PHYSIOLOGY COMPRE (8/10/22) 10.

An ICU patient is being treated for low blood

pressure. He was given a sympathomimetic drug.
1. The y descent coincides with: One of the following effects will be noted:
a. Right atrial filling a. Urinary bladder retention
b. Right atrial contraction b. Bronchoconstriction
c. Fall in right atrial pressure c. Vomiting and diarrhea
d. Bulging of the tricuspid valve d. Excessive lacrimation
2. Which of the following is equal to the difference 11. The ideal substance that can be used to measure
between alveolar and atmospheric pressure? GFR because it is freely filtered by the glomerulus,
a. Trans pulmonary pressure neither absorbed or secreted by the tubules;
b. Trans airway pressure a. Creatinine
c. Trans chest wall pressure b. Inulin
d. Trans respiratory pressure c. PAH
3. Which of the following is accurate with regards the d. Glucose
gas exchange along the alveolo capillary membrane? 12. True of salivary secretion:
Under normal conditions, a. Contains more HCO3 than plasma
a. Blood stays in the pulmonary capillary 4 X b. Inhibited by parasympathetic
longer than necessary for CO2 to be c. Cl-is the major anion
adequately removed from blood d. Isotonic with plasma
b. Compared to O2, CO2 is more diffusible 13. Stimulation of sympathetic nervous system in
because of a higher molecular weight the gastrointestinal tract result results in which
c. During exercise the pulmonary capillary blood gastrointestinal movement?
transit time is prolonged to promote optimal
a. Vomiting
gas exchange
b. Gastric emptying
d. During the tachycardia the pulmonary
c. Constipation
capillary transit time is shortened and
d. Migrating myoelectric complexes
therefore promote hypoxemia
14. If stimuli 8 mv, 9 mv and 10 mv produced the
4. Highest cross-sectional area in the blood vessels:
same magnitude of response, 8 mv is considered:
a. Arteries
a. Threshold
b. Veins
b. Submaximal
c. Venules
c. Maximal
d. Capillaries
d. Supramaximal
5. One of the following is a correct
15. Compared to ventricular muscle potential,
cholinergic receptor-response pair:
the pacemaker action potential has:
a. Beta-3: lipolysis
a. More steep phase 0 slope
b. Beta -2: tachycardia
b. More sustained plateau phase
c. Muscarinic- 3: miosis
c. Lower overshoot
d. Nicotinic (Nm): muscle contraction
d. Shorter refractory period
6. Metabolic acidosis occurs in this situation, EXCEPT:
16. The alveolar pressure is most negative at which part
a. Rapid addition of acid in the plasma
of the tidal breathing?
b. Poor exchange of gases between the blood
and alveolar air a. Start of inspiration
c. Diarrhea b. Mid inspiration
d. Chronic renal failure c. End of inspiration
7. Which work of breathing component increases in d. Mid expiration
17. A 55-year-old male has acute coronary syndrome. He
a patient with hyaline membrane disease?
was given beta blocker. After a few weeks, his
a. Elastic
b. Non-elastic electrocardiogram showed a PR interval of 0.28:
c. Airway resistance a. Decrease in phase 0 slope
d. Viscous tissue resistance b. More negative RMP
8. Which part of the diastolic phase in the cardiac cycle? c. Increase Calcium
a. Isovolumetric contraction d. Sympathetic activation
b. Rapid ventricular filling 18. Absolute refractory period means that the cell will not
c. Rapid ejection phase be responsive to any kind of stimulus. At what phase in
d. Opening of the semilunar valves the action potential does it occur?
