ĐỀ 1
ĐỀ 1
SECTION I: LISTENING (3.0 points) (You will hear twice for each part)
Part 1. you will hear a doctor talking about how people can lead a healthier life. For each question, put
a tick in the correct box.
1. To become healthier you should ________.
A. dramatically change your life
B. change some daily habits.
C. eat hardly anything.
2. If you don't manage to exercise as much as you should ________.
A. leave the gym.
B. try not to be negative about it.
C. be angry with yourself.
3. To improve your mood you should ________.
A. drink more tea and coffee.
B. only eat vegetables.
C. increase the amount of vegetables you eat.
4. The survey ________.
A. showed quite dramatic results.
B. didn't have strong results.
C. didn't give any useful information.
5. You should always ________.
A. do important jobs first.
B. do everything as quickly as possible.
C. try to finish what you start
6. The doctor says ________.
A. you should never have a late night
B. lack of sleep causes brain disease.
C. it's okay to go to bed late sometimes.
Part 2. You will hear a tour guide giving information about an old British house. For each question. fill
in the missing information in the numbered space.
- The house was built in the (7) 19th century
- The Reynold family lived in the house until (8) 1975
- The servants had rooms in the (9) attic
- The art collection is in the (10) dining room
- George Reynold was a (11) lawyer
- George's son Michael died from (12) cancer
- Wife died while giving birth to their (13) daughter Emily.
- George's brother died in a (14) horse riding accident.
- George died of a heart attack at the age of (15) 52
SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7.0 points)
Part 1: Questions from 16 to 36. (3.0 points - 0.15/ each)
Choose the best answer to each question.
16. As a citizen, it is normal to _________ to the laws and rules made by the society.
A. conform B. resist C. hinder D. obey
conform (+ to) theo, làm theo, tuân theo, y theo, chiếu theo
resist kháng cự, chống lại
hinder cản trở, gây trở ngại
obey vâng lời nghe lời, tuân theo, tuân lệnh
17. He attempted to _________the painting from the gallery but he was caught.
A. rob B. steal C. thief D. kidnap
18. Once the computer virus was removed, a lot of information ________.
A. is disappearing B. will have disappeared
C. disappears D. disappeared
19. Telecommuter boosters will often mention _________convenient it is for people wishing to cut down on
their work hours.
A. how B. therefore C. only D. most
20. A: “Will the Jackson be invited?”– B: “I_________.”
A. expect so not B. so expect C. expect so D. don’t expect
21. I read the contract again and again ___________avoiding making spelling mistakes.
A. with a view to B. on account of C. by means of D. in terms of
with a view to + V_ing với ý định
22. In a report submitted to the government yesterday, scientists __________that the building of the bridge be
stopped.
A. banned B. complained C. said D. recommended
recommended + that + S + V_infi / be + V3/ed
23. Anyone ordering a new MP3 player _________ the end of the month will receive a free extra set of
headphones.
A. at B. in C. upon D. before
24. I enjoyed reading that story. It was rather sad, _________.
A. also B. though C. but D. so
25. My job is so ________ that I don’t think I’ll be able to take a summer break.
A. persisting B. hard C. demanding D. tough
- persisting kiên gan, bền bỉ
- demanding (a) đòi hỏi khắt khe
- tough (a) cứng rắn, cứng cỏi, bất khuất
26. A number of students ________ for a rise since last year
A. asked B. has asked C. ask D. have asked
27. I have been fascinated by _________ since I was at secondary school.
A. photographic B. photographer C. photograph D. photography
photography (n) thuật nhiếp ảnh, thuật chụp ảnh; sự chụp ảnh
photograph (n) ảnh, bức ảnh
photographer (n) nhà nhiếp ảnh, thợ nhiếp ảnh
photographic (a) như chụp ảnh
28. She has difficulty ________ and ________ English.
A. speak-writing B. to speak- to write C. speak-write D. speaking-writing
29. Her mother’s illness cast a cloud__________her wedding day
A. for B. over C. on D. in
30. I don’t really___________winter sports very much
A. deal with B. face up to C. get round to D. go in for
go in for = like
31. The meeting was _______ off at the last minute because the papers were not ready.
A. stopped B. broken C. called D. turned
call off = postpone = delay đình lại, hoãn lại, ngừng lại; bỏ đi
32. There are still, however, rather a lot of obstacles to ________.
A. overcome B. come over C. solve D. resolve
obstacles vật chướng ngại, trở lực overcome vượt qua, khắc phục
resolve giải quyết, kiên quyết
33. __________ the barrier at the side of the road, the car would have crashed into the valley below.
A. But for B. Apart from C. Except for D. Unless
But for nếu không vì (dùng cho câu điều kiện)
Apart from = Except for ngoài …ra / ngoại trừ Unless trừ khi
ĐỀ 2
SECTION I: LISTENING (3.0 points) (You will hear twice for each part)
PART 1. You will hear a man called Ian talking on the radio about difficult neighbors. For each
question, choose the correct answer.
1. Why couldn't Isabel sleep?
A. Her flat-mate was too noisy.
B. The phone kept ringing
C. The downstairs neighbor was shouting.
2. Isabel was angry because ________.
A. this had happened many times before.
B. the man was shouting at her
C. people were phoning her late at night.
3. What happened when Isabel approached the man?
A. He hit her. B. He reluctantly apologized C. He wasn't at all sorry
4. Why did Isabel move?
A. The men followed her home from work
B. Nobody would do anything about the man.
C. The renting agency asked her to.
5. According to research ________.
A. one in ten people argue with their neighbors.
B. one in ten people are disturbed by noise.
C. one in ten people are forced to move home.
6. According to Lisa Dorn ________.
A. modern living conditions cause problems.
B. people no longer know their neighbors.
C. people are lonelier than they used to be.
Part 2. You will hear a tour guide talking to a group of people. For each question, fill in the missing
information in the numbered space.
EXCURSION TO BRIGHTON
ITINERARY
COACH PICK UP TIME: 8 a m
PICK UP POINT: outside the (7) Town Hall
ARRIVAL TIME IN BRIGHTON: (8) 10 a.m
DROP OFF POINT: Pool Valley Coach Station
guided walking tour
10.15 - 10.45: Tour of the famous Brighton Lanes Famous for (9) jewelers and boutiques
11 am - 12.30 pm: Coffee break. Refreshments are available inside the Palace Café.
or in the (10) Pavilion Gardens café.
11.30 - 12.30: Guided tour of the palace.
12.45 - 2 pm: lunch at Donatello Restaurant.
Two-course lunch (11) £ 6.95
Three-course lunch £ (12) 8.95
Coffee /tea included
2pm - 3 p m: Brighton Museum and Art Gallery.
Guided tour optional- free of charge.
3pm - 5 pm: Free time on Brighton seafront.
Recommended sights: Brighton Pier (13) Aquarium and artists’ studios.
5.10 - 6 p m: Grand Hotel for (14) cream tea
Depart from Pool Valley (15) Coach Station.
SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7.0 points)
Part 1: Questions from 16 to 36. (3.0 points - 0.15/ each)
Choose the best answer to each question.
16. There are over 2,000 varieties of snakes, ________are harmless to humans.
A. mostly they B. most of them C. most of which D. which most
17. Smoke jumpers are ________descend into remote areas by parachute to fight forest fires.
A. firefighters B. when firefighters C. who, as firefighters D. firefighters who
18. It was the ragtime pianist Scott Joplin ________the "Maple Leaf Rag," perhaps the best known of all
ragtime tunes.
A. wrote B. the writer of C. who wrote D. writing
19. In geometry, a tangent is a straight line ________a curve at only one point.
A. it touches B. whose touching C. its touching D. that touches
20. The size and shape of a nail depends primarily on the function ________intended.
A. which it is B. for which it is C. which it is for D. for which is
21. A keystone species is a species of plant or animal ________absence has a major effect on an ecologial
system.
A. that its B. its C. whose D. with its
22. Seals appear clumsy on the land, ________are able to move short distances faster than most people can run.
A. but they B. which they C. they D. which
23. Most folk songs are ballads ________have simple words and tell simple stories.
A. what B. although C. who D. that
24. ________added to a liquid, antifreeze lowers the freezing temperature of that liquid.
A. That B. As is C. It is D. When
25. ________ through a prism, a beam of white light breaks into all the colors of the rainbow.
A. When shines B. It shines C. It is shone D. When shone
26. Well- ___________child often behaves quite differently from one who did not get good schooling.
A. education B. educated C. educate D. educating
27. When my grandfather was alive, he ________ morning exercises.
A. used to do B. use to do C. used to doing D. wasn't used to do
28. There is no __________ explanation for what happened.
A. scientifically B. scientist C. science D. scientific
29. –“I’ve passed my driving test.” –“_____________.”
A. It’s nice of you to say so. B. Do you?
C. Congratulations! D. That’s a good idea.
30. We ______ them before the reception yesterday
A. haven't met B. hadn't met C. didn't meet D. wouldn't meet
31. I could not _____ the lecture at all. It was too difficult for me.
A. make off B. take in C. get along D. hold on
Take in = Understand:Hiểu
32. Some sociologists believe that the _____ family is rapidly becoming a thing of the past.
A. basic B. closed C. immediate D. nuclear
- Nuclear family: Gia đình hạt nhân (gia đình gồm có 2 thế hệ: bố mẹ và con cái)
- extended family gia đình đa thế hệ
33. Bill: “I'm having some friends over for lunch this saturday. Would you like to join us?'' Nancy: “_________.”
A. Can I take a rain check? B. Come on. it's your turn
C. Thanks, but I mustn't D. As a matter of fact, I do
Can I take a rain check? Để coi nếu được thì tôi sẽ đi.
34. The criminal knows the ________ of successful robberies.
A. trash and treasure B. part and parcel C. ins and outs D. close all
ins and outs (n) the correctness and successfulness way to do something (chính xác và thành công)
35. To buy this type of product, you must pay half of the money ________, and pay the rest on the day of delivery.
A. in advance B. in cheque C. in cash D. in charge
book / thank / pay in advance đặt chỗ, cảm ơn, trả trước
Part 2: Questions from 36 to 45. (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the following sentences.
36. He's a really reliable person. RELY
37. She made several excellent observations in her essay on Charles Dickens. OBSERVE
38. Watching TV shows in English is definitely very useful to improve your listening USE
skills.
39. The Internet is probably one of the best inventions ever. INVENT
40. The boat was 16 feet in length. LONG
41. Both accuracy and fluency are important when speaking a foreign language. ACCURATE
42. You shouldn't have said that! It was a totally inappropriate remark. APPROPRIATE
43. Since the earliest times, civilisations have understood the importance of time. IMPORTANT
44. Doing puzzles keeps our brains fit and healthy. HEALTH
45. As well as gaining satisfaction, by doing puzzles we give our brains a good workout. SATISFY
Part 3: Questions from 46 to 50.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Each of the following sentences has an error. Find the errors and correct them.
46. The notebook lists every opportunities for handicapped workers in the area. à opportunity
47. In the end, she quit the job because it was too bored. à boring
48. Every candidate under considering for a federal job must undergo a thorough medical examination. à
consideration
49. When I was a child, summers would be warmer and winters colder than now. à used to
50. It took them at least two months learning how to pronounce these words. à to learn
Part 4: Questions from 51 to 55.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Fill in each of the sentences with correct prepositions.
51. Our teacher is really intolerant of anyone who has a different point of view to her own.
52. So on what grounds are you claiming compensation?
53. Yes, but with respect, you did miss the last meeting, didn't you?
54. Joey came across a very interesting book the other day.
55. Mary will not be able to come; she has come down with a flu.
SECTION III: READING (6.0 points)
Part 1. Questions 56 – 65 (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question.
The first question we might ask is: What can you learn in college that will help you in being an employee?
The schools teach a (56) ________ many things of value to the future accountant, doctor or electrician. Do
they also teach anything of value to the future employee? Yes, they teach the one thing that it is perhaps most
valuable for the future employee to know. But very few students bother (57) ________it. This basic is the skill
ability to organize and express ideas in writing and in speaking. This means that your success as an employee
will depend on your ability to communicate, with people and to (58) ________your own thoughts and ideas to
them so they will (59) ________understand what you are driving at and be persuaded.
Of course, skill in expression is not enough (60) ________itself. You must have something to say in the
first place. The effectiveness of your job depends (61) ________your ability to make other people understand
your work as they do on the quality of the work itself.
Expressing one's thoughts is one skill that the school can (62) ________teach. The foundations for skill in
expression have to be (63) ________early: an interest in and an ear (64) ________language; experience in
organizing ideas and data, in brushing aside the irrelevant, and above all the habit of verbal expression. If you
do not lay these foundations (65) ________your school years, you may never have an opportunity again.
56. A. large B. great C. far D. lots
57. A. learning B. to learn C. with learning D. learn
58. A. interpret B. give out C. transfer D. present
59. A. both B. not C. as well D. either
60. A. on B. for C. by D. in
61. A. on most B. most on C. much on D. on much
62. A. quite B. hardly C. truly D. really
63. A. lied B. laid C. lain D. lay
64. A. by B. in C. for D. of
65. A. during B. of C. for D. when
Part 2. Questions 66 – 75 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question
Although they are an inexpensive supplier of vitamins, minerals, and high-quality protein, eggs also
contain a high level of blood cholesterol, (one of the major causes of heart diseases_1). One egg yolk, in fact,
contains a little more than two-thirds of the suggested daily cholesterol limit. This knowledge has caused egg
sales to plummet in recent years, which in turn has brought about the development of several alternatives to
eating regular eggs. One alternative is to eat substitute eggs. These egg substitutes are not really eggs, but they
look somewhat like eggs when they are cooked. They have the advantage of having low cholesterol rates, and
they can be scrambled or used in baking. One disadvantage, however, is that they are not good for frying,
poaching, or boiling. A second alternative to regular eggs is a new type of egg, sometimes called 'designer'
eggs. These eggs are produced by hens that are fed low-fat diets consisting of ingredients such as canola oil,
flax, and rice bran. In spite of their diets, however, these hens produce eggs that contain the same amount of
cholesterol as regular eggs. Yet, the producers of these eggs claim that eating their eggs will not raise the
blood cholesterol in humans.
Egg producers claim that their product has been portrayed unfairly. They cite scientific studies to back up
their claim. And, in fact, studies on the relationship between eggs and human cholesterol levels have brought
mixed results. It may be that it is not the type of egg that is the main determinant of cholesterol but the person
who is eating the eggs. Some people may be more sensitive to cholesterol derived from food than other
people. In fact, there is evidence that certain dietary fats stimulate the body's production of blood cholesterol.
Consequently, while it still makes sense to limit one's intake of eggs, even designer eggs, it seems that doing
this without regulating dietary fat will probably not help reduce the blood cholesterol level.
66. What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To introduce the idea that dietary fat increases the blood cholesterol level.
B. To inform people about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol.
C. To persuade people that eggs are unhealthy and should not be eaten
D. To convince people to eat 'designer' eggs and egg substitutes.
67. According to the passage, which of the following is a cause of heart diseases?
A. minerals B. cholesterol C. canola oil D. vitamins
68. Which of the following could best replace the word 'somewhat'?
A. in fact B. a little C. indefinitely D. a lot
69. What has been the cause for changes in the sale of eggs?
A. increasing price B. decreased production
C. dietary changes in hens D. concerns about cholesterol
70. According to the passage, one yolk contains approximately what fraction of the suggested daily limit for
human consumption of cholesterol?
A. 3/4 B. 2/3 C. 1/2 D. 1/3
71. The word 'portrayed' could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. studied B. destroyed C. tested D. described
72. What is the meaning of 'back up'?
A. reverse B. advance C. block D. support
73. What is meant by the phrase 'mixed results'?
A. The results are blended. B. The results are a composite of things.
C. The results are inconclusive. D. The results are mingled together.
74. According to the passage, egg substitutes cannot be used to make any of following types of eggs
EXCEPT?
A. boiled B. poached C. scrambled D. fried
75. According to the author, which of the following may reduce blood cholesterol?
A. reducing egg intake but not fat intake B. increasing egg intake and fat intake
C. decreasing egg intake and fat intake D. increasing egg intake but not fat intake
Part 3: Questions 76 – 85 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the text and fill in one word which best fits each gap.
Miss Darby was one of those people who never threw anything away. “You never know when you might
need it” was (76) one of her favorite sayings. She lived (77) by herself in a large Victorian house across the
road from us. Although I never went to her house, I knew it was full (78) of antique furniture, Persian carpets
and so on. In every room, there were dozens of paintings so that her house was (79) like an art gallery. I
remember my father (80) saying that she was a “ Staffordshire Darby” but I had (81) no idea what he meant. I
(82) found out years later that the Darby family had made their money from coal-mining in Staffordshire. We
used to make up stories (83) about her. My sister Alice, (84) who was a romantic girl, told us that Miss Darby
once had a lover, but he walked out one day and she (85) never saw him again!
Part 1:Questions from 86 to 90.(1 point- 0.2/ each)
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it.
86. I am having a lot of trouble now because I lost my passport last week.
If I hadn’t lost my passport last week, I wouldn’t be having so much trouble now.
87. She asked an assistant how much the Colombian coffee cost.
She asked, “How much does the Colombian coffee cost?”
88. Although it looks fierce, the dog has never bitten anyone.
Fierce as/though it looks, the dog has never bitten anyone
89. "You should have waited for us," the team leader said to John.
The team leader criticized John for not waiting/having waited for them
90. As people use a lot of wood-pulp, many trees are cut down.
The more wood-pulp is used, the more trees are cut down
Part 2:Questions from 91 to 95.(0.5 point - 0.25/ each)
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. Do not change the word given.
91. Most people regard him as the best man for the job. (widely)
He is widely regarded as the best man for the job.
92. The suspect could not explain why he had sand on his boots. (account)
The suspect could not account for the sand on his boots.
93. The best solution was thought of by Sally. (came)
Sally came up with the best solution.
94. You should consider the fact that he hasn’t spoken French for years. (allowances)
You should make allowances for his not speaking French for years.
95. House prices have risen sharply this year. (increase)
There has been a sharp increase in the house prices this year.
Giaoandethitienganh.info
ĐỀ 3
SECTION I: LISTENING (3.0 points) (You will hear twice for each part)
Part 1. You will hear a man describing a series of books. For each Question, put a tick in the correct
box.
1. Why does he like 'The Planet Wars'?
A. It has a believable plot. B. The story is fascinating. C. The characters are deeply emotional.
2. What is his problem with 'ALong Way Horns'?
A. It was too long. B. The idea was bad. C. The writing was bad.
3. What does he say is original about 'Catch a Dream”
A. The happy ending.
B. The megical abilities of the characters.
C. The changing emotions of the characters.
4. The horror story is about _______.
A. a war between humans and vampires.
B. Dracula is trying to use science to take over the world.
C. a battle between two groups of vampires.
5. What is not true about 'A World of Stories'?
A. It is a collection of different children's stories.
B. Forty children from around the world tell their life stories.
C. Stories are included fram different continents.
6. What does he think about 'The Real Shakespeare"
A. It does not contain accurate facts
B. It will be remembered as a classic
C. It will change people's minds about Shakespeare.
Part 2. You will hear someone talking on the radio about taxis and private hire vehicles in London.
For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space.
An object will float if its average density is less than that of water. If it is totally submerged, the weight
of the water it displaces (and hence the up thrust on it) is greater than its own weight, and it is forced upward
and out of the water, until the weight of the water displaced by the submerged part is exactly equal to the
weight of the floating object. Thus a block of wood with a density six tenths that of water will float with six
tenths of its volume under water, since at that point the weight of fluid displaced is the same as the block’s
own weight. If a dense material is made into a suitable shape, it will float because of Archimedes’ principle. A
ship floats, whereas a block of iron of the same mass sinks.
It is also because of Archimedes’ principle that ships float lower in the water when they are heavily
loaded (more water must be displaced to give the necessary up-thrust). In addition, they cannot be so heavily
loaded if they are to sail in fresh water as they can if they are to sail in the sea, since fresh water is less dense
than sea water, and so more water must be displaced to give the necessary up-thrust. This means the ship is
lower in the water, which can be dangerous in rough weather.
