PART –A

I. Select the correct option from the given choices

UNIT-1: SOME BASIC CONCEPTS OF CHEMISTRY

QUESTIONS
1) The number of significant figures in 0.523 is
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 1
2) 1.2 x 1022 molecules of a substance weighs 2g. The molar mass of the substance is
(a) 100 g mol–1 (b) 50g mol–1 (c) 500g mol–1 (d) 24g mol–1
3) A hydrocarbon contains 75%C. Its empirical formula
(a) CH2 (b) CH4 (c) C2H2 (d) CH3
4) In a compound the mass ratio of N2 to O2 is 7:12, its molecular formula is a simple
multiple of
(a) N2O3 (b) NO (c) N2O5 (d) NO2
5) The percentage of carbon in glucose is
(a) 36 (b) 6 (c) 40 (d) 72
6) The mass of CO2 obtained by the complete thermal decomposition of 40g of 80% pure
sample of CaCO3 is nearly equal to
(a) 4.4g (b) 44g (c) 32g (d) 14g
7) The volume of hydrogen needed at STP for complete hydrogenation of 1.3 g of acetylene
would be
(a) 4.48 dm3 (b) 2.24 dm3 (c) 1.12 dm3 (d) 5.6 dm3
8) The normality of a solution containing 4 g of sodium hydroxide per litre is
(a) 2 (b) 0.01 (c) 0.1 (d) 1
9) The mole fraction of benzene in a mixture of 7.8 g of benzene and 46 g of toluene is
(a)1/6 (b) 1/5 (c) 1/2 (d) 1/3
10) A 500 g of tooth paste sample has 0.2 g fluoride. The concentration of fluoride expressed
in ppm
(a) 250 (b) 400 (c) 200 (d) 1000
11) Two students performed the same experiments separately and each one of them recorded
two readings of mass which are given below. Correct reading of mass is 3.0g. On the basis
of given data, mark the correct option out of the following statements.

Student Readings

(i) (ii)

A 3.01 2.99

B 3.05 2.95

(a) results of both the students are neither accurate nor precise.
 (b)results of student A are both precise and accurate.
(c) results of student B are neither precise nor accurate.
(d) results of student B are both precise and accurate.
12) A measured temperature on Fahrenheit scale is 200°F. What will this reading be on
Celsius scale?
(a) 40°C (b) 94°C (c) 93.3°C (d) 30°C
13) What will be the molality of the solution containing 18.25g of HCl gas in 500g of water?
(a) 0.1m (b) 1M (c) 0.5m (d) 1m
14) One mole of any substance contains 6.022 x 1023 atoms/ molecules. Number of molecules
of H2SO4 present in 100mL of 0.02M H2SO4 solution is ____________.
(a) 12.044 x 1020 molecules (b) 6.022 x 1023 molecules
(c) 1 x 1023 molecules (d) 12.044 x 1023 molecules
15) What is the mass percent of carbon in carbon dioxide?
(a) 0.034% (b) 27.27% (c) 3.4% (d) 28.7%
16) If the density of a solution is 3.12gmL–1, the mass of 1.5 mL solution in significant figures
is __________.
(a) 4.7g (b) 4680 x 10 – 3g (c) 4.680g (d) 46.80g
17) Which of the following statements about a compound is incorrect?
(a) a molecule of a compound has atoms of different elements.
(b) a compound cannot be separated in to its constituent elements by physical methods of
separation.
(c) a compound retains the physical properties of its constituent elements.
(d) the ratio of atoms of different elements in a compound is fixed.
18) Which of the following statements is correct about the reaction given below?
4Fe (s) + 3O2 (g) → 2Fe2O3 (g)
(a) total mass of iron and oxygen in reactants = total mass of iron and oxygen in product
therefore it follows law of conservation of mass.
(b) total mass of reactants = total mass of product; therefore, law of multiple proportions is
followed.
(c) amount of Fe2O3 can be increased by taking any one of the reactants (iron or oxygen) in
excess.
(d) amount of Fe2O3 produced will decrease if the amount of any one of the reactants (iron or
oxygen) is taken in excess.
19) Which of the following reactions is not correct according to the law of conservation of
mass?
(a) 2Mg (s) + O2 (g) → 2MgO(s)
(b) C3H8 (g) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + H2O (g)
(c) P4 (s) + 5O2 (g) → P4O10(s)
(d) CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2H2O (g)
20) Which of the following statements indicates that law of multiple proportions is being
followed?
(a) sample of carbon dioxide taken from any source will always have carbon and oxygen in
the ratio 1:2.
(b) carbon forms two oxides namely CO2 and CO, where masses of oxygen which combine with
fixed mass of carbon are in the simple ratio 2:1.
(c) when magnesium burns in oxygen, the amount of magnesium taken for the reaction is
equal to the amount of magnesium in magnesium oxide formed.
(d) at constant temperature and pressure 200mL of hydrogen will combine with 100mL
oxygen to produce 200mL of water vapour.

UNIT-3: CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS and PERIODICITY IN PROPERTIES

1) Mendeleev`s periodic law is based on

(a) Atomic weight (b) Atomic number
(c) Number of neutrons (d) None of the above
2) In the modern periodic table, the period indicates the value of
(a) atomic number (b) mass number
(c) principal quantum number (d) Azimuthal quantum number
3) Who developed the long form of periodic table?
(a) Lother Meyer (b) Neils Bohr (c) Mendeleev (d) Moseley
4) Fluorine, chlorine, bromine and iodine are placed in the same group (17) of the periodic
table, because:
(a) they are electronegative
(b) they have 7 electrons in the outermost shell of their atom
(c) their atoms are generally univalent
(d) they are non-metals
5) An atom has the electronic configuration 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p6 which of the following
statements with respect to this atom is correct?
(a) Its atomic number is 18 (b) it belongs to group 18 of periodic table
(c) it has no tendency to form compounds (d) all of a, b, c
6) Which one of the following species has the largest atomic radius?
(a) Na (b) Mg (c) Al (d) Si
7) Of the ions Na+, Mg2+, O2– and N3– the one with the smallest radius is
(a) Na+ (b) Mg2+ (c) O2– (d) N3–
8) Which one of the following is iso-electronic with a fluoride ion?
(a) Oxygen (b) Fluorine (c) Sodium (d) Neon
9) Which one of the following sets of ions represents a collection of isoelectronic species?
(a) Ba Sr K Ca2 , 2 , , 2 (b) N ,O3 2
,F ,S2 (c) Li Na Mg , ,
2 ,Ca2 (d) K ,CI ,Ca 2 3
,Sc
10) Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) X– ion is larger in size than X atom (b) X+ ion is larger in size than X atom
(c) X+ ion is larger in size than X– ion (d) X+ and X– ions are equal in size
11) The ionization potential of boron is less than that of beryllium. This is because
(a) boron is a non metal while beryllium is metal
(b) boron has lesser electron affinity
(c) beryllium has a completely filled s orbital
(d) none of these
12) In view of their low ionization energies the alkali metals are
(a)Weak oxidizing agents (b) Strong reducing agents
(c) Strong oxidizing agents (d) Weak reducing agents
13) Which element having following electronic configurations has minimum ionization
potential?
(a) 1s1 (b) 1s2, 2s22p6 (c) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s1 (d) 1s2, 2s22p2
14) The most electronegative element in the periodic table is
(a) helium (b) fluorine (c) chlorine (d) oxygen
15) In the following the element with the highest electropositivity is
(a) Copper (b) Ceasium (c) Barium (d) Chromium
16) Which of these have no unit?
(a) Electronegativity (b) Electron affinity
(c) Ionization enthalpy (d) Excitation potential
17) The halogen that is most easily reduced is
(a) F2 (b) Cl2 (c) Br2 (d) I2
18) Electron affinity depends on
(a) Atomic size (b) Nuclear charge
(c) Atomic number (d) Atomic size and nuclear charge both
19) The electron affinity of fluorine (F) is less than that of chlorine because
(a) F is more electronegative than chlorine
(b) F is more reactive than chlorine
(c) the size of F is small and hence added electron is strongly held by the nucleus. (d) the
atomic size of F is small and added electron suffers electronic repulsion 20) Which of the
following has the least electron affinity?
(a) F2 (b) Cl2 (c) Br2 (d) I2 21) Which among the following has the
highest ionization potential?
(a) Li (b) K (c) Rb (d) Na
22) Which will show maximum non-metallic character?
(a) B (b) Be (c) Mg (d) Al
 UNIT-4: CHEMICAL BONDING AND MOLECULAR STRUCTURE