9. Increase in glucagon-like peptide 1 during meals will: a. Phase 4
a. Increase both insulin and glucagon release b. Phase 3 until start of phase 4
b. Suppress both insulin and glucagon release c. Phase 0 until phase 3
c. Suppress insulin but enhance glucagon release d. All phases in the action potential
d. Increase insulin but suppress glucagon release 19. Pituitary stalk compression results in an increase of
this hormone
a. FSH
 b. TSH a. Increases permeability of the loop of Henle
c. Prolactin to water
d. Vasopressin b. Increase permeability of the
20. The most important extracellular buffer in the medullary collecting duct to urea
regulation of acid-base disturbances: c. Inhibits the absorption of Na+ and water in
a. Bone buffers the loop of Henle
b. Protein buffers d. Inhibits absorption of water in the
c. Phosphate buffers collecting duct.
d. Bicarbonate buffers 30. Which condition will produce an increase in
21. Venous return increase due to: Reynold’s number?
a. Increase in parasympathetic respond a. Vessel diameter is decreased
b. Increase in the skeletal pump b. High viscosity
c. During expiration c. Velocity of blood flow is increased
d. Decrease in blood volume d. Laminar flow is present
22. This causes a decrease in the secretion of H+ in 31. TRUE of the loop of Henle:
the proximal tubule: a. Reabsorbs majority of the filtered Na+
a. Inhibition of carbonic anhydrase and water
b. Increasing filtered load of HCO3 b. Known as countercurrent exchanger
c. Increasing pCO2 c. Permeability to water depends on the
d. Decreasing intracellular Na+ presence of ADH
23. The respiratory zone starts at which anatomic d. Responsible for increasing osmotic gradient
structure? in the interstitium
a. Part of the airway wherein the
cartilage disappears 32. Low insulin: glucagon ratio during the fasting state
b. 10th generation of the lower airway leads to enhanced:
c. 17th generation of the lower airway a. Glycolysis
d. 20th generation of the lower airway b. Lipogenesis
24. The receptor of this hormone utilizes tyrosine c. Ketogenesis
kinase signaling pathway d. Glycogenesis
a. IGF-1 33. Most important vesolidators in the arterial system:
b. Cortisol a. Oxygen
c. Glucagon b. Bradykinin
d. Calcitonin c. Change in osmolarity
25. What type of action potential s does conducting d. Adenosine
cells have? 34. Effective defecation is:
a. Slow type of action potential a. Mediated by local enteric myenteric
b. Fast type of action potential nervous system in rectal wall
c. Both slow and fast action potential b. By way of parasympathetic nerve fibers in
d. None of the above the pelvic nerve
26. This is how the kidney handles amino acids: c. Initiated by contraction of abdominal
a. Freely filtered and not reabsorbed, but wall muscles
is secreted into the tubules. d. Promoted by tonic contraction of internal
b. Freely filtered and reabsorbed but not and external anal sphincters
secreted in the urine 35. The law that governs the movement of fluid in
c. Freely filtered and partially absorbed back the cylindrical tube:
into the blood a. Ohm’s Law
d. Freely filtered and neither absorbed or b. Poiseuille’s Law
secreted by the tubules c. Frank Starling Law
27. An athlete was prescribed a prostaglandin inhibitor. d. Law of Laplace
The signaling pathway being inhibited is: 36. In an experiment, a presynaptic cell was stimulated at
a. Cyclooxygenase the same site by successive short interval impulses
b. Epoxygenase which resulted in a visible response. The synaptic
c. Lipoxygenase property exhibit is:
d. Hemeoxygase a. Facilitation
28. Betanechol interacts with holinergic M3 receptors b. Temporal summation
causing contraction of the urinary bladder and c. Post-tetanic facilitation
expulsion of urine thru this signal transduction d. Spatial summation
pathway: 37. These are specialized capillaries that extend
a. IP3 and DAG formation downward into the medulla supplying the lop of
b. Opening of Na or K channels Henle:
c. cAMP stimulation a. Vasa recta
d. Activation of Cgm phosphodiesterase b. Partibular capillaries
29. Action of ADH include/s: c. Capillaries of Bellini
d. Justamedullary capillaries
38. The heart sound produced during rapid diastolic filling d. Cgmp to GMP
is; 48. This is how the kidney handles creatinine:
a. First heart sound a. Freely filtered and not reabsorbed, but
b. Second heart sound is secreted into the tubules.