66. What happens when something is immersed in a fluid?
A. It will be pushed further down with a force, equal to the weight of the fluid displaced.
B. It receives an upward force, equal to the weight of the fluid displaced.
C. It receives a downward force, equal to the weight of the fluid displaced.
D. The fluid will expand the object and overflow to the floor.
67. The word “volume” in the passage refers to ______.
A. loudness B. quantity C. frequency D. length
68. The word “displaces” in the passage almost means “______”.
A. takes the place of B. takes place C. replaces with a new one D. puts in position
69. If an object’s average density is less than that of water, the object will ______.
A. sink B. float C. inflate D. drift
70. A block of wood with a density seven tenths that of water will ______.
A. go up and down then sink
B. float with a half of its volume under water
C. float with an equal volume of its volume under water
D. sink immediately when submerged
71. A ship floats, whereas a block of iron of the same mass sinks because the ship ______.
A. is made of wood B. is lighter C. has buoys D. has a special shape
72. The phrase “six tenths” in the passage means “______”.
A. 6 and 10 B. 10/6 C. 10 of 6 D. 6/10
73. The word “up-thrust” in the passage refers to the ______.
A. upward push B. upper side of an object C. upturned force D. upside-down turn
74. Ships cannot be so heavily loaded if they want to sail in fresh water as they sail in the sea, because ______.
A. fresh water is ‘lighter’ than sea water B. there’s too much salt in sea water
C. sea water is ‘saltier’ than fresh water D. fresh water is more polluted
75. Archimedes' Principle explains why ______.
A. all objects will float B. Archimedes became famous
C. objects seem lighter in water D. humans can swim
Part 3: Questions 76 – 85 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the text and fill in one word which best fits each gap.
Watching Television and going for a walk are the most popular leisure (76) activities in Britain. But
although longer holidays and shorter working hours have given people more free (77) time, women generally
have less free time (78) than men, because they spend time (79) on domestic work, shopping and childcare.
Surveys showed that more men (80) read newspapers than women, and (81) a slightly higher proportion of
adult read Sunday newspapers than read (82) daily morning national newspaper. More people are taking
holidays abroad (83) in 1971 only 36 percent of (84) adults in Britain had been abroad on holiday; but by
1983 this proportion had (85) risen to 62 percent, nearly fifteen million people.
SECTION IV: WRITING (4.0 points)
Part 1: Questions from 86 to 90. (2 point- 0.4/ each)
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it.
86. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting.
Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.
87. Everyone thinks I picked all the flowers in the garden.
I am thought to have picked all the flowers in the garden.
88. We decided to move to the countryside.
We made a decision to move to the countryside.
89. They were never aware at any moment that something was wrong.
@ At no time were they aware that something was wrong.
90. The heavy rain prevented everybody from going out.
Had the rain not been heavy, everybody could have gone out.
Had it not been for the heavy rain, everybody could have gone out.
Had it not rained heavily, everybody could have gone out.
Part 2: Questions from 91 to 92.(2 pointS - 0.4/ each)
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. Do not change the word given.
91. It was easy for us to get tickets for the concert. no
@ We have no difficulty in getting tickets for the concert.
92. The two theories appear to be completely different. common
@ The two theories have nothing in common.
93. I can’t describe people as well as you can. better
@ You’re better at describing people than I am.
94. I don’t know how you can stand getting up so early to go to the pool. put
@ I don’t know how you can put up with getting up so early to go to the pool.
95. “It was your fault to break my vase yesterday” said Jane to her brother. accused
Jane accused her brother of breaking/ having broken her vase the previous day.
ĐỀ 4
SECTION I: LISTENING (3.0 points) (You will hear twice for each part)
Part 1. You will hear a man, David, being interviewed about his life as a professional footballer, for each
question, put a tick in the correct box.
1. How long has David been a professional football play
A. One match B. Two years C. four years
2. What is in a normal day for David?
A. Fitness training and tactics.
B. fitness training and a full match.
C. Fitness, training tactics and a full match.
3. What do the team not watch videos about?
A. The opposition. B. Warming up. C. Their own performance.
4 . What does David say about the diet of a footbalier?
A. it is often unpleasant and bad.
B. It has lots of rice, meat and pasta.
C. Footballers have to be careful about what they eat.
5. What is true about David's free time?
A. He spends most of his free time with his friends
B. He has very little free time, except in the summer.
C. He usually does not manage to see his family.
6. What does David say about his future ambitions?
A. He firstly wants to secure a regular place in the team.
B. He wants to play for a European tearn in the next two years.
C. He never thinks about playing in the World Cup.
Part 2. You will hear a woman talking on the radio about fours of historic houses in the south of
England, for each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space.
HISTORIC TOURS
South Elmharn House.
Built: (7) 13th century by the bishops of Norwich
Improved: 16th century by a group of rich (8) Lords
Features: many old, valuable, wall paintings.
Remains of a small Norman (9) church
Tours: Including a walk 2 p.m £ 12. tea / coffee, meal bookable.
Haughley Hall
Built: 14th century outside ruined castle
Improved: 18th century.
Features: Once owned by (10) King Henry II, currently owned by a Lord.
Secret (11) hiding places in the walls
Two tunnels now closed
Tours 11.30 or 2 p.m £ with traditional (12) lunch, £ 12 with tea. Group welcome.
Bedfield House
Built: (13) 12th century by the church.
Improved: Mid 15th century.
Features Signs that protect against witchcraft are on (14) ceilings and surfaces.
Gardens are joins by (15) five bridges
Tours: 10.30 a.m or 2.30 p.m, £13.50 with tea/coffee and cakes. Groups welcome.
SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7.0 points)
Part 1: Questions from 16 to 36. (3.0 points - 0.15/ each)
Choose the best answer to each question.
16. I'm expecting to have this book__________soon this year.
A. published B. publishing C. to publish D. publish
Causative form have sth done
17. ________ your advice, I was able to avoid lots of trouble on my trip abroad.
A. Thanks to B. Despite C. Even though D. Instead of
thank to (prep) nhờ vào
18. We have a party tonight and Daisy is worried about ________.
A. what to wear B. which wearing C. that she wears D. these wearing
Preposition + Noun / noun phrase
19. As a rule, new comers ________ a party at the end of the first month of their stay.
A. was held B. hold C. have held D. will hold
20. The most interesting films ________ for the festival will be shown next week.
A. are chosen B. having chosen C. chosen D. being chosen
21. However ________ about the results, the children still talk merrily.
A. disappointed are they B. disappointing they are
C. disappointment D. disappointed they are
22. A child ________ to talk does not learn by being corrected all the time.
A. learned B. learns C. learning D. to learn
23. Some businesses use famous cartoon ________ to advertise their products.
A. person B. people C. characters D. samples
24. The first thing you should do when you lose your bank card is to call your bank and ask them to close your
________.
A. account B. house C. loan D. debt
25. “Oh no! I can’t find my credit card!” “________.”
A. Thank you for letting me know
B. Don’t worry. They will be back very soon
C. It is a nice surprise. You should be glad about it
D. Chill out. Try to remember when you last used it
Chill out = become quiet or calm, especially after a state of agitation
26. – “What would you like to drink? “ – “ __________.”
A. Yes, please B. Milk, please C. No, thanks D. OK
27. The number of cars on the roads ______ increasing, so we need to build more roads.
A. is B. was C. were D. are
28. ______ the class size is our school’s immediate aim.
A. Reduces B. Reduce C. Reducing D. Reduced
29. He ________ being given a receipt for the bill he had paid.
A. asked to B. demanded C. insisted on D. required
insist (v.) on doing sth = nhất quyết làm gì
30. Some________ actions have been taken to help protect wildlife at this national park.
A. survival B. disposal C. postal D. remedial
remedial (adj.) = mang tính chữa trị, sửa chữa, để khắc phục (remedial actions/measures = các hành động/ biện
pháp nhằm sửa chữa)
31. The demand for energy is ________more rapidly than ever.
A. exported B. decreased C. raising D. increasing
increase (v.) = tăng decrease = giảm export (v.) sth = xuất khẩu cái gì; raise (v.) sth = tăng, nâng cái gì lên
32. His performance was________; the audience was delighted.
A. unmarked B. faultless C. worthless D. imperfect
faultless (adj.) = perfect = không có lỗi, hoàn hảo
imperfect = không hoàn hảo;
worthless (adj.) = không có giá trị, vô dụng;
unmarked (adj.) = không được đánh dấu, không có biển hiệu
33. But why did the police suspect you? It just does not make________ to me.
A. reason B. right C. sense D. truth
make sense = có lý, có nghĩa hiểu được
34. In the end I ________the form in disgust, and threw it away.
A. filled in B. worked out C. tore up D. put off
tear (v.) (tore/ torn) sth up = xé nát cái gì (Cuối cùng, tôi ghê tởm.. xé nát tờ đơn, vặn vứt nó đi);
fill in a form = điền vào một mẫu đơn;
work sth out = tính toán cái gì;
put sth off = trì hoãn cái gì
35. His company, ________him with a car and samples of their products.
A. gives B. supplies C. replies D. places
supply (v.) sb with sth = cung cấp cho ai cái gì
Part 2: Questions from 36 to 45. (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the following sentences.
36. These high-heeled shoes are unsuitable for such rough terrain. SUIT
37. Colds are caused by viruses, so in the absence of a virus, you can't catch a cold. ABSENT
38. You're too young. This film is inappropriate for children your age. APPROPRIATE
39. Scientists now think that we may have viruses in our bodies already. SCIENCE
40. In cold weather, for example, blood vessels in the nose get smaller to stop heat FORTUNATE
escaping. Unfortunately, this also allows the cold virus to attack the nose or throat
more easily.
41. Victoria Falls in Africa is one of the most spectacular sights in the world. SPECTACLE
42. It's also an incredible place for water sports. CREDIBLE
43. We need you to provide an accurate description of the situation. DESCRIBE
44. On arrival, it's the noise that makes the greatest impression. IMPRESS
45. The surrounding landscape is also well worth a visit. SURROUND
Part 3: Questions from 46 to 50.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Each of the following sentences has an error. Find the errors and correct them.
46. Hung really wishes that he can take part in the game. could
47. They’re going to get their house decorate for the May Day. decorated
48. I used to sit next to a man who name is Almed. whose
49. I’d rather typing this letter than write it because it’s faster. type
50. He drives too fast that no one likes to ride with him. so
Part 4: Questions from 51 to 55.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Fill in each of the sentences with correct prepositions.
51. It's about time you told him the truth!
52. The soccer player was ejected because he had done something that was against the rules.
53. Being a nurse is hard work, especially if you're on call all the time.
54. You’ll have to work very hard if you want to catch up with the rest of your classmates.
55. I came across my lost earring while I was sweeping in the floor.
SECTION III: READING (6.0 points)
Part 1. Questions 56 – 65 (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question.
The first question we might ask is: What can you learn in college that will help you in being an employee?
The schools teach a (56) ________ many things of value to the future accountant, doctor or electrician. Do
they also teach anything of value to the future employee? Yes, they teach the one thing that it is perhaps most
valuable for the future employee to know. But very few students bother (57) ________it. This basic is the skill
ability to organize and express ideas in writing and in speaking. This means that your success as an employee
will depend on your ability to communicate, with people and to (58) ________ your own thoughts and ideas to
them so they will (59) ________ understand what you are driving at and be persuaded.
Of course, skill in expression is not enough (60) ________ itself. You must have something to say in the
first place. The effectiveness of your job depends (61) ________ your ability to make other people understand
your work as they do on the quality of the work itself.
Expressing one's thoughts is one skill that the school can (62) ________ teach. The foundations for skill in
expression have to be (63) ________ early: an interest in and an ear (64) ________ language; experience in
organizing ideas and data, in brushing aside the irrelevant, and above all the habit of verbal expression. If you
do not lay these foundations (65) ________ your school years, you may never have an opportunity again.
56. A. large B. great C. far D. lots
57. A. learning B. to learn C. with learning D. learn
58. A. interpret B. give out C. transfer D. present
59. A. both B. not C. as well D. either
60. A. on B. for C. by D. in
61. A. on most B. most on C. much on D. on much
62. A. quite B. hardly C. truly D. really
63. A. lied B. laid C. lain D. lay
64. A. by B. in C. for D. of
65. A. during B. of C. for D. when
Part 2. Questions 66 – 75 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question
In 1826, a Frenchman named Niépce needed pictures for his business. He was not a good artist, so he
invented a very simple camera. He put it in a window of his house and took a picture of his yard. That was the
first photograph. The next important date in the history of photography was 1837. That year, Daguerre,
another Frenchman, took a picture of his studio. He used a new kind of camera and a different process. In his
pictures, you could see everything clearly, even the smallest details. This kind of photograph was called a
daguerreotype.
Soon, other people began to use Daguerre's process. Travelers brought back daguerreotypes from all
around the world. People photographed famous buildings, cities, and mountains.
In about 1840, the process was improved. Then photographers could take pictures of people and
moving things. The process was not simple and photographers had to carry lots of film and processing
equipment. However, this did not stop photographers, especially in the United States. After 1840,
daguerreotype artists were popular in most cities.
Matthew Brady was one well-known American photographer. He took many portraits of famous
people. The portraits were unusual because they were lifelike and full of personality. Brady was also the first
person to take pictures of a war. His 1862 Civil War pictures showed dead soldiers and ruined cities. They
made the war seem more real and more terrible.
In the 1880s, new inventions began to change photography. Photographers could buy film ready-made
in rolls, instead of having tomake the film themselves. Also, they did not haveto process the film immediately.
They could bring it back to their studios and develop it later. They did not have to carry lots of equipment.
And finally, the invention of the small handheld camera made photography less expensive.
With a small camera, anyone could be a photographer. People began to use cameras just for fun. They
took pictures of their families, friends, and favorite places. They called these pictures "snapshots".
Documentary photographs became popular in newspapers in the 1890s. Soon magazines and books
also used them. These pictures showed true events and people. They were much more real than drawings.
Some people began to think of photography as a form of art. They thought that photography could do
more than show the real world. It could also show ideas and feelings, like other art forms.
66. The first photograph was taken with ______.
A. a small handheld camera B. a very simple camera
C. a daguerreotype D. new types of film
67. Daguerre took a picture ofhis studio with ______.
A. a new kind of camera B. a very simple camera
C. special equipment D. an electronic camera
68. The word “this” in the passage refers to the ______.
A. carrying of lots of film and processing equipment
B. stopping of photographers from taking photos
C. fact that daguerreotype artistswere popular in most cities
D. taking of pictures of people and moving things
69. The word “ruined” in the passage is closest in meaning to “______”.
A. poorly-painted B. heavily-polluted C. terribly spoiled D. badly damaged
70. The word “lifelike” in the passage is closest in meaning to “______”.
A. moving B. realistic C. touching D. manlike
71. The latest invention mentioned in the passage is the invention of ______.
A. handheld cameras B. processing equipment
C. daguerreotypes D. rolls of film
72. The word “handheld” in the passage is closest in meaning to “______”.
A. handling manually B. held by hand C. controlling hands D. operated by hand
73. Matthew Brady was well-known for ______.
A. inventing daguerreotypes B. the small handheld camera
C. taking pictures of French cities D. portraits and war photographs
74. As mentioned in the passage, photography can ______.
A. print old pictures B. convey ideas and feelings
C. show the underworld D. replace drawings
75. Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Different Steps in Film Processing B. Story of Photography
C. Photography and Painting D. Story of Famous Photographers
Part 3: Questions 76 – 85 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the text and fill in one word which best fits each gap.
SAFE CAMPING
Camping in the country is usually great fun, but sometimes things can go wrong. Accidents can
happen, so it is essential to think about safety both before you go (76) and while you are there. This will
prevent your fun camping trip turning (77) into something less pleasant.
Firstly, you need to plan ahead. Check out the weather (78) forecast a few days in advance and watch
out for any reports of fires in the area you are thinking of going to. Bring an emergency kit in (79) case you or
anyone with you has an accident or illness while you are there.
Choose your camp (80) site carefully, avoiding any places where there is risk of flooding before you
put up your tent, make (81) sure there are no sharp objects on the ground, or ants’ or wasps’ nests nearby.
In order to keep insects out of the tent, close it whenever you go in or out. If you need a camp ( 82) fire
for cooking, be careful not to build it anywhere near your tent, and before you go to bed, remember to put it
(83) out completely, preferably with lots of water.
After meals, pick up any bits of food that may (84) be left on the ground, as these can attract insects – or
larger creatures. It also makes senses, for the same reason, to keep unused food in closed containers away from
the camp. You don’t want a hungry bear or another (85) animal suddenly appearing in your tent!
SECTION IV: WRITING (4.0 points)
Part 1: Questions from 86 to 90. (2 point- 0.4/ each)
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it.
86. The result of the match was never in doubt.
@ At no time was the result of the match in doubt.
87. I didn’t know you were coming, so I didn’t wait for you.
@ If I had known you were coming, I would have waited for you.
88. When I picked up my pen I found that the nib hadbroken
@ On picking up my pen, I found that the nib had broken.
89. Sally finally managed to get a job.
@ Sally finally succeeded in getting a job.
90. Fiona was so disappointed that she could not keep on working.
Such was Fiona’s disappointment that she could not keep on working.
Part 2: Questions from 91 to 92.(2 pointS - 0.4/ each)
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. Do not change the word given.
91. I haven’t decided to continue my study in a foreign country. made
I haven’t made a decision to continue my study in a foreign country.
I haven’t made up my mind to continue my study in a foreign country.
92. I can't understand Doris and what she has done. sense
I can't make (any) sense of Doris and what she has done.
93. I think you should complain about that horrible meal. were
If I were you I would make a complaint about that horrible meal.
94. I have a good relationship with my neighbors. on
My neighbors and I get on well with together
95. I don’t usually remember people’s surnames. memory
I don’t have a good memory of people’s surnames.
Giaoandethitienganh.info
ĐỀ 5
SECTION I: LISTENING (3.0 points) (You will hear twice for each part)
Part 1: A. Part 1
1. C 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. A
2. A. Part 2
1. Beulah
2. 91/ninety-one (years old)
3. brother
4. (a) photographer
5. computer game(s)
3. A. Part 3
1. C. apple
2. A. the CD player
3. A. Emma’s
4. B. a video
5. B. 8. 30 p. m
TAUBER INSURANCE Co
Example Answer
Insurance type: Vehicle
Policy: (6) ZQW5009
Make & Model: Masda Marvel
Engine size: (7) 2500 cc
Name: Lisa Marie Heathcote
Date of Birth: (8) 22nd August 1955
Password: (9) Jack 1897
Change valuation? Yes ü
No
Reduce value to: (10) $ 15,000
Notes to be added to policy:
Add new driver:
Name: Samel Michaels
Age: 28
Relationship to main driver: (11) son-in-law
Reason: (12) family
Client / new driver to provide:
* Verified (13) (photo) copy of driver licence
* Clean driving (14) record
Start date:
* (15) temporary
* Full cover when paperwork appoved
SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7.0 points)
Part 1: Questions from 16 to 36. (3.0 points - 0.15/ each)
Choose the best answer to each question.
16. Some people show_________ attitude toward the misery of others, totally untouched by their suffering.
A. passionate B. dispassionate C. passion D. passionately
17. I enjoy walking to school, but on rainy days I_________ to going by bus.
A. would rather B. resort C. commit D. prefer
18. This is a photograph of the school I_________ when I lived in Swindow.
A. went B. studied C. attended D. joined
19. The train was_________ by a heavy snowfall.
A. held out B. held off C. held up D. held back
20. The people in my class, _________ are very friendly.
A. most of international students B. the most international students
C. almost international students D. mostly international students
21. Doctors advise people who are deficient_________ Vitamin C to eat more fruit and vegetables.
A. from B. for C. of D. in
22. The teacher made a difficult question, but at last, Joe_________ a good answer.
A. came up against B. came up with C. came up to D. came up for
23. _________ at his lessons, still he couldn't catch up with his classmates.
A. Hard as he was B. Hard as he does C. Hardly as he worked D. Hard as he worked
24. He refused to give up work, _________ he had won a million dollars.
A. despite B. even though C. However D. as though
25. Jane wasn't in when I arrived. I suppose she_________ I was coming.
A. may forget B. can't have forgotten C. must forget D. must have forgotten
26. Not for a moment_________ the truth of the case.
A. he doubted B. was he doubting C. he did doubt D. did he doubt
27. The student_________ the highest score will be awarded a scholarship.
A. receives B. who is receiving C. who receive D. receiving
28. On leaving prison, Vic decided to turn over a new_________ and to give up his old life of crime.
A. leaf B. book C. chapter D. page
29. He's been very sick. His doctor insisted that he_________ in bed this week.
A. stays B. stay C. would stay D. will stay
30. According to some historians, if Napoleon had not invaded Russia, he_________ the rest of the world.
A. would have conquered B. conquered
C. had conquered D. would conquer
31. He was so mean that he could not bear to_________ the smallest sum of money for the charity appeal.
A. part with B. let out C. give in D. pay off
32. We_________ for three hours and are very tired.
A. have been walking B. are walking C. were walking D. had been walking
33. _________ weather! We can't go out for a walk now.
A. What a terrible B. How a terrible C. What terrible D. How terrible
34. Susan: "How much do you earn, Joe?" Joe: “I'd ________________".
A. rather don't say B. rather not say C. better not to say D. prefer not say
35. Anna: "You don't have to go to school this afternoon, do you?" Bob: “_____________”.
A. No, I needn't B. What does that mean?
C. Yes, I don't have to D. That's OK
Part 2: Questions from 36 to 45. (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the following sentences.
