TEST EDITION

Anatomy and
Physiology
BSN 2ND Semester
B

One
Thousand
MCQS
K
Book
Scenario,Conceptual
and Past papers MCQS

Tufail A.
BSN Batch 22-26
GINAHS D.I.khan
KHYBER MEDICAL UNIVERISTY
PREFACE
I am honored to introduce "Anatomy and Physiology MCQS for BS Nursing 2nd Semester."
This book has been created with a singular goal in mind: to support nursing students on their
educational journey by providing a comprehensive and easily accessible resource of
multiple-choice questions MCQS tailored to the KMU paper pattern.

As a nursing student, you're well aware of the challenges and complexities of the human
body's structure and function. This book is designed to assist you in mastering the key
concepts and principles of anatomy and physiology. Our carefully curated MCQS cover all
the relevant chapters, ensuring that you have a solid grasp of the subject matter.

This book contain Chapter-wise MCQS, Conceptual MCQS, Past Papers MCQS and
Scenario-based MCQS which helps you a lot in preparation for the terminal examination.

We understand the financial constraints many students face, and that's why we're providing
this book free of cost. Our aim is to empower you with a valuable resource that can
significantly contribute to your academic success.

By thoroughly studying the MCQs in this book, we believe you'll not only excel in your
exams but also gain a deeper understanding of the intricate world of anatomy and physiology.
We hope this book serves as a valuable companion throughout your academic journey.

Your dedication and hard work, combined with the resources we offer, will undoubtedly
lead to success. Best of luck in your studies and future nursing career!
"Copyright © TA SERIES 2023 . All rights reserved.

This book contains proprietary multiple-choice questions (MCQs) created by Tufail A. . Any
reproduction, distribution, or sale of these MCQs without express written permission from
the author is strictly prohibited and may result in legal action.

Readers are permitted to use these MCQs for personal study and educational purposes only.
Any commercial use or unauthorized distribution is prohibited.

Legal action may be taken against individuals or entities found in violation of this copyright
notice.This Mcqs book is protected under Pakistan's Copyright Ordinance, 1962 [XXXIV of
1962]

For permissions or inquiries,contact EMAIL [email protected]. or WATSAPP NO

0305 5959410
Author ;
Tufail A.
BSN 22-26
GINAHS
D.I.Khan
Founder of TA SERIES
 C0NTENTS
S.NO CHAPTER PAGE NO
01 Respiratory System 1
02 Urinary System 7
03 Nervous System 14
04 Special Senses 27
05 Endrocrine System 32
06 Reproductive System 38
07 Scenario Based 45
08 Self Assessment 53

NOTE:
This is TEST EDITION maybe answers of some MCQS is wrong or confusion
in statement of MCQS. If you found any MCQS wrong and or confusion in
statement report it Whatsapp no 0305 5959410 and we will correct it final
edition
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

UNIT 1 Respiratory System

MCQ 1: Which part of the respiratory system is responsible for the MCQ 11: Which bone contributes to the formation of the posterior
exchange of gases between the lungs and the blood? bony part of the nasal septum, along with the perpendicular plate of
A. Pulmonary ventilation the ethmoid bone?
B. Internal respiration A. Vomer
C. External respiration B. Maxilla
D. Olfaction C. Hyaline cartilage
D. Sphenoid bone
MCQ 2: Among the non-respiratory functions of the respiratory
system, which one involves leukocytes, NK cells, macrophages, and MCQ 12: What is the primary function of the paranasal sinuses in
mast cells? relation to the nasal cavity?
A. Air filtration A. Sound amplification
B. Regulation of pH B. Temperature regulation
C. Maintenance of water C. Lightening the skull
D. Defense mechanism D. Air filtration

MCQ 3: The hard and soft palate contribute to which part of the MCQ 13: In addition to warming the inhaled air, the immense
respiratory tract? vascularity of the nasal mucosa is also responsible for what other
A. Lower respiratory tract significant function?
B. Upper respiratory tract A. Olfactory detection
C. Alveoli B. Sound production
D. Vocalization C. Blood clotting
D. Oxygen transportation
MCQ 4: What is the primary purpose of ciliated columnar
epithelium in the nasal cavity? MCQ 14: What specific location in the nasal cavity is responsible for
A. Air filtration filtering smaller particles such as dust and microbes from inhaled air?
B. Olfaction A. Conchae (turbinates)
C. Humidification B. Olfactory receptors
D. Protection and cleansing C. Inferior conchae
D. Pharyngeal tonsils
MCQ 5: Which bone forms the posterior septum of the nose,
separating the nasal cavity into two equal passages? MCQ 15: The cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone and superior
A. Ethmoid bone conchae play a crucial role in what sensory function of the nose?
B. Vomer bone A. Touch perception
C. Maxillary bone B. Taste sensation
D. Hyaline cartilage C. Smell detection
D. Temperature regulation
MCQ 6: What is the primary purpose of the upper respiratory tract
in the respiratory system? MCQ 16: Which type of tissue lines the nasal cavity, containing
A. Gas exchange ciliated cells and goblet cells?
B. Olfaction A. Stratified squamous epithelium
C. Vocalization B. Simple cuboidal epithelium
D. Air filtration C. Vascular ciliated columnar epithelium
D. Pseudostratified squamous epithelium
MCQ 7: Which non-respiratory function of the respiratory system
involves leukocytes, NK cells, and defensins? MCQ 17: What is the primary function of the projecting conchae in
A. Regulation of body temperature the nasal cavity?
B. Maintenance of water A. Enhancing olfaction
C. Defense mechanism B. Increasing surface area and causing turbulence
D. Secretion of ACE C. Facilitating vocalization
D. Protecting the nasal septum
MCQ 8: Which part of the respiratory system is responsible for the
regulation of oxygen and carbon dioxide in blood and tissues? MCQ 18: Which of the following sinuses are involved in speech and
A. Pulmonary ventilation play a role in lightening the skull?
B. External respiration A. Maxillary sinuses
C. Internal respiration B. Nasolacrimal sinuses
D. Olfaction C. Ethmoidal sinuses
D. Pharyngeal sinuses
MCQ 9: The division of the respiratory tract into upper and lower
regions places the trachea in which category? MCQ 19: Where are the nerve endings responsible for the sense of
A. Upper Respiratory Tract (URT) smell located in the nasal cavity?
B. Lower Respiratory Tract (LRT) A. Oropharynx
C. Alveoli B. Ethmoidal sinuses
D. Vocalization C. Laryngopharynx
D. Roof of the nasal cavity
MCQ 10: What is the primary function of ciliated columnar
epithelium in the nasal cavity? MCQ 20: What is the primary function of the epiglottis in the
A. Humidification larynx?
B. Air filtration A. Production of sound
C. Protection and cleansing B. Preventing food and drink from entering the airway
D. Olfaction C. Increasing air turbulence during respiration
D. Regulation of laryngeal temperature

1 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

MCQ 21: What is the length of the pharynx, extending from the C. Blood circulation
base of the skull to the level of the 6th cervical vertebra? D. Carbon dioxide elimination
A. 5 to 7 cm
B. 8 to 10 cm MCQ 32: The cartilages of the trachea have a unique C-shaped
C. 12 to 14 cm structure. What is the purpose of this C-shaped arrangement?
D. 16 to 18 cm A. To allow for expansion and contraction during breathing
B. To provide protection for the tracheal lining
MCQ 22: Which part of the pharynx lies behind the nose, contains C. To make the trachea more flexible
openings of the auditory tubes, and houses the pharyngeal tonsils? D. To increase the surface area for gas exchange
A. Oropharynx
B. Nasopharynx MCQ 33: Which of the following is NOT a function of the trachea?
C. Laryngopharynx A. Sound production
D. Epipharynx B. Warming and humidifying inhaled air
C. Clearing mucus and particles
MCQ 23: What is the primary function of the constrictor muscles in D. Providing support and patency
the pharynx?
A. Respiration MCQ 34: What nerve endings are sensitive to irritation and trigger
B. Speech production the cough reflex in the trachea?
C. Swallowing (deglutition) A. Motor neurons
D. Protection against microorganisms B. Olfactory nerve endings
C. Phrenic nerves
MCQ 24: What type of tissue makes up the intermediate layer of D. Sensory neurons
the pharynx?
A. Ciliated columnar epithelium MCQ 35: What is the primary function of the fibroelastic epiglottis
B. Stratified squamous epithelium in the larynx?
C. Fibrous tissue A. Production of sound
D. Elastic tissue B. Warm and humidify inhaled air
C. Protection during swallowing
MCQ 25: What is the primary role of the auditory tube that extends D. Filtering inhaled air
from the nasal part of the pharynx to each middle ear?
A. Taste sensation MCQ 36: Which of the following accurately describes the role of
B. Hearing the vestibular folds of the larynx during swallowing?
C. Warm and humidify inhaled air A. They push the epiglottis downward.
D. Speech production B. They direct food and drink into the airway.
C. They elevate the pharynx to receive food and drink.
MCQ 26: What is the primary function of the arytenoid cartilages in D. They keep food and drink out of the airway.
the larynx?
A. Protection of the vocal cords MCQ 37: Among the laryngeal cartilages, which one is considered
B. Production of sound the most crucial in influencing the position and tension of the vocal
C. Humidifying inhaled air folds?
D. Articulation with the epiglottis A. Thyroid cartilage
B. Cuneiform cartilage
MCQ 27: Which artery primarily supplies blood to the trachea? C. Corniculate cartilage
A. Superior thyroid artery D. Arytenoid cartilage
B. Pulmonary artery
C. Aorta MCQ 38: The paired corniculate cartilages are described as
D. Inferior vena cava horn-shaped pieces of elastic cartilage. Where are they located?
A. At the apex of each arytenoid cartilage
MCQ 28: What is the primary motor response of the cough reflex B. Anteriorly to the cuneiform cartilages
in the trachea? C. Within the laryngeal prominence
A. Deep inspiration D. Posterosuperior border of the cricoid cartilage
B. Cilia beating
C. Constriction of the glottis MCQ 39: Which laryngeal cartilage is often referred to as the
D. Relaxation of abdominal muscles "Adam's apple" and tends to be larger in males due to testosterone?
A. Cricoid cartilage
MCQ 29: In which layer of tissue in the trachea are the cartilages B. Epiglottis
and bands of smooth muscle found? C. Thyroid cartilage
A. Outer layer D. Corniculate cartilage
B. Middle layer
C. Inner lining MCQ 40: What is the primary function of the cuneiform cartilages
D. Submucosal layer located in the larynx?
A. Supporting the epiglottis
MCQ 30: What is the significance of the V-shaped notch on the B. Influencing vocal cord tension
thyroid cartilage? C. Closing off the glottis
A. It anchors the epiglottis. D. Aiding in laryngeal prominence
B. It forms the vocal cords.
C. It provides attachment for the superior cornu. MCQ 41: Which region of the lung is primarily responsible for
D. It helps identify the thyroid cartilage. warming and humidifying inhaled air?
A. Alveoli
MCQ 31: The trachea serves as a passageway for which of the B. Terminal bronchioles
following? C. Respiratory bronchioles
A. Food and air D. Alveolar ducts
B. Oxygen only

2 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

MCQ 42: During pulmonary blood gas exchange, where does most B. Contraction of diaphragm
of the oxygen bind within the blood? C. Elastic fibers in alveolar walls
A. Plasma D. Volume of pleural fluid
B. Hemoglobin
C. Red blood cell cytoplasm MCQ 53: During a high-altitude expedition, which of the following
D. Platelets changes primarily contributes to the decreased oxygen uptake by the
body?
MCQ 43: How does the pulmonary capillary network adapt to A. Reduced atmospheric pressure
differences in blood flow during exercise compared to rest? B. Increased alveolar ventilation
A. Capillaries constrict during exercise to improve oxygen uptake. C. Enhanced oxygen diffusion across alveolar membranes
B. Capillaries dilate during exercise to improve oxygen release. D. Improved oxygen-hemoglobin binding
C. Capillaries remain unchanged during exercise.
D. The number of capillaries decreases during exercise. MCQ 54: Which pulmonary disorder is characterized by
inflammation and fibrosis of the lung tissue, leading to restricted lung
MCQ 44: Which lung function allows for rapid alveolar inflation to compliance?
facilitate efficient gas exchange? A. Sarcoidosis
A. Elastic recoil B. Tuberculosis
B. Compliance C. Lung cancer
C. Alveolar surface area D. Pulmonary embolism
D. Pulmonary surfactant
MCQ 55: What is the primary function of type II alveolar cells in the
MCQ 45: In the context of alveolar gas exchange, how does an lungs?
increase in pulmonary blood flow affect gas diffusion? A. Gas exchange
A. Increases the efficiency of oxygen diffusion B. Producing mucus
B. Decreases the efficiency of carbon dioxide diffusion C. Secreting surfactant
C. Decreases the efficiency of oxygen diffusion D. Initiating the cough reflex
D. Has no significant effect on gas diffusion
MCQ 56: In the context of pulmonary circulation, what is the
MCQ 46: Which respiratory parameter is most significantly affected primary purpose of the bronchial circulation?
in restrictive lung diseases? A. Oxygenating alveolar tissue
A. Vital capacity B. Transporting nutrients to alveolar cells
B. Total lung capacity C. Removing carbon dioxide from alveolar tissue
C. Forced expiratory volume D. Cooling the lung tissue
D. Residual volume
MCQ 57: What term describes the volume of air that remains in the
MCQ 47: What is the primary role of Clara cells in the respiratory lungs even after a maximal exhalation?
epithelium? A. Vital capacity
A. Mucus production B. Total lung capacity
B. Oxygen exchange C. Functional residual capacity
C. Detoxification and protection D. Residual volume
D. Carbon dioxide transport
MCQ 58: During external respiration, the movement of oxygen
MCQ 48: In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), what from alveoli to blood is primarily determined by:
structural changes occur in the airways and alveoli? A. Pressure differences and partial pressure gradients.
A. Thinning of alveolar walls B. Capillary endothelial permeability.
B. Increased alveolar surface area C. Blood pH and temperature.
C. Enlargement of bronchioles D. Alveolar diameter changes.
D. Reduced elasticity of alveoli
MCQ 59: In which lung disorder does pulmonary vasoconstriction
MCQ 49: Which of the following factors is not directly regulated by lead to increased pulmonary artery pressure and right ventricular
the central chemoreceptors in the brainstem? hypertrophy?
A. Carbon dioxide levels A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Oxygen levels B. Emphysema
C. pH levels C. Asthma
D. Lung compliance D. Bronchitis

MCQ 50: During exercise, what happens to the oxygen-hemoglobin MCQ 60: Which lung function parameter is most impaired in
dissociation curve in the blood? individuals with decreased lung compliance?
A. Shifts to the right, facilitating oxygen release A. Forced expiratory volume
B. Shifts to the left, enhancing oxygen uptake B. Total lung capacity
C. No significant change C. Residual volume
D. Becomes linear, allowing precise oxygen control D. Vital capacity

MCQ 51: Which lung condition is characterized by abnormal, MCQ 61: Which anatomical feature in the bronchial tree plays a
permanent dilation of bronchi and bronchioles? critical role in gas exchange in the lungs?
A. Emphysema A. Respiratory bronchioles
B. Bronchitis B. Terminal bronchioles
C. Asthma C. Secondary bronchi
D. Pneumonia D. Tertiary bronchi

MCQ 52: What is the primary factor responsible for the elastic MCQ 62: What is the primary function of alveolar sacs within the
recoil of the lungs during exhalation? respiratory unit?
A. Surface tension of alveolar fluid A. Filtration of inhaled particles

3 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

B. Gas exchange C. Pressure in the bronchi

C. Production of mucus D. Pressure in the trachea
D. Warming and humidifying inhaled air
MCQ 73: Explain the relationship between surfactant production
MCQ 63: Which cells secrete surfactant in the alveoli, reducing and respiratory compliance, focusing on its significance in neonatal
surface tension and preventing alveolar collapse during expiration? respiratory function.
A. Macrophages A. Surfactant decreases compliance
B. Goblet cells B. Surfactant increases compliance
C. Type II pneumocytes C. Surfactant is not related to compliance
D. Plasma cells D. Surfactant is produced in the brain

MCQ 64: What is the term for the dense capillary network around MCQ 74: How does anatomical dead space affect alveolar
the walls of the alveoli, where gas exchange occurs? ventilation, and what clinical considerations are associated with this
A. Pulmonary capillaries concept in respiratory assessment?
B. Pericardium A. Dead space decreases ventilation
C. Mediastinum B. Dead space increases ventilation
D. Periosteum C. Dead space is unrelated to ventilation
D. Dead space affects pulmonary capillaries
MCQ 65: During inhalation of inadequately humidified air over an
extended period, what does it lead to in the respiratory mucosa? MCQ 75: Define "dynamic compliance" and discuss its relevance in
A. Improved airflow evaluating lung function, particularly in conditions like chronic
B. Irritation obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
C. Increased mucus production A. Dynamic compliance measures lung volume
D. Bronchoconstriction B. Dynamic compliance relates to lung stiffness
C. Dynamic compliance is unrelated to lung function
MCQ 66: The autonomic nerve supply controlling the diameter of D. Dynamic compliance is unaffected by COPD
the respiratory passages consists of which two main components?
A. Vagus and optic nerves MCQ 76: Describe the physiological factors that determine the
B. Parasympathetic and sympathetic nerves oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve. How does this curve
C. Central and peripheral nerves influence oxygen transport in the blood?
D. Sensory and motor nerves
A. Blood pH and temperature
MCQ 67: What does the term "carina" refer to in the context of the B. Blood pH and oxygen concentration
trachea and bronchial tree? C. Blood CO2 and oxygen concentration
A. A region in the thoracic cavity D. Blood CO2 and temperature
B. A part of the esophagus
C. The point where the trachea divides into right and left primary MCQ 77: Explain the Haldane effect and its significance in the
bronchi carbon dioxide transport system within the blood. How does this
D. A type of bronchial cartilage phenomenon relate to pH regulation?

MCQ 68: In the bronchial tree, the bronchioles are approximately A. Haldane effect increases CO2 transport
what diameter or less? B. Haldane effect decreases CO2 transport
A. 1 mm C. Haldane effect is unrelated to CO2 transport
B. 5 mm D. Haldane effect affects oxygen transport
C. 10 mm
D. 25 mm MCQ 78: Discuss the role of central chemoreceptors in regulating
respiration. How are these receptors connected to pH and CO2
MCQ 69: Which of the following plays a significant role in the levels in the cerebrospinal fluid?
defense against microbes in the respiratory tract, especially in the
distal air passages? A. Central chemoreceptors are sensitive to blood pH
A. Ciliated epithelium and mucus B. Central chemoreceptors are sensitive to blood CO2 levels
B. Macrophages and fibroblasts C. Central chemoreceptors are not linked to pH or CO2
C. Lymphocytes and plasma cells D. Central chemoreceptors respond to oxygen levels
D. Goblet cells and goblet mucus
MCQ 79: Elaborate on the principles of Henry's law as it pertains to
MCQ 70: The pleural cavity is described as a potential space. What gas exchange in the alveoli and the blood. How does partial pressure
happens when this space is compromised or punctured? affect the diffusion of gases?
A. Increased lung expansion
B. Pleural effusion A. Henry's law is related to gas viscosity
C. Collapsed lung B. Henry's law affects gas solubility
D. Decreased blood supply to the lungs C. Henry's law is unrelated to gas exchange
D. Henry's law regulates air pressure
MCQ 71: Which anatomical feature in the bronchial tree plays a
critical role in gas exchange in the lungs? MCQ 80: Describe the physiological changes and respiratory
A. Respiratory bronchioles adaptations that occur in acclimatization to high-altitude
B. Terminal bronchioles environments. How do these changes impact oxygen transport and
C. Secondary bronchi utilization?
D. Tertiary bronchi
A. High altitude increases oxygen saturation
MCQ 72: What is transpulmonary pressure, and why is it essential B. High altitude decreases oxygen-hemoglobin binding
for maintaining lung inflation? C. High altitude has no effect on respiration
A. Pressure within the pleural cavity D. High altitude reduces carbon dioxide levels
B. Pressure in the alveoli

4 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

MCQ 81: Discuss the Bohr effect and its relevance in the release of A. To stimulate overinflation of the lungs
oxygen from hemoglobin. How does this phenomenon contribute to B. To generate inhibitory impulses in response to lung inflation
oxygen delivery in metabolically active tissues? C. To promote the use of accessory muscles of respiration
D. To prevent hyperventilation during exercise
A. Bohr effect decreases oxygen release
B. Bohr effect increases oxygen release MCQ 90: Which higher brain functions can modify breathing
C. Bohr effect is unrelated to oxygen transport patterns?
D. Bohr effect influences carbon dioxide transport
A. Emotional displays, e.g., crying, laughing, fear
MCQ 82: Explain the concept of oxygen cascade in respiratory B. Swallowing, sneezing, and coughing
physiology and how it relates to the efficiency of oxygen transport C. Fever and hypothermia
from the atmosphere to the mitochondria. D. All of the above

A. Oxygen cascade decreases oxygen delivery MCQ 91: Within the brain stem, which specific neural region,
B. Oxygen cascade increases oxygen delivery known as the "Medullary Rhythmicity Area," plays a critical role in
C. Oxygen cascade is unrelated to oxygen transport orchestrating the fundamental respiratory rhythm and issuing nerve
D. Oxygen cascade affects carbon dioxide levels impulses for inspiration during uneventful breathing?

MCQ 83: Discuss the role of the carotid bodies in the regulation of A. Medullary Rhythmicity Area
respiratory rate and blood gas composition. How are these B. Pneumotaxic Area
peripheral chemoreceptors connected to systemic control C. Apneustic Area
mechanisms? D. Inspiratory Area

A. Carotid bodies sense blood oxygen levels MCQ 92: The Pneumotaxic Area, a region situated in the upper
B. Carotid bodies sense blood CO2 levels pons of the brain stem, has a multifaceted role. Primarily, what
C. Carotid bodies have no role in respiration function is attributed to the Pneumotaxic Area?
D. Carotid bodies control lung compliance
A. Transmitting inhibitory impulses that terminate the inspiratory
MCQ 84: Explain the implications of respiratory muscle fatigue in phase
patients with conditions like myasthenia gravis. How does B. Activation of the inspiratory area to facilitate profound inhalation
neuromuscular transmission affect respiratory function in such cases? C. Coordination of the transitions between inhalation and exhalation
D. Regulation of the expiratory reserve volume
A. Respiratory muscle fatigue increases muscle strength
B. Respiratory muscle fatigue decreases muscle strength MCQ 93: When we discuss the volume of air left in the lungs
C. Respiratory muscle fatigue is unrelated to neuromuscular following maximal exhalation, what term accurately describes this
transmission value?
D. Respiratory muscle fatigue affects blood pressure
A. Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)
MCQ 85: Describe the effects of positive end-expiratory pressure B. Inspiratory Capacity (IC)
(PEEP) in mechanical ventilation on lung function and oxygenation. C. Functional Residual Capacity (FRC)
How is PEEP applied in clinical settings to improve oxygen exchange? D. Residual Volume (RV)

A. PEEP decreases lung compliance MCQ 94: In the context of pleural disorders, the medical condition
B. PEEP increases lung compliance characterized by inflammation of the pleural membrane is termed
C. PEEP is unrelated to lung ventilation what, and how do we refer to the abnormal accumulation of
D. PEEP affects respiratory volumes excessive fluid within the pleural cavity?

MCQ 86: How is the oxygen in the blood primarily transported to A. Pleurisy; pneumothorax
tissues for cellular respiration? B. Pleuritis; hemothorax
C. Pneumothorax; atelectasis
A. As oxyhaemoglobin in combination with haemoglobin D. Atelectasis; pleural effusion
B. Dissolved in plasma water
C. As carbaminohaemoglobin in erythrocytes MCQ 95: What specific brain component is primarily responsible
D. Bound to bicarbonate ions in the plasma for usurping voluntary control of respiration, particularly during
circumstances characterized by hypercapnia?
MCQ 87: When the arterial PCO2 rises, what is the response of the
central chemoreceptors? A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pneumotaxic Area
A. They stimulate the respiratory centre, increasing ventilation C. Apneustic Area
B. They decrease ventilation to conserve CO2 D. Inspiratory Area
C. They have no effect on respiratory control
D. They become insensitive to pH changes MCQ 96: In the context of oxygen transport in the blood, what is
the primary chemical form in which oxygen is carried?
MCQ 88: Where are peripheral chemoreceptors located, and what
primarily stimulates them? A. Oxyhemoglobin
B. Oxygenated plasma water
A. In the carotid bodies, stimulated by low arterial PO2 C. Hemoglobin monoxide
B. In the pons, responding to high CO2 levels D. Hematopoietic cells
C. In the medulla, influenced by blood acidity
D. In the aorta, sensitive to increased blood pH MCQ 97: Which area of the respiratory center located in the brain
stem primarily controls the fundamental rhythm of respiration and
MCQ 89: What is the main function of the Hering-Breuer reflex? activates the inspiratory phase during normal, quiet breathing?

5 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

A. Pneumotaxic Area dioxide (CO2), a phenomenon often linked to altered acid-base

B. Apneustic Area balance?
C. Medullary Rhythmicity Area
D. Inspiratory Area A. Hypoventilation
B. Hyperpnea
MCQ 98: To maintain homeostasis, which group of chemoreceptors C. Hyperventilation
is crucial for detecting changes in the partial pressures of oxygen and D. Orthopnea
carbon dioxide in the bloodstream?
MCQ 105: When a person experiences the sensation of
A. Central chemoreceptors breathlessness or difficulty in breathing when lying down, it is
B. Peripheral chemoreceptors clinically known as:
C. Chemoreceptors in the alveoli
D. Chemoreceptors in the carotid bodies A. Hyperpnea
B. Orthopnea
MCQ 99: What vital function do the pneumotaxic and apneustic C. Bradypnea
areas in the brain stem serve concerning respiration? D. Eupnea

A. They maintain homeostasis of blood gases MCQ 106: What clinical term is applied to an irregular breathing
B. They primarily control voluntary breathing pattern characterized by abnormally rapid, yet shallow breaths?
C. They coordinate speech and singing
D. They adjust respiration in response to emotional displays A. Tachypnea
B. Hyperpnea
MCQ 100: In the respiratory system, what term describes the C. Hypoventilation
combined volume of the tidal volume and inspiratory reserve D. Hyperventilation
volume?
MCQ 107: Among the clinical terminologies of breathing patterns,
A. Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) which one signifies an atypically slow respiratory rate?
B. Inspiratory Capacity (IC)
C. Total Lung Capacity (TLC) A. Bradypnea
D. Vital Capacity (VC) B. Dyspnea
C. Hypoxia
MCQ 101: Which of the following clinical terms is indicative of a D. Orthopnea
temporary cessation of breathing, often in pathological
circumstances? MCQ 108: What term describes a clinical condition resulting from
reduced pulmonary ventilation, thereby leading to elevated blood
A. Apnea CO2 levels and acidosis?
B. Dyspnea
C. Orthopnea A. Hyperventilation
D. Hypoxia B. Hyperpnea
C. Hypoventilation
MCQ 102: In the realm of clinical terminology, what is used to D. Apnea
define a subjective experience of significant difficulty in breathing,
sometimes referred to informally as "SOB"? MCQ 109: In clinical contexts, which term designates the state of
having insufficient oxygen in bodily tissues to sustain normal
A. Eupnea physiological functions?
B. Dyspnea
C. Hyperpnea A. Hypoxia
D. Bradypnea B. Apnea
C. Dyspnea
MCQ 103: An abnormal pattern characterized by an augmented rate D. Eupnea
and depth of breathing in clinical contexts is referred to as:
MCQ 110: Within the clinical realm, what phrase characterizes the
A. Hyperpnea state of normal, rhythmic breathing at an average rate of 12 to 15
B. Tachypnea breaths per minute?
C. Bradypnea
D. Eupnea A. Tachypnea
B. Hypoventilation
MCQ 104: What is the clinical term that signifies enhanced C. Eupnea
pulmonary ventilation leading to reduced blood levels of carbon D. Orthopnea
Answers:
1. C 11. A 21. C 31. A 41. B 51. A 61. A 71. B 81. B 91. A 101. A
2. D 12. C 22. B 32. A 42. B 52. C 62. B 72. A 82. B 92. A 102. B
3. B 13. D 23. C 33. A 43. B 53. A 63. C 73. B 83. A 93. D 103. A
4. D 14. C 24. C 34. D 44. B 54. A 64. A 74. B 84. B 94. A 104. C
5. A 15. C 25. B 35. C 45. B 55. C 65. B 75. C 85. B 95. A 105. B
6. D 16. C 26. B 36. D 46. A 56. B 66. B 76. C 86. A 96. A 106. A
7. C 17. B 27. A 37. D 47. C 57. D 67. C 77. B 87. A 97. D 107. A
8. D 18. C 28. C 38. A 48. A 58. A 68. A 78. A 88. A 98. B 108. C
9. B 19. D 29. B 39. C 49. D 59. A 69. C 79. B 89. B 99. C 109. A
10. C 20. B 30. D 40. B 50. A 60. D 70. C 80. B 90. D 100. B 110. C

6 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

UNIT 2 Urinary System MCQ 11: Regarding the kidneys, which of the following accurately
MCQ 1: Which term defines the scientific study of the anatomy, describes the relationship between their location and the
physiology, and pathology of the kidneys? surrounding structures within the human body, taking into account
A. Nephrology vertebral column, peritoneum, and diaphragm?
B. Urology A. The kidneys are posterior to the vertebral column, located
C. Renology between the parietal and visceral layers of the peritoneum, just
D. Uropathy below the diaphragm.
B. The kidneys are anterior to the vertebral column, completely
MCQ 2: How many major organs constitute the urinary system in enveloped by the parietal layer of the peritoneum, and positioned
the human body? above the diaphragm.
A. 4 C. Each kidney lies bilaterally on either side of the vertebral column,
B. 5 retroperitoneal and subdiaphragmatic.
C. 6 D. The kidneys are encased within the vertebral column, bordered
D. 7 by the peritoneum, and situated above the diaphragm.

