Sample questions for Selection Test

2024-25
Duration 150 mins
Instructions to Examinee Max. Marks 300

NAME

Hall Ticket No.

SCHOOL

(i) The duration of test is 150 mins. Total Marks : 300

• Instructions for Quantitative Aptitude
➢ This section contain 15 questions (numbered 1 to 15).
➢ These questions are based on quantitative analysis.
➢ Answer to each question is an integer between 000 to 999 (both values
inclusive).
➢ To answer the question, shade the appropriate bubble in ORS (optical response
sheet).
• Marking scheme:
➢ +4 if correct answer is marked.
➢ 0 in all other cases

• Instructions for Physics Section A:

➢ This section contain 10 questions (numbered 16 to 25).
➢ Each question is followed by 4 options (A), (B), (C) and (D)
➢ Only one of the option among these is correct.
• To answer the question shade the appropriate bubble in ORS.
• Marking scheme:
➢ +4 if correct answer is marked.
➢ 0 in all other cases

• Instructions for Physics Section B:

➢ This section contain 5 questions (numbered 26 to 30 )
➢ Answer to each question is an integer between 000 to 999 (both values
inclusive).
➢ To answer the question, shade the appropriate bubble in ORS

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XI2425/Tapas/Sadhana/QAPCMB(S)/Sample Paper

• Marking scheme:
➢ +4 if correct answer is marked.
➢ 0 in all other cases
• Instructions for Chemistry Section A:
➢ This section contain 10 questions (numbered 31 to 40).
➢ Each question is followed by 4 options (A), (B), (C) and (D)
➢ Only one of the option among these is correct.
➢ To answer the question shade the appropriate bubble in ORS.
• Marking scheme:
➢ +4 if correct answer is marked.
➢ 0 in all other cases
• Instructions for Chemistry Section B:
➢ This section contain 5 questions (numbered 41 to 45)
➢ Answer to each question is an integer between 000 to 999 (both values
inclusive).
➢ To answer the question, shade the appropriate bubble in ORS
• Marking scheme:
➢ +4 if correct answer is marked.
➢ 0 in all other cases
• Instructions for Mathematics Section A:
➢ This section contain 10 questions (numbered 46 to 55).
➢ Each question is followed by 4 options (A), (B), (C) and (D)
➢ Only one of the option among these is correct.
➢ To answer the question shade the appropriate bubble in ORS.
• Marking scheme:
➢ +4 if correct answer is marked.
➢ 0 in all other cases
• Instructions for Mathematics Section B:
➢ This section contain 5 questions (numbered 56 to 60)
➢ Answer to each question is an integer between 000 to 999 (both values
inclusive).
➢ To answer the question, shade the appropriate bubble in ORS
• Marking scheme:
➢ +4 if correct answer is marked.
➢ 0 in all other cases
• Instructions for Biology Section A:
➢ This section contain 12 questions (numbered 61 to 72).
➢ Each question is followed by 4 options (A), (B), (C) and (D)
➢ Only one of the option among these is correct.
➢ To answer the question shade the appropriate bubble in ORS.

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 XI2425/Tapas/Sadhana/QAPCMB(S)/Sample Paper

• Marking scheme:
➢ +4 if correct answer is marked.
➢ 0 in all other cases
• Instructions for Biology Section B:
➢ This section contain linked comprehension questions (numbered 73 to 75)
➢ A passage is given which is followed by three questions.
➢ Corresponding to each question, there are 4 options (A), (B), (C) and (D)
➢ Only one of the option among these is correct.
➢ To answer the question shade the appropriate bubble in ORS.
• Marking scheme:
➢ +4 if correct answer is marked.
➢ 0 in all other cases

Instructions for filling the OMR Sheet:

1. Write your name and register number with black ball point pen in the response
sheet and darken the appropriate circle under each alphabet/digit.
2. While marking your answers in the OMR sheet, darken the circle/s (in full) as
shown in the example below using Black ball point pen.
WRONG WRONG WRONG CORRECT
xA B C D
✓
A B C D A B C D B C D

3. Folding of OMR’s, stray markings on the OMR’s will lead to rejection during
evaluation.
Space for rough work is provided in the question paper booklet.