36. The teacher asked us to summarize the main ideas in the chapter we had read in class. SUMMARY
37. The top manager of the shop told me that my credit card was not valid to pay for the VALIDATE
jeans which cost under 20€.
38. Art in the 20th century is usually referred to as modern art. MODERNIZE
39. Everybody listens to David Guetta's music. It's so commercial. COMMERCE
40. Butterflies are thoroughly classified by scientists. CLASS
41. She exemplifies the qualities of a good leader. EXAMPLE
42. Many people don't understand the simplicity of life. SIMPLE
43. It's impossible to tell those twins apart! They are identical. IDENTITY
44. He made several wrong generalisations about women. GENERAL
45. It was hard to differentiate between the two styles of music. DIFFERENCE
Part 3: Questions from 46 to 50.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Each of the following sentences has an error. Find the errors and correct them.
46. He said he must come to the party if he finishes his assignment for next week's seminar. had to
47. The basic law of addition, subtraction, multiplication and division are taught to all elementary school students.
48. Sandra has not rarely missed a play or concert since she was seventeen years old. bỏ not
49. Many of the famous advertising offices are located in Madison Avenue. on
50. Each of the nurses report to the operating room when his or her name is called. reports
Part 4: Questions from 51 to 55.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Fill in each of the sentences with correct prepositions.
51. Graduates are well equipped for careers in environmental policy.
52. The course encourages students to think critically about development.
53. This course provides the opportunity to focus on your major area of interest.
54. The young reporter looked up to Ken, who'd been a journalist for thirty years.
55. I never wanted to go along with their ideas, but I had to in the end.
SECTION III: READING (6.0 points)
Part 1. Questions 56 – 65 (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question.
Most people feel that when they dream , they are (56) ________ off to another world. On the (57)
________, dreams are often connected to our daily lives. When our whole (58) ________ is filled with
something, when we are either very upset (59) ________ when we are in good spirit, a dream will represent
this reality in symbols. It is often (60) ________ that we benefit from dreams because they help the spirit to
heal itself, when things (61) ________ wrong. Dreams are therefore a kind of escape, almost a holiday from
(62) ________ life, with its fears and responsibilities. It is, however, a strange kind of holiday because
whether we have a wonderful time or whether it turns (63) ________ to be a nightmare, we quickly forget it.
Most dreams disappear forever, (64) ________ you are one of those people disciplined enough to write them
down as soon as you (65) ________.
56. A. taken B. guided C. brought D. carried
57. A. contrast B. contrary C. other side D. opposite
58. A. spirit B. mind C. brain D. soul
59. A. unless B. but also C. or else D. or
60. A. said B. spoken C. declared D. started
61. A. become B. go C. turn D. get
62. A. real B. factual C. genuine D. actual
63. A. off B. up C. out D. down
64. A. except that B. therefore C. thus D. unless
65. A. wake up B. arise C. awake D. rise up
Part 2. Questions 66 – 75 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question
Sleep is a natural process, and although a lot have been written about the subject, it is still surrounded
by mystery. It is used by some as an escape from the world, and regarded by others as an irritating waste of
time: some people get by on very little, others claim they cannot exist without at least ten hours, but nobody
can do without sleep completely.
Our night’s sleep does not just consist of a steady phase of gradually deepening sleep. It alternates
between two stages: Non-dreaming or ordinary sleep, and REM (rapid eye movement) or dreaming sleep. As
soon as we fall asleep, we go straight into non-dreaming sleep for an hour or so, then into REM sleep for
about 15 minutes, then back into non-dreaming sleep. It alternates in this way for the rest of the night, with
non-dreaming sleep tending to last longer at the beginning of the night. Non-dreaming sleep occupies three-
quarters of our night’s sleep, about a quarter of it deep and the rest fairly light.
It is widely believed that sleep repairs the body and makes good the damage caused by being awake.
However, its main function is to refresh the brain. Experts believe that probably only about two-thirds of our
sleep is necessary for repairing and refreshing the brain, with the most valuable sleep coming in the first few
hours of the non-dreaming period, the last few hours of sleep are not so essential. The brain can manage quite
well with reduced sleep as long as it is uninterrupted sleep.
The quality of sleep is important. A study conducted in the USA looked at short sleepers, who slept for
5.5 hours on average, and long sleepers, who had 8.5 hours or more. It is discovered after a variety of tests that
the long sleepers were poor sleepers, had twice as much REM sleep as the short sleepers, appeared to sleep
longer to make up for poor sleep, and did not wake up in the morning refreshed. Similarly, people who sleep
deeply do not necessarily get a better quality of sleep than shallow sleepers. Deep sleepers can feel tired the
following day, so six hours of good sleep is worth more than eight hours of troubled sleep.
66. It can be concluded from the first paragraph that ______.
A. people need equal time of sleep B. sleep remains a puzzle
C. sleep is among the processes of the nature D. everything about sleep has been brought to light
67. The word “irritating” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. calming B. soothing C. annoying D. comforting
68. All the following statements are true, EXCEPT for ______.
A. our night’s sleep occurs in a straight line of only two phases
B. all sleeps are similar in the alternatives of the two stages during the night
C. we spend only 25 percent of our night’s sleeping time dreaming
D. we often have no dreams right after we fall asleep
69. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. our night’s sleep B. the ordinary sleep C. the REM D. the night
70. The word “occupies” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by ______.
A. accounts for B. takes care of C. works out D. goes up
71. Unlike the common belief, sleep helps ______.
A. not to be awake C. us to fix the damage happening by day
B. us to repair our body D. our brain to rest and recover
72. The study discussed in the reading passage suggests that ______.
A. the fewer hours we sleep, the more we dream
B. deep sleep means better sleep
C. the type of sleep is more important than its length
D. six hours of sleep is better than eight hours
73. Which of the following is NOT discussed in the passage?
A. The role of the sleep. B. Sleepless people’s problems.
C. Types of sleep. D. The circle of a sleep.
74. It can be inferred from the reading passage that ______.
A. if we can sleep uninterruptedly, it is not necessary to sleep the whole night
B. REM makes good our brain
C. nearly 70 % of our sleep is invaluable
D. dream enables our body to refresh when we can sleep uninterruptedly
75. This passage is the most likely taken from ______.
A. a doctor’s description B. a health magazine
C. an advertisement D. a fashion magazine
Part 3: Questions 76 – 85 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the text and fill in one word which best fits each gap.
Doctors have reported that vitamins (76) are substances required for the proper functioning of the
body. In this century, thirteen vitamins have been discovered. A lack of any vitamins in a person’s body can
(77) cause diseases. In some cases, an excess of vitamins can also lead to illness. For (78) example, sailors in
the past were prone to suffer from scurvy that is a disease resulting from the lack of vitamin C. It causes
bleeding of the gum, loss of teeth and skin rashes. Sailors suffer (79) from scurvy because they did not eat
(80) fruits and vegetables. Fruits and vegetables contain vitamin C which is necessary for good health.
Vitamin B complex is (81) composed of eight different vitamins. A lack of any of these vitamins will
lead to different diseases. For instance, a person who has (82) too little vitamin B1 will suffer from beriberi, a
disease that causes heart problems and mental disorders. A lack of vitamin B2 results (83) in eye and skin
problems while deficiency of vitamin B6 causes problems of the nervous system. Too little vitamin B12 will
cause anemia. The knowledge (84) that vitamin deficiencies caused certain diseases led doctors to cure people
suffering from these illnesses by giving them doses of the necessary vitamins. Today, vitamins are available in
the form of pills and can easily (85) be bought at any pharmacy.
SECTION IV: WRITING (4.0 points)
Part 1: Questions from 86 to 90.(2 point- 0.4/ each)
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it.
86. Don’t you think we should ask the price?
Hadn’t we better ask the price?
87. Doris tiptoed up the stairs because she didn’t want to wake anyone up.
To avoid waking anyone up, Doris tiptoed up the stairs.
88. I’m sure it wasn’t Mr. Bill you saw because he’s in New York.
It can’t have been Mr. Bill you saw because he’s in New York.
89. The hurricane blew the roof off the house.
The house had its/the roof blown off by/in/during/because of the hurricane.
90. I really think she should stop ignoring me in meetings
It's about time she stopped ignoring me in meetings.
It's about time she stopped giving me the cold shoulder in meetings.
90. Pamela isn't sorry she decided to move to Florida.
Pamela has no regret about deciding to move to Florida.
Part 2: Questions from 91 to 92.(2 points - 0.4/ each)
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. Do not change the word given.
91. They offered her a job but she refused. turned
She turned down the offer of a job.
92. They find driving on the left in England very strange. accustomed
@ They are not accustomed to driving on the left in England.
93. I expect you were very tired by the end of the week. must
@ By the end of the week you must have been exhausted.
94. Being late is inexcusable. excuse
@ There is no excuse for being late.
95. Matthew decided not to do his homework and went to play football. instead
@ Matthew went to play football instead of doing his homework.
Giaoandethitienganh.info
26. If you want to be an actor you have to really ______ yourself to it.
A. commit B. conform C. admit D. adapt
adapt oneself to điều chỉnh, thích nghi với
27. I’m feeling a bit _______ the weather, I think I’m getting a cold.
A. with B. for C. upon D. under
28. The ______ listened attentively to every word the vicar said in his sermon.
A. sightseers B. congregation C. spectators D. audience
29. Luckily I was wearing a seat belt. If I hadn’t been wearing one, I _____ seriously.
A. would be injured B. will have been injured
C. will be injured D. would have been injured
30. _______ I realised the consequences, I would never have contemplated getting involved.
A. Had B. If C. When D. Unless
31. We believe that the cumulative effects of renewed prosperity will ______ expectations.
A. undermine B. overcome C. surpass D. succeed
surpass expectations (a) ngoài mong đợi
32. ______ in a recent science competition, the three students were awarded scholarships totaling $21,000.
A. Judged the best B. To be judged the best
C. Judging the best D. Having judged the best
33. Daisy: “What a lovely house you have!” – Mary: “______.”
A. Lovely, I think so B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in
C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. No problem
34. These seats are ______ for special guests.
A. preserved B. reserved C. retained D. sustained
35. My team are unable to agree on whom we should elect to ______ David.
A. release B. replace C. retire D. resign
Part 2: Questions from 36 to 45. (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the following sentences.
36. Each employee's performance is evaluated at least once a year. VALUE
37. We could barely hear ourselves speak above the deafening roar of the sea. DEAF
38. He was fined 500 € and disqualified from driving for three years. QUALIFY
39. They lost the battle, despite outnumbering the enemy by two to one. NUMBER
40. I spent my first two weeks back at work familiarizing myself with all the new FAMILY
procedures.
41. Arnold died in 1953: his wife, who outlived him by almost half a century, passed away LIVE
on the last day of the millennium.
42. Before enrolling on a course, you should first ensure that it has been validated by an VALID
officially recognized body.
43. New mosturising cream smooths out wrinkles and ensures that your skin stays young- SURE
looking.
44. My library card is up for renewal next year. It expires in December. NEW
45. Light refreshments will be served from 3.30pm in the main hall. REFRESH
Part 3: Questions from 46 to 50.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Each of the following sentences has an error. Find the errors and correct them.
46. The best way to eliminate a pest is to controlling the food accessible to it. control
47. Mumps are a very common disease which usually affects children. is
48. The symptoms of diabetes in the early stages are too slight that people don't notice them. so
49. After he had ran for half a mile, he passed the stick to the next runner. run
50. I like the fresh airand green trees of the village which I spent my vacationlast year. where
Part 4: Questions from 51 to 55.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Fill in each of the sentences with correct prepositions.
51. This commercial was designed to appeal to women in their twenties and thirties.
52. I don’t know his reason for ending the relationship.
53. Although Carol graduated from Harvard with a degree in political science.
54. He jumped in the discussion and gave his point of view.
55. Take the 454 bus and get off at Oxford Circus.
SECTION III: READING (6.0 points)
Part 1. Questions 56 – 65 (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question.
If you (56)_____ to be walking in your local park tomorrow and you find an abandoned book with a
label inside (57)_____ 'Read and Release me', don't just treat it as a joke. You've probably come (58)_____ an
example of 'book-crossing', a book-sharing movement started in 2001 by American software developer Ron
Hornbaker, whose stated aim is to 'make the (59)_____ world a library'. Book-crossers 'release' books
(60)_____ by passing them on to friends, or else by leaving them in public places for others to pick up, or
'catch', and then read, before they (61)_____ turn release them back 'into the wild'. (62)_____ a book has been
'caught', the person finding it is encouraged to record the event by logging on to the book-crossing website and
entering the book's ID number written on the label. That (63)_____ , both the original owner and subsequent
readers of the book can keep track of its progress. Over half a million people worldwide participate in book-
crossing, 'releasing' books in a (64)_____ range of locations including cafés, airports, bus stations, telephone
boxes and even underwater in public fountains. Often a book is left in a place (65)_____ is relevant to its title
or content: Agatha Christie's Murder on the Orient Express on a train, for example, or an archeology book in a
museum.
56. A. occur B. happen C. pass D. arise
57. A. telling B. saying C. talking D. answering
58. A. away B. along C. across D. aside
59. A. full B. absolute C. quite D. whole
60. A. either B. but C. or D. neither
61. A. at B. to C. in D. for
62. A. Soon B. Since C. Once D. While
63. A. way B. time C. place D. manner
64. A. deep B. long C. high D. wide
65. A. what B. which C. who D. where
Part 2. Questions 66 – 75 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question
After two decades of growing student enrollments and economic prosperity, business schools in the
United States have started to face harder times. Only Harvard's MBA School has shown a substantial increase
in enrollment in recent years. Both Princeton and Stanford have seen decreases in their enrollments. Since
1990, the number of people receiving Masters in Business Administration (MBA) degrees, has dropped about
3 percent to 75,000, and the trend of lower enrollment rates is expected to continue.
There are two factors causing this decrease in students seeking an MBA degree. The first one is that
many graduates of four-year colleges are finding that an MBA degree does not guarantee a plush job on Wall
Street, or in other financial districts of major American cities. Many of the entry-level management jobs are
going to students graduating with Master of Arts degrees in English and the humanities as well as those
holding MBA degrees. Students have asked the question, "Is an MBA degree really what I need to be best
prepared for getting a good job?" The second major factor has been the cutting of American payrolls and the
lower number of entry-level jobs being offered. Business needs are changing, and MBA schools are struggling
to meet the new demands.
66. What is the main focus of this passage?
A. jobs on Wall Street
B. types of graduate degrees
C. changes in enrollment for MBA schools
D. how schools are changing to reflect the economy
67. The phrase two decades refers to a period of _______.
A. 10 years B. 20 years C. 50 years D. 100 years
68. The word prosperity could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. success B. surplus C. nurturing D. education
69. Which of the following business schools has NOT shown a decrease in enrollment?
A. Princeton B. Harvard C. Stanford D. Yale
70. The phrase trend of in the passage is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. reluctance of B. drawback to C. movement toward D. extraction from
71. The word seeking as used in the passage could best be replaced by ________.
A. examining B. avoiding C. seizing D. pursuing
72. Which of the following descriptions most likely applies to Wall Street?
A. a center for international affairs B. a major financial center
C. a shopping district D. a neighborhood in New York
73. According to the passage, what are two causes of declining business school enrollments?
A. lack of necessity for an MBA and an economic recession
B. low salary and foreign competition
C. fewer MBA schools and fewer entry-level jobs
D. declining population and economic prosperity
74. The word cutting in the passage could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. wounding B. reducing C. dividing D. carving
75. The word struggling as used in the last sentence is closest in meaning to _______.
A. evolving B. plunging C. starting D. striving
Part 3: Questions 76 – 85 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the text and fill in one word which best fits each gap.
The Wondrous World of Coffee
A cup of coffee, like any (1) other experience, can be enriched by selection and consciousness. "No
beans about it," the best coffee decisions (2) are the ones most pleasant to one's own palate - the selection of
one's coffee is a matter of personal preference. Choosing coffee beans can also be a perplexing experience,
(3) because there is a huge range of coffee types and beans blends from all around the world. The final flavour
and quality involves many complex factors, beginning with the coffee seed, the beans' botanics, a wide (4)
variety of soil and climate conditions, cultivation altitudes, and the care (5) taken in harvesting the beans.
Raw green coffee beans are then subjected (6) to many influencing factors, including various processing,
production, roasting, blending and brewing methods. On a global note, the many species and varieties of
coffee trees from different areas of the world also offer their (7) own distinctive flavours. There are more than
forty-five coffee-exporting countries - all of (8) which use different classification systems - that supply the
world with coffee beans, in sizes ranging over sixty known species of coffee plants. No wonder coffee can
involve a puzzling java jargon! Fortunately, the world's coffee nomenclature, (9) from mountain to market,
can be classified (10) into simple categories. This briefly outlines the basics of bean botanics, coffee
cultivation and processing, and global classifications used by the coffee trade and coffee-producing countries.
SECTION IV: WRITING (4.0 points)
Part 1: Questions from 86 to 90.(2 point- 0.4/ each)
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it.
86. I'm sure he knew all the details about the robbery.
He must have known all the details about the robbery.
87. "You shouldn't stay in the sun for longer than fifteen minutes." the doctor told us.
The doctor advised us not to stay in the sun for longer than fifteen minutes.
88. The shoes were too small for her to wear.
The shoes were not large enough for her to wear.
89. Sue is excited about going to Spain on holiday.
Sue is looking forward to going to Spain on holiday.
90. I can hardly keep my eyes open.
Hardly can I keep my eyes open.
Part 2: Questions from 91 to 92.(2 points - 0.4/ each)
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. Do not change the word given.
91. Camilla doesn't mind whether she dances on stage or in a TV show. no
It makes no difference to Camilla whether she dances on stage or in a TV show.
92. Fiona impressed the director enormously in her first audition. made
Fiona made an enormous impression on the director in her first audition.
93. Finally, Barry concluded that he wasn't very likely to get a job in computer animation. came
Finally, Barry came to the conclusion that he was unlikely to get a job in computer animation.
94. Graham doesn't intend to tolerate any further rudeness from his students. has
Graham has no intention of tolerating any further rudeness from his students.
95. There were several things that we had to think about before making any decision. take
There were several things that we had to take into consideration before making any decision.
……………………THE END ……………………...
ĐỀ 12
SECTION I: LISTENING (3.0 points) (You will hear twice for each part)
Part 1. Listen to the recording twice. Choose the correct answers to the questions.
1. Where is the man going?
A. to a museum B. to a movie theater C. to a musical D. to a park
2. How long will it take to get to his destination?
A. under five minutes B. under ten minutes
C. under fifteen minutes D. under twenty minutes
3. What time does the place in Question 1 close?
A. at 4:30 PM B. at 5:00 PM C. at 6:00 PM D. at 6:30 PM
4. Where is the man going later downtown?
A. to a party B. to a restaurant C. to a play D. to a business meeting
5. How much will the fare be for the taxi ride, not including a tip?
A. between five and ten dollars B. between ten and fifteen dollars
C. between fifteen and twenty dollars D. more than twenty dollars
Part 2. Complete The form below. Write no more than two words or a number for each answer.
Student Union Registration Form
Name: Stefan Unger
Degree programme: (1) postgraduate
Department: (2) engineering
Leisure activities: (3) computer games
Languages (apart from English): (4) German
Type of accommodation: (5) in Hall
Contact number: (6) 0295069003
When can students use the photocopier? (7) in the mornings
Where are events usually held? (8) Round Theatre
Which Union officer is responsible for van hire? (9) Transport Secretary
What will Union members be able to get a discount on? (10) newspapers
SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7.0 points)
Part 1: Questions from 16 to 36. (3.0 points - 0.15/ each)
Choose the best answer to each question.
16. Learning English isn't so difficult once you_______ .
A. get down to it B. get off it C. get on it D. get down with it
17. George wouldn't have met Mary_______ to his brother's graduation party.
A. had he not gone B. hadn't he gone
C. if he has not gone D. if he shouldn't have gone
18. Nowadays children would prefer history _______ in more practical ways.
A. to be taught B. teach C. be taught D. to teach
19. John has a monthly bank _______ sent to him so that he knows how much there is in his account.
A. statement B. overdraft C. cheque D. balance
20. Can you list the problems _______ poor and _______ countries?
A. facing/ overpopulation B. facing/ overpopulated
C. face/ overpopulated D. facing/ overpopulating
21. In a few hours, we_______ the test, and we’ll go home and rest.
A. are finishing B. have finished C. will have finished D. will be finishing
22. The doctor gave the patient _______ examination to discover the cause of his collapse.
A. a thorough B. an exact C. a universal D. a whole
23. I thought you said she was going away the next Sunday,_______ ?
A. wasn't she B. didn't you C. didn't I D. wasn't it
24. _______ non-verbal language is _______ important aspect of interpersonal communication.