MCQ 3: What is the primary function of the kidneys within the MCQ 12: With respect to the kidneys and their adjacent structures,
urinary system? which among the following is NOT part of the association in terms
A. Regulating blood pressure of the right kidney?
B. Filtering blood plasma A. The right adrenal gland
C. Synthesizing reproductive hormones B. The right lobe of the liver
D. Balancing blood glucose levels C. The hepatic flexure of the colon
D. The spleen
MCQ 4: Where are the kidneys typically located in the human body?
A. Above the peritoneum MCQ 13: What is the approximate size and weight of an adult
B. In front of the vertebral column human kidney?
C. Behind the liver A. Typically 10 cm in length, 5 cm in width, and weighing around 150
D. Below the lumbar vertebrae g.
B. Typically 15 cm in length, 10 cm in width, and weighing around 300
MCQ 5: The superficial, middle, and deep layers of tissue g.
surrounding each kidney serve various protective and anchoring C. Approximately 12 cm in length, 7 cm in width, and weighing about
functions. Which layer is primarily responsible for protecting the 200 g.
kidney from trauma? D. Approximately 8 cm in length, 6 cm in width, and weighing around
A. Superficial layer (renal fascia) 120 g.
B. Middle layer (adipose capsule)
C. Deep layer (renal capsule) MCQ 14: The role of the renal fascia, beyond anchoring the kidney,
D. Subcutaneous layer involves:
A. Regulating kidney temperature.
MCQ 6: In the internal anatomy of the kidneys, what is the smooth B. Providing a protective barrier against trauma.
textured area that extends from the renal capsule to the bases of the C. Enabling communication between the kidney and the liver.
renal pyramids called? D. Allowing the kidney to glide freely within the abdomen.
A. Renal cortex
B. Renal columns MCQ 15: Within the kidney, the concave medial border where renal
C. Renal papilla blood vessels, the ureter, and nerves enter is known as the:
D. Renal medulla A. Renal pelvis
B. Renal capsule
MCQ 7: The functional units of the kidney, responsible for urine C. Renal cortex
formation, are known as: D. Renal medulla
A. Renal fascia
B. Renal columns MCQ 16: In the process of urine formation, what is the final
C. Nephrons destination after passing through the minor and major calyces in the
D. Calyces kidney?
A. Renal columns
MCQ 8: Which structures in the kidney constitute the parenchyma, B. Renal capsule
the functional portion of this organ? C. Renal medulla
A. Renal cortex and renal columns D. Ureter
B. Renal medulla and renal papillae
C. Nephrons and minor calyces MCQ 17: The intrinsic property of smooth muscle in the renal pelvis
D. Major calyces and renal pelvis and ureters that propels urine without nerve control is:
A. Peristalsis
MCQ 9: The location where renal pyramids in the medulla empty B. Contraction
urine into the minor calyces is known as the: C. Reflex action
A. Renal hilum D. Neurogenic regulation
B. Renal pelvis
C. Renal cortex MCQ 18: Approximately how many nephrons are present in each
D. Renal papilla kidney?
A. Approximately 250,000
MCQ 10: From the major calyces, urine drains into a single large B. About 500,000
cavity called: C. Around 750,000
A. Renal capsule D. Roughly 1 million
B. Renal pyramid
C. Renal pelvis MCQ 19: What is the primary function of the glomerular capsule in
D. Renal column the nephron?
A. Absorption of water and electrolytes

7 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

B. Filtration of blood plasma MCQ 29: What nerve supply influences the renal blood vessel
C. Secretion of waste products diameter and renal blood flow?
D. Detoxification of drugs A. Sympathetic nerves
B. Parasympathetic nerves
MCQ 20: The component of the nephron responsible for C. Autoregulation
reabsorption and secretion of various substances in the urine is the: D. Somatic nerves
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Medullary loop (loop of Henle) MCQ 30: The diameter of the afferent arteriole is greater than that
C. Distal convoluted tubule of the efferent arteriole, which results in what specific physiological
D. Renal corpuscle consequence?
A. Increased blood pressure in the renal corpuscle
MCQ 21: In the kidney, which type of tissue can be observed B. Decreased blood pressure in the glomerulus
histologically in the minor calyx, especially as medullary collecting C. Decreased blood pressure in the glomerulus
ducts converge to form a papillary duct? D. Increased blood pressure in the renal capsule
A. Simple squamous epithelium
B. Stratified squamous epithelium **MCQ 31:**
C. Simple cuboidal epithelium Which specific molecular structures in the juxtaglomerular apparatus
D. Transitional epithelium play a key role in regulating blood pressure within the nephron?
A. Renin and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
MCQ 22: In a longitudinal section of the kidney, when discussing the B. Erythropoietin and aldosterone
components labeled as 1 to 28 in the given diagram, which element is C. Podocytes and mesangial cells
associated with the renal pelvis? D. Natriuretic peptides and prostaglandins
A. Label 1: Renal papilla
B. Label 7: Renal pelvis **MCQ 32:**
C. Label 5: Calyx In the distal convoluted tubule, what is the physiological significance
D. Label 14: Cortex of having principal cells that respond to both antidiuretic hormone
(ADH) and aldosterone?
MCQ 23: Which part of the nephron consists of an epithelial cup A. Enhanced reabsorption of Na+ and water
that surrounds the glomerular capillaries and where blood plasma is B. Selective secretion of K+ and H+
filtered? C. Inhibition of macula densa function
A. Proximal convoluted tubule D. Activation of vasopressin receptors
B. Loop of Henle
C. Distal convoluted tubule **MCQ 33:**
D. Glomerular (Bowman's) capsule Which of the following renal structures is involved in the
countercurrent exchange system for urine concentration?
MCQ 24: Regarding the nephrons, the renal corpuscle is composed A. Vasa recta
of which two primary elements? B. Peritubular capillaries
A. Glomerulus and proximal convoluted tubule C. Arcuate artery
B. Glomerular capsule (Bowman's capsule) and loop of Henle D. Duct of Bellini
C. Distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct
D. Vasa recta and arcuate vein **MCQ 34:**
What is the role of mesangial cells in the glomerulus?
MCQ 25: In the process of urine formation, blood plasma is initially A. Filtration of blood plasma
filtered in the renal corpuscle, followed by the passage of the filtered B. Regulation of glomerular hydrostatic pressure
fluid into the: C. Secretion of erythropoietin
A. Proximal convoluted tubule D. Synthesis of renin
B. Loop of Henle
C. Glomerular capsule **MCQ 35:**
D. Vasa recta The proximal convoluted tubule is lined with simple cuboidal
epithelial cells that have microvilli. What is the primary function of
MCQ 26: Which part of the nephron plays a significant role in these microvilli?
reabsorption, secretion of substances, and electrolyte balance? A. Facilitating glucose reabsorption
A. Renal corpuscle B. Enhancing hydrogen ion secretion
B. Glomerulus C. Regulating blood pH
C. Distal convoluted tubule D. Synthesizing prostaglandins
D. Loop of Henle
**MCQ 36:**
MCQ 27: The distal convoluted tubules of several nephrons combine In the renal corpuscle, which layer of the Bowman's capsule is
and lead into a single: responsible for the filtration barrier?
A. Renal corpuscle A. Visceral layer
B. Proximal convoluted tubule B. Parietal layer
C. Collecting duct C. Macula densa
D. Loop of Henle D. Principal cells

MCQ 28: The combining of collecting ducts into large papillary ducts **MCQ 37:**
ultimately results in the drainage of urine into which structures What is the significance of the macula densa's close proximity to the
within the kidney? juxtaglomerular cells in the nephron?
A. Major calyces, minor calyces, and then renal pelvis A. Regulation of glomerular blood flow
B. Proximal convoluted tubules, loop of Henle, and distal convoluted B. Control of blood pH
tubules C. Regulation of tubular reabsorption
C. Arcuate arteries and veins D. Production of renin
D. Renal corpuscles and vasa recta
**MCQ 38:**

8 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

The collecting ducts play a crucial role in urine concentration. What C. When the nerve supply to renal blood vessels is intact
hormone primarily affects the permeability of the collecting ducts to D. When prostaglandin levels are stable
water?
A. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) MCQ 48:
B. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) What is the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in a healthy adult?A. 180
C. Aldosterone ml/min
D. Renin B. 1.5 liters/day
C. 55 mmHg
**MCQ 39:** D. 10 mmHg
In the process of glomerular filtration, what prevents the passage of
large proteins into the Bowman's capsule? MCQ 49:
A. Visceral layer of the Bowman's capsule What are the three main processes involved in the formation of
B. Peritubular capillaries urine?A. Filtration, reabsorption, and excretion
C. Mesangial cells B. Simple filtration, selective reabsorption, and secretion
D. Glomerular capillary endothelial cells C. Filtration, diffusion, and absorption
D. Glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, and distal secretion
**MCQ 40:**
What specific region of the nephron is responsible for the regulation MCQ 50:
of blood pressure and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system? What is the main purpose of selective reabsorption in the
A. Loop of Henle nephron?A. To excrete waste products
B. Proximal convoluted tubule B. To maintain fluid and electrolyte balance
C. Distal convoluted tubule C. To increase glomerular filtration rate
D. Juxtaglomerular apparatus D. To regulate blood pressure

MCQ 51:
MCQ 41: What is the primary function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus in the
What specific region of the nephron is responsible for the regulation nephron?A. Filtration of blood
of blood pressure and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system?A. B. Reabsorption of water
Loop of Henle C. Regulation of blood pressure and the
B. Proximal convoluted tubule renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
C. Distal convoluted tubule D. Secretion of hormones
D. Juxtaglomerular apparatus
MCQ 52:
MCQ 42: Which substances are cleared from the blood by secretion into the
Which of the following substances is reabsorbed by active transport convoluted tubules and excreted in the urine?A. Amino acids
in the nephron?A. Water B. Water
B. Amino acids C. Foreign materials like drugs
C. Glucose D. Sodium
D. Uric acid
MCQ 53:
MCQ 43: What is the main constituent of urine?A. Urea
What is the primary function of the glomerulus and glomerular B. Uric acid
capsule in the urinary system?A. Reabsorption of water C. Water
B. Filtration of blood D. Creatinine
C. Excretion of waste products
D. Secretion of hormones MCQ 54:
What gives urine its clear and amber color?A. Urobilin
MCQ 44: B. Bile pigments
Which hormone regulates the permeability of distal convoluted C. Urea
tubules and collecting tubules to increase water reabsorption?A. D. Creatinine
Parathyroid hormone
B. Calcitonin MCQ 55:
C. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) What is the normal specific gravity of urine?A. 1005
D. Aldosterone B. 1010
C. 1020
MCQ 45: D. 1030
What is the maximum capacity for reabsorption of a substance in the
kidneys called?A. Transport maximum MCQ 56:
B. Glomerular threshold What is the pH range of normal urine?A. 4.5 to 6
C. Selective reabsorption limit B. 6.5 to 7.5
D. Filtration capacity C. 4.5 to 8
D. 5 to 7.8
MCQ 46:
What is the net filtration pressure in the glomerulus, considering the MCQ 57:
given values in the text?A. 1.3 kPa What controls the minimum urinary output required to excrete the
B. 7.3 kPa body's waste products?A. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
C. 4 kPa B. Renin
D. 2 kPa C. Aldosterone
D. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus
MCQ 47:
In which situation does autoregulation of renal blood flow fail?A. In MCQ 58:
severe shock What cation is the most common in extracellular fluid?A. Sodium
B. During normal blood pressure fluctuations B. Potassium

9 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

C. Calcium D. The kidneys

D. Magnesium
MCQ 69:
MCQ 59: Which ion is the most common intracellular cation in the body?A.
What enzyme is produced by cells in the afferent arteriole of the Sodium
nephron to regulate sodium levels?A. Aldosterone B. Potassium
B. Renin C. Chloride
C. Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) D. Calcium
D. Aldosterone
MCQ 70:
MCQ 60: What is the primary role of renin in the regulation of sodium levels
What is the primary function of aldosterone in regulating sodium and in the body?A. To increase sodium reabsorption
water levels?A. To promote sodium excretion B. To stimulate aldosterone secretion
B. To increase sodium reabsorption C. To decrease blood pressure
C. To decrease water reabsorption D. To promote sodium excretion
D. To stimulate potassium excretion Answers:
69. B
MCQ 61: 70. B
What is the mechanism for maintaining normal pH (acid-base balance)
of the blood by the cells of the proximal convoluted tubules?A. Certainly, here are the questions with more complex wording:
Reabsorption of bicarbonate
B. Secretion of ammonium ions MCQ 71:
C. Excretion of hydrogen ions What physiological phenomenon leads to the establishment of the
D. Conversion of carbonic acid to carbon dioxide pressure differential between the glomerulus and the glomerular
capsule, enabling the process of filtration?A. Osmoregulation and
MCQ 62: temperature variation
What is the normal pH range of blood?A. 2.0 to 4.5 B. Gradient of solute concentration
B. 5.5 to 6.8 C. Disparities in blood hydrostatic pressure
C. 7.35 to 7.45 D. Variances in capillary diameters between afferent and efferent
D. 8.0 to 9.2 arterioles

MCQ 63: MCQ 72:

In which type of diet, individuals tend to produce more acidic urine Considering the given values in the text, determine the resultant net
(lower pH)?A. Vegetarian diet filtration pressure in the glomerulus, a pivotal factor in renal
B. High protein diet (animal proteins) physiology.A. 1.3 kilopascals (kPa)
C. Low-sodium diet B. 7.3 kilopascals (kPa)
D. High-carbohydrate diet C. 4 kilopascals (kPa)
D. 10 millimeters of mercury (mmHg)
MCQ 64:
What stimulates the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland to release MCQ 73:
ADH (antidiuretic hormone)?A. High blood volume In an adult, what is the typical glomerular filtration rate (GFR), a vital
B. High blood pressure metric in renal function, and what is the difference between males
C. Changes in blood osmotic pressure and females?A. An average of 50 ml/min; Males have a GFR of 180
D. Low blood sodium levels liters/day, while females have a GFR of 150 liters/day.
B. An average of 75 ml/min; Males have a GFR of 180 liters/day, while
MCQ 65: females have a GFR of 150 liters/day.
What occurs during acclimatization to a hot environment in terms of C. An average of 105 ml/min; Males have a GFR of 180 liters/day,
electrolyte loss in sweat?A. Electrolyte loss increases while females have a GFR of 150 liters/day.
B. Electrolyte loss decreases D. An average of 125 ml/min; Males have a GFR of 180 liters/day,
C. No change in electrolyte loss while females have a GFR of 150 liters/day.
D. Increased sweating
MCQ 74:
MCQ 66: Specify the locations within the nephron where the essential process
What is the minimum urinary output required to excrete the body's of tubular reabsorption predominantly transpires.A. Within the
waste products?A. About 500 ml per day Bowman's capsule
B. About 1000 ml per day B. Within the loop of Henle
C. About 2000 ml per day C. Within the proximal convoluted tubule
D. About 5000 ml per day D. Within the distal convoluted tubule

MCQ 67: MCQ 75:

What is the hormone that regulates the balance between fluid intake Enumerate the specific substances that are reabsorbed extensively
and output, especially in response to changes in blood osmotic within the proximal convoluted tubule.A. Water (H2O), glucose,
pressure?A. Aldosterone amino acids, sodium (Na+), potassium (K+), calcium (Ca++),
B. Renin bicarbonate (HCO3-), and uric acid
C. Angiotensin B. Sodium (Na+), chloride (Cl-), and calcium (Ca++)
D. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) C. Water (H2O), sodium (Na+), calcium (Ca++), and bicarbonate
(HCO3-)
MCQ 68: D. Hydrogen ions (H+), organic acids, and bases
What is the primary mechanism for maintaining the balance between
water and electrolyte concentration in the body?A. The adrenal MCQ 76:Articulate the central purpose of tubular secretion within
cortex the nephron, a process integral to renal physiology.A. To ensure the
B. The osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus reabsorption of waste products
C. The posterior pituitary

10 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

B. To effectuate the removal of waste substances from the D. To inhibit the reabsorption of phosphate ions
bloodstream
C. To enhance the glomerular filtration rate MCQ 86:
D. To foster the excretion of excess sodium ions Define the typical range for the pH of blood, a critical parameter in
acid-base balance.A. A pH range of 2.0 to 4.5
MCQ 77: B. A pH range of 5.5 to 6.8
Explain the principal role of aldosterone in regulating sodium and C. A pH range of 7.35 to 7.45
water homeostasis in the body.A. To intensify the reabsorption of D. A pH range of 8.0 to 9.2
sodium
B. To suppress the reabsorption of sodium MCQ 87:
C. To stimulate the secretion of potassium Detail the primary mechanism responsible for maintaining the
D. To accelerate the reabsorption of water equilibrium between water and electrolyte concentrations in the
body.A. The adrenal cortex
MCQ 78: B. The osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus
Designate the segment of the nephron that predominantly governs C. The posterior pituitary
the reabsorption of calcium ions.A. The proximal convoluted tubule D. The intricate regulatory processes within the kidneys
B. The loop of Henle
C. The distal convoluted tubule MCQ 88:
D. The collecting duct Identify the nephron segment that primarily governs the
reabsorption of water and sodium ions, essential processes for fluid
MCQ 79: balance.A. Proximal convoluted tubule
Which hormone triggers thirst and heightens water intake, B. Loop of Henle
influencing the homeostasis of bodily fluids?A. Aldosterone C. Distal convoluted tubule
B. Renin D. Collecting duct
C. Angiotensin II
D. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) MCQ 89:Articulate the primary role of the juxtaglomerular
apparatus within the nephron.A. The filtration of blood
MCQ 80: B. The reabsorption of water
Specify the minimal urinary output required to adequately excrete C. The regulation of blood pressure and the
the waste products generated by the body's metabolic processes.A. renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
Approximately 100 milliliters per day D. The secretion of hormones
B. Around 500 milliliters per day
C. Approximately 1,000 milliliters per day MCQ 90:
D. Approximately 2,000 milliliters per day Examine the fundamental process that enables the kidney to regulate
blood pressure across a wide range of systolic blood pressures,
MCQ 81: independent of nervous control.A. Autoregulation of filtration
Identify the hormone that obstructs the secretion of renin, B. Sympathetic stimulation
antidiuretic hormone (ADH), and aldosterone, concurrently C. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
impeding the reabsorption of sodium chloride by the collecting D. The influence of adrenal hormones
duct.A. Aldosterone
B. Renin MCQ 91:
C. Angiotensin II Which layer of the urinary bladder wall contains the smooth muscle
D. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) responsible for distention and contraction of the bladder?A.
Adventitia
MCQ 82: B. Mucosa
Examine the effect of Angiotensin II on both the afferent and efferent C. Detrusor muscle
arterioles in the context of renal physiology.A. Angiotensin II D. Trigone
constricts afferent arterioles while dilating efferent arterioles.
B. Angiotensin II dilates afferent arterioles while constricting efferent MCQ 92:
arterioles. What holds the urinary bladder in position within the pelvic cavity?A.
C. Angiotensin II constricts both afferent and efferent arterioles. Folds of the peritoneum
D. Angiotensin II dilates both afferent and efferent arterioles. B. Muscularis
C. Urethra
MCQ 83: D. Trigone
Explore the primary targets of epinephrine and norepinephrine
within the framework of renal physiology.A. Afferent arterioles MCQ 93:
B. Efferent arterioles What is the average capacity of the urinary bladder?A. 100-200 ml
C. Distal tubules B. 300-400 ml
D. Collecting duct C. 500-600 ml
D. 700-800 ml
MCQ 84:
Elaborate on the hormone responsible for augmenting the MCQ 94:
reabsorption of calcium ions within the loop and distal tubules.A. In the urinary bladder, what is the function of the trigone?A. It stores
Aldosterone excess urine.
B. Renin B. It contains the urethral sphincters.
C. Angiotensin II C. It facilitates expansion of the bladder.
D. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) D. It forms the internal wall of the bladder.

MCQ 85: MCQ 95:

Specify the principal function of parathyroid hormone (PTH) within Which part of the urinary bladder is under voluntary control?A.
the nephron.A. To foster the excretion of calcium ions Internal sphincter
B. To intensify the reabsorption of sodium ions B. External sphincter
C. To amplify the reabsorption of magnesium ions C. Detrusor muscle

11 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

D. Trigone
MCQ 106:
MCQ 96: When the bladder is empty, what feature characterizes the inner
What is the function of the rugae in the mucosa of the urinary lining of the mucosa?A. It is filled with tiny hair-like structures.
bladder?A. To facilitate expansion of the bladder B. It is arranged in folds or rugae.
B. To store excess urine C. It has a smooth, glassy surface.
C. To secrete mucus D. It secretes mucus continuously.
D. To regulate blood flow
MCQ 107:
MCQ 97: What initiates the awareness of the desire to urinate when the
In males, which part of the urethra passes through the prostate?A. bladder contains approximately 300 to 400 ml of urine?A. Activation
Prostatic urethra of autonomic nerve fibers
B. Membranous urethra B. Presence of bacterial infection
C. Spongy urethra C. Consumption of diuretics
D. External urethra D. A decrease in blood pressure

MCQ 98: MCQ 108:

What is the primary function of the external urethral sphincter?A. What is the maximum typical capacity of the urinary bladder?A.
To facilitate urination About 1 liter
B. To contract the bladder B. Around 300 ml
C. To store urine C. Rarely more than 600 ml
D. To control the release of urine D. Approximately 2 liters

MCQ 99: MCQ 109:

What type of muscle controls the internal sphincter of the urethra?A. In the bladder wall, what is the triangular area formed by the three
Skeletal muscle orifices?A. Renal papilla
B. Cardiac muscle B. Trigone
C. Smooth muscle C. Glomerulus
D. Voluntary muscle D. Loop of Henle

MCQ 100: MCQ 110:

What is the major difference in urethra length between females and What is the primary function of the external urethral sphincter?A.
males?A. Females have a longer urethra. To initiate urination
B. Males have a longer urethra. B. To regulate blood pressure
C. Both have equally long urethras. C. To prevent the involuntary passage of urine
D. The length of the urethra is unrelated to gender. D. To produce hormones

MCQ 101: MCQ 111:

What is the primary function of the urinary bladder?A. Filtration of What is the primary function of the urethra?A. To absorb nutrients
blood B. To filter blood
B. Storage of urine C. To transport urine from the bladder to the exterior
C. Production of urine D. To store urine
D. Absorption of nutrients
MCQ 112:
MCQ 102: In the male, where is the external urethral orifice located?A. Near
Which organ in the male pelvis is located posterior to the urinary the bladder's base
bladder?A. Prostate gland B. In the scrotum
B. Seminal vesicles C. At the tip of the penis
C. Rectum D. Behind the prostate gland
D. Small intestine
MCQ 113:
MCQ 103: Which part of the male urethra consists mainly of elastic tissue and
What is the primary purpose of the peritoneum in relation to the smooth muscle fibers and is under autonomic nerve control?A.
bladder?A. It serves as the primary source of nutrients for the Proximal convoluted tubule
bladder. B. Skeletal muscle layer
B. It covers the entire outer surface of the bladder. C. External urethral sphincter
C. It lines the anterior abdominal wall. D. Internal urethral sphincter
D. It surrounds the bladder's superior surface.
MCQ 114:
MCQ 104: What is the primary function of the submucosa layer in the
How is the bladder's wall structured?A. It has a single homogeneous urethra?A. To absorb water
layer. B. To house sensory receptors
B. It consists of an outer layer of loose connective tissue, a middle C. To transport urine
layer of smooth muscle, and an inner mucosal layer. D. To provide structural support
C. It has multiple layers of stratified squamous epithelium.
D. It contains primarily adipose tissue. MCQ 115:
Which nervous system controls the internal urethral sphincter?A.
MCQ 105: Somatic nervous system
What is the primary function of the detrusor muscle in the bladder B. Autonomic nervous system
wall?A. Absorption of nutrients C. Central nervous system
B. Filtration of blood D. Enteric nervous system
C. Empties the bladder by contracting
D. Secretion of hormones MCQ 116:

12 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

What process characterizes micturition in an infant, initiated by B. Sacral segments S2 and S3

afferent autonomic nerve fibers in the bladder wall?A. Spinal reflex C. Cervical segments
action D. Thoracic segments
B. Activation of the enteric nervous system
C. Hormonal regulation MCQ 124:
D. Parasympathetic stimulation What is the primary function of the parasympathetic impulses in the
micturition reflex?A. To inhibit the detrusor muscle
MCQ 117: B. To contract the internal urethral sphincter
What occurs in adults when the detrusor muscle contracts during C. To relax the external urethral sphincter
micturition?A. Relaxation of the internal urethral sphincter D. To trigger somatic motor neurons
B. Increased blood pressure
C. Contraction of the external urethral sphincter MCQ 125:
D. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system What is the role of the micturition center during the micturition
reflex?A. It initiates the impulse transmission to the spinal cord.
MCQ 118: B. It stimulates the skeletal muscle in the external urethral sphincter.
How is over-distension of the bladder typically experienced?A. As a C. It inhibits the detrusor muscle.
pleasant sensation D. It coordinates the overall reflex action.
B. As increased urine production
C. As a tendency for involuntary relaxation of the external sphincter MCQ 126:
and small urine loss Which muscle contracts during micturition?A. Detrusor muscle
D. As a sudden urge to urinate B. External urethral sphincter
C. Internal urethral sphincter
MCQ 119: D. Sacral muscle
What is the primary cause of urinary retention in adults?A.
Hyperactive detrusor muscle MCQ 127:
B. Weakened pelvic floor muscles What is the role of stretch receptors in the bladder wall during
C. Presence of urinary tract infection micturition?A. To stimulate contraction of the external urethral
D. A shortage of blood supply to the bladder sphincter
B. To increase pressure within the bladder
MCQ 120: C. To transmit nerve impulses into the spinal cord
In the process of micturition in adults, what can be achieved by D. To inhibit the micturition center
lowering the diaphragm and contracting the abdominal muscles?A.
Relaxation of the detrusor muscle MCQ 128:
B. Voluntary contraction of the internal urethral sphincter Which of the following muscle contractions is a voluntary
C. Micturition inhibition component of micturition?A. Detrusor muscle
D. Increased pressure in the pelvic cavity B. Internal urethral sphincter
C. External urethral sphincter
MCQ 121: D. Parasympathetic muscle
What is another term for the discharge of urine from the urinary
bladder?A. Renal transit MCQ 129:
B. Micturition What happens in the micturition reflex when the detrusor muscle
C. Nephron expulsion contracts?A. The internal urethral sphincter contracts.
D. Ureteral release B. The external urethral sphincter contracts.
C. The bladder wall relaxes.
MCQ 122: D. Urination occurs.
When does micturition occur in response to bladder volume?A. At
50 ml of urine MCQ 130:
B. When the bladder is empty What causes urination during micturition?A. Contraction of the
C. When the bladder contains 200-400 ml of urine detrusor muscle and relaxation of sphincters
D. When the bladder is fully distended B. Contraction of the external urethral sphincter
C. Inhibition of the micturition center
MCQ 123: D. Expansion of the bladder wall
Which segment of the spinal cord houses the micturition center that
coordinates the reflex action?A. Lumbar segments
Answers:
1. A 13. C 25. C 37. A 49. B 61. C 75. A 87. D 99. C 111. C 123. B
2. C 14. B 26. C 38. B 50. B 62. C 76. B 88. A 100. B 112. C 124. C
3. B 15. A 27. C 39. C 51. C 63. B 77. A 89. C 101. B 113. D 125. D
4. B 16. D 28. A 40. D 52. C 64. C 78. B 90. A 102. C 114. B 126. A
5. B 17. A 29. A 41. D 53. C 65. B 79. D 91. C 103. D 115. B 127. C
6. A 18. D 30. A 42. B 54. A 66. A 80. B 92. A 104. B 116. A 128. C
7. C 19. B 31. A 43. B 55. C 67. D 81. D 93. D 105. C 117. A 129. D
8. B 20. C 32. A 44. C 56. C 68. D 82. A 94. B 106. B 118. C 130. A
9. D 21. D 33. A 45. A 57. A 71. C 83. B 95. B 107. A 119. B
10. C 22. B 34. B 46. A 58. A 72. A 84. D 96. A 108. C 120. D
11. C 23. D 35. A 47. A 59. B 73. D 85. B 97. A 109. B 121. B
12. D 24. B 36. A 48. A 60. B 74. C 86. C 98. D 110. C 122. C

13 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

UNIT 3 Nervous System

MCQ 1: Within the nervous system, what component carries out MCQ 11: In the nervous system, what function characterizes
the functions of smell, speech, and the regulation of internal organs? neurones as the primary responders to various stimuli?
A. Sensory receptors A. Synthesizing glucose and oxygen
B. Motor neurons B. Transmitting electrical charges through the body
C. Astrocytes C. Storing chemical energy as ATP
D. The brain and spinal cord D. Initiating nerve impulses in response to stimuli

MCQ 2: What term is used to describe the conscious awareness of MCQ 12: What portion of the nervous system, which forms the
sensory stimuli within the nervous system? white matter, includes extensions from cell bodies such as axons and
A. Conductivity dendrites?
B. Transmission A. Nuclei
C. Integration B. Ganglia
D. Perception C. Cell bodies
D. Axons and dendrites
MCQ 3: In the nervous system, what are the primary functions
grouped into three basic categories: sensory, integrative, and motor? MCQ 13: When describing nerve impulses in the nervous system,
A. Neuron types what do they most resemble in terms of their properties?
B. Neuroglia functions A. Microorganisms
C. Nervous system supporting tissues B. Neuroglia
D. Nervous system functions C. Tiny electrical charges
D. Glucose molecules
MCQ 4: What is the primary function of motor neurons in the
nervous system? MCQ 14: What term is used in the nervous system to indicate the
A. Initiating nerve impulses ability to initiate nerve impulses in response to various stimuli, both
B. Carrying sensory information electrical and chemical?
C. Regulating internal organs A. Transmission
D. Muscle contraction and gland secretion B. Conductivity
C. Synthesis
MCQ 5: What term is used to describe small masses of nervous D. Irritability
tissue consisting of neuron cell bodies found outside the brain and
spinal cord within the nervous system? MCQ 15: In the nervous system, what are groups of bound axons
A. Ganglia referred to?
B. Nuclei A. Nuclei
C. Neuroglia B. Ganglia
D. Astrocytes C. Nerves
D. Cell bodies
MCQ 6: Within the nervous system, which term describes the ability
to initiate nerve impulses in response to various stimuli, both MCQ 16: Within the nervous system, which type of neurones
electrical and chemical? primarily serve as intermediaries for passing on nerve impulses?
A. Conductivity A. Synaptic neurones
B. Transmission B. Motor neurones
C. Irritability C. Initiating neurones
D. Synthesis D. Sensory nerve endings

MCQ 7: What are bundles of axons called when they are bound MCQ 17: What aspect of nerve impulses in the nervous system
together in the nervous system? ensures that the strength of the impulse remains consistent
A. Cell bodies throughout the neurone's length?
B. Nuclei A. Dendrites
C. Ganglia B. Ganglia
D. Nerves C. Nuclei
D. Actively conducting axons
MCQ 8: In the nervous system, what is the primary source of energy
(ATP) synthesis for neurones? MCQ 18: How is the process of transmission of impulses between
A. Oxygen one neurone and the next, or between a neurone and an effector
B. Glucose organ, referred to in the nervous system?
C. Carbon dioxide A. Conductivity
D. Light waves B. Transmission
C. Synthesis
MCQ 9: Which type of neurones within the nervous system can D. Irritability
initiate nerve impulses?
A. Initiating neurones MCQ 19: In the nervous system, what is the primary source for the
B. Relay neurones synthesis of energy (ATP) required by neurones?
C. Conductive neurones A. Carbon dioxide
D. Synaptic neurones B. Glucose
C. Light waves
MCQ 10: In the nervous system, what term is used for the D. Oxygen
transmission of impulses between one neurone and the next or
between a neurone and an effector organ? MCQ 20: Within the nervous system, what type of neurones are
A. Transmission capable of initiating nerve impulses in response to stimuli?
B. Conductivity A. Relay neurones
C. Synthesis B. Conductive neurones
D. Irritability C. Synaptic neurones

14 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

D. Initiating neurones B. Oligodendrocytes

C. Microglia
MCQ 21: What is the term for the point at which a nerve impulse D. Ependymal cells
passes from one neurone to another, despite there being no physical
contact between them in the nervous system? MCQ 31: In the nervous system, which type of nerves transmit
A. Synaptic knob impulses to skeletal muscles and are involved in voluntary and reflex
B. Nucleus skeletal muscle contraction?
C. Axolemma A. Sensory nerves
D. Schwann cell junction B. Autonomic nerves
C. Somatic nerves
MCQ 22: What is the name of the gap between the motor end-plate D. Proprioceptor senses
and the muscle fiber in the neuromuscular junction of the nervous
system? MCQ 32: What is the primary function of the neuromuscular
A. Synaptic cleft junction in the nervous system?
B. Dendritic gap A. Initiating nerve impulses
C. Node of Ranvier B. Transmitting impulses to the brain
D. Myelin junction C. Conduction of action potentials
D. Transmitting impulses to skeletal muscles to produce contraction
MCQ 23: In the nervous system, what role does the
neurotransmitter acetylcholine play at the neuromuscular junction? MCQ 33: Which neurotransmitter is primarily responsible for
A. Initiating nerve impulses transmitting the nerve impulse across the neuromuscular junction in
B. Preventing muscle contractions the nervous system?
C. Transmitting nerve impulses A. GABA
D. Stimulating muscle contraction B. Dopamine
C. Acetylcholine
MCQ 24: What constitutes a motor unit in the nervous system? D. Serotonin
A. A single muscle fiber
B. Multiple motor end-plates MCQ 34: What is the term for the sensitive area on the surface of a
C. A group of muscle fibers and their motor end-plates muscle fiber where it is stimulated by the motor end-plate in the
D. An individual motor nerve neuromuscular junction?
A. Axon
MCQ 25: Which part of the nervous system consists of somatic B. Synapse
nerves responsible for voluntary and reflex skeletal muscle C. Motor unit
contraction? D. Motor end-plate
A. Autonomic nerves
B. Sympathetic nerves MCQ 35: In the nervous system, which group of substances, such as
C. Parasympathetic nerves dopamine and serotonin, have functions similar to
D. Somatic nerves neurotransmitters?
A. Neurilemma
MCQ 26: Which glial cells in the central nervous system are smaller B. Enkephalins
than astrocytes and are responsible for forming and maintaining C. Myelin
myelin? D. Neuroglia
A. Astrocytes
B. Oligodendrocytes MCQ 36: Which type of neuroglia in the central nervous system
C. Microglia forms the main supporting tissue and plays a role in creating the
D. Ependymal cells blood-brain barrier (BBB)?
A. Oligodendrocytes
MCQ 27: What is the primary function of astrocytes in the central B. Microglia
nervous system? C. Astrocytes
A. Initiating nerve impulses D. Ependymal cells
B. Phagocytosis in areas of inflammation
C. Forming and maintaining myelin MCQ 37: What is the primary function of astrocytes in the central
D. Main supporting tissue and forming the blood-brain barrier nervous system?
A. Regulating blood flow
MCQ 28: Microglia are derived from monocytes and become B. Forming myelin sheaths around axons
phagocytic in which areas of the central nervous system? C. Secreting cerebrospinal fluid
A. Areas with a high concentration of neurons D. Isolating harmful materials from the CNS
B. Areas near ependymal cells
C. Areas of blood vessels MCQ 38: In the peripheral nervous system (PNS), what is the main
D. Myelinated nerve fibers function of Schwann cells?
A. Phagocytosis of foreign particles
MCQ 29: What is the primary role of the blood-brain barrier B. Creating the blood-brain barrier
created by astrocytes in the central nervous system? C. Forming myelin sheaths around axons
A. Allowing all substances in the blood to pass into the brain D. Regulating the exchange of materials between neuronal cell
B. Protecting the brain from toxic substances in the blood bodies
C. Preventing any exchange of substances between the blood and the
brain MCQ 39: Which type of neuroglia in the central nervous system has
D. Speeding up the transmission of nerve impulses a phagocytic function and can become active in areas of inflammation
and cell destruction?
MCQ 30: Which cells in the central nervous system form the A. Oligodendrocytes
epithelial lining of the ventricles of the brain and the central canal of B. Astrocytes
the spinal cord? C. Ependymal cells
A. Astrocytes D. Microglia

15 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

D. Distribution-based classification
MCQ 40: What is the primary role of ependymal cells in the central
nervous system? MCQ 50: What type of neuron is typically found in special sensory
A. Forming myelin sheaths around axons organs, such as the retina of the eye?
B. Regulating blood flow A. Multipolar neuron
C. Secreting cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) B. Bipolar neuron
D. Surrounding axons in the PNS C. Unipolar neuron
D. Motor neuron
MCQ 41: What is the main function of satellite cells in the peripheral
nervous system (PNS)? MCQ 51: In which part of the neuron is the action potential initiated,
A. Forming myelin sheaths around axons leading to the transmission of the nerve impulse?
B. Regulating blood flow A. Axon terminal
C. Surrounding the cell bodies of PNS neurons B. Dendrites
D. Secreting cerebrospinal fluid C. Axon hillock
D. Soma
MCQ 42: Which type of neuroglia can form myelin sheaths around
axons in both the central and peripheral nervous systems? MCQ 52: Myelinated neurons conduct nerve impulses faster than
A. Oligodendrocytes unmyelinated neurons. What is the functional role of the myelin
B. Astrocytes sheath in this context?
C. Ependymal cells A. Increases the strength of the action potential
D. Microglia B. Allows saltatory conduction
C. Enhances neurotransmitter release
MCQ 43: In the central nervous system (CNS), which type of D. Promotes synaptic end bulb formation
neuroglia has processes that wrap around axons and form myelin
sheaths? MCQ 53: Among the types of neurons, which ones are most
A. Oligodendrocytes abundant in the brain and spinal cord, responsible for complex
B. Astrocytes processing of information?
C. Ependymal cells A. Bipolar neurons
D. Microglia B. Unipolar neurons
C. Interneurons
MCQ 44: The function of microglia is most closely related to which D. Motor neurons
of the following activities?
A. Secreting cerebrospinal fluid MCQ 54: When an action potential reaches the end of an axon, what
B. Regulating blood flow happens to transmit the signal to the next cell?
C. Phagocytosis in areas of inflammation and cell destruction A. The axon contracts to push the signal forward.
D. Surrounding axons in the PNS B. Neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft.
C. The action potential reverses direction.
MCQ 45: What characteristic makes neurons unique compared to D. The dendrites generate a new action potential.
other cells in the body?
A. Short lifespan MCQ 55: The blood-brain barrier plays a crucial role in protecting
B. Ability to replicate throughout life the brain from harmful substances. Which type of glial cells is
C. Excitability and electrical signaling primarily involved in forming the blood-brain barrier?
D. Lack of synaptic connections A. Astrocytes
B. Oligodendrocytes
MCQ 46: Which type of neuron is primarily responsible for C. Microglia
connecting sensory and motor neurons, and processing information D. Ependymal cells
within the central nervous system?
A. Multipolar neuron MCQ 56: Which functional classification of neurons provides
B. Bipolar neuron connections between sensory and motor neurons, primarily found in
C. Unipolar neuron the central nervous system?
D. Interneuron A. Sensory neurons
B. Motor neurons
MCQ 47: What is the function of the axon hillock and the initial C. Interneurons
segment in a neuron? D. Multipolar neurons
A. Initiating the action potential
B. Transmitting neurotransmitters MCQ 57: The brain is divided into major portions, including the
C. Receiving sensory input cerebrum, cerebellum, and brainstem. Which part of the brain
D. Regulating metabolic processes occupies the posterior cranial fossa and is marked by gyri and sulci?
A. Cerebrum
MCQ 48: Neurons can vary in length from 1 mm to 1 meter. What B. Cerebellum
structural adaptation allows neurons to transmit signals over long C. Brainstem
distances effectively? D. Longitudinal fissure
A. Presence of myelin sheath
B. High-density of dendrites MCQ 58: What thick bundle of nerve fibers connects the right and
C. Axoplasmic cytoplasm left hemispheres of the cerebrum?
D. Axon terminals with many synapses A. Corpus callosum
B. Gyri
MCQ 49: Which classification of nerve fibers is based on whether C. Sulci
they are associated with the somatic nervous system (voluntary D. Cerebellum
control) or the autonomic nervous system (involuntary control)?
A. Structural classification MCQ 59: The brainstem includes various components, such as the
B. Origin-based classification diencephalon, midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata. What is the
C. Function-based classification role of the brainstem in the brain?

16 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

A. Controls sensory processing MCQ 69: Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is secreted into ventricles by
B. Regulates motor functions choroid plexuses. What is the primary function of these choroid
C. Governs emotional responses plexuses?
D. Connects the cerebrum to the spinal cord A. Nutrient absorption
B. Immune response activation
MCQ 60: Which part of the brain, like the spinal cord, is composed C. Blood filtration
of both grey matter (cell bodies and dendrites) and white matter D. CSF production
(nerve fibers)?
A. Cerebrum MCQ 70: How does CSF flow from the roof of the fourth ventricle
B. Cerebellum into the subarachnoid space and around the brain and spinal cord?
C. Brainstem A. Through direct diffusion
D. Cortex B. Via an intrinsic circulation system
C. Aided by pulsating blood vessels
MCQ 61: In the central nervous system, what term describes a D. Controlled by active pumping
cluster of cell bodies forming grey matter and is found in the
periphery of the brain and the center of the spinal cord? MCQ 71: What is the average daily secretion rate of cerebrospinal
A. Tracts fluid (CSF)?
B. White matter A. 1 ml per minute
C. Grey matter B. 5 ml per minute
D. Nuclei C. 120 ml per minute
D. 720 ml per minute
MCQ 62: Within the nervous system, what is the primary role of
white matter? MCQ 72: What is the specific gravity of CSF, indicating its density
A. Conduct sensory input compared to pure water?
B. Process emotions A. 0.5
C. Coordinate muscle movements B. 1.005
D. Transmit nerve impulses C. 10 cmH2O
D. 30 cmH2O
MCQ 63: Sensory neurons are specialized to detect various stimuli.
Which sensory neurons are sensitive to molecular shapes perceived MCQ 73: Which of the following substances is NOT typically found
as tastes and smells? in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
A. Rods and cones A. Water
B. Neurons in the inner ear B. Glucose
C. Skin neurons C. Red blood cells
D. Neurons in the nose and tongue D. Albumin

MCQ 64: Motor neurons are responsible for stimulating muscle cells. MCQ 74: What is the function of CSF in supporting and protecting
Which muscles are controlled by motor neurons? the brain and spinal cord?
A. Skeletal muscles only A. Providing nutrients to nerve cells
B. Muscles of the heart, diaphragm, intestines, bladder, and glands B. Maintaining a uniform pressure
C. Glands only C. Acting as a shock absorber
D. Smooth muscles only D. Initiating an immune response

MCQ 65: What is the specific function of interneurons within the MCQ 75: Which of the meningeal layers is directly adjacent to the
nervous system? brain's convolutions, completely covering the convolutions and
A. Detect sensory stimuli dipping into each fissure?
B. Stimulate muscle cells A. Dura mater
C. Provide connections between sensory and motor neurons B. Arachnoid mater
D. Transmit impulses away from soma C. Pia mater
D. Subarachnoid space
MCQ 66: What forms the superior sagittal sinus within the brain,
helping to separate different regions? MCQ 76: What forms the superior sagittal sinus within the brain,
A. Dura mater helping to separate different regions?
B. Arachnoid mater A. Dura mater
C. Pia mater B. Arachnoid mater
D. Subarachnoid space C. Pia mater
D. Subarachnoid space
MCQ 67: Which of the following meningeal layers is responsible for
surrounding the spinal cord and extending from the foramen MCQ 77: What function is served by the separation between the
magnum to the second sacral vertebra? arachnoid and pia maters by the subarachnoid space?
A. Dura mater A. To secrete cerebrospinal fluid
B. Arachnoid mater B. To provide a protective covering for the brain
C. Pia mater C. To circulate blood within the brain
D. Subarachnoid space D. To contain cerebrospinal fluid

MCQ 68: What is the primary role of the arachnoid mater within the MCQ 78: What is the role of arachnoid villi (arachnoid granulations)
meningeal layers? in the movement of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
A. Support and protect the brain A. CSF secretion
B. Provide a cushion and shock absorber B. CSF reabsorption
C. Separate the lateral ventricles C. Blood filtration
D. Surround the spinal cord D. Nutrient exchange

17 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

MCQ 79: What is the specific role of CSF pressure measurements MCQ 89: The pons is known as a bridge that connects different parts
through lumbar punctures in clinical practice? of the brain through axons. What functions are associated with the
A. Identifying cranial fissures nuclei in the pons?
B. Monitoring respiratory rate A. Eye movements and facial sensation
C. Assessing brain health B. Hearing and equilibrium
D. Detecting tumors C. Sleep and bladder control
D. All of the above
MCQ 80: The arachnoid mater is separated from the dura mater by
which potential space? MCQ 90: What part of the brainstem, extending from the pons to
A. Subdural space the diencephalon, connects the cerebrum with the lower parts of the
B. Subarachnoid space brain and contains darkly pigmented substantia nigra nuclei?
C. Epidural space A. Cerebellum
D. Periosteum space B. Medulla Oblongata
C. Midbrain
MCQ 81: What meningeal layer is a fine connective tissue containing D. Diencephalon
many minute blood vessels and adheres to the brain, covering the
convolutions and dipping into each fissure? MCQ 91: The reticular formation is a loosely organized core of gray
A. Dura mater matter within the brainstem. What is the primary function of the
B. Arachnoid mater reticular activating system (RAS) within the reticular formation?
C. Pia mater A. Coordination of skeletal muscles
D. Subarachnoid space B. Regulation of cardiovascular activity
C. Sensory axons entering the cerebral cortex
MCQ 82: What structure within the brain is lined with ciliated D. Control of respiration
epithelium and communicates with the third ventricle?
A. Subdural space MCQ 92: Which of the following nuclei or brain regions in the
B. Foramen magnum brainstem is associated with the loss of dopaminergic neurons
C. Interventricular foramina leading to Parkinson's disease?
D. Choroid plexus A. Cerebellum
B. Midbrain
MCQ 83: What is the primary function of the septum lucidum within C. Medulla Oblongata
the brain's ventricular system? D. Diencephalon
A. To separate the cerebral hemispheres
B. To cushion the brain MCQ 93: The right and left cerebellar hemispheres are the major
C. To secrete cerebrospinal fluid components of which part of the adult brain?
D. To provide nutrient exchange A. Midbrain
B. Hindbrain
MCQ 84: Within the brain, where is the third ventricle situated, C. Forebrain
making it distinct from the lateral ventricles? D. Diencephalon
A. Below the corpus callosum
B. Above the cerebellum MCQ 94: What part of the adult brain is responsible for controlling
C. Beneath the thalamus sleep, hearing, equilibrium, taste, eye movements, and bladder
D. Between the falx cerebri control?
A. Cerebellum
MCQ 85: What is the specific role of the choroid plexuses, where B. Medulla Oblongata
cerebrospinal fluid is secreted within the brain's ventricular system? C. Pons
A. Blood filtration D. Diencephalon
B. Glucose storage
C. Blood vessel proliferation MCQ 95: In the CNS, a bundle of axons is referred to as a:
D. Nutrient exchange A. Nucleus
B. Ganglion
MCQ 86: What term refers to a group of cell bodies forming grey C. Tract
matter in the CNS? D. Nerve
A. Ganglion
B. Basal ganglion MCQ 96: The largest part of the brain, which is divided into right and
C. Nucleus left cerebral hemispheres, is called the:
D. Tract A. Brainstem
B. Thalamus
MCQ 87: Which part of the adult brain adjusts blood vessel C. Cerebellum
diameter to regulate blood pressure and controls the rate and depth D. Cerebrum
of breathing through medullary rhythmicity?
A. Cerebellum MCQ 97: What deep cleft divides the cerebrum into right and left
B. Pons cerebral hemispheres?
C. Medulla Oblongata A. Central sulcus
D. Diencephalon B. Lateral sulcus
C. Longitudinal cerebral fissure
MCQ 88: Which cranial nerve pair(s) is/are associated with the D. Parieto-occipital sulcus
nuclei in the medulla that influence functions such as respiration and
swallowing? MCQ 98: Which structure within the cerebrum connects the right
A. Vestibulocochlear nerves (VIII) and left cerebral hemispheres?
B. Glossopharyngeal nerves (IX) A. Corpus callosum
C. Vagus nerves (X) B. Longitudinal fissure
D. All of the above C. Thalamus
D. Brainstem

18 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

C. Reticular formation
MCQ 99: What term describes the folds on the surface of the D. Medulla oblongata
cerebral cortex?
A. Sulci MCQ 109: The reflex centers for actions like vomiting, coughing, and
B. Gyri sneezing are located in the:
C. Fissures A. Midbrain
D. Nuclei B. Medulla oblongata
C. Pons
MCQ 100: The areas within the cerebrum associated with memory, D. Reticular formation
intelligence, thinking, and reasoning are attributed to the:
A. Sensory areas MCQ 110: The reticular formation in the brainstem is responsible
B. Motor areas for:
C. Higher centres A. Coordinating voluntary muscle activity
D. Nuclei B. Controlling heart rate and blood pressure
C. Maintaining balance and posture
MCQ 101: Sensory perception, including the perception of pain, D. Selective awareness through the reticular activating system (RAS)
temperature, touch, sight, hearing, taste, and smell, is associated with
which area of the cerebrum? MCQ 111: The part of the brainstem involved in coordination of
A. Frontal area activities controlled by the autonomic nervous system, such as
B. Parietal area cardiovascular and respiratory activity, is the:
C. Motor area A. Reticular formation
D. Occipital area B. Midbrain
C. Pons
MCQ 102: In the motor area of the cerebrum, the body is D. Medulla oblongata
represented in an inverted manner. Which part of the body is
represented closest to the vertex? MCQ 112: Which structure in the medulla oblongata controls the
A. Head and face rate and depth of respiration?
B. Trunk A. Cardiac center
C. Feet B. Reticular formation
D. Hand C. Vasomotor center
D. Respiratory center
MCQ 103: What is the term for the area in the cerebrum that
controls the movements necessary for speech? MCQ 113: What is the function of the reticular activating system
A. Thalamus (RAS) in the reticular formation?
B. Premotor area A. Coordinating voluntary muscle activity
C. Broca's area B. Regulating heart rate and blood pressure
D. Corpus callosum C. Initiating reflex actions like coughing
D. Selectively blocking or passing sensory information to the
MCQ 104: The area of the cerebrum thought to be associated with cerebral cortex
the behaviour, character, and emotional state of an individual is
known as the: MCQ 114: In which region of the brainstem do irritating substances
A. Sensory area in the stomach or respiratory tract stimulate reflex centers for
B. Frontal area vomiting, coughing, and sneezing?
C. Motor area A. Reticular formation
D. Occipital area B. Medulla oblongata
C. Midbrain
MCQ 105: What part of the cerebrum receives and interprets D. Pons
impulses transmitted from the inner ear as auditory sensations?
A. Temporal area MCQ 115: Which part of the brainstem is responsible for
B. Motor area maintaining balance and coordination of skeletal muscle activity
C. Postcentral area associated with voluntary motor movement?
D. Frontal area A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
MCQ 106: Which part of the brainstem serves as a bridge C. Reticular formation
connecting the cerebrum with the spinal cord and lower brain D. Midbrain
regions?
A. Medulla oblongata MCQ 116: Which part of the brain is responsible for the
B. Midbrain coordination of voluntary muscular movement, posture, and balance?
C. Pons A. Medulla oblongata
D. Reticular formation B. Midbrain
C. Cerebellum
MCQ 107: What special feature in the medulla oblongata involves D. Reticular formation
the crossing of motor nerves from one side of the cerebrum to the
other? MCQ 117: What type of reflex typically involves only two neurons,
A. Sensory decussation one sensory and one motor, and can be elicited by tapping a
B. Vasomotor control stretched tendon?
C. Cardiac center A. Stretch reflex
D. Decussation of the pyramids B. Autonomic reflex
C. Knee-jerk reflex
MCQ 108: The cardiovascular center, which controls the rate and D. Spinal reflex
force of cardiac contraction, is found in which part of the brainstem?
A. Midbrain MCQ 118: The spinal cord is approximately how long in an adult
B. Pons Caucasian male?

19 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

A. 10 cm C. Below the end of the cord, i.e., below the level of the 2nd lumbar
B. 30 cm vertebra
C. 45 cm D. At the level of the 12th thoracic vertebra
D. 60 cm
MCQ 129: How is the cerebellum different from the cerebrum in
MCQ 119: Which part of the spinal cord contains cell bodies of the terms of its anatomical structure?
lower motor neurons responsible for skeletal muscle control? A. It consists primarily of grey matter.
A. Posterior columns B. It controls the functions of the autonomic nervous system.
B. Anterior columns C. The cell bodies (grey matter) are superficial, and the nerve fibers
C. Transverse commissure are deep.
D. Posterior root ganglia D. It is responsible for processing sensory information.

