GENERAL INSURANCE CORPORATION OF INDIA
ON-LINE EXAMINATION - RECRUITMENT OF INSURANCE, GENERAL, INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY,
FINANCE/ACCOUNTS, ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING, HUMAN RESOURCES DEVELOPMENT, LEGAL,
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING, STATISTICS, COMPANY SECRETARY, AERONAUTICAL ENGINEERING,
EXECUTIVE P. A., MARINE ENGINEERING, ACTUARY AND MEDICAL
INFORMATION HANDOUT
This handout contains details pertaining to various aspects of the online main exam you are going to undertake
and important instructions about related matters. You are advised to study the handout carefully as it will
help you in preparing for the examination.
You may have to be at the venue for approximately 4 hours including the time required for logging in,
collection of the call letters, going through the instructions etc.
The on-line examination will comprise the following objective type multiple choice tests as stated below :
Name of the test No. of Maximum Time
Questions Marks
Part A Domain Knowledge of the 40 40
30 minutes
Objective relevant stream
Part B Test of Reasoning 20 20
Test of English Language 20 20
60 minutes for all the
Test of General Awareness 20 20 tests together
Test of Numerical Ability &
Computer Literacy 20 20
Part C Test in English Language 3 30
60 minutes
Descriptive Essay, Precise and Comprehension
Total 123 150
PART A AND PART B
All tests except test of English Language will be provided in English and Hindi. You can attempt any objective
question at any point of time within 30/60 minutes as provided for respective part. All the objective questions
will have multiple choices. Out of the five answers to a question only one will be the correct answer. You
have to select the most appropriate answer and ‘mouse click’ that alternative which you feel is
appropriate/correct. The alternative/ option that you have clicked on will be treated as your answer
to that question. There will be no penalty for wrong answers marked by you. However, you are
advised not to mark your answers by random guessing.
FOR DESCRIPTIVE TEST (ENGLISH LANGUAGE), PART - C
Questions will be displayed on the screen of your computer. Answers are to be typed in English
using the keyboard. Before start of typing answers to questions in Descriptive Paper please check
all key functions of the keyboard. You will get 60 minutes to answer the Descriptive questions.
The Scores of Online Examination will be obtained by adopting the following procedure :
(i) Number of questions answered correctly by a candidate in each objective test.
(ii) The Scores so obtained by a candidate are made equivalent to take care of the minor difference in
difficulty level, if any, in each of the objective tests held in different sessions to arrive at the Equated
Scores* (This is applicable if the exam for the same post is conducted in multiple sessions)
*Scores obtained by candidates on any test are equated to the base form by considering the distribution of
scores of all the forms.
(iii) DP Marks are added to the Objective Test.
(iv) Testwise scores and scores on total is reported with decimal points upto two digits.
Note : Cutoffs will be applied on total score
The total marks of the examination will be 150 which includes 30 marks of the English Descriptive
Section. Candidates will be shortlisted for Interview on the basis of overall marks scored in objective
and descriptive section taken together against full marks of 150.
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Outline of some papers and some sample questions are given below.
Please note that the types of questions in this handout are only illustrative and not exhaustive. In
the actual examination you will find questions of a higher difficulty level on some or all of these
types and also questions on the types not mentioned here.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
PART A OBJECTIVE
INSURANCE : The domain knowledge paper will be based on general insurance and licentiate syllabus
as available on GIC website.
GENERAL : This paper may comprise of higher level reasoning ability/critical thinking.
INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY : The paper will be based on areas as provided under skill set in the
advertisement.
FINANCE/ACCOUNTS : The paper will be based on a mix of knowledge of MBA Finance, M. Com &
CA.
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING : Questions will be based on Electrical Engineering.
HUMAN RESOURCES DEVELOPMENT : Questions will be based on HRM/Personnel Management
at PG level.
LEGAL : Questions will be based on law at LLM level.
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING : Questions will be based on Chemical Engineering.
STATISTICS : Questions will be based on Statistics.
COMPANY SECRETARY : Questions will be based on Company Secretary syllabus.
AERONAUTICAL ENGINEERING : Questions will be based on Aeronautical Engineering.
EXECUTIVE P. A. : Questions will be based on MS Office at MS-IT level.
MARINE ENGINEERING : Questions will be based on Marine Engineering.
