑥 + .If he sells the whole
produce at ₹p per item, where p=2(100- ), then find the production level x at which the
profit is maximum. What is the price per item and the total profit?
Evaluate the following integrals
Q.6 ∫(2𝑥 + 𝑒 )𝑑𝑥

Q.7 ∫ 𝑑𝑥
√

Q.8 ∫ 𝑑𝑥

Q.9 ∫( )
𝑑𝑥

Q.10 ∫ 𝑑𝑥

Q.11 ∫ 𝑑𝑥

Q.12 ∫ ( )( )( )
𝑑𝑥

Q.13 ∫ ( ) (
𝑑𝑥
)

Q.14 ∫ 𝑑𝑥
( )

Q.15 ∫ ( )
𝑒 𝑑𝑥
Q.16 Using integration, find the area of the region bounded by the line 2y = 5x +7, x-axis and the
lines x = 2 and x = 8.
Q.17 (i) Find the area lying between die curve y2 = 4x and the line y = x.
(ii) Find the area of the region enclosed by the parabola y2 = 4 ax and the chord y = mx,
Q.18 (i) Find the area bounded by the curve x2 = 4y and the straight line x = 4y-2.
(ii) Find the area of the region bounded by the parabola y2= 2x and the straight line x-y = 4

Q.19 Sketch the graph of y = | x + 4|. Using integration, find the area of tine region under the
curve y = |x + 4| above x-axis and between x = -6 and x = 0.
Q.20 The demand and supply functions pd =25-x2 and ps=2x+1 respectively. Find the consumer’s
surplus and producer’s surplus at equilibrium price.
Q.21 Find the consumer’s surplus and producer’s surplus under pure competition for demand
function p= − 2 and supply function p= (𝑥 + 3), where p is the price and x is quantity

(Hint: Under pure competition, demand=supply)

Section E (Case Study based)
Q.1 A cable network provider in a small town has 500 subscribers and he used to collect ₹300
per month from each subscriber. He proposes to increase the monthly charges and it is
believed from past experience that for every increase of ₹1, one subscriber will discontinue
the service.
Base the above information, answer the following questions:
(i) If ₹ x is the monthly increase in subscription amount, then the number of subscribers are
(a) x (b) 500-x (c) x-500 (d) none of these
(ii) The revenue ‘R’ is given by (in ₹)
(a) R=300x+300(500-x) (b) R=(300+x)(500+x)

(c) R=(300+x)(500-x) (d) R=300x+500(x+1)

(iii) The numbers of subscribers which gives the maximum revenue is
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 300 (d) 400
(iv) What is increase in charges per subscriber that yields maximum revenue?
(a) x=₹100 (b) x=₹200 (c) x=₹300 (d) x=₹400
(v) The maximum revenue generated is
(a) ₹200000 (b) ₹180000 (c) ₹160000 (d) ₹150000
Q.2 A factory owner wants to construct a tank with rectangular base and rectangular sides, open at the
top, so that its depth is 2 m and capacity is 8 m3. The building of the tank costs ₹280 per square
metre for the base and ₹180 per square metre for the sides.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions:

(i) If the length and the breadth of the rectangular base of the tank are x metres and y metres
respectively, then the relation between x and y is

(a) x+y=4 (b) xy=4 (c) xy=8 (d) xy+x+y=4

(ii) The cost of construction of the base of the tank is

(a) ₹180(x+y) (b) ₹360(x+y) (c) ₹72(x+y) (d) ₹1120(x+y)

(iii) If C (in ₹) is the cost of construction of the tank, then C as a function of x
(a) C=1120+720 𝑥 + (b) C=720+1120 𝑥 +
(c) C=1120+360 𝑥 + (d) C=1120+180 𝑥 +
(iv) The cost of construction of the tank is least when the value of x is
(a) 1 (b) (c) 2 (d) 3
(v) The least cost of construction of the tank is
(a) ₹2000 (b) ₹3000 (c) ₹3600 (d) ₹4000