MCQ 120: Involuntary muscle movements, balance, and MCQ 130: Which of the following vital centers is associated with the
coordination are influenced by which type of motor neurons located medulla oblongata?
in areas such as the midbrain and cerebellum? A. Visual processing center
A. Upper motor neurons B. Respiratory center
B. Lower motor neurons C. Speech center
C. Lower motor neurons D. Motor control center
D. Connector neurons
MCQ 131: Damage to the cerebellum can result in:
MCQ 121: What is the primary neurotransmitter that conveys nerve A. Loss of consciousness
impulses across the synapse to stimulate muscle fibers? B. Clumsy uncoordinated muscular movement
A. Dopamine C. Enhanced coordination of voluntary movements
B. Serotonin D. Improved posture and balance
C. Acetylcholine
D. Norepinephrine MCQ 132: Which part of the brainstem is situated in front of the
cerebellum and contains groups of cell bodies associated with cranial
MCQ 122: Which type of nerve impulses contribute to maintaining nerves?
balance, posture, and the perception of the body's position in space? A. Medulla oblongata
A. Sensory impulses from skin B. Midbrain
B. Sensory impulses from tendons, muscles, and joints C. Pons
C. Sensory impulses from the eyes D. Reticular formation
D. Sensory impulses from the ears
MCQ 133: The spinal cord is the primary link between the brain and
MCQ 123: Which part of the spinal cord is responsible for the rest of the body, with exceptions of:
coordinating activities related to the autonomic nervous system? A. Cranial nerves
A. Posterior columns B. Spinal nerves
B. Anterior columns C. Ventricles
C. Lateral columns D. Meninges
D. Grey matter
MCQ 134: The reticular activating system (RAS) plays a role in:
MCQ 124: In a simple reflex arc, what are the three main elements? A. Blocking sensory information to the cerebral cortex
A. Sensory, motor, and connector neurons B. Processing visual information
B. Lower motor neurons, sensory neurons, and reflex neurons C. Coordinating voluntary muscle activity
C. Afferent neurons, efferent neurons, and relay neurons D. Selectively passing or blocking sensory information to the
D. Upper motor neurons, lower motor neurons, and sensory cerebral cortex
neurons
MCQ 135: Which part of the brainstem has a vast number of
MCQ 125: The posterior root ganglia are composed of cell bodies synaptic links with other parts of the brain and is constantly receiving
that: "information" being transmitted in ascending and descending tracts?
A. Promote the initiation of nerve impulses A. Medulla oblongata
B. Relay sensory impulses to the spinal cord B. Midbrain
C. Contribute to the formation of white matter in the cord C. Pons
D. Lie just outside the spinal cord on the pathway of sensory nerves D. Reticular formation

MCQ 126: The cerebellum controls and coordinates movements of MCQ 136: What is the term for a group of cell bodies forming grey
muscles based on sensory input from which of the following? matter in the central nervous system?
A. Eyes only A. Ganglion
B. Muscles and joints, eyes, and ears B. Tract
C. Muscles and joints only C. Nucleus
D. Ears only D. Nerve

MCQ 127: What is the name of the median strip that separates the MCQ 137: Where can you find the basal ganglia in the brain?
two hemispheres of the cerebellum? A. In the hindbrain
A. Cortex B. In the cerebral cortex
B. Vermis C. Deep within each cerebral hemisphere
C. White matter D. In the spinal cord
D. Sulcus
MCQ 138: What part of the brain connects various brain regions
MCQ 128: When a specimen of cerebrospinal fluid is needed, where with each other through axons?
is it typically taken from, below the spinal cord level? A. Cerebellum
A. At the level of the 1st lumbar vertebra B. Midbrain
B. At the level of the 4th lumbar vertebra C. Pons

20 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

D. Medulla Oblongata B. Axillary nerve

C. Musculocutaneous nerve
MCQ 139: Which of the following functions are associated with the D. Median nerve
medulla oblongata?
A. Sleep regulation MCQ 149: The main branches of the lumbar plexus supply the skin
B. Visual processing and muscles in which region of the body?
C. Heartbeat control A. Upper limbs
D. Taste sensation B. Pelvic floor and thigh
C. Lower abdomen and thigh
MCQ 140: The pons contains nuclei that relay signals from the D. Abdomen and lower back
cerebrum to the cerebellum. Which of the following is NOT a
function of these nuclei? MCQ 150: Which nerve, one of the largest branches of the sacral
A. Swallowing plexus, supplies the muscles of the front of the thigh and descends in
B. Hearing close association with the femoral artery?
C. Posture control A. Sciatic nerve
D. Temperature regulation B. Common peroneal nerve
C. Femoral nerve
MCQ 141: The substantia nigra, which is darkly pigmented, is found D. Iliohypogastric nerve
in which part of the brain?
A. Midbrain MCQ 151: The common peroneal nerve divides into which two
B. Cerebellum branches in the front of the leg?
C. Diencephalon A. Tibial nerve and sural nerve
D. Medulla Oblongata B. Deep peroneal nerve and superficial peroneal nerve
C. Median nerve and ulnar nerve
MCQ 142: What is the result of the loss of dopaminergic neurons in D. Radial nerve and ulnar nerve
the substantia nigra?
A. Parkinson's disease MCQ 152: Which nerve supplies the muscles of the upper arm and
B. Alzheimer's disease the skin of the forearm?
C. Multiple sclerosis A. Radial nerve
D. Epilepsy B. Axillary nerve
C. Ulnar nerve
MCQ 143: Which part of the brainstem is responsible for controlling D. Median nerve
various activities of the autonomic nervous system (ANS), including
cardiovascular, respiratory, and gastrointestinal activities? MCQ 153: Which of the following is not a branch of the brachial
A. Reticular Formation plexus?
B. Pons A. Ulnar nerve
C. Medulla Oblongata B. Radial nerve
D. Midbrain C. Median nerve
D. Femoral nerve
MCQ 144: The reticular formation runs through the core of the
brainstem and is composed of gray matter interspersed among small MCQ 154: The sacral plexus provides which nerve, known as the
bundles of myelinated axons. What is the primary function of the largest nerve in the body, with fibers from L4, L5, S1, S2, and S3?
reticular activating system (RAS) within this formation? A. Median nerve
A. Processing visual information B. Iliohypogastric nerve
B. Coordination of skeletal muscles C. Pudendal nerve
C. Relaying sensory axons to the cerebral cortex D. Sciatic nerve
D. Regulation of temperature and blood pressure
MCQ 155: The coccygeal plexus is formed by parts of which nerves
MCQ 145: What part of the brainstem serves as a bridge, connecting and supplies the skin and muscles in the area of the coccyx?
different regions of the brain with one another through axons? A. First and second lumbar nerves
A. Cerebellum B. Fourth and fifth sacral nerves
B. Midbrain C. Fourth and fifth cervical nerves
C. Medulla Oblongata D. Third and fourth thoracic nerves
D. Pons
MCQ 156: Selective awareness refers to the brain's ability to:
MCQ 146: Which plexus is formed by the anterior rami of the first A. Ignore all sensory stimuli during sleep
four cervical nerves and lies beneath the sternocleidomastoid B. Stay alert to all sensory stimuli equally
muscle? C. Filter out repetitive or inconsequential stimuli
A. Brachial plexus D. Only process sensory information from the thalamus
B. Lumbar plexus
C. Cervical plexus MCQ 157: Which part of the diencephalon is involved in functions
D. Sacral plexus such as arousal, taste, smell, and hearing?
A. Thalamus
MCQ 147: Which nerve originating from cervical roots 3, 4, and 5 B. Hypothalamus
stimulates diaphragm contraction? C. Epithalamus
A. Iliohypogastric nerve D. Cerebrum
B. Phrenic nerve
C. Femoral nerve MCQ 158: What is the primary function of the pineal gland in the
D. Sciatic nerve epithalamus?
A. Regulating body temperature
MCQ 148: Which nerve supplies the deltoid muscle, shoulder joint, B. Promoting sleep through melatonin secretion
and overlying skin? C. Controlling emotional responses to odors of food
A. Radial nerve D. Assisting in reading, writing, and thinking

21 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

D. Thyroxine
MCQ 159: The corpus callosum serves to:
A. Control visceral functions MCQ 170: The main function of the corpus callosum is to:
B. Promote memory and emotional behaviors A. Regulate emotional behaviors
C. Connect the two cerebral hemispheres B. Control visceral functions
D. Regulate hormone secretion C. Connect the two cerebral hemispheres
D. Support the limbic system
MCQ 160: The frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital lobes of the
cerebrum are named after: MCQ 171: Which meningeal layer forms a thin and transparent
A. The functions they control innermost covering of the brain?
B. The bones that cover them A. Dura mater
C. The primary senses they process B. Arachnoid mater
D. Their locations within the brain C. Pia mater
D. Tentorum cerebelli
MCQ 161: Which of the following is not one of the basal ganglia
nuclei? MCQ 172: In which meningeal layer is the subarachnoid space
A. Globus pallidus located, which contains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
B. Putamen A. Dura mater
C. Caudate nucleus B. Arachnoid mater
D. Thalamus C. Pia mater
D. Epidural space
MCQ 162: The basal ganglia are primarily involved in:
A. Regulating initiation and termination of movements MCQ 173: What is the role of the cisterna magna, a prominent
B. Processing sensory information cistern in the subarachnoid space?
C. Maintaining homeostasis A. It stores excess blood supply to the brain.
D. Regulating hormonal secretions B. It houses the pineal gland responsible for melatonin production.
C. It contains a significant amount of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
MCQ 163: The limbic system is often referred to as the "emotional D. It controls the passage of nerve impulses.
brain" and includes which of the following nuclei?
A. Hypothalamus and thalamus MCQ 174: Which ventricle of the brain is located between the pons
B. Amygdala and hippocampus and cerebellum, forming a small chamber?
C. Basal ganglia and cortex A. Lateral ventricle
D. Corpus callosum and caudate nucleus B. Third ventricle
C. Fourth ventricle
MCQ 164: Which meningeal layer lines the cranium and forms two D. Central canal
large folds that support the brain?
A. Pia mater MCQ 175: The central canal of the fourth ventricle extends through
B. Arachnoid mater which part of the nervous system?
C. Falx cerebri A. Cerebellum
D. Dura mater B. Medulla oblongata
C. Spinal cord
MCQ 165: The space between the dura and arachnoid matter is D. Corpus callosum
called:
A. Subarachnoid space MCQ 176: Where is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) produced in the
B. Epidural space central nervous system (CNS)?
C. Subdural space A. In the subarachnoid space
D. Tentorum cerebelli B. In the cerebral cortex
C. In the choroid plexuses of the ventricles
MCQ 166: The superior sagittal sinus collects venous blood along D. In the central canal of the spinal cord
the:
A. Mid-sagittal line under the cranium MCQ 177: How does CSF flow from the lateral ventricles to the
B. Lateral aspects of the cerebrum third ventricle in the CNS?
C. Base of the spinal cord A. Through the subarachnoid space
D. Frontal lobe of the brain B. Via the cerebral aqueduct
C. Across the interventricular foramina
MCQ 167: Which meningeal layer separates the two hemispheres of D. By diffusion through the ventricle walls
the cerebrum?
A. Falx cerebri MCQ 178: What is the primary function of CSF in the CNS?
B. Falx cerebelli A. To cushion the brain and spinal cord
C. Tentorum cerebelli B. To transport nutrients from blood to nervous tissue
D. Dura mater C. To carry oxygen to the neurons
D. To produce neurotransmitters for neuronal signaling
MCQ 168: The primary function of the basal ganglia is to:
A. Control sensory perceptions MCQ 179: What is the role of arachnoid villi in the circulation of
B. Regulate hormonal secretions cerebrospinal fluid?
C. Initiate and terminate movements A. To create CSF from blood plasma
D. Facilitate memory and learning B. To reabsorb CSF back into the bloodstream
C. To produce CSF in the choroid plexus
MCQ 169: The pineal gland in the epithalamus secretes which D. To store excess CSF in cisterns
hormone related to sleep?
A. Adrenaline MCQ 180: The cranial nerves that emerge from the brain and pass
B. Insulin through the cranium are part of which nervous system?
C. Melatonin A. Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)

22 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

B. Central Nervous System (CNS) D. Sense of hearing

C. Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)
D. Somatic Nervous System (SNS) MCQ 191: The maxillary division (V2) of the trigeminal nerve is
mainly responsible for sensory input from which regions?
MCQ 181: Which pair of cranial nerves is responsible for sensory A. Lower face and mastication
input related to the sense of smell and vision? B. Upper eyelid and forehead
A. Cranial nerve I and II C. Palate and lower teeth
B. Cranial nerve V and VI D. Nasal cavity and side of the nose
C. Cranial nerve VII and VIII
D. Cranial nerve X and XI MCQ 192: The mandibular division (V3) of the trigeminal nerve has a
mixed composition. What is one of its primary motor functions?
MCQ 182: How are cranial nerves typically classified in terms of A. Control of eye movements
their functions? B. Chewing (mastication)
A. Sensory only C. Controlling taste sensations
B. Motor only D. Regulation of sense of touch
C. Mixed (both motor and sensory)
D. Autonomic MCQ 193: Which cranial nerve is predominantly motor and controls
eye movements?
MCQ 183: Which cranial nerve emerges from the brain and is A. Olfactory Nerve (I)
specifically related to vision? B. Optic Nerve (II)
A. Cranial nerve I C. Abducens nerve (VI)
B. Cranial nerve II D. Trigeminal Nerve (V)
C. Cranial nerve V
D. Cranial nerve VII MCQ 194: The term "abducens" in the name of the Abducens nerve
(VI) relates to its function. What does it mean?
MCQ 184: The circulation of cerebrospinal fluid allows for the A. To constrict the pupil
exchange of what between the blood and nervous tissue? B. To lead the eye away from the nose
A. Glucose C. To control eye movements
B. Neurotransmitters D. To sense touch
C. Nutrients and waste products
D. Oxygen and carbon dioxide MCQ 195: The clinical test for the Abducens nerve often involves
assessing what function?
MCQ 185: What role does CSF play in chemical protection in the A. Taste sensation
central nervous system? B. Mobility of the mandible
A. It acts as a physical barrier against chemical substances. C. Mobility of the tongue
B. It maintains a stable ionic composition for accurate neuronal D. Eye movements
signaling.
C. It enhances the production of neurotransmitters. MCQ 196: Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible for the
D. It promotes chemical reactions between neurons. sensation of smell?
A. Abducens nerve (VI)
MCQ 186: Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell? B. Olfactory Nerve (I)
A. Olfactory Nerve (I) C. Trochlear Nerve (IV)
B. Optic Nerve (II) D. Trigeminal Nerve (V)
C. Oculomotor Nerve (III)
D. Trochlear Nerve (IV) MCQ 197: Which cranial nerve is responsible for sensory input from
the inferior region of the face and is involved in mastication
MCQ 187: The optic nerve (II) is primarily involved in which sensory (chewing)?
function? A. Optic Nerve (II)
A. Hearing B. Oculomotor Nerve (III)
B. Taste C. Abducens nerve (VI)
C. Smell D. Trigeminal Nerve (V3)
D. Vision
MCQ 198: What is the main sensory function of the oculomotor
MCQ 188: The oculomotor nerve (III) plays a role in controlling nerve (III)?
which of the following? A. Control of eye movements
A. Sense of touch B. Sense of smell
B. Auditory functions C. Taste sensations
C. Eye movements and constriction of the pupil D. Hearing
D. Taste sensations
MCQ 199: The trochlear nerve (IV) is primarily involved in
MCQ 189: The trochlear nerve (IV) is responsible for which primary controlling what functions?
function? A. Sense of touch
A. Sense of smell B. Mastication
B. Taste sensations C. Eye movements
C. Eye movements and proprioception D. Taste sensations
D. Hearing
MCQ 200: The trigeminal nerve (V) is the largest of the cranial
MCQ 190: The trigeminal nerve (V) has three divisions, one of which nerves and consists of three divisions. Which division is responsible
is the ophthalmic division (V1). What is the primary function of the for sensation from the lower face and mastication?
ophthalmic division? A. Ophthalmic Division (V1)
A. Sense of taste B. Maxillary Division (V2)
B. Sensation from the upper eyelid, forehead, and nasal cavity C. Mandibular Division (V3)
C. Control of eye movements D. Trochlear Division (V4)

23 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

C. Third lumbar vertebra

MCQ 201: What is a reflex in the context of the nervous system? D. Fourth lumbar vertebra
A. A slow and voluntary response to stimuli
B. A rapid and predictable response to stimuli MCQ 212: When does the elongation of the spinal cord typically
C. A response only involving skeletal muscles stop in humans?
D. A type of brainwave activity A. Around the age of 10
B. At birth
MCQ 202: Which of the following describes a reflex arc? C. Around the age of 4 or 5
A. A complex neural pathway involving multiple sensory neurons D. It continues throughout life
B. A direct route from a sensory neuron to an effector
C. A circuit within the spinal cord but not involving the brain MCQ 213: Which region of the spinal cord is responsible for nerves
D. A voluntary and conscious response to stimuli to and from the upper limbs?
A. Cervical enlargement
MCQ 203: What types of reflexes are involved in regulating heart B. Lumbar enlargement
rate and blood pressure? C. Conus medullaris
A. Somatic Reflexes D. Thoracic region
B. Smooth Muscle Regulation Reflexes
C. Autonomic Reflexes MCQ 214: Which region of the spinal cord is responsible for nerves
D. Digestive System Reflexes to and from the lower limbs?
A. Cervical enlargement
MCQ 204: What does a spinal tap (lumbar puncture) involve? B. Lumbar enlargement
A. Inserting a catheter into the bladder for urine collection C. Conus medullaris
B. Giving a local anesthetic and inserting a needle into the D. Sacral region
subarachnoid space
C. Surgical removal of a section of the spinal cord MCQ 215: What is the function of the filum terminale?
D. A diagnostic procedure involving the spine A. Transmit sensory information to the brain
B. Anchor the spinal nerves to the cervical vertebrae
MCQ 205: The primary purpose of a spinal tap (lumbar puncture) is C. Transmit motor commands from the brain to the limbs
to: D. Anchor the spinal nerves to the coccyx
A. Assess the alignment of the vertebral column
B. Measure bone density in the lumbar region MCQ 216: Why are the roots of spinal nerves that arise from the
C. Withdraw cerebrospinal fluid for diagnostic purposes lumbar, sacrum, and coccygeal regions collectively called "cauda
D. Administer antibiotics into the spinal cord equina"?
A. Because they resemble a horse's tail
MCQ 206: In a spinal tap, where is the needle typically inserted in B. Because they are thicker than other nerve roots
the lumbar region? C. Because they leave the vertebral column at the same level they
A. Between the eyes exit the cord
B. Between the first and second lumbar vertebrae D. Because they are segmented like a caterpillar
C. Between the fifth and sixth lumbar vertebrae
D. Between the seventh and eighth lumbar vertebrae MCQ 217: How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with the
lumbar region?
MCQ 207: What is the purpose of measuring cerebrospinal fluid A. 8 pairs
pressure during a spinal tap? B. 5 pairs
A. To assess the alignment of the vertebral column C. 12 pairs
B. To determine the patient's hydration status D. 1 pair
C. To diagnose spinal cord injuries
D. To check for conditions like meningitis or intracranial pressure MCQ 218: Which region of the vertebral column corresponds to the
sacral nerves?
MCQ 208: Which protective structures are associated with the A. Thoracic region
spinal cord? B. Cervical region
A. Rib cage and sternum C. Sacral region
B. Meninges and cerebellum D. Lumbar region
C. Vertebral column and meninges
D. Skull and cerebrospinal fluid MCQ 219: What is the name of the two bundles of axons that
connect each spinal nerve to a segment of the spinal cord?
MCQ 209: What types of reflexes are involved in regulating digestive A. Filum terminale
system functions? B. Roots
A. Somatic Reflexes C. Conus medullaris
B. Autonomic Reflexes D. Cauda equina
C. Smooth Muscle Regulation Reflexes
D. Reflexes controlled by the cerebellum MCQ 220: Which part of the spinal cord is responsible for nerves
that supply the thoracic region of the body?
MCQ 210: What is the primary function of the spinal cord in terms A. Cervical enlargement
of communication within the nervous system? B. Thoracic region
A. Mediating complex thought processes C. Lumbar enlargement
B. Transmitting sensory information to the brain D. Conus medullaris
C. Regulating heart rate and blood pressure
D. Controlling smooth muscle in the digestive system MCQ 221: Which type of root contains sensory axons that transmit
nerve impulses from sensory receptors to the central nervous
MCQ 211: In adults, the spinal cord extends to the superior border system?
of which lumbar vertebra? A. Dorsal root
A. Second lumbar vertebra B. Ventral root
B. First lumbar vertebra C. Sympathetic root

24 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

D. Parasympathetic root MCQ 232: The sympathetic division arises from which regions of the
spinal cord?
MCQ 222: Where can you find the dorsal root ganglion? A. Cervical and lumbar
A. In the spinal cord B. Thoracic and lumbar
B. In the brain C. Lumbar and sacral
C. Within the dorsal root D. Thoracic and sacral
D. Within the ventral root
MCQ 233: The parasympathetic division is also known as the:
MCQ 223: Which type of root contains axons of motor neurons A. Thoracolumbar division
that conduct nerve impulses from the central nervous system to B. Craniosacral division
effector organs and cells? C. Cervical division
A. Dorsal root D. Lumbosacral division
B. Ventral root
C. Sympathetic root MCQ 234: Which division of the autonomic nervous system is
D. Parasympathetic root concerned with conserving energy and is often referred to as "rest
and digest"?
MCQ 224: What is the function of the cervical plexus in the neck? A. Sympathetic division
A. It controls arm and hand movements B. Parasympathetic division
B. It helps with head movements and feeling in the neck C. Somatic division
C. It controls abdominal muscles D. Visceral division
D. It manages sensations in the buttocks
MCQ 235: What is the main neurotransmitter released by
MCQ 225: Which plexus is located in the lower back and is preganglionic axons of both the sympathetic and parasympathetic
responsible for muscles and sensations in the abdominal area and divisions?
upper legs? A. Norepinephrine
A. Cervical Plexus B. Acetylcholine
B. Brachial Plexus C. Serotonin
C. Lumbar Plexus D. Dopamine
D. Sacral Plexus
MCQ 236: Which division of the autonomic nervous system
MCQ 226: Which part of the body does the sacral plexus take care primarily releases norepinephrine (adrenergic) as its
of? neurotransmitter?
A. Upper limbs A. Parasympathetic division
B. Neck and head B. Somatic division
C. Lower limbs and feet C. Sympathetic division
D. Abdominal area D. Visceral division

MCQ 227: What is the function of plexuses in the nervous system? MCQ 237: What is the main neurotransmitter released by
A. They contain sensory neurons postganglionic axons of the parasympathetic division?
B. They are involved in conscious movements A. Norepinephrine
C. They help with proprioception B. Acetylcholine
D. They ensure that messages from the brain reach the right C. Serotonin
destination D. Dopamine

MCQ 228: The autonomic nervous system (ANS) controls which MCQ 238: The sympathetic division is often associated with which
types of muscles and glands? physiological state or response?
A. Skeletal muscles A. Rest and digest
B. Cardiac muscles and smooth muscles B. Conservation of energy
C. Muscles in the extremities C. "Fight, flight, or fright"
D. Cutaneous muscles D. Calming effects

MCQ 229: Which division of the ANS increases alertness and heart MCQ 239: Which division of the autonomic nervous system has
rate while reducing blood flow to the skin and digestive tract? short postganglionic fibers and primarily influences localized effects
A. Parasympathetic division on organs?
B. Sympathetic division A. Parasympathetic division
C. Somatic division B. Somatic division
D. Autonomic division C. Sympathetic division
D. Visceral division
MCQ 230: What is the role of the visceral Reflex arc in the ANS?
A. To control skeletal muscles MCQ 240: The sympathetic axons are known for being highly
B. To transmit sensory information branched, influencing many organs. What characterizes the branching
C. To regulate visceral reflexes in response to stimuli of parasympathetic axons?
D. To stimulate conscious movements A. Few branches with a localized effect
B. Extensive branching influencing many organs
MCQ 231: Which division of the autonomic nervous system is C. Long postganglionic fibers
known for its "fight, flight, or fright" response and is activated during D. Short postganglionic fibers
exercise, excitement, and emergencies?
A. Sympathetic division
B. Parasympathetic division
C. Somatic division
D. Autonomic division

25 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

1. D 31. C 61. C 91. C 121. C 151. B 181. A 211. A

2. D 32. D 62. D 92. B 122. B 152. C 182. C 212. C
3. D 33. C 63. D 93. B 123. C 153. D 183. B 213. A
4. D 34. D 64. B 94. C 124. A 154. D 184. C 214. B
5. A 35. B 65. C 95. C 125. D 155. B 185. B 215. D
6. C 36. C 66. A 96. D 126. B 156. C 186. A 216. A
7. D 37. D 67. A 97. C 127. B 157. A 187. D 217. B
8. B 38. C 68. B 98. A 128. C 158. B 188. C 218. C
9. A 39. D 69. D 99. B 129. C 159. C 189. C 219. B
10. A 40. C 70. C 100. C 130. B 160. B 190. B 220. B
11. D 41. C 71. D 101. B 131. B 161. D 191. C 221. A
12. D 42. A 72. B 102. A 132. C 162. A 192. B 222. C
13. C 43. A 73. C 103. C 133. A 163. B 193. C 223. B
14. B 44. C 74. C 104. B 134. D 164. D 194. B 224. B ANSWERS
15. C 45. C 75. C 105. A 135. D 165. C 195. D 225. C
16. A 46. D 76. A 106. B 136. C 166. A 196. B 226. D
17. D 47. A 77. B 107. D 137. C 167. A 197. D 227. D
18. B 48. C 78. B 108. D 138. B 168. C 198. A 228. B
19. B 49. D 79. D 109. B 139. C 169. C 199. C 229. B
20. D 50. B 80. A 110. D 140. B 170. C 200. C 230. C
21. A 51. C 81. C 111. C 141. A 171. C 201. B 231. A
22. A 52. B 82. C 112. D 142. A 172. B 202. B 232. B
23. D 53. C 83. A 113. D 143. C 173. C 203. B 233. B
24. C 54. B 84. C 114. B 144. C 174. C 204. B 234. B
25. D 55. A 85. D 115. A 145. D 175. C 205. C 235. B
26. B 56. C 86. C 116. C 146. C 176. C 206. B 236. C
27. D 57. B 87. C 117. A 147. B 177. C 207. D 237. B
28. C 58. A 88. D 118. C 148. B 178. A 208. C 238. C
29. B 59. D 89. D 119. B 149. C 179. B 209. C 239. A
30. D 60. D 90. B 120. A 150. C 180. A 210. B 240. A

26 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

UNIT 4 Special Senses MCQ 11: Which cranial nerve supplies the ear and is stimulated by
MCQ 1: Which type of receptors respond to chemicals such as odor, vibrations caused by sound waves?
taste, and changes in body fluid composition? A. Cranial Nerve I
A. Thermoreceptors B. Cranial Nerve V
B. Nociceptors C. Cranial Nerve VIII
C. Chemoreceptors D. Cranial Nerve X
D. Mechanoreceptors
MCQ 12: The structures of the ear, except the auricle, are encased
MCQ 2: If you experience a sharp pain when you accidentally touch a within which part of the temporal bone?
hot stove, which type of receptors are primarily responsible for A. Petrous portion
sensing this pain? B. Squamous portion
A. Proprioceptors C. Zygomatic bone
B. Thermoreceptors D. Sphenoid bone
C. Chemoreceptors
D. Nociceptors MCQ 13: Which part of the outer ear is composed of fibroelastic
cartilage covered with skin and is deeply grooved and ridged?
MCQ 3: Which part of the ear conducts air vibrations to the A. Tympanic cavity
eardrum and helps prevent the entry of dust and microbes? B. Helix
A. Tympanic cavity C. Vestibule
B. Vestibule D. Tympanic membrane
C. Auditory canal
D. Semicircular canal MCQ 14: The meatus that extends from the auricle to the tympanic
membrane is lined with skin and contains sebaceous and ceruminous
MCQ 4: The smallest bones in the human body, known as the glands. What is its name?
auditory ossicles, connect the eardrum to which part of the ear? A. Nasal meatus
A. Cochlea B. External acoustic meatus
B. Semicircular canals C. Laryngeal meatus
C. Vestibule D. Auditory canal
D. Tympanic cavity
MCQ 15: Which part of the ear completely separates the external
MCQ 5: The stapedius and tensor tympani are two small muscles acoustic meatus from the middle ear?
found in the: A. Stapes
A. Eye B. Tympanic membrane
B. Ear C. Incus
C. Tongue D. Oval window
D. Nose
MCQ 16: The middle ear is an air-filled cavity within which portion
MCQ 6: The organ of Corti is located within which part of the inner of the temporal bone?
ear? A. Mastoid process
A. Cochlea B. Sphenoid bone
B. Vestibule C. Petrous portion
C. Semicircular canals D. Ethmoid bone
D. Tympanic membrane
MCQ 17: The structure that connects the tympanic membrane to
MCQ 7: Which fluid-filled chambers are separated by membranes the oval window is called the:
within the cochlea? A. Cochlear duct
A. Scala media, scala vestibuli, and scala tympani B. Tympanic cavity
B. Semicircular canals, vestibule, and tympanic cavity C. Auditory ossicles
C. Vestibule, tympanic cavity, and auditory canal D. Vestibule
D. Organ of Corti, endolymph, and perilymph
MCQ 18: Which small bone in the middle ear is shaped like a
MCQ 8: Which part of the ear contains receptors for equilibrium? hammer and connects with the tympanic membrane?
A. Cochlea A. Stapes
B. Semicircular canals B. Incus
C. Vestibule C. Malleus
D. Tympanic cavity D. Vestibule

MCQ 9: The membranous labyrinth is located within which part of MCQ 19: The fine sheet of fibrous tissue that covers the round
the inner ear? window in the middle ear is called:
A. Cochlea A. Stapes
B. Semicircular canals B. Incus
C. Vestibule C. Tympanic membrane
D. Tympanic cavity D. Round window

MCQ 10: Which type of receptors are responsible for responding to MCQ 20: In the inner ear, the bony labyrinth encloses which
physical deformations such as vibration, touch, pressure, stretch, or fluid-filled cavity?
tension? A. Perilymph
A. Thermoreceptors B. Endolymph
B. Chemoreceptors C. Middle ear
C. Mechanoreceptors D. Membranous labyrinth
D. Photoreceptors
MCQ 21: What is the name of the expanded part of the inner ear
closest to the middle ear that contains the oval and round windows?

