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ACER Scholarship Practice Questions Y9-10 with answers

English (High School - Australia)

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Scholarship and Select Entry Tests

Practice Questions
for entry in Years 9 and 10

Australian Council for Educational Research

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ACER thanks rights holders who have kindly granted permission to

reproduce the material cited below. Every effort has been made to trace
and acknowledge copyright. However, should any infringement have
occurred, ACER tenders its apology and invites copyright owners to
contact ACER at [email protected].

Acknowledgments

Billy Collins, The Apple that Astonished Paris, p.58. Copyright ©

1996 by Billy Collins. Reprinted with the permission of University
of Arkansas Press; ‘Bronzes’ from SMOKE AND STEEL by
Carl Sandburg. Copyright 1920 by Harcourt. Inc. and renewed 1948
by Carl Sandburg, reproduced by permission of Houghton Milllin
Harcourt Publishing Company; From A Human Pattern: Selected
Poems by Judith Wright (ETT Imprint, Sydney 2010); Simon Singh,
Fermat’s Last Theorem, Harper Perennial, London, 2005, pp. 11–14;
Yacker: Australian Writers talk about their work, edited by Candida
Baker, Picador (Pan Books), Sydney, 1986. pp. 132–3; Gerald Murnane,
‘Save us from Text Maniacs’, The Australian Literary Review, March 5,
2008, p.15.

Published by the Australian Council for Education Research

19 Prospect Hill Camberwell VIC 3124 Copyright © ACER 2015

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CONTENTS

INTRODUCTION................................................................................................... 2

WRITTEN EXPRESSION: TEST 1 ....................................................................... 3

HUMANITIES COMPREHENSION AND INTERPRETATION: TEST 2 ............... 4

MATHEMATICS AND SCIENCE: TEST 3 .......................................................... 20

WRITTEN EXPRESSION: TEST 4 ..................................................................... 32

ANSWER KEYS .................................................................................................. 33

ANSWER SHEET ................................................................................................ 35

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INTRODUCTION
These practice questions provide preparation for sitting various scholarship and select entry tests
for students entering Years 9 or 10. You may wish to time yourself while you complete these
questions. It’s useful for you to become familiar with how quickly you need to work to complete
all questions. If you decide to time yourself, allow the following:
• Written Expression Test 1 (25 minutes)
• Humanities Comprehension and Interpretation Test 2 (40 minutes)
• Mathematics Test 3 (40 minutes)
• Written Expression Test 4 (25 minutes)
Alternatively, you can work through these questions in your own time.
Before you start carefully remove the answer sheet from the back of the booklet. For each question
clearly mark the oval A, B, C or D to indicate your answer using a pencil. If you decide to change
your answer, carefully remove your first mark and pencil in your new choice.
The answers to the multiple-choice questions are provided at the back of this booklet. The Written
Expression tests don’t have answers provided. However, the two practice tests will familiarise
you with the format of common Written Expression tests. You are encouraged to respond to the
writing tests with original and unique thoughts on the topics. You may respond in any way you
think best fits the topic. For example, you could write a story, a persuasive piece or a personal
reflection.
You will be assessed on:
• the quality of the thoughts and content developed in the writing
• the quality of the structure and organisation developed to respond to the topic
• the quality, effectiveness and appropriateness of the language used.
You must respond to the topics presented and will be penalised if your writing appears to be
rehearsed and not developed from the test stimulus.

On the test day

• Listen carefully to the test supervisor.
• Carefully read the instructions on the front cover of each test.
• Do not rush. However, don’t spend too long on a difficult question. If you skip a question make
sure your next answer is marked against the correct question number on the answer sheet.
• Mark the answer you think is most likely to be correct. No marks will be deducted for incorrect
answers.
• If you have time at the end go back and check your answers and make sure you have
answered every question.
• Remember to bring:
- two HB or B pencils
- one good eraser and a pencil sharpener
- a blue or black pen or black pencil for the Written Expression tests
- a bottle of water and a healthy snack for the break.

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WRITTEN EXPRESSION: TEST 1
Use the following to develop a piece of writing.

How does your public image

differ from your private self?

Your writing will be judged on:

• what you have to say
• how well you organise what you have to say
• how clearly and effectively you express yourself.

The amount you write is not as important as the thoughts you express and how you express them.

END OF TEST 1

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HUMANITIES COMPREHENSION AND

INTERPRETATION: TEST 2

QUESTIONS 1 – 5

The following passage is from a short story written in the 1960s, about a young woman who
has spent the summer on a small Scottish island to study and record the language of the
Islanders (a dialect of Gaelic).

