0% found this document useful (0 votes)
67 views20 pages

M40 Knig2461 04 Ism C40

The document discusses one-dimensional quantum mechanics, including: - Particle a and b have the same wavelength and speed, while particle c has a longer wavelength and slower speed. - As a quantum system's wave function oscillates, its probability density (the square of the wave function) also oscillates, and the average behavior of the system is the average of this probability density. - Wave function a represents an antibonding orbital and wave function b represents a bonding orbital.

Uploaded by

kymm7827
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
67 views20 pages

M40 Knig2461 04 Ism C40

The document discusses one-dimensional quantum mechanics, including: - Particle a and b have the same wavelength and speed, while particle c has a longer wavelength and slower speed. - As a quantum system's wave function oscillates, its probability density (the square of the wave function) also oscillates, and the average behavior of the system is the average of this probability density. - Wave function a represents an antibonding orbital and wave function b represents a bonding orbital.

Uploaded by

kymm7827
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 20

ONE-DIMENSIONAL QUANTUM MECHANICS

40
Conceptual Questions
40.1. Consider the de Broglie wavelength: λ = h / mv. Particles a and b have the same wavelength and therefore the
same speed (since they have the same mass); however, particle c has a longer wavelength and therefore is moving
slower. The wave amplitude is not relevant.

40.2. As the wave function of the quantum system oscillates, the quantum probability density (the square of the
wave function) also oscillates. The average behavior of the quantum system is then the average of the probability
density of the quantum system.

40.3. Five.

40.4. n = 6 because there are six peaks.

40.5. ηa = η b > ηc . η is independent of L. η = .


2m(U 0 − E )

ηa = η b = ηc =
2m(10 eV − 5 eV) 2m(16 eV − 10 eV)

40.6. (a) The spacing between the nodes increases as x increases. This happens because the particle slows down as
it approaches the turning points. With slower speed, the particle’s de Broglie wavelength λ = h /mv increases. The
wave function is a standing de Broglie wave, so increased wavelength means increased space between the nodes.
(b) The heights of the antinodes increase as x increases. This is because the particle, due to its slower speed, spends
more time at larger x and is thus more likely to be found at larger x . A higher probability for finding the particle
at larger x implies larger values for ψ (x ) and thus higher antinodes.
(c) The above considerations lead to the graph of the n = 8 wave function shown below. The wave function has eight
antinodes.

© Copyright 2017 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. This material is protected under all copyright laws as they currently exist.
No portion of this material may be reproduced, in any form or by any means, without permission in writing from the publisher.
40-1
40-2 Chapter 40

40.7. Wave function a is an antibonding orbital and wave function b is a bonding orbital. You can tell because in the
bottom one the electron has a high probability of being found between adjacent protons, indicating that the adjacent
protons are sharing the electron.

40.8. (Ptunnel )d > (Ptunnel )a > (Ptunnel )b > (Ptunnel )c . The tunneling probability decreases if either the potential barrier
−2w
is made wider or if the energy is lowered relative to the top of the barrier. Because Ptunnel = e η
and

η= , changing the barrier width by a factor of 2 changes the exponent by a factor of 2 whereas
2 m( U 0 − E )
changing U 0 − E by a factor of 2 changes the exponent by a factor of only 2. Thus barrier c has a larger (negative)
exponent than barrier b, both being larger than barrier a, leading to (Ptunnel )c < (Ptunnel ) b < (Ptunnel )a . Relative to
barrier a, the width of barrier d is narrower by a factor of 2 while the energy difference is increased by a factor of 2.
The width factor is more important, so the exponent is less than for barrier a and thus (Ptunnel )d > (Ptunnel )a .

40.9. Because the probability is a decaying exponential Ptunnel = e−2 w/η , doubling the width of the barrier is the
same as squaring the probability. If we square 0.0100 we get 0.0001.

Exercises and Problems

Exercises
Sections 40.3–40.4 A Particle in a Rigid Box
40.1. Model: Model the electron as a particle in a rigid one-dimensional box of length L.
Solve: (a) The wavelength 1484 nm is in the infrared range.
(b) The energy levels of an electron in a rigid box are
h2
En = n 2
8mL2
The emitted photons must have just the right energy, so
hc 5h 2
Eph = hf = = Δ Eelec = E3 − E2 =
λ 8mL2
5hλ 5(6.63 × 10−34 J s)(1484 × 10−9 m)
⇒L= = −31 8
= 1.5 × 10−9 m = 1.5 nm
8mc 8(9.11 × 10 kg)(3.0 × 10 m/s)

© Copyright 2017 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. This material is protected under all copyright laws as they currently exist.
No portion of this material may be reproduced, in any form or by any means, without permission in writing from the publisher.
One-Dimensional Quantum Mechanics 40-3

40.2. Model: Model the electron as a particle in a rigid one-dimensional box of length L.
Solve: Absorption occurs from the ground state n = 1. It’s reasonable to assume that the transition is from n = 1 to
n = 2. The energy levels of an electron in a rigid box are
h2
En = n 2
8mL2
The absorbed photons must have just the right energy, so
hc 3h 2
Eph = hf = = ΔEelec = E2 − E1 =
λ 8mL2
3hλ 3(6.63 × 10−34 J s)(6.00 × 10−7 m)
⇒L= = = 7.39 × 10−10 m = 0.739 nm
8mc 8(9.11 × 10−31 kg)(3.0 × 108 m/s)

40.3. Model: Model the electron as a particle in a rigid one-dimensional box of length L.
Solve: The energy levels for a particle in a rigid box are
h2
En = n 2
8mL2
Solve this for L. The wave function shown in the figure corresponds to n = 6. Thus,
nh 6h 3(6.63 × 10−34 J ⋅ s)
L= = = = 0.74 nm
2 2mE4 2 2mE4 2(9.11 × 10−31 kg)(25 eV × 1.6 × 10−19 J/eV)

40.4. Model: Model the electron as a particle in a rigid one-dimensional box of length L.
Solve: The energies of the stationary states for a particle in a box are En = n 2 E1, where En is the energy of the
stationary state with quantum number n. It can be seen from the wave function equation ψ n (x) = A sin (nπ x /L) that the
wave function given in the figure corresponds to n = 3. We can compute the ground state and then the n = 4 state.
E3 12.0 eV
E3 = 9 E ⇒ E1 = = = 1.33 eV ⇒ E4 = 42 E1 = 16(1.33 eV) = 21 eV
9 9
Assess: The energy of the fourth state is 42 /32 = 16/9 times the energy of the third state.

40.5. Model: The electron is in a one-dimensional box of length L = 0.45 nm.


Visualize: From the figure we deduce that n = 3.
Solve:
h2 (6.63 × 10−34 J ⋅ s) 2
En = n 2 ⇒ E3 = 32 = 2.68 × 10−18 J = 17 eV
8mL 2
8(9.11 × 10−31 kg)(0.45 nm) 2
Assess: This is a typical energy for an electron in a box this size.

