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TANCET-EEE-Ques-Paper-2023 - Governmentexams - Co.in - Compressed

1. The document provides instructions to candidates taking an examination. It details how to fill out the answer sheet, sign in, and provides guidance on the structure and timing of the exam. 2. Candidates are instructed to write their name, registration number, and sign the answer sheet. They must answer questions from Part I, Part II, and the subject listed on their hall ticket for Part III. 3. Calculators and electronic devices are prohibited during the exam. Candidates must stop writing immediately when time is called and remain seated until their answer sheet has been collected.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
487 views14 pages

TANCET-EEE-Ques-Paper-2023 - Governmentexams - Co.in - Compressed

1. The document provides instructions to candidates taking an examination. It details how to fill out the answer sheet, sign in, and provides guidance on the structure and timing of the exam. 2. Candidates are instructed to write their name, registration number, and sign the answer sheet. They must answer questions from Part I, Part II, and the subject listed on their hall ticket for Part III. 3. Calculators and electronic devices are prohibited during the exam. Candidates must stop writing immediately when time is called and remain seated until their answer sheet has been collected.

Uploaded by

akashsuresh16780
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 14

NG 23 (GROUP A) No.

Time : 2 hours Maximum marks : 100


Name of the Signature of
Candidate : ...................................................................... the Candidate : ........................................................

Regn.
Subject code for Part III
Number :

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Write your Name and Registration Number 7. In the Answer Sheet


(as found in the HALL TICKET) and sign in the (a) Use black ball point pen for all shading
space provided above. and writing.
(b) In the space provided, write your
2. Do not open the Question Book until the Hall Registration Number and shade.
Superintendent gives the signal for doing so. (c) In the space provided, write the subject
code as printed in the hall ticket.
3. The Question Book has 3 parts. You have to
(d) In the space provided, write the name of
answer Part I, Part II and the subject printed the examination centre.
in the hall ticket for the Part III.
(e) Put your signature in the space provided.
4. Each correct answer carries 1 mark and 8. Shade in the space provided against each
for every wrong answer 13 mark will be question number in the Answer Sheet, one of
the four alternatives a, b, c, d which according
deducted.
to you corresponds to the correct answer.
The marks allotted to various parts are as
follows : 9. Use the Answer Sheet carefully. No spare
Answer Sheet will be given.
Part I : 20 marks and Part II : 20 marks
Under Part II all correct answers upto a 10. At the end of the examination, when the Hall
maximum number of 20 will be given credit; Superintendent announces ‘Stop Writing’, you
but all wrong answers will be taken into must stop writing immediately and hand
account for negative marking. over the Answer Sheet to Hall Superintendent.

5. The last few pages of the Question Book are 11. When you have completed answering, stand up
and remain in your place. The Hall
blank, except for the words ‘FOR ROUGH
Superintendent will come to you and collect
WORK’. You can make any relevant rough
your Answer Sheet. Under no circumstances
calculations there. should be taken out of the Examination Hall.
No candidate shall leave the Hall until the
6. After commencement of the examination, open Answer Sheet is collected.
the Question Book and take out the Answer
Sheet. If the Question Book or the Answer Sheet 12. Calculator, tables or any other calculating
or both are not in good condition, ask for their devices and cell phone are strictly prohibited for
immediate replacement. No replacement will be this examination.
made 5 minutes after the commencement of the
examination.

Code Part III – Subjects Page No. Code Part III – Subjects Page No.
01 Civil Engineering 8-13 04 Electronics and Communication Engineering 26-31
02 Computer Science and Engg./Information Tech. 14-19 05 Mechanical Engineering 32-38
03 Electrical and Electronics Engineering 20-25
NG 23 (GROUP A)
PART I — ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS

(Common to all Candidates)

(Answer ALL questions)

1 2 3  4. A flat circular plate is heated so that


 
1. The rank of the matrix  2 4 6  is the temperature at any point (x, y ) is
1 2 3 
  u (x , y ) = x 2 + 2 y 2 − x . The coldest point on
the plate is
a. 0 1
a.
4
b. 1 1
b. −
4
c. 2 1
c.
2
d. 3 1
d. −
2

