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Question 1182290

This document provides instructions for a social science exam for Class 10. It has the following key points: 1. The exam has 6 sections (A-F) with a total of 37 questions worth 80 marks. Section A has 20 multiple choice questions worth 1 mark each. Section B has 4 short answer questions worth 2 marks each. Section C has 5 short answer questions worth 3 marks each. Section D has 4 long answer questions worth 5 marks each. Section E has 3 case-based questions worth 4 marks each. Section F has 1 map-based question worth 5 marks. 2. Time allowed for the exam is 3 hours. Answers should not exceed the word limits specified for each section.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
186 views8 pages

Question 1182290

This document provides instructions for a social science exam for Class 10. It has the following key points: 1. The exam has 6 sections (A-F) with a total of 37 questions worth 80 marks. Section A has 20 multiple choice questions worth 1 mark each. Section B has 4 short answer questions worth 2 marks each. Section C has 5 short answer questions worth 3 marks each. Section D has 4 long answer questions worth 5 marks each. Section E has 3 case-based questions worth 4 marks each. Section F has 1 map-based question worth 5 marks. 2. Time allowed for the exam is 3 hours. Answers should not exceed the word limits specified for each section.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 8

Greater Heights Public School

PRE BOARD 2
Class 10 - Social Science
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question paper.

All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Questions no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. The answer to

each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q. 25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. The answer to each

question should not exceed 60 words


5. Section D – Questions no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. The answer to each

question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case-based questions with three sub-questions and are of 4 marks

each. The answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map-based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b
from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions.

Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted.

9. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

10. Note: CBQ stands for “Competency Based Question”. 50% weightage allocated for competency-based
questions.

Section A
1. In 1905, who painted the image of Bharat Mata shown as dispensing learning, food, and clothing? [1]

a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay b) Abnindranath Tagore

c) Rabindranath Tagore d) Ravi Verma


2. The Bhakra - Nangal project water is being used both for: [1]

a) agriculture and industries b) hydel power production and irrigation

c) domestic and industrial d) transport and recreation

COMPARISON OF COUNTRIES [1]


3.
Monthly incomes of citizens (in Rupees)
Country
I II III

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A 11,500 10,500 10,000

B 5,500 7,500 19,000

C 1,000 1,000 30,000

D 3,500 3,500 25,000

As per the data given above in which country will the people prefer to live?

a) Country C b) Country B

c) Country A d) Country D
4. Which of the following provisions of the Indian Wildlife Protection Act are applicable for maintaining [1]
ecological diversity and protecting habitats?
i. Integrating diverse flora and fauna into our daily life.
ii. Banning hunting and giving legal protection to the animals in their habitats.
iii. Recommending establishing national parks and wildlife sanctuaries.
iv. Providing legal protection to many marine animals.

a) Statement ii is correct. b) Statement i and ii are correct.

c) Statement i, ii, & iii are correct. d) Statement ii, iii & iv are correct.
5. Which of the following is a subject of the Union List? [1]

a) Education b) Defence

c) Trade d) Agriculture
6. Which of the following statements accurately distinguishes the concept of power sharing among different social [1]
groups?

a) Power sharing among different social b) Power sharing among different social
groups can be observed in arrangements like groups is a method used to alienate minority
the 'community government' in Belgium communities from the government.

c) Power sharing among different social d) Power sharing among different social
groups is exclusively limited to religious groups is primarily focused on giving
and linguistic groups. minority communities a fair share in power.​​
7. Assertion (A): In a non-democratic setup, the unacceptability of mistreatment towards women would not have a [1]
legal basis.
Reason (R): Individual freedom and dignity, which are foundational principles in democracies, may not have
the same legal and moral force in such systems.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


8. In a bustling marketplace, Sarah, a shoe manufacturer, sought to acquire wheat for her family. With the [1]
convenience of money, she effortlessly sold her shoes and exchanged the money for the desired wheat, avoiding
the complexities of a direct barter system. The use of money eliminated the need for a double coincidence of
wants, streamlining transactions. Why is the use of money preferred in transactions?

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a) Money ensures a unjust distribution of b) Money simplifies the process of buying and
resources selling different commodities.

c) None of these d) Money eliminates the need for negotiation


and bargaining
9. The principle of majoritarianism led to a civil war in: [1]

a) Britain b) Belgium

c) Sri Lanka d) Tamil Nadu


10. Study the picture and answer the question that follows: [1]

Which of the following aspect best represent the given image?

a) Napoleon here is represented as a postman b) Napoleon here is represented as a harbinger

c) Napoleon here is represented as a soldier d) Napoleon here is represented as a torch


bearer
11. Evaluate the factors that promoted the shift in the importance of sectors by identifying the appropriate statements [1]
among the following options:
i. New methods of manufacturing were introduced.
ii. People who had earlier worked on farms began to work in factories.
iii. Change in methods of farming and agriculture.
iv. Preferring factory-made goods at a cheap rate.

a) Only statement iv is appropriate. b) Statements i, ii and iii are appropriate.

c) All the statements are appropriate. d) Statements i and ii are appropriate.