ACTUARY : Questions will be based on Statistics and on insurance related actuary work also. Syllabus
broadly will be on CT1, CT2, CT3 and CT4 as available on GIC website.
MEDICAL : Questions will be based on general physician knowledge.
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PART B
REASONING
This is a test to see how well you can think. It contains questions of various kinds. Here are some sample
questions.
Q.1. If the letters in the word TOPS can be rearranged to form a meaningful word beginning with O, the
last letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, M is the answer
and if no such word can be formed, X is the answer.
(1) T (2) P (3) M (4) S (5) X
Q.2. Some leaders are dishonest. Satyapriya is a leader. Which of the following inferences definitely
follows from these two statements ?
(1) Satyapriya is honest (2) Satyapriya is dishonest
(3) Some leaders are honest (4) Leaders are generally dishonest
(5) Satyapriya is sometimes dishonest
Q.3. If the letters of the following alphabet intercharge positions, so that A takes the place of Z and Z
takes the place of A; B takes the place of Y and Y takes the place of B and so on, what will be the
13th letter from the right ?
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(1) M (2) N (3) O (4) L (5) Other than those given as options
Q.4. If the first and the second letters in the word ‘DEPRESSION’ were interchanged, also the third and
the fourth letters, the fifth and sixth letters and so on, which of the following would be the seventh
letter from the right ?
(1) R (2) O (3) S (4) I (5) Other than those given as options
Q.5. In a row of girls, if Seeta who is 10th from the left and Lina who is 9th from the right interchange
their seats, Seeta becomes 15th from the left. How many girls are there in the row ?
(1) 16 (2) 18 (3) 19 (4) 22 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.6-10. Read the information given below and answer the questions.
Six plays A, B, C, D, E and F of a famous playwright are to be staged one on each day from
Monday to Saturday. The schedule of the plays is to be in accordance with the following.
(1) A must be on the immediately previous day of the on which E is staged.
(2) C must not be staged on Tuesday.
(3) B must be on a day which immediately follows the day on which F is staged.
(4) D must be staged on Friday only and should not be immediately preceded by B.
(5) E must not be staged on the last day of the schedule.
Q.6. Which of the following is the schedule of plays, with the order of their staging from Monday ?
(1) E A B F D C (2) A F B E D C (3) A F B C D E
(4) F A B E D C (5) Other than those given as options
Q.7. Play C cannot definitely be staged on which of the following days in addition to Tuesday ?
(1) Monday (2) Wednesday (3) Thursday (4) Friday (5) Saturday
Q.8. Play D is between which of the following pairs of plays ?
(1) C and E (2) E and F (3) A and E (4) B and E (5) C and F
Q.9. Which of the following plays is on Monday ?
(1) E (2) A (3) F (4) B (5) C
Q.10. Which of the following plays immediately follows B ?
(1) F (2) E (3) D (4) C (5) A
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ENGLISH LANGUAGE
This is a test to see how well you know English. Your English language ability would be tested through
questions on grammar & vocabulary, synonyms, antonyms, sentence completion, comprehension of a pas-
sage etc.
Q.1-2. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error,
if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error,
the answer is ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
Q.1. Most of the third world / country are experiencing / the ethnic or communal problem/
(1) (2) (3)
in varying degrees. / No error.
(4) (5)
Q.2. The regaining of freedom / as we well know has given rise for / many dormant issues /
(1) (2) (3)
and conflicts in our society. No error.
(4) (5)
Q.3-4. Pick out from the words given below each sentence the word which would complete the sentence
correctly and meaningfully.
Q.3. Continuous unemployment has induced in the people a kind of _____ which is most depressing.
(1) laziness (2) encouragement (3) satisfaction (4) anger (5) awakening
Q.4. He wants me to look ____ his garden during his absence.
(1) at (2) over (3) after (4) into (5) from
Q.5-10. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are
printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The true (5) of rights is duty. If we all (6) our duties, rights will not be (7) to seek. If leaving duties
unperformed we run (8) rights, they will (9) us like an elusive person. The more we pursue them, the
farther (10) they fly.
Q.5. (1) end (2) source (3) joy (4) purpose (5) power
Q.6. (1) deny (2) devote (3) discharge (4) imagine (5) fulfill
Q.7. (1) far (2) close (3) easy (4) against (5) common
Q.8. (1) as (2) after (3) at (4) from (5) for
Q.9. (1) hold (2) grab (3) fight (4) escape (5) chase
Q.10. (1) off (2) can (3) did (4) could (5) towards
GENERAL AWARENESS
This test is designed to measure your awareness about the past and present events.