‘I have given you what help I can,’ said Reverend McNeith, and he lifted his hand a little
way from the table. ‘Indeed, I would be more than happy if I could be of further assistance.’
The old way, slow and measured. Run the tape-recorder, Ann-Mary thought, but there
are gestures with the old words, and the words and gestures have another meaning here,
where life is very hard, the old language is dying, and the young people leave and the wind 5
blows all day long. ‘You have given so much help already,’ she said. A long summer spent
with the Islanders had shaded her own speech to match theirs. ‘I am most grateful.’
Sometimes she felt uncomfortable with Island custom, because for a stranger the
courtesy was so one-sided. She had come in June to do a series of language studies and take
transcriptions of Island speech. Its dialect of Scots Gaelic was dying with the dying old 10
people of the Island. At least, she thought, as she shouted into ear trumpets1, it can die into
a tape-recorder, where it will be caught in its last accents, as it was spoken. Even here, to this
tiny colony of persons separated from Scotland by a wild treacherous stretch of water, and
looking westward on an endless ocean, change was creeping, seeking its levels with fine
fingers, the way the high tide sifts and combs, etching caves for itself. 15
The isolation of the Island had kept the ancient tongue from change, but the old ways
were going. In 1934 a generator had been built, and now there were two radios, and at the
midwife’s house an electric light. The packet boat2 came twice a month now, and it had
begun to bring magazines and newspapers as well as tea and flour. With the new ways and
the Second World War had come the new language. Few but the old spoke the Gaelic any 20
more, and the young, who had learned from grandparents net-mending songs and love
songs, the dirge3 and the lullaby, were ashamed and would not speak.

1 ear trumpet: an early type of hearing aid shaped like a trumpet

2 packet boat: a boat carrying passengers and goods on a regular schedule
3 dirge: song or poem of mourning

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"1' Reverend McNeith is presented as
A gracious.
B bored.
C lacking in empathy.
D dull-witted and ponderous.

"2' According to Ann-Mary, the language of the Islanders

A is crude and primitive.
B sounds lyrical and soothing.
C cannot fully be captured on tape.
D is impossibly complex and confusing.

"3' Lines 8 and 9 suggest that Ann-Mary

A feels unwelcome on the Island.
B finds the Islanders unco-operative.
C wishes that she could leave the Island.
D feels she cannot adequately respond to the Islanders’ generosity.

"4' The words ‘Even here’ (line 12) refer to the

A Island’s charm.
B Island’s poverty.
C extent of the Island’s insulation from the mainland.
D extent of the Island’s popularity as a tourist destination.

"5' The young Islanders are ‘ashamed and would not speak’ (line 22) because they
A do not want to appear provincial.
B do not understand any Gaelic.
C are unable to master the Gaelic language.
D aren’t as proficient at languages as the old Islanders.

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QUESTIONS 6 – 16

The following chart was developed in the mid 1990s as an aid to companies and businesses that wanted to
expand into South-East Asia.

ES
RE

IA

D
A

N
KO
ES

AN
O
SI

PI
AN

AP
AY

A
A

IP
G

N
O

RE
IW
IN

AI
G

IL

PA
AL

D
N

O
CH

KO

TH
PH
TA

IN

JA
M

SI

H
Gross Domestic
Product size
Growth trends
Inflation
Unemployment
Political stability
Investment flows
Ease of licences
Management control
Tax laws
Skilled labour
Cost of labour
Cost of property

Most attractive Least attractive

"6' The diagram shows inflation to be the biggest problem in which of the following countries?
A Korea
B Indonesia
C Philippines
D Hong Kong

"7' Wishing to expand into South-East Asia, a company is most concerned with the cost of buying
property. Which of the following countries would be the best choice for this company to
expand into?
A China
B Taiwan
C Malaysia
D Singapore

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"8' Suppose a company is most concerned with the growth trends of the country it chooses to
expand into.
Which of the following countries would be the best choice for this company to expand into?
A Japan
B China
C Malaysia
D Singapore

"9' Suppose a company was most concerned with both Inflation and Unemployment.
Which of the following pairs of countries would be the most attractive choices for this company
to expand into?
A Japan and Malaysia
B China and Malaysia
C Japan and Singapore
D China and Singapore

"10' If a business had a large cash surplus, such that costs were not a deciding factor, which of the
following countries is, overall, the most attractive?
A Japan
B Taiwan
C Malaysia
D Indonesia

"11' Which of the following countries does the chart suggest would, overall, be the riskiest place to
invest or expand?
A Korea
B Malaysia
C Indonesia
D Hong Kong

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"12' If a company’s priority was to minimise direct bureaucratic interference on the expansion,
which of the following countries would be the most attractive option for expansion?
A China
B Thailand
C Malaysia
D Singapore

"13' The chart helps companies make decisions about expanding into Asia by
A definitively ruling out some countries.
B presenting a clear suggestion as to where the company should expand.
C suggesting that a company should change its priorities prior to expansion into Asia.
D allowing a company to make informed choices based on the company’s own priorities.