1) Electrovalent bond formation depends on

(a) Ionization energy (b) Electron affinity
(c) Lattice energy (d) All the three above
2) Which of the following gas does not have an octet or eight electrons in the outer shell?
(a) Ne (b) Ar (c) Rn (d) He
3) The percentage s-character of the hybrid orbitals in methane, ethene and ethyne
respectively are
(a) 25, 50, 75 (b) 25, 33, 50 (c) 10, 20, 40 (d) 50, 75, 100
4) The hybridization of the central atom in water molecule respectively is
(a) sp3 (b) sp (c) sp2 (d) dsp2
5) A lone pair of electrons in an atom implies
(a) a pair of electrons involved in bonding
(b) a pair of valence electrons not involved in bonding
(c) a pair of valence electrons
(d) a pair of electrons
6) Linear molecule among the following is
(a) H2O (b) NH3 (c) BF3 (d) CO2
7) NH3 and BF3 form adduct readily because they form
(a) a covalent bond (b) an ionic bond
(c) a hydrogen bond (d) a coordinate bond
8) The outer shell of the most stable atoms contain
(a) 4 electrons (b) 6 electrons (c) 8 electrons (d) 10 electron

9) In a homonulear diatomic molecule electron pairs are

(a) unequally shared (b) completely transferred
(c) equally shared (d) identical in electron spins
10) End to end p–p overlapping is observed in the molecule of
(a) H2 (b) Cl2 (c) HCl (d) HBr
11) The type of hybridization of the central atoms in CH4 and NH3 is the same. However, the
bond angle in NH3 is slightly less than that in CH4 because
(a) nitrogen has only three H atoms (b) CH4 is a hydrocarbon
(c) there is a lone pair of electrons in NH3 (d) ammonia forms a coordinate bond
12) For which of the following hybridization, the bond angle is maximum
(a) sp (b) sp2 (c) sp3 (d) dsp2
13) Among the following, the molecule with highest dipole moment is
(a) CH3Cl (b) CH2Cl2 (c) CHCl 3 (d) CCl4
14) There is association of molecules in anhydrous hydrogen fluoride. This is because
(a) low electronegativity difference between the two atoms
 (b) existence of H-bonding
(c) existence of van der Waals forces
(d) none of a, b, c
15) Which of the following explains that o-nitrophenol is more volatile than p-nitrophenol
(a) van der Waals forces (b) intermolecular H-bonding
(c) intramolecular H-bonding (d) all of a, b, c
16) The condition for the combination of atomic orbitals
(a) combining atomic orbitals must have comparable energy
(b) combining atomic orbitals must have proper symmetry
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) combining atomic orbitals must have same number of electrons
17) When two atomic orbitals combine, they form
(a) one molecular orbital (b) two molecular orbitals of same energy
(c) one bonding molecular orbital (d) one bonding and one antibonding M.O
18) High bond order is possible when
(a) number of electrons is more in bonding molecular orbitals
(b) number of electrons is more in anti-bonding molecular orbitals
(c) number of electrons is same in bonding and anti bonding molecular orbitals (d) more
number of unpaired electrons are present in any orbital 19) Which orbitals have highest
energy out of the following?
(a) 1s (b) 2pX (c) 2s (d) 2py
20) Bond order is an inverse measure of
(a) bond length (b) bond angle
(c) bond dissociation energy (d) stability
21) The shortest bond length is in the molecule
(a) C2 (b) O2 (c) F2 (d) N2
22) The geometry of a molecule or ion depends on
(a) number of bond pairs only (b) number of lone pairs only
(c) both these (d) none of these

23) BCl3 molecule is planar while NCl3 is pyramidal, because

(a) N is more electronegative than B
(b) B atom is smaller than N atom
(c) in BCl3, B has no lone pair but in NCl3, N has a lone pair of electrons
(d) N – Cl bond is more polar than B – Cl
24) The overlapping taking place during the formation of HF molecule is
(a) s-s overlap (b) s-p overlap
(c) p-p overlap (d) s-sp hybrid orbital overlap
25) Which of the following is true for ionic compounds?
(a) conduct electricity in solid state (b) have directional bonds
 (c) soluble in polar solvents (d) are non-electrolytes in molten state
26) The shape of ammonia molecule is
(a) triangular (b) tetrahedral (c) pyramidal (d) octahedral
27) Electron occupation of molecular orbitals follows
(a) aufbau principle (b) Pauli’s exclusion principle
(c) Hund’s Rule (d) all of a, b, c
28) Which of the following molecule is non-existant?
(a) H2 (b) He2 (c) F2 (d) N2
29) Phosphorus pentachloride molecule is
(a) tetrahedral (b) octahedral
(c) square pyramidal (d) trigonal bipyramidal
30) Which hybrid orbitals can be used for bonding in a tetrahedral molecule or ion?
(a) d2sp3 (b) sp3 (c) dsp2 (d) sp3d
31) H–O–H Bond angle in water involving sp3 hybridization is
(a)104˚5` (b) 180˚ (c) 90˚ (d) 109˚28`
32) In carbon monoxide, the number of electrons in 2p anti-bonding orbital is
(a) zero (b) one (c) two (d) three
33) The number of sigma and pi bonds in ethene are
(a) 1 1 , (b) 5 ,1 (c) 4 ,2 (d) 2 ,2
34) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is formed in
(a) o-nitrophenol (b) water (c) acetaldehyde (d) methanol
35) Hydrogen bonding is exhibited by
(a) molecules containing one hydrogen atom
(b) molecules in which two hydrogen atoms are present
(c) molecules in which hydrogen atoms are covalently bonded to F, O or N
(d) molecules in which the H-atom is bonded to atoms with more electronegativity than 2.1
36) Which of the following is polycentric?
(a) atomic orbitals (b) molecular orbitals (c) valence orbitals (d) all of a, b, c

UNIT 5: STATES OF MATTER (GASES AND LIQUIDS)

1) Dipole-induced dipole interactions exist between

(a) non-polar molecules (b) polar molecules
(c) a polar and a non-polar molecule (d) all these
2) Dipole-dipole interactions exist between
(a) non-polar molecules (b) polar molecules
(c) both these (d) none of these
3) A gas does not exist at
(a) 0˚C (b) absolute zero (c) STP (d) none of a, b, c
4) Kinetic theory of gases presumes collisions between the molecules to be perfectly elastic
because
(a) the molecules are rigid
(b) the temperature remains constant irrespective of collisions
(c) collisions will not split the molecule
(d) the molecules are tiny
5) Force of attraction between molecules and volume of the molecules in a gas can be
neglected at
(a) high pressure (b) low pressure
(c) low pressure and high temperature (d) high pressure and high temperature
6) The total pressure of a mixture of two gases which do not react is
(a) the sum of the partial pressures
(b) the difference between the partial pressures
(c) the product of the partial pressures
(d) the ratio of the partial pressures
7) An ideal gas is one which obeys
(a) all the gas laws at all temperature and pressure
(b) the relation PV = RT at high temperature
(c) the ideal gas equation at low pressure and high temperature
(d) ideal gas equation at high pressure and low temperature
8) A gas obeying the equation PV = RT can
(a) be liquified by applying high pressure
(b) be liquified by applying high pressure at critical temperature
(c) never be liquefied under any condition
(d) be liquified by cooling below the critical temperature
9) A real gas tends to behave more ideally at
(a) low temperature and high pressure (b) low temperature and low pressure
(c) high temperature and high pressure (d) high temperature and low pressure
10) The gas which is expected to deviate most from ideal behaviour is
(a) N2 (b) O2 (c) H2 (d) NH3
11) The compressibility factor for an ideal gas, for CO2 and for H2 at room temperature are
respectively
(a) 1, > 1, < 1 (b) 1, < 1, > 1 (c) >1, 1, < 1 (d) <1, 1, > 1
12) The temperature at which real gases obey ideal gas laws over a wide range of pressure is
called
(a) critical temperature (b) Boyle temperature
 (c) inversion temperature (d) reduced temperature
13) In deriving van der Waal’s equation the pressure exerted by a real gas is taken as less
than the ideal gas pressure because
(a) real gas molecules have negligible volume
(b) real gas molecules do not exert any attractive forces
(c) of the inter molecular forces of attraction found in real gases
(d) of none of these
14) The van der Waals equation accounts for the behaviour of
(a) vapours (b) ideal gases (c) elementary gases (d) real gases
15) The unit of van der Waals constant `a` is
(a) atm (b) atmL2 (c) atmL2mol–1 (d) atmL2mol–2
16) A large decrease in volume of a gas with practically no change in pressure is characteristic
of the process of
(a) liquefaction (b) sublimation (c) evaporation (d) fusion
17) At the freezing point, the vapour pressure of the liquid is equal to that of its own
(a) gas (b) solid (c) both these (d) none of these
18) With increase in external pressure, the boiling point of the liquid
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains unchanged (d) records an unpredictable change
19) With increase in temperature, the vapour pressure of the liquid
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains constant (d) changes unpredictably
20) Which of the following has the lowest vapour pressure at room temperature?
(a) benzene (b) ethanol (c) water (d) chloroform
21) Viscosity of a liquid depends on
(a) mass of the molecule (b) shape of the molecule
(c) temperature (d) all these
22) With the increase in molecular mass of a liquid, its viscosity
(a) decreases (b) increases
(c) remains unchanged (d) records unpredictable change
23) The reciprocal of coefficient of viscosity of a liquid is called
(a) mobility (b) mobile nature (c) fluidity (d) none of these
24) With increase in temperature, the fluidity of the liquid
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains constant (d) changes unpredictable
25) The spherical shape of a liquid drop is due to its
(a) surface tension (b) vapour pressure (c) viscosity (d) none of these
26) As the temperature increases, the surface tension of a liquid
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains constant (d) records unpredictable change
27) As the temperature increases, the viscosity of the liquid
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains unchanged (d) unpredictable change
1)