27 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

A. Vestibule A. Conjunctiva
B. Saccule B. Auricle
C. Cochlea C. Eyelids
D. Semicircular canals D. Semicircular canals

MCQ 22: The part of the inner ear that resembles a snail's shell and MCQ 32: What is the space between the upper and lower eyelids
contains auditory receptors is called: known as?
A. Semicircular canals A. Palpebral fissure
B. Vestibule B. Bulbar conjunctiva
C. Cochlea C. Tympanic membrane
D. Tympanic membrane D. Vestibular branch

MCQ 23: Sound waves have properties of pitch and volume. What is MCQ 33: What type of epithelium lines the conjunctiva that covers
pitch measured in? the sclera?
A. Decibels (dB) A. Stratified squamous epithelium
B. Hertz (Hz) B. Simple squamous epithelium
C. Megapascals (MPa) C. Stratified columnar epithelium
D. Amps (A) D. Stratified cuboidal epithelium

MCQ 24: Which part of the inner ear is responsible for detecting MCQ 34: The bulbar conjunctiva covers the sclera but not the
changes in head position and contributes to maintaining posture and cornea. What is the primary function of the cornea?
balance? A. To protect the eyes
A. Cochlea B. To provide color to the eyes
B. Semicircular canals C. To help in focusing on objects
C. Vestibule D. To produce tears
D. Tympanic membrane
MCQ 35: In the process of hearing, what structure is primarily
MCQ 25: How is the awareness of body position, maintenance of responsible for transmitting vibrations from the stapes to the oval
upright posture, and fixation of the eyes on the same point achieved, window?
involving the vestibular system? A. Malleus
A. Through the olfactory nerve B. Cochlear duct
B. Through the optic nerve C. Tympanic membrane
C. Through the vestibulocochlear nerve D. Incus
D. Through the trigeminal nerve
MCQ 36: What is the primary function of eyelashes and eyebrows?
MCQ 26: What is the function of the auricle in the process of A. To protect the eyes from UV radiation
hearing? B. To produce tears
A. It transmits sound waves to the eardrum. C. To assist in hearing
B. It amplifies sound waves. D. To protect the eyes from foreign objects and sweat
C. It converts sound waves into nerve impulses.
D. It directs sound waves into the auditory canal. MCQ 37: What is the primary function of the sebaceous ciliary
glands associated with the eyelashes?
MCQ 27: In the process of hearing, what transmits vibrations from A. To produce tears
the eardrum to the incus? B. To drain lacrimal fluid
A. Malleus C. To release sebum
B. Stapes D. To help in focusing on objects
C. Cochlea
D. Oval window MCQ 38: Where does lacrimal fluid produced by the lacrimal glands
ultimately drain?
MCQ 28: What is responsible for vibrating the fluid in the perilymph A. Into the ear canal
of the cochlea during the hearing process? B. Into the throat
A. Tympanic membrane C. Into the nasal cavity
B. Incus D. Into the bloodstream
C. Vestibular branch
D. Stapes MCQ 39: What is the term for an infection of the lacrimal sac?
A. Hordeolum
MCQ 29: What is the function of hair cells in the organ of Corti B. Stye
during the process of hearing? C. Dacryocystitis
A. They transmit vibrations to the oval window. D. Conjunctivitis
B. They stimulate the vestibulocochlear nerve.
C. They convert sound waves into nerve impulses. MCQ 40: What component in tears has bactericidal properties?
D. They bend by the endolymph in the ampulla. A. Melanin
B. Sebum
MCQ 30: What is the role of the cerebellum and cerebrum in C. Lysozyme
maintaining equilibrium? D. Retinol
A. They transmit nerve impulses to the semicircular canals.
B. They are responsible for transmitting sound waves to the cochlea. MCQ 41: Which cranial nerves are responsible for controlling the
C. They provide feedback to skeletal muscles to maintain extrinsic eye muscles?
equilibrium. A. Cranial nerves II, IV, V
D. They transmit nerve impulses to the oval window. B. Cranial nerves III, IV, VI
C. Cranial nerves V, VI, VII
MCQ 31: Which accessory structure of the eye protects the eyes D. Cranial nerves III, V, VII
and includes the upper and lower parts called palpebrae?

28 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

MCQ 42: What is the primary function of the extrinsic eye muscles? C. Retinal muscles
A. To control the movement of the mouth D. Extraocular muscles
B. To control the movement of each ear
C. To control the movement of each eye and hold the eyes in the MCQ 52: To achieve clear vision, light reflected from objects within
orbits the visual field must be focused on which part of the eye?
D. To control the movement of the fingers A. Sclera
B. Choroid
MCQ 43: Which layer of the eyeball is responsible for admitting light C. Ciliary body
into the eye? D. Retina
A. Tunica fibrosa (Sclera)
B. Tunica vasculosa (Choroid) MCQ 53: Which nerve controls the size of the pupils in response to
C. Tunica interna (Retina) varying light conditions?
D. Cornea A. Trochlear nerve
B. Abducens nerve
MCQ 44: What is the function of the canal of Schlemm? C. Optic nerve
A. To admit light into the eye D. Oculomotor nerve
B. To drain aqueous humor
C. To focus light onto the retina MCQ 54: The ciliary body is mainly responsible for changing the
D. To absorb stray light thickness of which eye structure?
A. Cornea
MCQ 45.1: What is the primary role of the choroid in the eyeball? B. Sclera
A. To produce tears C. Choroid
B. To control the movement of the eyeball D. Lens
C. To prevent reflection and scattering of light
D. To admit light into the eye MCQ 55: Which layer of the eye is highly sensitive to light and
contains sensory receptor cells, including rods and cones?
MCQ 45.2: What is the primary function of the suspensory ligament A. Sclera
in the eye? B. Cornea
A. Controlling pupil size C. Choroid
B. Secreting aqueous fluid D. Retina
C. Suspending the lens and controlling its thickness
D. Aiding in the transmission of nerve impulses MCQ 56: Which part of the eye is involved in focusing light rays on
the retina by changing its thickness?
MCQ 46: Which layer of the eye is the most sensitive to light and A. Choroid
contains rods and cones? B. Retina
A. Sclera C. Sclera
B. Cornea D. Lens
C. Choroid
D. Retina MCQ 57: The lens of the eye is a biconvex, transparent body. What
changes its refractive power to focus light on the retina?
MCQ 47: The electromagnetic spectrum consists of various types of A. Ciliary muscle
waves. Which part of the spectrum is NOT visible to the human eye? B. Retina
A. Infrared rays C. Sclera
B. Microwaves D. Cornea
C. Ultraviolet rays
D. Gamma rays MCQ 58: What is the primary role of the iris in the eye?
A. To change the size of the pupils
MCQ 48: In a bright light environment, what happens to the size of B. To secrete aqueous fluid
the pupils? C. To absorb excess light
A. They dilate D. To transmit nerve impulses
B. They remain unchanged
C. They oscillate MCQ 59: In the optic chiasma, which fibers from the retina cross to
D. They constrict the opposite side, providing both cerebral hemispheres with sensory
input from each eye?
MCQ 49: Which of the following structures in the eye is primarily A. Nasal fibers
responsible for maintaining the shape of the eye and providing B. Temporal fibers
attachment for eye muscles? C. Optic fibers
A. Cornea D. Retinal fibers
B. Choroid
C. Retina MCQ 60: The primary function of the vitreous body (humour) in the
D. Sclera eye is to:
A. Control the size of the pupils
MCQ 50: The optic chiasma is located near which important B. Provide color perception
endocrine gland? C. Maintain intraocular pressure and support the retina
A. Thyroid gland D. Refract light to focus it on the retina
B. Pituitary gland
C. Adrenal gland MCQ 61: What role does the ciliary muscle play in the eye?
D. Pancreas A. Controls the size of the pupils
B. Secretes aqueous humor
MCQ 51: Which eye muscles are responsible for eye movements C. Alters the shape of the lens for near and far vision
and hold the eyes in their orbits? D. Supports the choroid
A. Ciliary muscles
B. Vitreous muscles

29 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

MCQ 62: In the human eye, what is responsible for determining eye MCQ 73: Which part of the eye is responsible for transmitting
color? signals to brain stem nuclei controlling pupillary diameter?
A. Sclera A. Rod cells
B. Choroid B. Cone cells
C. Iris C. Ganglion cells
D. Retina D. Vitreous body

MCQ 63: Which part of the eye is mainly involved in changing the MCQ 74: In terms of night vision, what is the primary function of rod
thickness of the lens to focus on different distances? cells?
A. Cornea A. Providing high visual acuity
B. Ciliary body B. Distinguishing colors
C. Sclera C. Generating electrical signals
D. Retina D. Absorbing light for low-light conditions

MCQ 64: What is the purpose of the canal of Schlemm in the eye? MCQ 75: What type of light does the rod cell's rhodopsin absorb?
A. Secretion of aqueous humor A. Infrared light
B. Draining aqueous humor B. Ultraviolet light
C. Refracting light C. Yellow light
D. Nourishing the lens D. Light with a wavelength of 500 nm

MCQ 65: Which part of the eye has the highest sensitivity to light MCQ 76: What kind of vision and color vision are primarily
and contains sensory receptor cells like rods and cones? associated with cone cells?
A. Cornea A. Night vision and monochromatic vision
B. Choroid B. Day vision and color vision
C. Retina C. Peripheral vision and black-and-white vision
D. Sclera D. Scotopic vision and rhodopsin generation

MCQ 66: What is the function of melanocytes in the iris? MCQ 77: Which structure in the eye is responsible for the
A. Secreting aqueous humor phenomenon known as the blind spot?
B. Controlling pupil size A. Choroid
C. Determining eye color B. Macula lutea
D. Transmitting nerve impulses C. Optic disc
D. Fovea centralis
MCQ 67: The optic nerve leaves the eyeball at the site known as the:
A. Optic disc MCQ 78: What process involves narrowing of the pupil in the eye?
B. Ciliary body A. Refraction
C. Lens capsule B. Accommodation
D. Retinal layer C. Constriction
D. Absorption
MCQ 68: In which chamber of the eye is aqueous humor secreted?
A. Anterior chamber MCQ 79: Which optical elements in the eye are responsible for
B. Posterior chamber focusing an image on the retina?
C. Retinal chamber A. Sclera and vitreous body
D. Vitreous chamber B. Choroid and optic disc
C. Cornea and fovea centralis
MCQ 69: What is the primary function of the suspensory ligament in D. Lens and cornea
the eye?
A. Supporting the lens MCQ 80: In image formation, which process involves the bending of
B. Altering the shape of the cornea light by the lens and cornea?
C. Controlling intraocular pressure A. Refraction
D. Transmitting visual information B. Accommodation
C. Constriction
MCQ 70: Which structure of the eye is responsible for maintaining D. Reflection
the shape of the eye and providing attachment for eye muscles?
A. Cornea MCQ 81: Accommodation in the eye involves the physiological
B. Sclera adjustment of the lens to:
C. Retina A. Increase refractive power for distant objects
D. Lens B. Decrease refractive power for close objects
C. Keep the refractive power constant
MCQ 71: Which part of the eye contains a transparent jelly filling the D. Widen the diameter of the pupil
space behind the lens?
A. Sclera MCQ 82: What is the minimum distance from the eye that an object
B. Retina can be clearly focused with maximum accommodation?
C. Choroid A. 1 meter
D. Vitreous body B. 10 centimeters
C. 100 centimeters
MCQ 72: What is the primary function of the macula lutea and the D. 50 centimeters
fovea centralis in the retina?
A. Producing rhodopsin for night vision MCQ 83: When do the pupils of the eye constrict to reduce the
B. Generating electrical signals intensity of stimulation and adapt to bright light?
C. Providing color vision A. During light adaptation
D. Achieving high visual acuity or resolution B. During dark adaptation
C. In the absence of light

30 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

D. In the presence of light D. Sclera

MCQ 84: Which set of contractile elements in the iris narrows the MCQ 93: What is the most common cause of vision loss in
pupil when stimulated by the parasympathetic nervous system? individuals over the age of 40?
A. Pupillary dilator A. Glaucoma
B. Pupillary constrictor B. Cataracts
C. Myoepithelial cells C. Mydriasis
D. Contractile epithelial cells D. Pterygium

MCQ 85: In the case of myopia (nearsightedness), where does the MCQ 94: In the context of eye health, what does myosis refer to?
image converge in relation to the retina? A. A form of strabismus
A. On the retina B. Unusual dilation of the pupils
B. Behind the retina C. Contraction of the eye's pupil in response to bright light
C. In front of the retina D. A condition causing damage to the optic nerve
D. Outside the eye
MCQ 95: Pterygium is a growth that can interfere with vision when
MCQ 86: Individuals with hyperopia (farsightedness) can see distant it extends over which part of the eye?
objects clearly because: A. Cornea
A. The lens becomes thinner B. Lens
B. The image converges behind the retina C. Choroid
C. The lens has high elasticity D. Retina
D. The image converges on the retina
MCQ 96: Which condition is described as a form of vertical
MCQ 87: What is presbyopia, an age-related vision problem, strabismus where one eye is deviated upwards compared to the
primarily associated with? other eye?
A. Loss of pigmentation in the retina A. Myosis
B. Thickening of the lens B. Glaucoma
C. Lens elasticity and near vision focus C. Cataracts
D. Excessive dilation of the pupil D. Hypertropia

MCQ 88: Strabismus is a condition where the eyes do not align MCQ 97: What is the principal cause of blindness worldwide?
properly when looking at an object. What is the term for inward eye A. Pterygium
turning in strabismus? B. Cataracts
A. Exotropia C. Mydriasis
B. Hyperopia D. Glaucoma
C. Esotropia
D. Presbyopia MCQ 98: In the context of vision health, cataracts affect which part
of the eye?
MCQ 89: Exotropia, a form of strabismus, is characterized by: A. Sclera
A. Inward eye turning B. Lens
B. Constant eye alignment C. Optic nerve
C. Outward eye turning D. Retina
D. Perfect eye coordination
MCQ 99: What is the primary function of the optic nerve in the eye?
MCQ 90: Dark adaptation occurs when transitioning from bright A. Contraction of the pupil
light to darkness, and it primarily involves the regeneration of: B. Transmitting visual signals to the brain
A. Cone cells C. Regulating eye lens thickness
B. Rod pigment D. Maintaining proper alignment of the eyes
C. Fovea centralis
D. Pupillary diameter MCQ 100: Which medical condition is characterized by the clouding
of the eye's natural lens?
MCQ 91: Which medical term refers to the unusual dilation or A. Glaucoma
widening of the pupils in the eye? B. Hypertropia
A. Hypertropia C. Myosis
B. Myosis D. Cataracts
C. Mydriasis
D. Pterygium

MCQ 92: Glaucoma is a group of eye diseases that can lead to

damage to which crucial eye structure?
A. Cornea
B. Lens Answers:
C. Optic nerve
1. C 11. C 21. A 31. C 41. B 50. B 60. C 70. B 80. A 90. B 100. D
2. D 12. A 22. C 32. A 42. C 51. D 61. C 71. D 81. B 91. C
3. C 13. B 23. B 33. C 43. D 52. D 62. C 72. D 82. B 92. C
4. D 14. B 24. B 34. C 44. B 53. D 63. B 73. C 83. A 93. B
5. B 15. B 25. C 35. A 45.1. C 54. D 64. B 74. D 84. B 94. C
6. A 16. C 26. D 36. D 45.2. C 55. D 65. C 75. D 85. C 95. A
7. A 17. C 27. A 37. C 46. D 56. D 66. C 76. B 86. B 96. D
8. C 18. C 28. D 38. C 47. D 57. A 67. A 77. C 87. C 97. B
9. B 19. D 29. C 39. C 48. D 58. A 68. B 78. C 88. C 98. B
10. C 20. A 30. C 40. C 49. D 59. A 69. A 79. D 89. C 99. B

31 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

UNIT 5 Endrocrine System MCQ 11: Which of the following hormones is produced by the
MCQ 1: What is the primary function of the endocrine system? adrenal cortex and is involved in the regulation of salt and water
A. Produce exocrine secretions balance?
B. Regulate nervous system activities A. Thyroid hormone
C. Control bodily metabolic activities B. Growth hormone
D. Transmit electrical impulses C. Aldosterone
D. Cortisol
MCQ 2: Which type of gland secretes hormones into the
bloodstream directly? MCQ 12: What is the primary effect of adrenocorticotropic
A. Endocrine gland hormone (ACTH) on the adrenal cortex?
B. Exocrine gland A. Growth of adrenal cortex
C. Paracrine gland B. Regulation of blood sugar levels
D. Autocrine gland C. Stimulation of thyroid hormone production
D. Stimulation of corticosteroid secretion
MCQ 3: How do cells communicate via chemical messengers that
affect cells in other parts of the body? MCQ 13: Which hormone is released by the posterior pituitary
A. By direct electrical connections gland and plays a role in water retention by the kidneys?
B. Through the lymphatic system A. Thyroid hormone
C. Via hormone secretion B. Insulin
D. Using the autonomic nervous system C. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
D. Oxytocin
MCQ 4: Which type of chemical messengers diffuse from control
cells to target cells via the interstitial fluid? MCQ 14: Where is erythropoietin (EPO) primarily produced in the
A. Endocrine Messengers body?
B. Paracrine Messengers A. Liver
C. Autocrine Messengers B. Pancreas
D. Neurocrine Messengers C. Kidneys
D. Thyroid gland
MCQ 5: Autocrines are chemical messengers that act on:
A. Cells in other parts of the body MCQ 15: What is the primary target organ for thyroid-stimulating
B. The same cells that secrete them hormone (TSH) released by the anterior pituitary?
C. Nerve endings A. Liver
D. Distant target cells B. Kidneys
C. Thyroid gland
MCQ 6: What type of chemical messengers are neurotransmitters D. Pancreas
and neurohormones?
A. Endocrine Messengers MCQ 16: What is the primary role of prolactin (PRL) when it targets
B. Paracrine Messengers the mammary glands in females?
C. Autocrine Messengers A. Promotion of labor contractions
D. Neurocrine Messengers B. Synthesis of milk
C. Regulation of glucose levels
MCQ 7: When a hormone is present in excess, the number of target D. Secretion of thyroid hormone
cell receptors may decrease. What is this effect known as?
A. Up-regulation MCQ 17: Which hormone, produced by the anterior pituitary, is
B. Down-regulation responsible for widespread tissue growth?
C. Endocrine feedback A. Lutinizing hormone (LH)
D. Homeostatic adaptation B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C. Growth hormone (GH)
MCQ 8: Generally, a target cell has how many receptors for a D. Oxytocin (OT)
particular hormone?
A. 10 to 50 receptors MCQ 18: What is the primary role of thyroid hormone (TH) in the
B. 100 to 500 receptors body?
C. 500 to 1,000 receptors A. Regulation of blood pressure
D. 2,000 to 100,000 receptors B. Secretion of growth hormone
C. Stimulation of somatomedin secretion
MCQ 9: Which type of hormone is classified as derivatives of amino D. Control of metabolic rate
acids called Tyrosine?
A. Steroid Hormones MCQ 19: What hormone is released by the hypothalamus and
B. Protein Hormones inhibits the release of prolactin (PRL)?
C. Tyrosine Hormones A. Prolactin-releasing hormone (PRH)
D. Neurohormones B. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
C. Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
MCQ 10: Steroid hormones are an example of which classification D. Prolactin-inhibiting hormone (PIH)
of hormones?
A. 1. Steroid Hormones MCQ 20: Which endocrine gland is responsible for secreting insulin
B. 2. Protein Hormones and glucagon to regulate blood sugar levels?
C. 3. Derivatives of Amino acid called Tyrosine A. Thyroid gland
D. 4. Exocrine Hormones B. Pituitary gland
C. Adrenal gland
D. Pancreas

32 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

C. Pancreas
MCQ 21: What hormone is produced by the thyroid gland and plays D. Liver
a crucial role in regulating metabolism?
A. Thyroid hormone (TH) MCQ 31: Parathyroid glands release parathormone, which primarily
B. Growth hormone (GH) targets which organs or tissues?
C. Insulin A. Liver and pancreas
D. Cortisol B. Bone and kidneys
C. Heart and lungs
MCQ 22: What is the primary function of insulin in the body? D. Stomach and small intestine
A. To raise blood sugar levels
B. To stimulate glucose production MCQ 32: What is the main effect of parathormone (parathermone)
C. To lower blood sugar levels in the body?
D. To promote glycogen breakdown A. Promoting glucose uptake
B. Increasing blood calcium levels
MCQ 23: Which hormone, released by the posterior pituitary, plays C. Enhancing muscle development
a role in labor contractions and milk ejection? D. Regulating body temperature
A. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
B. Oxytocin (OT) MCQ 33: Which part of the adrenal gland releases epinephrine,
C. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) norepinephrine, and dopamine?
D. Growth hormone (GH) A. Adrenal cortex
B. Adrenal medulla
MCQ 24: The hormone triiodothyronine (T3) is primarily produced C. Adrenal sinuses
by which endocrine gland? D. Adrenal papilla
A. Thyroid gland
B. Adrenal gland MCQ 34: What is the primary role of mineralocorticoids, such as
C. Parathyroid gland aldosterone, released by the adrenal cortex?
D. Pituitary gland A. Stimulating protein synthesis
B. Regulating blood glucose levels
MCQ 25: In the regulation of salt and water balance, which C. Promoting sodium retention
hormone is primarily responsible for conserving sodium and D. Enhancing fat breakdown
excreting potassium?
A. Aldosterone MCQ 35: Glucocorticoids like cortisol and corticosterone have what
B. Thyroxin (T4) effect on the immune system?
C. Erythropoietin (EPO) A. Enhance immune response
D. Corticosterone B. Suppress immunity
C. Promote antibody production
MCQ 26: Where are the growth hormone releasing hormone D. Activate phagocytosis
(GHRH) and gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) primarily
produced in the body? MCQ 36: DHEA and estrogen are hormones produced by which part
A. Thyroid gland of the body?
B. Adrenal gland A. Pancreas
C. Hypothalamus B. Ovaries
D. Pituitary gland C. Testes
D. Adrenal cortex
MCQ 27: Which hormone, produced by the adrenal medulla, is
involved in the "fight or flight" response and increases heart rate MCQ 37: What is the main function of insulin released by beta cells
and alertness? in the pancreas?
A. Aldosterone A. Raises blood glucose levels
B. Epinephrine B. Promotes glycogen breakdown
C. Thyroxin (T4) C. Lowers blood glucose levels
D. Oxytocin (OT) D. Enhances gluconeogenesis

MCQ 28: What hormone targets the ovaries in females, stimulating MCQ 38: Glucagon, released by alpha cells in the pancreas,
the growth of ovarian follicles and the secretion of estrogen? primarily targets which organ?
A. Growth hormone (GH) A. Most tissues
B. Lutinizing hormone (LH) B. Liver
C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) C. Kidneys
D. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) D. Stomach

MCQ 29: What hormone primarily targets the testes in males, MCQ 39: What is the primary role of somatostatin secreted by delta
stimulating sperm production and testosterone secretion? cells in the pancreas?
A. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) A. Stimulating insulin release
B. Growth hormone (GH) B. Promoting glucose uptake
C. Lutinizing hormone (LH) C. Inhibiting hormone secretion
D. Cortisol D. Enhancing the immune response

MCQ 30: What is the primary source of atrial natriuretic peptide MCQ 40: Estrogen, produced by the ovaries, plays a key role in
(ANP) in the body? which aspect of female development?
A. Heart A. Voice deepening
B. Kidneys B. Hair growth

33 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

C. Reproductive development D. Pancreas

D. Sperm production
MCQ 51: The pituitary gland is connected to the hypothalamus by a
MCQ 41: What is the primary target of progesterone, another stalk known as:
hormone produced by the ovaries? A. Hypophyseal fossa
A. Brain and central nervous system B. Infundibulum
B. Mammary glands and uterus C. Sphenoid bone
C. Kidneys and liver D. Hypothalamic portal system
D. Skin and hair follicles
MCQ 52: How many lobes does the thyroid gland typically consist
MCQ 42: What is the primary role of testosterone, a hormone of?
produced by the testes? A. One lobe
A. Regulation of blood pressure B. Two lobes
B. Stimulating male reproductive development C. Three lobes
C. Enhancing thyroid function D. Four lobes
D. Promoting insulin release
MCQ 53: What is the primary role of the hypophyseal portal system
MCQ 43: Which of the following is NOT a typical target for estrogen in the endocrine system?
in the female body? A. It produces thyroid hormones
A. Ovaries B. It regulates the secretion of anterior pituitary hormones
B. Mammary glands C. It carries blood from the posterior pituitary to the thyroid gland
C. Voice box (larynx) D. It stimulates the release of thyroid-stimulating hormone
D. Reproductive development
MCQ 54: Which part of the pituitary gland stores and releases
MCQ 44: What is the primary function of progesterone when it hormones, including oxytocin?
targets the mammary glands? A. Anterior lobe
A. Voice deepening B. Hypothalamus
B. Muscle growth C. Posterior lobe (neurohypophysis)
C. Lactation preparation D. Infundibulum
D. Red blood cell production
MCQ 55: What is the primary function of antidiuretic hormone
MCQ 45: Which organ primarily produces erythropoietin (EPO) in (ADH) released by the posterior pituitary gland?
the body? A. Stimulating the thyroid gland
A. Heart B. Regulating blood glucose levels
B. Kidneys C. Promoting fluid retention in the body
C. Pancreas D. Contraction of the uterus
D. Liver
MCQ 56: Excessive growth hormone secretion in adults can lead to
MCQ 46: Insulin primarily acts on which tissues in the body? a condition known as:
A. Liver A. Gigantism
B. Most tissues B. Acromegaly
C. Kidneys C. Cushing disease
D. Heart D. Diabetes insipidus