c. Third heart sound b. Freely filtered and reabsorbed but not
d. Fourth heart sound secreted in the urine
39. Starling’s force that will promote Na+ and c. Freely filtered and partially absorbed back
water reabsorption in the proximal tubule: into the blood
a. Increased peritubular capillary d. Freely filtered and neither absorbed or
hydrostatic pressure secreted by the tubules
b. Decreased peritubular capillary oncotic 49. This is the most potent stimulus for the release of ADH
pressure a. 5 % Blood loss
c. Increased interstitial hydrostatic pressure b. 5% drop in blood pressure
d. Decreased interstitial oncotic pressure c. 5% increase in urine volume
40. A cell becomes more excitable if the: d. 5% increase in plasma osmolality
a. Resting membrane potential (RMP) is 50. This wave represents ventricular depolarization:
more negative a. P wave
b. Threshold potential (TP) is more negative b. QRS wave
c. RMP and TP are both negative c. T wave
d. RMP is farther from the TP d. U wave
41. Possible mechanism by which an excitatory drug P wave: atrial depolarization
containing glutamate can promote increased well- T wave: ventricular repolarization
being and increased nerve excitability: 51. Which of the following best describe the
a. Enhanced opening of CI channels pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)?
b. Activation of GABA release a. PVR due to extra alveolar vessels is highest
c. Opening of voltage-gated Na channels at TLC
d. Activation of K channels b. PVR due to alveolar vessels is highest at RV
42. The following organs require insulin for blood glucose c. Total PVR is higher in RV than FRC
to enter their cells: d. Total PVR is higher in FRC than TLC
a. Brain RBC’s 52. Tubular segment that reabsorbs most (2/3) of the
b. Liver and pancreas filtered load of the glomerulus:
c. Kidney and intestines a. Proximal tubule
d. Fats and skeletal muscles b. Loop of Henle
43. One of the following organs has dual innervations c. Distal tubule
from both the sympathetic and parasympathetic d. Collecting duct
nervous system: The proximal tubule is responsible for the bulk reclamation of
a. Sweat glands the glomerular filtrate. The proximal tubule reabsorbs all of
b. Liver the filtered glucose and amino acids, the vast majority of
c. Urethral sphincter filtered phosphate as well as eighty percent of the filtered
d. Piloerector muscles bicarbonate and two-thirds of the filtered chloride
44. Also known as end diastolic volume: (https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4028442/#:
a. Pre load ~:text=The%20proximal%20tubule%20is%20responsible,the%
b. Afterload 20filtered%20chloride%20%5B10%5D.)
c. Contractility 53. Infusion of large amounts of isotonic saline will cause
d. Arterial pressure an increase in:
45. Manifestation of adrenal insufficiency due to a. Plasma osmolality
sudden withdrawal of chronic exogenous steroids b. Plasma Na+ level
a. Hypertension c. Extracellular volume
b. Hyperkalemia d. H+ ion level (acidosis)
c. Hyperglycemia Intravenous infusion of isotonic saline (0.9% NaCl) dilutes
d. Hyperpigmentation plasma albumin, does not change plasma osmolarity, but
46. This step in steroid hormone biosynthesis catalyzed slightly increases plasma Na+ and to a greater extent plasma
by 5a-reductace [Cl−]. The lack of an osmotic change means that the added
a. Testosterone-estradiol fluid will expand only extracellular (plasma and interstitial
b. Cholesterol -pregnenolone fluid)
c. Testosterone-dihydrotestosterone
d. Progesterone-11-deoxycorticosterone spaces.