Unit-6: CHEMICAL THERMODYNAMICS

An isothermal expansion takes place at
(a) constant pressure (b) constant volume
(c) constant temperature (d) constant temperature & pressure 2)
In a closed thermos flask few cubes of ice are placed. It is example of:
(a) closed system (b) open system
(c) isolated system (d) thermodynamics system
3) In an adiabatic compression, the internal energy of the system:
(a) decreases (b) increases (c) increases or decreases (d) none
4) Identify the intensive quantities from the following:
(a) volume (b) enthalpy (c) pressure (d) none
5) Which of the following is extensive property?
(a) mole (b) mass (c) volume (d) all are correct
6) The heat change in a chemical reaction at constant pressure is:
(a) ΔH (b) ΔU (c) ΔT (d)
ΔV
7) ΔU is always positive when
(a) system absorbs heat and work is done on it
(b) system emits heat and work is done on it
(c) system emits heat and no work is done on it
(d) system absorbs heat and work is done by it
8) If in a chemical reaction, the products have less energy than the reactants, that reaction
is:
(a) a reversible reaction (b) an exothermic reaction
(c) an isothermal reaction (d) an endothermic reaction
9) A small piece of Na metal is dropped in to water. Na bursts into flame, the reaction is:
(a) neutralisation (b) reversible (c) exothermic (d) endothermic
10) For the reaction: C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) → 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(l) at constant temperature, ΔH –ΔU is
(a) +RT (b) –3RT (c) +3RT (d) –RT
11) When NH4Cl is dissolved in water, the solution becomes cold. The change is?
(a) endothermic (b) exothermic (c) super cooling (d) none
12) Which of the following is always true in the case of thermo chemical equations?
(a) It indicates physical states of reactants and products
(b) It indicates whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic
(c) It indicates allotropes of the reactants if present
(d) All are true
13) At the standard condition, the enthalpy value of all elements is?
(a) one (b) positive (c) negative (d) zero
14) C (s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g): ∆H = – 394kj. In this equation H represents
 (a) enthalpy change when one mole of carbon burns in one mole of oxygen gas
(d) the enthalpy of formation of CO2(g)
(c) the enthalpy of combustion of carbon
(d) all the above
15) For an ideal gas the relation between the enthalpy changes at constant temperature is
given by
(a) H = G + T S (b) H = P V (c) H = U + n RT (d) H = U + PV
16) H and U for the reactionC2H4 (g) +3O2 (g) → 2CO2 (g) + 2H2O (l)
(a) H = U + 2 RT (b) H = U
(c) H = U + RT (d) H = U – 2RT
17) When two atoms of hydrogen combine to form a molecule of hydrogen gas, the energy of
the molecule is:
(a) greater than that of separate atoms (b) equal to that of separate atoms
(c) lower than that of separate atoms (d) sometimes lower and sometimes higher
18) The enthalpy of solution of ammonium chloride in water is positive. Then the solubility
of ammonium chloride in water:
(a) remains unchanged when the temperature is altered
(b) may increase or decrease when the temperature is increased.
(c) increases when the temperature is decreased
(d) increases when the temperature is increased
19) The heat of formation of carbon dioxide is – 393.5 kJ. The heat of decomposition of carbon
dioxide into the elements is
(a) 393.5kJ (b) 161.7kJ (c) 196.7kJ (d) 203kJ
20) The bond energy of an O – H bond is 109 kcal/mol. When a mole of water is formed, then
(a) 109kcal is released (b) 218kcal is released
(c) 109kcal absorbed (d) 218 kcal is absorbed
21) Bond formation
(a) is always exothermic
(b) is always endothermic
(c) may be exothermic or endothermic
(d) depends upon the nature of the compounds to be formed
22) H is the enthalpy change and S is the entropy change accompanying a reaction. The
reaction is most spontaneous if
(a) H and S are both negative (b) H is negative and S is positive
(c) H is positive and S is negative (d) H and S are both positive
23) All the naturally occurring process proceed spontaneously in a direction which leads
(a) to decrease of entropy (b) to increase of free energy
(c) to decrease of free energy (d) to increase of enthalpy
24) If free energy change of a reversible reaction is positive, it implies that equilibrium
constant is
(a) always greater than one (b) always less than one
(c) always equal to one (d) none of these
25) Entropy of a perfect crystalline solid at absolute zero is
(a) less than zero (b) greater than zero
(c) zero (d) depends upon nature of the solid
26) Which of the following is the most random state of water?
(a) Steam (b) Liquid water (c) Ice (d) none
27) Gibbs free energy G, is given by
(a) G = U + TS (b) G = U – TS (c) G = H –TS (b) None
28) The second law of thermodynamics introduced the concept of:
(a) third law of thermodynamics (b)work
(c) entropy (d) internal energy
UNIT-7: CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM
Chemical reaction which proceeds in both forward and backward directions is called
(a) an irreversible reaction (b) a reversible reaction
(c) a substitution reaction (d) a decomposition reaction
2) In a chemical reaction equilibrium is said to have been established when the:
(a) velocities of opposing reactions becomes equal
(b) operating reactions ceases
(c) concentrations of reactants and products are equal
(d) none of these
3) Chemical equilibrium is dynamic in nature because:
(a) the equilibrium is maintained rapidly
(b) the concentration of reactants and products become same at equilibrium (c) both
forward and backward reactions occur at all times with same speed
(d) none
4) If a catalyst is used in a reversible reaction:
(a) the backward reaction becomes faster (b) the forward reaction becomes faster
(c) the equilibrium constant decreases (d) The equilibrium is attained more quickly
5) The equilibrium constant of the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) is 64. If the volume of the
container is reduced to one half of its original volume, the equilibrium constant will be
(a) 32 (b) 128 (c) 16 (d) 64
6) If the value of Kc is very large for a reaction:
(a) the equilibrium mixture contains only products
(b) the equilibrium mixture contains more of the reactants
(c) the forward reaction goes to nearly completion
 (d) the backward reaction goes to nearly completion
7) The equilibrium constant for the reaction, CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g) is:

CaO CO 2 1 CaCO3
(a) Kc (b) Kc CO2 (c) Kc (d) Kc
CaCO3 CO2 CO2
8) Equilibrium constant for the reaction 2NO(g) + Cl2(g) 2NOCl(g) is:

NOCl 2 2NOCl NOCl 2

NOCl (a) K (b) K (c) K

2 (d) K 2

NO Cl2 2NO Cl 2 NO Cl2 NO Cl2

9) If K is equilibrium constant for reaction N2 + O2 2NO; then the equilibrium constant for
reaction NO ½ N2 + ½O2 will be:
1 1 1
(a) k (b) (c) (d) K1
k K12

10) For the correct relationship between Kp and Kc is:

(a)Kc Kp(RT) n (b) Kp Kc(RT) n (c)Kp Kc(RT) 1 n
(d) None
11) For the reaction CO (g) + ½O2(g) CO2(g), Kp/Kc is
2
1 1
(a) 1 (b) (RT) (c) (d) RT
RT
12) Kp = Kc RT only in the case of:
(a) 2HI H2 + I2 (b) N2 + 3H2 2NH3
(c) N2 + O2 2NO (d) PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2
13) In a chemical equilibrium Kc = Kp when
(a) the number of molecules entering into the reaction is more than the number of molecules
produced
(b) the number of molecules entering into the reaction is less than the number of molecules
produced
(c) the number of molecules entering in the reaction is the same as the number of molecules
produced
(d) the total number of moles of the reactants equals the total number of moles of the
products
14) “If a constraint such as a change in temperature or pressure or concentration is applied to
a system at equilibrium, the equilibrium is shifted in such a way as to nullify the effect of
the constraint”. This is:
(a) Ostwald’s rule (b) Le-Chateliers principle
 (c) Hess’s law (d) Second law of thermodynamics
15) Le-Chatelier’s principle is applicable only to
(a) heterogeneous reaction (b) homogeneous reaction
(c) systems is not in equilibrium (d) system is in equilibrium
16) pKa value of the strongest acid among the following is
(a) 4.8 (b) 3.2` (c) 2.1 (d) 1.0
17) Lewis acids are those substances which
(a) provide H+ ion (b) accept electron pair
(c) give electron pair (d) accept OH– ion
18) Boron trifluouride is a
(a) neutral according to Lewis concept (b) Lewis base
(c) basic according to Lowry-Bronsted concept (d) Lewis acid
19) Among the following the species which can act both as an acid and a base is
(a) H3O+ (b) Cl– (c) SO 42 (d) HSO4
20) Conjugate base of OH– is
(a) H+ (b) O–2 (c) H3O+ (d) H2O
21) When the pH of a solution decreases, its hydrogen ion concentration
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) may decrease or increase (d) remains unchanged
22) The expression for solubility product of AgCl is
2 2

(a) Ksp Ag Cl (b) Ksp Ag Cl

2 2

(c) Ksp Ag Cl (d) Ksp Ag Cl

23) Solubility product of BaCl2 is 4 x 10–9. Its solubility in mole/litre would be

(a) 1x10–27 (b) 1x10–3 (c) 1x10–9 (d) 4x10–27

UNIT-8: REDOX REACTIONS

Oxidation is removal of electrons. Therefore the strongest oxidizer is
(a) iodine (b) oxygen (c) chlorine (d) fluorine
2) In the reaction Cu + 2H2SO4 → CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O
 (a) copper is oxidized to CuSO4 (b) copper is reduced
(c) H2SO4 is oxidized to sulphur dioxide (d) copper acts as an oxidizing agent
3) During oxidation, oxidation number
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) does not change (d) depends on the reaction
4) Identify the element oxidized and element reduced in the reaction 2HS 15O2 2 3S
2HO2
(a) element oxidized O, element reduced H (b) element reduced H, element
oxidized O
(c) element reduced H, element oxidized S
(d) element oxidized S and reduced O
5) Flourine is a powerful oxidizing agent because
(a) it has several isotopes (b) its valency is one
(c) small atomic size and 7 valence electrons (d) all of a, b, c
6) Oxidation number of P in H3PO2 is
(a) +1 (b) +2 (c) +3 (d) +5
7) Which one of the following element can have only negative oxidation state?
(a) F (b) Cl (c) Br (d) I
8) In the conversion of Br2 to BrO3 the oxidation number of Br changes from
(a) + 1 to +5 (b) zero to +5 (c) +2 to +5 (d) zero to –3
9) The oxidation number of oxygen is +2 in
(a) Cl2O (b) F2O (c) Na2O2 (d) MgO
10) Sum of oxidation numbers of all atoms in a molecule is
(a) positive (b) negative (c) zero (d) fraction
11) In which of the following compounds, the same element has different oxidation states?
(a) HNO3 (b) NH NO4 3 (c) H2N – NH2 (d) Fe(CN)2
12) Stronger is oxidizing agent, more is
(a) standard reduction potential of that species
(b) the tendency to get itself oxidised
(c)the tendency to lose electrons by that species
(d)standard oxidation potential of that species
13) The decomposition of KClO3 to KCl and O2 on heating is an example of:
(a) intermolecular redox change (b) intramolecular redox change
(c) disproportionation or auto redox change (d) none of the above
14) In the reaction; 2Ag + 2H2SO4 → Ag2SO4 + 2H2O + SO2, H2SO4 acts as
(a) oxidising agent (b) reducing agent
(c)dehydrating agent (d) none of these
15) Which of the following chemical reactions predicts the oxidizing behaviour of H2SO4?
(a) Ca(OH)2 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + 2H2O (b) NaCl + H2SO4 → NaHSO4 + HCl
 (c) 2PCl5 + H2SO4 → 2POCl3 + 2HCl + SO2Cl2 (d) 2HI + H2SO4 → I2 + SO2 + 2H2O
16) In the oxidation of hydrogen sulphide using acidified potassium dichromate, the
oxidation state of sulphur changes by
(a) 2 units (b) 3 units (c) 1 unit (d) 6 units
17) The best oxidizing agent of the oxygen family is
(a) tellurium (b) selenium (c) sulphur (d) oxygen
18) The oxidation number of H in sodium hydride is
(a) +1 (b) 0 (c) –1 (d) –1/2

UNIT-9: HYDROGEN

1) The radioactive isotope of hydrogen is

(a) H (b) T (c) D (d) none of these
2) Tritium decays to emit
(a) α-particle (b) neutron (c) β-particle (d) proton
3) Proton is the nucleus of
(a) H (b) He (c)T (d) D
4) Which of the following metal(s) decompose dilute acids to give hydrogen?
(a) Zn (b) Fe (c) none of these (d) both (a) and (b)
5) Steam when passed over red hot coke gives
(a) only H2 (b) only CO2 (c) CO + H2 (d) CO2 + H2
6) Zinc reacts with boiling NaOH to give
(a)Na2ZnO2 and H2 (b) Na2O2 and H2
(c)Na2ZnO2, H2 and O2 (d) Zn(OH)2 and H2
7) Hydrogen resembles halogens in many respects for which several factors are responsible.
Of the following factors which one is most important in this respect?
(a) Its tendency to lose an electron to form a cation.
(b) its tendency to gain a single electron in its valence shell to attain stable electronic
configuration.
(c) its low negative electron gain enthalpy value.
(d) its small size
8) In the preparation of artificial ghee, using hydrogen, the reaction involved is called
(a) hydrogenation (b) reduction (c) dehydrogenation (d) oxidation
9) Hydrogen forms hydrides when heated with
(a) alkali metals (b) alkaline earth metals
(c) both of these (d) none of these
10) The non-stoichiometric compounds are
(a) salt like hydrides (b) interstitial hydrides
 (c) covalent hydrides (d) molecular hydrides
11) Which one of the following is an interstitial hydride?
(a) NH3 (b) H2S (c) NaH (d) TiH1.73
12) Which one among the following statements is false?
(a) The composition of interstitial hydrides change with temperature and pressure
(b) The interstitial hydrides have strong reducing nature
(c)The acidic nature of the covalent hydrides decreases in a given period from left to right
(d)none of these
13) The catalyst used in Bosch process for manufacture of hydrogen is
 (a)finely divided nickel (b) Fe2O3 + Cr2O3
(c)Pd (d) V2O5
14) Water exist as an associated molecule due to
(a) van der Waal`s forces (b) covalent bonding
(c) intermolecular H-bonding (d)intramolecular H-bonding
15) Hydrocarbons are obtained when water reacts with
(a)carbides (b) carbonates (c) nitrides (d) hydrides
16) Heavy water is discovered by
(a)Donald (b) Urey (c)Lewis (d) Thenard
17) Heavy water is used in nuclear reactors
(a)as a moderator to slow down neutrons (b) as a neutron absorber
(c) both of these (d) none of these
18) Both temporary and permanent hardness are removed on boiling water with
(a)Ca(OH)2 (b) Na2CO3 (c)CaCO3 (d) CaO
19) Hard water is not fit for washing cloths because
(a) it contains Na2SO4 and KCl (b) it gives precipitate with soap
(c) it contains impurities (d) it is acidic in nature
20) The reagent commonly used to determine hardness of water titrimetrically is
(a) oxalic acid (b) disodium salt of EDTA
(c) sodium citrate (d) sodium thiosulphate
21) Zeolites are extensively used in
(a)softening of water and catalyst (b) preparing heavy water
(c) increasing the hardness of water (d) monds process
22) The formula of calgon is
(a)Na2[Na4(PO3)6] (b) Na4[Na2(PO3)6]
(c) Na4[Na2(PO3)3] (d) Na2[Na4(PO3)4]
23) Permutit is the trade name of a mixture of
(a) hydrated silicates of Ca and Mg
(b) hydrated silicates of Al and Na
(c) hydrated aluminates of Ca and Na
(d) hydrated aluminates of Mg and Na
24) Hydrogen peroxide can be used as
(a) an oxidising agent (b) reducing agent
(c) bleaching agent (d)all these
25) H2O2 is
(a)diamagnetic (b) paramagnetic
(c)ferromagnetic (d)none of these
26) The hybridization of the orbitals of oxygen in H2O2 is
(a)sp3d (b) sp (c)sp2 (d) sp3
 UNIT-10: s-BLOCK ELEMENTS