Q.3

The graph given above showing the demand and supply curves of a commodity, which are
linear. When the price of the commodity was ₹4000 per unit, Gulati & Sons sold 20 units
every month and when price dropped to ₹1000 per unit Gulati & Sons sold 120 units per
 month. When price was ₹4000 per unit, 200 units were available per month for sale and
based on the above information, answer the following questions:
(i) The demand function is
(a) D(x) = 30x - 4600 (b) D(x) = 4600 - 30x
(c) D(x) = 35x + 4500 (d) D(x) = 4500 - 35x
(ii) The supply function is
(a) S(x) = 20x (b) S(x) = 20x - 1500
(c) S(x) = 25x + 1500 (d) S(x) = 1500 - 20x
(iii) The equilibrium point is
(a) (100, 1500) (b) (83, 1760)
(c) (92, 1840) (d) (95, 1850)
(iv) The consumer surplus is
(a) ₹125460 (b) ₹126960
(c) ₹135500 (d) ₹135520
(v) The producer surplus is
(a) ₹86440 (b) ₹85670
(c) ₹90340 (d) ₹84640
𝑑𝑦
Q.4 Verify that xy = logy + c is a solution of the differential equation (xy-1) 𝑑𝑥 + y2 = 0.

Q.5 Shows that y2= 4a(x + a) is a solution of the differential equation y (1 - 𝑦 ) = 2xy.
Find the differential equations by eliminating the arbitrary constants and satisfied by the
following (6-7) equations:
Q.6 (i) x2 + (𝑦 − 𝑏)2 = 1, b is arbitrary constant
(ii) x2 + y2 =ax3 , a is arbitrary constant.
Q.7 y2= 4a(x – b) , a & b are is arbitrary constant.
Q.8 Find the differential equation of each of the following family of curves:
(i) Concentric circles with centre at (1, 2).
(ii) All circles which touch the x-axis at origin.
(iii) Circles in the first quadrant and touching the coordinate axes.
Solve the differential equation:
𝑑𝑦
Q.9 𝑒 = 1.
𝑑𝑥
𝑑𝑦
Q.10 Find the particular solution of the differential equation 𝑑𝑥 = -4xy2, given that y=1 when x=0
Q.11 Write an integrating factor of each of the following linear differential equations:
(i) ydx – (x + 2y2)dy =0, (ii) y𝑒 𝑑𝑥=(y3+2x𝑒 )𝑑𝑦 , y≠0
(iii) dx + xdy =(𝑒 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑦)𝑑𝑦 , 𝑦 >0 (iv) (1-y2) + yx = ay, |y|<1.

Solve the differential equation:

𝑑𝑦
Q.12 𝑑𝑥
+ 2𝑦 = 6𝑒
 𝑑𝑦
Q.13 If + 2𝑥𝑦 = 𝑥, then prove that 2y=1+𝑒 , given that y=1 when x=0
𝑑𝑥
𝑑𝑦
Q.14 Solve (x+2y2) 𝑑𝑥 = 𝑦, given that x=2 when y=1.
Q.15 In a culture, the bacteria count is 100000. The number is increased by 10% in 2 hours. In
how many hours will die count reach 200000, if the rate of growth of bacteria is
proportional to the number present?
Q.16 The rate at which radioactive substance decay is known to be proportional to the mass of
the substance present at that time in a given sample. If 100 grams of a radioactive substance
is present 1 year after the substance was produced and 75 grams is present 2 years after the
substance was produced, how much radioactive substance was produced?
Q.17 Assume that a spherical rain drop evaporates at a rate proportional to its surface area. If its radius
originally is 3 mm and 1 hour later has been reduced to 2 mm, find an expression for the radius of the
rain- drop at any time.