Q.1. Which of the following sectors contributes maximum in deciding the growth in income of the states in
India ?
(1) Energy (2) Tourism (3) Service (4) Transport (5) Agriculture
Q.2. In which of the following states is the number of people living below poverty line the maximum ?
(1) Bihar (2) Andhra Pradesh (3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Rajasthan (5) Orissa
Q.3. Headquarters of which of the following nationalised Banks is not situated in Maharashtra state ?
(1) Dena Bank (2) Central Bank of India (3) Bank of India
(4) Union Bank of India (5) United Bank of India
Q.4. Headquarters of which of the following Insurance Companies is situated in Chennai ?
(1) National Insurance Company (2) Life Insurance Corporation of India
(3) General Insurance Corporation of India (4) United India Insurance Company
(5) New India Assurance
Q.5. Which of the following stands for I in IRDA ?
(1) Indian (2) International (3) Insurance (4) Income (5) Institute
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NUMERICAL ABILITY & COMPUTER LITERACY
This test is to measure how fast and accurate you are in dealing with numbers.
Q.1. At 10 paise each, how many paise will 6 lemons cost ?
(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 60 (4) 61 (5) 610
Q.2. Which of the following can be exact multiple of 4 ?
(1) 27114 (2) 58204 (3) 48402 (4) 32286 (5) Other than those given as options
This test is designed to measure your computer knowledge.
Q.3. ------------- is an output device of a computer.
(1) Printer (2) CPU (3) Monitor (4) Keyboard (5) CD
Q.4. What is the full form of RAM ?
(1) Random Adaptive Mouse (2) Random Adaptive Memory (3) Random Access Memory
(4) Random Access Mouse (5) Other than those given as options
PART C DESCRIPTIVE
DESCRIPTIVE PAPER IN ENGLISH LANGUAGE - ESSAY, PRECISE & COMPREHENSION
Q.1. Write an essay on any ONE of the following topics
• Three effective measures to eradicate illiteracy in India. Explain how the measures
suggested by you will be effective.
• It is often said that computerization results in unemployment. Do you agree? Explain.
Q.2. Write a précis of the following passage in about 150 words. Give a suitable title.
In this age, when the popular involvement in day-to-day matters in mounting, it is the electronic
systems that offer us a potential service infrastructure which could, with careful programming, probably
take care of a very large element of what we describe as mechanical, procedural governance without
all the distortions, corruptions and harassments which constitute the daily misery of the average
citizen. Of course, the electronic systems will only behave to the extent that they are properly
programmed. But this is no impossible task today.
Once we move our minds beyond the mere use of the electronic revolution for business efficiency
and higher profitabilities and apply it to the task of reducing the routine, repetitive activities of
governance, we will conserve time and energy for more important and creative tasks. In other words,
the electronic revolution can make for better and more effective handling of real everyday problems,
additionally to providing the basic service of computerized information banks. Even in less developed
conditions, the potential of the electronic network to take over a great deal of what is called bureaucratic
“paper work” has been vividly demonstrated. Licensing system involving endless form filling in endless
copies; tax matters which baffle millions of citizens, particularly those who have nothing to hide;
election system which require massive supervisory mobilizations or referendums based on miniscule
“samples” which seldom reflect the reality at the social base. At all these points, the electronic
advantage is seen and recognized. However, we must proceed further.
It is possible to foresee a situation where the citizen, with his personalized computer entry card, his
“number”, is able to enter the electronic network for a variety of needs now serviced by regiments of
officials, high and low. Indeed, this is already happening in a number of countries. From simple
needs, we will move to more complex servicing, and, ultimately, into creativity or what is called
“artificial intelligence”.
Q.3. Will be on English Comprehension based on a passage.
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Other Instructions :
(A) Details of the On-line Examination Pattern
(1) The examination will be conducted on-line i.e. on a computer.
(2) Before clicking on the ‘Start’ option, the candidates can go through the instructions shown on the
screen.
(3) All tests except of English and Descriptive Paper will be in English and Hindi.
(4) Only when the ‘Start’ button is pressed will the actual test time for objective test will start. On submission
of objective test, the actual test time of descriptive test will start immediately.