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XI2425/Tapas/Sadhana/QAPCMB(S)/Sample Paper

Quantitative Aptitude
Numerical problems
(The answer to each of the following question is an integer ranging from 0 to 999)
1. The difference between simple and compound interests compounded annually on a certain sum of money
for 2 years at 4% per annum is Re. 1. The sum (in Rs.) is
Ans 625
Let the sum be Rs. x. Then
  4 
2
  676  51
C.I =  x 1 +  − x =  x − x = x
  100    625  625
 x  4  2  2x 51x 2x
S.I =  =  − = 1  x = 625
 100  25 625 25

2. If 6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days while 26 men and 48 boys can do the same in
2 days, the time taken by 15 men and 20 boys in doing the same work will be
Ans 4
Let 1 man’s 1 day’s work = x and 1 boy’s 1 day’s work = y
1 1
Then, 6x + 8y = and 26 x + 48 y =
10 2
 1
Solving these two equations, we get : x = and y =
100 200
 15 20  1
(15 men + 20 boys) 1 day’s work =  + =
 100 200  4
 15 men and 20 boys can do the work in 4 days
3. What is the unit digit in {(6374)1793  (625)317  (341491)}?
Ans 0
Unit digit in (6374)1793 = Unit digit in (4)1793
= Unit digit in [(42)896  4]
= Unit digit in (6  4) = 4
Unit digit in (625) = Unit digit in (5)317 = 5
317

Unit digit in (341)491 = Unit digit in (1)491 = 1

Required digit = Unit digit in (4  5  1) = 0
3 5
4. A student multiplies a number by instead of . What is the percentage error in the calculation?
5 3
Ans 64
Let the number be x
5 3 16
Then, error = x − x = x
3 5 15
 16x 3 
Error% =   100  % = 64%
 15 5x 

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5. There are four prime numbers written in ascending order. The product of the first three is 385 and that of
the last three is 1001. What is the last number?
Ans 13
Let the given prime numbers be a, b, c and d. Then, abc = 385 and bcd = 1001
abc 385 a 5
 =  = . So. a = 5, d = 13
bcd 1001 d 13
6. The ratio between the speeds of two trains is 7 : 10. If the second train runs 400 kms in 4 hours then the
speed of first train is (in km/hr)
Ans 70
If the speeds 7x, 10x
400
10x =  x = 10
4
1
7. If 1369 + 0.0615 + x = 37.25 and x = , then the value of y is
10 y
Ans 3
37 + 0.0615 + x = 37.25
0.0615 + x = 0.25
0.0615 + x = 0.0625
1
x = 0.001 = 3
10
1 1 1
8. A, B and C enter into a partnership and their investments in the ratio : : . After 2 months, A
2 3 4
withdraws half of his capital and after 10 months, a profit of Rs.378 is divided among them. The share of
B is
Ans 144
Ratio of their investments = 6 : 4 : 3
Let be 6x, 4x, 3x
A : B : C = (6x  2 + 3x  10) : (4x  12) : (3x  12) = 7 : 8 : 6
8
B’s share =  378 = 144 .
21

9. If a + b + c = 13, a2 + b2 + c2 = 69. Then the value of ab + bc + ca is

Ans 50
a2 + b2 + c2 + 2 (ab + bc + ca) = 169
169 − 69
ab + bc + ca = = 50
2

10. If the sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then the absolute difference between the
numbers is
Ans 4
Let the numbers be x, y
x + y = 42, xy = 437
| x − y |= (x + y)2 − 4xy = 16 = 4

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XI2425/Tapas/Sadhana/QAPCMB(S)/Sample Paper

11. The mean proportional between 234 and 104 is

Ans 156
Mean = 234 104 = 156
y
12. 270 candidates appeared for an examination, of which 252 passed. The pass percentage is x , then the
z
value of x − y − z is
Ans 89
252 1
Pass% =  100 = 93 %
270 3
1 2
13. If 12 + 22 + 32 + ….. + 102 = 385, then the value of (2 + 42 + 62 + ..... + 202 ) is
2
Ans 770
1 2 2
2 (1 + 22 + ... + 102 ) = 2  385 = 770
2
14. A can finish the work in 18 days and B can do the same work in 15 days. B alone worked for 10 days
and left the job. If A alone has to finish the remaining work the numbers of days it takes is
Ans 6
1 2
B’s 10 days work =  10 =
15 3
2 1
Re maining work = 1 − =
3 3
1
A’s 1 day work =
18
1 1
A’s days work = 18  = 6 days
3 3
a b c a+b+c
15. If = = , then the value of is
3 4 7 c
Ans 2
a b c
= = = k  a = 3k, b = 4k, c = 7k
3 4 7
a + b + c 14k
= =2
c 7k
PHYSICS
PART - A
Multiple choice questions with one correct alternative