"14' The chart shows that, in general, a high degree of political stability
A is less important than licensing laws.
B is detrimental to attractive licensing laws.
C has no clear relationship with licensing laws.
D is necessary for the most attractive licensing laws.

"15' Of the various categories listed to the left of the chart, the chart presents
A Gross Domestic Product as the most important.
B no factor as inherently more important than another.
C the availability of skilled labour as the most important factor.
D a structured hierarchy of which factors are more important than others.

"16' A company is an advanced technology manufacturer. As such it needs well-trained technicians

as well as cheap labour for the factory floor.
Which of the following countries does the chart suggest would be the best compromise between
these two needs?
A Korea
B Taiwan
C Malaysia
D Philippines

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QUESTIONS 17 AND 18

The following cartoon is set in the 1920s.

"17' The speaker would like

A more to complain about. C to have fewer social obligations.
B her partner to listen to her. D to exchange her wealth for poverty.

"18' The cartoon suggests the speaker

A is a victim. C is jealous of the success of others.
B is impossible to please. D needs a more understanding partner.

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QUESTIONS 19 − 23

The following scale was developed in the 1950s by fashion critic James Laver.

The same costume will be:

Indecent ... 10 years before its time

Shameless ... 5 years before its time
Outré (or daring) ... 1 year before its time
Smart ...
Dowdy ... 1 year after its time
Hideous ... 10 years after its time
Ridiculous ... 20 years after its time
Amusing ... 30 years after its time
Quaint ... 50 years after its time
Charming ... 70 years after its time
Romantic ... 100 years after its time
Beautiful ... 150 years after its time

"19' To dress in a smart manner, someone must

A conform.
B have no taste.
C be imaginative.
D challenge society.

"20' According to the scale, a costume that is 1 year after its time is
A only barely fashionable.
B fashionable, but essentially tasteless.
C inexplicably ugly and unfashionable.
D a recognisable but unfashionable style.

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"21' The scale suggests that all fashions are
A timeless.
B predictable.
C sophisticated.
D incomprehensible.

"22' In terms of the scale, to call a modern costume ‘smart’ is to

A offer it enthusiastic praise.
B respect its originality grudgingly.
C suggest it is already unfashionable.
D recognise its acceptability neutrally.

"23' To which of the following fashion movements does the scale not apply?
A Retro fashion, resurrecting styles from twenty years ago or more.
B Gothic fashion, stressing the elegance of nineteenth-century fashions.
C Contemporary fashion, revelling in the temporary nature of stylishness.
D Futurist fashion, imagining what people will wear in 50 years’ time.

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QUESTIONS 24 – 28

The diagram below depicts the longest flights made by various aircraft in the period 1890–1909. The
Wright Brothers were famous American inventors and aviators.

Attempts at Flight 1890–1909

228 miles
Developmental Period
(non-Wright Brothers craft)
30 miles
Wright Brothers

4 miles Experimental Period

(non-Wright Brothers craft)

.56 miles
Flight distance

403 feet

55 feet

7 feet

0 feet
90
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
00
01
02
03
04
05
06
07
08
09
10
18
18
18
18
18
18
18
18
18
18
19
19
19
19
19
19
19
19
19
19
19
Year

1 mile = 1609.3 metres

1 foot = 30.48 centimetres

"24' The years 1890–1901 of the Experimental Period reveal

A an overall, steady increase in flight distances achieved.
B the complete failure by most aspiring aviators to achieve flight at all.
C the influence of the Wright Brothers upon flight distances achieved.
D a general lack of sustained progress in flight distances achieved.

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"25' Given the information provided in the diagram, which of the following most likely occurred
in 1906?
The Wright Brothers
A made their discoveries public.
B stopped experimenting with flight.
C decided to work together with the rest of the world’s aviators.
D were defeated by other aviators who developed superior flight technology.