A. /an B. A/ the C. the/ D. The/a
25. We bought some _______.
A. German lovely old glasses B. German old lovely glasses
C. lovely old German glasses D. old lovely German glasses
26. I’m afraid I’ve completely lost the ________of the argument.
A. stream B. thread C. trace D. idea
lose the thread of the argument: mất mạch lạc trong lập luận
27. When the teacher asked Mary what the chemical formula was, her mind was a total ________.
A. void B. empty C. blank D. nothing
blank trống rỗng
28. If you can win his attention ________for you.
A. the so much better B. the better so much C. so much the better D. so the much better
so much the better vậy sẽ tốt hơn
29. No one can function properly if he or she is ________adequate sleep.
A. took away B. deprived of C. derived from D. got rid of
deprived of adequate sleep mất ngủ
30. I was so exhausted that I went out like________.
A. a baby B. a candle C. a light D. a log
went out like a light chìm sâu vào giấc ngủ rất nhanh
31. Most of ________archaeologists know about prehistoric cultures is based on studies of material remains.
A. what B. these C. which D. the
32. She ________fainted when she heard that her child died.
A. rather than B. nothing but C. all but D. near
all but = very nearly = almost gần như
33. She had no chance to defend herself : the dog________for me as soon as I opened the door.
A. ran B. went C. fell D. stood
34. John ________from social activity because he felt embarrassed with people.
A. held on B. held off C. held back D. held out
35. I’m afraid Tim doesn’t take much care over his homework. He usually does it ________.
A. any how B. any old how C. how on earth D. how come
Part 2: Questions from 36 to 45. (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the following sentences.
36. There is a feeling of isolation and professional insecurity in schools. SECURE
37. Many candidates showed little appreciation of the problems from the headhunter's point APPRECIATE
of view.
38. The evidence from prehistoric times can seldom be interpreted with any certainty. HISTORY
39. He admired the warmth of relationships he saw around him. WARM
40. The question of whether he was negligent remained for trial. NEGLECT
41. The first thing he discovered was that Newley had not died accidentally. ACCIDENT
42. All this she heard, even understood, but still she was speechless. SPEAK
43. But not all implications are valid in reference to pedagogy. IMPLY
44. Light refreshments will be served from 3.30pm in the main hall. REFRESH
45. The white cliffs rise majestically from the sea. MAJESTY
Part 3: Questions from 46 to 50.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Each of the following sentences has an error. Find the errors and correct them.
46. Some people often saythat using carsis not as convenient than using motorbikes. as
47. It was not until the endof prehistoric times that the first wheeled vehicles appearing. appeared
48. They asked me what happen last night, but I was unable to tell them.
49. Air pollution, along with littering, are causing many problems in our industrial cities today.
50. Nora hardly never misses an opportunity to play in the tennis tournaments.
Part 4: Questions from 51 to 55.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Fill in each of the sentences with correct prepositions.
51. We are looking for someone who is skilled at giving presentations.
52. The company president didn’t want to comment on the scandal.
53. After graduation, Joan will apply to some local companies for a job as a graphic designer.
54. The plane took off and was soon high over the city.
55. You have to check in an hour before the plane leaves.
SECTION III: READING (6.0 points) G iaoandet hitienganh.i nfo
ĐỀ 13
SECTION I: LISTENING (3.0 points) (You will hear twice for each part)
Part 1. Listen to the recording twice. Choose the correct answer for each of the following blanks.
1. The woman is going to ___________.
A. the bus station B. the airport C. the train station
2. The man receives a text message about ___________.
A. a medical appointment B. a job interview C. vacation plans
3. The woman wants to _______ because he won't stop texting.
A. hit the man B. call her brother C. get out and walk
4. The man and woman are in trouble because _______.
A. they don't have a license B. the other driver looks scary C. their window doesn't work
5. The woman suggests ___________.
A. catching the bus B. calling the police C. talking with the other driver
Part 2. Listen to the recording. Complete the form below. Write no more than two words or numbers
for each of the following blanks.
XL 643 Can also (11) record (12) £ 71.99 (13) labour at reduced
cost
Tri X 24 Will also play (14) CDs £ 94 including (15) Guaranteed for 3 years
insurance
ĐỀ 15
SECTION I: LISTENING (3.0 points) (You will hear twice for each part)
Part 1. Listen to the recording twice. Choose the correct answer for each of the following blanks.
1. What law did the driver break in the school zone?
A. He didn't yield to children crossing the road.
B. He parked illegally near the school.
C. He exceeded the speed limit.
2. What happened at the intersection?
A. The driver didn't use his turn signals.
B. The driver didn't come to a complete stop.
C. The driver failed to yield to other drivers.
3. What does the police officer tell the man about his driver's license?
A. The license is no longer valid.
B. The driver is using someone else's license.
C. The license is only good for 6 more months.
4. What can be implied from the driver's conversation about the officer's name?
A. The driver plans to report the officer to his superiors.
B. The driver tells the officer that they have met before.
C. The driver hints that the officer could let him off.
5. What happens at the end of the conversation?
A. The driver gets a ticket. B. The officer arrests the driver. C. The driver is taken to court.
Part 2. Listen to the recording twice. Complete the form below. Write no more than three words or
numbers for each answer.
66. According to the passage, in what way did the climate changes in the ice ages differ from the modern
ones?
A. They occurred naturally over a long period of time
B. They were partly intended.
C. They were wholly the result of human activity.
D. They were fully monitored by humans.
67. The word “alarmingly” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. disapprovingly B. disappointingly C. surprisingly D. worryingly
68. According to the passage, agriculture could _________.
A. make the global warming more serious
B. be indirectly affected by the global temperature rises
C. give rise to many ecological disasters
D. be directly damaged by the rises in global temperature
69. Greenhouse gases cause the warming up of the Earth because they _________.
A. are emitted by car engines B. trap heat from the sun
C. do not add to atmosphere pollution D. are unusual gases
70. According to the passage, 1997 witnessed _________.
A. the largest number of summits on the subject of climate change
B. the most important summit on climate change taking place in Kyoto, Japan
C. the highest attendance by representatives from 180 industrialized countries
D. widespread concern about climate change
71. It can be inferred from the passage that the countries which are mainly responsible for global warming are
_________.
A. countries with the warmest climate B. developing countries
C. developed countries D. the most industrialized countries
72. The word “There” in paragraph 5 refers to _________.
A. the world’s industrialized countries B. regular summits on climate change
C. the most industrialized countries D. the 1997 summit in Kyoto, Japan
73. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Carbon dioxide is one of the gases that may cause the so-called greenhouse effect.
B. The so-called sinks created by forests can absorb greenhouse gases.
C. The problem of rapid climate change has been caused mainly by deforestation.
D. Politicians are among those who are concerned about climate change.
74. The word “drastic” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. hard B. severe C. widespread D. obvious
75. What is probably the writer’s attitude toward global warning?
A. Optimistic B. Pessimistic C. Neutral D. Positive
Part 3: Questions 76 – 85 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the text and fill in one word which best fits each gap.
In a village on the east coast of Scotland, people were waiting anxiously for news. Two of their
fishing-boats had (76) been caught in the storm which had blown up during the night. In the cottages round the
harbour people stood by their door, (77) too worried to talk. The rest of the fishing fleet had reached the
harbour before dark, and the men from these ships waited and watched with the wives and families of (76) the
missing men. Some had (76) brought thick blankets and some flasks to hot drinks, knowing that the men (76)
would be cold and tried. As dawn began to break over (76) in the east, a small point if light was (76) seen in
the darkness of the water and a (76) few minutes later, (76) there was a shout. Before long, the two boats (76)
were turning in, past the lighthouse, to the inside of the harbour. The men (76) were helped out of their boats,
and although they were stiff from cold and tiredness, they were all safe.
SECTION IV: WRITING (4.0 points)
Part 1: Questions from 86 to 90. (2 point- 0.4/ each)
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it.
86. My mother was the most warm-hearted person I’ve ever known.
I’ve never known a more warm-hearted person than my mother.
87. He lost his money simply because he wasn’t careful.
If he had been (more) careful, he wouldn’t have lost his money.
88. He can speak French well enough to go to the conference.
His French is fluent enough to go to the conference.
89. Martin had difficulty in accepting the loss of his money.
It was hard for Martin to accept the loss of his money.
90. No matter how hard I tried, I could not open the window.
However hard as I (might) try, I could not open the window.
Part 2: Questions from 91 to 92. (2 points - 0.4/ each)
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. Do not change the word given.
91. Carol didn't listen to what her teacher said. attention
Carol didn't pay (any) attention to what her teacher said.
92. The party was rather disappointing. time
We didn't have a good/great time at the party.
93. Despite the late departure of the flight, it arrived on time. although
Although the flight departed late , it arrived on time.
94. The coffee machine in our office hasn't worked for three months. out
The coffee machine in our office has been out of order for three months.
95. The manager failed to persuade Karen to take the job. succeed
The manager didn't succeed in persuading Karen to take the job.
ĐỀ 16
SECTION I: LISTENING (3.0 points) (You will hear twice for each part)
Part 1. Listen to the recording twice. Choose the correct answer for each of the following blanks.
1. Where is the man going on vacation?
A. Italy B. France C. Germany
2. Where did he meet Claudia?
A. at a music store B. at the post office C. on the Internet
3. What advice does Markus give Pete about meeting Claudia's parents?
A. be on time B. take a small gift C. smile and be friendly
4. What is one thing Markus does NOT say about greeting Claudia?
A. shake her hand B. give her a friendly hug C. take her some flowers
5. Markus' final suggestion for Pete is that he should:
A. brush up on his German.
B. buy souvenirs for Claudia's family.
C. visit Berlin during his visit.
Part 2. Listen to the recording twice. Complete the table below. Write no more than three words.
SECTION I: LISTENING (3.0 points) (You will hear twice for each part)
Part 1. Listen to the recording twice. Choose the correct answer for each of the following blanks.
1. What thing caused a mess in the dryer?
A. chewing gum B. a pen C. colored paper
2. What clothing did the woman have in the dryer?
A. shorts B. jeans C. sweaters
3. Who does the man need to call?
A. his friends B. a repair company C. his office
4. Where is the man going to get new clothes for his wife?
A. He's going to take her to a local store.
B. They're going to order some clothing online.
C. His wife is going to borrow clothes from her sister.
5. What happens at the end of the conversation?
A. The couple argue about the situation.
B. The woman is angry and leaves the house.
C. The man apologizes for his mistake.
Part 2. Complete the form below. Write no more than three words or numbers for each answer.
DRURY’S ELECTRICAL STORE
WORK FORM
Example Answer
Customer’s Name: Phillipa Hutton
Address: 13 Glen Avenue Westley
Postcode: (6) WE5 8GF
Home Tel: 01748 524965
Mobile Tel: (7) 07745 276 145
Customer Receipt: Yes/ No
Date of Repair Enquiry: (8) 7th June
Job Number: J25
Problem: New TV doesn’t work
Questions 4 – 5. Circle the correct letter A – D.
(9). Which room did Jane want to use the new television?
A. The dining room B. The kitchen C. The bedroom D. The study
(10). What will Jane do while the man is looking at her new television?
A. She’ll wait in the shop B. She’ll come back tomorrow
C. She’ll go shopping and come back in half an hour
D. She’ll go shopping and come back in an hour
Questions 6-10. Answer the questions below. Write no more than three words or a number for each
answer.
(11). What was the problem with the television? a loose wire
(12). What day is Jane’s nephew’s birthday next week? Thursday
(13). How old will Jane’s nephew be next week? 11
(14). What does Jane think her nephew would like for his birthday? a computer game
(15). What time will Jane go back to the shop tomorrow? 12 o’clock
SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7.0 points)
Part 1: Questions from 16 to 36. (3.0 points - 0.15/ each)
Choose the best answer to each question.
16. I could not turn in my paper on time because my word processor _______.
A. fell down B. turned down C. tore down D. broke down
17. “You must always _______ us the truth” the judge said to the man.
A. tell B. confess C. speak D. say
18. Her father is a _______ drinker. He is always drinking.
A. strong B. heavy C. addictive D. capable
19. Don’t set off fireworks too closely to your house, _______?
A. do you B. don’t you C. will you D. won’t you
20. Trains stop here in order to _______ passengers only.
A. pick up B. get off C. pull up D. pull in
21. In recent years, more and more people _______ for things with credit cards.
A. pay B. are paid C. are paying D. have been paying
22. He was the first person _______ the fire.
A. discover B. to discover C. discovering D. discovered
23. “Who was the man with you yesterday?” - “He was _______.”
A. the next door man B. the man next to the door
C. the man next by the door D. the man next door
24. John: “I didn’t pass my driving test.” -Anna: “_______!”
A. Better luck next time B. So poor
C. Congratulations D. That was nice of them
25. You can _______ your sister to our party tonight.
A. bring B. carry C. take D. get
26. You need more exercise, so you should _______ golf.
A. carry out B. take in C. turn up D. take up
27. I like that photo very much. Could you make an _______ for me?
A. increase B. enlargement C. expansion D. extension
28. His roses won the first ________in the local flower competition.
A. prize B. award C. cup D. reward
29. I got impatient waiting for my turn to _________.
A. go out B. set out C. come out D. work out
come out lộ ra, lộ diện, đến lượt
30. “This is not a good essay”, said the lecturer. “I find your arguments ________.”
A. convincing B. convincingly C. unconvincing D. unconvincingly
unconvincing (a) không thuyết phục
31. We try to help our mother _______ household chores.
A. make B. take C. build D. do
do chores (v) làm việc nhà
32. It’s high time we _______ something about the pollution.
A. did B. had done C. made D. had made
do something (v) làm một việc gì đó chung chung
33. I _______ my hand to draw her attention but she took no _______ of me.
A. waved/ notice B. shook/ noticed C. waved/ attention D. shook/ attention
take notice of (v) để ý đến
34. There are many ways________to Rome
A. is leading B. are leading C. leading D. led
Mọi con đường đều dẫn đến thành Rôm.
35. What chemical is this ? It is ________a horrible smell.
A. giving down B. giving off C. giving up D. giving out
give off (v) tỏa ra (mùi thơm, mùi hôi)
Part 2: Questions from 36 to 45. (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the following sentences.
Part 2: Questions from 36 to 45. (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the following sentences.
36. Selfishness is her biggest flaw, and it has made her lose lots of friends. SELF
37. There's no evidence that he's the actual murderer. EVIDENT
38. His yawning in class was a clear sign of his tiredness; he never slept more than 5 TIRED
hours.
39. My mum asked me to give her an explanation for my poor behaviour. EXPLAIN
40. His parents' carelessness made him feel really unloved. CARE
41. There's another interpretation of the story. INTERPRET
42. You would frighten too many people off with that speech. FRIGHT
43. There is already enough pressure without that, you know. PRESS
44. I feel hesitant about including the last sentence. HESITATE
45. Now surely our discredited government must go. CREDIT
Part 3: Questions from 46 to 50.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Each of the following sentences has an error. Find the errors and correct them.
46. Ginger is three times so hot as cumin, but not as hot as chili powder. as
47. Some of the people were standing in the street watched the parade, while others were singing songs.
watching
48. It is the writing English that causes difficulties to foreigners.
49. I would have to walk for miles to take that package were you not to bring them here now.
50. She is too beautiful that I cannot stop looking at her.
Part 4: Questions from 51 to 55.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Fill in each of the sentences with correct prepositions.
51. We all dream of a salary that is commensurate with our skills and experience.
52. She was conscious of the fact that everone was staring at her.
53. A diet deficient in witamin D may cause the disease rickets.
54. A good teacher is always attentive to their student's needs.
55. A suspect has been detained by the police for questioning.
SECTION III: READING (6.0 points)
Part 1. Questions 56 – 65 (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question.
Ever since humans have inhabited the earth, they have made (56) _________ of various forms of
communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral (57)
_________. When there is a language (58) _________, communication is accomplished through sign language
in which motions (59) _________ for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to
(60) _________ to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque and
exact and can be used internationally; spelling, however, cannot. Body language (61) _________ ideas or
thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or
indicating that the party is only joking. A nod (62) _________ approval, while shaking the head (63)
_________ a negative reaction. Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be (64) _________ in Braille (a
system of raised dots read with the fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and
picture signs also guide, warn, and instruct people. (65) _________ verbalization is the most common form of
language, other systems and techniques also express human thoughts and feelings.
56. A. usage B. use C. utility D. employment
57. A. speech B. claims C. utterance D. address
58. A. separation B. obstacles C. divisions D. barrier
59. A. imply B. signify C. stand D. point
60. A. resort B. rotate C. revolve D. refer
61. A. progresses B. transmits C. remits D. emits
62. A. presents B. signs C. registers D. signifies
63. A. predicates B. indicates C. abdicates D. implicates
64. A. found B. trailed C. explored D. traced
65. A. Until B. Because C. While D. As
Part 2. Questions 66 – 75 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question
In the world today, particular in the two most industrialized areas, North America and Europe, recycling is
the big news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new ways to be sensitive to the
environment. Recycling means finding ways to use products a second time. The motto of the recycling
movement is “Reduce, Reuse, Recycle”.
The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister packs, boxes and
expensive plastic wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in lots of packaging: usually
paper, a box and a bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People should try to buy things that are
wrapped simply, and to reuse cups and utensils. Another way to reduce waste is to buy high-quality products.
When low-quality appliances break, many customers throw them away and buy new ones - a loss of more
resources and more energy. For example, if a customer buys a high-quality appliance that can be easily
repaired, the manufacturer receives an important message. In the same way, if a customer chooses a product
with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to the manufacturers. To reduce garbage, the
throw-away must stop.
The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles. After customers
empty the bottles, they return them to the stores. The manufacturers of the drinks collect bottles, wash them,
and then fill them again. The energy that is necessary to make new bottles is saved. In some parts of the world,
returning bottles for money is a common practice. In those places, the garbage dumps have relatively little
glass and plastic from throw-away bottles.
The third step being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be cleaned and used
again. Aluminum cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of energy to make one aluminum can
as it does to run a color TV set for three hours. When people collect and recycle aluminum (for new cans), they
help save one of the world’s
precious resources.
66. It is a waste when customers buy low-quality products because _______.
A. they will soon throw them away B. they have to be repaired many times
C. customers always change their idea D. they are very cheap
67. The word “motto” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. meaning B. belief C. value D. reference
68. People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT _______.
A. buy high-quality products B. buy simply-wrapped things
C. buy more hamburgers D. reuse cups
69. What is the topic of the passage?
A. How to reduce garbage disposal.
B. How to live sensitively to the environment.
C. What is involved in the recycling movement.
D. What people understand the term “recycle”.
70. Which area is considered one of the most industrialized?
A. South America B. Europe C. Middle East D. Asia
71. The word “practice” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. training B. exercise C. belief D. deed
72. What does the word “sensitive” means?
A. friendly B. cautious C. logical D. responding
73. What best describe the process of reuse?
A. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.
B. The bottles are washed, returned filled again and collected.
C. The bottles are collected, returned, filled again and washed.
D. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.
74. What are the two things mentioned as examples of recycling?
A. Aluminum cans and spent motor oil. B. Hamburger wrappings and spent motor oil.
C. Aluminum cans and plastic wrappings. D. TV sets and aluminum cans.
75. Garbage dumps in some areas have relatively little glass and plastic because _______.
A. people are ordered to return bottles B. returned bottles are few
C. few bottles are made of glass or plastic D. each returned bottle is paid
Part 3: Questions 76 – 85 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the text and fill in one word which best fits each gap.
LOOKING FOR A JOB
I finished university six month (76) ago, I’ve got a degree in business administration. I enjoyed the
course very much although I realize I should have studied a lot harder! A few of my friends have (77) already
got full-time jobs but most of us are still waiting (78) for something suitable to turn up. Meanwhile, I make
sure that I keep myself busy. I look through the job advertisements (79) in the newspapers every day and I
also ask all the people I know to tell me if they hear of any vacancies (80) where they work . What I am
looking for is something challenging and I would certainly be happy to move to another city or even work
abroad for a while. The (81) salary is not so important at this stage, provided I earn enough to live on, (82)
because / as / since I don’t want to continue having to depend on my parents , although they are (83) very
generous to me. At the moment, I’m working in a nearby restaurant two evenings (84) a / per week, washing
up and generally helping out, which brings a little money. The other people working there are very friendly,
and many of them are in the same (85) situation as me, so we have lots of to talk about.
SECTION IV: WRITING (4.0 points)
Part 1: Questions from 86 to 90.(2 point- 0.4/ each)
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it.
86. I was so tired that I don’t feel like eating.
So tired was I that I don’t feel like eating.