(5) Only one question at a time will be displayed on the screen.
(6) All the objective questions will have multiple choices. Out of the five answers to a question only one
will be the correct answer. You will have to select the most appropriate answer and ‘mouse
click’ that alternative which you feel is appropriate/ correct. The alternative/ option that is
clicked on will be treated as the answer to that question. Some descriptive questions may have
internal choices.
(7) The clock has been set at the server and the countdown timer at the top right corner of your screen
will display the time remaining for you to complete the examination (objective and descriptive). When
the clock runs out the exam ends by default - you are not required to end or submit your exam.
(8) The question palette at the right of the screen shows one of the following statuses of each of the
questions numbered :
You have not visited the question yet.
You have not answered the question.
You have answered the question.
You have NOT answered the question but have marked the question for review.
You have answered the question but marked it for review.
(9) The Marked for Review status simply acts as a reminder that you have set to look at the question
again. If an answer is selected for a question that is Marked for Review, the answer will be considered
in the final evaluation.
(10) To select a question to answer, you can do one of the following :
a) Click on the question number on the question palette at the right of your screen to go to that
numbered question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save your answer to the current
question.
b) Click on Save and Next to save answer to current question and to go to the next question in
sequence.
c) Click on Mark for Review and Next to save answer to current question, mark it for review, and to
go to the next question in sequence.
(11) To select your answer to an Objective Question, click on one of the option buttons.
(12) To change your answer to an Objective Question, click the other desired option button.
(13) To save your answer, you MUST click on Save & Next.
(14) To deselect a chosen answer to an Objective Question, click on the chosen option again or click on
the Clear Response button.
(15) To mark a question for review click on Mark for Review & Next. If an answer is selected for a
question that is Marked for Review, the answer will be considered in the final evaluation.
(16) To change an answer to an Objective Question, first select the question and then click on the new
answer option followed by a click on the Save & Next button.
(17) Questions that are saved or marked for review after answering will ONLY be considered for
evaluation.
(18) Sub-Sections in Part B will be displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a Sub-Section can
be viewed by clicking on the Sub-Section name. The Sub-Section you are currently viewing will be
highlighted.
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(19) After clicking the Save & Next button on the last question for a Sub-Section in Part B, you will
automatically be taken to the first question of the next Sub-Section of Part B.
(20) You can move the mouse cursor over the Section names to view the status of the questions for that
Section.
(21) You can shuffle between Sub-Sections of Part B any time during the 60 minutes allotted for Part B.
(22) The candidates are requested to follow the instructions of the Test Administrator carefully. If a candidate
does not follow the instructions / rules, it would be treated as a case of misconduct / adoption of unfair
means and such a candidate would be liable for debarment from appearing for examinations for a
period as decided by the Organisation.
(23) The candidates may ask the Test Administrator about their doubts or questions only before the
commencement of the test. No query shall be entertained after the commencement of the examination.
(24) After the expiry of time for respective section, the candidates will not be able to attempt any question
or check their answers for that particular part. On completion of test time, answers of the candidates
would be saved automatically by the computer system even if they have not clicked the “Submit”
button.
(25) You should bring with you a ball point pen. A sheet of paper will be provided which can be used for
rough work or taking down the question number you would like to review at the end of the test before
submitting your answers. After the objective test is over you may retain this sheet of paper for the
descriptive test also. After both, objective and descriptive tests are over, you must necessarily return
the sheet of paper provided for rough work to the test administrator before leaving the test premises.
(26) Please note :
a) Candidates will not be allowed to “finally submit” unless they have exhausted the actual test time
of the examination (objective and descriptive).
b) Under no circumstances should a candidate click on any of the ‘keyboard keys’ during the
objective test once the exam starts as this will lock the Objective Test exam.
B] General Instructions:
(1) Please note date, time and venue address of the examination given in the call letter.
(2) You may visit the venue one day before the Online Examination to confirm the location so that
you are able to report on time (as printed on the call letter) on the day of the examination. Late
comers will not be allowed.
(3) The call letter should be brought with you to the examination venue along with your recent
passport size photograph duly pasted on it. (Preferably the same photograph as was as uploaded).
(4) You must scrupulously follow the instructions of the Test Administrator and Organisation
Representative at the examination venue. If you violate the instructions you will be disqualified
and will be asked to leave the examination venue.