40.6. Model: The electron starts in a one-dimensional box of length L = 4 nm. Its energy doesn’t change when it
moves to the longer section of the box.
Visualize: From the figure we deduce that n = 3.
Solve: Find the energy of the particle in the smaller section.
h2 (6.63 × 10−34 J ⋅ s)2
En = n 2 ⇒ E3 = 22 = 1.508 × 10−20 J
8mL2 8(9.11 × 10−31 kg)(4 nm)2
Now solve the energy equation for n using the same energy as found above and with L = 12 nm.

8mL2 En 2L 2(12 nm)


n= 2
= 2mEn = −34
2(9.11 × 10−31 kg)(1.508 × 10−20 J) = 6
h h 6.63 × 10 J ⋅s
Assess: This is a typical energy for an electron in a box this size.

© Copyright 2017 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. This material is protected under all copyright laws as they currently exist.
No portion of this material may be reproduced, in any form or by any means, without permission in writing from the publisher.
40-4 Chapter 40

Section 40.6 Finite Potential Wells


40.7. Solve: From Equation 40.41, the units of the penetration distance are
J×s (kg × m 2 /s 2 ) × s kg × m 2 /s kg × m 2 /s
η= ⇒ = = = =m
2m(U 0 − E ) kg × J kg × kg m 2 /s 2 kg 2 × m 2 /s 2 kg × m/s

40.8. Solve: (a)

(b) For n = 2, the probability of finding the particle at the center of the well is zero. This is because the wave
function is zero at that point.
(c) This is consistent with standing waves. The n = 2 standing wave on a string has a node at the center of the string.

40.9. Solve: (a) According to Equation 40.41, the penetration distance is


1.05 × 10−34 J s
η= = = 0.159 nm
2m(U 0 − E ) 2(9.11 × 10−31 kg)(2.0 eV − 0.5 eV) × 1.60 × 10−19 J/eV
(b) Likewise for E = 1.00 eV, η = 0.195 nm.
(c) For E = 1.50 eV, η = 0.275 nm.
Assess: These values are of the correct order of magnitude as you can see by referring to Figure 40.14a.

40.10. Model: The electron is in a finite potential well whose energies and wave functions were shown in Figure
40.14a.
Visualize: We are given U 0 = 2.00 eV and E = 1.50 eV. We seek x − L.
Solve: First use the equation for the penetration distance.
1.05 × 10−34 J s
η= = = 0.275 nm
2 m( U 0 − E ) ⎛ 1.60 × 10−19 J ⎞
−31
2(9.11 × 10 kg)(0.50 eV) ⎜ ⎟⎟
⎜ 1 eV
⎝ ⎠

Now use this value of η in ψ (x) = ψ edgee − (x − L )/η , where ψ (x)/ ψ edge = 0.25 and solve for x − L.

0.25 = e −(x − L )/η ⇒ ln 0.25 = −( x − L)/ η ⇒


x − L = −η (ln 0.25) = x − L = −(0.275 nm)(ln 0.25) = 0.38 nm
Assess: The penetration distance is the distance into the classically forbidden region where ψ (x)/ ψ edge = 0.37 so a
little further into the forbidden region is where ψ (x)/ ψ edge = 0.25.

© Copyright 2017 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. This material is protected under all copyright laws as they currently exist.
No portion of this material may be reproduced, in any form or by any means, without permission in writing from the publisher.
One-Dimensional Quantum Mechanics 40-5

40.11. Solve: According to Equation 40.41, the penetration depth is η = / 2μ (U 0 − E ). Hence,


2
(1.05 × 10−34 J s)2 1 eV
U0 − E = = − 31 −9
= 6.05 × 10−21 J × = 0.038 eV
2mη 2
2(9.11 × 10 kg)(1.0 × 10 m) 2
1.6 × 10−19 J
The electron’s energy is 0.038 eV below U 0 .

40.12. Solve: According to Equation 40.41, the penetration depth is


1.05 × 10−34 J s
η= = = 2.28 × 10−12 m ≈ 2.3 pm
2 m( U 0 − E ) 2(4 × 1.661 × 10−27 kg)(1.0 eV × 1.60 × 10−19 J/eV)

Section 40.7 Wave-Function Shapes


40.13. Visualize:

Solve: There are three factors to consider. First, the de Broglie wavelength increases as the particle’s speed and
kinetic energy decreases. Thus, the spacing between the nodes of ψ (x) increases in regions where U is larger.
Second, a particle is more likely to be found where it is moving the slowest. Thus, the amplitude of ψ (x) increases
in regions where U is larger. Third, for . n = 6 there will be six antinodes to place.

40.14. Visualize:

Solve: There are three factors to consider. First, the de Broglie wavelength increases as the particle’s speed and
kinetic energy decreases. Thus, the spacing between the nodes of ψ (x) increases in regions where U is larger.
Second, a particle is more likely to be found where it is moving the slowest. Thus, the amplitude of ψ (x) increases
in regions where U is larger. Third, for n = 8 there will be eight antinodes to place.

© Copyright 2017 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. This material is protected under all copyright laws as they currently exist.
No portion of this material may be reproduced, in any form or by any means, without permission in writing from the publisher.
40-6 Chapter 40

40.15. Visualize:

The steps of Tactics Box 40.1 have been followed to sketch the wave functions shown in the figure.

40.16. Visualize:

Solve: (a) The energy diagram is shown above.


(b) There are three factors to consider. First, the de Broglie wavelength increases as the particle’s speed and kinetic
energy decreases. Thus, the spacing between the nodes of ψ (x) increases in regions where U is larger. Second, a
particle is more likely to be found where it is moving the slowest. Thus, the amplitude of ψ (x) increases in regions
where U is larger. Third, n = 3 has 3 antinodes and n = 6 has six antinodes.
Section 40.8 The Quantum Harmonic Oscillator
Section 40.9 More Quantum Models
40.17. Model: The electron is a quantum harmonic oscillator.
⎛ 1⎞ 1 3 5
Solve: (a) The energy levels of a harmonic oscillator are E = ⎜ n − ⎟ ω = ω, ω, ω ,… The classical
⎝ 2 ⎠ 2 2 2
angular frequency of a mass on a spring is
k 2.0 N/m
ω= = = 1.48 × 1015 rad/s
m 9.11 × 10−31 kg

⇒ ω = (1.05 × 10−34 J s)(1.48 × 1015 rad/s) = 1.56 × 10−19 J = 0.972 eV


The first three energy levels are E1 = 0.49 eV, E2 = 1.46 eV ≈ 2.5 eV, and E3 = 2.43 eV ≈ 2.4 eV.
(b) The photon energy equals the energy lost by the electron: Ephoton = Δ Eelec = E3 − E1 = 1.94 eV = 3.10 × 10−19 J.
The wavelength is
c hc (6.63 × 10−34 J s)(3.0 × 108 m/s)
λ= = = = 640 nm
f Δ Eelec 3.10 × 10−19 J