47. A drug acting on the muscarinic (M2) cholinergic (https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/medicine-and-
dentist ry/plasma-osmolarity)
receptor results in slowing of cardiac rate. Its
54. A patient accidentally ingested 5 tablets of an
signal transduction mechanism involves:
anticholinergic drug for gastrointestinal spasms. He
a. IP3-DAG formation
is expected to develop:
b. Activation of K channels
c. Stimulation of Camp a. Bronchoconstriction
b. Detrusor contraction
 c. Decreased salivary gland secretion 1- Clonidione binds to GPCR
d. Ciliary muscle constriction
Anticholinergic = inhibit parasympathetic nervous system
(rest and digest).
55. The phenomenon whereby RBF and GFR are
maintained relatively constant as arterial blood
pressure changes from 80-180 mmHg:
a. Renal Clearance
b. Ultrafiltration
c. Autoregulation
d. Tubuloglomerular feedback
56. Which of the following is accurate with regards
small airway resistance?
a. Contribute highest to the total airway
resistance
b. Highest TLC
c. Not dependent on bronchial smooth
muscle contraction
d. Inversely related with lung elastance
For letter a: smallest airways contribute very little to
resistance, because the combined cross-sectional area of
these airways is much larger than that of the intermediate
bronchi.
For letter c: airway resistance is determined by lung volume,
bronchial smooth muscle tone, and dynamic airway
compression
(https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/agricultural-and-
biolo gical-sciences/airway-resistance)
57. It is a measure of friction that impedes flow:
a. Hydrostatic pressure
b. Velocity
c. Resistance
d. Flow
58. Tubular segment that contains a hypoosmotic
fluid compared to plasma:
a. Proximal tubule
b. Descending limb of the loop of Henle
c. Distal convoluted tubule
d. Inner medullary collecting duct
Fluid reaching the distal convoluted tubule is
hypoosmotic (100 mOsm/kg) compared with the fluid
entering the descending limb of Henle's loop (300
mOsm/kg).
(https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/veterinary-science-
an d-veterinary-medicine/loop-of-henle)
59. This is the ability of the tubules to increase Na+ and
water reabsorption in response to increased Na+
load:
a. Renal clearance
b. Ultrafiltration
c. Autoregulation
d. Tubuloglomerular balance
60. A patient who has hypoparathyroidism will most
likely have these consequences
a. Hypocalciuria, hypophosphaturia
b. Hypocalciuria, hyperphosphaturia
c. Hypercalciuria, hypophosphaturia
- hyperparathyroidism
d. Hypercalciuria, hyperphosphaturia
61. Clonidine administration results in decreased blood
pressure due to relaxation of peripheral vascular
smooth muscles thru inhibition of the cAMP signal
transduction pathway. This is the correct sequence if
 2- inactivation of adenylyl
cyclase 3-G protein (i-type)
dissociates
4- inhibition of protein kinase
5- decreased synthesis of cAMP
a. 1-3-2-5-4
b. 1-5-4-2-3
c. 1-4-2-3-5
d. 1-2-3-4-5
62. Which of the following explains why the PaO2 is
much lower than PAO2?
a. Upper airway humidification of air
b. Low atmospheric pressure
c. VQ relationship in the normal lung
d. Left to right shunt due to bronchial circulation
63. Which of the following occurs to atmospheric air
during ascent to high altitude?
a. Atmospheric pressure increase - decrease
b. FIO2 remains constant
c. Nitrogen concentration remains constant -
increase
d. PIO2 increase - decrease
64. Use of a threshold stimulus is LIKELY to generate a
second action potential if it is applied during this
phase of the first action potential:
a. Depolarization
b. 2nd half of depolarization
c. At rest, prior to next depolarization
d. Overshoot
65. This hormone exhibits bone resorption
a. Cortisol
b. Calcitonin - inhibit bone resorption by
lowering circulating calcium
c. Thyroxine
d. Parathyroid hormone
66. Which of the following most accurately
described inhalation from RV to TLC?
a. The bases are ventilated from RV to FRC
b. The apices are ventilated from FRC to TLC
c. AT RV, the lower lung zones are more
compliant upper lung zone
d. AT FRC, the lower lung zones are
more compliant upper lung zone
67. Movement of solid particles toward the antrum is
accomplished by the interaction of gastric
contractions and occlusion of the pylorus
a. Receptive relaxation
b. Propulsion
c. Grinding - churning by the antrum which
serves to reduce the size of the food particles
d. Retropulsion - backward movement of
bolus from pylorus to the body
(https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK544242/
#:~:text=T his%20backward%20movement%20of%20the,the
%20pylorus
%20into%20the%20duodenum.)