1) Alkali metals are generally obtained by

(a) electrolytic reduction (b) thermal reduction
(c) alumino-thermic process (d) smelting with carbon
2) Characteristic property of alkali metals is
(a) they are good reducing agents
(b) electropositive character decreases down the group
(c) ) they are good oxidizing agent
(d) high ionisation potential
3) Atomic radii of alkali metals
(a) decrease down the group (b) increase down the group
(c) remain constant (d) are less than the corresponding ionic radii 4)
Which among the following has the highest ionization potential?
(a) Li (b) K (c) Rb (d) Na
5) The oxide of an alkali metal element with no d electron in the penultimate shell has
(a) basic character (b) neutral character
(c) amphoteric nature (d) acidic character
6) The solubility of alkaline metal sulphates decrease down the group. This is due to
(a) increase of lattice energy (b) decrease in lattice energy
(c) decrease in hydration energy (d) increase in hydration energy
7) Li does not resemble other alkali metals due to
(a) small size of Li+ ion (b) high polarizing power
(c) high ionization energy and low electropositive nature (d) all the above
8) The electropositive nature of Rb, Na and K is in the order
(a) Na > Rb > K (b) Rb > Na > K (c) Na > K > Li (d) Rb > K > Na
9) Which of the following is most basic?
(a) LiOH (b) KOH (c) NaOH (d) RbOH
10) Alkali metals are powerful reducing agents because
(a) they are metals (b) they are monovalent
(c) their ionic radii are large (d) of low ionization enthalpy
11) Potassium when heated strongly in oxygen, forms
(a) K2O (b) KO (c) K2O2 (d) KO2
12) The metal frequently used in solar cells is
(a) Cs (b) Na (c) Li (d) K
13) Alkaline earth metal salts are
 (a) paramagnetic (b) diamagnetic (c) ferromagnetic (d) unpredictable 14) Highly
pure dilute solution of sodium in liquid ammonia:
(a) shows blue colour (b) do not exhibit electrical conductivity
(c) produces sodium amide (d) produces hydrogen gas
15) Li does not resemble other alkali metals due to
(a) small size of Li+ ion (b) high polarizing power
(c) high ionisation energy and low electropositive nature (d) all the above
16) Elements of group I impart colour to non-luminous flame due to
(a) softness (b) low melting point
(c) low ionization energy (d) single electron in the valence shell
17) Alkali metals do not exist in Free State because they are
(a) very reactive (b) very volatile (c) very inactive (d) none of a, b, c 18) Which of
the following salts produce lilac coloured flame?
(a) KCl (b) NaCl (c) LiCl (d) NaBr
19) Which of the following is correct?
(a) All carbonates are soluble in water
(b) Carbonates of Na, K and NH4+ are soluble in water
(c) Carbonates of Ca, Sr, Ba are soluble in water
(d) All carbonates are insoluble
20) The useful by–products, obtained in the Solvay process of manufacturing sodium
carbonate, are
(a) Quick lime and CO2 (b) NaHCO3 and NH4Cl
(c) NH4Cl solution and quick lime (d) NaHCO3 and CO2
21) Excess of Na+ions in our system causes
(a) High B.P. (b) Low B.P. (c)Diabetes (d) Anaemia
22) Plaster of Paris is
(a)CaSO4.2H2O (b) CaSO4.3H2O (c) CaSO4.H2O (d) CaSO4.1/2H2O
23) Setting of plaster of paris is
(a) Oxidation with atmospheric oxygen (b) Combination with atmospheric CO2
(c) Dehydration (d) Hydration to yield another hydrate
24) The solubility of the alkali metal carbonates
(a) Increases at first and then decreases (b) Does not show regular variation
(c) Increases as we go down the group (d) Decreases as we go down the group
25) The substance not likely to contain CaCO3 is
(a) A marble statue (b) Calcined gypsum
(c) Sea shells (d) Dolomite
26) In the synthesis of sodium carbonate, the recovery of ammonia is done by treating NH4Cl
with Ca(OH)2. The by-product obtained in this process is
(a) CaCl2 (b) NaCl (c) NaOH (d) NaHCO3
27) By adding gypsum to cement
(a) setting time of cement becomes less. (b) setting time of cement increases.
(c) colour of cement becomes light. (d)shining surface is obtained. 28)
Dead burnt plaster is

(a) CaSO4 (b) CaSO4. O (c) CaSO4.H2O (d) CaSO4.2H2O

29) Suspension of slaked lime in water is known as
(a) lime water (b) quick lime
(c) milk of lime (d) aqueous solution of slaked lime
30) The formula of soda ash is
(a) Na2CO3.10H2O (b) Na2CO3.2H2O (c) Na2CO3.H2O (d) Na2CO3
31) A substance which gives brick red flame and breaks down on heating to give oxygen and a
brown gas is
(a) magnesium nitrate (b) calcium nitrate
(c) barium nitrate (d) strontium nitrate
UNIT-11: SOME p-BLOCK ELEMENTS

1) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Pure sodium metal dissolves in liquid ammonia to give blue solution
(b) NaOH reacts with glass to give sodium silicate (c) Aluminium
reacts with excess NaOH to give Al (OH)3 (d) NaHCO3 on heating
gives Na2CO3 2) Which of the following is a lewis acid?
(a) AlCl3 (b) MgCl2 (c) CaCl2 (d) BaCl2
3) The exhibition of highest coordination number depends on the availability of vacant
orbitals in the central atom. Which of the following elements is not likely to act as central
atom in MF63–?
(a) B (b) Al (c) Ga (d) In
4) Which of the following oxides is acidic in nature?
(a) B2O3 (b) Al2O3 (c) Ga2O3 (d) In2O3
5) Which of the following is similar to graphite?
(a) B4C (b) B2H6 (c) BN (d) B
6) Superphosphate of lime contains
(a) Ca3(PO4)2 (b) CaHPO4 (c) Ca3(PO4)2+ H3PO4 (d) Ca(H2PO4)2
7) Sodium hydroxide solution reacts with phosphorus to give phosphine. To bring about this
reaction, we need
(a) White phosphorus and dil. NaOH (b)White phosphorus and conc. NaOH
(c) Red phosphorus and dil. NaOH (d)Red phosphorus and conc. NaOH
8) The correct formula of borax is
(a) Na2[B4O4(OH)3].9H2O (b) Na2[B4O5(OH)4].8H2O
(c) Na2[B4O6(OH)5].7H2O (d) Na2[B4O7(OH)6].6H2O 9) H3BO3 is
(a) monobasic and weak Lewis acid (b) monobasic and weak Bronsted acid
 (c) monobasic and strong Lewis acid (d) tribasic and weak Bronsted acid
10) Boric acid is an acid because its molecule
(a) contains replaceable H+ ion. (b) gives up a proton
(c) accepts OH from water releasing proton.
–

(d) combines with proton from water molecule.

11) In the borax bead test which of the following takes part into the reaction?
(a) anhydrous borax (b) sodium metaborate
(c) boric anhydride (d) all the above
12) The borax bead test is based on the formation of
(a) boric acid (b) boron oxide (c) metaborates (d) all the above
13) Which is used as control rods in nuclear reactors?
(a) Al (b) Ga (c) Tl (d) B
14) The hardest compound of boron is
(a) boron oxide (b) boron nitride (c) boron carbide (d) boron hydride
15) Reactivity of borozole is greater than that of benzene because
(a) borazole is a non-polar compound
(b) borazole is a polar compound
(c) borazole is electron deficient compound compound
(d) of localized electrons in it
16) BF3 is
(a) electron-deficient compounds (b) Lewis base
(c) used as rocket fuel (d) ionic compound
17) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity because
(a) in each plane carbon atoms are covalently bonded
(b) carbon atoms are sp2 hybridised
(c) electrons are delocalised
(d) different planes in graphite are held by van der Waal’s forces
18) Graphite is soft and acts as a lubricant since
(a) it has layered structure bonded by covalent bonds
(b) layers are held by van der Waal’s forces
(c) graphite forms a closed packed structure
(d) electrons are delocalised
19) Catenation i. e., linking of similar atoms depeds on size and electronic configuration of
atoms. The tendency of catenation in Group 14 elements follows the order:
(a) C > Si > Ge > Sn (b) C >> Si > Ge ≈ Sn
(c) Si > C > Sn > Ge (d) Ge > Sn > Si > C
20) The crystal structure of diamond?
(a) planar (b) tetrahedral (c) linear (d) hexahedral
21) Graphite has a layered structure. The inter planar distance is about
(a) 135 pm (b) 435 pm (c) 225 pm (d) 335 pm
22) In the molecule C–60, each carbon is
(a) sp2 hybridized (b) sp hybridized
(c) sp3 hybridized (d) dsp2 hybridized
23) Number of pentagons and hexagon respectively present in fullerene C-60 is
(a) 20, 12 (b) 12 and 20 (c) 20 and 40 (d) 40 and 20
24) In graphite, two layers of carbon atoms are held together by
(a) ionic bonds (b) covalent bonds
(c) hydrogen bonds (d) van der Waals forces
25) Hardness of diamond is due to
(a) allotropy of carbon
(b) valence electrons of each C-atom are involved in bonding
(c) giant molecule
(d) high refractive index
26) Which of the following statements about bucky ball is incorrect?
(a) it is C60 allotrope of carbon
(b) all the carbon atoms are sp2 hybridized
(c) it contains 20 six membered rings and 12 five membered rings
(d) five membered rings are connected both to five and six-membered rings
27) Fullerenes are
(a) crystalline form of carbon
(b) amorphous form of carbon
(c) amorphous form of carbon with low molecular mass (d) amorphous form of carbon with
high molecular mass
28) Dry ice is
(a) solid NH3 (b) solid SO2 (c) solid CO2 (d) solid N2
29) The basic structural unit of silicates is
(a) SiO32– (b) SiO42– (c) SiO– (d) SiO44–
30) Silicon has a strong tendency to form polymers like silicones. The chain length of silicon
polymer can be controlled by adding
(a) MeSiCl3 (b) Me2SiCl2 (c) Me3SiCl (d) Me4Si