40.18. Model: The electron is a quantum harmonic oscillator. The given levels are adjacent levels.
Solve: Let the two adjacent levels be n and n + 1. From Equation 40.48,

(
En = n − 12 ) ω = 2.0 eV (
En +1 = n + 1 − 12 ) ω = 2.8 eV
2.0 eV 2.8 eV
⇒ = ⇒ 2.0n + 1.0 = 2.8 n − 1.4 ⇒ n = 3
n − 12 n + 12

© Copyright 2017 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. This material is protected under all copyright laws as they currently exist.
No portion of this material may be reproduced, in any form or by any means, without permission in writing from the publisher.
One-Dimensional Quantum Mechanics 40-7

(
Thus, E3 = 3 − 12 ) ω = 2.5 ω = 2.0 eV. Using Equation 40.43 for the angular frequency,

2 2
k ⎛ 2.0 eV ⎞ ⎡ (2.0 eV)(1.6 × 10−19 J/eV) ⎤
2.5 = 2.0 eV ⇒ k = m ⎜ ⎟ = (9.11 × 10−31 kg) ⎢ −34 ⎥ = 1.4 N/m
m ⎝ 2.5 ⎠ ⎣⎢ (2.5)(1.05 × 10 J s) ⎦⎥

40.19. Model: See Example 40.9.


Visualize: For a harmonic oscillator the energy difference between adjacent energy levels is Δ E = ωe . We also
know the emitted photon has energy Ephoton = hf photon = ΔE. Combine these to get ωe = 2 π λc .

Solve: We also recall that ωe = k


m
. Solve this for k and substitute for ωe .

2 2
⎛ c⎞ ⎛ 3.0 × 108 m/s ⎞
k = mωe2 = m ⎜ 2π ⎟ = (9.11 × 10−31 kg) ⎜ 2π ⎟ = 2.25 N/m
⎝ λ⎠ ⎜ −9 ⎟
⎝ 1200 × 10 m ⎠
Assess: This answer is one-fourth of the answer in Example 40.9, which makes sense. An electron would emit a
1200 nm photon in any n → n − 1 jump in this quantum harmonic oscillator, not just the 3 → 2 jump.

40.20. Model: The electron is a quantum harmonic oscillator.


Solve: Using Equation 40.48 for the energy levels of the electron, the energy of the photon absorbed in the 1 → 2
and 1 → 3 quantum jumps are
⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1⎞ hc
E2 − E1 = ⎜ 2 − ⎟ ωe − ⎜1 − ⎟ ωe = ωe = .
⎝ 2⎠ ⎝ 2⎠ λ21
⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1⎞ hc
E3 − E1 = ⎜ 3 − ⎟ ωe − ⎜ 1 − ⎟ ωe = 2 ωe =
⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ λ31
λ21 400 nm
⇒ λ31 = = = 200 nm
2 2

40.21. Model: The electron is a quantum harmonic oscillator.


Solve: The energy levels of the quantum harmonic oscillator are En = n − 12 ( ) ω. The longest wavelength of light
that can be absorbed is in a transition from level n to the next level n + 1. Thus
hc h k
Ephoton = hf = = ΔEelectron = En +1 − En = ω =
λ 2π m
m 9.11 × 10−31 kg
⇒ λ = 2π c = 2π (3.0 × 108 m/s) = 5.19 × 10−7 m = 519 nm
k 12.0 N/m

40.22. Solve: From Figure 40.24, we see that absorption due to the C = O bond is at λ = 5.8 μ m. The room-
temperature oscillating atoms spend most of their time in the n = 1 ground state, so the absorption occurs due to a 1 → 2
1 3
quantum jump. Because E1 = 2
ω and E2 = 2
ω,
hc
ΔE = E2 − E1 = ω = Ephoton = hf =
λ
(6.63 × 10−34 J s)(3.0 × 108 m/s) 1 eV
= −6
× = 0.214 eV
5.8 × 10 m 1.6 × 10−19 J
Thus the first three energy levels are
1 3 5
E1 = 2
ω = 0.107 eV E2 = 2
ω = 0.321 eV E3 = 2
ω = 0.535 eV

© Copyright 2017 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. This material is protected under all copyright laws as they currently exist.
No portion of this material may be reproduced, in any form or by any means, without permission in writing from the publisher.
40-8 Chapter 40

2
/2b 2
40.23. Solve: From Equations 40.45 and 40.46, ψ 1 (x) = A1e− x , with b 2 = h / mω and ω = k / m . This is a
solution to the Schrödinger equation if it’s true that
d 2ψ 1 2m ⎡ 1 ⎤
2
=− 2 ⎢
E − kx 2 ⎥ψ 1 (x)
dx ⎣ 2 ⎦
where we’ve used U (x ) = 12 kx 2 . This equality is a hypothesis to be tested. To do so, we need the second derivative of
ψ 1 (x):

dψ 1 (x ) A 2 2 d 2ψ 1 (x) A1 − x 2 /2b2 A1 2 − x 2 /2b 2 ⎛ 1 x2 ⎞


= − 21 xe − x /2b ⇒ = − e + x e = − ⎜ 2 − 4 ⎟ψ 1 (x)
dx dx 2 b2 b4 ⎜b b ⎟⎠
b ⎝
In the last step we used the definition of ψ 1 (x). Using the definition of b 2 and ω , this equation is

d 2ψ 1 (x ) ⎛ mω m 2ω 2 x 2 ⎞ ⎛ mω mkx 2 ⎞
dx 2
= 2⎜


− 2



ψ 1 ( x ) = − ⎜




2m
− 2 ⎟ψ 1 (x) = − 2 ( 1
2 )
ω − 12 kx 2 ψ 1(x)

Does this result for d 2ψ 1 (x )/ dx 2 equal −(2m / 2


( )
) E − 12 kx 2 ψ 1 (x), as required by the Schrödinger equation? We
can see by inspection that they are equal if E = 1 ω. But this is the correct ground-state energy for the quantum
2
harmonic oscillator. So we’ve shown that ψ 1 (x ) is a solution of the Schrödinger equation.
Section 40.10 Quantum-Mechanical Tunneling
40.24. Solve: (a) The probability of an electron tunneling through a barrier is

Ptunnel = e−2 w /η η=
2m(U 0 − E )
2
2m( U 0 − E )
⇒ ln Ptunnel = −2 w/η ⇒ [ln Ptunnel ]2 = 4w2 2
⇒ E = U0 − [ln Ptunnel ]2
8mw2
(1.05 × 10−34 J s)2 1 eV
⇒ E = 5.0 eV − [ln Ptunnel ]2
8(9.11 × 10−31 kg)(1.0 × 10−9 m) 2 (1.60 × 10−19 J)
= 5.0 eV − (0.009455 eV)[ln Ptunnel ]2
For Ptunnel = 0.10, E = 5.0 eV − 0.050 eV = 4.95 eV.
(b) For Ptunnel = 0.010, E = 5.0 eV − 0.20 eV = 4.80 eV.
(c) For Ptunnel = 0.0010, E = 5.0 eV − 0.45 eV = 4.55 eV.