16. A point source of light is placed 10 cm before a convex mirror of total length is 10 cm and aperture
1 mm. A screen is at 10 cm from the source. Find the length of field of view of image of point source S
on the screen.
(A) 1 mm
(B) 0.5 mm
(C) 5 mm
(D) 10 mm

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Ans (C)
If S is image of point source S
u = −10 cm, f = 10 cm
1 1 1
+ =
v u f
1 1 1
or − =
v 10 10
1 1 1 1
or = + =  v = 5 cm
v 10 10 5
SCD and SAB are similar triangles
AB CD 1 mm
 = =
25 cm 5 cm 5 cm
25 cm
 AB = (1 mm) = 5 mm
5 cm

17. A converging beam of light converges at point P. A thin convex lens of focal length 20 cm is placed
10 cm before converging point. Find the position of new converging point from the lens.

(A) 6.67 cm right (B) 6.67 cm left (C) 10 cm left (D) 10 cm right
Ans (A)
Here, u = +10 cm, f = +20 cm

1 1 1 1 1 1 2 +1 20
or − =  = + =  v = cm = 6.67 cm
v 10 20 v 10 20 20 3
18. An object 2.4 m infront of a lens forms a sharp image on a film 12 cm behind the lens. A glass plate
1 cm thick of refractive index 1.50 is interposed between lens and film with its plane faces parallel to
film. At what distance from lens should object shifted to be in sharp focus on film?
(A) 7.2 m (B) 2.4 m (C) 3.2 m (D) 5.6 m
Ans (D)
 1  1  1
Shift image position due to glass plate, S = 1 −  t = 1 −   1 cm = cm
    1.5  3
1 1 1 1 1
For the focal length of the lens, = − = −
f v u 12 −240
1 20 + 1 240
= f = cm
f 240 21

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XI2425/Tapas/Sadhana/QAPCMB(S)/Sample Paper

 1 35
Now, get back image on the film, lens has to form image at 12 −  cm = cm such that the glass
 3 3
plate will shift the image on the film.
1 1 1
As, = −
f v u
1 1 1 3 21 48  3 − 7  21 1
= − = − = =−  u = −5.6 m.
u v f 35 340 1680 560
19. A biconvex lens of focal length 15 cm is infront of a plane mirror. The distance between the lens and the
mirror is 10 cm. A small object is kept at a distance of 30 cm from the lens. The final image is
(A) virtual and at a distance of 16 cm from the mirror
(B) real and at a distance of 16 cm from the mirror
(C) virtual and at a distance of 20 cm from the mirror
(D) real and at a distance of 20 cm from the mirror
Ans (B)
Object is placed at distance2f from the lens. So first image I2 will be formed at distance 2f on other side.
This image will behave like a virtual object for mirror. The second image I2 will be formed at distance 20
cm in front of the mirror or, at distance 10 cm to the left hand side of the lens.

Now, applying lens formula

1 1 1 1 1 1
− =  − = or v = 6 cm
v u f v +10 +15
Therefore, the final image is at distance 16 cm from the mirror. But this image will be real.
This is because ray of light is travelling from right to left.
20. Two pith balls having charge 3q and 2q are placed at distance of a from each other. For what value of
charge transferred from 1st ball to 2nd ball, force between balls becomes maximum?
q 5q
(A) (B) (C) 7 q (D) q
2 2
Ans (A)
21. A proton (singly ionized hydrogen) and a deutron (singly ionized deuterium), initially at rest are
accelerated with same uniform electric field for time t.
(A) Both particles will have same momentum (B) Both particles will have same K.E.
(C) Both particles will have same speed (D) Both particles will cover same distance
Ans (A)

