1) __________ was the policy of annexation followed by Lord Dalhousie.
a) Doctrine of Lapse b) policy of Divide and Rule c) policy of Discrimination d) Poorna
Swaraj
2) The doctrine of Subsidiary alliance was introduced by _________ .
a) Lord Dalhousie b) Lord Curzon c) Lord Canning d) Lord Richard Wellesley
3) Where was the First session of INC held.
a) Madras b) Bombay c) Calcutta d) Nagpur
4) __________ act of Lord Lytton’s regime was aimed at limiting the freedom of press.
a) Government of India Act b) widow remarriage Act c) The Indian Arms Act d) Vernacular
Press Act
5)__________ was known as the Father of Indian Renaissance.
a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy b) Tilak c) Mahatma Gandhi d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
6) Which of the following leaders can be categorized as a moderate?
a) Lala Lajpat Rai b) Dadabhai Naoroji c) Bipin Chandra Pal d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
7) Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded the _________________.
a) Arya Samaj b) Prarthana Samaj c) Brahmo Samaj d) Ramakrishna Mission
8) ___________ was the first Indian to pass the Indian Civil Service examination.
a) Surendranath Banerjee b) Lala Lajpat Rai c) Dadabhai Naoroji d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
9) ___________ played an important role in the formulation of the constitutional reforms known
as the Morley-Minto Reforms.
a) Lala Lajpat Rai b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale c) Bipin Chandra Pal d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
10) Which of the following methods was not adopted by the Assertive Nationalists.
a) Revival of India’s lost glory b) Swadeshi and Boycott c) Policy of cooperation d) sacrifice
11) ________ and _________ were the two prominent leaders of the Khilafat movement.
a) Muhammed Ali and Sir Syed Ahmed Khan b) Jinnah and Shaukat Ali c) Muhammed Ali and
Shaukat Ali d) Abdul kalam Azad and Jinnah
12) Civil Disobedience Movement was launched by _______________.
a) Rajendra Prasad b) Mahatma Gandhi c) Jawahar Lal Nehru d) Tilak
13) The _______ Act passed by the British Government in the year 1919 gave them permission
to arrest and detain suspected Indians.
a) Rowlatt b) Gandhi- Irwin c) Vernacular Press d) Indian Independence Act
14) Which of the following factors were responsible for the launch of the Civil Disobedience
Act.
a) Failure of the Simon Commission b) partition of Bengal c) Point a and b The d) None of the
above
15) Which of the following is true with respect to the reasons for the launching of the Quit India
Movement?
a) The failure of the Cripps Mission b) Invasion of Japan over India c) Both a and b d) None of
the above
16) ________ party was formed by Subhash Chandra Bose in 1939.
a) Forward Bloc b) INA c) Indian National Congress d) East India Association
17) ___________ was the immediate objective of the Forward Bloc..
a) Liberation from Congress b) Liberation Of India c) Assisting the Caliph of Turkey d)
Assisting the Britishers.
18) Which of the following was not an ideal of the Forward Bloc?
a) To develop the economy on socialistic ideas b) Abolition of Zamindari system c) A new
monetary and credit system d) It favoured two nation theory.
19)__________ joined the Indian Government to disturb the assembly.
a) Muslim league b) Cabinet Mission c) Cripps Mission d) Lord Irwin
20) The Muslim League accepted the proposal of the Mountbatten plan because.
a) There was a provision of creation of Pakistan b) Two separate constituent assemblies for two
dominion states c) Both a and b d) None of the above
21) The Vernacular Press Act was repealed by _____________.
a) Lord Ripon b) Lord Minto c) Lord Lytton d) Lord Curzon
22) The objective of the Cabinet Mission was __________________.
a) Partition of India b) To hand over powers to Indians c) To help establish a constituent
assembly to form the constitution d) None of these.