UNIT-12: SOME BASIC PRINCIPLES AND TECHNIQUES OF ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

1) The property called catenation is more marked in the case of

(a) silicon (b) carbon (c) tin (d) copper
2) In the detection of carbon by heating organic compound with cupric oxide, carbon of
compound is converted into
(a) carbon monoxide (b) carbon dioxide
 (c) carbon and carbon monoxide (d) carbonic acid
3) Carbon and hydrogen of organic compounds is simultaneously estimated by
(a) Dumas method (b) Liebig`s method
(c) Kjeldahl`s method (d) Carius method
4) Water vapour formed during the combustion of organic compounds is detected by
passing them over
(a) anhydrous sodium carbonate (b) aluminium sulphate
(c) anhydrous copper sulphate (d) anhydrous calcium chloride
5) Before testing for halogens, the sodium fusion extract is boiled with
(a) Dil. HNO3 (b) Dil. H2SO4 (c) conc. HCl (d) conc. NaOH
6) In the Lassaigne’s test for sulphur in the organic compound with sodium nitroprusside
solution the purple colour formed is due to
(a) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS] (b) Na3[Fe(CN)5S]
(c) Na2[Fe(CN)5NOS] (d) Na3[Fe(CN)6]
7) If on adding FeCl3 solution to acidified Lassaigne’s test, a blood red colouration is
produced shows the presence of
(a) S (b) N (c) N and S (d) S and Cl
8) In Kjeldahl`s method, organic nitrogen is estimated as
(a) Nitrogen (b) Ammonia (c) Nitric acid (d) Nitrogen dioxide
9) Heterocyclic compound among the following is
(a) pyrrole (b) benzene (c) cyclopropane (d) Naphthalene
10) Cycloalkanes are
(a) aromatic compounds
(b) cyclic compounds with double bonds
(c) compounds containing delocalized electrons
(d) saturated cyclic compounds
11) In a homologous series the adjacent members differ by
(a) CH3 (b) CH (c) CH2 (d) CH4
12) Compounds CH3–CH=CH–CH3 and CH3–CH2–CH=CH2 are
(a) geometric isomers (b) position isomers (c) optical isomers (d) chain isomers
13) Butyric acid and isobutyric acid are
(a) chain isomers (b) position isomers (c) functional isomers (d) metamers
14) Methoxy methane and ethyl alcohol are
(a) position isomers (b) chain isomers (c) functional isomers (d) metamers
15) Compounds CH3–NH–C3H7 and C2H5–NH– C2H5 exhibit
(a) metamerism (b) position isomerism (c) optical isomerism (d) tautomerism
16) CH3CH2CHO and CH3COCH3 are
(a) Chain isomers (b) Position isomers
(c) Functional isomers (d) None of 1, 2, 3
17) The IUPAC name for tert-butyl chloride is
 (a) 4 - Chlorobutane (b) 2 - Chlorobutane
(c) 1 – Chloro-3-methylpropane (d) 2 – Chloro-2-methylpropane
18) The molecular formula of ethane nitrile is
(a) CH3NC (b) CH3NO2 (c) CH3CH2CN (d) CH3CN
19) The IUPAC name for the compound (CH3)3C–CH=CH2 is
(a) 3, 3, 3-trimethyl propene-1 (b) 1, 1, 1-trimethyl – 2- propene
(c) 3, 3-dimethyl-1-butene (d) 2, 2-dimethyl-3-butene
20) The hybridization of carbon atoms in C–C single bond in HC C–CH=CH2 is
(a) sp3-sp3 (b) sp2-sp3 (c) sp-sp2 (d) sp3-sp
21) Which among the following is temporary effect?
(a) Inductive effect (b) Mesomeric effect
(c) Electromeric effect (d) Hyperconjugative effect
22) Inductive effect involves
(a) delocalization of electrons (b) displacement of electrons (c) displacement of
electrons (d) delocalization of electrons
23) Which among these effects is possible only because of electrons?
(a) positive inductive effect (b) hyperconjugative effect
(c) electromeric effect (d) negative inductive effect
24) Resonance involves
(a) migration of hydrogen atoms (b) delocalization of electron
(c) delocalization of electrons (d) all are correct 25) A neutral
nucleophile among the following is:
(a) BF3 (b) AlCl3 (c) SO3 (d) H2O
26) In Carius method for the estimation of sulphur the precipitate formed is:
(a) BaSO4 (b) BaS (c) Ag2S (d)Ba(HSO4)2
27) Mixture of amino acids can be separated by:
(a) Sublimation (b) Chromatography
(c) Steam distillation (d) Distillation under reduced
pressure 28) Kjeldahl method is not suitable for:
(a) Methylamine (b) Aniline (c) Pyridine (d) p-Toluidine

UNIT-13: HYDROCARBONS

1) Alkenes are converted to alkanes by

(a) Hydrolysis (b) Halogenation (c) Dehydration (d) Hydrogenation 2) Methane
when heated in the absence of oxygen splits up to form carbon and hydrogen. The process is
called
(a) pyrolysis (b) polymerization (c) cracking (d) decomposition
3) The chlorination of methane to give CCl4 is an example of
(a) an addition reaction (b) an elimination reaction
(c) a reduction reaction (d) a chain reaction
4) Electrolysis of potassium acetate gives
(a) CH4 (b) C2H4 (c) C2H2 (d) C2H6
5) Conformation in molecules is due to
(a) rotation about a single bond (b) change in direction of light
(c) structural changes (d) restricted rotation about a double bond
6) A salt producing hydrocarbon among these compounds is
(a) methane (b) ethane (c) ethyne (d) ethene
7) Carbon – carbon bond length is the shortest in
(a) ethane (b) ethene (c) acetylene (d) benzene
8) At room temperature, the eclipsed and staggered forms of ethane cannot be isolated
because
(a) they interconvert rapidly
(b) both the conformers are equally stable
(c) the energy difference between the conformers is large
(d) there is a large energy barrier of rotation about the sigma bond
9) According to Markownikoff’s rule, when hydrogen chloride adds to an unsymmetrical
alkene, the hydrogen of HX attaches to
(a) carbon at the end of the molecule (b) carbon in the middle of the
molecule
(c) carbon with least number of hydrogen atoms
(d) carbon with maximum number of hydrogen atoms
10) The type of isomerism not exhibited by alkenes is
(a) chain isomerism (b) metamerism
(c) position isomerism (d) geometrical isomerism
11) The reduction of an alkyne to alkene using Lindlar`s catalyst results in to
(a) cis-addition of hydrogen atoms (b) trans-addition of hydrogen
atoms
(c) a mixture obtained by cis- and trans-additions of hydrogen which are in equilibrium with
each other
(d) a mixture obtained by cis- and trans-additions of hydrogen which are not in equilibrium
with each other
12) The alkene that exhibits geometrical isomerism is
(a) propene (b) 2-methylpropene (c) 2-butene (d) 2-methyl-2-butene
13) The hybridization of carbon atoms in C–C single bond is HC C–CH=CH2
(a) sp3-sp3 (b) sp2-sp3 (c) sp-sp2 (d) sp3-sp
14) Lindlar’s catalyst is used to prepare
(a) formaldehyde from methane (b) acetaldehyde from acetylene
(c) ethylene from acetylene (d) ethena from acetylene
15) The non-aromatic compound among the following is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