MCQ 47: Somatostatin, released by delta cells, has an effect MCQ 57: Which type of cells make up the majority of the thyroid
identical to which other hormone secreted by the hypothalamus? gland and are responsible for producing thyroid hormones?
A. Epinephrine A. Follicular cells
B. Thyroid hormone B. Parathyroid cells
C. Prolactin C. Adenohypophysis cells
D. Growth hormone-inhibiting hormone (GHIH) D. Neurohypophysis cells

MCQ 48: The primary target of glucagon, released by alpha cells in MCQ 58: In a healthy thyroid gland, how many lobes are typically
the pancreas, is the: joined by an isthmus?
A. Liver A. One lobe
B. Heart B. Two lobes
C. Lungs C. Three lobes
D. Small intestine D. Four lobes

MCQ 49: What is the main function of adrenocorticotropic MCQ 59: The secretion of anterior pituitary hormones is primarily
hormone (ACTH) released by the anterior pituitary gland? regulated by:
A. Growth of the adrenal cortex A. The posterior pituitary gland
B. Regulation of blood sugar levels B. The adrenal cortex
C. Stimulation of thyroid hormone production C. Releasing and inhibiting hormones from the hypothalamus
D. Stimulation of corticosteroid secretion D. The parathyroid gland

MCQ 50: Which organ or tissue primarily produces MCQ 60: Which hormone is responsible for the contraction of the
prolactin-inhibiting hormone (PIH) in the body? uterus and the ejection of milk?
A. Thyroid gland A. Thyroid hormone
B. Kidneys B. Oxytocin (OT)
C. Hypothalamus C. ADH (vasopressin)

34 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

D. Growth hormone (GH) D. Regulation of blood glucose levels

MCQ 61: Which of the following hormones is primarily responsible MCQ 71: What are the primary functions of thyroid hormones T3
for increasing basal metabolic rate (BMR) and stimulating the and T4 in the body?
growth in children? A. Inhibiting protein synthesis
A. Calcitonin B. Lowering glucose consumption
B. Parathormone (PTH) C. Decreasing basal metabolic rate
C. Tri-iodothyronine (T3) D. Increasing BMR, protein synthesis, and accelerating body growth
D. Aldosterone
MCQ 72: Which of the following hormones does not directly affect
MCQ 62: Thyroid hormones, T3 and T4, are derivatives of which blood calcium levels?
amino acid? A. Calcitonin
A. Tyrosine B. Parathormone (PTH)
B. Phenylalanine C. Aldosterone
C. Tryptophan D. Calcitriol (Vitamin D)
D. Histidine
MCQ 73: What is the primary function of calcitonin in the body?
MCQ 63: Approximately, what percentage of the total thyroid A. Raising blood calcium levels
hormone secretion is represented by T4 (thyroxine)? B. Lowering blood calcium levels
A. 10% C. Regulating blood glucose levels
B. 25% D. Enhancing the development of the nervous system
C. 50%
D. 90% MCQ 74: Which type of cells secrete calcitonin in the thyroid gland?
A. Follicular cells
MCQ 64: Which hormone plays a role in lowering blood calcium B. Parafollicular cells (C cells)
levels by facilitating calcium deposition in bones and inhibiting bone C. Adenohypophysis cells
resorption? D. Neurohypophysis cells
A. T3 (Triiodothyronine)
B. Calcitonin (CT) MCQ 75: In cases of excessive growth hormone secretion in adults,
C. Parathormone (PTH) what condition may occur?
D. Insulin A. Gigantism
B. Acromegaly
MCQ 65: Calcitonin primarily affects the blood calcium level by C. Hypothyroidism
acting on which of the following? D. Myxedema
A. Liver
B. Lungs MCQ 75: What is the primary function of adrenal
C. Intestine mineralocorticoids, such as aldosterone?
D. Pancreas A. Affecting glucose homeostasis
B. Affecting protein synthesis
MCQ 66: What is the primary function of PTH (Parathormone)? C. Affecting minerals homeostasis, such as sodium (Na+) and
A. Decreasing the level of blood calcium potassium (K+)
B. Stimulating the growth in children D. Enhancing lipolysis
C. Maintaining blood calcium level
D. Regulating the secretion of thyroid hormones MCQ 76: Which part of the adrenal gland is responsible for
producing mineralocorticoids?
MCQ 67: How many parathyroid glands are typically found in A. Adrenal cortex
human beings, and where are they situated? B. Adrenal medulla
A. Two glands, situated near the kidneys C. Adrenal papilla
B. Four glands, situated on the posterior surface of the thyroid gland D. Adrenal stroma
C. Four glands, situated near the heart
D. Six glands, situated around the pancreas MCQ 77: Adrenocortical hormones are classified into three groups
based on their functions. Which of the following is NOT one of these
MCQ 68: What is the approximate half-life of PTH (Parathormone)? groups?
A. 5 to 10 minutes A. Mineralocorticoids
B. 1 hour B. Glucocorticoids
C. 24 hours C. Androgens
D. 7 days D. Estrogens

MCQ 69: The primary role of PTH is to maintain blood calcium MCQ 78: What is the primary function of glucocorticoids produced
levels by acting on several organs. Which of the following organs is by the adrenal cortex?
NOT directly affected by PTH? A. Increasing glucose formation
A. Bones B. Stimulating protein synthesis
B. Kidneys C. Promoting lipolysis
C. Liver D. Enhancing immunity
D. Gastrointestinal tract
MCQ 79: Which hormone secreted by the adrenal medulla plays a
MCQ 70: The specific function of parathormone is: critical role in the body's sympathetic response?
A. Bone resorption A. Calcitonin
B. Promoting calcium absorption from the intestine B. Epinephrine
C. Muscle contraction C. Aldosterone

35 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

D. Insulin D. Insulin

MCQ 80: What is the primary role of aldosterone in the body? MCQ 90: Which gland is a small cone-shaped body located at the
A. Promoting reabsorption of potassium (K+) in renal tubules posterior end of the roof of the third ventricle of the brain?
B. Increasing the secretion of hydrogen ions into renal tubules A. Adrenal gland
C. Maintaining osmolarity and volume of extracellular fluid (ECF) B. Thyroid gland
D. Facilitating glucose transport into cells C. Pituitary gland
D. Pineal gland
MCQ 81: In the absence of aldosterone, what is the expected
outcome in terms of acid-base balance? MCQ 91: What is the primary hormone produced by the pineal
A. Alkalosis gland, which plays a significant role in regulating the sleep-wake
B. Acidosis cycle and circadian rhythms?
C. Homeostasis A. Melatonin
D. Isotonicity B. Serotonin
C. Dopamine
MCQ 82: Which adrenal medulla hormone plays a role in the body's D. Epinephrine
"fight or flight" response and is involved in increasing heart rate,
dilating airways, and preparing the body for physical activity? MCQ 92: Melatonin is primarily responsible for:
A. Insulin A. Regulating blood calcium levels
B. Somatostatin B. Promoting sodium retention
C. Norepinephrine C. Regulating the menstrual cycle
D. Calcitriol D. Regulating the sleep-wake cycle and circadian rhythms

MCQ 83: In the pancreas, which type of cells secrete glucagon? MCQ 93: The pineal gland's secretion of melatonin is influenced by:
A. Alpha cells A. High blood glucose levels
B. Beta cells B. Exposure to bright light
C. Delta cells C. Thyroid hormones
D. Gamma cells D. Parathyroid hormones

MCQ 84: Which hormone is responsible for decreasing the blood MCQ 94: What is the primary function of serotonin, which is
glucose level by facilitating glucose uptake by cells, increasing produced by the pineal gland?
peripheral utilization, and inhibiting gluconeogenesis? A. Regulating body temperature
A. Glucagon B. Affecting mood, appetite, and sleep
B. Insulin C. Regulating calcium metabolism
C. Somatostatin D. Stimulating bone resorption
D. Aldosterone
MCQ 95: The pineal gland is involved in the production of which
MCQ 85: Which part of the pancreas plays a crucial role in the neurotransmitter that affects mood, appetite, and sleep?
regulation of blood glucose levels by secreting insulin and glucagon? A. Melatonin
A. Exocrine portion B. Serotonin
B. Endocrine portion C. Dopamine
C. Alpha cells D. Norepinephrine
D. Delta cells
MCQ 96. Steroid hormones include aldosterone, cortisol,
MCQ 86: What is the primary function of somatostatin produced by corticosterone, testosterone, estrogen, progesterone, and vitamin D.
the delta cells in the pancreas? Which of these hormones plays a crucial role in regulating mineral
A. Promoting glucose uptake by cells balance and blood pressure?
B. Inhibiting insulin secretion A. Cortisol
C. Enhancing glycogen synthesis B. Estrogen
D. Increasing glycogenolysis C. Aldosterone
D. Testosterone
MCQ 87: Which hormone, secreted by alpha cells in the pancreas,
MCQ 97. Growth hormone (GH) is produced by the anterior
promotes glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, thus increasing blood
pituitary gland and plays a significant role in promoting tissue growth.
glucose levels?
What is the primary target organ for the growth-promoting effects
A. Aldosterone of GH?
B. Epinephrine A. Adrenal cortex
C. Insulin B. Liver
D. Glucagon C. Thyroid gland
D. Kidneys
MCQ 88: What is the primary role of the beta cells in the pancreas?
A. Secreting somatostatin MCQ 98. The hormone oxytocin (OT) is involved in uterine
B. Promoting glucose uptake contractions during labor and milk ejection during breastfeeding.
C. Synthesizing insulin Which gland releases oxytocin?
D. Stimulating gluconeogenesis A. Anterior pituitary
B. Posterior pituitary
MCQ 89: Which hormone plays a role in lowering blood glucose C. Adrenal cortex
levels by promoting glycogen and fat synthesis? D. Thyroid gland
A. Glucagon
B. Calcitonin MCQ 99. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is essential for regulating
C. Aldosterone calcium levels in the body. Which glands are responsible for

36 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

producing and releasing PTH? C. Thyroid gland

A. Adrenal glands D. Heart
B. Pancreas
C. Thyroid glands
D. Parathyroid glands

MCQ 100. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is released by the

anterior pituitary gland and stimulates the thyroid gland to produce
thyroid hormones. What is the primary target organ for the effects
of thyroid hormones?
A. Kidneys
B. Liver Answers:
1. C 11. C 21. A 31. B 41. B 51. B 61. C 71. D 80. C 90. D 99. D
2. A 12. D 22. C 32. B 42. B 52. B 62. A 72. C 81. B 91. A 100. C
3. C 13. C 23. B 33. B 43. C 53. B 63. D 73. B 82. B 92. D
4. B 14. C 24. A 34. C 44. C 54. C 64. B 74. B 83. A 93. B
5. B 15. C 25. A 35. B 45. B 55. C 65. C 75. B 84. B 94. B
6. D 16. B 26. C 36. D 46. B 56. B 66. C 75. C 85. B 95. B
7. B 17. C 27. B 37. C 47. D 57. A 67. B 76. A 86. B 96. C
8. D 18. D 28. D 38. B 48. A 58. B 68. A 77. D 87. D 97. B
9. C 19. D 29. C 39. C 49. A 59. C 69. C 78. A 88. C 98. B
10. A 20. D 30. A 40. C 50. C 60. B 70. A 79. B 89. D

37 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

UNIT 6 Reproductive System A. Ovulation

MCQ 1: What is the term for the period of life marked by the B. Climacteric
development of secondary sexual characteristics and the attainment C. Puberty
of sexual reproduction? D. Menopause
A. Climacteric
B. Menopause MCQ 11: Where is the uterus located in the pelvic cavity?
C. Puberty A. Between the rectum and urinary bladder
D. Menarche B. Between the liver and spleen
C. Between the stomach and small intestine
MCQ 2: At what age does menarche, the first menstrual period in D. Between the lungs and heart
females, typically occur?
A. 20-25 years MCQ 12: What is the primary function of the uterus in the female
B. 30-40 years reproductive system?
C. 12-15 years A. Oocyte production
D. 50-55 years B. Retaining the fertilized ovum
C. Digesting nutrients
MCQ 3: Which female reproductive organ is responsible for D. Hormone secretion
producing oocytes and female sex hormones such as estrogen and
progesterone? MCQ 13: Which part of the uterus is the main portion and is
A. Uterus responsible for most uterine functions?
B. Vagina A. Fundus
C. Ovary B. Body
D. Fallopian tube C. Cervix
D. Isthmus
MCQ 4: What is the role of the uterine tubes (fallopian tubes) in the
female reproductive system? MCQ 14: What is the role of the cervix in the female reproductive
A. Ovulation system?
B. Fertilization A. Receiving the fertilized ovum
C. Childbirth B. Nourishing the fertilized ovum
D. Milk synthesis C. Providing a site for fertilization
D. Serving as a narrow outlet into the vagina
MCQ 5: In the female reproductive system, where does the
fertilization and implantation of the fertilized ovum typically occur? MCQ 15: Which ligament attaches to the pelvis and supports the
A. Uterus uterus anteriorly?
B. Vagina A. Broad ligament
C. Ovary B. Round ligament
D. Fallopian tube C. Uterosacral ligament
D. Suspensory ligament
MCQ 6: Which structure in the female external genitalia comprises
the labia majora, labia minora, and clitoris? MCQ 16: Which layer of the uterus allows for the implantation of a
A. Fallopian tubes fertilized ovum and sloughs off if no pregnancy occurs?
B. Ovaries A. Perimetrium
C. Vulva B. Myometrium
D. Uterus C. Basal layer of endometrium
D. Functional layer of endometrium
MCQ 7: What is the name of the sac-like structures in the ovaries
that contain oocytes? MCQ 17: Where does fertilization usually occur in the female
A. Ovarian ligaments reproductive system?
B. Corpus luteum A. Uterine tube
C. Ovarian follicles B. Uterus
D. Suspensory ligaments C. Vagina
D. Cervix
MCQ 8: During which stage does ovulation occur in the ovarian
follicle? MCQ 18: What is the function of the fimbriae in the uterine tube?
A. Primary follicle A. Secreting mucus
B. Graafian (vesicular) follicle B. Transporting oocytes towards the uterus
C. Menarche C. Receiving the ovulated oocyte
D. Menopause D. Supporting the broad ligament

MCQ 9: What are the structures that secure the ovaries to the MCQ 19: Which external genitalia comprise skin folds known as
lateral walls of the pelvis? labia majora and labia minora?
A. Suspensory ligaments A. Mons pubis
B. Oviducts B. Clitoris
C. Broad ligament C. Vulva
D. Fallopian tubes D. Vestibule

MCQ 10: What is the term used to describe the cessation of MCQ 20: What structure contains erectile tissue and plays a role in
menstruation due to decreased secretion of sex hormones, which female sexual arousal?
usually occurs between 45-55 years of age? A. Mons pubis
B. Clitoris

38 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

C. Uterine tube B. To nourish and protect a fertilized ovum

D. Cervix C. To stimulate oocyte production
D. To facilitate hormone secretion
MCQ 21: What are the components of the external genitalia
collectively known as in females? MCQ 31: What hormone, predominantly secreted by the placenta,
A. Vulva prevents uterine contractions during pregnancy?
B. Vagina A. Progesterone
C. Uterus B. Oxytocin
D. Ovaries C. Estrogen
D. Testosterone
MCQ 22: What is the primary function of the labia majora in the
female reproductive system? MCQ 32: During which phase of the menstrual cycle does the
A. Production of ova hormone oxytocin stimulate uterine contractions to expel the baby?
B. Retention of fertilized ova A. Menstruation
C. Barrier for menstrual flow B. Proliferative phase
D. Lubrication during coitus C. Secretory phase
D. Labor phase
MCQ 23: Which structure in females is equivalent to the penis in
males and contains sensory nerve endings and erectile tissue? MCQ 33: What is the primary function of the uterine tubes in the
A. Labia majora female reproductive system?
B. Clitoris A. Ovum production
C. Labia minora B. Transport of ova from the ovary to the uterus
D. Hymen C. Secretion of hormones
D. Implantation of the fertilized ovum
MCQ 24: What is the function of the hymen in the female
reproductive system? MCQ 34: Which structure in the female reproductive system has
A. Sperm production ciliated epithelium and provides ideal conditions for the movement
B. Protects the cervix of ova and spermatozoa?
C. Forms the vesicouterine pouch A. Labia majora
D. Partially occludes the vaginal opening B. Clitoris
C. Uterus
MCQ 25: What is the role of the vestibular glands (Bartholin's D. Uterine tube
glands) in the female reproductive system?
A. Sperm production MCQ 35: In the female reproductive system, where does
B. Ovum maturation fertilization of the ovum typically occur?
C. Secretion of mucus for lubrication A. Vagina
D. Formation of the vaginal wall B. Uterus
C. Uterine tube
MCQ 26: Which part of the female reproductive system serves as D. Cervix
the receptacle for the penis during coitus and provides a
passageway for childbirth? MCQ 36: What is the function of the myometrium in the uterus?
A. Labia majora A. Lubrication during coitus
B. Uterus B. Muscle growth during pregnancy
C. Clitoris C. Preventing uterine contractions
D. Vagina D. Facilitating uterine contractions

MCQ 27: What is the arterial supply of the vagina in the female MCQ 37: Which ligaments suspend the uterus from the sides of the
reproductive system? pelvis in the female reproductive system?
A. Uterine arteries A. Round ligaments
B. Femoral arteries B. Uterosacral ligaments
C. Ovarian arteries C. Broad ligament
D. Coronary arteries D. Transverse cervical ligaments

MCQ 28: Which layer of the uterine wall is primarily composed of MCQ 38: What is the main purpose of the uterine cycle during the
smooth muscle fibers? menstrual cycle?
A. Perimetrium A. Oocyte production
B. Endometrium B. Nourishing the endometrial layer
C. Basal layer C. Blood supply to the ovaries
D. Myometrium D. Formation of the vaginal wall

MCQ 29: During which phase of the menstrual cycle does the MCQ 39: What is the role of the broad ligaments in the female
functional layer of the endometrium thicken and become rich in reproductive system?
blood vessels? A. Lubrication during coitus
A. Menstruation B. Attaching ovaries to the uterus
B. Proliferative phase C. Supporting the uterine tubes
C. Secretory phase D. Suspending the uterus in the pelvis
D. Luteal phase
MCQ 40: Which part of the female reproductive system provides
MCQ 30: What is the purpose of the menstrual cycle in females? attachment to the pelvic floor muscles and supports the uterus?
A. To prepare the uterus for childbirth A. Hymen

39 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

B. Vestibule
C. Labia majora MCQ 51: Where are the ovaries located in the female pelvis?
D. Perineum A. Attached to the fallopian tubes
B. Attached to the urinary bladder
MCQ 41: How many oocytes are present at birth in females? C. In the lateral walls of the pelvis
A. 400,000 D. Attached to the cervix
B. 2 million
C. 480 MCQ 52: What is the primary function of the medulla in the
D. 4 ovaries?
A. Ovulation
MCQ 42: What is the primary cause of the decline in the number of B. Fibrous tissue
oocytes from birth to puberty in females? C. Blood vessel and nerve supply
A. Ovulation D. Secretion of estrogen
B. Atresia
C. Menopause MCQ 53: What surrounds the medulla in the ovaries?
D. Fertilization A. Germinal epithelium
B. Connective tissue
MCQ 43: At puberty, approximately how many oocytes remain in a C. Primordial follicles
female's ovaries? D. Ovarian ligament
A. 400,000
B. 2 million MCQ 54: What triggers ovulation in the ovaries?
C. 480 A. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D. 4 B. Luteinising hormone (LH)
C. Progesterone
MCQ 44: How many gametes (ova) can a female typically ovulate in D. Estrogen
her lifetime?
A. 400,000 MCQ 55: How often does ovulation typically occur in most
B. 2 million menstrual cycles?
C. 480 A. Every 7 days
D. 4 B. Every 14 days
C. Every 21 days
MCQ 45: When does the ability to release ova begin in females? D. Every 30 days
A. At birth
B. During menopause MCQ 56: What is the product of ovulation in the ovaries?
C. At puberty A. Ovarian follicles
D. During childhood B. Corpus luteum
C. Germinal epithelium
MCQ 46: What stimulates the maturation of oocytes in developing D. Corpus albicans
ovarian (Graafian) follicles?
A. FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone) MCQ 57: Where does the ovum go after ovulation in the ovaries?
B. LH (Luteinizing Hormone) A. Fallopian tube
C. Estrogen B. Uterus
D. Progesterone C. Peritoneal cavity
D. Cervix
MCQ 47: In the menstrual cycle, what is the primary role of the
corpus luteum? MCQ 58: What triggers the production of human chorionic
A. Secretion of estrogen gonadotrophin (hCG) in the ovaries?
B. Ovulation A. Progesterone
C. Secretion of progesterone B. Fertilization of the ovum
D. Follicle development C. LH
D. Estrogen
MCQ 48: What happens to the corpus luteum if pregnancy does not
occur? MCQ 59: What happens to the corpus luteum if the ovum is not
A. It becomes a tertiary follicle fertilized?
B. It persists for 3-4 months A. It becomes a corpus albicans
C. It degenerates B. It triggers a new cycle
D. It secretes more estrogen C. It continues to produce hormones
D. It degenerates
MCQ 49: What is the thickened uterine lining called that is shed
during menstruation? MCQ 60: What is the result when multiple ova are released in the
A. Endometrium same cycle in the ovaries?
B. Perimetrium A. Menopause
C. Myometrium B. Multiple pregnancy
D. Basal layer C. Corpus albicans formation
D. Menstruation
MCQ 50: What triggers menstruation in the uterine cycle?
A. Sudden reduction in estrogen MCQ 61: What is the first phase of the menstrual cycle,
B. Corpus luteum development characterized by the shedding of the endometrium?
C. Ovulation A. Proliferative phase
D. Increased progesterone levels B. Secretory phase

40 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

C. Menstrual phase C. Menarche

D. Ovulatory phase D. Fertilization

MCQ 62: How long does the menstrual phase typically last? MCQ 72: What stimulates the ovaries during puberty, leading to the
A. 14 days beginning of the menstrual cycle?
B. 7 days A. Estrogen
C. 3-5 days B. Progesterone
D. 28 days C. FSH and LH
D. hCG
MCQ 63: What triggers the onset of menstruation in the menstrual
phase? MCQ 73: What physical changes occur during puberty in females?
A. Increased levels of estrogen and progesterone A. Shrinkage of the breasts
B. Decreased levels of estrogen and progesterone B. Thin, dry skin
C. Maturing ovarian follicles C. Growth of pubic and axillary hair
D. LH surge D. Reduction in height

MCQ 64: During the menstrual phase, what leads to the expulsion MCQ 74: What is the average length of the menstrual cycle in
of blood and uterine tissues through the vagina? females?
A. Uterine contractions A. 7 days
B. High estrogen levels B. 14 days
C. Endometrial proliferation C. 28 days
D. LH surge D. 365 days

MCQ 65: What is the primary hormone responsible for the active MCQ 75: During which phase of the menstrual cycle does
proliferation of the endometrium during the proliferative phase? menstruation occur?
A. Progesterone A. Proliferative phase
B. LH B. Menstrual phase
C. Estrogen C. Secretory phase
D. FSH D. Ovulatory phase

MCQ 66: In a 28-day menstrual cycle, when does the proliferative MCQ 76: What hormone is responsible for the proliferation of the
phase typically occur? functional layer of the endometrium in preparation for the
A. 1st to 7th day reception of a fertilized ovum?
B. 5th to 14th day A. Progesterone
C. 15th to 28th day B. Estrogen
D. 21st to 28th day C. FSH
D. LH
MCQ 67: What hormone influences the secretory phase of the
menstrual cycle? MCQ 77: When does the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle
A. Estrogen occur?
B. LH A. Immediately after menstruation
C. Progesterone B. Before ovulation
D. FSH C. After ovulation
D. During menstruation
MCQ 68: What happens to the endometrial glands during the
secretory phase of the menstrual cycle? MCQ 78: What hormone is produced by the corpus luteum and
A. They become shorter supports any subsequent pregnancy?
B. They decrease in number A. LH
C. They become dilated and tortuous B. FSH
D. They become inactive C. Progesterone
D. Estrogen
MCQ 69: In a 28-day menstrual cycle, when does the secretory
phase typically occur? MCQ 79: What is the term for the end of the childbearing period,
A. 1st to 14th day usually occurring between the ages of 45 and 55?
B. 14th to 28th day A. Ovulation
C. 15th to 28th day B. Puberty
D. 5th to 14th day C. Menarche
D. Menopause
MCQ 70: What term is used to describe a menstrual cycle in which
ovulation does not occur, leading to a lack of progesterone effect on MCQ 80: What causes the various symptoms associated with
the endometrium? menopause, such as hot flashes and mood changes?
A. Anovulatory cycle A. High levels of estrogen and progesterone
B. Ovulatory cycle B. Falling levels of estrogen and progesterone
C. Secretory cycle C. Increased growth of pubic hair
D. Proliferative cycle D. Proliferation of uterine glands

MCQ 71: What is the term for the age at which the internal MCQ 81: Which hormone is used to test for pregnancy, typically
reproductive organs reach maturity and the menstrual cycle begins? detectable 8 to 9 days after conception?
A. Ovulation A. Progesterone
B. Menstruation B. Estrogen

41 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

C. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) A. Production of sperm

D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) B. Storage of sperm
C. Secretion of the liquid portion of semen
MCQ 82: At what point during gestation does HCG typically peak in D. Temperature regulation
the blood?
A. 4-6 weeks MCQ 93: Which part of the male reproductive system contains the
B. 7-8 weeks urethra, serving as a passageway for both semen and urine?
C. 10-12 weeks A. Epididymis
D. 16-18 weeks B. Scrotum
C. Testes
MCQ 83: What is the primary function of HCG in early pregnancy? D. Penis
A. Initiating labor
B. Supporting the growth of the fetus MCQ 94: Where does the majority of sperm maturation occur in
C. Stimulating the ovaries to produce more eggs the male reproductive system?
D. Promoting lactation A. Seminiferous tubules
B. Ejaculatory ducts
MCQ 84: What is the consequence of a lack of HCG in early C. Seminal vesicles
pregnancy? D. Epididymis
A. Ovulation occurs
B. The corpus luteum will atrophy MCQ 95: Which cells in the male testes secrete the male sex
C. Progesterone levels rise hormone testosterone?
D. The fetus develops rapidly A. Spermatogenic cells
B. Leydig (interstitial) cells
MCQ 85: Which term describes the absence of menstruation? C. Seminiferous tubules
A. Hypomenorrhea D. Efferent ductules
B. Menorrhagia
C. Oligomenorrhea MCQ 96: What is the function of testosterone in the male
D. Amenorrhea reproductive system?
A. Promoting feminine characteristics
MCQ 86: What is the term for decreased menstrual bleeding? B. Inhibiting sperm production
A. Menorrhagia C. Promoting masculine characteristics and libido
B. Oligomenorrhea D. Regulating temperature
C. Hypomenorrhea
D. Polymenorrhea MCQ 97: Which male reproductive structure can store viable sperm
for about two months?
MCQ 87: What condition involves excessive menstrual bleeding? A. Seminal vesicles
A. Hypomenorrhea B. Prostate gland
B. Polymenorrhea C. Epididymis
C. Oligomenorrhea D. Vas deferens
D. Menorrhagia
MCQ 98: What is the surgical procedure that involves the removal
MCQ 88: Which of the following refers to painful menstruation? of a portion of each ductus deferens for family planning?
A. Menorrhagia A. Vasectomy
B. Polymenorrhea B. Seminiferous tubule removal
C. Dysmenorrhea C. Epididymectomy
D. Metrorrhagia D. Prostatectomy

MCQ 89: What clinical procedure involves the removal of the MCQ 99: Which part of the male reproductive system is responsible
uterus? for conveying sperm towards the urethra?
A. Cesarean section A. Epididymis
B. Hysterectomy B. Seminal vesicle
C. In vitro fertilization (IVF) C. Vas deferens
D. Salpingitis D. Prostate gland

MCQ 90: Which term describes uterine bleeding that occurs MCQ 100: The ejaculatory ducts are formed by the union of which
between menstruations? two structures in the male reproductive system?
A. Dysmenorrhea A. Vas deferens and prostate gland
B. Hypomenorrhea B. Epididymis and seminal vesicle ducts
C. Polymenorrhea C. Seminiferous tubules and Leydig cells
D. Metrorrhagia D. Scrotum and testes

MCQ 91: Which primary male reproductive organ produces sperm MCQ 101: Which structure surrounds the testes and contains one
and the male sex hormone testosterone? testis, one epididymis, and the testicular end of a spermatic cord in
A. Epididymis each compartment?
B. Seminal vesicle A. Epididymis
C. Prostate gland B. Prostate gland
D. Testes C. Scrotum
D. Seminal vesicle
MCQ 92: What is the primary function of the accessory sex glands
in the male reproductive system?