23) Which event was responsible for the withdrawal of the Non Cooperation Movement.
a) Chauri Chaura outrage b) Dandi March c) The Black Act d) Morley Reforms
24) Which of the following is not true about Tilak/
a) He was a moderate leader b) He wrote Gita Rahasya c) He launched the newspaper Kesari d)
Both a nd c
25) Which of the following was annexed by Lord Dalhousie under the doctrine of lapse?
a) Nagpur b) Jhansi c) Sambalpur d) Satara
26) Italy wanted to get back the territory of __________ from Austria.
a) Balkan b) Trentino Trieste c) Eupen-et-Malmedy d) Corfu
27) _________ provided raw material, cheap labour, agricultural land and trading ports to the
imperial nations.
a) Imperialism b) Nationalism c) Aggressive Nationalism d) Colonies
28) Balkan states like Serbia wanted that their fellow nationals ________ who lived in other
states should come together to form a greater Balkan state.
a) Slavs b) Jews c) Mongols d) Hungarians
29) In the early 19’th century, there were single nation-states like France, ________ and
Germany whose national identities were based on their common language and traditions.
a) Austria- Hungary b) Russia c) Ottoman Empire d) Holland
30) After the death of __________ France was able to establish friendly relations with Russia
and England.
a) Archduke Francis Ferdinand b) Bismark c) Winston Churchill d) George Clemenceau
31) Ottoman Turkey and ________ joined the side of Germany in the First World War.
a) Serbia b) Bulgaria c) Japan d) Italy
32) In 1882 ______ joined the alliance and it came to be known as the Triple Alliance.
a) Greece b) Serbia c) Italy d) Ottoman Empire
33) There was complete political instability in Italy and between 1919 and 1922 ______ coalition
governments were formed.
a) 5 b) 6 c) 3 d) 7
34) The Socialists who included the ___________, the Communists and the Social Democrats
created conditions conducive to the growth of Fascism in Italy.
a) Revolutionaries b) Nazis c) Liberals d) Anarchists
35) Germans looked down upon the __________ republic which had signed the disgraceful
Versailles Treaty.
a) Potsdam b) Weimar c) Reichstag d) Bonn
36) Italy demonstrated her Imperialistic designs by attacking _________.
a) Corfu b) Tunisia c) Abyssinia d) Trentino Trieste
37) In 1938, Hitler annexed Austria and dismembered erstwhile ___________.
a) Yugoslavia b) Czechoslovakia c) Poland d) Sudetenland
38) The German armies completed the conquest of Poland in less than _________ weeks so as to
ensure that no aid reached Poland.
a) 3 b) 6 c) 2 d) 4
39) The authority of the League of the Nations was flouted by Japan when it seized __________.
a) Sichuan b) Manchuria c) Kowloon d) Peking
40) The League did nothing when Poland, with the backing of _________, seized a part of
Lithuania.
a) England b) Germany c) France d) Russia
41) The city of Danzing was inhabited mainly by the Germans and by occupying Danzing
Corridor, Germany could connect with _________.
a) Lithuania b) Latvia c) Estonia d) East Prussia
42) Emperor __________ was left on the throne as a constitutional monarch and the Japanese
Parliament retained some of its law making powers.
a) Hirohito b) Hiroshima c) Orochimaru d) Yasuke
43) The horrors of the two World Wars and the failure of the League of Nations led to a meeting
of the Big Three--- Roosevelt (President of the USA), Churchill (Prime Minister of Britain) and
Stalin (Premier of the USSR) at ________ in February 1945.
a) Potsdam b) Bonn c) Yalta d) Bandung
44) The objectives for which the United Nations was established are enshrined in the _________
of the UN Charter.
a) Preamble b) Schedule c) Constitution d) Act
45) The International Court of Justice elects its President and Vice-President for a ______ year
term.
a) six b) seven c) three d) five
46) The Presidency of the Security Council rotates __________ according to the English
alphabetical listing of its member states.
a) Weekly b) Half-yearly c) Monthly d) Quarterly
36) Italy demonstrated her Imperialistic designs by attacking _________.
a) Corfu b) Tunisia c) Abyssinia d) Trentino Trieste
37) In 1938, Hitler annexed Austria and dismembered erstwhile ___________.
a) Yugoslavia b) Czechoslovakia c) Poland d) Sudetenland
38) The German armies completed the conquest of Poland in less than _________ weeks so as to
ensure that no aid reached Poland.
a) 3 b) 6 c) 2 d) 4
47) The International Court of Justice replaced the Permanent Court of International Justice
which had functioned in the __________ since 1922.
a) Hague b) Peace Palace c) Geneva d) Bern
48) UNICEF is governed by a ______ member Executive Board, which reviews UNICEF
activities and approves its policies, country programmes and budgets.