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 XI2425/Tapas/Sadhana/QAPCMB(S)/Sample Paper

22. Find the position of image of point object P from silvered surface.

(A) 25 cm behind the silvered surface (B) 30 cm behind the silvered surface
(C) 20 cm behind the silvered surface (D) none of (A), (B) & (C)
Ans (A)
 1  1
Object shiftness = t 1 −  = 15 1 −  = 5 cm
  
3

 2

The image formation due to first refraction through slab is P1. The image P1 behaves as object for plane
mirror. The image P1 formed by plane mirror is P2. The image P2 behaves as object for second times
refraction through the slab. The image due to second times refraction through slab is P3.
23. A young boy has accommodation of his eye such that the power of his eye-lens can change between 50
D and 60 D. His far point is, infinity. The distance of his retina from the eye-lens and his near point are
respectively (in cm)
(A) 2, 10 (B) 2.5, 12 (C) 3, 15 (D) 3.5, 12
Ans (A)
When an eye is fully relaxed, its focal length is largest and the power of the eye-lens is minimum. This
power is 50 D according to the given data. The focal length is (1/ 50)m = 2 cm. As the far point is at
infinity, the parallel rays coming from infinity are focussed on the retina in the fully relaxed condition.
Hence, the distance of the retina from the lens equals the focal length, which is 2 cm.
When the eye is focussed at the near point, the power is maximum, which is 60 D. The focal length in
1 5
this case is f = m = cm . The image is formed on the retina. Thus v = 2 cm.
60 3
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 3
We have, − = or = − = −
v u f u v f 2 cm 5 cm
Or, u = −10 cm
 The near point is at 10 cm.
24. The muscles of a normal are least strained when the eye is focused on an object
(A) at about 25 cm from the eye (B) far away from the eye
(C) very close to the eye (D) at about 1 m from the eye
Ans (B)

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25. How will the image formed by a convex lens be affected if the central portion of the lens is wrapped in
black paper as shown in the figure?
(A) No image will be formed.
(B) Full image will be formed but it is less bright.
(C) Full image will be formed but without the central portion
(D) Two images will be formed; one due to each exposed half.
Ans (B)

PART B
Numerical problems

26. A convex mirror of focal length 10 cm is cut into two halves and placed before an object at a distance of
10 cm as shown in the figure. The separation between images formed by two halves is _______ mm.

Ans 3
Here, u = −10 cm, f = +10 cm

1 1 1 1 1 1
+ = or − =  v = 5 cm
v u f v 10 10
v 1
 m=− =
u 2
 S1S2 = 6 −3 = 3 mm
27. A ray indent on the spherical surface separating two media of refractive indices 1 and 3 respectively.
C is the center of curvature of the curved surface. Find the angle between reflected and refracted ray
(in ) through the spherical surface.

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 XI2425/Tapas/Sadhana/QAPCMB(S)/Sample Paper

Ans 90
3 1
1 sin60 = 3sin r or = 3 sin r or sin r =  r = 30
2 2

Thus, the angle between refracted and reflected ray is 90°.

28. In the given figure, surface BC of slab (of refractive index 2) is silvered. A ray of light incident on face
AB and emerges out from face CD. Find the angle of emergence (in ).

Ans 30
1  sin 30 =  sin r

sin 30
 sin r =

From figure,  sin r = 1  sin    = 30
29. A cube of side length 1 mm is placed at distance 30 cm from the pole of a concave mirror of focal length
20 cm. Its one side is parallel optical axis as shown in the figure.

Find the magnification in the volume of cube.

Ans 16
Here, u = −30 cm, f = −20 cm
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2−3
+ =  − =−  = − =
v u f v 30 20 v 30 20 60
 v = −60 cm
−v
 Transverse magnification is m = = −2
u

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−v2
and longitudinal magnification is m1 = = −u
u2
The magnification in sides parallel to optical axis is m1 and the magnification in sides perpendicular to
optical axis is m.
l  −v2 b
 = 2  l = −4l = −4 mm and = m = −2
l u b
b = −2  1 = −2 mm
 Volume of image = l  b  h = 4  (2) (2) = 16 mm3
Thus, the magnification in the volume is 16.
30. A parallel beam of light is incident on the system of two lenses of focal length f1 = 40 cm and
f2 = −10 cm. What should be the distance between the two lenses (in cm), so that rays after refraction
from both lenses pass undeviated?

