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Multi Choice Tech 1 Answer

1. Residual stress, yield strength, and hardness will be important factors to consider. 2. Post weld heat treatment and peening would be most effective for reducing residual stresses. 3. The welding process that would cause the most distortion is MAG welding. 4. Residual stresses are a consequence of the material not yielding during the welding process.

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100% found this document useful (2 votes)
1K views

Multi Choice Tech 1 Answer

1. Residual stress, yield strength, and hardness will be important factors to consider. 2. Post weld heat treatment and peening would be most effective for reducing residual stresses. 3. The welding process that would cause the most distortion is MAG welding. 4. Residual stresses are a consequence of the material not yielding during the welding process.

Uploaded by

quyennq
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Multi choice 3.

1 Technology paper 1

1. Which value will be an important factor with regards residual stress.

a. Hardness

b. Yield strength

c. UTS value

d. Charpy impact value

2. To reduce residual stresses, which of the following would be the most effective.

a. Peening

b. Toe grinding

c. Post hydrogen release

d. Post weld heat treatment

3. A 10mm fillet welded one side on a CMn steel plate 1000mm long can suffer
from distortion if unrestrained or not pre set. Which of the following welding
processes would cause the most distortion in this case.

a. TIG

b. MAG

c. FCAW

d. SAW
4. Residual stresses are a consequence of?

a. The material yielding

b. The material not yielding

c. The material’s toughness

d. The material’s hardness

5. A STRA test:-

a. Can give an indication of a materials elongation and ductility.

b. Is used to measure a materials ultimate tensile strength.

c. Is a measure of a materials proof stress.

d. Shows a materials compressive and tensile properties.

6. Necking:-

a. Is when the elastic point is reached

b. Is when the proof stress is reached

c. Is when the specimen has gone past it’s elastic point and moving into the plastic
zone.

d. Is the point just before failure


7. The Transition range is?

a. Is the point between yield and UTS

b. It’s the range between the lowest interpass temperature and the highest
interpass temperature where welding can take place

c. Is a range plot in Charpy impact testing

d. Is the range curve for hardness testing

8. Highest hydrogen levels would be found in?

a. A weld carried out with a E6013 electrode

b. A weld carried out with a E6011 electrode

c. A weld carried out with a E6018 electrode

d. A weld carried out with a E431NI2RR electrode

9. Bend tests:-

a. Require complex testing equipment

b. May be used for the purpose of welder approval

c. May be used for the purpose of welding procedure approval

d. Both b and c
10. A tensile test is considered as a :-

a. Fatigue failure

b. Ductile failure

c. Stress corrosion failure

d. Cyclic load failure

11. Fracture testing:-

a. Is frequently used to assess the strength of a fillet weld

b. Is frequently used to assess the strength of a butt weld

c. Detects lack of root penetration in fillet welds

d. Both a and c

12. NDT:-

a. In penetrant testing a high level of surface cleaning is required to ensure all


defects are detected.

b. In penetrant testing the developer is sometimes applied during the dwell time.

c. In penetrant testing only surface breaking defects can be detected.

d. Both a and c.
13.In HICC which of the following statements is not true?

a. It occurs immediately after welding

b. Cellulosic electrodes are ideal to avoid HICC

c. Pre-heating will increase the chances of HICC

d. all of the above

14. A radiographic test cannot reveal:-

a. The length of the defect

b. The location of the defect

c. The depth of the defect

d. The type of defect

15. When designing an EN symbol for a symmetrical fillet weld:-

a. The size need not be mentioned

b. The length can be mentioned to the left of the symbol

c. The finished is assumed flat

d. The broken line can be omitted.


16. MAG welding:-

a. In the EN numerical classification of welding processes 131 and 135 represents


the MAG welding process.

b. In the EN numerical classification of welding processes 141 represents the MAG


welding processes.

c. In the EN numerical classification of welding processes 121 represents

d. None of the above

17. Which of the following is the odd one out?

a. Under bead cracking

b. Cold cracking

C. HICC

d. Hot cracking

18. Drooping characteristic:-

a. Is so called because welding current drops constantly during the welding


operation.

b. Works on the basis of a large change in voltage equals a small change in


amperage.

c. Uses a self adjusting arc to balance amperage and voltage.