(5) No use of calculators (separate or with watch), books, note books or written notes, cell phones
(with or without camera facility), or any other electronic device will be allowed during the
examination.
(6) Please bring the call letter with your photograph affixed thereon, currently valid Photo identity
proof in original and a photocopy of the same ID proof which you bring in original - THIS IS
ESSENTIAL. Please handover the call-letter alongwith photocopy of photo identity proof duly
stapled together to the invigilator. Currently valid photo identity proof may be PAN Card/Passport/
Driving Licence/Voter’s Card/Bank Passbook with photograph/Photo Identity proof issued by a
Gazetted Officer on official letterhead /Photo Identity proof issued by a People’s Representative
on official letterhead/Valid recent Identity Card issued by a recognised College/University/Aadhar
Card with a photograph/Employee ID/Bar Council Identity card with photograph. Please Note -
Ration Card and E-adhar Card will NOT be accepted as valid ID proof for this project.
Please note that your name as appearing on the call letter (provided by you during the process
of registration) should exactly match the name as appearing on the photo identity proof. Female
candidates who have changed first/last/middle name post marriage must take special note of
this. If there is any mismatch between the name indicated in the Call Letter and Photo Identity
Proof you will not be allowed to appear for the exam.
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(7) Biometric data (left thumb impression) will be captured at the examination venue. With regards
to the same, please note the following :
(a) If fingers are coated (stamped ink/mehndi/coloured...etc), ensure to thoroughly wash them
so that coating is completely removed before the exam day.
(b) If fingers dirty or dusty, ensure to wash them and dry them before the finger print (biometric)
is captured.
(c) Ensure fingers of both hands are dry. If fingers are moist, wipe each finger to dry them.
(d) If the primary finger (left thumb) to be captured is injured/damaged, immediately notify
the concerned authority in the test centre.
(8) Your responses (answers) will be analysed with other candidates to detect patterns of similarity
of right and wrong answers. If in the analytical procedure adopted in this regard, it is inferred/
concluded that the responses have been shared and scores obtained are not genuine/valid, your
candidature may be cancelled. Any candidate who is found copying or receiving or giving
assistance or engaging in any behaviour unbecoming of a candidate will not be considered for
assessment. The Organisation may take further action against such candidates as deemed fit
by it.
(9) You should bring with you a ball-point pen. A sheet of paper will be provided which can be used
for rough work or taking down the question number you would like to review at the end of the test
before submitting your answers. After the test is over you MUST hand over this sheet of paper to
the Test Administrator before leaving the venue.
(10) The possibility for occurrences of some problem in the administration of the examination cannot
be ruled out completely which may impact test delivery and/or result from being generated. In
that event, every effort will be made to rectify such problem, which may include the conduct of
another examination if considered necessary. Decision of the test conducting body in this regard
shall be final. Candidates not willing to accept such change shall lose his/her candidature for this
exam.
(11) If the examination is held in more than one session, the scores across various sessions will be
equated to adjust for slight differences in difficulty level of different test batteries used across
sessions. More than one session are required if the nodes capacity is less or some technical
disruption takes place at any centre or for any candidate.
(12) Please note that a candidate is allowed to appear only once in the online examination. Multiple
appearance in online examination will result in cancellation of candidature. In case more than
one call letter has been generated, candidates are advised to appear only once on the date and
at the time mentioned on the respective call letter. All other call letters are to be surrendered.
(13) Anyone found to be disclosing, publishing, reproducing, transmitting, storing or facilitating
transmission and storage of test contents in any form or any information therein in whole or part
thereof or by any means verbal or written, electronic or mechanical or taking away the papers
supplied in the examination hall or found to be in unauthorised possession of test content is likely
to be prosecuted.
(14) Instances for providing incorrect information and/or process violation by a candidate detected at
any stage of the selection, process will lead to disqualification of the candidate from the selection
process and he/she will not be allowed to appear in any recruitment process of the Organisation
in the future. If such instances go undetected during the current selection process but are detected
subsequently, such disqualification will take place with retrospective effect.
IMPORTANT POINTS TO REMEMBER
You are advised to bring with you the following:
(i) Call letter with photo affixed thereon and photo ID card in Original and photocopy as mentioned in
point 6 above.
(ii) One Ball point pen.
WISH YOU GOOD LUCK
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