"26' The diagram suggests that the Wright Brothers’ first attempt at flight was
A a total failure.
B superior to anything that had ever come before it.
C almost as good as the best of the flights produced thus far.
D inferior to most of the previous flights attempted worldwide.

To answer questions 27 and 28 refer to the following additional information:

The following quotation is by one of the Wright Brothers regarding his first attempt at flight.

Although the hours and hours of practice we had hoped to obtain finally dwindled down
to about two minutes, we were very much pleased with the general results of the trip, for
setting out as we did, with almost revolutionary theories on many points, and an entirely
untried form of machine, we considered it quite a point to be able to return without having
our pet theories knocked in the head by the hard logic of experience, and our own brains
dashed out in the bargain.

"27' Which one of the following best describes the emotion expressed by the speaker?
A relief C exhilaration
B smugness D nervousness

"28' The quotation suggests that the main factor in the Wright Brothers’ initial success was their
A luck due to positive thinking.
B ingenuity and willingness to take risks.
C previous first-hand experience and practice.
D caution due to their fear of both failure and injury.

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QUESTIONS 29 – 34

The following passage is taken from a novel. Mr Bultitude is a bear.

Mr Bultitude’s mind was as furry and unhuman in shape as his body. He did not remember,
as a man in his situation would have remembered, the provincial zoo from which he had
escaped during a fire, nor his first snarling and terrified arrival at the Manor, nor the slow
stages whereby he had learned to love and trust its inhabitants. He did not know that he
loved and trusted them now. He did not know that they were people, nor that he was a bear. 5
Indeed he did not know that he existed at all: everything that is represented by the words
I and Me and Thou was absent from his mind. When Mrs Maggs gave him a tin of golden
syrup, as she did every Sunday morning, he did not recognise either a giver or a recipient.
Goodness occurred and he tasted it. And that was all. Hence his loves might, if you
wished, be all described as cupboard loves: food and warmth, hands that caressed, voices 10
that reassured, were their objects. But if by a cupboard love you meant something cold or
calculating you would be quite misunderstanding the real quality of the beast’s sensations.
He was no more like a human egoist than he was like a human altruist. There was no prose
in his life. The appetencies1 which a human mind might disdain as cupboard loves were for
him quivering and ecstatic aspirations which absorbed his whole being, infinite yearnings, 15
stabbed with the threat of tragedy and shot through with the colours of Paradise.

1 appetency: a craving or longing

"29' According to the passage, Mr Bultitude’s mental processes

A were basically the same as those of humans.
B were radically different from those of humans.
C were on a higher plane than those of wild bears.
D had been strengthened by his training at the Manor.

"30' The passage suggests that Mr Bultitude had

A become uneasy about the people at the Manor.
B been well trained by the people at the Manor.
C found a safe haven at the Manor.
D tried to escape from the Manor.

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"31' According to the passage, Mr Bultitude was
A inclined to be resentful.
B capable of love and trust.
C in awe of the inhabitants of the Manor.
D able to manipulate the inhabitants of the Manor.

"32' The phrase ‘everything that is represented by the words I and Me and Thou’ (lines 6 and 7)
refers to
A consciousness of self.
B gregariousness.
C sensitivity to others’ needs.
D cold and calculating behaviour.

"33' Mr Bultitude ‘did not recognise either a giver or a recipient’ (line 8) because he
A assumed that goodness was his due.
B cared more about himself than others.
C had had bad experiences at the hands of humans.
D did not impose a logical structure on his experience.

"34' According to the passage, Mr Bultitude is

A gentle and lazy.
B naturally affectionate.
C neither selfish nor selfless.
D more human than Mrs Maggs thinks.

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QUESTIONS 35 − 39

The following diagram shows net migration in the Netherlands over a one-year period, between three
distinct forms of settlements: urban, urbanised rural, and rural.

10,000
5,000
1,000
individuals migrating in a family

individuals migrating as singles

82
3
al
du

2,9 7,5
ivi

rural (1.6 million) 56 08

nd

ily
5i

am
34

3,8
1f

39
85

44

under 100,000 over 100,000

2,2

820

16,156
168
4,683
1,687 individual

1,113 family
3,955
6,533
360

industrialised 22,835

commuting
2,042

12,509

urbanised rural (4.9 million) urban (7.3 million) Data source: CBS.

Rural Urbanised Migration

Net migration is the final total number of people who migrated. For example, if 100 people migrated
from A to B, but 150 people migrated from B to A, then the net migration would be 50 people migrating
from B to A. In the above diagram the net flow is broken down into two categories: those who are single
migrants, and those whose migration takes place in a family unit.