Section F
Activity: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=FqkfRbPo4w8
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Banking Assignment - 2023-2024
Class-XII, Unit-III
CHAPTER 3: ORGANISATION OF A BANK OFFICE
Section A
1. Which part of the Bank is known as the revenue generator?
a) Front Office b) Middle Office
c) Back Office
2. Which office of the Bank is known as the SWEAT shop?
a) Front Office b) Middle Office
c) Back Office
3. Reconciliation of entries is carried out by which part of the Bank?
a) Front Office b) Middle Office
c) Back Office
4. Which activities are outsourced to the BPO?
a) Front Office b) Middle Office
c) Back Office
5. What comes first?
a) Settlement b) Clearing
6. ______ is not a paper based ways of transferring money?
a) Cheques b) Pay order
c) ECS Credit
7. In absence of RBI branch in a particular city, which Bank acts as the clearing house
a) SBI b) HDFC Bank
c) Dena Bank d) Canara Bank
8. Actual payment of money by one Bank to another is known as?
a) Multilateral Netting b) Clearing
c) Settlement
9. If everyone pay their share of amount owned to each, it is known as ____
a) Multilateral Netting b) Bi - lateral netting
c) Gross settlement
Fill in the blanks:
1. Bank Operations is segregated into ___ area.
2. _____ office face the client
3. _____ office carries out the transaction processing for the Bank
4. _____ office manages the risk for the Bank
5. _____ office manages the IT resources for the Bank
6. Selling other products to an existing customer is known as _____ selling
7. Officers holding keys to the Drill door of the vault are called vault _____.
True or False:
1. Financial control is the function of the Back office.
2. Back office does the function of executing the clients' instruction.
3. Fire extinguishers / Burglar Alarms are used for the security measure of the Branch.
4. Clearing house facilities the exchange of cash between the banks.
5. Clearing house are managed by RBI across the country.
6. Return clearing is the clearing of honoured cheque.
Section B
Very Short answer questions:
1. Mention any two clearing house functions.
2. Why are bank branches known as technology hubs?
3. Name the three areas of the bank.
4. Why bank manager needs to be tactful?
Section C
Short answer questions:
1. Explain the functions of the front office of the Bank.
2. Explain the functions of the middle office of the Bank.
3. Explain the functions of the back office of the Bank?
4. What are the security features implemented for a Bank vault?
5. Differentiate between clearing and settlement?
Section D
Long answer questions:
1. Explain the typical structure of a Bank branch?
2. Explain the Branch Manager's duties as a Retail banker?
3. What are the different service channels available to the Bank for servicing the customers?
4. What is the need for segregation of the different areas of the Bank?
5. What are the functions of Clearing House of RBI?
6. Explain the process of cheque clearing?
Section E
Case Studies based questions:
Security Arrangements in Bank
ATMs Security Arrangements: As organized global crime syndicates target ATMs, the financial industry needs a
global ATM security standard to promote the availability of secure ATMs. Some of the arrangements are as
follows: ATM should be equipped with a security camera and well lighted to have proper recording Banks
deploy unarmed security guards personnel or caretakers. Branch Security measures: Bank security becomes
important as customers are continuously coming in and going out. Cash is handled by the customers and the
teller(s). Hence, it is important to have proper security arrangement to protect the customers and the Bank.
1. Mention the precautions to be taken for entry/exit gate of the bank.
2. At what places CCTV should be fixed?
3. Where fire Extinguishers need to be provided in a bank?
4. What is bank vault?
5. Explain in brief RBI's stipulated safety measures for the vault security.
1. Discuss the functions of the ATM?
2. Discuss in the precautions to be followed while usingATM card?