40.25. Solve: Electrons are bound inside metals by an amount of energy called the work function E0 . This is the
energy that must be supplied to lift an electron out of the metal. In our case, E0 is the amount of energy (U 0 − E )
appearing in Equation 40.41 for the penetration distance. Thus,
(1.05 × 10−34 J s)
η= = = 9.72 × 10−11 m
2 m( U 0 − E ) 2(9.11 × 10 −31
kg)(4.0 eV × 1.60 × 10 −19
J/eV)
The probability that an electron will tunnel through a w = 4.54 nm gap (from a metal to an STM probe) is
−9
m)/(9.72 ×10−11 m)
Ptunnel = e−2 w /η = e−2(0.45×10 = 9.5 × 10−5 = 0.0095%

© Copyright 2017 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. This material is protected under all copyright laws as they currently exist.
No portion of this material may be reproduced, in any form or by any means, without permission in writing from the publisher.
One-Dimensional Quantum Mechanics 40-9

Problems

40.26. Solve: A function ψ (x) is a solution to the Schrödinger equation if


d 2ψ 2m
2
=− 2
[E − U (x)]ψ (x)
dx
Let ψ (x) = Aψ 1 (x) + Bψ 2 (x), where ψ 1(x) and ψ 2 (x) are both known to be solutions of the Schrödinger equation.
The second derivative of ψ (x) is

d 2ψ d2 d 2ψ 1 d 2ψ 2
= (Aψ 1(x ) + Bψ 2 (x)) = A +B
dx 2 dx 2
dx 2 dx 2
Since ψ 1(x) and ψ 2 (x ) are solutions, it must be the case that

d 2ψ 1 2m d 2ψ 2 2m
2
=− 2
[E − U (x)]ψ 1 (x) and 2
=− 2
[ E − U (x )]ψ 2 (x)
dx dx
Using these results, the second derivative of ψ (x ) becomes

d 2ψ d 2ψ 1 d 2ψ 2 ⎛ 2m ⎞ ⎛ 2m ⎞
2
=A 2
+B = A ⎜ − 2 [E − U (x)]ψ 1(x) ⎟ + B ⎜ − 2 [ E − U (x)]ψ 2 (x) ⎟
dx dx dx 2 ⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
2m
=− 2
[ E − U (x)](Aψ 1(x) + Bψ 2 (x))

2m
=− 2
[ E − U (x)]ψ (x)

Thus ψ (x) is a solution to the Schrödinger equation.

40.27. Model: Model the droplet as a particle in a one-dimensional rigid box of length L.
Solve: (a) The droplet’s mass is
m = ρ waterV = ρ water ( 4 π r3
3 ) = (1000 kg/m ) ( π ) (1.0 ×10
3 4
3
−6
m)3 = 4.2 × 10−15 kg

The droplet’s energy, which is entirely kinetic energy, is


E = K = 12 mv 2 = 12 (4.2 × 10−15 kg)(1.0 × 10−6 m/s)2 = 2.1 × 10−27 J

From Equation 40.22,

n2h2 8 mL2 E 8(4.2 × 10−15 kg)(20 μ m)2 (2.1 × 10−27 J)


En = ⇒n= = ≈ 2.5 × 108 = 250,000,000
8 mL2
h 2
(6.63 × 10−34 J s)2
(b) The correspondence principle says that the behavior of a system approaches the classical limit as the quantum
number n → ∞. Even for a droplet this small and slow, n is so large ( >> 1) that we can safely use classical physics
to describe its motion.

© Copyright 2017 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. This material is protected under all copyright laws as they currently exist.
No portion of this material may be reproduced, in any form or by any means, without permission in writing from the publisher.
40-10 Chapter 40

40.28. Model: Model the hydrogen atom as a one-dimensional Coulomb potential energy.
Solve:

40.29. Solve: (a) The energy levels of a particle in a rigid box are
⎛ h2 ⎞ (6.63 × 10−34 J s) 2 1 eV
En = n 2 ⎜ ⎟ = n2 × = (37.70 eV)n 2
⎜ 8mL2 ⎟ 8(9.11 × 10 −31
kg)(1.0 × 10 −10
m) 2
1.60 × 10 −19
J
⎝ ⎠
So, E1 = 37.7 eV, E2 = 4 E1 = 151 eV, E3 = 9 E1 = 339 eV, and E4 = 16 E1 = 603 eV.
(b) The emission spectrum will contain the following transitions λ2→1, λ3→1, λ3→ 2 , λ4→1, λ4→2 , and λ4→3. Since
En − Em = hc / λ n→ m ,

hc ⎛ 8mL2 ⎞ (3.0 × 108 m/s)(8)(9.11 × 10−31 kg)(1.0 × 10−10 m) 2 3.298 × 10−8 m


λn→m = ⎜ ⎟= =
(n − m ) ⎜⎝ h 2 ⎟⎠
2 2
(n 2 − m 2 )(6.63 × 10−34 J s) 2 n2 − m2
So, λ2→1 = 11.0 nm, λ3→1 = 4.12 nm, λ3→ 2 = 6.59 nm, λ4→1 = 2.20 nm, λ4→ 2 = 2.75 nm, and λ4→3 = 4.71 nm.
(c) All are in the ultraviolet range.
(d) Although the stationary states of this model have positive energies, unlike the Bohr atom that has negative
energies, both models have E1 < E2 < E3 < E4 . Thus, the transition energies, which involve differences of two energy
values, are not changed at all. All energy levels are relative to an arbitrary zero of energy so the difference is not
significant.
(e) The two models are similar in the sense that both lead to quantized energy levels. However, whereas the electron
in the Bohr model undergoes orbital motion around the nucleus, the electron in a rigid box undergoes translational
motion. The energy levels in the Bohr model get closer together as n increases, whereas the energy levels of the box
model get farther apart as n increases.

40.30. Model: Model the particle as a particle in a rigid one-dimensional box of length L.
Solve: (a) From Equation 40.22, the particle’s energies are
n2h2 h2 2 2 3h 2
En = ⇒ E2 − E1 = (2 − 1 ) =
8mL2 8mL2 8mL2
Since E2 − E1 = hf = hc / λ2→1, we have λ2→1 = 8mcL2 /3h.