"35' The largest number of people migrated from

A urban settlements to rural settlements.
B urban settlements to urbanised rural settlements.
C urban settlements of over 100,000 to urban settlements of fewer than 100,000.
D industrialised urbanised rural settlements to urban settlements of over 100,000.

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"36' The main benefit of breaking migrants down into two categories (single migrants and family
migrants) is best described by which of the following?
A The two categories make the diagram more interesting to look at.
B Single people cannot be considered part of families, so if there were not two categories
single migrants would be ignored.
C Single migrants would be absorbed into the net flow if they were not a separate category,
which would hide a significant pattern.
D As the diagram also breaks urban settlements and urbanised rural settlements into two
categories it was necessary, in the interests of consistency, to break migrants into two
categories as well.

"37' In general, the diagram reveals

A explosive growth in rural settlements.
B a broad shift from larger to smaller communities.
C a majority of people in urbanised rural settlements.
D migrating people concentrating in the largest cities.

"38' The diagram reveals that single people are

A more likely to move from smaller to larger communities.
B more likely to move from larger to smaller communities.
C nearly always moving in the same direction as their families.
D nearly always moving in the opposite direction to their families.

"39' Which of the following accurately states a truth revealed in the diagram?
A Single people are bored with rural living.
B Families are more concerned with crime than single people.
C Single people are more likely to be able to afford to live in a city than a family.
D The distinct advantages of any given form of settlement are broadly related to whether or
not someone is single.

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QUESTION 40
The following advertisement is for a cable television channel in Europe.

"40' The advertisement appeals to the viewer’s desire for

A novelty.
B discretion.
C high drama.
D cultural refinement.

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MATHEMATICS AND SCIENCE: TEST 3

INFORMATION FOR QUESTIONS 1 – 3
The chart below shows times in the past when land masses on the crust of the Earth are thought to have
split apart. For instance, 130 million years ago the land mass known as Gondwana split into two land
masses, one of which later split to produce South America and Africa.

170 160 150 140 130 120 110 100 90 80 70 million years ago
Asiamerica
Asia

W North America
Laurasia
E North America

Pangaea Euramerica Europe

South America
Africa
Madagascar
Gondwana India
Antarctica

Australia

"1' For how long did the land mass known as Laurasia exist?
A 140 million years C 40 million years
B 110 million years D 30 million years

"2' How many years after Gondwana split into two land masses did one of these split into South
America and Africa?
A 115 million years C 25 million years
B 35 million years D 15 million years

"3' Present-day Europe and Africa were both at some time in the past part of
A Pangaea, but not Gondwana nor Laurasia.
B both Laurasia and Gondwana.
C Gondwana, but not Laurasia.
D Laurasia, but not Gondwana.

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INFORMATION FOR QUESTION 4

expands to

"4' expands to

A B C D

INFORMATION FOR QUESTION 5

The graph shows the population of Xaveria in two different years by age group and gender.

Assume that population numbers in Xaveria are mainly affected by natural births and deaths.

Male 91+ Female

81–90
2005 71–80
61–70
1975 51–60
41–50
31–40
21–30
11–20
0–10
300 200 100 0 0 100 200 300
Population numbers (thousands)

For example, in 2005 there were approximately 105 000 males in Xaveria aged from 0 to 10 years.

"5' The number of males aged lower than 20 in 1975 was closest to
A 180 000 C 280 000
B 260 000 D 360 000

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INFORMATION FOR QUESTION 6

N
Norbert is doing navigation training in his boat.
He is heading Northeast.

"6' Starting from Northeast, after which one

W E
of the following turns or sets of turns will
Norbert be heading West?
A 225° anti-clockwise
B 135° clockwise
C 45° anti-clockwise then 180° clockwise
D 45° clockwise then 180° anti-clockwise S

INFORMATION FOR QUESTION 7

Aerosol, such as smoke or exhaust fumes, is a suspension of small particles in air. High aerosol levels
cause more scattering of light, and this scattering can be measured and used as an indication of the
actual level of aerosol in air at a given time.

In a Tasmanian city, light scattering was measured during a 24-hour period on a working day during
winter. In the city, on a working day, traffic is heaviest between 6:30 am and around 8:30 am, and between
4:30 pm and 6:00 pm. Many of the homes in the city are heated overnight with wood fires.