87. I will not come if his friend does not invite me.
Unless his friend invites me, I will not come.
88. You have to pay a lot for this motorbike.
This motorbike is very expensive/costly.
89. You remembered to post the letter, didn’t you?
You didn’t forget to post the letter, did you?
90. Laurence hasn’t seen his sister since she left for Japan.
Laurence last saw his sister when she left for Japan.
Part 2: Questions from 91 to 92.(2 points - 0.4/ each)
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. Do not change the word given.
91. Peter was the first person I asked for advice. whose
Peter was the person whose advice I asked for.
92. If you are not satisfied with the hotel service, you should say so. make
You should make complaint about the hotel service if you are not satisfied with it.
93. As long as I know you'll support me, I won't worry about money. count
Provided I can count on you to support me, I won't worry about money.
94. Driving a car without insurance is illegal. law
It is against the law to drive a car without insurance.
95. They've postponed the meeting until January. off
The meeting has been put off until January.
……………………THE END ……………………...
ĐỀ 18
SECTION I: LISTENING (3.0 points) (You will hear twice for each part)
Part 1. Listen to the recording twice. Choose the correct answer for each of the following blanks.
1. What is the main topic of this conversation?
A. computer sales negotiations B. a preliminary interview C. an Internet seminar meeting
2. From the discussion, what did Mr. Taylor probably do for his previous company?
A. He managed the sales department.
B. He gave seminars on the Internet.
C. He worked as a custodian.
3. Mr. Taylor thinks that Java is:
A. a Web page authoring program.B. a kind of beverage. C. a computer game software.
4. What does the man mean when he says, "We'll be in touch" at the end of the conversation?
A. He will call Mr. Taylor in the next few days.
B. He talk over their discussion with others.
C. He will not contact him for further consideration.
5. Choose the best word(s) to describe Mr. Taylor:
A. on the ball B. high achiever C. uninformed
Part 2. Listen to the recording twice. Complete the form below. Write no more than three words or
numbers for each answer.
BUS PASS APPLICATION FORM
Example: Answer
Pass applied for: 1 month
Name: Nathalie (6) Jameson
Address: 45 (7) Forest Avenue Newlands, Adelaide
Postcode: (8) 8490
Date of birth: 13th May 1982
Tel number: (9) 6249 7152
University card shown: Yes
Zones required: (10) 1 – 5
Adelaide Day Trips on the Bus
– The MacDonald Nature Park
Outward Journey Leaves 8.00am
Length of Journey 2 hours
Return Journey Leaves (11) 4.30pm
Things to do/see Walk nature trails + MacDonald River
Bring A camera
Pearl Bay
Outward Journey Leaves 9.00am
Length of Journey (12) 1 hour
Return Journey Leaves 4.00pm
Things to do/see Walk along (13) The cliffs + see view
Lie on the beach + swim
Bring Swimming gear + a towel
The Huron Gold Mine
Outward Journey Leaves 9.30am
Length of Journey Half an hour
Return Journey Leaves (14) 1.30pm
Things to do/see Go round the museum and tunnels
Find some gold!!
Bring (15) A sweater
SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7.0 points)
Part 1: Questions from 16 to 36. (3.0 points - 0.15/ each)
Choose the best answer to each question.
16. You have never been to Nha Trang ________?
A. have you B. haven’t C. you have D. you haven’t
17. When ________ a dictionary, you need to be able to understand the symbols and the abbreviations it
contains.
A. having used B. use C. to use D. using
18.How can I know ________ book is yours?- They are so alike.
A. what B. which C. this D. the
19. You’d better take his proposal _______ before _______ your final decision.
A. by surprise/ making B. by surprise/ doing C. into account/ making D. into account/ doing
take sth into account / consideration lưu tâm đến điều gì
20. She will visit us as soon as she arrives ________ Paris.
A. at B. in C. on D. to
21. The secretary to ________ I talked didn’t know where the meeting was.
A. which B. who C. that D. whom
22. I find the time of English meals very strange. I’m not used ________ dinner at 5 pm.
A. to have B. to having C. having D. have
23. If I ________ you, I’d take some rest before the game tomorrow.
A. am B. could be C. were D. would be
24. I have to be present at eight o’ clock and so ________.
A. are you B. have you C. do you D. you do
25. The smaller the room is, the ________ furniture it needs.
A. fewer B. small C. more D. less
26. ________ paul brings the money for lunch, we’ll go right down to the cafeteria.
A. Since B. As soon as C. Now that D. Until
27. It is recommended that he _______ this course
A. took B. takes C. take D. taking
28. Various societies define _______ in many rather complex ways.
A. that is successful B. what success is C. that success is D. what is success
29. Fort Niagara was built by the French in 1762 on land ______ the Seneca Indians.
A. they buy from B. bought from C. buying from D. was bought from
Past participle (phân từ 2) có thể dùng như một hình thức rút gọn của mệnh đề quan hệ nghĩa bị động. Dịch:
… trên phần đất được mua bởi những người Ấn Seneca -> việc mua là bị động
30. Our village had _______ money available for education that the schools had to close.
A. so little B. such little C. so much D. such much
So + adj + (a/an) + N(s) + that … = quá … đến mức. =
Làng của chúng ta có sẵn quá ít tiền cho giáo dục đến mức các trường học phải đóng cửa
31. The stolen jewels were ________ a lot of money.
A. valued B. cost C. priced D. worth
32. I don’t see any________ in arriving early at the theatre.
A. cause B. point C. reason D. aim
33. The children loved ________ the old castle.
A. discovering B. exploring C. hunting D. detecting
34. These figures show a ________ in the number of unemployed people in England and Wales.
A. loss B. lessening C. reduction D. lowering
35. After he had broken his leg, Henry could only go up and down stairs ________.
A. hardly B. in difficulties C. with difficulty D. hard
Part 2: Questions from 36 to 45. (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the following sentences.
36. It's dishonest of you to say that. You know it isn't true! HONEST
37. We must test the purity of the water. PURE
38. Three firms are in competition for the same contract. COMPETE
39. She is extremely knowledgeable about the history of art. KNOW
40. I got some very surprising news this morning. SURPRISE
41. I’m applying for membership of this club. MEMBER
42. What I hate most about Tom is his unreliability. RELIABLE
43. The boy was not courageous to admit his mistake. COURAGE
44. This is Alexandra, my personal assistant. ASSIST
45. The police asked me to give a description of the suitcase I had lost. DESCRIBE
Part 3: Questions from 46 to 50.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Each of the following sentences has an error. Find the errors and correct them.
46. Rocks can be broken apart by water that seeps into the cracks and freeze in low temperatures. frozen
47. The teacher told the students don't to discuss the take-home exam with each other. not
48. Knowledges about cultures provides insights into the learned behaviors of groups. Knowledge
49. Aluminum has a hard imperious coasting which protects the metal from corrode. corroding
50. After learned to print, elementary school children learn cursive writing. learning
Part 4: Questions from 51 to 55.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Fill in each of the sentences with correct prepositions.
46. In the end, he succeeded in solving the problem.
47. He apologized to her teacher for her coming late.
48. Did he break the window by accident or on purpose?
49. After payment, you'll receive the product within 10 business days.
50. He's Italian? For some reason I was under the impression that he was Spanish.
SECTION III: READING (6.0 points)
Part 1. Questions 56 – 65 (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question.
NEW HUNT FOR LIFE IN SPACE
British space scientists are planning to join the American in the race to find evidence of life on (56)
_______ planets. Alan Penny and his team at the Rutherford Appleton Laboratory have designed a telescope that
is 40 times more powerful than Hubble. Known as ‘Darwin’, his telescope could tell if planets 50 (57) _______
years away have any kind of life on them. Two days (58) _______, NASA scientists had shown a proof that one of
Jupiter’s moons could support life, Penny announced that his telescope may be included in a European Space
Agency mission. The Darwin project, with a (59) _______ of 500 million, is on a short list of two proposals. If
approved it will probably be (60) _______ around 2015, its destination somewhere between Mars and Jupiter. The
blueprint is actually for five telescopes positioned 50 meters apart in space, slowly circling a (61) _______
processing station. The combined data from these telescopes would build up a full picture of a planet, picking out
faint images that have never been seen before. Darwin would not be able to take detailed photographs of the
planets it (62) _______, but Penny believes a second- generation telescope could be sent up to do this. He claims it
is worthwhile mapping the universe around our (63) _______ galaxy, even though these planets lie (64) _______
our reach for the moment. The European Space Agency will make its decision (65) ______ Darwin within three years.
56. A. another B. other C. others D. the other
57. A. light B. lighten C. lightening D. lighting
58. A. following B. after C. next D. later
59. A. price B. schedule C. charge D. budget
60. A. driven B. fetched C. launched D. taken
61. A. central B. centre C. middle D. heart
62. A. invents B. searches C. discovers D. looks
63. A. alone B. same C. one D. own
64. A. out B. toward C. beyond D. over
65. A. of B. on C. about D. with
Part 2. Questions 66 – 75 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question
If parents bring up a child with the sole aim of turning the child into a genius, they will cause a disaster.
According to several leading educational psychologists, this is one of the biggest mistakes which ambitious
parents make. Generally, the child will be only too aware of what his parents expect, and will fail. Unrealistic
parental expectations can cause great damage to children.
However, if parents are not too unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but are ambitious
in a sensible way, the child may succeed in doing very well – especially if the parents are very supportive of
their child.
Michael Collins is very lucky. He is crazy about music, and his parents help him a lot by taking him to
concerts and arranging private piano and violin lessons for him. They even drive him 50 kilometers twice a
week for violin lessons. Michael’s mother knows very little about music, but his father plays the trumpet in a
large orchestra. However, he never makes Michael enter music competitions if he is unwilling.
Winston Smith, Michael’s friend, however, is not so lucky. Both his parents are successful musicians, and
they set too high a standard for Winston. They want their son to be as successful as they are and so they enter
him for every piano competition held. They are very unhappy when he doesn’t win. Winston is always afraid
that he will disappoint his parents and now he always seems quiet and unhappy.
66. One of the serious mistakes parents can make is to _________.
A. push their child into trying too much B. help their child to become a genius
C. make their child become a musician D. neglect their child’s education
67. Parents’ ambition for their children is not wrong if they __________.
A. force their children into achieving success B. understand and help their children sensibly
C. themselves have been very successful D. arrange private lessons for their children
68. Who have criticized the methods of some ambitious parents?
A. Successful musicians B. Unrealistic parents
C. Their children D. Educational psychologists.
69. Michael Collins is fortunate in that _____________.
A. his father is a musician B. his parents are quite rich
C. his mother knows little about music D. his parents help him in a sensible way
70. The phrase “crazy about” in the passage most likely means “ _______”.
A. “surprised at” B. “extremely interested in”
C. “completely unaware of” D. “confused about”
71. Winston’s parents push their son so much and he _________.
A. has won a lot of piano competition B. can’t learn much music from them
C. has become a good musician D. is afraid to disappoint them
72. The word “They” in the passage refers to __________.
A. concerts B. violin lessons
C. parents in general D. Michael’s parents
73. The word “unwilling” in the passage mostly means _________.
A. “getting ready to do something” B. “eager to do something”
C. “not objecting to doing anything” D. “not wanting to do something”
74. All of the following people are musical EXCEPT ________.
A. Winston’s father B. Winston’s mother C. Michael’s father D. Michael’s mother
75. The two examples given in the passage illustrate the principle that __________.
A. successful parents always have intelligent children
B. successful parents often have unsuccessful children
C. parents should let the child develop in the way he wants
D. parents should spend more money on the child’s education
Part 3: Questions 76 – 85 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the text and fill in one word which best fits each gap.
These days it is impossible to open a newspaper (76) without reading about the damage we are doing
to the environment. The earth is being threatened (77) and the future looks bad (78) what can each of us do?
We can not clean (79) up our polluted rivers and seas over night. Nor we can stop the (80) disappearance of
plants and animals. But we can stop adding to the problem (81) while scientists look for answer. It may not
be easy to change your lifestyle (82) completely but some steps are easy to take: cut down the amout of
driving you do, or use as little plastic as possible. It is also easy to save (83) energy, which also (84)
reduces household bills. We all make a personal decision to work for the future of our planet if we want to
ensure a better world (85) for our grandchildren.
SECTION IV: WRITING (4.0 points)
Part 1: Questions from 86 to 90.(2 point- 0.4/ each)
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it.
86. I wish I had a younger sister.
If only I had a younger sister
87. Although it looks fierce, the dog has never bitten anyone.
Fierce as/though it looks, the dog has never bitten anyone.
88. It is impossible to finish the job today.
The job can’t be finished today.
89. "You should have waited for us," the team leader said to John.
The team leader criticized John for not waiting/having waited for them.
90. They kept his passport so that he couldn't leave the country.
They prevented him from leaving the country by keeping his passport.
Part 2: Questions from 91 to 92.(2 points - 0.4/ each)
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. Do not change the word given.
91. Nick said we should reduce the amount of salt in our food. cut
We cut down on the amount of salt in our food, according to Nick.
92. Brain was really interested in American history in his school days. interest
Brain had a interest in American history in his school days.
93. Do you mind if I come over to see you later? objection
Do you have any objection to me coming over to see you later?
94. The police now think he invented the story to protect his girlfriend. made
He is now thought to have made up the story to protect his girlfriend.
95. It's possible that the thieves entered the building. broken
The thieves may have broken into the building.
……………………THE END ……………………...
ĐỀ 19
SECTION I: LISTENING (3.0 points) (You will hear twice for each part)
Part 1. Listen to the recording twice. Choose the correct answer for each of the following blanks.
1. About how long was the man in the shower?
A. 20 minutes B. 25 minutes C. 30 minutes
2. About how many gallons of water did the man waste during his shower?
A. 60 B. 50 C. 40
3. How much was their water bill last month?
A. $103 B. $113 C. $130
4. The man doesn't have a lot of money because _______.
A. he has an expensive car loan B. he is paying for school C. he's not working now
5. The woman suggests that her brother _______________ to help them save money.
A. only shower on weekends B. take a shower at the gym C. shower at their parents' house
Part 2. Listen to the recording twice. Complete the form below. Write no more than three words or
numbers for each answer.
SHORT STORY COMPETITION
Entry Details
Example
Cost of entry: …………..£5……………………
Length of story: approximately (1) 3000 / three thousand
Story must include: a (2) surprise / surprising ending
Minimum age: (3) 16 / sixteen
Last entry date: 1st (4) August
Web address: www.(5) COMP4SS / comp4ss.com
Don’t: (6) post the story to the organizers.
Judging and Prize Details
The competition is judged by (7) famous authors
The top five stories will be available (8) online
The top story will be chosen by the (9) public
The first prize is a place at a writers’ workshop in (10) Spain
SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7.0 points)
Part 1: Questions from 16 to 36. (3.0 points - 0.15/ each)
Choose the best answer to each question.
16. You will have to ________ your holiday if you are too ill to travel.
A. put off B. cut down C. put out D. put up
17. ________, after trying three times, he passed the examination.
A. Lastly B. Last of all C. Last D. At last
18. This is the oldest building ________ the village.
A. of B. by C. in D. to
19. ________ scientists have observed increased pollution in the water supply.
A. late B. later C. Latter D. Lately
20. four o’clock Mr Hutchinson still had some ________ to do in the garden.
A. work B. job C. effort D. task
21. Very few scientists ________ with completely new answers to the world’s problems.
A. come to B. come around C. come up D. come in
22. If you want to telephone him you will have to ________ the number in the book.
A. look at B. look to C. look through D. look up
23. She began to feel nervous when the train pulled up at the ________ between Austria and Yugoslavia.
A. limit B. edge C. bar D. border
24. Students are expected to ________ their classes regularly.
A. assist B. frequent C. attend D. follow
25. He was pleased to have the ________ to hear such a fine musician play hit favorite piece of music.
A. occasion B. possibility C. fate D. opportunity
26. We had a marvelous holiday: only the last two days were slightly ________ by the weather.
A. damaged B. hurt C. ruined D. spoiled
27. Ann is so ________ to succeed that I am sure nothing will stop her.
A. determined B. willing C. strong D. patient
28. On Sundays the business center of the city was usually quite ________.
A. left B. deserted C. unpopular D. unattended
29. Before you sign anything important, pay careful _____ to all the conditions.
A. notice B. attention C. regards D. reference
30. When I came through the customs at the airport I had to pay ________ on a clock I had bought.
A. taxes B. duty C. fines D. rates
31. It was after dark when the two children were both ________ on the safety-crossing by a lorry.
A. knocked down B. knocked out C. run across D. run out
32. Will you _______ my essay, please, to find out whether I made any mistakes?
A. see through B. look through C. look up D. look into
33. At the moment my car is at the garage being made ready for a ________ across Europe.
A. journey B. route C. travel D. progress
34. He asked an artist to ________ some drawings to illustrate what he had written.
A. show B. make C. paint D. describe
35. The rising _____ of living is as hard on country families as on city families.
A. amount B. cost C. expense D. increase
Part 2: Questions from 36 to 45. (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the following sentences.
36. My library card is up for renewal next year. It expires in December. NEW
37. Oh, hello Mr. Mader! It's a pleasure to have you here. PLEBASE
38. Her scruffy appearance didnd't reflect her personality. APPEAR
39. The rehearsal helped to improve the students' performance in the school play. REHEARSE
40. The efficiency of the education system in Finland is famous all around Europe. EFFICIENT
41. The experts predicted prosperity for the company in 2015. PROSPER
42. The coach's lack of leadership affected the relationship between the players of the team. LEADER
43. The government is noted for its uncompromising drugs policy. COMPROMISE
44. Critics say he has been weak and indecisive. DECIDE
45. The economies of Western Europe and Japan experienced unprecedented growth. PRECEDE
Part 3: Questions from 46 to 50.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Each of the following sentences has an error. Find the errors and correct them.
46. The duties of a policeman are more dangerous than that of a teacher. those
47. Emmy was determined to succeed and final achieved what she wanted. finally
48. I would rather she is staying at home at the moment. were
49. All of the mammals, dolphins are undoubtedly among the friendly to human. Of all
50. Mrs. Stevens, along with her cousins from New Mexico, are planning to attend the festivities. is
Part 4: Questions from 51 to 55.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Fill in each of the sentences with correct prepositions.
51. Mary found it hard to concentrate on/ upon her work because of the noise.
52. It is better to try to work with rather than against the boss.
53. Detectives are hunting for thieves who broke into a warehouse yesterday.
54. These paintings have been in possession of my family for generations.
55. Why is the media so preocupied with the love lives of politicians?
SECTION III: READING (6.0 points)
Part 1. Questions 56 – 65 (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question.
PENICILIN BEFORE PENTIUMS FOR THE POOR
One of the hottest topics on the international development agenda is how to harness the power of
International Monetary Fund for the benefit of developing countries. What is sometimes called ‘the death of
distance’, brought about by the (56) ________, allows professional services such as (57) ________ education
and training to be provided easily and quickly to (58) ________ areas. Some of the gains can be seen in
countries as diverse as India and Morocco, where innovations range from (59) ________ government
announcements to local craftsmen selling their wares to a (60) ________ market. But already a huge and
expanding (61) ________ divide is opening up between developed and developing nations. The major task
facing world leaders at present is to (62) ________ everybody on the planet with clean water, basic education
and the drugs needed to fight preventable diseases. Installing a (63) ________ in every classroom and linking
us all to (64) ________ must be a lesser (65) ________, for the time being at least.
56. A. computer B. telephone C. modem D. internet
57. A. stationery B. software C. hardware D. equipment
58. A. far B. uninhabited C. remote D. secluded
59. A. programmed B. broadcast C. recorded D. online
60. A. global B. technical C. village D. shrinking
61. A. physical B. digital C. electrical D. economical
62. A. supply B. give C. donate D. administer
63. A. plug B. video C. mobile phone D. modem
64. A. the real world B. cyberspace C. virtual reality D. outer space
65. A. priority B. advantage C. importance D. criteria
Part 2. Questions 66 – 75 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question
Wood has long been a popular building material in North America because it has generally been plentiful
and cheap. Swedish settlers in Delaware built log cabins as early as 1630s. In New England, British colonists
built wooden ‘saltbox houses’. Most of the wooden homes of Colonial times could be built with simple tools
and minimal skills.
In the early 19th century, the standard wooden house was built with beams set into heavy posts and held
together with wooden pegs. This method of construction was time – consuming and required highly skilled
workers with special tools. The balloon – frame house, invented in 1833 in Chicago by a carpenter from
Hartford. Connecticut, used a frame of lightweight lumber, mostly 24 and 26 inches. This type of house
could be assembled by any careful worker who could saw in a straight line and drive a nail.