© Copyright 2017 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. This material is protected under all copyright laws as they currently exist.
No portion of this material may be reproduced, in any form or by any means, without permission in writing from the publisher.
One-Dimensional Quantum Mechanics 40-11

(b) The length of the box is

3hλ2→1 3(6.63 × 10−34 J s)(694 × 10−9 m)


L= = = 0.795 nm
8mc 8(9.11 × 10−31 kg)(3.0 × 108 m/s)

40.31. Solve: From Equation 40.20, the wave functions for a particle in a box of length L are ψ n = An sin (nπ x /L).
The wave function is nonzero only for 0 ≤ x < L. The normalization requirement is
∞ 2 L ⎛ nπ x ⎞
∫−∞ ψ (x) dx = An2 ∫ sin 2 ⎜
0 ⎝ L ⎠
⎟ dx = 1

Change the variable to u = nπ x /L. Then, dx = (L / nπ )du. The integration limits become u = 0 at x = 0 and u = nπ
at x = L. The normalization integral, with the use of sin 2 u = ( 12 ) (1 − cos2u), becomes
L nπ L nπ 1 2 L ⎡1 nπ LAn2 2
1 = An2
nπ ∫0 sin 2 u du = An2 ∫
nπ 0 2
(1 − cos 2u ) du = An
nπ ⎣ 2
u − 1 sin 2u ⎤
4 ⎦0 =
2
⇒ An =
L

40.32. Model: Model the particle as being confined in a rigid one-dimensional box of length L.
Visualize:

Solve: (a) From Equation 40.22, the energy levels are En = n 2 h 2 /8 mL2 . Two adjacent energy levels have the energy ratio

En +1 (n + 1) 2 n +1 En +1 51.4 MeV 5
= ⇒ = = = 1.25 = ⇒ n = 4 and n + 1 = 5
En n2 n En 32.9 MeV 4

(b) We have En = n 2 E1, so E1 = 32.9 MeV/16 = 2.06 MeV. We can then find E2 = 8.2 MeV and E3 = 18.5 MeV.
(c) ψ 5 has five antinodes and is zero at x = 0 fm and x = L.
(d) The photon energy is Ephoton = hf = hc / λ = Δ Enm . Hence,

hc (4.14 × 10−15 eV s)(3.00 × 108 m/s)


λ= = = 6.71 × 10−5 nm
ΔE 51.4 × 106 eV − 32.9 × 106 eV

This is a factor 107 smaller than typical visible-light wavelengths.


(e) Using E4 = 32.9 MeV = 5.26 × 10−12 J,

42 h 2 2(6.63 × 10−34 J s) 2
m= = = 1.67 × 10−27 kg
8E4 L2 (5.26 × 10−12 J)(10 × 10−15 m) 2
This is either a proton or a neutron.

© Copyright 2017 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. This material is protected under all copyright laws as they currently exist.
No portion of this material may be reproduced, in any form or by any means, without permission in writing from the publisher.
40-12 Chapter 40

40.33. Model: Model the particle as being confined in a rigid one-dimensional box of length L.
Visualize:

2 2 2 2
Solve: (a) The probability density is ψ n (x) = (2/ L)sin 2 (nπ x / L). Graphs of ψ 1 (x) , ψ 2 (x) , and ψ 2 (x) are
shown above.
2
(b) The particle is most likely to be found at x where ψ (x) is a maximum. See table in part (d).
2
(c) The particle is least likely to be found at x where ψ (x) = 0. See table in part (d).
2
(d) The probability of finding the particle in the left one-third of the box is the area under the ψ (x) curve between
x = 0 and x = 13 L. From examining the graphs, we can determine whether this is more than, less than, or equal to
one-third of the total area. The results are shown in the table below.

n Most likely Least likely Probability in left one-third


1L < 13
1 2 0 and L
1 3 0, 1 L, and L > 1
2 4
L and 4
L 2 3
1 3 5 0, 1 L, 2 L, and L = 1
3 6
L, 6
L, and 6
L 3 3 3

(e) The probability of finding the particle in the range 0 ≤ x ≤ 13 L is

L /3 2 2 L /3 2 ⎛ nπ x ⎞
Prob(0 ≤ x ≤ 13 L) = ∫
L ∫0
ψ n (x) dx = sin ⎜ ⎟ dx
0 ⎝ L ⎠
Change the variable to u = nπ x /L. Then, dx = (L / nπ )du. The integration limits become u = 0 at x = 0 m and u = nπ /3
at x = 13 L. Then,

2 nπ /3 2 1 nπ /3 1 1 ⎛ 2nπ ⎞
Prob(0 ≤ x ≤ 13 L) =
nπ ∫0 sin 2 udu =

⎡ u − 1 sin 2u ⎤
⎣ 2 4 ⎦ 0
= −
3 2nπ
sin ⎜
⎝ 3 ⎠

The probability is 0.195 for n = 1, 0.402 for n = 2, and 0.333 for n = 3.


Assess: The results agree with the earlier estimates of the probability.

40.34. Model: The neutron is in a one-dimensional box of length L = 10 fm. Assume it is in the ground state n = 1.
Visualize:

Solve: The probability density for a particle in a rigid box is


2 2 ⎛ nπ x ⎞
Pn ( x) = ψ ( x ) = sin 2 ⎜ ⎟
L ⎝ L ⎠

© Copyright 2017 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. This material is protected under all copyright laws as they currently exist.
No portion of this material may be reproduced, in any form or by any means, without permission in writing from the publisher.
One-Dimensional Quantum Mechanics 40-13

We integrate this from 0 fm to 2 fm to find the probability it is within 2 fm of the left side and double the result since
it could be within 2 fm of the right side.
2 fm 2 fm 2 fm
2 2 ⎛ 1π x ⎞ 4 2⎛πx ⎞ 4 ⎡ x sin(2π x / L) ⎤
P=2 ∫ L sin ⎜⎝ L ⎟⎠ dx = L ∫ sin ⎜⎝ L ⎟⎠ dx = L ⎣⎢ 2 − 4π /L ⎦⎥ 0 fm
0 fm 0 fm
2 fm
⎡ 2 x sin(2π x / L) ⎤ ⎡ 4 fm sin(2π (2 fm)/10 fm) ⎤
=⎢ − ⎥ =⎢ − ⎥ − [0] = 0.977 = 9.7%
⎣L π ⎦ 0 fm ⎣ 10 fm π ⎦
Assess: With the probability density peaking in the middle, it is reasonable that there is only about 10% of finding
the neutron within 2 fm of the edge.

40.35. Solve: Finding the electron in the GaAlAs is equivalent to finding the electron in the classically forbidden
2
region outside the GaAs potential well. The probability of this is the area under the ψ (x) curve that is outside the
potential well. Simply by inspecting the graph, we can estimate that it is ≈ 10% of the total area. So, the probability
that the electron will be in one of the GaAlAs layers is ≈ 10%.