a) 25 b) 36 c) 40 d) 15
49) The UNESCO promotes basic research in fields like ________, mathematics, physics and
oceanography.
a) History b) Geography c) Geology d) Orthodontics
50) Courier is the official monthly magazine of UNESCO. Its Hindi and _______ editions are
available in India.
a) Malayalam b) Kannada c) Tamil d) Bengali
51) WHO makes special efforts in combating _________ diseases which are known as killers of
infants and young children.
a) Malarial b) Diarrhoeal c) Small-Pox d) Chicken Pox
52) Germany lost all her colonies to the victorious allies – Britain, Belgium, South Africa and
_________.
a) Spain b) Portugal c) Estonia d) Denmark
53) Under the Treaty of Versailles, Danzing became a free port in the _______ territory.
a) German b) French c) Polish d) Danish
54) The total number of countries represented at the conference at Versailles was ________.
a) 35 b) 25 c) 47 d) 27
55) New nations like _________, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania and Yugoslavia emerged at the end
of First World War.
a) Finland b) Denmark c) Switzerland d) Lapland
56) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected from –
a. members of the newly elected Rajya Sabha
b. Members of the newly elected Lok Sabha
c. Members of both the combined houses
d. He’s nominated by the President
57) The right of members to ask questions from the government is called---
a. Question hour b. Zero Hour c. Prorogation d. Interpellation
58) Which is not an exclusive power of the Lok Sabha?
a. Creation of new All India Services c. Motion of No-Confidence
b. Introduction of Money bills d. None of the above
59) What is the term of the Rajya Sabha?
a. six years b. Permanent house c. five years d. rotates every 2 years
60) Which of the following is a required qualification for being a member of the Lok Sabha?
a. Must be 30 years of age b. Must be an insolvent c. must be a criminal
d. Must have his names on the electoral records
61) The Rajya Sabha has __________ elected members.
a. 238 b. 250 c. 234 d. 245
62) An ordinance ceases to operate six weeks after ________________.
a. its inception b. after the election of the new Lok Sabha
c. after the inception of the new session of the Lok Sabha
d. after the crisis is over
63) If the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Rajya Sabha becomes the ____________.
a. de jure Parliament b. de facto Parliament
c. both de facto and de jure Parliament d. none of the above
64) Money bills can be introduced in the Lok Sabha by__________________.
a. members of the majority party of the Lok Sabha
b. members of the Council of Ministers only
c. Members of opposition parties and majority party
d. members of majority party, opposition parties and independents
65) When can the Parliament vote on issues in the State List?
a. During the proclamation of emergency in a State
b. When a state is preparing for elections
c. When the state legislature is dissolved
d. none of the above
66) ____________ is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central
authority and various constituent units of the country.
a) Local Self Government b) Federalism c) Republic d) Democracy
67) The ___________ is the body of people’s representatives who have supreme power of
governance in a democratic country.
a) Electoral College b) Electorate c) Parliament d) Cabinet
68) During the proclamation of emergency, the term of the Lok Sabha maybe extended by the
Parliament _____ year at a time.
a) two b) one c) five d) three
69) The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act which was passed in January 2020 did away with
the provision of nomination of __________ to Lok Sabha and certain state assemblies.
a) Schedule Caste b) Schedule Tribe c) Anglo-Indians d) Muslims
70) The House grants leave to move No-Confidence Motion only when it has the support of at
least ______ members.
(a) 10 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) 25
71) Money Bills can only be introduced on the recommendation of the __________.
(a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Chief Election Commissioner (d) Speaker
72) _________ is the pivot round which the whole administration revolves.
(a) Cabinet (b) Council of Ministers (c) Prime Minister (d) President
73) The Prime Minister is also the ex-officio Chairman of the _________ and the Atomic Energy
Commission.
(a) Parliamentary Affairs Committee (b) Parliamentary Delegations Committee (c) Niti Aayog
(d) Enforcement Directorate
74) In 1961, the Parliament reprimanded the editor of the ________ for ridiculing a member of
the Parliament.
(a) Outlook (b) Blitz (c) India Today (d) Time Magzine
75) The Question Hour, Calling Attention Notices and _________ are some devices to seek
information from the government about its policies and performance.