d. Works on the basis that a small change in voltage equals a large change in
amperage.
19. The term A% is used:-

a. To determine the yield point

b. In Charpy impact testing

c. In CTOD testing

d. To denote elongation

20. Cellulosic electrodes are:-

a. Used when hydrogen control is required.

b. Used when high deposition is required

c. Always classified as E9010

d. can be used in all positions

21. If the original gauge length of 50mm increases to 55.6mm in an all weld
tensile test, the percentage elongation is?

a. 5.6%

b. 10.2%

c. 11.5%

d. No options are correct


22. When welding Carbon steels using the MAG process with 100% co², which
metal transfer would be used?

a. spray

b. Pulse

c. Dip

d. All options are correct

23. The purpose of post heating a welded joint is :-

a. To change the microstructure of the weld metal

b. To allow time for the hydrogen to diffuse out

c. To temper the microstructure

d. All options are correct

24. Arc blow:-

a. Only occurs when welding with DC-

b. Only occurs when welding with DC+

c. Only occurs with AC

d. Both a and b
25. Welder qualifications:-

a. All welders must be qualified in a least three different welding processes.

b. Welders with a qualification in MMA welding are also qualified to weld with the
TIG welding process.

c. If NDT is to be conducted on the finished weld then it’s not essential that the
welder is qualified, however some clients may insist on this.

d. No options are correct.

26. Stainless steel 316 type:-

a. Has a flat, slightly decreasing transition range

b. Has a sharp decreasing transition range

c. Has no transition range as it has a FCC structure

d. Changes from FCC to BCC structure as temperature drops and therefore


transition range changes accordingly.

27. Bend testing:-

a. Has normally a 10% of t as the radius along the four edges of the specimen

b. Has the reinforcement removed before testing to check for the number of runs

c. Has a former size 0.4 of t

d. Both b and c
28. Macro testing:-

a. Can be omitted during testing if the impact and tensile tests show better than
expected results.

b. Is always followed by a micro testing

c. Can detect lack of root fusion

d. Is frequently used as an in service check on the internal structure of the joint

29. Which of the following uses a flat characteristic?

a. Processes 111, 141,121, 136.

b. Processes 131,136,121,135.

c. Processes 111, 121, 135, 141.

d. All welding processes use both flat and drooping characteristics.

30. MAG welding:-

a. DC- is preferred to DC+ for the welding of most materials.

b. AC pulse current improves the cleaning action.

c. The induction controls the rate of spatter and penetration in spray transfer.

d. Wire feed speed remains constant during the welding operation.


31. In NDT:-

a. Radiography is the best method for the detection of lack of sidewall fusion in a
single V butt weld.

b. DPI can be used for both surface and subsurface defect detection.

c. MPI can be used for both surface and subsurface defect detection.

d. UT is the best method for the detection of rounded (non planar) defects.

32. Lamellar tearing:-

a. Is a problem associated with steels of a low through thickness ductility.

b. Is always associated with steels that have been sensitised.

c. Is caused by rapid cooling from above the upper critical point.

d. All options are correct.

33. Tensile testing:-

a. Is a measure of a materials ability to bend through 180°.

b. Measures the yield strength of a material only.

c. Measures Re and Rm of a material.

d. Is designed to break the material at low temperatures to determine its


susceptibility to brittle fracture.
34. Solidification cracking:-

a. Occurs after PWHT or immediately after welding.

b. Occurs up to 24 hours after welding or PWHT.

c. Immediately after welding or after a few hours.

d. Immediately after welding.

35. Is it necessary for a Welding Inspector to check the correctness of polarity


during welding?

a. No, not necessary since it does not affect quality in most cases.

b. No, it is for the welder to take care of.

c. Yes, it should be checked only when penetration is an important criteria.

d. Yes, it should be checked by the Welding Inspector.

36. Preheating:-

a. Is derived by taking into account the CEV, hydrogen scale and material
thickness.

b. Is seldom considered if PWHT is to follow and when using a process with a high
arc energy.

c. a is correct but needs more information.

d. Both a and b are correct but b requires more information.


37. EN ISO 1011:-

a. May be referred to for preheat temperatures.

b. May be used for the approval of a WPS.

c. May be used for the approval of a welder.

d. may be used for visual inspection requirements of fusion welds.