42 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

MCQ 102: What is the primary function of the seminal vesicles in A. Production of sperm
the male reproductive system? B. Storage of sperm
A. Production of sperm C. Secretion of an alkaline viscous fluid
B. Storage of sperm D. Ejection of urine
C. Secretion of the liquid portion of semen
D. Temperature regulation MCQ 113: Which of the following accessory sex glands secretes a
milky slightly acidic fluid with antibiotic properties?
MCQ 103: Where does the majority of sperm maturation occur in A. Seminal vesicles
the male reproductive system? B. Prostate gland
A. Seminiferous tubules C. Bulbourethral glands
B. Epididymis D. Epididymis
C. Vas deferens
D. Prostate gland MCQ 114: How much of the semen volume is typically contributed
by the secretions of the seminal vesicles?
MCQ 104: Which hormone controls sperm production in the male A. 10%
reproductive system? B. 25%
A. Testosterone C. 60%
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) D. 75%
C. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
D. Estrogen MCQ 115: What is the pH range of semen?
A. Acidic (pH below 7)
MCQ 105: Which part of the male reproductive system provides a B. Neutral (pH 7)
common pathway for the flow of urine and semen? C. Slightly alkaline (pH 7.2–7.7)
A. Scrotum D. Highly alkaline (pH above 8)
B. Seminal vesicle
C. Urethra MCQ 116: What is the primary function of the acrosome in sperm?
D. Penis A. Secretion of fructose
B. Protein synthesis
MCQ 106: What are the two main erectile tissues of the penis? C. Enzyme-filled structure for oocyte penetration during fertilization
A. Corpora cavernosa D. Lubrication
B. Epididymis and vas deferens
C. Seminiferous tubules MCQ 117: Which hormone stimulates Leydig cells to secrete
D. Seminal vesicles testosterone and ultimately stimulates spermatogenesis?
A. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
MCQ 107: Which part of the male urethra is the shortest and B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
narrowest? C. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
A. Prostatic urethra D. Testosterone
B. Membranous urethra
C. Spongiose urethra MCQ 118: What is the primary function of the foreskin (prepuce) of
D. Penile urethra the penis?
A. Sperm production
MCQ 108: What is the primary function of the prostate gland in the B. Protection of the glans penis
male reproductive system? C. Lubrication
A. Production of sperm D. Circulation
B. Supporting testes
C. Secretion of a protective alkaline fluid in semen MCQ 119: Which part of the penis delivers sperm into the female
D. Temperature regulation reproductive tract?
A. Shaft
MCQ 109: What triggers the filling of the spongy erectile tissue with B. Glans penis
blood in the male penis, leading to an erection? C. Prepuce (foreskin)
A. Sympathetic stimulation D. Acrosome
B. Parasympathetic stimulation
C. Hormonal changes MCQ 120: What is the clinical condition known as when the
D. Arterial constriction foreskin is too tight and cannot be pulled back over the glans penis?
A. Phimosis
MCQ 110: What structure at the tip of the penis is responsible for B. Priapism
housing the urethra and plays a crucial role in male sexual function? C. Prostatitis
A. Corpora cavernosa D. Epididymitis
B. Corpus spongiosum
C. Epididymis MCQ 121: Which congenital abnormality of the urethral meatus is
D. Seminal vesicles characterized by the urethra opening on the dorsum of the penis?
A. Hypospadiasis
MCQ 111: Which part of the urethra is surrounded by the prostate B. Cryptorchidism
gland? C. Epispadiasis
A. Prostatic urethra D. Hematospermia
B. Membranous urethra
C. Spongy (penile) urethra MCQ 122: What is the term for the congenital defect in which the
D. Spermatic urethra urethra opens on the ventral side of the penis?
A. Epispadiasis
MCQ 112: What is the primary function of the seminal vesicles? B. Hypospadiasis

43 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

C. Oligospermia
D. Azoospermia MCQ 127: Teratozoospermia is characterized by:
A. Lack of sperm
MCQ 123: Cryptorchidism is a condition characterized by: B. Low sperm count
A. Undescended testes C. Abnormal sperm morphology
B. Retrograde ejaculation in the bladder D. Blood in ejaculation
C. Abnormal sperm morphology
D. Lack of sperm MCQ 128: What term describes the condition of having less than 2
mL of semen per ejaculation?
MCQ 124: In semen analysis, which parameter evaluates the A. Oligospermia
number of sperm per milliliter of semen? B. Aspermia
A. Volume C. Oligozoospermia
B. Liquefaction D. Azoospermia
C. Sperm count
D. Motility MCQ 129: Hematospermia is the presence of:
A. Blood in the urine
MCQ 125: What is the minimum required sperm count for fertility? B. Blood in the semen
A. 10 million/mL C. Blood in the testes
B. 20 million/mL D. Blood in the epididymis
C. 40 million/mL
D. 75 million/mL MCQ 130: What term is used to describe a lack of semen due to
retrograde ejaculation into the bladder?
MCQ 126: What percentage of sperm per ejaculation must be alive A. Oligospermia
for fertility? B. Azoospermia
A. 10% C. Aspermia
B. 30% D. Oligozoospermia
C. 50%
D. 75% Answers:
1. C 13. B 25. C 37. C 49. A 61. C 73. C 85. D 97. C 109. B 121. C
2. C 14. D 26. D 38. B 50. A 62. C 74. C 86. C 98. A 110. B 122. B
3. C 15. B 27. A 39. D 51. C 63. B 75. B 87. D 99. C 111. A 123. A
4. B 16. D 28. D 40. D 52. B 64. A 76. B 88. B 100. B 112. C 124. C
5. A 17. A 29. B 41. B 53. A 65. C 77. C 89. B 101. C 113. B 125. B
6. C 18. C 30. B 42. B 54. B 66. B 78. C 90. D 102. C 114. C 126. D
7. C 19. C 31. A 43. A 55. B 67. C 79. D 91. D 103. B 115. C 127. C
8. B 20. B 32. D 44. C 56. B 68. C 80. B 92. C 104. B 116. C 128. B
9. A 21. A 33. B 45. C 57. A 69. C 81. C 93. D 105. C 117. A 129. B
10. D 22. C 34. D 46. A 58. B 70. A 82. C 94. D 106. A 118. B 130. C
11. A 23. B 35. C 47. C 59. D 71. C 83. B 95. B 107. B 119. B
12. B 24. D 36. B 48. C 60. B 72. C 84. B 96. C 108. C 120. A

44 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

Scenario-based MCQS Chapter 1 to chapter 6.

These MCQS provide you with knowledge that helps in MCQ 9: A patient with severe shortness of breath has decreased
surfactant production and increased surface tension in the alveoli.
preparation of Scenario-based MCQS for the Anatomy and
What lung condition is most likely affecting the patient?
Physiology Paper A. Emphysema
B. Pneumonia
MCQ 1: A patient with a history of asthma visits the clinic. The
C. Atelectasis
nurse observes the patient wheezing and struggling to breathe.
D. Pulmonary fibrosis
Which respiratory volume or capacity is most likely affected in this
scenario?
MCQ 10: During a physical examination, the nurse identifies
A. Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)
dullness to percussion and decreased breath sounds over the right
B. Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)
lower chest. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
C. Vital Capacity (VC)
A. Pneumothorax
D. Functional Residual Capacity (FRC)
B. Emphysema
C. Pleural effusion
MCQ 2: A patient comes to the ER with sharp chest pain and
D. Asthma
shortness of breath. The nurse suspects a pleural effusion. Which
clinical condition is consistent with this scenario?
MCQ 11: A patient with a history of smoking presents with chronic
A. Atelectasis
productive cough, increased mucus production, and decreased
B. Pneumothorax
ciliary action. What condition is most likely affecting the patient?
C. Pleurisy
A. Atelectasis
D. Hemothorax
B. Bronchitis
C. Pneumothorax
MCQ 3: A patient presents with shallow and rapid breathing. The
D. Pleurisy
nurse notices that the patient's inspiratory phase is shortened.
Which area of the respiratory center is most likely involved?
MCQ 12: A patient with a chronic lung condition exhibits
A. Medullary Rhythmicity Area
overinflation of alveoli and difficulty exhaling. What condition is
B. Pneumotaxic Area
most likely responsible for these symptoms?
C. Apneustic Area
A. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Inspiratory Area
B. Emphysema
C. Pneumonia
MCQ 4: During auscultation, the nurse hears coarse crackling
D. Bronchitis
sounds during inspiration in a patient's lungs. What condition should
the nurse suspect?
MCQ 13: A patient has sharp, stabbing chest pain that worsens with
A. Pleural effusion
deep breathing. Which respiratory condition should the nurse
B. Asthma
consider in this case?
C. Bronchitis
A. Pleural effusion
D. Atelectasis
B. Atelectasis
C. Pneumonia
MCQ 5: A patient exhibits decreased chest wall compliance and
D. Asthma
decreased lung compliance, resulting in a reduction in the ability to
expand the lungs. What condition is most likely present?
MCQ 14: A patient with a suspected lung infection is coughing up
A. Emphysema
thick, yellowish-green sputum. What type of infection is most likely
B. Pulmonary fibrosis
present?
C. Bronchitis
A. Bacterial pneumonia
D. Pneumothorax
B. Viral pneumonia
C. Tuberculosis
MCQ 6: A patient is experiencing chronic cough, sputum production,
D. Bronchitis
and wheezing. Which lung disorder is consistent with these
symptoms?
MCQ 15: A patient presents with increased lung compliance and
A. Pleurisy
loss of elastic recoil in the lungs. What lung disorder is most likely
B. Asthma
causing these symptoms?
C. Atelectasis
A. Emphysema
D. Pneumonia
B. Pulmonary fibrosis
C. Atelectasis
MCQ 7: During a routine check-up, the nurse notes that a patient
D. Pleural effusion
has an increased anteroposterior (AP) diameter of the chest, giving
a barrel-shaped appearance. Which condition might this indicate?
MCQ 16: A patient with a productive cough, chest pain, and friction
A. Emphysema
rub during auscultation might have which condition?
B. Pneumonia
A. Pleural effusion
C. Pleural effusion
B. Emphysema
D. Atelectasis
C. Pneumothorax
D. Bronchitis
MCQ 8: A patient presents with fever, productive cough, and
consolidation in the lung bases. What respiratory condition is likely
MCQ 17: A patient has signs of right heart failure due to chronic
responsible for these symptoms?
lung disease. Which lung condition is likely responsible for this
A. Bronchitis
scenario?
B. Pneumonia
A. Asthma
C. Asthma
B. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Pulmonary fibrosis
C. Bronchitis

45 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) B. Pyelonephritis

C. Acute kidney injury
MCQ 18: A patient with shortness of breath and expiratory D. Chronic kidney disease
wheezing comes to the clinic. What is the nurse's initial suspicion
regarding the patient's condition? MCQ 27: A patient is scheduled for a renal angiography. What
A. Pneumonia information should the nurse provide to the patient before the
B. Asthma procedure?
C. Pneumothorax A. Limit fluid intake the night before the test.
D. Pleurisy B. The test involves inserting a tube into the bladder.
C. The procedure uses X-rays to visualize blood vessels in the
MCQ 19: A patient's lung compliance is decreased due to fibrosis in kidneys.
the lung tissue. What condition is most likely responsible for this D. The test is done to measure glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
decrease in lung compliance?
A. Asthma MCQ 28: A patient with a history of kidney disease presents with
B. Emphysema fatigue, anemia, and bone pain. What condition might the nurse
C. Pulmonary fibrosis suspect as a cause of these symptoms?
D. Atelectasis A. Hypertension
B. Polycystic kidney disease
MCQ 20: A patient presents with stridor (high-pitched, noisy C. Chronic renal failure
breathing) and is in severe respiratory distress. What condition D. Urinary tract infection
should the nurse suspect as an immediate concern?
A. Pneumonia MCQ 29: A patient is admitted with renal colic due to kidney stones.
B. Asthma What nursing intervention should the nurse prioritize for this
C. Epiglottitis patient?
D. Pleurisy A. Administering antibiotics
B. Monitoring blood pressure
MCQ 21: A patient comes to the clinic with hematuria, flank pain, C. Managing pain and promoting comfort
and urinary urgency. The nurse suspects a kidney condition. Which D. Encouraging increased fluid intake
part of the kidney might be involved?
A. Renal cortex MCQ 30: A patient is receiving hemodialysis due to end-stage renal
B. Renal medulla disease. During dialysis, the nurse should monitor the patient for
C. Nephrons which potential complication?
D. Renal pelvis A. Hypervolemia
B. Hyperkalemia
MCQ 22: A patient with hypertension and swelling in the legs C. Metabolic acidosis
presents with proteinuria. What aspect of renal function is most D. Hypotension
likely impaired?
A. Glomerular filtration MCQ 31: A patient with renal insufficiency has a high serum
B. Tubular reabsorption creatinine level. The nurse should anticipate what prescription from
C. Tubular secretion the healthcare provider?
D. Renal blood flow A. High-potassium diet
B. Hemodialysis
MCQ 23: A patient complains of frequent urination, thirst, and C. Diuretics
unexplained weight loss. The nurse suspects a kidney-related issue. D. Iron supplements
What type of diagnostic test should the nurse recommend?
A. Urinalysis MCQ 32: A patient who recently had a kidney transplant is on
B. Blood pressure measurement immunosuppressive medication. The nurse should educate the
C. Chest X-ray patient about the increased risk of what condition?
D. Echocardiogram A. Hypertension
B. Infection
MCQ 24: A patient is diagnosed with renal calculi (kidney stones) C. Anemia
and is experiencing severe pain. What medication might the nurse D. Heart disease
expect the healthcare provider to prescribe for pain relief?
A. Antibiotics MCQ 33: A patient with acute glomerulonephritis presents with
B. Diuretics tea-colored urine, edema, and hypertension. What should the nurse
C. Opioids suspect as the primary issue?
D. Antacids A. Dehydration
B. Acute kidney injury
MCQ 25: A patient with diabetes mellitus presents with polyuria C. Nephrotic syndrome
and glycosuria. What aspect of renal function is most likely impaired D. Chronic kidney disease
in this scenario?
A. Glomerular filtration MCQ 34: A patient with chronic renal failure needs to restrict
B. Tubular reabsorption dietary intake of which mineral to help manage the condition?
C. Tubular secretion A. Sodium
D. Renal blood flow B. Calcium
C. Potassium
MCQ 26: A patient is admitted with oliguria, peripheral edema, and D. Magnesium
increased blood pressure. The nurse suspects a kidney condition.
What is the most likely cause of these symptoms? MCQ 35: A patient with chronic kidney disease is prescribed a
A. Nephrotic syndrome phosphate binder. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

46 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

A. Control blood pressure MCQ 44: A patient with a spinal cord injury at the cervical level is at
B. Treat anemia risk of respiratory compromise. What nursing intervention should
C. Lower potassium levels the nurse prioritize?
D. Manage hyperphosphatemia A. Administering pain medication
B. Assessing bowel sounds
MCQ 36: A patient with end-stage renal disease is considering C. Monitoring for signs of infection
different renal replacement therapies. What therapy involves using D. Ensuring proper ventilation
the patient's peritoneal membrane to filter waste products?
A. Hemodialysis MCQ 45: A patient with multiple sclerosis is experiencing muscle
B. Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) weakness and difficulty with coordination. Which part of the
C. Peritoneal dialysis nervous system is primarily affected?
D. Kidney transplant A. Central nervous system (CNS)
B. Peripheral nervous system (PNS)
MCQ 37: A patient with a history of nephrolithiasis (kidney stones) C. Autonomic nervous system (ANS)
is advised to increase fluid intake. What type of stone is this patient D. Somatic nervous system (SoNS)
most likely prone to?
A. Calcium oxalate MCQ 46: A patient with Parkinson's disease presents with tremors,
B. Uric acid bradykinesia, and rigidity. What neurotransmitter deficiency is
C. Cystine typically associated with this condition?
D. Struvite A. Serotonin
B. Dopamine
MCQ 38: A patient with chronic kidney disease experiences fatigue, C. Acetylcholine
confusion, and increased bruising. What lab value is most likely D. Norepinephrine
affected?
A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) MCQ 47: A patient with Alzheimer's disease is experiencing
B. Serum creatinine memory loss and disorientation. What part of the brain is primarily
C. Hemoglobin affected in this condition?
D. Serum electrolytes A. Hippocampus
B. Amygdala
MCQ 39: A patient with acute pyelonephritis presents with fever, C. Basal ganglia
chills, and flank pain. What is the primary cause of this condition? D. Frontal lobe
A. Urinary incontinence
B. Bacterial infection of the kidneys MCQ 48: A patient is brought to the emergency department with a
C. Kidney stones Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 7, fixed and dilated pupils, and
D. Hypertension decorticate posturing. What is the nurse's immediate priority in
caring for this patient?
MCQ 40: A patient is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome and A. Administering pain medication
experiences generalized edema and hypoalbuminemia. What is the B. Inserting a urinary catheter
primary issue causing this syndrome? C. Stabilizing the cervical spine
A. Excessive protein in the urine D. Assessing blood pressure
B. Insufficient intake of protein
C. Low sodium levels MCQ 49: A patient with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin
D. High glucose levels (Dilantin). The nurse should educate the patient about the
importance of regular blood tests to monitor which parameter?
MCQ 41: A patient presents with difficulty in speaking, facial A. Blood glucose levels
drooping, and weakness in the right arm. The nurse suspects a B. White blood cell count
neurological issue. Which cranial nerve might be affected? C. Liver function
A. Cranial nerve I D. Drug levels in the blood
B. Cranial nerve V
C. Cranial nerve VII MCQ 50: A patient with a history of migraines is prescribed a
D. Cranial nerve XII medication that constricts blood vessels. What is the primary
mechanism of action for this medication?
MCQ 42: A patient with a traumatic head injury is experiencing a A. Increasing blood pressure
sudden loss of consciousness, unequal pupil size, and decerebrate B. Reducing inflammation
posturing. What should the nurse suspect? C. Decreasing blood flow to the brain
A. Hemorrhagic stroke D. Promoting blood clotting
B. Migraine headache
C. Concussion MCQ 51: A patient with trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux)
D. Increased intracranial pressure (ICP) complains of severe, stabbing facial pain. Which cranial nerve is
primarily involved in this condition?
MCQ 43: A patient with a brain tumor has impaired coordination, A. Cranial nerve V (Trigeminal)
slurred speech, and changes in personality. What area of the brain B. Cranial nerve VII (Facial)
might be affected? C. Cranial nerve X (Vagus)
A. Cerebral cortex D. Cranial nerve XII (Hypoglossal)
B. Cerebellum
C. Brainstem MCQ 52: A patient with a traumatic spinal cord injury is
D. Basal ganglia experiencing paralysis and loss of sensation below the waist. What
type of spinal cord injury is this most likely indicative of?
A. Anterior cord syndrome
B. Central cord syndrome

47 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

C. Brown-Séquard syndrome She reports difficulty seeing objects up close. Which refractive
D. Conus medullaris syndrome abnormality is most likely affecting this patient?
A. Myopia
MCQ 53: A patient with a history of multiple sclerosis experiences B. Hyperopia
optic neuritis. Which cranial nerve is primarily affected in this C. Astigmatism
condition? D. Presbyopia
A. Cranial nerve II (Optic)
B. Cranial nerve IV (Trochlear) MCQ 62: A 35-year-old patient with a history of type 2 diabetes
C. Cranial nerve VI (Abducens) presents to the emergency room with sudden vision loss in the left
D. Cranial nerve VIII (Vestibulocochlear) eye. On examination, the ophthalmologist finds retinal hemorrhages
and macular edema. What condition is the patient likely
MCQ 54: A patient with a brain injury is disoriented, exhibits experiencing?
abnormal posturing, and has unequal pupil size. What condition A. Retinal detachment
might the nurse suspect as the cause of these symptoms? B. Cataracts
A. Meningitis C. Diabetic retinopathy
B. Encephalitis D. Macular degeneration
C. Traumatic brain injury
D. Stroke MCQ 63: A 68-year-old patient with a history of hypertension visits
the clinic, complaining of seeing floating specks and flashes of light
MCQ 55: A patient with a suspected cerebral vascular accident (CVA) in their vision, especially in bright sunlight. What is the nurse's
is brought to the emergency department. The nurse should primary concern?
prioritize which assessment? A. Macular degeneration
A. Pain level B. Retinal detachment
B. Respiratory status C. Retinal artery occlusion
C. Urinary output D. Posterior vitreous detachment
D. Blood glucose level
MCQ 64: A 72-year-old patient presents to the clinic with the chief
MCQ 56: A patient with a history of epilepsy is prescribed a new complaint of difficulty in reading and recognizing faces. On
antiepileptic medication. What teaching should the nurse provide to examination, the ophthalmologist notes drusen and pigmentary
ensure proper medication compliance? changes in the macula. What condition is most likely affecting this
A. Take the medication with an empty stomach. patient?
B. Stop the medication if experiencing dizziness. A. Glaucoma
C. Avoid abrupt discontinuation of the medication. B. Cataracts
D. Take the medication only during seizures. C. Retinal detachment
D. Age-related macular degeneration
MCQ 57: A patient with a suspected spinal cord injury is brought to
the emergency department. What is the nurse's primary focus MCQ 65: A 30-year-old patient with a recent eye injury is brought
during the initial assessment? to the emergency department with a corneal abrasion. The patient
A. Assessing cognitive function complains of severe eye pain and tearing. What is the appropriate
B. Stabilizing the cervical spine nursing intervention for this patient?
C. Measuring blood pressure A. Administer a mydriatic agent
D. Administering pain medication B. Patch the affected eye
C. Irrigate the eye with saline solution
MCQ 58: A patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome is experiencing D. Administer topical steroids
ascending muscle weakness and paresthesia. What is the nurse's
priority in caring for this patient? MCQ 66: A 60-year-old patient with a history of glaucoma is
A. Administering intravenous antibiotics scheduled for an ophthalmic examination. The patient asks the
B. Monitoring vital signs nurse about the purpose of this examination. What should the nurse
C. Administering corticosteroids explain to the patient regarding the importance of regular eye
D. Providing emotional support exams in glaucoma?
A. To measure intraocular pressure (IOP)
MCQ 59: A patient with a suspected spinal cord injury presents with B. To assess the lens for cataract formation
complete loss of motor and sensory function below the injury site. C. To evaluate the peripheral field of vision
What is the nurse's initial classification of this injury? D. To examine the retina for signs of macular degeneration
A. Complete, motor, and sensory
B. Incomplete, motor, and sensory MCQ 67: A 40-year-old patient who recently underwent cataract
C. Complete, motor only surgery reports seeing halos around lights. The nurse should
D. Incomplete, motor only educate the patient about the possible cause of this phenomenon,
related to the surgical procedure. What should the nurse explain to
MCQ 60: A patient with a cerebral aneurysm rupture experiences a the patient?
sudden severe headache, photophobia, and neck stiffness. What A. Development of floaters in the vitreous humor
type of headache is often associated with this condition? B. Changes in the corneal curvature
A. Cluster headache C. Formation of cataracts in the remaining eye
B. Tension headache D. Implantation of an intraocular lens
C. Migraine headache
D. Thunderclap headache MCQ 68: A 50-year-old patient is scheduled for a retinal exam and
is concerned about the eye drops administered to dilate the pupils.
MCQ 61: A 45-year-old patient with a history of myopia visits the What should the nurse inform the patient about the purpose of
ophthalmology clinic, complaining of blurred vision when reading. these dilating drops?
A. To reduce intraocular pressure

48 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

B. To assess the optic disc

C. To examine the lens for cataracts MCQ 76: A 42-year-old patient with a history of ocular trauma
D. To enable a better view of the retina complains of sudden onset of floaters and flashes of light, along
with a curtain-like shadow obstructing part of their visual field. On
MCQ 69: A 25-year-old patient with a history of allergies visits the assessment, the nurse notes retinal detachment on fundoscopy.
clinic with symptoms of redness, itching, and tearing in both eyes. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention for this patient?
The nurse should assess the patient for possible allergic A. Administer eye drops to reduce retinal tension
conjunctivitis. Which intervention is appropriate? B. Encourage bed rest and avoid any eye movement
A. Administering topical corticosteroids C. Perform an eye patching procedure to stabilize the retina
B. Administering artificial tears D. Immediately consult the ophthalmologist for surgery
C. Prescribing topical antibiotics
D. Applying a warm compress MCQ 77: A 24-year-old patient with a history of seasonal allergies
presents with intense itching, tearing, and redness in both eyes. The
MCQ 70: A 55-year-old patient who wears contact lenses presents patient reports that these symptoms occur every spring. What is the
to the clinic with complaints of eye pain, redness, and discomfort. likely cause of these symptoms, and what nursing advice should be
The nurse suspects a potential corneal infection due to contact lens provided?
misuse. What instructions should the nurse provide to the patient A. Allergic conjunctivitis; advise using over-the-counter
regarding contact lens hygiene? antihistamine eye drops
A. Sleep with contact lenses to reduce eye dryness B. Bacterial conjunctivitis; instruct to apply cold compresses
B. Rinse contact lenses with tap water C. Viral conjunctivitis; recommend frequent handwashing
C. Change contact lens solution weekly D. Glaucoma; suggest eye examination for intraocular pressure
D. Avoid wearing contact lenses while swimming
MCQ 78: A 55-year-old patient with a history of diabetes is
MCQ 71: A 20-year-old patient with a recent history of head trauma experiencing sudden vision loss, described as "a curtain descending"
is brought to the emergency department with complaints of over the eye. The patient reports flashes of light and floaters. What
unequal pupil size, decreased level of consciousness, and vomiting. emergency situation is the nurse most concerned about in this
What condition is the nurse most likely concerned about? patient?
A. Ocular melanoma A. Corneal abrasion
B. Ocular hypertonia B. Retinal detachment
C. Increased intracranial pressure C. Ocular hypertension
D. Ocular glaucoma D. Macular degeneration