12. Economic development depends on what factor(s)? [1]

a) All of these b) Size of the population of the country

c) Economic priorities adopted by the country d) Global scenario


13. Arrange the following statements in sequential order: [1]
i. Alluri Sitarama was Raju arrested ending a two-year armed tribal struggle.
ii. The Lahore Congress formalised the demand of ‘Purna Swaraj’ or full independence for India.
iii. Gandhiji withdraws Non-Cooperation movement.
iv. Ambedkar establishes Depressed Classes

a) iv, iii, ii, i b) iii, i, ii, iv

c) ii, iv, i, iii d) ii, iii, iv, i


14. Read the information given below and select the correct option [1]

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If in a family all 10 members are working in a shop or small family business when 5 are enough to work
efficiently then those extra 5 members are actually unemployed. Which situation is being referred to?

a) Disguised Unemployment b) Seasonal Unemployment

c) Structural Unemployment d) Educated Unemployment


15. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer [1]
Statement I: The first printed edition of the Ramcharitmanas of Tulsidas, a sixteenth-century text, came out
from Calcutta in 1810.
Statement II: From 1822, two Persian newspapers were published, Jam-i-Jahan Nama and Shamsul Akhbar.

a) Statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct b) Both (i) & (ii) are correct

c) Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect d) Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect
16. Two friends Ram and Lakhan engaged in a lively conversation about different types of soils. Ram, eager to [1]
challenge Lakhan, started giving clues to help identify arid soil. Which of the following clues provided by Ram
would be most useful in identifying the arid soil?
Clues:
i. They are generally sandy in texture and saline in nature.
ii. These soils are mostly deep to very deep and acidic (pH<6.0).
iii. In some areas, the salt content is very high, and common salt is obtained by evaporating the water.​​
iv. This is the most widely spread and important soil.

a) Clue i and iii b) Clue iii and iv

c) Clue iv d) Clue ii
17. Which of the following statements will be considered as a factor that contributes to strengthening federalism and [1]
democracy in our country?
Statement i: Not a single national party is able to secure on its own a majority in the general elections.
Statement ii: Every party in the country registers with the Election Commission.
Statement iii: The Election Commission classifies major parties as ‘State parties’.
Statement iv: State parties get an opportunity to be a part of one or the other national-level coalition
government.

a) Statement i and ii are right. b) Statement i, ii and iii are right.

c) Only statement iv is right. d) Statement iii is right.


18. _______ division is unique to India. [1]

a) Caste b) Economic

c) Gender d) Religious
19. Which of the following statements will be considered as our fascination for democracy which when unfulfilled [1]
we start blaming the idea of democracy?
Statement i: There is a delay in decision-making in a democracy.
Statement ii: Democracy should always provide a method to resolve conflicts.
Statement iii: Democracy often ignores the demands of a majority of its population.
Statement iv: Democracy can address all socio-economic and political problems.

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a) Statement i and ii are right. b) Statement i, ii and iii are right.

c) Statement iii is right. d) Only statement iv is right.


20. Read the information given below and select the correct option [1]
Gopal is supervising the work of one farm labourer. Gopal has seven acres of land. He is one of the few persons
in Sonpur to receive a bank loan for cultivation. The interest rate on the loan is 8.5 percent per annum and can be
repaid anytime in the next three years. Gopal plans to repay the loan after harvest by selling a part of the crop.
He then intends to store the rest of the potatoes in cold storage and apply for a fresh loan from the bank against
the cold storage receipt. The bank offers this facility to farmers who have taken crop loans from them. What
kind of facility is provided by a bank to Gopal?

a) Cultivation Arrangements b) Credit Arrangements

c) Collateral Arrangements d) Cold Storage Arrangements


Section B
21. Study the map thoroughly and mention the name of the country which has a coming together federation. [2]

22. Who were the architects of the unification of Germany? [2]


OR
How did the Balkan region become a source of Nationalist tension in Europe after 1871?
23. Name one important beverage crop and specify the geographical condition required for its growth. [2]
24. Describe any three features of the federal government. [2]
Section C
25. Why did some people in eighteenth-century Europe think that print culture would bring enlightenment and end [3]
despotism?
26. On the given political map of India, identify the locations marked on the map with the help of details given [3]
below
i. Software technology park in Kerala
ii. Iron and steel plant in West Bengal

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iii. Cotton Textile Industry in Gujarat

OR
Read the data in the table given below and answer the questions that follow:

i. Why were the cotton textile industry concentrated in Maharashtra and Gujarat?
ii. What could be the possible reason behind spinning being centralised while weaving being decentralised?
27. Manav needs a loan to set-up a small business. On what basis will Manav decide whether to borrow from the [3]
bank or the moneylender? Discuss.
28. State any two differences between the local government before and after the Constitutional amendment in 1992. [3]
29. Nita cannot buy sewing machine due to which she has no other option than to work on the small farm land [3]
where already her husband and four children are working. Is Nita unemployed? If so then what kind of
unemployment is it?