This revolution in building was made possible by improved sawmills that could quickly cut boards to
standard sizes and the lower cost of lumber that resulted. There were also new machines that could produce
huge quantities of inexpensive nails. Skeptics predicted that a strong wind could send such houses flying
through the air like balloons and, at first ‘balloon frame’ was a term of derision. But the light frames proved
practical, and wooden houses have been basically built this way ever since.
66. What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To trace the influence of Swedish and British settlers on American styles of buildings.
B. To stress the importance of wood as a building material.
C. To compare methods of constructing wooden houses in various parts of the country.
D. To describe a revolutionary technique for constructing wooden houses.
67. According to the passage, where did the inventor of the balloon - frame house originally come from?
A. Connecticut B. Chicago C. Sweden D. Delaware
68. Which of the following questions about the balloon-frame house is NOT answered in the passage?
A. Where was it invented?
B. What was its inventor’s name?
C. What size was most of the lumber used in its framework?
D. In what year was it invented?
69. The author implies that which of the following types of houses required the most skill to produce?
A. The log cabin built by Swedish settlers.
B. Saltbox houses.
C. Standard wooden houses of the early 19th century.
D. Balloon – frame houses.
70. All of the following are factors in the development of the balloon - frame house EXCEPT ______.
A. the invention of sophisticated tools B. the production of cheap nails
C. improvements in sawmills D. the falling price of lumber
71. According to the passage, why was the term balloon -frame applied to certain houses?
A. They could be moved from place to place.
B. They could be easily expanded.
C. They had rounded frames that slightly resembled balloons.
D. They were made of lightweight materials.
72. The word derision is closest in meaning to _______.
A. affection B. ignorance C. ridicule D. regret
73. Skeptics thought that the balloon – frame house would be _________.
A. expanded B. blown away C. demolished D. raised
74. The standard method of construction in the early 19th century was described as _________.
A. revolutionary B. basic C. innovative D. time – consuming
75. Most of the wooden houses of Colonial times were _________.
A. difficult to build B. easy to build C. demanding D. challenging
Part 3: Questions 76 – 85 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the text and fill in one word which best fits each gap.
Most people know that cigarette smoking is (76) harmful to their health.Scientific research shows that
it can (77) cause many kinds of diseases. In fact, many people (78) who/that smoke get lung cancer. Doctors
believe that it may also cause lung cancer in people who (79) do not smoke. Nonsmokers often breathe in the
smoke from (80) other people’s cigarette. This is secondhand smoking. People are becoming very (81) aware
of the danger of secondhand smoke, As a result, they (82) have passed laws that prohibit people from smoking
in many public places. Besides, many government tend to (83) take put taxes on cigarette so as to discourage
people from smoking. With all the concerted effort (84) made of the authority and non-smokers, we can look
forward to the world (85) without smoking.
SECTION IV: WRITING (4.0 points)
Part 1: Questions from 86 to 90.(2 point- 0.4/ each)
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it.
86. If I were Peter, I’d look for another job.
=> I would look for another job if I were Peter.
=> I suggest that Peter should look for another job.
87. The teacher started to write the lesson plan right after he returned home
=> Hardly had he returned home when the teacher started to write the lesson plan.
88. We couldn’t get nearer because of the police
=> The police prevented us from getting nearer.
=> the police wouldn't let us get nearer.
89. They say that Nam is the brightest student in our school
=> No one in our school is said to be as bright as Nam.
=> No other student in our school are as bright as Nam.
90. I only recognizes him when he came into the room
=> It was only when he came into the room that I recognized him.
Part 2: Questions from 91 to 92.(2 points - 0.4/ each)
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. Do not change the word given.
91. People generally think of tennis as a safe sport. considered
Tennis is generally considered to be a safe sport.
92. It is advisable not to climb mountains after a heavy snowfall. avoid
You should avoid climbing mountains after a heavy snowfall.
93. Sarah cried her eyes out immediately she was told she failed the exam. tears
Sarah broke down in tears as she had failed the exam.
94. Delia will no longer tolerate her colleagues being rude. put
Delia will not put up with rudeness from her colleagues any longer.
95. I find driving on the left in England very strange. used
I am not used to driving on the left in England.
ĐỀ 20
SECTION I: LISTENING (3.0 points) (You will hear twice for each part)
Part 1. Listen to the recording twice. Choose the correct answer for each of the following blanks.
1. According to the man, his team lost the first match due to __________.
A. bad weather conditions B. injuries C. poor officiating
2. What reason was NOT mentioned about why his team lost their second game?
A. The referees made some terrible calls against some players.
B. They were disqualified for unsportsmanlike conduct.
C. One of their players shot the ball into the wrong goal.
3. The man's team was winning the final match until ___________.
A. the other team made an amazing comeback
B. some of their players were ejected from the game
C. their fans booed the team and left the stadium
4. Which team does the man want to win the World Cup now?
A. He doesn't care who wins at this point.
B. He wants the host nation to win.
C. He hopes the matches are cancelled.
5. Now that his team is out of the tournament, how is he spending his time?
A. He's been following a golf tournament on TV.
B. He's become interested in an online chess tournament.
C. He's been playing in a local tennis tournament.
Part 2. Listen to the recording twice. Complete the form below. Write no more than three words or
numbers for each answer.
PRESTON PARK RUN
Details of run
Example
Day of Park Run: …….Saturday……
Start of run: in front of the (1) café
Time of start: (2) 9 / nine am
Length of run: (3) 5 kilometers
At end of run: volunteer scans (4) bar code
Best way to register: on the (5) website
Cost of run: (6) £ 1.50
Volunteering
Contact name: Pete (7) MAUGHAN
Phone number: (8) 01444732900
Activities: setting up course
(9) guiding / guide the runners
(10) take photographs for the weekly report
SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7.0 points)
Part 1: Questions from 16 to 36. (3.0 points - 0.15/ each)
Choose the best answer to each question.
16. The information-office at the station ________ that all trains were running about one hour behind time.
A. advertised B. decided C. explained D. promised
17. The house was sold for £60000, which was far more than its real _____.
A. cost B. value C. price D. expense
18. Although I spoke to him many times, he never took any _______.
A. notice B. remark C. warning D. observation
19. When he was a student, his father gave him a monthly ________ towards his expenses.
A. salary B. permission C. allowance D. wage
monthly allowance tiền trợ cấp hàng tháng
20. He was a much older tennis player but he had the great ________ of experience.
A. advantage B. deal C. help D. value
have the great advantage of = có lợi thế về
21. To get my travelers’ cheques I had to ________ a special cheque to the Bank for the total amount.
A. make for B. make off C. make out D. make over
22. Well-mannered children have usually been properly ________ by their parents.
A. raised up B. borne up C. brought up D. put up
23. He said he had every ________ in his secretary; she would do the right thing.
A. confidence B. dependence C. thought D. knowledge
have confidence in somebody: tin ở ai
24. I am sorry that I can’t ________ your invitation.
A. take B. except C. agree D. accept
25. I forgot to ________ him to buy some bread.
A. remember B. repeat C. remind D. let
26. ________ what he says, he wasn’t even there when the crime was committed.
A. Following B. Listening to C. According to D. Fearing
27. There is ________ that I may have to go into hospital next week.
A. an opportunity B. bad luck C. a possibility D. fate
28. This young tree could not have been damaged by accident. I believe it was done ________.
A. in fact B. on purpose C. by appointment D. by understanding
29. How much would you ________ for repairing my watch?
A. charge B. cost C. pay D. demand
30. After the battle, the ________ soldiers were helped by those who could walk.
A. damaged B. wounded C. broken D. blessed
31. He hoped the appointment would enable him to gain greater ________ in publishing.
A. experience B. work C. jobs D. employment
32. ________ up children properly is mainly their parents’ duty.
A. growing B. rearing C. breeding D. bringing
33. Science has made great ________ during the past 30 years.
A. increases B. motions C. advances D. advantages
34. Her shoes ________ her gloves; they look very well together.
A. suit B. match C. fit D. compare
35. If you have a ________ to make about the food, I am willing to listen.
A. dislike B. trouble C. complaint D. discontent
Part 2: Questions from 36 to 45. (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the following sentences.
36. I have just bought a replacement for one of my favorites which mysteriously disappeared. MYSTERY
37. Gift exchange is significant expression of social relations. SIGNIFY
38. I try not to remember this frightening experience that only leaves me with unhappy thoughts. FRIGHTE
N
39. The boy repeatedly asked for permission to go out with his friends. REPEAT
40. British Rail apologized for the cancellation of the 4.20 to Bath. CANCEL
41. He feels sad about his unsatisfactory result in the examination. SATISFY
42. The products of this factory are widely consumed in this country. PRODUCE
43. You must keep on working with him no matter how much you disagree. AGREE
44. Film festivals are typically divided into categories like drama, documentary or animation. TYPICAL
45. He enjoyed socializing with friends and it cost nothing. SOCIAL
Part 3: Questions from 46 to 50.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Each of the following sentences has an error. Find the errors and correct them.
46. The 6-year-old boy resembles to his mother some what more than does his older brother. bo to
47. Chemical engineering is based on the principles of physics, chemists, and mathematics. chemistry
48. Ancient people made a clay pottery because they needed it for their survival. bo a
49. A paragraph is a portion of a text consists of one or more sentences related to the same idea. consisting
50. Carl Anderson discovered two atomic particles that he identified while studied cosmic rays. studying
Part 4: Questions from 51 to 55.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Fill in each of the sentences with correct prepositions.
51. Parents are naturally anxious for their children’s safety.
52. In a consumer taste test, Coca-Cola went up against Pepsi.
53. Using your cell phone while driving is against the law.
54. The scientist made an amazing discovery by accident.
55. She ought to be thoroughly ashamed of herself - talking to her mother like that!
SECTION III: READING (6.0 points)
Part 1. Questions 56 – 65 (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question.
Interpreting the feelings of other people is not always easy, as we all know, and we (56) ________ as
much on what they seem to be telling us, as on the actual words they say. Facial (57) ________ and tone of
voice are obvious ways of showing our (58) ________ to something, and it may well be that we unconsciously
express views that we are trying to hide. The art of being (59) ________ lies in picking up these signals,
realizing what the other person is trying to say, and acting so that they are not embarrassed in any way. For
example, we may understand that they are in fact (60) ________ to answer our question, and so we stop
pressing them. Body movements in general may also indicate feelings, and interviewers often pay particular
attention to the way a candidate for a job walks into the room and sits down. However it is not difficult to
present the right kind of appearance, while what many employers want to know relates to the candidate’s
character traits, and (61) ________ stability. This raises the awkward question of whether job candidates
should be asked to complete psychological tests, and the further problem of whether such tests actually
produce (62) ________ results. For many people, being asked to take part in such a test would be an
objectionable (63) ________ into their private lives.
After all, a prospective employer would hardly ask a candidate to run a hundred meters, or expect his or
her family doctor to provide (64) ________ medical information. Quite apart from this problem, can such tests
predict whether a person is likely to be a (65) ________ employee or a values colleague?
56. A. reckon B. rely C. trust D. estimate
57. A. manner B. image C. expression D. looks
58. A. notion B. feeling C. view D. reaction
59. A. successful B. humble C. good at D. tactful
60. A. hesitant B. reluctant C. tending D. used
61. A. psychological B. physical C. similar D. relevant
62. A. reliable B. predictable C. faithful D. regular
63. A. invasion B. infringement C. intrusion D. interference
64. A. confidential B. secretive C. reticent D. classified
65. A. laborious B. particular C. thorough D. conscientious
Part 2. Questions 66 – 75 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question
Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial
problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man’s
inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend
that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop.
Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its
desiccating effects. No moist-skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found. The
giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it
holds more swift-footed running and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its population is largely
nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having adapted to
their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the word.
The secret of their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive
if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So
most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt
only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the
temperature is only 60 degrees.
66. The title for this passage could be _____ .
A. D. esert Plants B. Life Underground
C. Animal Life in a Desert Environment D. Man’s Life in a Desert Environment
67. The word inexorable in the passage mostly means _____ .
A. relentless B. full C. demanding D. essential
68. Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as _____ .
A. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert
B. water is an essential part of his existence
C. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things
D. very few large animals are found in the desert
69. The phrase those forms in the passage refers to all of the following EXCEPT _____.
A. water-loving animals B. the coyote and the bobcat
C. moist-skinned animals D. many large animals
70. According to the passage, creatures in the desert _____.
A. are smaller and fleeter than forest animals
B. live in an accommodating environment
C. are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest
D. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world
71. The author mentions all the following as examples of the behaviour of desert animals EXCEPT _____.
A. they sleep during the day B. they dig home underground
C. they are noisy and aggressive D. they are watchful and quiet
72. The word emaciated in the passage mostly means _____.
A. wild B. cunning C. unmanageable D. unhealthy
73. The word them means
A. animals B. people C. water D. minutes
74. The word burrows in the passage mostly means _____.
A. places where insects or other small creatures live and produce their young”
B. holes or tunnels in the ground made by animals for them to live in
C. structures made of metal bars in which animals or birds are kept
D. places where a particular type of animal or plant is normally found
75. We can infer from the passage that _____ .
A. living things adjust to their environment B. water is the basis of desert life
C. desert life is colorful and diverse D. healthy animals live longer lives
Part 3: Questions 76 – 85 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the text and fill in one word which best fits each gap.
HOMESTAY
When studying a foreign language abroad, a large majority of students choose ‘homestay’
accommodation, living with a (76) host family while they attend classes in a nearby language school. Very
(77) often, however, once lessons have finished, students speak their mother tongue with other class members
of the same nationality. On a Homestay Language International study trip, we ensure total immersion in the
target language environment by arranging accomodation and one-by-one tuition in your teacher’s home, so
that you (78) are surrounded by the language during every moment of your stay.
As you are the only student, you can learn (79) at your own pace, and the lessons are made to suit your
individual interests and objectives. You will also have the chance to (80) participate fully in your host
teacher’s activities, including trips to places of (81) interest in the local area. All of our teachers have a
university degree and a relevant (82) teaching qualification, and most have spent much time abroad and they
can understand the needs and concerns of their (83) student guests. Homestay Language International offers a
wide range of general or business courses for young and old alike, with a choice of (84) over 80 destinations
throughout the world. Whether it’s English in New Zealand, French in Canada or German in Austria, you can
expect a (85) warm welcome in a relaxed home environment and an unforgettable study experience.
SECTION IV: WRITING (4.0 points)
Part 1: Questions from 86 to 90.(2 point- 0.4/ each)
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it.
86. House prices have risen dramatically this year.
There has been a dramatic rise in house prices this year.
87. Helen can play the piano better than Elizabeth.
@ Elizabeth cannot play the piano as well as Helen.
88. The garage is going to repair the car for him next week.
@ He is going to have his car/ the car repaired next week.
89. John and Mary moved to Edinburgh twenty years ago.
@ It is 20 years since John and Mary moved to Edinburgh.
90. He got down to writing a letter as soon as he returned from his work.
@ No sooner had he returned from his work than he got down to writing a letter.
Part 2: Questions from 91 to 92.(2 points - 0.4/ each)
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. Do not change the word given.
91. Sarah wore dark glasses so that no one could recognize her. avoid
@ Sarah wore dark glasses to avoid being recognised.
92. The lecture was cancelled because the professor was ill. called
They called off the lecture because the professor was ill.
93. John never takes any notices what his children say. attention
John never pays any attention to what his children say
94. Smoking in the library is forbidden. allowed
You are not allowed to smoke in the library.
95. I regret not taking your advice in the first place. followed
If only I had followed your advice in the first place.
Have you ever wandered what your school – mates are doing now? Well plenty of people in Britain Line 1
do. One of the most successful Internet venture in Britain has shown how popular, and how lucrative, Line 2
nostalgia can be. The website Friends Reunited was started for fun in 1999 by a couple who was Line 3
interested in knowing what their old school friends were doing. The project snowballed and by 200 the Line 4
site had 12 millions members. You can also post a personal profile showing what you are doing now, Line 5
and read others people’s details. Steve Pankhurst, one of the founders of the site, thinks that one of the Line 6
reasons for its success is, that some people like to be anonymous. On Friends Reunited, you can snoop Line 7
on other people’s lives without giving away anything about yourself if you don’t want to. Its also an Line 8
opportunity to bolster your self – esteem by showing off to everyone just how successful and happy Line 9
you are now, even if you weren’t while you were at school. Line 10
Line 11
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 2: Fill in each of the blank spaces with one suitable word.
Energy is one of the (1) problems / things that many people are interested in. It is not an unfamiliar
word. It is heard, said, discussed day after day. It is close to everyone’s (2) daily life. You turn on the lamp
and it is (3) energy that gives you light. You turn on a TV and it is energy that gives you pictures and sound.
You ride a motorcycle and it is energy that gives you (4) movement. You cook your meals and it is energy
that gives you heat to boil rice.
The problem is that the demand for energy is rising and that the price of energy is getting (5) higher
and higher. The supply of energy on earth is limited. It cannot provide us all forever. The (6) shortage of
energy in the future is inevitable. Therefore, saving energy is a must if we want to (7) continue to live in a
safe and sound world.
If we save energy, the (8) environment will be less polluted and our health will be better and we will
live a more meaningful life and more happily. Perhaps the best (9) solution to the problem of energy is a
source of clean energy coming from the sun: solar energy. This kind of energy is easily available, free, and
inexhaustible. Furthermore, it does not cause (10) pollution.
Part 3: Read the text below and choose the best answer to each question.
The air above our head is becoming cleaner. A breath of fresh air has been running right round the planet
for the past five years. The planet is apparently purging itself of pollution. Paul Novell of the University of
Colorado, the co-author of a report on this phenomenon says, “It seems as if the planet’s own cleansing
service has suddenly got a new lease of life. Suddenly, there are a lot of changes going on up there.” Estimates
of the death toll from urban smog have been steadily rising, so the new cleaner trend could have significant
consequences for life expectancy in cities as well as for the planet itself. The sudden and unexpected reversal
of several decades of worsening pollution extends from the air in city streets to the remotest mid-Pacific
Ocean and Antarctica. Among the pollutants which have begun to disappear from the atmosphere are carbon
monoxide, from car exhausts and burning rain forests, and methane from the guts of cattle, paddy fields, and
gas fields. Even carbon dioxide, the main gas behind global warming, has fallen slightly. There are two
theories about why pollution is disappearing. First, that there is less pollution to start with due to laws to cut
down urban smog and acid rain starting to have a global impact. Second, that the planet may be becoming
more efficient at cleaning up. The main planetary clean-up agent is a chemical called hydroxyl. It is present
throughout the atmosphere in tiny quantities and removes most pollutants from the air by oxidizing them. The
amount of hydroxyl in the air had fallen by a quarter in the 1980s. Now, it may be reviving for two reasons:
ironically, because the ozone hole has expanded, letting in more ultraviolet radiation into the lower
atmosphere, where it manufactures hydroxyl. Then the stricter controls on vehicle exhausts in America and
Europe may have cut global carbon monoxide emissions, thereby allowing more hydroxyl to clean up other
pollutants.
1. A 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. C
6. B 7. C 8. C 9. A 10. D
ĐỀ 22
SECTION I: LISTENING (3.0 points) (You will hear twice for each part)
Part 1. You will hear a radio interview with a ballet dancer called Elena Karpov, who is talking about
her life and career. For each question, put a tick in the correct box.
1. Elena decided to become a dancer when she was ________.
A. seven B. nine C. eleven
2. At ballet school in New York, Elena ________.
A. was the only student from Bulgaria.
B. found learning the language hard.
C. learned to be independent.
3. What does Elena say about the ballet called Cinderella?
A. Children will enjoy it.
B. The music was unfamiliar to her.
C. She saw it when she was a child.
4. In her free time, Elena likes to ________.
A. go sightseeing B. go to clubs C. go shopping
5. What does Elena often do for her fans?
A. She gives them a flower.
B. She signs one of her photographs.
C. She sends them a free ticket.
6. What does Elena like best about her job?
A. appearing on television
B. doing something she loves
C. travelling to different countries
Part 2. You will hear a group leader talking to some students who are going to visit an important
athletics event in Birmingham. For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space.
Athletics Championships
* Date of college trip: (7) 15th of March
* It’s the largest single sports competition in (8) Britain
* The number of national teams take part in is: (9)140
* Number of sports people who will compete: (10) 520
* How the group will travel to Birmingham: by (11) train
* They don’t hire coach because of the (12) traffic jams.
* What group members must take on that day: (13) identity cards
* Name of the website page: (14) B-l-R-l-N-F-O
* The day that other details will be available to students is on: (15) Friday
SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7.0 points)
Part 1: Questions from 16 to 36. (3.0 points - 0.15/ each)
Choose the best answer to each question.
16. The family could not ______ because they had forgotten their passports.
A. check up B. check out C. check through D. check in
17. You’d better drive. I’m too ______ for such traffic.
A. experienced B. experiencing C. inexperienced D. inexperiencing
18. ______ during the storm.