30

20
Amount of
light scattering
(units) 10

0
0:00 6:00 12:00 18:00 0:00
Time of day

In order to decide whether the aerosol present is mostly caused by traffic or by wood fire smoke, consider
the following additional measurements:

Take measurements on

I two more days.

II a summer non-working day.
III a warm working day.
IV a cold non-working day.

"7' Which of these would assist in deciding which of fire smoke or car exhaust fumes was
contributing more to the city’s aerosol levels on a cold working day?
A I, II and III C II and III
B I, III and IV D III and IV

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INFORMATION FOR QUESTIONS 8 AND 9

Paula constructs a brick wall, laying the bricks in the particular order indicated by the figure.
Every second row ends with half-bricks.

The completed wall is rectangular, of the width shown.

8
7 S
2 6 Q R 4
1 5 P 9 3

"8' Brick number 10 will be laid at

A P. C R.
B Q. D S.

"9' How many bricks and half-bricks are in a complete wall five bricks wide and five bricks high?
A 25 C 29
B 27 D 31

INFORMATION FOR QUESTION 10

It has been observed that the frequency of chirping of the snowy tree cricket is 100 per minute at 17.3 °C,
126 per minute at 20.3 °C, and 178 per minute at 25.3 °C.

"10' Which one of the following formulae best predicts the temperature, given the number of chirps
per minute (n)?
Temperature (°C) =
n + 55
A
9

55
B n+
9

n+9
C
55

9
D n+
55

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INFORMATION FOR QUESTIONS 11 AND 12

Until recently a flourishing community of sea otters lived in a coastal sea area. These animals dive in
shallow water and bring sea-urchins (spiny spherical animals) to the surface. There, the otters float on
their backs and break the urchins’ shells on stones balanced on their bellies. They then eat the flesh of
the urchins.

Sea-urchins live in, and feed on, tall kelp plants that are attached to the sea-floor. Sea-snails and abalone
(shellfish) also eat the kelp. Humans catch and eat abalone. Over recent years, severe hunting by humans
has significantly reduced the sea otter population.

"11' Given that food or energy goes in the direction of the arrows, which one of the following
correctly shows the relationships between all the organisms mentioned?

A human C human
sea otter sea otter

sea-urchin sea-urchin
abalone abalone

sea-snail sea-snail
kelp kelp

B human D human
sea otter sea otter

sea-urchin sea-urchin
abalone abalone

sea-snail sea-snail
kelp kelp

"12' Given that humans catch and eat sea otters, consider the following;
I Humans also catch and eat sea-urchins.
II Humans also catch and eat sea-snails.
III Humans also catch and eat abalone.
Which of the above would assist in protecting kelp from being over-grazed?
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III

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"13' The missing animal is

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A 18

B 20

C ? 11

14
D

18 14 15 16

INFORMATION FOR QUESTIONS 14 AND 15

The table shows the results of a study which measured the rate of blood flow in millilitres per
minute (mL min–1) to various parts of the human body at rest and during strenuous exercise.

Average rate of blood flow (mL min–1)

Body part At rest During strenuous exercise
Bone 250 250
Brain 750 750
Glands and other tissues 250 250
Heart 200 750
Kidneys 1100 600
Liver 1300 800
Lung tissue 100 200
Skeletal muscles 750 12 500
Skin 300 1900
Total 5000 18 000

"14' In a person at rest, what is the proportion of the total rate of blood flow that is directed to the brain?
A 7.5% C 22.5%
B 15.0% D 30.0%

"15' By approximately how much does the total rate of blood flow increase when a person shifts from
rest to strenuous exercise?
A 350%
B 300%
C 250%
D 200%

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INFORMATION FOR QUESTIONS 16 AND 17

The international price of oil is quoted in dollars per standard barrel. The figure shows the oil price per
barrel over a 14-week (70 trading day) period. The dashed line shows the price at the end of each day.
The solid line shows the ‘moving average’ price over a period of 56 days. The moving average price for a
particular day is calculated by averaging the daily prices for the last 14 days (that is, the previous 13 days
and the current day).
$90
$80
$70
Oil price

Daily price
$60 Moving average
price
$50
$40
$30
1 8 15 22 29 36 43 50 57 64 71
Days
"16' Which is closest to the greatest difference between the daily oil price and the moving average
oil price?
A $12 C $74
B $18 D $86

"17' Compared with changes in the daily oil price, changes in the moving average oil price are
A behind in time and have a smaller range.
B ahead in time and have a smaller range.
C behind in time and have a greater range.
D ahead in time and have a greater range.