(a) Prorogation (b) Half-an-hour discussion (c) Adjournment Motion (d) Interpellation
76) In the Table of Precedence __________ ranks higher than all Cabinet Ministers, other than
the Prime Minister.
(a) Chairman (b) Leader of Opposition (c) Chief Election Commissioner (d) Speaker
77) When the ______remains dissolved especially during proclamation of Emergency then the
Rajya Sabha acts as Union Legislature
(a) Vidhan Parishad (b) Lok Sabha (c) Lok Parishad (d) Vidhan Sabha
78) A Presidential Ordinance can remain in force for
(a) three weeks (b) two weeks (c) six weeks (d) one week
79) Executive Orders are issued in the name of ________.
a.Prime Minister b.Speaker c.President d.Vice President
80) Prorogation means ____________.
a.termination of the session of the Parliament
b.joint sitting of the houses
c.rule for the termination of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
d.rule for the termination of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
81) Who is the link between the Cabinet and the President?
(a) Vice President
(b) President
(c) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(d) Prime Minister
82) Ministers are __________.
(a) members of UPSC
(b) collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha
(c) collectively responsible to the Rajya Sabha
(d) Collectively responsible to the Election Commission
83) The judge of the Supreme Court retires on attaining the age of ____________
(a) 65
(b) 60
(c) 63
(d) 62
84) The head of the union executive in India is the __________.
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Governor
(d) Vice President
85) The right of members to ask questions from the government is called---
(a) Question hour
(b) Zero Hour
(c) Prorogation
(d) Interpellation
86) When a President is being impeached, a resolution for the same is moved after at least _______
days’ notice in writing.
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 15
(d) 14
87) The power of the President to summon Parliament is subject to the condition that there should not
be a gap of more than ______ months between two sessions of each House.
(a) six
(b) three
(c) seven
(d) four
88) The initial duration of an emergency on account of Breakdown of Constitutional Machinery is
________ months.
(a) 12
(b) 2
(c) 6
(d) 4
89) When the Vice-President resigns, such resignation is to be communicated by the President to the
__________
(a) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(b) Leader of the Opposition Party
(c) Cabinet
(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
90) The Supreme Court of India consists of a Chief Justice of India and not more than _____ other
judges.
(a) 34
(b) 33
(c) 32
(d) 35
91) The salaries and allowances of Judges are charged on the _________.
a) Contingency Fund of India
b) Consolidated Fund of India
c) Vote on Account
d) Supplementary Grant
92) A Judge can be removed by the _______ only for proved misbehavior and incapacity.
a) Prime Minister
b) Cabinet
c) Vice-President
d) President
93) _________ is the power that a court of law exercises to carry out judgements and enforce laws.
a) Constitution
b) Preamble
c) Jurisdiction
d) Writ
94) A Supreme Court Judge can remain in office till he/she has achieved the age of ______ yrs.
a) 62
b) 65
c) 60
d) 55
95) ___________ jurisdiction also means Court of ‘Appeal’.
a) Original
b) Revisory
c) Appellate
d) Judicial Review
96) A ‘Court of Record’ is a court whose judgements are in the nature of _________.
a) Evidence
b) Testimony
c) Appeals
d) Precedents
97) In the appointment of the Judges of High Court apart from that of the Chief Justice, The President
consults the Chief Justice of India and ________ of the state.
a) Law Minister
b) Chief Minister
c) Home Secretary
d) Governor
98) The power of a High Court to interpret the Constitution is known as _________.
a) Revisory Jurisdiction
b) Judicial Review
c) Court of Record
d) Precedents
99) A _______ is an order from a judicial authority asking a person to perform some act or refrain
from performing an act.
a) Writ
b) Precedent
c) Constitution
d) Testimony
100) The District Judge in his capacity acts as a ___________ and District Collector.
a) Municipal Commissioner
b) Deputy Commissioner
c) Mayor
d) Chief Justice
101) Which of the following acts/laws do not come under the Judicial Review of the Supreme Court?
a) All Union and State Laws
b) Division of powers between the Centre and State
c) Land reform Act under Constitution’s First Amendment Act
d) Interpretation of the Constitution
102) When the office of the President falls vacant due to some reason (resignation or death) the Vice
President is not available to act as President, _______ takes over as the acting President.