 0 2
2. The eigen values of the matrix   are
 − 2 0 5. The solution of the ordinary differential
equation
a. 2, 2 d2 y dy
(x + 2)2 − (x + 2 ) + y = 3x + 4
dx 2 dx
b. 2, –2 is
2
c. i, − i a. y = A ex + B e−x + log (x + 2) − 4
5
b. y = A (x + 2 ) + B e x +
d. 2i, − 2i
2
[log (x + 2)]2 − 2
5
c. y = A log (x + 2) + B (x + 2) +
2
3. The eigen values of the matrix corresponding log (x + 2) − 2
5
to the quadratic form 2x1 x 2 + 2x1 x 3 − 2x 2 x 3 d. y = [ A log (x + 2) + B ] (x + 2) +
3
are 1, 1, –2. Then, the canonical form of the [log (x + 2)]2 (x + 2) − 2
2
given quadratic form is

a. 2 y1 2 + y2 2 − y3 2
6. The complete integral of the partial

b. y1 2 + 2 y2 2 − y3 2
differential equation q = z p 2 2 2
(1 − p2 ) is
2
a. az = ( y + ax + c ) + 1
c. y1 2 + y2 2 − 2y3 2 b. a 2 z 2 = ax + y + c
2
c. a 2 − z 2 = ( y + ax + c )
d. y1 2 + y2 2 + 2y3 2 d.
2
a 2 z 2 = ( y + ax + c ) + 1
7. The value of the integral 10. The curve u (x , y ) = C and v(x , y ) = C ′ are
orthogonal if
 [(2x − y) dx − yz dy − y z dz ] , where C is
2 2

C
a. u + iv is an analytic function
2 2
the circle x + y = 1 , corresponding to the
b. u − iv is an analytic function
surface of the sphere of unit radius, is
c. u − v is an analytic function
π
a.
2 d. u + v is an analytic function

b. π


c.
2 11. The function f (z ) = z 2 is

d. 2π
a. everywhere analytic

→ b. nowhere analytic
8. The value of  F ⋅ nˆ dS , where
S c. analytic only at z = 0

( )
→ → → →
F = (2x + 3z ) i − (xz + y ) j + y 2 + 2z k and S is d. analytic except at z = 0
the surface of the sphere x 2 + y 2 + z 2 = 9
with volume V, is

a. V z − sin z
12. The singularity of the function is,
z2
b. 2V
a. z = −2
c. 3V
b. z =2
d. 4V
c. z =0

d. z =4
9. The volume of the solid bounded by planes
x = 0 , y = 0 , x + y + z = a and z = 0 is
given by
13. The inverse Z-transform of
a3 1
a. X (z ) = −1
, given the region
6 1 − 1 .5 z + 0 . 5z − 2
of convergence as z > 1 is
5a 2
b.
8
a. {1, 3/2, 7/4, 15/8, 31/16, ….}
a3
c. b. {1, 2/3, 4/7, 8/15, 16/31, ….}
8
c. {1/2, 3/4, 7/8, 15/16, 31/32, ….}
5a 2
d.
6 d. {0.25, 0.75, 0.125, 1.5, 0.0525, ….}

NG 23 (GROUP A) 2
14. The inverse Laplace transform of 17. The nature of the nth divided differences of a
polynomial of nth degree is
(s + 2)
is
s (s + 3) (s + 4 ) a. of degree n

b. constant
1 1 1
a. + e − 3t + e − 4 t
6 3 2 c. of degree n + 1

1 1 − 3t 1 − 4t d. of degree n − 1
b. − e + e
6 3 2

c. 1 − 3 e −3t + 2e −4t
1
18. The error in Simpson’s rule is of order
1 1 1 3
d. + e − 3t − e − 4 t
6 3 2
a. O (h 3 )

b. O (h 4 )

15. Which of the following functions is c. O (h 2 )


self-reciprocal with respect to Fourier cosine
d. O (h )
transform?

x2

a. e 2

19. Let X be a random variable such that


b.
1 E ( X ) = 2 and E (X 2 ) = 7 , then Var ( X ) is
x
a. 5
2
c. cos x b. 4
π
c. 3
2
d. sin x d. 2
π

20. If the moment generating function of a


16. Which of the following methods is iterative 2
random variable X is given by M X (t ) = ,
for solving a system of linear algebraic 2−t
equations? then the value of E ( X ) is

a. Gauss-Jordan method a. 1

b. 2
b. Gauss elimination method
c. 1/2
c. Fixed point iteration method
d. 1/3
d. Gauss-Jacobi method

————————–––

3 NG 23 (GROUP A)
PART II — BASIC ENGINEERING AND SCIENCES

(Common to all candidates)


(All correct answers upto a maximum number of 20 will be given credit, but all wrong answers will be taken
into account for negative marking)

21. Which of the following deals with thermal 26. A given application runs for 15 seconds on a
equilibrium and provides a means for desk top processor. When the compiler used
measuring temperatures? for the application is optimized, it requires
a. Zeroth law only 0.6 as many instructions as the old
b. First law compiler, but the CPI increases by 1.1. How
c. Second law much time will the application take to run
d. Third law with the new compiler?