40.36. Model: The wave function decreases exponentially in the classically forbidden region.
2
Solve: The probability of finding a particle in the small interval δ x at position x is Prob(in δ x at x) = ψ (x) δ x.
Thus the ratio
2 2
Prob(in δ x at x = L + η ) ψ (L + η ) δ x ψ (L + η )
= 2
= 2
Prob(in δ x at x = L) ψ (L) δ x ψ (L)
The wave function in the classically forbidden region x ≥ L is
ψ (x) = ψ edgee−(x − L )/η
At the edge of the forbidden region, at x = L, ψ (L) = ψ edge . At x = L + η , ψ (L + η ) = ψ edgee −1. Thus
2
Prob(in δ x at x = L + η ) ψ (L + η ) (ψ edgee−1 ) 2
= 2
= 2
= e−2 = 0.135
Prob(in δ x at x = L) ψ ( L) ( ψ edge )

40.37. Model: The electron is in the finite potential well whose energies and wave functions are shown in Figure 40.14a.
Solve: (a) From Equations 40.40 and 40.41, the wave function as it penetrates into a barrier (with edge at x = L) is
ψ (x) = ψ edgee−(x − L )/η , where η is the penetration distance. The ratio of the probability densities at x = d + L and
x = L is
2
P (d + L) ψ (d + L)
2
ψ edge e−2 d /η
= 2
= 2 0
= e −2 d / η
P (L) ψ (L) ψ edge e
To have energy − 2.7 eV compared to a free electron means that an electron in the sodium metal is bound inside the
metal by U 0 − E = 2.7 eV, where U 0 is the potential energy “barrier” of the surface of the metal. The penetration
distance of the electron is
1.05 × 10−34 J s
η= = = 1.184 × 10−10 m = 0.1184 nm
2 m( U 0 − E ) 2(9.11 × 10 −31
kg)(2.7 eV × 1.60 × 10 −19
J/eV)
If L is the position of the surface, the distance d beyond the surface where the probability is 10% is found as follows:
P (d + L)
= e−2d /η = 10% = 0.10 ⇒ d = − 12 η ln 0.1 = 0.136 nm
P (L)
(b) A typical atomic diameter is ≈ 2 aB ≈ 0.1 nm. So, the penetration of an electron beyond the surface is roughly one
atomic diameter.

© Copyright 2017 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. This material is protected under all copyright laws as they currently exist.
No portion of this material may be reproduced, in any form or by any means, without permission in writing from the publisher.
40-14 Chapter 40

40.38. Solve: (a) From Equation 40.46, b = / mω . The units of b are

J×s kg × m 2 s 2
= =m
kg × s −1 s2 kg

(b) The classical turning point is the point where U = E and K = 0 J. Since U = 12 kx 2 and E = E1 = 1
2
ω , the
classical turning point for an oscillator in the n = 1 state is
1 2 1 ω ω
kxtp = ω ⇒ xtp = ± =± =± = ±b
2 2 k ω 2m ωm

2
/2b 2
40.39. Solve: (a) The ground-state wave function of the quantum harmonic oscillator is ψ 1(x) = A1e− x .
Normalization requires
∞ 2 ∞ 2
/2b 2
∫−∞ ψ 1(x) dx = A12 ∫ e− x dx = 1
−∞

Change the variable to u = x /b. Then, dx = bdu. The integration limits don’t change, so
∞ 2
1 = bA12 ∫ e −u du
−∞

The definite integral can be looked up in a table of integrals. The result is π . Hence,
1
1 = bA12 π = A12 π b 2 ⇒ A1 =
(π b 2 )1/4
2
(b) The forbidden region is both x < −b and x > b. ψ 1 (x) is symmetrical about x = 0 m, so
∞ 2 2 ∞ − x 2 /b2
Prob(x < −b or x > b) = (2)Prob(x > b) = 2∫ ψ 1 (x) dx = ∫ e dx
b 2 b
πb
(c) The integral of part (b) cannot be evaluated in closed form, but the answer can be found with a numerical
integration. First, change the variable to u = x / b, making dx = bdu. But unlike the variable change in part (c), this
does change the lower limit of integration. Thus,
2 ∞ 2 2 ∞ −u 2
b ∫ e−u du =
π ∫1
Prob(x < −b or x > b) = e du
1
π b2
The definite integral can be evaluated numerically with a calculator or computer, giving
∞ −u 2
∫1 e du = 0.139

− 12
The probability of finding the harmonic oscillator in the forbidden region is 2(π ) (0.139) = 0.157 = 15.7%.

40.40. Solve: (a) The classical probability density of finding the oscillator of mass m at position x is given by
Equation 40.32:
2 1 2 ω
Pclass (x) = = =
Tv(x) 2π / ω v(x) π v(x)
where v(x) is the velocity as a function of x, and T is the period of oscillation. From Chapter 15, the energy of a
harmonic oscillator is

E = 12 kA2 = 12 mω 2 A2 = 12 mv 2 + 12 kx 2 = 12 mv 2 + 12 mω 2 x 2 ⇒ v(x) = ω 2 A2 − ω 2 x 2 = ω A2 − x 2
ω 1
⇒ Pclass (x) = =
2 2
πω A − x π A2 − x 2

© Copyright 2017 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. This material is protected under all copyright laws as they currently exist.
No portion of this material may be reproduced, in any form or by any means, without permission in writing from the publisher.
One-Dimensional Quantum Mechanics 40-15

(b)

(c) The oscillator is most likely to be found near the turning points at x = ± A. This is because v → 0 m/s at A and
the oscillator spends more time at these points. For the same reason, the oscillator spends the least amount of time
around x = 0 m and thus the probability density is the least in the center.

40.41. Model: The collisions with the ground are perfectly elastic.
Solve: (a) The classical probability density at position y of finding a ball that bounces between the ground and
height h is given by Equation 40.32:
2
Pclass ( y ) =
Tv( y )
where v( y) is the ball’s velocity as a function of y and T is the period of oscillation. For a freely falling object, energy
conservation gives
mgh = 12 mv 2 + mgy ⇒ v( y ) = 2 g (h − y )

The time t = 12 T to reach a height h after a collision with the ground can be found from kinematics:

2h
Δ y = h = 12 gt 2 ⇒ t =
g
2 1 g 1 1 ⎛ 1 ⎞ 1
⇒ Pclass ( y ) = = = =⎜ ⎟
2 2h / g 2 g (h − y ) 2h 2 g ( h − y ) 2 h h − y ⎝ 2h ⎠ 1 − ( y / h)
(b)

© Copyright 2017 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. This material is protected under all copyright laws as they currently exist.
No portion of this material may be reproduced, in any form or by any means, without permission in writing from the publisher.
40-16 Chapter 40

(c) The ball is most likely to be found near the upper turning point at y = h. This is because v → 0 m/s at y = h so
the ball spends more time at this point. For the same reason, the ball spends the least time near the ground, where it is
moving fastest, and thus the probability density is the least at y = 0 m.