Section D
30. Explain any five types of non-conventional sources of energy developed in India. [5]
OR
Why do you think that solar energy has a bright future in India?
31. How did conservatives establish their power after 1815? [5]
OR
With reference to Scotland and Ireland, explain how British nationalism grew at the cost of other cultures.

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32. Differentiate between national and regional parties. Write any four points. [5]
OR
What is dominant party system? Is it same with one-party system?
33. Describe four major sources of credit for rural household in India. [5]
OR
Bank plays an important role in the economic development of the country. Support the statement with examples.
Section E
34. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Many nationalists thought that the struggle against the British could not be won through non-violence. In 1928,
the HSRA was founded at a meeting in Ferozeshah Kotla ground in Delhi. Amongst its leaders were Bhagat
Singh, Jatin Das and Ajoy Ghosh. In a series of dramatic actions in different parts of India, the HSRA targeted
some of the symbols of British power. In April 1929, Bhagat Singh and Batukeswar Dutta threw a bomb in the
Legislative Assembly. Bhagat Singh was 23 when he was tried and executed by the colonial government. During
his trial, Bhagat Singh stated that he did not wish to glorify ‘the cult of the bomb and pistol’ but wanted a
revolution in society.
(a) What did HSRA stand for?
(b) What was the philosophy behind the founding HSRA?
(c) Bhagat Singh and his fellows attempted to blow up a train in 1929. Who was travelling on that train?
35. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Challenges faced by the Jute industry include stiff competition in the international market from synthetic
substitutes and from other competitors like Bangladesh, Brazil, Philippines, Egypt and Thailand. However, the
internal demand has been on the increase due to the Government policy of mandatory use of jute packaging. To
stimulate demand, the products need to be diversified. In 2005, National Jute Policy was formulated with the
objective of increasing productivity, improving quality, ensuring good prices to the jute farmers and enhancing
the yield per hectare. The main markets are U.S.A., Canada, Russia, United Arab Republic, U.K. and Australia.
The growing global concern for environment friendly, biodegradable materials, has once again opened the
opportunity for jute products.
(a) Mention any two challenges faced by jute industry in India.
(b) What was the main objective of National Jute Policy formulated in 2005?
(c) How has jute industry once again opened the new opportunities for its products?
36. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
In India, about 60 percent of the population belongs to the age group 5-29 years. Out of this, about 51 percent
are attending educational institutions. The rest are not-they may be at home or many of them may be working as
child labourers. If these children are to attend schools, we will require more buildings, more teachers and other
staff. A study conducted by the erstwhile Planning Commission (now known as NITI Aayog) estimates that
nearly 20 lakh jobs can be created in the education sector alone. Similarly, if we are to improve the health
situation, we need many more doctors, nurses, health workers etc. to work in rural areas. These are some ways
by which jobs would be created and we would also be able to address the important aspects of development.
Every state or region has the potential for increasing the income and employment for people in that area. It could
be tourism, or regional craft industry, or new services like IT. Some of these would require proper planning and
support from the government. For example, the same study by the Planning Commission says that if tourism as a
sector is improved, every year we can give additional employment to more than 35 lakh people. We must realise
that some of the suggestions would take a long time to implement. For the short-term, we need some quick

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measures. Recognising this, the central government in India made a law implementing the Right to Work in
about 625 districts of India. It is called Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005
(MGNREGA 2005). Under MGNREGA 2005, all those who are able to, and are in need of, work in rural areas
are guaranteed 100 days of employment in a year by the government. If the government fails in its duty to
provide employment, it will give unemployment allowances to the people. The types of work that would in the
future help to increase the production from land will be given preference under the Act.
(a) MGNREGA, 2005 is referred to as Right to work. Why do you think MGNREGA 2005 is referred to as
Right to work?
(b) Mention two main features of MGNREGA.
Section F
37. a. Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given outline political Map of India. Identify them with the [5]
help of given information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them:
A. The place where the session of INC was held in September 1920.
B. The place where Mahatma Gandhi broke Salt Law.
b. On the same outline Map of India, locate and label any THREE of the following with suitable symbols:
i. Hirakud Dam
ii. Tarapur Atomic Power Station
iii. Pune Software Technology Park
iv. Paradip Sea Port

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