a. 9.9 seconds
22. An ideal fluid is
b. 8.2 seconds
a. a real fluid
b. viscous c. 25.5 seconds

c. compressive and gaseous d. 0.044 seconds


d. incompressible and frictionless
27. Which of the following statements is false?
23. bh 3 / 6 is the moment of inertia of a. SRAM is very fast
a. Rectangle of width b and height h b. SRAM is used for cache
about the axis through its centroid
c. values stored in DRAM exist
b. Rectangle of width b and height h
indefinitely as long as there is power
about the axis through its base
d. DRAM is used in main memory
c. Isosceles triangle of width b and height h
about the axis through its centroid
28. When does the Array Index Out Of Bounds
d. Isosceles triangle of width b and height h
about the axis through its base Exception occur in JAVA?

a. Compile-time
24. Biological oxygen demand (BOD) primarily
b. Run-time
measures
c. When an array is declared
a. Types of microbes
b. Level of dissolved oxygen d. When an array is printed

c. Quantity of organic matter


29. What does the following declaration mean?
d. Quantity of dissolved impurities
int (*ptr)[10];
25. A DC series motor should not be run at no a. ptr is array of pointers to 10 integers
load, because it will
b. ptr is a pointer to an array of
a. draw excess current
10 integers
b. not start and damage the motor
c. ptr is an array of 10 integers
c. run at a dangerously high speed
d. ptr is an pointer to array
d. not develop starting torque

NG 23 (GROUP A) 4
30. Predict the output of the code 33. A frictionless piston-cylinder device contains
void m(); a gas initially at 0.8 MPa and 0.015 m3. It
expands quasi-statically at constant
void n() temperature to a final volume of 0.030 m3.
{ The work output (in kJ/kg) during this
process will be
m();
a. 8.32
}
b. 12
void main()
c. 554.67
{ d. 8320
void m()
{ 34. Thermodynamic work is the product of
printf("Welcome"); a. Two intensive properties
} b. Two extensive properties
c. An intensive property and change in an
}
extensive property
a. Welcome
d. An extensive property and change in an
b. Compile time error intensive property
c. Nothing
35. In the temperature-entropy diagram of a
d. Varies
vapour shown in the given figure, the
thermodynamic process shown by the dotted
31. An Ideal heat engine operates between two line AB represents
temperatures 600 K and 900 K. What is the
efficiency of the engine?
a. 50%
b. 80%
c. 10%
d. 33%

32. List – I List – II


a. Hyperbolic expansion
(A) Heat to work 1. Nozzle
b. Free expansion
(B) Heat to Lift 2. Endothermic c. Constant volume expansion
Weight chemical reaction
d. Polytropic expansion
(C) Heat to strain 3. Heat engine
energy 36. The specific conductance of the electrolyte
(D) Heat to 4. Hot air ————— on dilution.
electromagnetic balloon/evaporation a. Increases
energy b. Decreases
5. Thermal radiation c. Slightly increases
6. Bimetallic strips d. Cannot be determined

Codes :
37. The process of decomposition of an electrolyte
(A) (B) (C) (D) by passing electric current through its
a. 3 4 6 5 solution is called as
b. 3 4 5 6 a. Electrolyte
b. Electrode
c. 3 6 4 2
c. Electrolysis
d. 1 2 3 4
d. Electrochemical cell

5 NG 23 (GROUP A)
38. The correct order of different types of 44. Two coils, connected in parallel across 100 V
energies is DC supply mains, takes 10 A from mains.
a. Eel >> Evib >> Erot >> Etr The power dissipated in one coil is 600 W.
b. Eel >> Erot >> Evib >> Etr The resistance of each coil is:
c. Eel >> Evib >> Etr >> Erot a. R1 = 16.67 Ω and R2 = 25 Ω
d. Etr >> Evib >> Erot >> Eel b. R1 = 14.62 Ω and R2 = 10 Ω
c. R1 = 5.67 Ω and R2 = 9 Ω
39. The cuprous chloride used in Orsat apparatus
can absorb d. R1 = 7 Ω and R2 = 3 Ω

a. Only carbon monoxide


b. Both carbon monoxide and carbon
dioxide 45. In electrostatic instrument for the linear
c. Both carbon monoxide and oxygen motion, the force between plates is given by
d. All carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide 1 2 2
a. F = V C
and oxygen 2
1 2 2
40. Incomplete combustion of a fuel is b. F = mC
2
characterised by the high ————— in the
flue gas 1 2 dc
c. F = V
2 dx
a. Smoke
b. Temperature d. F = V 2C 2