Ans 30
From figure, it is clear that, F1 should be common focus,

 Separation between lenses = d = 40 − 10 = 30 cm

CHEMISTRY
PART A
Multiple choice questions with one correct alternative
31. In the Rutherford’s experiment, helium nuclei (-particles) were made to impinge on gold foil, and were
found to be scattered. Rutherford’s experiment on scattering of α-particles showed for the first time that
the atom has
(A) electrons (B) protons (C) neutrons (D) nucleus
Ans (D)
32. An exothermic reaction means
(A) product will have less energy (B) reactant will have less energy
(C) reactant will have more energy (D) both (A) and (C)
Ans (D)
33. HCl cannot act as an acid
(A) in water (B) in liquid ammonia (C) in alcohol (D) in benzene
Ans (D)
34. Which of the following is the best scientific method to test presence of water in a liquid?
(A) taste (B) smell
(C) use of litmus paper (D) use of anhydrous copper sulphate
Ans (D)

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Anhydrous CuSO4 turns blue in presence of water.

CuSO 4 + 5H 2 O → CuSO 4 . 5H 2 O
White Blue

35. Covalent compounds have low melting points because:

(A) covalent bond is less exothermic
(B) covalent molecules are held by weak van der Waals’ forces of attraction
(C) covalent molecules have definite shapes
(D) covalent bond is weaker than ionic bond
Ans (B)
36. The number of oxygen atoms in 0.2 mol of Na2CO310H2O is
(A) 6.022  1024 (B) 1.56  1024 (C) 13 (D) 1.2  1025
Ans (B)
1 mole of Na2CO3.10H2O contain 13  6.022  1023 atoms of oxygen
 0.2 mol will have 13  0.2  6.022  1023 atoms = 1.56  1024 atoms

37. A 8.4 g of sodium bicarbonate NaHCO3 on reaction with 20.0 g of acetic acid (CH3COOH) liberated
4.4 g of CO2 into atmosphere and leaves 24 g of residue. This proves the
(A) law of conservation of mass (B) law of constant proportion
(C) law of multiple proportion (D) law of reciprocal proportion
Ans (A)
38. From equation, N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 volume of ammonia gas formed when 8 L of hydrogen reacts with
excess of nitrogen is (all volumes are measured at STP)
(A) 4.6 L (B) 5.33 L (C) 8 L (D) 24 L
Ans (B)
N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3
1 3 2
3 L of hydrogen gives 2 L of NH3
8 L gives 5.33 L
39. The following table shows the electronic configuration of the elements W, X, Y, Z
Element W X Y Z
Electronic Configuration 2, 8, 1 2, 8, 7 2, 5 1
What type of bond is formed between Y & Z?
(A) Covalent (B) Ionic (C) Coordinate (D) none of (A), (B) & (C)
Ans (A)
40. An element form an oxide A2O3. What will be the formula of chloride of A?
(A) ACl2 (B) ACl (C) A2Cl3 (D) ACl3
Ans (D)

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PART B
Numerical problems

41. Consider the following combustion reaction

aC7H6O2 + bO2 → cCO2 + dH2O
Find the Sum of all the coefficients
Ans 37
2C7H6O2 + 15O2 → 14CO2 + 6H2O
42. Number of water molecules appearing in the balanced equation of ‘Fe + H2O → Fe3O4 + H2’ is
Ans 4
3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) → Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
43. Two elements P and Q combine to form a compound. If P has 2 and Q has 6 electrons in their outermost
shell, the atomicity of the compound is
Ans 2
Valence electrons in P is 2, valence electrons in Q is 6.
P − 2e → P 2+ and Q + 2e → Q2−

44. The number of g-atom of oxygen in 6.02  1024 CO molecules is

Ans 10
6. 02  1023 molecules of CO = 1 mole of CO
 6.02  1024 molecules of CO = 10 moles of CO
1 mole of CO contains 1 g atom of oxygen
 10 moles of CO = 10 g atom of oxygen
45. Calculate the number of atoms in 52 u of He
Ans 13
MATHEMATICS
PART A
Multiple choice questions with one correct alternative