68. Increased cAMP formation is the signaling pathway in
the ligand interaction with this receptor:
a. A2
b. B1
c. M3
d. A1
69. Blood level of this substance is decreased in b. K channels
Grave’s Disease c. Ca channels
a. Thyroxine d. K and Ca channels
b. Diiodotyrosine
c. Triiodothyronine
d. Thyroid stimulating hormone
70. This condition increases vasopressin secretion
a. Hypokalemia
b. Hypertension
c. Hypervolemia
d. Plasma hyperosmolarity
71. The Starling’s forces in the capillaries particularly
the oncotic pressure is dependent on:
a. Protein concentration in the plasma and in
the interstitium
b. Changes in the capillary hydrostatic pressure
c. Water concentration in the capillary
and interstitium
d. Distribution of the cellular elements
72. If -
1 is action potential reaching axon terminal
2 is expulsion of neurotransmitter (NT) to synaptic cleft
3 is rise in intracytoplasmic calcium resulting
to movement of vesicles containing NT 78. Stimulation of the myenteric nerve plexus of the
4 is NT binds to post-synaptic receptors enteric nervous system results in:
- then, the correct sequence of events a. Local intestinal secretion
in neuromuscular transmission is b. Contraction of submucosal muscles
a. 1,3,2,4 c. Increased tone of gut wall
b. 3,2,1,4 d. Local intestinal absorption
c. 2,3,4,1 The myenteric plexus extends throughout the entire length
d. 4,3,2,1 of the gut as a linear chain of interconnected neurons. Lying
73. Renal adaptation to cases of volume contraction within intestinal smooth muscle, the myenteric plexus
(depletion) include/s: focuses on muscle control. Upon stimulation, the plexus
a. Inhibition of the renal sympathetic nerves. causes an increase in gut wall tone and in intensity of
b. Inhibition of the release of ADH from rhythmical contractions.
the pituitary gland. 79. Inhibition of this enzyme/ transporter reduces excess
c. Inhibition of the RAAS. thyroid hormone production by the thyroid in a
d. Inhibition of ANP and urodilantin from patient with hyperthyroidism.
the tubule cells. a. Type 1 deiodinase
74. An ophthalmologist wanted to examine the anterior b. Type 3 deiodinase
and posterior chambers of a patient’s eyes. The type c. Thyroid peroxidase
of drug to administer to cause mydriasis is: d. Sodium-iodide exchanger
a. Alpha -1 agonist 80. The following leads to decreased prolactin release
b. Nicotinic 2 agonist a. Pregnancy
c. Muscarinic agonist b. Serotonin agonist
d. Beta blocker c. Dopamine agonist
75. Which of the following constricts the d. Primary hypothyroidism
pulmonary arterioles? Dopamine restrains prolactin production. Inc Dopamine ->
a. Oxygen Dec PRL
b. Nitric Oxide 81. This substance is derived from pro-opiomelanocortin
c. Prostaglandin a. FSH
d. Thromboxane A2 b. ACTH
76. GFR ceases and urine output start to decrease below c. Cartisol
this systolic BP: d. Melatonin
a. 50mmHg 82. Which of the following causes a turbulent
b. 60mmHg airflow pattern?