INFORMATION FOR QUESTION 18

Four circles of different sizes touch each other, as shown,

and their centres lie on the straight line.

The circumference of a circle is πd, where d is the diameter.

"18' Regardless of their relative sizes, the sum of the

circumferences of the smaller circles
A is always equal to the circumference of the
large circle.
B is always smaller than the circumference of the
large circle.
C is always larger than the circumference of the large circle.
D may be smaller or larger than the circumference of the large circle.

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INFORMATION FOR QUESTION 19

Each of the three tiles has a grey side and

a white side. By flipping one or more tiles,
but without changing their position(s),
different patterns can be made. The pattern
shown is grey, white, grey.

"19' Including the one shown, how many different patterns can be made?
A four
B six
C eight
D ten

INFORMATION FOR QUESTION 20 climax

In his book on how to write a good story, tension

Quentin Quill uses this diagram to indicate
start
how excitement should vary as the reader Excitement
progresses through the book.

Page number

"20' The diagram suggests that

A the start should be the most exciting part.
B tension should correspond to greatest excitement.
C near the end, excitement should stop building.
D near the end, the rate at which excitement builds should slow down.

INFORMATION FOR QUESTION 21

X, Y and Z are each whole numbers greater than zero.

"21' If (X + Y) equals 5, where X is greater than Y, and Y is greater than Z, which one of the
following must be correct?
A X + Y + Z equals 6
B X – Y – Z is always a negative number
C X + Y – Z equals 0
D A, B and C can each be correct, depending on the values of X, Y and Z.

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INFORMATION FOR QUESTIONS 22 AND 23

Shanti and Johan are taking part in a memory experiment. They learn a list of 100 words and
then have their memory of the words tested every 20 minutes for 100 minutes.

When tested immediately after learning, both Shanti and Johan score 100%.

As time passes, both Shanti and Johan recall fewer and fewer words. However, their pattern of forgetting
is different. Shanti is each time able to recall 50% as many words as the time before. Johan is able to
recall 20 fewer words each time.

"22' Which of the graphs below best illustrates the above results?

Shanti Johan

A Number of C Number of
words recalled words recalled
100 100

0 0
Time (min) Time (min)

B Number of D Number of
words recalled words recalled
100 100

0 0
Time (min) Time (min)

"23' Approximately how many words does Shanti recall after 60 minutes?
A 6
B 12
C 25
D 50

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INFORMATION FOR QUESTIONS 24 – 26

The number of fish that can be kept in an aquarium depends partly on the surface area of the water.

As a rough guide, a pond can carry fish with a total length of 25 cm for each square metre of water
surface area. (There are 10 000 cm2 in one m2.)

For example, a fish pond with a surface area of 1 sq m can carry 10 fish each 2.5 cm long, or 20 fish each
1.25 cm long.

With aeration (air bubbles), the fish-carrying capacity can be increased by 20%.

"24' A fish pond that is not aerated has a water surface area of 0.2 m2.
How many 5 cm-long fish can it carry?
A none C 2
B 1 D more than 2

"25' A tank that is not aerated can carry a maximum of 40 2 cm-long fish.
If aerated, how many 4 cm long fish could this tank carry?
A 20 C 40
B 24 D 64

"26' In an aquarium shop, a tank with an aerator is to be built to hold as many as 100 5 cm-long fish.
The minimum water surface area will be closest to
A 2 m2. C 8 m2.
B 4 m2. D 16 m2.

INFORMATION FOR QUESTION 27

This tiling pattern on a floor is made up of diamond-shaped tiles.

"27' How many different shapes of tiles are in the pattern?

A one
B two
C three
D more than three

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INFORMATION FOR QUESTIONS 28 AND 29

One way of telling how far a boat is from the shore is to

note when a light on a lighthouse can first be seen as the
boat approaches the shore.
Height Height of eye
A table with the height of the light and the height of the of light 1.5 m 3m 4.5 m
observer above sea-level is consulted to give the distance 12 m 9.75 11 11.75
in nautical miles. One value is missing from the table. 15 m 10.75 11.75 12.5
18 m 11.5 12.5 13.25
21 m 12.25 13.25 14
24 m 13 X 14.75
"28' What is the value missing at X most likely to be? 27 m 13.5 14.5 15.5
A 14.75 30 m 14 15 16
B 14
C 13.75
D 13.5

"29' Cedric’s eye is 1.5 m above the deck of his yacht, and the deck is 3 m above sea-level. A light
which is 18 m above sea-level has just come into view.
The distance of Cedric’s yacht from the light is closest to
A 9.5 nautical miles.
B 11.5 nautical miles.
C 13.25 nautical miles.
D 15.5 nautical miles.