46. Find the value of ‘a’ for which one root of the quadratic equation (a 2 − 5a + 3)x2 +(3a − 1) x + 2 = 0 is
twice as large as the other
3 2 3 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 5 3
Ans (B)
Let the roots be  and 2, then
1 − 3a 2
 + 2 = 2 and (2) = 2
a − 5a + 3 a − 5a + 3
 1  1 − 3a  
2
2
 2    = 2
( )
 9  a − 5a + 3   a − 5a + 3
(1 − 3a )2
 =9
a 2 − 5a + 3
2
 9a2 − 6a + 1 = 9a2 − 45a + 27  39a = 26  a =
3

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47. A spiral is made up of successive semicircles with centres alternately at A and B starting with centre at
A, of radii 0.5 cm, 1 cm, 15 cm, 2 cm … and so on as shown in the figure. What is the total length of
such a spiral made up of thirteen consecutive semicircles? (take   =  )
22
 7 

(A) 147 cm (B) 145 cm (C) 143 cm (D) 141 cm

Ans (C)
2r
Length of a semi-circle = = r
2
Length of semi circle of radii 1 cm = (1)
Length of semi –circle of radii 1.5 cm = (1.5)
And so on…
 (05), (10), (15), (20) … upto 13 term
For the total length of the spiral we need to find sum of the 13 terms
Total length = 0.5 +  + 1.5 + 2 + … upto 13 terms
= (0.5 + 1 + 1.5 + 2 + … + upto 13 terms)
=   2(0.5) + (13 − 1)(0.5)
13
2 
22 13
= 7
7 2
= 143 cm
sin 4  cos 4  1 sin 8  cos8 
48. If + = , then value of + is
a b a+b a3 b3
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a + b) 2
(a + b) 3
( a + b )4 (a + b)5
Ans (B)
Let sin2  = x then sin4  = x2 and cos4  = (cos2 )2 = (1 − sin2 ) = (1 − x)2
x 2 (1 − x )
2
1 ab
 + =  bx2 + ax2 + a – 2ax =
a b a+b a+b
ab
 (a + b) x2 − 2ax + a =
a+b
 (a + b) x − 2a(a + b) x + a2 + ab = ab
2 2

 (a + b)2 x2 − 2a (a + b) x + a2 = 0
a
 [(a + b)x − a]2 = 0  x =
a+b
a b
 sin 2  = and cos2  =
a+b a+b

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XI2425/Tapas/Sadhana/QAPCMB(S)/Sample Paper

4 4
 a   b 
   
Now,  a + b  + a+b = a
+
b
=
1

a 3
b 3
( a + b ) ( a + b ) ( a + b )3
4

49. The height of a tower is 100 3 m . The angle of elevation of its top from a point 100 m away from its
foot is
(A) 30 (B) 45 (C) 60 (D) 75
Ans (C)
100 3
tan  =   = 60
100

100 3


100

50. The quadratic equation whose one root is ( 3 + 2 3 ) is

(A) x2 + 6x − 3 = 0 (B) x2 − 6x − 3 = 0 (C) x2 + 6x + 3 = 0 (D) x2 − 6x + 3 = 0
Ans (B)
One root = 3 + 2 3 and Other root = 3 − 2 3
Quadratic equation is x 2 − ( 3 + 2 3 + 3 − 2 3 ) x + (3 + 2 3 )(3 − 2 3 ) = 0
x2 − 6x − 3 = 0
51. If A(−2, 4), B(0, 0), C(4, 2) are vertices of ABC. Then the length of median through vertex A is
(A) 5 units (B) 6 units (C) 7 units (D) 9 units
Ans (A)
D = (2, 1)  AD = (2 + 2)2 + (1 − 4)2 = 42 + 32 = 5
A

B C
D

52. If HCF of 65 and 117 is of the form 65m – 117, then the value of m is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Ans (B)
HCF of 65, 117 = 13
65m − 117 = 13
m=2
53. 3cos2 60 + 2cot2 30 − 5sin2 45 =
13 17
(A) (B) (C) 1 (D) 4
6 4
Ans (B)

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 XI2425/Tapas/Sadhana/QAPCMB(S)/Sample Paper

54. Let a, b and c be distinct numbers.

(x − a)(x − b) (x − b)(x − c) (x − c)(x − a)
The quadratic equation + + = 1 has
(c − a)(c − b) (a − b)(a − c) (b − c)(b − a)
(A) one root (B) two real and distinct roots
(C) infinite roots (D) no real root
Ans (C)
x = a, x = b, x = c are the solutions.
Hence, the given equation is an identity and has infinite roots.