A. They were collapsed the fence B. the fence was collapsed
C. They collapsed the fence D. The fence collapsed
19. The reviewer ______ Mathew's new novel as a new style of modern science fiction.
A. chewed B. digested C. described D. drew
20. She is wearing a/an ______ ring.
A. expensive nice gold B. nice gold expensive
C. gold nice expensive D. nice expensive gold
21. Mary has trouble ______ her homework.
A. to remember B. to remembering C. remember D. remembering
22. She ________ her neighbor’s children for the broken window.
A. accused B. blamed C. denied D. complained
23. Children should be taught that they have to________ everything after they use it.
A. put away B. pick off C. collect up D. catch on
24. Whenever problems________ we discuss frankly and find solutions quickly.
A. make up B. come up C. put up D. turn up
25. Many young people nowadays are prepared to________ getting married to pursue their professional
careers.
A. satisfy B. sacrifice C. prefer D. confide
26. ________, we tried our best to complete it.
A. Thanks to the difficult homework B. Despite the homework was difficult
C. Difficult as the homework was D. As though the homework was difficult
Chủ điểm ngữ pháp: cấu trúc câu nhấn mạnh với tính từ
However adj/adv + S + V, S + V
= Adj as S + V, S + V: mặc dù.... đến thế nào nhưng...
Mặc dù bài tập về nhà rất khó, chúng tôi đã cố gắng hết sức để hoàn thành nó.
27. A learner driver must be ________ by a qualified driver.
A. connected B. accompanied C. involved D. associated
28. A wedding is a good opportunity for ________ off new clothes.
A. wearing B. carrying C. showing D. putting
29. He retired early ________ ill-health.
A. on account of B. ahead of C. on behalf of D. in front of
30. I have had some summer jobs but I have never been________employed.
A. ever B. occasionally C. rarely D. permanently
31. Mary attempted to ________herself with her new boss by volunteering to take on extra work.
A. gratify B. please C. ingratiate D. commend
32. The injured man was taken to hospital and ________for internal injuries.
A. cured B. healed C. operated D. treated
33. The soldier was punished for ________to obey his commanding officer’s orders.
A. refusing B. regretting C. objecting D. resisting
34. I love this painting of an old man. He has such a ________ smile.
A. childhood B. childish C. childless D. childlike
35. Nowadays children would prefer history _________ in more practical ways.
A. to be taught B. teach C. be taught D. to be teaching
Part 2: Questions from 36 to 45. (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the following sentences.
36. Reduction in government spending will necessitate further cuts in public services. NECESSARY
37. Good hygiene helps to minimize the risk of infection. MINIMUM
38. She at first wanted to be a lawyer but now she works as a doctor. LAW
39. In many countries it is illegal to smoke cigarettes under the age of sixteen. LEGAL
40. An investigation has been under way for several days into the disappearance of a APPEAR
thirteen-year-old boy.
41. Nicholas frankly admitted that the report was a pack of lies. FRANK
42. There's a high probability that the children will follow a different career. PROBABLE
43. The northern part of our country was slow to industrialize. INDUSTRY
44. She has always been outspoken on our educational issues recently. SPEAK
45. The infrequency of the trains and the buses causes frustration and annoyance. FREQUENT
Part 3: Questions from 46 to 50.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Each of the following sentences has an error. Find the errors and correct them.
46. The equipment in the office was badly in need of to be repaired. being
47. The governor has not decided how to deal with the new problems already. yet
48. Insulin, using treat diabetes and is secured chiefly from the pancreas of cattle and hogs. used
49. The people tried of defend their village, but they were finally forced to retreat. to
50. The president refuses to accept either of the four new proposals made by the contractors. none
Part 4: Questions from 51 to 55.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Fill in each of the sentences with correct prepositions.
51. They enjoyed a popularity scarcely commensurate with their actual merits.
52. You are under no obligation to buy the product. Take it home and try it out for a week.
53. she was very sad because her father passed away last week.
54. But I am surprised by / at how much money they want to pay him!
55. I'm afraid; we have run out of apple juice. Will an orange juice do?
SECTION III: READING (6.0 points)
Part 1. Questions 56 – 65 (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question.
CAREERS
Work should be a meaningful and (56) __________ part of one’s life. The (57) _______ of a career is,
therefore, one of the most serious decision anyone can (58) __________. It is important to take in
consideration your (59) _______ and personal preferences. For instance, adventurous people who enjoy an
outdoor life shouldn’t choose a (60) _______ in an office. If you like to work alone, you shouldn’t look for
employment which requires working with the public. If you enjoy working with people, you may like a career
in a (61) __________ such as human resources. You should (62) __________ about finding out as much
as possible about intended career before you finish your education. It may take time to ( 63) __________
for the career you want. Don’t accept a job if you haven’t got a clue what your working conditions will
be or how much you can expect to (64) __________. Future disappointment can be avoided by talking to
professionals with (65) __________ in the career you are interested in as well as visiting different companies
and institutions.
56. A. comfortable B. productive C. exported D. efficient
57. A. thought B. advice C. choice D. interest
58. A. do B. set C. have D. make
59. A. facilities B. skills C. references D. contracts
60. A. work B. job C. pension D. business
61. A. branch B. department C. workplace D. firm
62. A. set B. work C. look D. find
63. A. run for B. practise C. train D. learn
64. A. bring B. earn C. obtain D. win
65. A. reputation B. employment C. experience D. experiment
set about = begin, start
We set about preparing the office for the move to a bigger building.
Part 2. Questions 66 – 75 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question
One of the factors contributing to the intense nature of twenty-first-century stress is our continual exposure
to media – particularly to an over abundance of news. If you feel stressed out by the news, you are far from
alone. Yet somehow many of us seem unable to prevent ourselves from tuning in to an extreme degree.
The further back we go in human history, the longer news took to travel from place to place, and the less
news we had of distant people and lands altogether. The printing press obviously changed all that, as did every
subsequent development in transportation and telecommunication.
When television came along, it proliferated like a population of rabbits. In 1950, there were 100,000
television sets in North American homes; one year later there were more then a million. Today, it’s not
unusual for a home to have three or more television sets, each with cable access to perhaps over a hundred
channels. News is the subject of many of those channels, and on several of them it runs 24 hours a day.
What’s more, after the traumatic events of September 11, 2001, live newscasts were paired with perennial
text crawls across the bottom of the screen – so that viewers could stay abreast of every story all the time.
Needless to say, the news that is reported to us is not good news, but rather disturbing images and sound
bytes alluding to disaster (natural and man-made), upheaval, crime, scandal, war, and the like. Compounding
the problem is that when actual breaking news is scarce, most broadcasts fill in with waistline, hairline, or
very existence in the future. This variety of story tends to treat with equal alarm a potentially lethal flu
outbreak and the bogus claims of a wrinkle cream that over promises smooth skin.
Are humans meant to be able to process so much trauma – not to mention so much overblown anticipation
of potential trauma – at once? The human brain, remember, is programmed to slip into alarm mode when
danger looms. Danger looms for someone, somewhere at every moment. Exposing ourselves to such input
without respite and without perspective cannot be anything other than a source of chronic stress.
66. According to the passage, which of the following has contributed to the intense nature of twenty-first-
century stress?
A. An overabundance of special news B. The degree to which stress affects our life
C. Our inability to control ourselves D. Our continual exposure to the media
67. In the past, we had less news of distant people and lands because ______.
A. means of communication and transprotation were not yet invented.
B. the printing press changed the situation to slowly
C. printing, transportation, and telecommunications were not developed
D. most people lived in distant towns and villages
68. The pronoun “them” in paragraph 3 refers to _________.
A. TV channels B. television sets C. TV news D. cable access
69. The word “traumatic” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. boring B. fascinating C. upsetting D. exciting
70. According to the passage, when there is not enough actual breaking news, broadcasts _________.
A. are full of dangerous diseases such as flu.
B. send out live newscasts paired with text across the screen
C. send out frightening stories about potential dangers
D. are forced to publicize an alarming increase in crime
71. As stated in the passage, a flu outbreak and the bogus claims of a wrinkle cream tend to ________.
A. involve natural and man-made disasters B. be treated with equal alarm
C. be scarce breaking news D. be warmly welcomed by the public
72. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The news that is reported to us is not good news.
B. Many people are under stress caused by the media.
C. Many TV channels supply the public with breaking news.
D. The only source of stress in our modern life is the media.
73. The word “slip” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. release B. bring C. fail D. fall
74. According to the passage, our continual exposure to bad news without perspective is obviously ________.
A. the result of human brain’s switch to alarm mode.
B. a source of chronic stress.
C. the result of an overabundance of good news.
D. a source of defects in human brain.
75. What is probably the best title for this passage?
A. Effective Ways to Beat Stress B. More Modern Life - More Stress
C. The Media - A Major Cause of Stress D. Developments in Telecommunications
Part 3: Questions 76 – 85 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the text and fill in one word which best fits each gap.
The honey bee is a very unusual kind of insect. (76) Unlike other insects which live alone, the honey
bee lives as a member of a community. These bees live (77) together in what is known as a bee colony. The
head of the colony is called the (78) queen bee. She is larger than the rest of the bees. Her main task in the
colony is to (79) lay eggs. Most of the other bees are the worker bees. These bees collect nectar and pollen
(80) from flowers. The nectar that is carried by the worker bees is deposited on the hive and then
converted into honey. The worker bees also help look (81) after the young bees. as soon as the eggs
are hatched, the worker bees feed the young bees (82) with pollen and nectar. The third (83) type of bee found
in the colony is the drone or male bee. The main task of such a bee is to mate with a new queen. The queen
bee has a life span of about three years. During this period, she would have laid more than (84) half a million
eggs. When the queen bee is dying, a new queen would be groomed. This new queen would eventually
take (85) over the 'duties' of the old queen when the latter dies.
SECTION IV: WRITING (4.0 points)
Part 1: Questions from 86 to 90.(1 point- 0.2/ each)
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it.
86. He told me that it was wrong of me to leave early.
He criticized me for leaving/having left early.
87. It is believed that his father died in a car accident.
His father is believed to have died in a car accident.
88. When the Minister was asked about the strike, he declined to comment.
On being asked about the strike, the Minister declined to comment.
89. As she grows older, she becomes increasingly cheerful.
The older she grows, the more cheerful she becomes.
90. Although Jack took a taxi, He still arrived late for the conference.
In spite of (Jack’s) taking a taxi, he arrived late for the conference.
In spite of the fact that he took a taxi, Jack still arrived late for the conference.
Part 2: Questions from 91 to 92.(1 points - 0.2/ each)
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. Do not change the word given.
91. In the end, I felt I had been right to leave the club. regrets
In the end, I had no regrets about having left the club.
92. The company didn’t decide to replace this model. no
The company had no intention of replacing this model.
93. Paula said I had caused the accident. for
Paula blamed me for causing/having caused the accident.
94. She has always had a good relationships with her children. got
@ She has always got on well with her children.
95. You can get Tim to lend you his car but you won't succeed. point
@ There is no point in getting Tim to lend you his car.
Part 3. Essay writing
“Deforestation one of the main causes that lead to global warmings.”
To what extend to you agree with this and state your solution to this problem. You should write at least
150 words.
ĐỀ 23
SECTION I: LISTENING (3.0 points) (You will hear twice for each part)
1. C 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. B
6. C 7. address 8. pool 9. reception 10. view/views
11. price/prices 12. Spanish 13. July 14. Cliffton 15. 903036602
SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7.0 POINTS)
Part 1: Questions from 16 to 35. (3.0 points - 0.15/ each)Choose the best answer to each question.
16. C 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. B
21. D 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. D
26. D 27. C 28. A 29. C 30. C
31. B 32. C 33. D 34. A 35. A
Part 2: Questions from 36 to 45 (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the following sentences.
36.economically 37. intelligence 38. fearful 39. accidentally 40. employees
41. distinguish 42. Illiteracy/ 43. energetic 44. disconnected 45. anxiety
Illiterateness
Part 3: Questions from 46 to 50 (1 point - 0.2/ each)
Each of the following sentences has an error. Find the errors and correct them.
46. you will decide → will you decide 47. don’t receive → haven’t received
48. surprising →surprised 49. were →was
50. apparent →apprently
Part 4: Questions from 51 to 55.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Fill in each of the sentences with correct prepositions.
51. off 52. from 53. for 54. to 55. with
SECTION III: READING (6.0 POINTS)
Part 1. Questions from 56 to 65 (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best option to complete each sentence.
56. C 57. D 58. B 59. A 60. C
61. B 62. D 63. A 64. C 65. D
Part 2. Questions from 66 to 75 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question
66. B 67. B 68. C 69. B 70. B
71. B 72. D 73. D 74. A 75. B
Part 3: Questions from 76 to 85 (2.0 points- 0.2/ each)
Read the text and think of the word which best fits each gap.
76. who 77. what 78. at 79. in 80. with
81. ability 82. to 83. on 84. overcome 85. his
SECTION IV. WRITITNG (4 POINTS)
Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. Questions from 86 to 90 (1 point- 0.2/ each)
86. Not until I left home could I realize how important the family is.
87. Mrs. Green is proud of what her son can contribute / contributes to the play.
88. Had it not been for Mom’s help, I could not have held a big party.
89. Such Fiona’s disappointment that she could not keep on working.
90. Competent as/ though Richard is / may be in his work, he does not know how to deal with this client.
Part 2: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the
word given. Do not change the word given.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
91. I am never allowed to make noise in the house by my mother.
92.I am looking forward to attending your wedding this spring.
93. You should have those shoes mended soon.
94. He gets on well with all his student.
95. The neighbour threatened us to turn down the volume or they would call the police.
ĐỀ 24
SECTION I: LISTENING (3.0 points) (You will hear twice for each part)
Part 1. Listen to the recording twice. You will hear part of a radio program called What's On. For each
question, put a tick in the correct box.
1. The competition this year is to find the best _________.
A. actor B. dancer C. singer
2. You can enter the competition if you _________.
A. send your entry by post.
B. live less than five miles from the city centre.
C. phone anytime after Saturday.
3. To find out more about the theatre group, you should phone _________.
A. the theatre. B. Saint Paul's School. C. the secretary of the group.
4. What is different about the arrangements at the sport shall this week?
A. The closing time is later than usual.
B. It is not possible to hire the football pitch.
C. All activities must be booked in advance.
5. What information are we given about the new swimming pool?
A. It will open next month.
B. It will be free for one week.
C. It is bigger than the old one.
6. What are we told about the rock group Switch?
A. They were all born in Westfield.
B. They all live in Westfield.
C. They are doing two concerts in Westfield.
Part 2. Listen to the recording twice. Complete the notes below write one word or a number for each
answer.
NOTES OF CUSTOMER INFORMATION
example answer
information source : found in the brochure
Included services flights and accommodation
Sydney arrival date: 15th of (7) April
Accommodation criteria: (8) cheapest
BOOKING INFORMATION
Room type: (9) non-smoking
Credit card holder: (10) John A. Smyth
Total cost for one night: (11) 110 dollars
(12) The Cultural Centre is within walking distance of the accommodation
(13) Hour customer books camel ride.
(14) Aboriginals stone carvings are in the desert
(15) The Dreamtime can be experienced beneath the stars
SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7.0 points)
Part 1: Questions from 16 to 36. (3.0 points - 0.15/ each)
Choose the best answer to each question.
16. To a large extent, slavery was ________ during the past century.
A. prevented B. abolished C. uprooted D. removed
17. Before you start cooking, you should gather together all the necessary ________.
A. ingredients B. factors C. substances D. elements
18. They asked me a lot of questions, ________ I couldn’t answer.
A. neither of them B. most of them C. neither of which D. most of which
19. I’m sure that this isn’t a true story. He ________ it up.
A. must have made B. should have made C. would have made D. can have made
20. I hope you will________ notice of what I am going to tell you.
A. keep B. gain C. take D. get
21. The noise got ________ as the car disappeared into the distance.
A. smaller B. slighter C. weaker D. fainter
22. Hurricanes________ during this time of year.
A. almost occur B. occur almost never C. almost never occur D. never occur almost
23. Each of us must take________ for our own actions.
A. probability B. ability C. possibility D. responsibility
24. ________ to the national park before, Sue was amazed to see the geyser.
A. Being not B. Not having been C. Not being D. Having not been
25. Mark enjoys having fun by causing trouble. He's very ________ boy.
A. strong willed B. mischievous C. obedient D. well behaved
26. No one enjoys________ in public.
A. being made fun of B. to be made fun of C. making fun of D. to make fun of
27. - “Your parents must be proud of your results at school”. - “________”
A. Sorry to hear that B. Thanks. It’s certainly encouraging
C. Of course D. I am glad you like it.
28. John would like to specialize________ computer science.
A. of B. to C. in D. at
29. It was very difficult to________ what he was saying about the noise of the traffic.
A. pick up B. make up C. turn out D. make out
A. Pick up: tăng lên B. Make up: bổ sung
C. Turn out: tụ tập, có mặt D. Make out: hiểu được
30. Having been found guilty of theft, ________ to find work in his chosen field as an accountant.
A. was difficult for Henry Jones B. Henry Jones found it difficult
C. found Henry Jones difficult D. it was found by Henry Jones difficult
31. The clown was wearing a ________ wig and a red nose.
A. funny plastic red B. red funny plastic C. red plastic funny D. funny red plastic
32. That carcinogenic substances________ in many common household items is well-known.
A. are contained B. contained C. containing D. are containing
33. The co-pilot had to________ when the pilot suffered chest pains.
A. hand over B. take on C. hand on D. take over
34. The ________ of houses has increased dramatically in recent years.
A. cost B. pay C. payment D. price
35. Some vegetables are grown without soil and under ________ light.
A. artificial B. false C. fake D. unreal
Part 2: Questions from 36 to 45. (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the following sentences.
36. I think it’s very unreasonable of him to expect us to work overtime every REASON
night this week.
37. As this problem is unimportant, you don’t need to pay much attention to it. IMPORTANT
38. Illustration is often more useful than definition for giving meanings of ILLUSTRATE
words.
39. A good dictionary can aid the student by enlarging his vocabulary. LARGE
40. John turned up on the wrong day because of a misunderstanding. UNDERSTAND
41. I am alarmed by your irresponsible attitude. RESPONSE
42. The acting world is very competitive and they may be out of work most of the COMPETE
time.
43. His geographical knowledge is very poor. He thinks Paris is in Italy. GEOGRAPHY
44. We always have a spare room in case visitors arrive unexpectedly. EXPECT
45. Even if you’re good at a game, you shouldn’t be overconfident. CONFIDENCE
Part 3: Questions from 46 to 50.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Each of the following sentences has an error. Find the errors and correct them.
46. Each student have to write a paragraph about the benefits of learning English.
47. His parents don’t allow him staying out late on weekdays.
48. Major advertising companies have traditionally volunteered its time to public service accounts. their
49. Coconut oil produces a soap whom will lather in salt water as well as fresh. which
50. Her hair would be long when she was young. used to
Part 4: Questions from 51 to 55.(1 point - 0.2/ each)
Fill in each of the sentences with correct prepositions.
51. She was deeply distressed by the news of his death.
52. Have they any evidence to show that he's been implicated in the robbery?
53. The legislation must be applied irrespective of someone's ethnic origins.
54. Any new video system that is compatible with existing ones has a little chance of success.
55. The city council objects to vulgar art displays in public buildings.
SECTION III: READING (6.0 points)
Part 1. Questions 56 – 65 (2 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question.
ENVIRONMENTAL CONCERNS
Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life (56) ______ human
activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world carries on consuming two-thirds of the
world's resources while half of the world's population do so (57) ______ to stay alive we are rapidly
destroying the (58) ______ resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile
soil is (59) ______ built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will
never be able to recover (60) ______ We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the
consequences. As a (61) ______ the planet's ability to support people is being reduced at the very time when
rising human numbers and consumption are (62) ______increasingly heavy demands on it.
The Earth's (63) ______ resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines,
warmth, shelter and minerals to (64) ______ us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensible in how
we use the resources they will (65)______ indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively they
will soon run out and everyone will suffer.
56. A. still B. despite C. yet D. although
57. A. for B. just C. already D. entirely
58. A. lone B. Individual C. lonely D. alone
59. A. sooner B. rather C. either D. neither
60. A. completely B. quite C. greatly D. utterly
61. A. result B. product C. development D. reaction
62. A. having B. doing C. taking D. making
63. A. natural B. real C. living D. genuine
64. A. stay B. keep C. maintain D. hold
65. A. last B. stand C. remain D. go
Part 2. Questions 66 – 75 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question
Experts in climatology and other scientists are becoming extremely concerned about the changes to our
climate which are taking place. Admittedly, climate changes have occurred on our planet before. For example,
there have been several ice ages or glacial periods.