INFORMATION FOR QUESTION 30

Thirty cards are numbered from one to 30. 20 of the cards are selected at random.

"30' If x of the cards selected have even numbers, how many of the selected cards have odd numbers?
A 30 – x
B 20 – x
C 15 – x
D 1–x

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INFORMATION FOR QUESTIONS 31 AND 32

Morse code is a system that uses patterns made up of two symbols, dots ( • ) and dashes ( – ), to represent
different letters, numbers and punctuation marks.

Each Morse code character consists of at least one element (a dot or a dash) and many are a combination
of several elements. For example, the Morse code character for a comma uses six elements and is a
combination of dots and dashes ( – – • • – – ).

"31' How many different letters, numbers or punctuation marks can be made by using either one or
two elements, consisting of any combination of dots ( • ) and dashes ( – )?
A 2
B 4
C 6
D 8

"32' How many different letters, numbers or punctuation marks can be made using only three
elements, consisting of any combination of dots ( • ) and dashes ( – )?
A 4
B 6
C 8
D 12

END OF TEST 3

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WRITTEN EXPRESSION: TEST 4

Use the following to develop a piece of writing.

© Melissa Mercier / Alamy Stock Photo

Your writing will be judged on:

• what you have to say
• how well you organise and structure what you have to say
• how clearly and effectively you express yourself.

The amount you write is not as important as the thoughts you express and how you express them.

END OF TEST 4

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ANSWER KEYS
Humanities Comprehension and Interpretation: Test 2

Question Number Correct Answer Question Number Correct Answer

1 A 21 B
2 C 22 D
3 D 23 D
4 C 24 D
5 A 25 A
6 B 26 C
7 C 27 A
8 B 28 B
9 C 29 B
10 A 30 C
11 C 31 B
12 D 32 A
13 D 33 D
14 C 34 C
15 B 35 B
16 D 36 C
17 A 37 B
18 B 38 A
19 A 39 D
20 D 40 A

Mathematics and Science: Test 3

Question Number Correct Answer Question Number Correct Answer

1 D 17 A
2 C 18 A
3 A 19 C
4 A 20 D
5 D 21 A
6 D 22 A
7 D 23 B
8 C 24 B
9 B 25 B
10 A 26 D
11 C 27 B
12 D 28 B
13 C 29 C
14 B 30 B
15 C 31 C
16 B 32 C

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ANSWER SHEET

First Name Second Name Surname

NAMES:

DATE OF BIRTH: YEAR LEVEL:

TEST CENTRE:

MARKING INSTRUCTION
• Completely fill in the oval of your choice MARK LIKE THIS: NOT LIKE THIS:
• Use a black pencil
A B C D A B C D
• Do not use a blue/black or red pen
Use Pencil Only
• Completely erase any errors or stray marks

HUMANITIES COMPREHENSION AND INTERPRETATION: TEST 2

1 A B C D 9 A B C D 17 A B C D 25 A B C D 33 A B C D

2 A B C D 10 A B C D 18 A B C D 26 A B C D 34 A B C D

3 A B C D 11 A B C D 19 A B C D 27 A B C D 35 A B C D

4 A B C D 12 A B C D 20 A B C D 28 A B C D 36 A B C D

5 A B C D 13 A B C D 21 A B C D 29 A B C D 37 A B C D

6 A B C D 14 A B C D 22 A B C D 30 A B C D 38 A B C D

7 A B C D 15 A B C D 23 A B C D 31 A B C D 39 A B C D

8 A B C D 16 A B C D 24 A B C D 32 A B C D 40 A B C D

MATHEMATICS AND SCIENCE: TEST 3

1 A B C D 8 A B C D 15 A B C D 22 A B C D 29 A B C D

2 A B C D 9 A B C D 16 A B C D 23 A B C D 30 A B C D

3 A B C D 10 A B C D 17 A B C D 24 A B C D 31 A B C D

4 A B C D 11 A B C D 18 A B C D 25 A B C D 32 A B C D

5 A B C D 12 A B C D 19 A B C D 26 A B C D

6 A B C D 13 A B C D 20 A B C D 27 A B C D

7 A B C D 14 A B C D 21 A B C D 28 A B C D

Copyright © ACER 2015

19 Prospect Hill Road
Camberwell VIC 3124

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Australian Council for Educational Research

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