40.42. Visualize:

2
/a 2
Solve: (a) A graph of ψ (x) = Axe− x is shown in the figure. Values of ψ (x) at some selected values of x are in
the table below.

x/a 0 ±0.25 ±0.50 ±0.75 ±1.0 ±1.50 ±2.0 ±2.5


ψ(x)/(aA) 0 ±.235 ±0.389 ±0.427 ±0.368 ±0.158 ±0.037 ±0.005

2
(b) The particle is most likely to be found at the place or places where ψ (x) is a maximum. This condition is

d 2 d 2 2 ⎡ 2 2 4 x3 2 2 ⎤ a
ψ (x) = (A2 x 2e−2 x /a ) = 0 ⇒ A2 ⎢ 2 xe−2 x /a − 2 e−2 x /a ⎥ = 0 ⇒ x = ±
dx dx ⎢⎣ a ⎥⎦ 2

The particle will most likely be found at x = ± a / 2.


(c) The Schrödinger equation is
d 2ψ 2m 2m
2
=− 2
[ E − U (x )]ψ (x) = 2
[U (x ) − E ]ψ (x )
dx
2
d 2ψ / dx 2
⇒ U (x) = E +
2m ψ (x )
where ψ (x) is the wave function for a particle with energy E. E = 0 for the given wave function, so
2
d 2ψ / dx 2
U (x ) =
2m ψ ( x)
The first derivative of ψ (x) is

dψ d 2 2 ⎛ 2x2 ⎞ 2 2
= (Axe − x /a ) = A ⎜1 − 2 ⎟ e− x /a
dx dx ⎜ a ⎟⎠

The second derivative takes a bit of algebra to simplify, but it becomes

d ⎛ ⎛ 2 x 2 ⎞ − x 2 /a 2 ⎞ 4 A ⎛ x 2 3 ⎞ − x 2 /a 2 4 ⎛⎛ x ⎞ 3⎞
2
d 2ψ
= ⎜ A ⎜1 − 2 ⎟ e ⎟ = 2 ⎜ 2 − ⎟ xe = 2 ⎜ ⎜ ⎟ − ⎟ψ (x)
dx 2 dx ⎜ ⎝ ⎜ a ⎠⎟ ⎟ a a ⎜ 2⎠⎟ a ⎜⎝ ⎝ a ⎠ 2⎟
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠

© Copyright 2017 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. This material is protected under all copyright laws as they currently exist.
No portion of this material may be reproduced, in any form or by any means, without permission in writing from the publisher.
One-Dimensional Quantum Mechanics 40-17

Thus the potential energy is

4 ⎛⎛ x ⎞ 3 ⎞ 2 2 ⎛⎛ x ⎞ 3⎞
2 2 2
d 2ψ / dx 2 2
U (x ) = = × 2 ⎜⎜ ⎟ − ⎟ = ⎜⎜ ⎟ − ⎟
2m ψ ( x ) 2m a ⎜ ⎝ a ⎠ 2 ⎟ ma 2 ⎜ ⎝ a ⎠ 2⎟
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
2
This is a harmonic oscillator potential energy that has been shifted downward, starting at U (0) = − 3 / ma 2 instead
of at 0. The potential energy is zero at (x / a ) = (3/2)1/2 = 1.22. A graph of the potential energy is shown above.

40.43. Model: We model the situation as a finite square well as shown in Figure 42.9.
Visualize: As shown in Figure 42.9, the potential well has a depth of about 50 MeV, but the neutron in this problem is
only 20 MeV below the top of the potential well; that is, U 0 − E = 0 MeV − (−20 MeV) = 20 MeV = 3.2 × 10−12 J.
We look up the mass of a neutron: m = 1.67 × 10−27 kg.
Solve: The penetration distance is given in Equation 40.41

1.05 × 10−34 J ⋅ s
η= = = 1.0 fm
2 m( U 0 − E ) 2(1.67 × 10−27 kg)(3.2 × 10−12 J)

This is 1/4 of the nuclear radius.


Assess: This shows that a nucleus is fairly fuzzy since the penetration distance is 1/4 of the radius.

40.44. Solve: Electrons are bound inside metals by an amount of energy called the work function E0 . This is the
energy that must be supplied to lift an electron out of the metal. In this case, the expression U 0 − E that appears in
Equation 40.41 is E0 . Thus, the penetration distance is

1.05 × 10−34 J s
η= = = 9.38 × 10−11 m
2m(U 0 − E ) 2(9 . 11 × 10231 kg)(4 . 3 eV)(1.6 × 10−19 J/eV)
From Equation 40.53, the probability that an electron will tunnel between the two aluminum pieces is
−9
m)/(9.38×10−11 m)
Ptunnel = e−2 w /η = e−2(50×10 = e−1066 = e−463 ≈ 0

40.45. Solve: From Equation 40.41, the penetration distance is


(1.05 × 10−34 J s)
η= = = 4.54 × 10−15 m
2 m( U 0 − E ) 2(1.67 × 10 −27 6
kg)(1.0 × 10 eV)(1.60 × 10 −19
J/eV)
The probability the proton will tunnel through the barrier is
− 15
m)/(4.54×10−15 m)
Ptunnel = e−2 w /η = e−2(10×10 = 0.012 = 1.2%

Challenge Problems

40.46. Model: The nucleus can be modeled as a potential well.


Visualize:

© Copyright 2017 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. This material is protected under all copyright laws as they currently exist.
No portion of this material may be reproduced, in any form or by any means, without permission in writing from the publisher.
40-18 Chapter 40

Solve: The gamma ray wavelength λ = 1.73× 10−4 nm corresponds to a photon energy of
Ephoton = hc / λ = 7.2 MeV. From Figure 40.17, we can see that a photon of this energy is emitted in a transition from
the n = 2 to n = 1 energy level. This can happen after a proton-nucleus collision if the proton’s impact excites the
nucleus from the n = 1 ground state to the n = 2 excited state. To cause such an excitation, the proton’s kinetic
energy at the instant of impact must be K ≥ 7.2 MeV. Let v1 be the proton’s initial speed at the distance r1 ≈ ∞. If
v1 is the minimum speed that can excite the n = 2 state in the nucleus, then the proton has K 2 = 7.2 MeV at the
distance r2 equal to the radius of nucleus (4 fm). Its potential energy at this point is the electrostatic potential energy
between the proton of charge +e and the nucleus of charge +Ze, with Z = 13. The conservation of energy equation
K1 + U1 = K 2 + U 2 is

1 mv 2 Ze2
2 1 + 0 J = K2 +
4πε 0r

2⎛ Ze2 ⎞ 2 ⎛ ⎛ 1.60 × 10−19 J ⎞ (9.0 × 109 Nm 2 /C2 )13(1.6 × 10−19 C)2 ⎞


⇒ v1 = ⎜ K2 + ⎟= ⎜ (7.2 MeV) ⎜ ⎟+ ⎟
m ⎜⎝ 4πε 0r ⎟⎠ 1.67 × 10 − 27
kg ⎜⎝ ⎜
⎝ 1 eV ⎟
⎠ 4.0 × 10−15 m ⎟

= 4.77 × 107 m/s

This is the minimum speed, so any v1 ≥ 4.77 × 107 m/s can cause the emission of a gamma ray.