55. The value of x which satisfies the equation 2017 = x + x + x + ... is

(A) 4,064,255 (B) 4,068,289 (C) 4,066,272 (D) 4,062,240
Ans (C)
2017 = x + 2017
 (2017)2 − 2017 = x
 (2017)(2016) = x

PART B
Numerical problems

x = 3x 4 + 4 , then the value of x4 is

4 4 4
56. If
Ans 4
1 1
x 8 = ( 3x 4 + 4) 64  x8 = 3x4 + 4  x4 = 4

57. The number of terms of an A.P. is even ; the sum of the odd terms is 24, and of the even terms is 30, and
21
the last term exceeds the first by , then the number of terms in the series is
2
Ans 8
Let the series have 2n terms and the series be a, a + d, a + 2d … a + (2n − 1)d
According to the given condition, we have
[a + (a + 2d) + (a + 4d) + … + {a + (2n − 2)d}] = 24
n
  2a + (n − 1)2d  = 24
2
 n[a + (n − 1) d] = 24 … (1)
Also, [(a + d) + (a + 3d) + … + (a + (2n − 1) d] = 30
n
  2(a + d) + (n − 1)2d  = 30
2
 n[(a + d) + (n – 1)d] = 30 … (2)
21
Also the last term exceeds the first by
2
21
 a + (2n − 1)d − a =
2
21
 ( 2n − 1) d = … (3)
2
Now, subtracting (1) from (2)

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XI2425/Tapas/Sadhana/QAPCMB(S)/Sample Paper

nd = 6 … (4)
2n − 1 21
Dividing (3) by (4), we get = n=4
n 12
So, total number of terms = 2n = 8
58. The polynomials P(x) = Kx3 + 3x2 − 3 and Q(x) = 2x3 − 5x + K, when divided by (x − 4) leave the same
remainder, then the value of K is
Ans 1
P(4) = Q(4)
 64K + 48 − 3 = 128 − 20 + K
 64K + 45 = K + 108
 63K = 63  K = 1

59. If tan  + cot  = 6, then the value of tan2  + cot2  is

Ans 34
tan2  + cot2  + 2 = 36

60. The positive value of k for which the equality x2 + kx + 64 = 0 and x2 − 8x + k = 0 which have real
roots is
Ans 16
Let D1 and D2 be discriminants
D1  0, D2  0
k2 − 4  64  0, 64 − 4k  0
k  16, k  16  k = 16

BIOLOGY
PART A
Multiple choice questions with one correct alternative

61. In the garden pea plant, allele T is dominant over allele t. Which of the following crosses will produce
tall and dwarf offspring plants in equal ratio?
(A) TT  tt (B) Tt  tt (C) TT  Tt (D) tt  tt
Ans (B)
62. Sclerenchyma cells are dead at maturity. Sieve tubes and human erythrocytes are living cells but do not
possess nuclei. Which of these cells will not be able to divide?
(A) Both the plant cells (B) All the above cells
(C) Human RBC (D) The dead cells from the above list
Ans (B)

63. Which of these choices shows the correct interpretation of the parts of the
human female reproductive system?
(A) F-undergoes tubectomy
(B) B-gets regenerated by thyroxine
(C) D-is blocked by Copper T
(D) E-produces the female gametes
Ans (B)

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 XI2425/Tapas/Sadhana/QAPCMB(S)/Sample Paper

64. The image shows the results of an experiment done on two leaves with the same surface area from two
different species. The leaves were weighed and left in
daylight for a few hours. They were weighed again to find
the amount of water lost through transpiration. Based on the
image, pick the most appropriate answer
(A) Leaf 1 has lesser cuticle than 2
(B) Leaf 1 has more stomata than 2
(C) Leaf 2 is of a shorter plant
(D) Leaf 2 has more stomata and lesser cuticle than 1
Ans (D)
65. Statement 1: Cones of the human retina are responsible for daylight vision.
Statement 2: Cones of the human retina are responsible for colour vision.
(A) Only Statement 1 is true (B) Both statements are true
(C) Only statement 2 is true (D) Both statements are false
Ans (B)
66. Which equation is correct to prove that O2 comes from water during photosynthesis?
2 + 12H2 O ⎯⎯
(A) 6O18 →6O18 2 + C6 H12 O6 + 6H2 O