a) The Speaker
b) The Prime Minister
c) The Chief Justice of India
d) The Governor
103) One can simply approach the Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights by writing a
letter. Identify the term.
a) PIL
b) Writ
c) Judicial Review
d) Interpellation
104) A Constitutional Bench of _______ judges is required to determine the Constitutional validity
of laws of the Centre or the States.
a) Five
b) Six
c) Seven
d) Four
105) Which of the following has the power to review the judgement of the Supreme Court?
a) The President
b) The Supreme Court
c) The Parliament
d) The Vice-President
106) Who determines the strength of the Supreme Court?
a) Electoral College
b) Lok Sabha
c) The Parliament
d) Judiciary
107) Who is the first citizen of India?
a) Prime Minister
b) Speaker
c) Chief Justice
d) President
108) To whom does the President send his resignation?
a) The Prime Minister
b) The Vice-President
c) Chief of Defense Staff
d) Speaker
109) Who administers the oath of office to the Council of Ministers?
a) The Prime Minister
b) The Governor
c) The President
d) The Vice-President
110) Under which provision can a non-member of Parliament be made a minister?
a) In case of National Emergency
b) No Party wins a clear majority
c) If he is a retired judge
d) He/She must be elected or nominated to Parliament within six months.
111) All decisions with regards to the Atomic Energy Commission are taken by ______.
a) President
b) Speaker
c) Prime Minister
d) Vice-President
112) Which of the following is not a power of the Cabinet?
a) To formulate the Government policies
b) To nominate 12 members in the Rajya Sabha
c) To control the National income and expenditure
d) To advise the President regarding the proclamation of National Emergency
113) _______ authorizes the Executive to draw money from the Consolidated Fund of India through
Vote on Account.
a) The Rajya Sabha
b) The Lok Sabha
c) Council of Ministers
d) The President
114) The emergency can remain effective only when it is approved by the _______ within a period of
________ from the date of its proclamation.
a) Lok Sabha, one month
b) Parliament, one month
c) Parliament, six months
d) Rajya Sabha, 14 days
115) _______ presides over the meetings of the Rajya Sabha in the absence of the Vice-President.
a) President
b) Speaker
c) Deputy Chairman
d) Chief Justice
116) Constitutional amendments can be introduced in _______
a) Lok Sabha only
b) Rajya Sabha only
c) Either of the House
d) Joint sitting of the House
117) If there is a deadlock between the two Houses of Parliament over a Non-Money Bill__________
summons a joint meeting of the two houses of Parliament.
a) The Vice-President
b) Speaker
c) The President
d) Prime Minister
118) ___________ takes the initiative to summon a session of Parliament on behalf of the President
a) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
b) Prime Minister
c) Speaker
d) Chairman
119) The leader of the majority party is summoned by _________ to form a government after
General Election.
a) Prime Minister
b) Vice-President
c) Speaker
d) President
120) Hema Malini was nominated as a member to the Rajya Sabha. On which criterion the President
would have nominated him?
a) Literature
b) Art
c) Social Service
d) Science
121) ________ was the Governor General of India during the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
a) Lord Dalhousie
b) Lord Canning
c) Lord Cornwallis
d) Lord Lytton
122) Arrange the following in the correct chronological order: -
i) Government of India Act
ii) General Service Enlistment Act
iii) First War of Independence
iv) Religious Disabilities Act
a) iv, ii, iii, i b) i, ii, iii, iv
c) iv, i, ii, iii d) ii, i, iv, iii
123) The Government of India Act of 1858 abolished the Company’s Board of Control and
transferred all the powers to __________.
a) Governor General
b) Viceroy
c) Secretary of State
d) Court of Directors
124) Raja Vinod Rai signs a treaty but fails to fulfill his obligation of payment for the upkeep of
Company soldiers. Which treaty did he break?
a) Doctrine of Lapse
b) General Service Enlistment Act
c) Subsidiary Alliance
d) Religious Disabilities Act
125) Rai Bahadur Vikram Singh had all his lands confiscated for want of valid documents proving
that he was the owner of these lands. Which law enabled the Company to do this?
a) Law of Property
b) Inam Commission
c) Government of India Act 1858
d) Vernacular Press Act