S
16) Compound(s) formed, when toluene is heated with alkaline KMnO4
(a) Benzene and benzoic acid (b) benzene (c) benzoic acid (d)
phenol
17) Benzene reacts with CI2 in sunlight to give a final product
(a) C6H5Cl (b) C6Cl6 (c) C6H6Cl6 (d) CCl4
18) In benzene, all the six C-C bonds have the same length because of
(a) Resonance (b) hybridization (c) isomerism (d) chain
isomerism
19) In the Friedel-Crafts acylation, the electrophile is
(a) C6H6 (b) AlCl3 (c) CH3CO+ (d) C6H5CH3
20) Toluene reacts with chlorine in the presence of FeCl3 to form
(a) m-Chlorotoluene (b) o-Chlorotoluene
(c) Mixture of ortho and para chlorotoluene (d) benzyl chloride
21) C H6 6 C H Br2 5 anhydrous
AICI3 C H 6 5 C H2 5 HBr.This reaction is known as

(a) Wurtz reaction (b) Wurtz-Fittig reaction

(c) Friedel-Crafts reaction (d) Williamson’s reaction
22) The polymer benzene is obtained from
(a) methane (b) ethane (c) ethyne (d) ethene
23) During electrophilic substitution reaction of toluene, substitution takes place at
(a) ortho position (b) meta position
(c) ortho and meta positions (d) ortho and para positions
24) The carbon atoms in a benzene ring are
(a) 3 C-atoms are sp2 and 3C atoms are ap3 hybridized
(b) 3 C-atoms are sp2 and 3C-atoms are not hybridized
(c) all C-atoms are sp2 hybridized
(d) all C-atoms are sp3 hybridized
25) Benzene molecule is
(a) tetrahedral (b) planar (c) octahedral (d) puckered
26) Huckel rule is
(a) (2n + 2) electron (b) (4n + 4) electron (c) (2n + 4) electron (d) (4n
+ 2) electron
27) Nitro group in nitrobenzene is
(a) ortho directing (b) meta directing
(c) para directing (d) ortho and para directing
28) In nitration of benzene, the electrophile is
(a) nitrate ion (b) nitrite ion (c) nitronium ion (d)
nitrogen dioxide
29) Aromaticity of benzene is due to
(a) ring (b) three double bonds
(c) delocalization of pi electrons (d) none of the above

UNIT-14: ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following gases is not a greenhouse gas?

(a) CO (b) O3 (c) CH4 (d) H2O vapour
2) Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate. One of the following is
not amongst the components of photochemical smog, identify it.
(a) NO2 (b) O3 (c) SO2 (d) unsaturated hydrocarbon
3) Biochemical Oxygen Demand, (BOD) is a measure of organic material present in water.
BOD value less than 5ppm indicates a water sample to be ________.
(a) rich in dissolved oxygen. (b) poor in dissolved oxygen.
(c) highly polluted. (d) not suitable for aquatic life.
4) Which of the following statements is wrong?
(a) Ozone is not responsible for greenhouse effect.
(b)Ozone can oxidize sulphur dioxide present in the atmosphere to sulphur trioxide.
(c) Ozone hole is thinning of ozone layer present in stratosphere.
(d)Ozone is produced in upper stratosphere by the action of UV rays on oxygen.
5) Sewage containing organic waste should not be disposed in water bodies because it
causes major water pollution. Fishes in such a polluted water die because of (a) Large
number of mosquitoes.
(b) Increase in the amount of dissolved oxygen.
(c) Decrease in the amount of dissolved oxygen in water.
(d) Clogging of gills by mud.
6) Which of the following statements about photochemical smog is wrong?
(a)It has high concentration of oxidizing agents.
(b)It has low concentration of oxidizing agent.
(c)It can be controlled by controlling the release of NO2, hydrocarbons, ozone etc.
(d)Plantation of some plants like pinus helps in controlling photochemical smog.
7) The gaseous envelope around the earth is known as atmosphere. The lowest layer of this
is extended up to 10 km from sea level, this layer is _________.
(a)Stratosphere (b) Troposphere (c) Mesosphere (d) Hydrosphere
8) The pollutants which come directly in the air from sources are called primary pollutants.
Primary pollutants are sometimes converted into secondary pollutants. Which of the
following belongs to secondary air pollutants?
(a) CO (b) Hydrocarbon (c) PAN (d) NO
9) Which of the following statements is correct?
(a)Ozone hole is a hole formed in stratosphere from which ozone oozes out.
(b) Ozone hole is a hole formed in the troposphere from which ozone oozes out.
(c) Ozone hole is thinning of ozone layer of stratosphere at some places.
(d)Ozone hole means vanishing of ozone layer around the earth completely.
10) Which of the following practices will not come under green chemistry?
(a)If possible, making use of soap made of vegetable oils instead of using synthetic detergents.
(b)Using H2O2 for bleaching purpose instead of using chlorine based bleaching agents.
(c)Using bicycle for travelling small distances instead of using petrol/diesel based vehicles.
(d) Using plastic cans for neatly storing substances.
11) Domestic waste will lead to
(a) Biodegradable pollution. (b) Nondegradable pollution. (c) Thermal pollution
soil. (d) Air pollution.
12) The most harmful air pollutant produced by automobiles is
(a)HNO2 (b)NO (c)SO2 (d) CO
13) Which is the main air pollutant?
(a)CO2 (b) CO (c) N2 (d) S
14) The acid rain possesses:
(a) sulphuric acid (b) nitric acid (c)sulphurous acid (d) all of these
15) Air pollutants that produce photochemical smog
(a) Ozone, chlorine and sulphur dioxide (b) Oxygen, chlorine and nitric acid (c)
Nitrous oxide, PAN and acrolein (d) CO2, CO and SO2 16) Which one is not a
water pollutant?
(a) Automobile exhaust. (b) Plant nutrients.
(c) Oxygen demanding wastes. (d) Disease causing agents.
17) The photochemical smog can be suppressed by
(a) nitrogen oxides (b) hydrocarbons (c) radical traps (d) formaldehyde
18) One of the pollutants that is generally helping in the early degradation of the ozone layer
is
(a)SO2 (b) DDT (c) CO2 (d) Freons
19) The pH of normal rain water is
(a) 6.5 (b) 7.5 (c) 5.6 (d) 3.5
20) The maximum prescribed concentration of cadmium in drinking water in ppm is
(a) 0.05 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 0.005
21) The gas emitted by supersonic jet planes that slowly depletes the concentration of ozone
layer is
(a) CO (b) NO (c) SO2 (d) O2
22) The ozone layer forms naturally by
(a)The interaction of CFC with oxygen (b) the interaction of UV radiation with oxygen
(c) the interaction of IR radiation of oxygen (d) the interaction of oxygen and water vapours
23) Photochemical smog is formed in
 (a) summer during morning time (b) summer during day time
(c) winter during morning time (d) winter during day time
24) The process of `eutrification` is due to
(a) increase in concentration of insecticide in water
(b) increase in concentration of fluoride ion in water
(c) the reduction in concentration of the dissolved O2 in H2O due to phosphate pollution in H2O
(d) attack of younger leaves of a plant by peroxyacetyl nitrate 25) Which one of the following
statement is not correct?
(a) DDT & BHC are not good insecticides because they are highly soluble in water
(b) DDT and BHC are not good insecticides because they are absorbed by the soil and contaminate
root crops
(c) aldrin is not a good insecticide because it is not biodegradable
(d) all the above are incorrect
26) The gas leaked from a storage tank of the union carbide plant in Bhopal gas tragedy was
(a) phosgene (b) methylisocyanate (c) methylamine (d) ammonia
27) The maximum quantum of ozone is present in
(a) stratosphere (b) mesosphere (c) troposphere (d) thermosphere

ANSWERS

UNIT-1: SOME BASIC CONCEPTS OF CHEMISTRY

(1) (a) (2) (a) (3) (b) (4) (a) (5) (c) (6) (d) (7) (b) (8) (c) (9) (a) (10) (b)

(11) (a) (12) (c) (13) (a) (14) (a) (15) (c) (16) (b) (17) (b) (18) (a) (19) (c) (20) (b)

UNIT-2: CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS and PERIODICITY IN PROPERTIES

(1) (a) (2) (c) (3) (b) (4) (b) (5) (d) (6) (a) (7) (b) (8) (d) (9) (d) (10) (a)
(11) (c) (12) (b) (13) (c) (14) (b) (15) (b) (16) (a) (17) (a) (18) (d) (19) (d) (20) (d) (21)
(a) (22) (a)