(B) 6CO2 + 12H2O18 ⎯⎯

→6O2 + C6 H12O6 + 6H2O18
2 + 12H2 O ⎯⎯
(C) 6O18 →6O18
2 + C6 H12O6

(D) 6CO2 + 12H2O18 ⎯⎯

→6O18
2 + C6 H12O6 + 6H2O

Ans (D)
67. Assertion: CFCs cause damage to the ozone layer.
Reason: Ozone layer protects the earth’s surface from UV radiations.
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(D) Assertion is false and Reason is true
Ans (B)
68. Identify the correct statements with regard to Golgi complex from the following
(i) The organelles involved in storage and modification of products
(ii) The synthesis of proteins
(iii) Formation of complex sugars from simple sugars
(iv) Packaging of products
(v) The membranes are connected with membranes of Mitochondria
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct (B) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct (D) (i) and (v) are correct
Ans (C)

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XI2425/Tapas/Sadhana/QAPCMB(S)/Sample Paper

69. Statement -I: The process of pairing of any two chromosomes is called synapsis.
Statement -II: Synapsis is seen in meiosis after pachytene.
(A) Statement-I and Statement-II are true and Statement-II is the correct explanation of Statement-I.
(B) Statement-I and Statement-II are true, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation of Statement –I
(C) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false
(D) Both Statement-I and II are false
Ans (D)
70. In a self pollinated plant, what would be the minimum number of meiotic divisions to form 200 seeds.
(A) 200 (B) 250 (C) 100 (D) 50
Ans (B)
71. The number of chromosomes in the shoot tip cells of a maize plant is 20, the number of chromosomes in
the pollen and zygote of the same plant respectively is
(A) 40, 20 (B) 20, 40 (C) 20, 10 (D) 10, 20
Ans (D)

72. Which of the following are simple, living tissues seen in plants?
I. Parenchyma
II. Collenchyma
III. Sclerenchyma
IV. Xylem
V. Cartilage
VI. Phloem
(A) I and II (B) II and III (C) I, II and III (D) I, II, III and VI
Ans (A)

PART B
Read the passage given below and answer questions 73 to 75 by choosing the correct
alternative
Ants are insects whose social life is highly structured, comparable only to that of honey bees or termites.
Ants are called social insects because they live in colonies and establish complex communities. They are
normally constituted of three castes: the queen, the drones and the workers. Each caste has its own distinct
morphology and carries out particular activities within the society. Colony living offers various advantages,
one of the most essential being improved safety for the entire group. Generally, each ant colony has only one
queen. She spends her life laying eggs. There are also female worker ants that do not breed but instead carry
out a range of different tasks: searching for food, caring for the queen and her offspring, building galleries,
maintaining the nest and protecting the anthill. The main role that drones perform is to fertilise queens, and
they are only present inside the colony for limited periods of time.
73. Which of the following roles are not performed by worker ants?
(A) Finding and obtaining food
(B) Taking care of the queen and the young larvae
(C) Protecting the anthill
(D) Laying eggs in specific chambers of the anthill

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 XI2425/Tapas/Sadhana/QAPCMB(S)/Sample Paper

Ans (D)
74. One of the following statements is incorrect about social ants. Identify the same.
(A) The morphology and functions of the three castes of social ants is different.
(B) Drones have the longest life of all ants and protect the colony from ant-eating animals
(C) Worker ants are females.
(D) Generally, an ant colony has a single queen.
Ans (B)
75. To insects like honeybees and ants, which of these is an advantage of living in groups called colonies in
comparison to living alone?
(A) Colony life gives higher safety to the members
(B) All functions can be done by all members of the colony
(C) The members do not have to search for food and instead can feed on one other
(D) The colony looks big and impressive in a forest or grassland.
Ans (A)

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