c. Oxygen
d. Carbon monoxide
46. You have probably noticed that during a
41. The rating of an electric lamp is 220 V and thunderstorm you see a lightning flash some
100 W. If it is operated at 110 V, the power time before you hear the thunder. That is
consumed by it will be:
because
a. 50 W
a. the thunder is generated only after the
b. 75 W lightning has stopped
c. 90 W b. lightning and thunder are unrelated
d. 25 W events
c. light travels a lot faster than sound
42. An Ideal current source should have
d. sound travels a lot faster than light
a. Zero internal resistance
b. Infinite internal resistance
c. Large value of EMF
d. None of the above 47. In Young’s double slit experiment, if one of
the slits is covered with the blue and another
43. A pony motor is basically a one with red transparent papers,

a. DC series motor a. fringe width changes


b. DC shunt motor b. interference pattern is not observed
c. Double – winding AC/DC motor c. multicolour fringes are observed
d. Small Induction motor d. circular fringes are formed

NG 23 (GROUP A) 6
48. According to Plancks Quantum theory, the 52. In Ferri magnetic materials in dual dipoles
second energy level of a one second simple are

pendulum is a. parallel to each other with unequal


moments
a. 6.625 × 10–34 J
b. antiparallel to each other with unequal
b. 3.312 × 10 –34
J moments
c. antiparallel to each other with equal
c. 13.25 × 10–34 J
moments
–34
d. 16.562 × 10 J d. parallel to each other with equal
moments

49. The principle behind fibre optic


53. An electric bulb rated 200 V and 100 W is
communication is connected a 160 V power supply. What power
a. partial reflection will be consumed by the bulb?
a. 64 W
b. partial refraction
b. 80 W
c. total internal refraction
c. 100 W
d. total internal reflection d. 160 W

50. In which one of the following it is not possible 54. Donar levels in an extrinsic n type semi
conductors lie just
to achieve laser action?
a. above the conduction band
a. two level system
b. below the conduction band
b. multi level system c. above the valence band
c. four level system d. below the valence band

d. seven level system

55. Which one of the following is false about


super conductors?
51. Dielectric loss is the phenomenon in which a. super conductors have no resistance
the electrical energy is converted into b. electric current can destroy super
conductivity
a. dipole energy
c. superconductors are diamagnetic
b. light radiation
d. superconductors allow magnetic field to
c. liquid plasma pass through only below the critical
temperature
d. heat

——————————

7 NG 23 (GROUP A)
PART III

03 – ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING

(Answer ALL questions)

56. If A, B and C are three vectors, then 61. A capacitor of 8µf capacitance is connected to
a. A × ( B × C ) = B ⋅ (C × A ) a DC source through a resistance of 1M Ω
b. A ×(B × C ) = C ⋅ (B ⋅ A)
c. A × (B × C ) ≠ ( A × B) × C
d. A × (B × C ) = ( A × B) × C

57. An electron and a proton separated by a


distance of 10–11 meters are arranged
Calculate the time taken by the capacitor to
symmetrically along the ‘Z’ axis with the Z=0,
charge fully
as its bisecting plane. The E field at P(3,4,12)
a. 40 seconds
is
b. 20 seconds
a. 4.69ax + 4.0a y + 10.2 az ) × 10 −24 v/m c. 6 seconds
b. 4.189a x + 5.58a y− + 10.2 az− ) × 10 −24 v/m d. 8 seconds

c. 2 .29 a x + 5 .5a y − 8 .2a z × 10 −12 v / m


62. Lagging power factor load
d. 1.98ax + 6.5a y + 9.2az ) × 10 −24
v/m a. Draws reactive power from supply, load
current lags the voltage
b. Supplies reactive power from supply,
58. The equation for a Equipotential surface in a load current lags the voltage
dipole is
c. Draws reactive power from supply,
cos θ load current leads the voltage
a. = constant
r2 d. Supplies reactive power from supply,
sin θ load current leads the voltage
b. = constant
r2
63. Stepper motors are widely used because of
cos θ
c. = constant a. Wide speed range
2r b. Large rating
2 cos θ c. No need for field control
d. = constant
r3 d. Compatibility with digital systems