3. Explain the typical structure of a Bank branch?

 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Yoga Assignment - 2023-2024
Class-XII, Unit-III
Chapter:- Introduction to Yoga Texts-II
Section A
1. Which one comes under Antaranga Yoga?
(a) Niyam (b) Dharna (c) Asana (d) Pratyahara
2. What is symbol of Ishwar as per Patanjall Yogasutra?
(a) Parmeshwar (b) Samadhi (c) Prakriti (d) Pranav
3. How many limbs are considered as bahiranga yoga in patanjali yoga?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
4. Definition of "Samatvam Yoga Uchyate" is given in
(a) Shrimadbhagavatgita (b) Gherandsamhita
(c) Yoga Sutra (d) Hathayog Pradeepika
5. How many types of Bhakta are there according to Bhagavad Gita
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
6. The word meaning of 'Gita' in Bhagavad Gita is...
(a) The song of the Lord (b) Song of everybody
(c) Sacred Song (d) Beautiful Song
7. How many types of yoga are there according to Bhagavad Gita?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
8. Which day is celebrated as International Yoga Day?
(a) June 20 (b) June 21 (c) June 22 (d) June 23
9. Who compiled yoga sutra?
(a) Ghrenda (b) Hatha (c) Patanjali (d) All of the above
10. What is the appropriate time to eat a meal after yoga practice?
(a) 30 min (b) 60 min (c) 90 min (d) Any time
11. Yoga sutra is written by____________________.
(a) Patanjali (b) Kanada (c) Kapila (d) Yogi
12. What is meant by Kaivalyapada ?
(a) Purification (b) Siddhi (c) Liberation (d) Peace of mind
13. What does the second part of yoga sutra define?
(a) Sadhanapada (b) Chittapada (c) Namapada (d) None of the above
14. What is meant by Vibhutipada?
(a) Power (b) Weakness (c) Super normal power (d) Pleasure
15. Who is the founder of yoga system?
(a) Kapila (b) Jaimini (c) Patanjali (d) Yogacharya
16. According to Patanjali "liberation" is......
(a) Yama (b) Niyama (c) Asana (d) Samadhi
17. What is the meaning of Ahimsa?
(a) Non-stealing (b) Non-hoarding (c) Non-violence (d) None of above
18. Yoga is a methodical effort to attain.......
(a) Perfection (b) Union (c) Enjoyment. (d) Discipline
19. What is meant by the practice of yoga?
(a) Physical freedom (b) Spiritual freedom
(c) Courage (d) Union of individual with universe
20. What is meant by asana?
(a) Posture (b) Sleep (c) Play (d) Breath
Section B
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. Write any two parts of Bahiranga Yoga.
2. Name any two Antrayas or Chitta Vikshepas.
3. How many components are involved in Bahiranga Yoga?
4. What are the components involved in Antranga Yoga?
5. What is Bhakti Yoga?
6. What is Karma Yoga?
7. What is Jnana Yoga?
Section C
SHORT QUESTIONS CARRYING (2 MARKS)
1. Define Bahiranga Yoga.
2. Define mental health as per Patanjali yog
3. Explain dharna.
4. Define Antranga yoga.
5. Explain kriya yoga.
QUESTIONS CARRYING (3 MARKS)
1. Describe Antrayas or Chitta Vikshepas.
2. Explain the helping factors of Antrayas or Chitta Vikshepas.
3. Write the types of Yamas as per Patanjali yog sutra.
4. Write the types of niyamas as per Patanjali yogsutra.
5. Describe the healthy living according to Bhagavad Gita.
6. Write the three types of yoga as per Bhagavad Gita
 Section D
QUESTIONS CARRYING 5 MARKS
1. Describe the limbs of Bahiranga Yoga.
2. Explain basic types of yoga described in Bhagavad Gita.
3. Explain the healthy living style as given in Bhagavad Gita.
4. Explain Yukta ahara, vihara and svapna as per Bhagavad Gita in brief.
5. "Samatvam Yoga Uchate," was described in Bhagavad Gita. Explain it.
Section E
CASE STUDY BASED
Patanjali's Ashtanga Yoga consists of eight limbs. First five limbs are Yama, Niyama, Asana, Pranayama, and Pratyahara,
are known as Bahiranga Yoga. The yamas are societal standards on how to connect with the rest of the world. These
are five: Ahimsa, Satya, Asteya, Brahmacharya, Aparigraha. In Patanjali's yoga sutra, yamas are known as Mahavrata.
The Niyamas are the set of self-discipline guidelines.
There are five nivamas according to Patanjali: Shoucha, santosha, tapas, swadhyaya, and ishwarapranidhana. According
to Patanjali Asana is a stable and pleasant sitting posture that allows the yogi to sit and concentrate for longer periods
of time. As a result, everyone should adhere to them. Pranayama which literally means "Extending or expending prana."
the vital life force, entails breath control. Pratyahara allows you to detach your senses from their objects, allowing you
to have complete control over your senses. Last three limbs. Dharna, Dhyana and Samadhi, are known as Antaranga