These climatic changes, however, were different from the modern ones in that they occurred gradually
and, as far as we know, naturally. The changes currently being monitored are said to be the result not of
natural causes, but of human activity. Furthermore, the rate of change is becoming alarmingly rapid.
The major problem is that the planet appears to be warming up. According to some experts, this warming
process, known as global warming, is occurring at a rate unprecedented in the last 10,000 years. The
implications for the planet are very serious. Rising global temperatures could give rise to such ecological
disasters as extremely high increases in the incidence of flooding and of droughts. These in turn could have a
harmful effect on agriculture.
It is thought that this unusual warming of the Earth has been caused by so-called greenhouse gases, such as
carbon dioxide, being emitted into the atmosphere by car engines and modern industrial processes, for
example. Such gases not only add to the pollution of the atmosphere, but also create a greenhouse effect, by
which the heat of the sun is trapped. This leads to the warming up of the planet.
Politicians are also concerned about climate change and there are now regular summits on the subject,
attended by representatives from around 180 of the world’s industrialized countries. Of these summits, the
most important took place in Kyoto in Japan in 1997. There it was agreed that the most industrialized
countries would try to reduce the volume of greenhouse gas emissions and were given targets for this
reduction of emissions.
It was also suggested that more forests should be planted to create so-called sinks to absorb greenhouse
gases. At least part of the problem of rapid climate change has been caused by too drastic deforestation.
Sadly, the targets are not being met. Even more sadly, global warnings about climate changes are often
still being regarded as scaremongering.
66. According to the passage, in what way did the climate changes in the ice ages differ from the modern
ones?
A. They occurred naturally over a long period of time
B. They were partly intended.
C. They were wholly the result of human activity.
D. They were fully monitored by humans.
67. The word “alarmingly” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. disapprovingly B. disappointingly C. surprisingly D. worryingly
68. According to the passage, agriculture could ____.
A. make the global warming more serious
B. be indirectly affected by the global temperature rises
C. give rise to many ecological disasters
D. be directly damaged by the rises in global temperature
69. Greenhouse gases cause the warming up of the Earth because they ____.
A. are emitted by car engines B. trap heat from the sun
C. do not add to atmosphere pollution D. are unusual gases
70. According to the passage, 1997 witnessed ____.
A. the largest number of summits on the subject of climate change
B. the most important summit on climate change taking place in Kyoto, Japan
C. the highest attendance by representatives from 180 industrialized countries
D. widespread concern about climate change
71. It can be inferred from the passage that the countries which are mainly responsible for global warming are
____.
A. countries with the warmest climate B. developing countries
C. developed countries D. the most industrialized countries
72. The word “There” in paragraph 5 refers to ____.
A. the world’s industrialized countries B. regular summits on climate change
C. the most industrialized countries D. the 1997 summit in Kyoto, Japan
73. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Carbon dioxide is one of the gases that may cause the so-called greenhouse effect.
B. The so-called sinks created by forests can absorb greenhouse gases.
C. The problem of rapid climate change has been caused mainly by deforestation.
D. Politicians are among those who are concerned about climate change.
74. The word “drastic” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. hard B. severe C. widespread D. obvious
75. What is probably the writer’s attitude toward global warning?
A. Optimistic B. Pessimistic C. Neutral D. Positive
Part 3: Questions 76 – 85 (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
Read the text and fill in one word which best fits each gap.
SAVING THE TIGER.
In 1973, when the tiger appeared to be facing extinction, the World Wide Fund for nature and the
Indian Government agreed to set (76) up “Operation Tiger” – a campaign to save this threatened creature.
They started by creating nine special parks (77) so that tigers could live in safety. The first was at
Ramthambhore , a region (78) that/which was quickly turning into a desert (79) since/as/ because/for too
much of the grass was being eaten by the local people’s cattle. At the time there (80) were just fourteen tigers
left there. The government had to clear twelve small villages, which means moving nearly 1,000 people and
10,000 cattle so the land could be handed back to nature. Today, Ramthambhore is a very different place, with
grass tall (81) enough for tigers to hide in, and There are now at (82) least forty of them in the park,
wandering freely about. Other animals have also benefited. For example, there are many (83) more deer and
monkeys than before. The people (84) who/ that were moved are now living in better conditions. They live in
new villages away (85) from the tiger park, with schools, temples and fresh water supplies. There are now
sixteen such tiger parks in India and the animals’ future looks a little safer.
SECTION IV: WRITING (4.0 points)
Part 1: Questions from 86 to 90.(1 point- 0.2/ each)
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed
before it.
86. The situation was so embarrassing that she did not know what to do.
So embarrassing was the situation that she did not know what to do.
87. “Please accept my apology for arriving late,” said Janet to her employer.
Janet apologized to her employer for her late arrival / her arriving late.
88. If you changed your mind, you’d be welcome to join us.
Were you to change your mind, you’d be welcome to join us.
89. The accident took place just after the workers started their work.
Hardly had the workers started working when the accident happened.
90. Nigel should leave soon if he’s catching the 8.30 train.
@ Nigel had better leave soon if he’s catching the 8.30 train.
Part 2: Questions from 91 to 92. (1 points - 0.2/ each)
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. Do not change the word given.
91. He didn’t lock the front door when he left the house. without
@ He left the house without locking the front door.
92. I found it difficult to follow the instructions. trouble
@ I had trouble (in) following the instructions.
93. The neighbors’ all-night parties were too much for me, so I moved. put
@ I moved because I couldn’t put up with the neighbors’ all-night parties.
94. Things are much more expensive here than we thought they would be. expected
@ We had expected things would be much cheaper here.
95. The news was such a shock to them that they all sat there without saying a word. silence
@ They all sat there in silence because/as/since they were so shocked by the news.
Part 3. Paragraph writing: (2 points)
In about 140 words, write a paragraph to talk about the bad effects of mobile phones on
students’ study.
The following suggestions may help you have better arguments:
- They are time-consuming devices.
- They affect students’ eyes and health.
- They are causes of conflicts and misunderstanding among the friends.
ĐỀ 25
SECTION I. LISTENING: (3.0 points-0.2/each)
Part 1. You will hear a woman, Vanessa, talking about a journey she made with her husband, Robert,
and her baby, Ben. For each question, put a tick in the correct box.
1. What did Vanessa and Robert decide to do last year?
A. get married B. travel to England by boat C. look for new jobs
2. Vanessa was worried that ________.
A. they wouldn't be prepared. B. the conditions would be bad. C. the baby would get ill.
3. How did Vanessa feel when they reached Singapore?
A. She wondered if she should fly home.
B. She was worried about the boat.
C. She enjoyed the break from travelling.
4. Why was Vanessa's father-in-law particularly helpful?
A. He was a good cook. B. He looked after the baby. C. He helped to sail the boat.
5. Because of spending so much time on the boat, the baby ________.
A. learnt to walk late. B. doesn't play by himself. C. only likes certain food.
6. What is Vanessa's advice for people sailing with children?
A. Don'ttake more than one child. B. Go for a short time. C. Don't let children get bored.
Part 2. Listen to the recording twice. Complete the form below. Write no more than three words or a
number for each answer.
Example Answer
Aim: protecting environment through recycling
Type of group: non-profit
Frequency of newspaper collection: (7) every other week
Name: (8) Peter Wisrough
Address: (9) 168 Bridge Road
E-mail: [email protected]
Postcode: (10) BS97PU
Recycling
Ways of recycling Newspaper: in a (11) yellow box
Nearest rubbish collection centre On the East Side of (12) Central Park
Blue box: (13) metal
Rubbish that can be recycled Green box: glass and plastics
Yellow box: paper
Rubbish that cannot be recycled (14) magazines
Name of a booklet (15) Savvy
SECTION II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (7.0 POINTS)
Part 1: Choose the best answer to each question. (3.0 points - 0.15/ each)
16. I remember _______ him not to forget _______the instruction carefully, but he did not do so.
A. asking/reading B. to ask/to read C. asking/to read D. to ask/reading
17. If he had taken my advice, he _______able to deal with the problem now.
A. will be B. would be C. would have been D. are
18. By next month, my father _______in that company for 10 years.
A. will work B. will be working C. will have worked D. has worked
19. I had two copies of this book originally, but I can’t find _______one now.
A. another B. other C. the other D. the others
20. If only she _______me a chance, I could have told him the truth.
A. could give B. has given C. had given D. gave
21. The Chief of police, _______work is very important, takes care of the public safety.
A. who B. whom C. whose D. which
22. Neither the boy’s parents nor I _______satisfied with his progress.
A. am B. is C. are D. has
23. My brother _______his job last month and since then he _______out of work.
A. lost / has been B. lost / was C. has lost / has been D. was lost / is
24. It’s no use _______a language if you don’t try to speak it, too.
A. learn B. learning C. to learn D. for learning
25. They insisted that she _______the party.
A. attended B. attend C. attends D. to attend
26. Michael and his friend were seriously injured in the last match, so _______can play today.
A. both of them B. either one of them C. all of them D. neither of them
27. There were a lot of people at my sister’s wedding party, only a few of _______I had met before.
A. whom B. that C. who D. whose
28. Nobody phoned me while I was out, _______?
A. did he B. didn’t he C. didn’t they D. did they
29. Let’s put garbage bins around the school yard, _______?
A. shall we B. do we C. isn’t we D. will we
30. _______, Ao dai was worn by both men and women.
A. Tradition B. Traditional C. Traditionally D. By traditional
31. An unexpected problem has _______, so we have had to cancel the meeting.
A. rise B. risen C. raise D. raised
32. “Would you mind if I smoked here?” _ “_______.”
A. Thank you. B. Yes, I’d love to C. You’re welcome D. I’d rather you didn’t.
33. Mr. Nghia, accompanied by his wife and children, _______tonight.
A. arrive B. is arriving C. are arriving D. have arrived
34. David apologized to Jack _______having broken his camera.
A. on B. for C. about D. of
35. It is necessary that he _______English because it is useful for his work.
A. learn B. learns C. to learn D. has learned
Part 2: Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the following sentences. (1.5 points -
0.15/ each)
36. The entrance examination is of great importance to the students of grade 9. (ENTER)
37. Mispronunciation in speaking a language usually leads to misunderstanding. (UNDERSTAND)
38. Most of the banks are now computerized. (COMPUTER)
39. We are waiting for the arrival of his plane. (ARRIVE)
40. Women nowadays have more freedom to participate in social activities. (FREE)
41. She made a deep impression on the members of her class. (IMPRESS)
42. He is one of the most famous environmentalists in the world. (ENVIRONMENT)
43. Please acknowledge our letter of the 25th. We have not had a reply. (KNOW)
44. The deforestation has caused many so-called man-made disasters. (FOREST)
45. People must learn about keeping the environment unpolluted. (POLLUTE)
Part 3: Each of the following sentences has an error. Find the errors and correct them. (1.5 point - 0.15/ each)
(Thí sinh ghi từ sai và từ sửa ra tờ giấy thi ví dụ câu.
00. She didn’t find it easily to keep the children amused. 00. Easily easy
46. No sooner had he left the office when the telephone rang. …than…
47. If he would have a lot of money, he would buy us an expensive car. …had…
48. It is important that the mechanic takes steps to repair our air conditioner. …take / should take…
49. Mai is studying law at the university, and so does her brother. …is…
50. The study of these animals are fascinating and many books have been written about them. …is…
51. Mary enjoyed to be able to meet a lot of interesting people during her vacation. …being…
52. One of the worst disease that mankind has ever had is cancer. …diseases…
53. The children were frightening by the thunder and lighting. …frightened…
54. If only there is a bridge over the river near our village. …were…
55. His parents told him don’t waste his time on music and games. …not to…
Part 4. Fill in the blank with right preposition to complete the following sentences. (1 point-0.2/each)
56. Three prisoners escaped from the prison in May
57. Measuring money must be very difficult to carry out.
58. We were disappointed with / about the result.
59. I’ll come over to pick her up at 8 o’clock.
60. The passage is written in English.
Part 1: Listen to the recording twice then choose A, B or C to best answer the questions.
1. B. a search for a new apartment
2. C. It's located some distance from school.
3. A. no more than $200
4. B. an apartment with furniture already in it
5. C. He is going to visit an apartment building near his place.
Part 2: Questions 6-15. A new business owner enquires about courses. Listen to the conversation and
complete each gap with no more than THREE words.
6. 6pm – 8pm 7. Business
8. Business Basics 9. three days
10. 80 11. book keeping
12. 18th April 13. Lila Park
14. 39 White Lane 15.lila.park
Part 1: Choose the best answer to each question. (3.0 points - 0.15/ each)
16. A 17. C 18. C 19. D 20. D 21. C 22. D 23. A 24. D 25. D
26. A 27. B 28. A 29. C 30. B 31. C 32.A 33. B 34. C 35. C
Part 2: Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the following sentences. (1.5 points -
0.15/ each)
36. participants 37. explanation 38. independence 39. protected 40. misunderstanding
41. impression 42. products 43. residents 44. knowledgeable 45. unlimited
Part 3: Each of the following sentences has an error. Find the errors and correct them. (1.5 point - 0.15/ each)
(Thí sinh tìm đúng từ sai mà sửa lỗi không đúng cho nửa số điểm)
46. Measles are one of the infectious diseases that children get. is
47. Nam looks very angrily because his friends say no words. angry
48. My teacher always forces us do all these exercise. to do
49. It's important that he submits his term paper by the end of next week. submit
50. Kangaroos, that can be seen everywhere in Australia, have long tails. which
51. She was waiting nervous in the waiting room for the interview. nervously
52. The children are very boring and they don’t know what to do. bored
53. You can download a lot of informations from the Internet onto your own computer. information
54. Many kinds of tigers are at danger now. in
55. My father prefers watching films at home than going to the cinema. to
Part 4. Fill in the blank with right preposition to complete the following sentences. (1 point-0.2/each)
56. by 57. for 58. in 59. of 60. after
Part 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions. (2 point-0.2/each)
61. D 62. B 63.A 64.C 65.C 66. D 67. A 68. D 69.C 70. C
Part 2. Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question (2.0 points - 0.2/ each)
71. A 72. D 73. C 74. B 75. C 76. D 77. A 78. C 79. B 80. A
Part 3: Read the text and think of the word which best fits each gap. (2.0 points- 0.2/ each)
81. for 82. enough 83. that 84. job 85. you
86. or 87. Before 88. which 89. hard 90. another
ĐỀ 27
SECTION A : LISTENING
PART 1. 1 điểm - Mỗi đáp án đúng 0,2 điểm.
1 C 0,2
2 A 0,2
3 B 0,2
4 C 0,2
5 B 0,2
PART 2: 2 điểm - Mỗi đáp án đúng 0,2 điểm.
1 City center 0,2
2 250 – 500 0,2
3 Garden 0,2
4 325 0,2
5 Water 0,2
6 Telephone / phone 0,2
7 Wednesday 0,2
8 employer 0,2
9 2 weeks / 14 days 0,2
10 1 month rent 0,2
SECTION B: PHONETICS
Part 1: 0,5 điểm - mỗi đáp án đúng 0,1 điểm
1 A 0,1
2 D 0,1
3 B 0,1
4 D 0,1
5 D 0,1
Part 2: 0,5 điểm - Mỗi đáp án đúng 0,1 điểm
1 D 0,1
2 C 0,1
3 D 0,1
4 A 0,1
5 D 0,1
SECTION C : GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY.
Part 1: 2pts - mỗi câu đúng 0,1 điểm.
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. D 6. D 7. C 8. D 9. A 10.A
11. D 12. B 13. D 14. B 15. D 16. C 17. B 18. C 19. D 20. A
Part 2 1pt - đúng mỗi câu 0,1 điểm
1. laughing 2.To join 3.Stops
4. being asked 5. hopes 6. cut
7.has been made 8.weeding 9 have 10. eating
Part 3: 1 điểm - mỗi đáp án đúng 0,1 điểm
1. at 2. under 3. for 4. with 5. in
6. at 7. in 8. out of 9. on 10. into
Part 4. 2 điểm - Chọn đúng từ sai 0,1 điểm ; sửa đúng 0,1 điểm
1. to do => do 2. teach – have taught/ have been teaching
3. so – such 4. now - then
5. well – good 6. talking – to talk
7. in – on 8. a few – a little
9. to have – to having (have – having) 10. to redecorate – redecorated
Part 5. 1 điểm - đúng mỗi từ 0,1 điểm
1. beautify 2. unfriendly 3. disagreed. 4. comparison 5. bored
6. unsuccessful 7. readiness 8. poverty 9. carelessly 10. mountainous
SECTION D: READING
Part 1. 1 điểm - đúng mỗi câu 0,1 điểm
1. A 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. A
6. D 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. A
Part 2. 2 điểm - đúng mỗi câu 0,2 điểm
1.who 2.because/ since/ as 3.were 4. they 5. to
6.might / may 7.make 8.else 9 and 10.lesson
Part 3: 1 điểm - đúng mỗi câu 0,2 điểm
1 Because he would not let staff take away his pocket money for holiday / he 0,2
swallowed it instead.
2 Steve was possibly an orphan or his parents could not look after him 0,2
3 It was probably run on strict, disciplinarian lines. 0,2
4 Because it contains butane gas. 0,2
5 The secret of his skill is muscle control. 0,2
SECTION E: WRITING
PART 1. Đúng mỗi câu 0,2 điểm
1 It's my mother that I who bought me a present on my birthday
2 The atmosphere in that house was so frightening that we had to leave immediately.
3 Having read the instruction, he snatched up the fire extinguisher
4 Not until I left home did I realize what he had meant.
5 I’m never made to work hard.
6 What I found surprising was her lack of confidence.
7 He is not experienced enough to undertake this demanding job
8 Mrs Mai takes great pride in her son’s intelligence.
9 There’s no point in getting Hung to lend you his car.
10 Never before have we listened to this kind of music.
Part 2: 3 pts
IIL Write a composition about 150-200 words on the following topic: (3 pts)
"Parents are the best teachers". Do you agree or disagree with this statement?
Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.
Notes:
The mark given to this part is based on the following scheme:
ĐỀ 28
PART I. LISTENING
I. You are going to hear a travel agent talking with a client who is planning her summer holiday. For
each of the questions 1 – 5 choose the best answer A, B or C as in the example.
Sentence Key mark
1 C 0,2
2 B 0,2
3 A 0,2
4 C 0,2
5 b 0,2
II. You are going to hear a talk about weekend trips. Listen and complete the table below .Write no
more than three words or a number for each answer.
Sentence Key mark
6 Tower of London 0,2
7 Bristol 0,2
8 American museum 0,2
9 Student newspaper 0,2
10 Yentob 0,2
PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
I. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer among four options (A, B, C or D).
1. D 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. A
6. D 7. C 8. C 9. C 10. A
11. D 12. B 13. A 14. D 15. C
II. Use the correct form of each word on the right to complete the numbered spaces provided in the
passage. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
1. enabled 4. artist 7. insignificant 10. unfortunately
2. lifeless 5. achievement 8. elusive
3. inactive 6. conclusion 9. striking
III. In the following passage, some numbered lines contain a word that shouldn’t be there. Tick (√) the
sentences that are correct and write the words that shouldn’t be there in the numbered space.
1. that 3. √ 5. to 7. √ 9. a
2. such 4. will 6. to 8. so 10. √
PART III. READING
I. Complete the following passage by choosing A, B, C or D to fill in each blank.
1. A 3. B 5. D 7. C 9. C
2. A 4. C 6. A 8. D 10. B
II. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct option (marked A, B, C or D) to answer the
questions.
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. D
III. Read the passage and choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D in the
following questions. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your
answer sheet.
1. C 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. A
IV. Read the passage carefully then fill in the blank a suitable word.
1. water 2. Among 3. like 4. ever 5. hands
6. with 7. the 8. rules 9. team 10. to
PART IV: WRITING
I. Write the new sentences using the given word. Do not change the word given in any way.
Sentence Key mark
1 1. Some interesting new information has come to light. 0,1
2 2. Jack was banned from playing in the next two matches. 0,1
3 3. I'm dying to see her again. 0,1
4 4. She was so beautiful that I couldn't take my eyes off her. 0,1
5 5. We can't wait to watch the program. 0,1
II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the original one.
sen Key mark
1 Were you to change your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
2 I do not feel like going out this afternoon.
3 However hard Adeles tries, she doesn't get anywhere/gets nowhere.
4 The boss is thought to be considering raising wages.
5 Despite the fact that he was disabled, he sailed/managed to sail around the world.
6 I wasn't early enough to see her.
7 I'd rather you didn't smoke.
8 Smiling happily, the mother took the baby in her arms.
9 It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped
10 Should there is any difficulty, you can ring this number.
III. Write a description of one of the popular celebrations in Vietnam ( e.g. MidAutumn Festival National
Independence Day, Teacher's Day, Women's Day, ect). You should write about 200 words.