UNIT-4: CHEMICAL BONDING and MOLECULAR STRUCTURE

(1) (d) (2) (b) (3) (d) (4) (b) (5) (d) (6) (d) (7) (d) (8) (b) (9) (d) (10) (a)

(11) (c) (12) (b) (13) (c) (14) (b) (15) (b) (16) (a) (17) (a) (18) (d) (19) (d) (20) (d) (21)
(a) (22) (a)

UNIT-5: STATES OF MATTER (GASES and LIQUIDS)

(1) (c) (2) (b) (3) (b) (4) (b) (5) (c) (6) (a) (7) (a) (8) (c) (9) (d) (10) (d)
(11) (b) (12) (b) (13) (c) (14) (d) (15) (d) (16) (a) (17) (b) (18) (a) (19) (a) (20) (c) (21)
(d) (22) (b) (23) (c) (24) (a) (25) (a) (26) (b) (27) (b)
 UNIT-6: CHEMICAL THERMODYNAMICS

(1) (c) (2) (c) (3) (b) (4) (c) (5) (d) (6) (a) (7) (a) (8) (b) (9) (c) (10) (b)

(11) (a) (12) (d) (13) (d) (14) (d) (15) (c) (16) (d) (17) (c) (18) (d) (19) (a) (20) (b)

(21) (a) (22) (b) (23) (c) (24) (b) (25) (c) (26) (a) (27) (c) (28) (c)

UNIT-7: CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

(1) (b) (2) (a) (3) (c) (4) (d) (5) (d) (6) (c) (7) (b) (8) (c) (9) (d) (10) (b)

(11) (c) (12) (d) (13) (d) (14) (b) (15) (d) (16) (d) (17) (b) (18) (d) (19) (d) (20) (b) (21)

(a) (22) (b) (23) (d)

UNIT-8: REDOX REACTIONS

(1) (d) (2) (a) (3) (a) (4) (d) (5) (c) (6) (a) (7) (a) (8) (b) (9) (b) (10) (c)

(11) (b) (12) (a) (13) (b) (14) (a) (15) (d) (16) (a) (17) (d) (18) (b)

UNIT-9: HYDROGEN
(1) (b) (2) (c) (3) (a) (4) (d) (5) (c) (6) (a) (7) (b) (8) (a) (9) (c) (10) (b)

(11) (d) (12) (c) (13) (b) (14) (c) (15) (a) (16) (b) (17) (a) (18) (b) (19) (b) (20) (b)

(21) (a) (22) (a) (23) (b) (24) (d) (25) (a) (26) (d)
UNIT-10: s-BLOCK ELEMENTS
(1) (a) (2) (a) (3) (b) (4) (a) (5) (a) (6) (c) (7) (d) (8) (d) (9) (d) (10) (d)

(11) (d) (12) (a) (13) (b) (14) (a) (15) (d) (16) (c) (17) (a) (18) (a) (19) (b) (20) (c)

(21) (a) (22) (d) (23) (d) (24) (c) (25) (b) (26) (a) (27) (b) (28) (a) (29) (c) (30) (d) (31)
(b)

UNIT-11: SOME p-BLOCK ELEMENTS

(1) (c) (2) (a) (3) (a) (4) (a) (5) (c) (6) (d) (7) (b) (8) (b) (9) (a) (10) (c)

(11) (c) (12) (c) (13) (d) (14) (c) (15) (b) (16) (a) (17) (c) (18) (b) (19) (b) (20) (b)

(21) (db) (22) (a) (23) (b) (24) (d) (25) (c) (26) (d) (27) (a) (28) (c) (29) (d) (30) (c)

UNIT-12: SOME BASIC PRINCIPLES and TECHNIQUES

(1) (b) (2) (b) (3) (b) (4) (c) (5) (a) (6) (a) (7) (c) (8) (b) (9) (a) (10) (d)

(11) (c) (12) (b) (13) (a) (14) (c) (15) (a) (16) (c) (17) (d) (18) (d) (19) (c) (20) (c)
(21) (c) (22) (a) (23) (b) (24) (d) (25) (c) (26) (d) (27) (a) (28) (b) (29) (a) (30) (c)
 UNIT-13: HYDROCARBONS

(1) (d) (2) (a) (3) (d) (4) (d) (5) (a) (6) (c) (7) (c) (8) (a) (9) (d) (10) (b)

(11) (a) (12) (c) (13) (c) (14) (c) (15) (a) (16) (c) (17) (c) (18) (a) (19) (c) (20) (c)

(21) (c) (22) (c) (23) (d) (24) (c) (25) (b) (26) (d) (27) (b) (28) (c) (29) (c)

UNIT-14: ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY

(1) (a) (2) (c) (3) (a) (4) (a) (5) (c) (6) (b) (7) (b) (8) (c) (9) (c) (10) (d)

(11) (a) (12) (d) (13) (b) (14) (d) (15) (c) (16) (a) (17) (c) (18) (d) (19) (c) (20) (d) (21)

(b) (22) (b) (23) (b) (24) (c) (25) (a) (26) (b) (27) (a)

PART-A
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets: SET:1
(Zero, Fluroine, Diborane, 14, Kelvin)
1. S. I unit of temperature is __________ (Kelvin)
2. At equilibrium value of Gibbs free energy is ___________ (Zero)
3. ___________ has highest electronegativity (Fluroine) 4. ______________has bridged (banana bond)
(Diborane).
5. Homologous series differ by _____ units. (14)

SET:2
(Melting point, Na, increases, Natural gas, Element)
1. Particles of an __________ consists of only one type of atoms. (element)
2. For pure substance at atmospheric pressure, the temperature at which the solid and liquid
phases are at equilibrium is ________(melting point)
3. Li ____ & K forms set of Traids (Na)
4. The relative stability of +1 oxidation state progressively__________for heavier elements
(increases).
5. _______are the main sources of alkanes. (Natural gas)

SET: 3
(Gallium, H+, kg/m3, sp3,
staggered)
1. S. I units of density is __________. (kg/m3)
2. Mendeleev predicted ________ as Eka-Aluminium (Gallium)
3. conjugate acid-base pair differ by _______ ( H+) 4. Hybridization of carbon in diamond is ______(
sp3).
5. ________conformers is stable form of ethane. (Staggered)

SET: 4
(C2H2, Mega, C03-, increases, Carbon)
1. Prefix used to express 10 is ________ ( Mega)
6

2. Conjugate base of HCO3- is _______________ (C03-)

3. Atomic size __________ down the group in periodic table (increases)
4. ________ is element of group 14 shows maximum catenation property (Carbon).
5. CaC2 + 2H2O -----------> ________ + Ca(OH)2 (C2H2)

SET: 5
(Unniltrium, Molality, CO2, Acidic buffer, Anhydrous AlCl3)
1. ________is number of moles of solutes dissolved in 1kg of Solvent (Molality).
2. IUPAC name for the element with atomic number 103 is __________ (Unniltriium).
3. Mixture of acetic acid and sodium acetate is an example of ___________ solution (acidic buffer).
4. Solid ________ is referred as Dry ice (CO2).
5. Catalyst used in Friedel-crafts reaction is _______ ( Anhydrous AlCl3)

SET: 6
(Radii, Definite, 3, HCl, CO)
1. Law of __________ proportion states “A given compound always contains exactly the same
proportion of elements by weight” (definite).
2. O2–, F–, Na+ and Mg2+ have the same number of electrons but ______ would be different. (Radii)
3. 𝑃𝐻of 0.001 M HC𝑙 is _______assuming complete dissociation of the acid (3) 4. ____is an
example of neutral oxide (CO) .
5. Anti Markovnikov rule for addition reaction of unsymmetrical alkene with unsymmetrical
reagent doesn’t happens for ______ (HCl)

SET: 7

(S2, 1.992648 × 10–23, Gallium, KMnO4, Ionization Enthalpy)

1. The mass of a carbon–12 atom was determined by a mass spectrometer and found to be equal
to ______________ g (1.992648 × 10–23).
2. A quantitative measure of the tendency of an element to lose electron is given by its
________________ (Ionization Enthalpy).
3. The solubility product (Ksp) for AB type salt is __________ (S2).
4. ___________ element of 13th group exists as liquid during summer (Gallium).
5. Alkenes on reaction with cold, dilute, aqueous solution of __________produce vicinal glycols
(KMnO4).

SET: 8
(d block, limiting reagent, BF3, CH4, Closed)
1. The reactant which is present in the least amount gets consumed in reaction is _________
(limiting reagent).
2. Element with atomic number 112 is a ________ block elements ( d block)
3. Equilibrium is possible only in a ________ system at a given temperature. (Closed).
4. ______ behaves as lewis acid (BF3).
5. Sodium salts of acetic acid on heating with soda lime gives ______ as Product (CH4).