MCQ 72: A 48-year-old patient who recently underwent LASIK MCQ 79: A 30-year-old patient with a history of herpes simplex
surgery for myopia reports seeing halos and experiencing dry eyes. keratitis is experiencing eye pain, tearing, and sensitivity to light.
The nurse should educate the patient about the common side The nurse observes corneal clouding and the presence of dendritic
effects associated with LASIK surgery. What explanation should the lesions on examination. What is the most likely diagnosis for this
nurse provide? patient?
A. "LASIK surgery may lead to cataract formation." A. Ocular melanoma
B. "Halos and dry eyes are temporary side effects." B. Allergic conjunctivitis
C. "Dry eyes are a sign of retinal detachment." C. Glaucoma
D. "Seeing halos is a symptom of glaucoma." D. Herpetic keratitis

MCQ 73: A 38-year-old patient with a history of smoking is MCQ 80: A 50-year-old patient who underwent cataract surgery
scheduled for a retinal exam. The patient expresses concerns about presents with blurred vision, pain, and redness in the eye. On
the risk of eye diseases due to smoking. What eye condition should assessment, the nurse notices a shallow anterior chamber. What
the nurse inform the patient is associated with smoking? postoperative complication is the nurse most concerned about in
A. Retinal detachment this patient?
B. Cataracts A. Conjunctivitis
C. Macular degeneration B. Endophthalmitis
D. Conjunctivitis C. Retinal detachment
D. Dry eye syndrome
MCQ 74: A 62-year-old patient with a recent history of eye surgery
is admitted to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) after a retinal MCQ 81: A 30-year-old patient with a recent history of severe
detachment repair. The patient is experiencing severe eye pain, vomiting and diarrhea is brought to the emergency room. The
increased intraocular pressure, and a shallow anterior chamber. patient is confused, has dry mucous membranes, and demonstrates
What condition should the nurse suspect in this patient? poor skin turgor. What condition is the nurse most concerned
A. Ocular melanoma about?
B. Ocular hypertension A. Hyperthyroidism
C. Acute angle-closure glaucoma B. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Optic nerve atrophy C. Hypoglycemia
D. Dehydration
MCQ 75: A 56-year-old patient with a known history of
osteoporosis presents with complaints of chronic eye pain, MCQ 82: A 28-year-old patient is scheduled for a thyroidectomy
headache, and blurred vision. The patient's physical examination due to a diagnosis of hyperthyroidism. The nurse should educate the
reveals bilateral exophthalmos, bruit on auscultation, and proptosis. patient about the importance of postoperative care. What
What eye condition is most likely associated with these symptoms? information should the nurse provide regarding potential
A. Cataracts complications after thyroid surgery?
B. Glaucoma A. Hyperglycemia
C. Orbital cellulitis B. Hypokalemia
D. Thyroid eye disease (Graves' disease) C. Hypothyroidism

49 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

D. Hypercalcemia C. Primary hypothyroidism

D. Secondary hypothyroidism
MCQ 83: A 65-year-old patient with a known history of diabetes is
admitted to the hospital with elevated blood glucose levels, MCQ 90: A 60-year-old patient with a history of chronic kidney
excessive thirst, and frequent urination. The patient's vital signs disease (CKD) is admitted to the hospital with symptoms of renal
reveal tachycardia and hypotension. What emergency condition osteodystrophy. The patient experiences bone pain, fractures, and
should the nurse suspect in this patient? muscle weakness. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms
A. Hyperthyroid crisis (thyroid storm) in a patient with CKD?
B. Hypothyroidism A. Elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH)
C. Diabetic ketoacidosis B. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypoglycemia C. Excessive vitamin D intake
D. Hypoparathyroidism
MCQ 84: A 42-year-old patient is diagnosed with Cushing's disease
and scheduled for an adrenalectomy. The nurse should prepare the MCQ 91: A 38-year-old female patient with a history of infertility
patient for surgery by providing information about the potential visits the endocrinology clinic. The patient reports irregular
effects of excess cortisol. What should the nurse explain to the menstrual cycles and excessive facial hair growth. On examination,
patient regarding the effects of elevated cortisol levels? the nurse notes signs of hirsutism. What endocrine condition should
A. Weight loss, muscle atrophy, and hypotension the nurse suspect in this patient?
B. Hyperpigmentation, muscle hypertrophy, and hyperkalemia A. Hypogonadism
C. Moon face, muscle wasting, and osteoporosis B. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
D. Thin skin, buffalo hump, and impaired glucose tolerance C. Menopause
D. Hyperparathyroidism
MCQ 85: A 55-year-old patient with a history of smoking is
admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of lung cancer. The patient MCQ 92: A 50-year-old patient is scheduled for a
is experiencing severe fatigue, unexplained weight loss, and parathyroidectomy due to hyperparathyroidism. The nurse should
hypercalcemia. What condition should the nurse suspect in this educate the patient about the potential complications of
patient, considering the symptoms? parathyroid surgery. What should the nurse explain to the patient
A. Hypoparathyroidism regarding the role of the parathyroid glands?
B. Hypocalcemia A. Regulate insulin secretion
C. Hyperparathyroidism B. Control blood glucose levels
D. Hypothyroidism C. Maintain calcium and phosphate balance
D. Regulate thyroid hormone production
MCQ 86: A 40-year-old female patient with a family history of
thyroid disorders visits the endocrinology clinic for a routine MCQ 93: A 33-year-old patient is diagnosed with Addison's disease,
checkup. The nurse should educate the patient about the a condition characterized by adrenal insufficiency. The patient is
importance of thyroid self-examinations and recognizing the signs of prescribed glucocorticoid replacement therapy. What information
thyroid nodules. What should the nurse instruct the patient to do should the nurse provide to the patient regarding glucocorticoid
for a thyroid self-examination? therapy?
A. Palpate the thyroid gland while swallowing A. It increases the risk of hypertension.
B. Check the thyroid gland for skin discoloration B. It may cause weight loss and muscle wasting.
C. Auscultate the thyroid gland for bruits C. It stimulates the release of insulin.
D. Observe the thyroid gland for visual disturbances D. It promotes calcium reabsorption by the kidneys.

MCQ 87: A 35-year-old patient with a known history of diabetes is MCQ 94: A 27-year-old patient with a history of hypertension is
prescribed a new medication for blood glucose management. The admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma.
patient expresses concern about potential hypoglycemia. What The patient's blood pressure is significantly elevated. What nursing
information should the nurse provide to help the patient intervention should be the top priority in managing this patient's
understand the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia? condition?
A. Increased thirst, frequent urination, and weight gain A. Administering insulin and glucose
B. Dry mouth, confusion, and rapid weight loss B. Administering beta-blockers and alpha blockers
C. Excessive hunger, sweating, and tachycardia C. Administering antithyroid medications
D. Nausea, vomiting, and headache D. Administering calcium channel blockers

MCQ 88: A 58-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital with a MCQ 95: A 62-year-old patient with a history of heart disease is
diagnosis of pheochromocytoma, a tumor of the adrenal medulla. admitted to the hospital with uncontrolled hypertension. The nurse
The patient experiences episodic hypertension, headache, notices a prominent thyroid bruit on examination and suspects an
palpitations, and excessive sweating. What nursing intervention is endocrine disorder. What endocrine condition is the nurse likely to
essential to manage these symptoms in the patient? consider in this patient?
A. Administer intravenous insulin A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Administer intravenous glucose B. Cushing's disease
C. Administer beta-blockers and alpha blockers C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Administer corticosteroids D. Hypoparathyroidism

MCQ 89: A 45-year-old patient with a known history of MCQ 96: A 44-year-old patient with a known history of Graves'
hypothyroidism presents with complaints of cold intolerance, disease presents to the endocrinology clinic for follow-up. The
fatigue, dry skin, and muscle cramps. The patient's recent blood patient reports a significant weight loss, increased appetite, and
work indicates elevated levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). excessive sweating. What nursing advice should be provided to
What condition is the nurse likely to suspect in this patient? manage these symptoms?
A. Hyperthyroidism A. Increase sodium intake
B. Thyroid storm B. Administer antithyroid medications

50 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

C. Encourage calorie-restricted diet C. Adulthood

D. Provide warm clothing for temperature regulation D. Menopause

MCQ 97: A 68-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital with a MCQ 105: During which phase of the ovarian cycle does ovulation
recent diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism. The patient occur?
experiences frequent urination, dehydration, and confusion. What A. Follicular phase
medical emergency is the nurse most concerned about in this B. Luteal phase
patient? C. Menstrual phase
A. Diabetic ketoacidosis D. Secretory phase
B. Thyroid storm
C. Hypercalcemic crisis MCQ 106: A patient has an elevated level of estrogen secreted by
D. Hypoglycemia ovarian follicles in the ovary. Which phase of the menstrual cycle is
she likely in?
MCQ 98: A 35-year-old patient is diagnosed with acromegaly, a A. Menstrual phase
condition caused by an excess of growth hormone (GH). The patient B. Proliferative phase
is scheduled for transsphenoidal surgery. What should the nurse C. Secretory phase
include in the preoperative teaching to prepare the patient for this D. Follicular phase
procedure?
A. Expectation of thyroidectomy MCQ 107: A nurse is teaching a class about the menstrual cycle and
B. Preparation for potential parathyroid surgery mentions the sudden reduction in the release of estrogen and
C. Instructions on maintaining normocalcemia progesterone. What phase of the menstrual cycle does this
D. Information about postoperative follow-up and monitoring correspond to?
A. Menstrual phase
MCQ 99: A 54-year-old patient with a history of hypothyroidism is B. Proliferative phase
admitted to the hospital with lethargy, decreased level of C. Secretory phase
consciousness, and bradycardia. The patient's lab results show D. Ovulatory phase
severely elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels. What
condition is the nurse most concerned about in this patient? MCQ 108: A 30-year-old female experiences menorrhagia. Which
A. Myxedema coma best describes her condition?
B. Hyperparathyroidism A. Absence of menstruation
C. Hyperthyroid crisis (thyroid storm) B. Decreased menstrual bleeding
D. Addison's disease C. Excess menstrual bleeding
D. Menstruation with pain
MCQ 100: A 40-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes is seen in the
clinic for a follow-up appointment. The patient reports difficulty in MCQ 109: A patient has dysmenorrhea. What is she experiencing
maintaining stable blood glucose levels and frequent episodes of during her menstrual cycle?
hypoglycemia. What advice should the nurse provide to help the A. Absence of menstruation
patient reduce the risk of hypoglycemia? B. Decreased menstrual bleeding
A. Increase insulin dosage C. Excess menstrual bleeding
B. Eat regular, balanced meals and snacks D. Menstruation with pain
C. Limit water intake to prevent dilution of blood glucose
D. Administer antithyroid medications MCQ 110: A patient presents with oligomenorrhea. What is the
primary characteristic of this condition?
MCQ 101: A 28-year-old woman experiences the shedding of A. Decreased frequency of menstrual bleeding
endometrial tissue and blood from her uterus for about 5 days. B. Increased frequency of menstruation
What phase of the menstrual cycle is she in? C. Excess menstrual bleeding
A. Menstrual phase D. Menstruation with pain
B. Proliferative phase
C. Secretory phase MCQ 111: What is the most common cause of atresia of oocytes in
D. Follicular phase childhood?
A. Ovulation
MCQ 102: A nurse is teaching a class about oogenesis. A student B. Puberty
asks about the number of oocytes present at birth. What is the C. Menarche
nurse's most accurate response? D. Degeneration
A. Approximately 2 million
B. Around 400,000 MCQ 112: A 35-year-old woman has an abnormally heavy
C. 480 menstrual flow. Which term is used to describe this condition?
D. Oocytes are not present at birth. A. Menstrual phase
B. Proliferative phase
MCQ 103: A female patient is found to have ovulated about 480 C. Menorrhagia
gametes in her lifetime. What is this process called? D. Menstruation
A. Oogenesis
B. Ovarian cycle MCQ 113: A patient's menstrual cycle typically lasts 28 days. At
C. Menstrual cycle what point in her cycle does ovulation occur?
D. Ovulation A. Day 5
B. Day 14
MCQ 104: A woman's ability to release ova typically begins at what C. Day 21
life stage? D. Day 28
A. Childhood
B. Puberty

51 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

MCQ 114: A patient presents with blood in her urine between C. Reduced fertility
menstrual cycles. What is this condition called? D. Likely sterility
A. Menorrhagia
B. Dysmenorrhea MCQ 118: A patient's sperm has a high percentage of sperms with
C. Metrorrhagia tail defects. What is the term used to describe this condition?
D. Oligomenorrhea A. Teratozoospermia
B. Oligospermia
MCQ 115: A woman experiences pain during ovulation. What is the C. Hematospermia
medical term for this condition? D. Azoospermia
A. Menorrhagia
B. Dysmenorrhea MCQ 119: A couple is trying to conceive, and the male partner's
C. Oligomenorrhea semen analysis shows that 50% of his sperms are not motile. What
D. Mittelschmerz is the term for this condition?
A. Teratozoospermia
MCQ 116: A couple has been trying to conceive without success. B. Oligospermia
They are concerned about the male partner's fertility. Which C. Hematospermia
parameter should be evaluated to investigate male infertility? D. Asthenozoospermia
A. Endometrial thickness
B. Sperm count MCQ 120: A patient has a reduced number of sperm, typically less
C. Estrogen level than 20 million/mL. What term best describes this condition?
D. Uterine pH A. Oligospermia
B. Teratozoospermia
MCQ 117: A patient's semen analysis reveals a sperm count of less C. Hematospermia
than 20 million/mL. What is the implication of this finding? D. Azoospermia
A. Normal fertility
B. High fertility Answers:
1. A 12. B 23. A 34. C 45. A 56. C 67. B 78. B 89. C 100. B 111. D
2. C 13. A 24. C 35. D 46. B 57. B 68. D 79. D 90. A 101. A 112. C
3. B 14. A 25. A 36. C 47. A 58. B 69. B 80. B 91. B 102. B 113. B
4. C 15. A 26. D 37. A 48. C 59. A 70. D 81. D 92. C 103. C 114. C
5. B 16. A 27. C 38. C 49. D 60. D 71. C 82. C 93. B 104. B 115. D
6. B 17. D 28. C 39. B 50. C 61. D 72. B 83. C 94. B 105. B 116. B
7. A 18. B 29. C 40. A 51. A 62. C 73. C 84. D 95. C 106. B 117. C
8. B 19. C 30. D 41. C 52. C 63. B 74. C 85. C 96. B 107. A 118. A
9. A 20. C 31. B 42. D 53. A 64. D 75. D 86. A 97. C 108. C 119. D
10. C 21. C 32. B 43. B 54. C 65. C 76. D 87. C 98. D 109. D 120. A
11. B 22. A 33. B 44. D 55. B 66. A 77. A 88. C 99. A 110. A

52 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

Self aSSeSSment d. Forming the myelin sheath around axons

1. The nerve which play a key role in breathing or respiration, and
your diaphragm to contract and expand, giving your lungs ability to 12. Which type of neuroglia functions as immune cells in the central
inhale and exhale air? nervous system?
a. phrenic nerve a. Astrocytes
b. trigeminal nerves b. Oligodendrocytes
c.vagus nerves c. Microglia
d. olfactory nerves d. Ependymal cells.

2. Which of the following laryngeal cartilage affects the position and 13. Which of the following is NOT the part of bony labyrinth?
tension of the vocal cord? a. vestibule
a. Epiglottis b. cochlea
b. Thyroid c. semicircular canals
c. Arytenoid d. utricle
d. Cricoid
14. Which of the following is a condition that is associated with
3. What happens if intra-pleural pressure equals or exceeds dysfunction of the enteric nervous system?
intra-pulmonic pressure? a. Parkinson's disease
a. Death occurs b. Irritable bowel syndrome
b. The lung collapses c. Stroke
c. The larynx can no longer generate sound d. Alzheimer's disease
d. Pulmonary edema develops
15. Which of the following does not act as a neurotransmitter?
4. Over inflation of the lungs is controlled by which center of the a. Acetylcholine
brain b. Epinephrine
a. Pneumotaxic c. Norepinephrine
b. Apneustic d. Cortisone
c. Hypothalamus.
d. Medulla oblongata 16. The cerebrospinal fluid's normal appearance is
a. Clear and colorless
5.Sympathetic nerve stimulation from the vagus nerve causes; b. Yellow and cloudy
a. Bronchodilation c. Pink and frothy
b. Cough reflex d. Green and opaque
c. Hypercapnia
d. Bronchoconstriction 17. What should be the position of the patient during a lumbar
puncture?
6. The lung receives the blood vessels and nerves through its; a. Sitting up and leaning forward
a. Base b. Lying on their back with their legs bent at the knees
b. Apex c. Lying on their stomach with a pillow under their hips
c. Hilum d. Standing up with their back against the wall
d. Costal surface
18. Which of the following vertebrae relatively a safe space during
7. Which structures are associated with the trachea inferiorly? lumber puncture?
a. Larynx and sternum a. The L1-L2 intervertebral space
b Isthmus and thyroid gland b. The L2-L3 intervertebral space
C. Right and left bronchi c. The L2-L4 intervertebral space
d. Esophagus d. The L4-L5 intervertebral space

8. The main muscles used in normal quite breathing are; 19. CSF is typically reabsorbed at a rate of;
a. Diaphragm and external intercostal a .10ml/hr
b. Diaphragm and internal intercostal b. 20ml/hr
C. External intercostal and scalene c. 30ml/hr
d. External intercostal and internal intercostal d. 40ml/hr

9. The sensitive area associated with triggering a cough reflex is 20. Superior and transverse sinuses empty CSF into
a. Right bronchus Internal jugular vein
b. Left bronchus b. Extemal jugular vein
c. Larynx c. Internal carotid vein
d. Carina d. Extemal carotid vein
10. The diameter of the respiratory passages is altered by
contraction or relaxation of the smooth muscles in their walls, 21. A patient experiences a sudden increase in blood pressure, which
regulating the speed and volume of airflow into and within the lungs. causes a reflex response to decrease
These changes are the heart rate and blood pressure. Which reflex arc is involved in
controlled by; this scenario?
a. Autonomic nerve supply Withdrawal reflex arc
b. Chemoreceptors b. Stretch reflex are
c. Medulla oblongata Autonomic reflex arc
d. Cerebrum d. Crossed-extensor reflex are

10. Which of the following is not a function of neuroglia? 21. A patient experiences a sudden loss of balance which causes a
a. Providing support and protection to neurons reflex response to adjust the posture and maintain balance. Which
b. Regulating the extracellular environment of neurons reflex arc is involved in this scenario?
c. Transmitting electrical signals between neurons A. Withdrawal reflex arc

53 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

b. Stretch reflex arc b. Tympanic membrane

Autonomic reflex arc c. Eustachian tube
Postural reflex arc Oval window

23. A patient present with difficulty in regulating his sleep-wake cycle, 33. Sajid is experiencing hearing loss, and his doctor suspects that he
and exhibits sleep disturbances.Which part of the brain is most likely may have a buildup of cerumen in his ear canal. Which of the
affected? following is the most likely cause of Sajid's hearing loss?
a. Cerebrum a. Infection of the middle ear
b. Cerebellum b. Damage to the cochlea
c. Brainstem c. Blockage of the ear canal by cerumen
Hypothalamus d. Tumor in the inner ear

24. A patient present with difficulty in regulating his autonomic 34. Sarah is trying to listen to a lecture in a noisy room.Which part
functions such as heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing. Which of her ear is responsible for amplifying sound waves and directing
part of the brain is most likely affected? them toward the inner ear?
a. Cerebrum a. Pinna
b. Cerebellum b. Tympanic membrane
c. Brainstem c. Cochlea
d. Basal Ganglia d. Vestibule

25. Where is the gustatory area located in the brain? 35. Shan is experiencing conductive hearing loss. Which part of the
a. Frontal lobe ear is likely affected by this condition?
b. Occipital lobe a. Cochlea
Parietal lobe b. Semicircular canals
d. Temporal lobe c. Vestibule
d. Middle ear bones
26. A patient present with fluent speech that is nonsensical, as well as
difficulty understanding spoken and written language. Which brain 36. Sohaib has been diagnosed with a perforated eardrum. Which
area may be damaged in this patient? part of the ear is likely damaged in his case?
Broca's area a. Pinna
b. Hippocampus b. Tympanic membrane
c. Amygdala Cochlea
d. Wemicke area d. Vestibule

27. A patient present with facial drooping on one side, inability to 37. Which structure of the eye is responsible for refracting light and
close one eye, and drooping of the mouth on the same side. Which focusing it onto the retina?
cranial nerve is likely affected? Cornea
Olfacrory nerve Iris
b. Optic nerve d. Lens
c. Facial nerve d. Retina
d. Trigeminal nerve
38. Which part of the eye is responsible for producing the aqueous
28. Which cranial nerve is responsible for controlling the muscles of humor that maintains the shape of the
the neck and shoulders? eye and supplies nutrients to the comea and lens?
a. Accessory nerve a. Cornea
b. Glossopharyngeal nerve b. Iris
c. Trigeminal nerve Ciliary body
d. Trochlear nerve Optic nerve

29. Where does the optic nerve originate from? 39. Which part of the retina contains the highest concentration of
a. The occipital lobe cones?
b. The thalamus a. Fovea
c. The retina b. Optic disc
d. The brainstem c. Macula
d. Vitreous humor
30. The superior enlargement, the cervical enlargement,extends
from the 40. Which cells in the retina are responsible for transmitting visual
6th to 12th thoracic vertebra information from the photoreceptor cells to the brain?
b. 4th to 5th lumber vertebra a. Rods
c. 4th cervical vertebra to the 1st thoracic vertebra Cones
d. 9th to 12th thoracic vertebra c. Ganglion cells
d. Bipolar cells
31. Ali has a sudden increase in blood pressure while exercising.
Which receptors are responsible for 41. A patient complains of difficulty reading up close objects. Which
sensing the change in blood pressure and activating the reflex to refractive error is most likely responsible for their symptoms?
decrease her blood pressure? a. Myopia
Chemoreceptors b. Hyperopia
b. Osmoreceptors c. Astigmatism
c. Baroreceptors d. Presbyopia
d. Thermoreceptors
42. Collecting ducts drain urine into which of the following
32. Which of the following structures is located in the inner ear? structures?
a. Cochlea a. Minor calyces

54 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

b. papillary ducts Hypothalamus

Renal Pelvis d. Adrenal cortex
d. Collecting ducts
54. Overproduction of cortisol hormone causes;
43. Which of the following blood vessels surrounds the loop of Cushing syndrome
Henle? b. Gigantism
a. Efferent arterioles Acromicria
b. Peritubular capillaries d. Acromegaly
c. Interlobular arteries
d. Vasa recta 55. Chemical signaling that affects neighboring cells is called
Autocrine
43. The maximum re-absorption occurs at the; b. Paracrine
Proximal convoluted tubule Endocrine
b. Loop of Henle d. Neuron
Glomerulus
e. Distal convoluted tubule 56. The primary target of the hypothalamic hormones are;
Thyroid gland
45. Which ion is reabsorbed in exchange of sodium? b. Hypothalamus
a. Potassium Pituitary gland
b. Calcium d. Parathyroid gland
c. Sodium
d. Chloride 57. In males the reproductive functions are controlled by;
FSH
46. The muscularis that surrounds the mucosa of the bladder is also b. LH and FSH
called; c. Testosterone
a. Rugae d. All the above
b. Adventitia
Macula densa 58. Hypofunction of the adrenal cortex referred as;
d. Detrusor muscle Dwarfism
c. Acromegaly
Addison disease
47. What portion of the nephron extend into the medulla? d. Cushing syndrome
a. Loop of Henle
d. Papillary duct 59. Hypo calcemic tetany occur when plasma calcium level falls
b. Proximal convoluted tubule below;
Distal convoluted tubule 5 mg/dl
4.5mg/dl
48. In females which structure are associated with the blader 6mg/dl
anteriorly. d. 3.7mg/dl
Symphysis pubis
b. Small intestine 60. Which of the following stimulates fat and protein catabolism?
c. Urethra and muscles of the pelvic floor Mineralocorticoid
d. Uterus and upper part of vagina b. Glucocorticoid
c. Androgen
49. Which of the following is least likely to be present in the All of them
Glomerular filtrate?
Glucose 61. The suspensory ligaments of the female reproductive system are
c. b. Electrolyte responsible for:
d. Uric acid a. Supporting the uterus
Large weight protein molecules b. Anchoring the ovaries in place
Securing the fallopian tubes to the uterus
50. Which structure of the urinary system is the first to collect d. Providing blood supply to the vagina
urine? 62. A 35-year-old female patient comes to the clinic with complaints
Pelvis of hot flashes, night sweats, and vaginal dryness. She reports that she
Calyx has not had a period in over a year. Which of the following is the
Ureter most likely diagnosis for this patient's condition?
d. Bladder Endometriosis
b. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
51. Glucocorticoids belongs to which group of hormone. c. Menopause
a. Peptide d. Ovarian cancer
b. Steroid
c. Protein base 63. The total supply of oocytes that a female will have for her lifetime
Derivative of amino acid is determined at what point in her life?
a. At puberty
52. The effect of the antidiuretic hormone is; b. During the first menstrual cycle
a. Oliguria c. At birth
b. Decrease urine output d. During pregnancy
c. Increase urine output
d. Anuria 64. In The hormone responsible for triggering ovulation is:
a. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
53. Corticotropin-releasing hormone is secreted by b. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
a. Anterior pituitary gland c. Estrogen
Posterior pituitary gland Progesterone

55 / 56
 TA SERIES ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II CHAPTER WISE MCQS

68. Which of the following structures is responsible for maintaining

65. The medical condition in which a woman experiences heavy or the temperature of the testes?
prolonged menstrual bleeding is called: a. Scrotum
a. Menorrhagia b. Epididymis
b. Dysmenorrhea C. Seminal vesicles
c. Amenorrhea d. Prostate gland
d. Oligomenorrhea.
69. What is another name for the bulbourethral glands?
66. HCG can be detected in a woman's urine or blood as early as: a. Cowper's glands
1 week after conception b. Prostate glands
b. 2 weeks after conception c. Seminal vesicles
C. 4 weeks after conception d. Vas deferens
d. 6 weeks after conception
70. Maaz is a 2-year-old boy who was diagnosed with epispadias.
66. What is the function of the acrosome in the sperm? Which of the following best describes this condition?
It provides energy for the sperm to swim The urethral meatus is located on the underside of the penis
b. It contains DNA for fertilization b. The urethral meatus is located on the top of the penis
It help the sperm to penetrate the oocyte during fertilization c. The urethral meatus is located on the side of the penis
It helps to protect the sperm from the acidic enviroment of the d. The urethral meatus is located inside the penis
female reproductive tract
anSWeS
1. A 8. A 15. D 22. C 29. C 36. B 43. B 50. C 57. B 64. A
2. C 9. D 16. A 23. D 30. C 37. A 44. A 51. B 58. C 65. A
3. B 10. A 17. A 24. C 31. C 38. C 45. B 52. B 59. A 66. C
4. A 11. C 18. C 25. D 32. A 39. A 46. D 53. C 60. B 67. D
5. D 12. C 19. B 26. D 33. C 40. C 47. A 54. A 61. B 68. A
6. C 13. D 20. A 27. C 34. B 41. A 48. C 55. B 62. C 69. A
7. B 14. B 21. C 28. A 35. D 42. C 49. C 56. C 63. C 70. B

RefRenceS
Anne Waugh and Allison Grant (2022-2023). “Anatomy and Physiology”. Elsevier
Ma’am Shanam. Anatomy and Physiology BSN 2nd Semester Slides. Lecturer KMU INS
KMU PPR

56 / 56