c. 70mmHg a. Low gas density - high
d. 80mmHg b. Slow airflow velocity - fast
77. During the plateau phase of the action potential, c. A low Reynold’s number - high
what gates are open: d. A large luminal airway diameter
a. Na channels
83. Which of the following is both seen in the b. Alpha, beta and gamma subunits are attached
alveolar ventilation and alveolar gas equation? to each other.
a. PACO2 c. Beta subunits dissociates from the alpha-
b. PAO2 gamma dimer.
c. VCO2 dot d. A ligand binds to the G protein coupled receptor.
d. RQ 94. The reason why an impulse generated at the hillock will
84. Factor that leads to increased gastric emptying: propagate unidirectionally towards the axon terminal
a. Cholecystokinin - inhibits can be explained by the concept of
b. Gastrin a. Summation
c. Acidic duodenal chime b. Refractory period
d. Hypotonic fluids in duodenum c. Downregulation of receptor
85. Which of the following statement best describe d. Salutatory conduction - electrical impulse
the elastic property of the respiratory system? At skips from node to node
FRC 95. Slow waves of the GI smooth muscles
a. The lungs have a natural tendency to expand a. Are action potentials
b. The chest wall have the natural tendency b. Represent changes in resting
to contract membrane potentials
c. The respiratory system is most compliant c. Lead to muscle contraction
d. The respiratory system is most elastic d. Occur in similar frequencies throughout the GIT
86. What is a positive generating event that 96. A 24-year old female has fever. You noted that her
produce depolarization of the membrane: heart rate is 108/min. Her HR is increased because of
a. K efflux hyperthermia:
b. Na influx a. Makes resting membrane potential less negative
c. Ca influx b. Increase phase 4 slope
d. K efflux and Ca influx c. Makes threshold potential more negative
87. Predominant movement of the small intestines: d. Increases amplitude of action potential
a. Haustrations - colon 97. The following results from the action of
b. Mass movements - cecum to sigmoid parathyroid hormone on the renal tubule
c. Segmentation a. Inhibition of 1 a-hydroxylase
d. Peristalsis b. Stimulation of Ca 2+ reabsorption in the
88. Most abundant ion intracellularly: distal tubule
a. Na c. Stimulation of phosphate reabsorption in
b. K the proximal tubule
c. Ca d. Decreased urinary excretion of cyclic
d. Mg adenosine monophosphate (Camp)
89. The velocity of action potential propagation is greatest 98. Destruction of parietal cells as seen in chronic gastritis
in this particular nerve fiber: is accompanied by decreased production of HCI and:
a. 0.5 um diameter, unmyelinated fiber a. Intrinsic factor
b. 5 um diameter, myelinated fiber b. Pepsin
c. 10 um diameter, unmyelinated fiber c. Bicarbonate
d. 20 um diameter, myelinated fiber d. gastrin
90. Which of the following is equal to function 99. A regulatory hormone that increased Na+ and
residual capacity? water reabsorption in the different tubular
a. IRV + TV segments:
b. ERV + RV a. Angiotensin II
c. TLC – VC b. Atrial natriuretic peptide - increase
d. VC-IC renal excretion of salt and water
91. Respiratory center in the medulla is inhibited during c. Dopamine
this phase of swallowing: d. Uroguanylin - balances urinary sodium
a. Oral excretion to match the levels of NaCl
b. Pharyngeal absorbed into the body via the GI tract.
c. Esopangeal 100. An OFW went into several days of fasting due to
d. Gastric community lockdown. This resulted in increased
92. The renal response to metabolic acidosis is to: production of epinephrine, a stress hormone that acts
a. Increase the titrable acid and on the GPCR-Camp pathway. A component that is
ammonium excretion increased in this pathway is:
b. Renal excretion of bicarbonate a. Effectprotein-adenylyl cylase
c. Generation of new phosphate buffer b. Protein kinase- protein kinase C
d. Conservation of hydrogen c. G protein-Gq
93. A G protein is said to be inactivated if: d. Second messenger phosphodiesterase
a. GTP is bound to the alpha subunit of the
G protein