Yoga. Antaranga yoga is the concept of internal consciousness. which the yogi experiences during meditation. In this
state. there are no thoughts or external sensory perceptions. It teaches you how to achieve holistic health in all aspects
of your life: physical, mental, social, and spiritual.
Answer any 5 questions out of the following questions.
(i) How many limbs consists in Patanjali's Ashtanga Yoga?
(a) Eight (b) Four (c) Six (d) Five
(ii) First five limbs of Patanjali's Ashtanga Yoga are known as.......
(a) Antaranga Yoga (b) Bahiranga Yoga
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of above
(iii) Last three limbs, Dharna, Dhyana and Samadhi. of Patanjali's Ashtanga Yoga are known as
(a) Bahiranga Yoga (b) Karma Yoga
(c) Antaranga Yoga (d) Bhakti Yoga
(iv) In patanjali's yogasutra, yamas are also as
(a) Mahavrata (b) Mahabhuta (c) Panchkosha (d) Panchklesha
(v) How many niyamas are there?
(a) Two (b) Six (c) Four (d) Five
(vi) What are Antaranga Yoga?
(a) Dharna (b) Dhyana (c) Samadhi (d) All of the above
(vii) ________________ allows you to detach your sense from their objects?
(a) Pratyahara (b) Pranayama (c) Asana (d) Yama
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Sociology Assignment - 2023-2024
Class - XII, Unit-III
Chapter - Patterns of Social Inequality and exclusion
Chapter - Social Movements
Section A
1. Which of the following is NOT a form of social inequality?
a) Gender inequality b) Caste inequality
c) Religious inequality d) Economic inequality
2. Social exclusion refers to the process of:
a) Including marginalized groups in the mainstream society.
b) Providing equal opportunities to all individuals in society.
c) Excluding certain groups from participating in social, economic, and political life.
d) Eliminating all forms of discrimination in society.
3. The term "intersectionality" in the context of social inequality refers to:
a) The intersection of different social categories, such as race, gender, and class, creating
unique forms of discrimination and disadvantage.
b) The merging of various social movements to fight against inequality.
c) The idea that social inequality is limited to only one dimension, such as class or caste.
d) The process of eliminating all forms of social inequality in society.
4. Which social reformer worked towards the upliftment of the lower castes and is associated with
the term "Dalit"?
a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
b) B.R. Ambedkar
c) Mahatma Gandhi
d) Swami Vivekananda
5. The concept of "double burden" in the context of gender inequality refers to:
a) The burden of work and family responsibilities borne by women.
b) The burden of illiteracy faced by marginalized communities.
c) The burden of poverty experienced by lower-income groups.
d) The burden of corruption in society.
6. Social mobility refers to:
a) The movement of individuals between different social strata.
b) The process of eliminating social inequality in society.
c) The formation of social groups based on common interests.
d) The establishment of social norms and values.
7. The term "institutional discrimination" refers to:
a) Discrimination based on personal beliefs and attitudes.
b) Discrimination that is embedded in the practices and policies of institutions.
c) Discrimination faced by people with disabilities.
d) Discrimination that occurs in small, isolated communities.
8. The "creamy layer" concept is associated with which social category in India?
a) Scheduled Castes
b) Scheduled Tribes
c) Other Backward Classes (OBCs)
d) General category
9. The concept of "social stratification" refers to:
a) The process of merging different social categories to form a stratified society.
b) The division of society into different social strata based on certain criteria like caste, class,
or gender.
c) The process of eliminating social inequality through social movements.
d) The creation of a homogeneous society without any social divisions.
10. The term "untouchability" in India is associated with which caste group?
a) Brahmins
b) Kshatriyas
c) Vaishyas
d) Dalits (Scheduled Castes)
11. Social movements are collective actions taken by people to:
a) Promote individual interests
b) Advocate for political parties
c) Achieve common social or political goals
d) Promote violence and chaos in society
12. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of social movements?
a) Organized and sustained collective action
b) Aimed at social or political change
c) Limited to one specific issue
d) Mobilization of people with shared grievances
13. The Women's Suffrage Movement fought for:
a) Workers' rights
b) Right to education for women
c) Right to vote for women
d) Right to own property for women
14. The Civil Rights Movement in the United States aimed to:
a) End segregation and racial discrimination
b) Promote religious freedom for all communities
c) Advocate for LGBTQ+ rights
d) Demand equal pay for women in the workplace
15. The term "resource mobilization" in social movements refers to:
a) The process of gathering financial resources for the movement
b) Mobilizing people and resources to achieve movement goals
c) Using natural resources for environmental causes
d) Utilizing social media for movement promotion
16. Which social movement is associated with advocating for environmental protection and
sustainability?
a) Anti-globalization Movement
b) Environmental Justice Movement
c) Animal Rights Movement
d) LGBTQ+ Rights Movement
17. The term "framing" in social movements refers to:
a) Physically constructing a structure for protests
b) Creating a collective identity and shared understanding of the movement's goals
c) Manipulating public opinion through misinformation
d) Using social media frames for movement promotion
18. Gandhi's Salt March in India was a significant event in which social movement?
a) Women's Suffrage Movement
b) Civil Rights Movement
c) Quit India Movement
d) Labor Rights Movement
19. The Black Lives Matter movement aims to address issues related to:
a) Racial discrimination and police brutality
b) Gender inequality and violence against women
c) Environmental degradation and climate change
d) Labor rights and workers' wages
20. The Arab Spring was a series of social movements that took place in:
a) Latin America
b) Africa
c) Europe
d) Middle East and North Africa
Section B
From the chapter "Patterns of Social Inequality and Exclusion":
21. Define social exclusion and provide an example to illustrate its impact on marginalized
communities.
22. Explain the concept of intersectionality in the context of social inequality, and how it affects
individuals belonging to multiple marginalized groups.
23. Describe the concept of the "creamy layer" in the reservation policy for Other Backward Classes
(OBCs) in India.
24. Differentiate between horizontal and vertical social mobility, and provide examples of each.
25. How does the double burden affect women's participation in the workforce? Explain with
relevant examples.
From the chapter "Social Movements":
26. Define social movements and discuss the common goals and characteristics that distinguish
them from other forms of collective actions.
27. Explain the resource mobilization theory in the context of social movements and how it
contributes to their success.
28. Discuss the role of framing in social movements and how it influences public perception and
support.
29. Elaborate on the significance of the Arab Spring as a series of social movements in the Middle
East and North Africa.
Section – C
From the chapter "Patterns of Social Inequality and Exclusion":
30. Discuss the concept of social stratification and its impact on different aspects of society. Provide
examples of social stratification based on caste and class systems in India.
31. Explain the role of social institutions in perpetuating social inequality. Discuss how institutions
like the family, education system, and labor market contribute to the reproduction of social
hierarchies.
32. Analyze the challenges faced by marginalized groups in accessing opportunities and resources
in society. Take examples from different contexts to illustrate the intersectionality of social
inequality.
From the chapter "Social Movements":
33. Compare and contrast the different types of social movements - reformative, revolutionary, and
redemptive. Provide examples of each type to demonstrate their specific goals and strategies.
34. Discuss the stages of a social movement's life cycle, including the emergence, growth, decline,
and impact phases. Illustrate these stages with reference to a specific social movement of your
choice.
35. Evaluate the impact of social movements on social change and transformation. Examine how
social movements have influenced public opinion, policies, and institutional reforms in various
societies.
Section – D
From the chapter "Patterns of Social Inequality and Exclusion":
36. Explain the concept of social exclusion and its manifestations in contemporary societies.
Discuss the role of social institutions in perpetuating social exclusion and suggest strategies to
address it.
37. Compare and contrast the social stratification systems based on caste and class in India.