40.47. Model: Ions in the crystal lattice behave like simple harmonic oscillators.
Solve: (a) Suppose the middle charge is displaced slightly (x << b) to the right from its equilibrium position. The net
force on the middle charge due to the two adjacent charges is
−2 −2
1 e2 1 e2 e2 ⎛ x⎞ ˆ e2 ⎛ x⎞ ˆ
Fnet = 2
iˆ − 2
iˆ = ⎜ 1 + ⎟ i − ⎜1 − ⎟ i
4πε 0 (b + x) 4πε 0 (b − x) 4πε 0b 2 ⎝ b ⎠ 4πε 0b 2 ⎝ b ⎠
Using the binomial approximation,
e2 ⎡⎛ 2 x ⎞ ⎛ 2 x ⎞ ⎤ ˆ e2 ⎛ −4 x ⎞ ˆ ⎛ e2 ⎞
Fnet = ⎢⎜ 1 − ⎟ − ⎜1 + ⎟ ⎥i = ⎜ ⎟ i =−⎜ 3 x ⎟ iˆ
4πε 0b ⎣⎝2 b ⎠ ⎝ b ⎠⎦ 2
4πε 0b ⎝ b ⎠ ⎜ b πε ⎟
⎝ 0 ⎠
(b) The force in part (a) is a linear restoring force of the form F = − kx. This is Hooke’s law with, in this case,
“spring constant” k = e 2 / b3πε 0 . The potential energy of Hooke’s law is

1 2 e2
U= kx = 3 x2
2 2b πε 0
Thus the angular frequency of vibration is

k e2 1 4e2 (4)(9.0 × 109 N m 2 /C2 )(1.6 × 10−19 C) 2


ω= = = = = 2.76 × 1013 s −1
m πε 0b3m 4πε 0 b3m (0.30 × 10−9 m)3 (27 × 1.66 × 10−27 kg)
The ground-state energy is
1 eV
E1 = 1 ω = 12 (1.05 × 10−34 J s)(2.76 × 1013 s −1 ) × = 0.0091 eV
2
1.60 × 10−19 J
3 5 7
Likewise, E2 = 2
ω = 0.0272 eV, E3 = 2
ω = 0.0453 eV, and E4 = 2
ω = 0.0634 eV.
(c) ∆E between two adjacent levels from part (b) is E2 − E1 = E3 − E2 = E4 − E3 = 0.0181 eV. The wavelength of a
photon with this energy is
hc (6.63 × 10−34 J s)(3.0 × 108 m/s)
λ= = = 69 μ m
ΔE 0.0181 eV × 1.60 × 10−19 J/eV
The wavelength is in the far infrared region.

© Copyright 2017 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. This material is protected under all copyright laws as they currently exist.
No portion of this material may be reproduced, in any form or by any means, without permission in writing from the publisher.
One-Dimensional Quantum Mechanics 40-19

40.48. Visualize:

Solve: (a) The work function E0 = 4.0 eV is the energy barrier U 0 − E that an electron must either go over
(photoelectric effect) or tunnel through. From Equation 40.40, the electron’s penetration distance is
1.05 × 10−34 J s
η= = = 9.72 × 10−11 m = 0.0972 nm
2m(U 0 − E ) 2(9.11 × 10 −31
kg)(4.0 eV × 1.6 × 10 −19
J/eV)
The tunneling probability through the barrier is
Ptunnel = e−2 w /η = e−2(0.50 nm)/(0.0972 nm) = 3.4 × 10−5
(b) In passing over an atom 0.05 nm high, the barrier width decreases to w = 0.45 nm. This changes the tunneling
probability to
Ptunnel = e −2 w /η = e −2(0.45 nm)/(0.0972 nm) = 9.52 × 10−5
The tunneling probability increases by a factor of 2.8 compared to part (a). If we assume that the tunneling current is
proportional to the tunneling probability, then the current increases by a factor of 2.8, or 280%, as the probe passes
over an atom. This is a huge change!
(c) Detecting a 10% change means detecting a change in the tunneling probability from 3.4 × 10−5 to
Ptunnel = 1.10 × 3.40 × 10−5 = 3.74 × 10−5
(Note that we’re changing Ptunnel by 10%, not looking for a Ptunnel of 10%.) The barrier width that gives this
probability is
Ptunnel = 3.74 × 10−5 = e−2 w /η
⇒ w = − 12 η ln (3.74 × 10−5 ) = − 12 (0.0972 nm)ln (3.74 × 10−5 ) = 0.495 nm

This is a change in w of 0.005 nm from its original value of 0.500 nm. So the STM can detect height changes of
1 of an atomic diameter.
0.005 nm, or ≈ 20

40.49. Visualize:

Solve: If a vmax = 200 mph ball is just sufficient to break the strings, then
2
U 0 = 12 mvmax = 12 (0.100 kg)(89 m/s)2 = 396 J

© Copyright 2017 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. This material is protected under all copyright laws as they currently exist.
No portion of this material may be reproduced, in any form or by any means, without permission in writing from the publisher.
40-20 Chapter 40

where we converted vmax = 200 mph = 89 m/s. A tennis ball with v = 120 mph = 54 m/s has kinetic energy
E = K = 146 J. From Equation 40.40, the penetration distance is

1.05 × 10−34 J s
η= = = 1.485 × 10−35 m
2m(U 0 − E ) 2(0.100 kg)(396 J − 146 J)
From Equation 40.53, the tunneling probability is
−35 32
Ptunnel = e−2 w/η = e−2(0.002 m)/(1.485×10 m)
= e−2.69×10
We can’t evaluate this number directly with a calculator. To express the result as a power of 10, take the base-10
logarithm:
32
log (Ptunnel ) = −2.69 × 1032 log (e) = −1.17 × 1032 ⇒ Ptunnel = 10log (Ptunnel ) = 10−1.17×10
It seems rather unlikely.

© Copyright 2017 Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. This material is protected under all copyright laws as they currently exist.
No portion of this material may be reproduced, in any form or by any means, without permission in writing from the publisher.

You might also like