38. Stress relieving after welding:-

a. Is normally carried out above the lower critical limit.

b. Is normally carried out below the lower critical limit.

c. Is always carried out on high tensile strength materials.

d. Both a and b could be applicable, it would depend on the materials CEV.

39. Proof stress is:-

a. used to prove that the residual stresses are considered acceptable.

b. A measure used in certain types of tensile testing.

c. To determine the UTS of aluminium.

d. Will determine the transition range.


40. Rm is a term used to express the :-

a. Yield point of a material

b. Elastic point of a material

c. Elongation of a material

d. Maximum load applied

41. GMAW welding:-

a. Can be used in all positions

b. Can be used in the PA, PB and PC positions

c. Dip transfer can only be used in all positions

d. Both Dip and Pulse transfers can be used in all positions

42. Which of the following processes cannot be used on CMn steel material?

a. MIG

b. MMA

c. SAW

d. All of the options can be used on CMn steels


43. SAW welding:-

a. In a multiple wire system it is not recommended to use AC.

b. DC+ generally produces deeper penetration when compared with AC.

c. DC+ generally produces higher build up when compared with AC.

d. DC- generally produces deeper penetration when compared with DC+

44. MMA, TIG and SAW all:-

a. Use a flat characteristic output

b. Use a drooping characteristic output

c. Use both drooping and flat characteristic outputs

d. Both MMA and TIG use a drooping characteristic outputs, SAW can use a flat
characteristic output.

45. The heat input for a MMA weld made using 22volts, 250amps and 250mm per
min travel speed would be:-

a. 1.32KJ/mm

b. 1.05KJ/mm

c. 1.05KJ/cm

d. 1.54KJ/cm
46. In MMA welding to improve deposition, which of the following will be useful?

a. Change from DC+ to DC-

b. Change from DC- to DC+

c. Change from AC to DC+

d. Change from DC- to AC

47. When a set of mechanical tests are done to a qualitative, quantitative,


qualitative measurement, the tests would be?

a. Impact, bend and fracture

b. Bend, hardness and fracture

c. Tensile, impact and hardness

d. Macro, fracture and tensile

48. The ductile to brittle transition is associated with what type of mechanical
test?

a. Tensile

b. Impact

c. Hardness

d. Fillet fracture
49. The four edges of a bend test specimen have a radius added because:-

a. Improve bending

b. Prevent cracking

c. Prevent cuts to the operator

d. To stop spring back

50. The yield point of a CMn steel within a tensile test is where?

a. The material is in an elastic condition

b. The material has become plastically deformed

c. The material has failed

d. Is where the UTS has been reached

51. The UTS within a tensile test is where?

a. The load is at it’s maximum

b. The load is beginning to fall and then failure

c. The yield has been reached and failure occurs immediately

d. a and b are correct


52. Percentage elongation is?

a. The total length of a completed tensile test

b. The additional length gained after a tensile test

c. The original length of a tensile sample

d. The failure mode induced during a tensile test

53. If a tensile test fails in the weld:-

a. It must be rejected as failure should occur in the HAZ

b. As long as the UTS of the parent material is reached it should be acceptable

c. The test should be re taken with an over matching filler material

d. There is probably a defect in the weld area

54. Side bend test:-

a. Put the root in compression and the face in tension

b. Put the face in compression and root in tension

c. Put the root and face in compression and tension

d. Only the face is in tension


55. The removal of excess weld metal for bend testing is done:-

a. Only to the side that’s in contact with the former

b. To both root and face

c. Need not be done as the whole weld is being tested

d. To the side that’s in tension

56.impact test specimens are taken from?

a. The lowest heat input area

b. The highest heat input area

c. The start position

d. The stop position

57. Hardness test specimens are taken from the?

a. The highest heat input area

b. The centre of the specimen

c. The lowest heat input area

d. From the easiest position to access


58. Tensile tests cannot be taken from:-

a. Pipe butt welds

b. Material below 5mm thick

c. Fillet welds

d. Single bevel vee butt welds

59. A high hardness result could be due to?

a. Heat input too high

b. Too much pre heat

c. The use of PWHT

d. A lack of pre heat

60. Which welded material would perform best in an impact test?

a. HSLA

b. CMn steel

c. 316L Stainless steel

d. High carbon steel

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