Analyze the consequences of these stratification systems on access to resources, opportunities,
and social mobility. Provide examples to support your analysis.
From the chapter "Social Movements":
38. Assess the significance of social movements as agents of social change. Discuss the factors
that contribute to the success or failure of social movements, citing examples of successful and
unsuccessful movements from different parts of the world.
39. Social movements often emerge in response to perceived injustices and inequalities. Using
examples, analyze the role of collective identity, grievances, and leadership in the mobilization
and sustainability of social movements. Discuss the challenges faced by social movements in
achieving their objectives and how they overcome them.
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
Web Applications (803) Assignment - 2023-2024
Class - XII, Unit-III
Employability Skills
Chapter - ICT Skills-IV
Section A
1. A _____________ is an electronic document used to store data in a systematic way and perform
calculations just like an expense sheet.
(a) spreadsheet (b) worksheet
(c) workbook (d) name box
2. Which of the following functions can be performed with the help of spreadsheets?
(1) Maintaining records
(2) Creating videos
(3) Analysing data
(4) Performing financial calculations
(5) Writing letters
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (b) 1, 3, 4
(c) 1, 3, 5 (d) 3, 4, 5
3. A _______ is an arrangement of cells in a horizontal manner.
(a) column (b) row
(c) cell (d) worksheet
4. What is the shortcut key to underline text in a spreadsheet?
(a) Ctrl+b (b) Ctrl+i
(c) Ctrl+l (d) Ctrl+u
Section B
1. Describe the advantages of digital presentation.
2. Explain the following process w.r.t. spreadsheet.
• sort data.
• add filters.
• protect spreadsheet with a password.
Subject Specific Skills
Chapter - Customizing and Embedding Multimedia Components in Web Pages
Section A
1. Full form of HTML is ____________ and XML is_____________
2. __________________ is a wizard program for Windows and Mac that helps users easily insert
video to the website or blog, in a few clicks without writing a single line of code.
a. Oembed
b. Video LightBox
c. Freemake Video Converter
d. Vimeo
3. __________ creates a free flash widget to embed into our site.
a) HTML
b) MixPod
c) Easy HTML5
d) Both a and b
4. From the following, Identify the appropriate option to embed file ‘music.wav’ in the web page with
width 100 pixel and height = 200 pixel using object tag:
i) <object embed data="music.wav" , type="audio/x-mplayer2" width="320" height="240">
ii) <object data="music.wav" type="audio/x-mplayer2" width="100" height="200">
iii) <object src="music.wav" type="audio/x-mplayer2" width="100" height="200">
iv) <object file="music.wav" type="audio/x-mplayer2" width="100" height="200">
a) i) , ii) and iv) are correct
b) ii), iii) and iv) are correct
c) ii) and iii) correct
d) i) and iv) are correct
5. MPEG stands for ______________
a) Moving Picture Emerging Graphics
b) Motion Picture Experts Group
c) Motion Photographic Emerging Graphics
d) Motion Photograph Expert Graphics

Section B
1. Define multimedia and its various types?
2. Advantages and Disadvantages of multimedia in web pages?
3. Why we need internet browser? Also explain web page?
4. List 5 internet browser which supports multimedia?
 Section C
1. How can you differentiate between music, image and sound data without open?
2. Why today’s web site containing more and more multimedia?
3. Write tags which are used in to add images in web page?
4. Mishit is preparing website to promote his business. He wants to add animation, graphics and
sound to make his website more attractive for achieving increased number of customers in the
market. Answer the following questions to help him :
a. Give any one advantage and disadvantage of adding multimedia elements to the web page.
b. Give any one browser that supports multimedia elements.
c. Name the tag to include sound in the webpage and works only with IE
5. Give any two ways to embed flash files into a web page. Explain .mpeg, .wav and .cgm file
extensions.
Section D
1. Write tags used in to add audio file in web page?
2. Write tags used in to add video file in web page?
3. Write tags used in to add flash file in web page?
4. What is CSS and what are the current version available of it?
Beyond Classroom
You want to include an audio file in your web page repeatedly. Explain the use of embed tag. Describe the
attributes in embed tag to set an audio file, set its size and run the file repeatedly.