59. The displacement current density Jd is 64. Motor which can produce uniform torque
a. Jd = D from standstill to synchronous speed is
a. Universal motor
∂D b. Stepper motor
b. Jd =
∂t c. Reluctance motor
c. Jd = ∇ × H d. Hysteresis motor

d. 
J d = H ⋅ dl
65. If the applied voltage across a three phase
induction motor is reduced to ‘x’ times, the
60. When σ ≈ α , ∈=∈0 , μ = μ r μ 0 or σ >>> ωε starting current and starting torque will be
reduced to ————— and ————— times
then it is a
respectively.
a. Free space a. x, x
b. Lossless dielectric b. x, x2
c. Lossy dielectric c. x2, x
d. Good dielectric d. x2, x2

NG 23 (GROUP A) 20
66. Skew of rotor bar eliminates 73. What is the type of fault for a boundary
a. The effect of harmonics condition of a fault on phase 'a' of a power
b. The effect of crawling system are Ib = –Ic, Ia = 0, and Vb – Vc = 0?
c. Magnetic noise a. Single line to ground fault
d. Vibration due to unequal force b. Line to line fault
developed on rotor c. Double line to ground fault
d. Three phase fault
67. A salient pole synchronous generator
connected to an infinite bus will deliver 74. The abnormal voltage due to arching grounds
maximum power at a power angle of is reduced by
a. 0 degree a. Ground wire
b. 90 degree b. Capacitor
c. 45 degree c. Arching horns
d. 75 degree d. Peterson coil

68. Synchronous motor will behave like a resistor 75. A Reactance relay is
while operating with a. Voltage restrained directional relay
a. rated field current b. Directional restrained over-current
b. 1.5 times the rated field current relay
c. 2 times the rated field current c. Voltage restrained over-current relay
d. 0.5 times the rated field current d. Current restrained voltage relay

69. Which of the following connection of 76. A transmission line can generate VARs
transformer will give the highest secondary a. When loading is less than Surge
voltage? Impedance loading
a. Delta primary, Delta secondary b. When loading is equal to Surge
b. Delta primary, Star secondary Impedance loading
c. Star primary, Star secondary c. When loading is more than Surge
Impedance loading
d. Star primary, Delta secondary
d. When Synchronous condenser is
70. The purpose of Moderator in a Nuclear Power employed
plant is to
77. For a Series RLC circuit, R = 10 Ω ; L = 1mH;
a. Control the flow of water inlet
C = 10μF, unit step input given to the circuit.
b. Control the amount of nuclear fuel into The overshoot in the output would be
the reactor a. 0%
c. Control the steam flow to the turbine b. 16%
d. Control the nuclear fusion or fusion
c. 48%
rate by slowing down the neutrons
d. 56%
71. Which type of insulator is used on 132kV
78. For a type 1 second order system if the input
transmission line?
is given as unit ramp then what would be the
a. Pin type steady state error?
b. Disc type a. e ss = 1 / 1 + K p
c. Shackle type
d. Pin and Shackle type b. e ss = 1 / K v
c. ess = 1 / K a
72. The transmission line reactance is 100 ohms
and base MVA is 90 MVA and the base kV is d. e ss = 0
145.2 kV. The per unit value of the line is
a. 0.575 pu 79. For the limitedly stable continuous system,
poles must
b. 0.265 pu
a. lie on the right half plane
c. 0.427 pu
b. lie on the left half plane
d. 0.726 pu
c. be on the imaginary axis
d. be at infinity

21 NG 23 (GROUP A)
80. The Gain Margin for a marginally stable 84. The VI characteristics of ideal diode is
system would be
a. infinity
b. zero
c. positive a.
d. negative

81. The compensator Gc(s) = 5(1+0.3s)/1+0.1s is a


a. Lead compensation
b. Lag compensation b.
c. Lead - lag compensation
d. PI compensation

82. Loop transfer function of a feedback system is


k c.
G ( s) H ( s) = . The root locus
s ( s + 1) ( s + 2)
branch crosses the imaginary axis at
a. ±j 2

b. ±j 3 d.

c. ±j 5

d. ±j 7
85. A buck converter with Vin = 25V,
83. A system is described by the following state fs = 50kHz and the power delivered to the
and output equations load is 25W. The value of D for an average
dx1 (t ) output current of 2A is
= −3x1 (t ) + x 2 (t ) + 2u (t )
dt
a. 0.4
dx 2 (t )
= −2x 2 (t ) + u (t )
dt b. 0.5

Y (t ) = x1 (t ) when u (t ) is the input and c. 0.2

y (t ) is the output. The state-transition d. 0.3


matrix of the above system is
 e −3t 0 
a.   86. A single phase full wave uncontrolled bridge
 3 −3t + e −2t e −2t 
 rectifier has a purely resistive load of R. The
 e −3t −e −3t
+e −2t
 average output voltage for source voltage of
b.  
 0 e − 2t 
  Vs = 220 sinωt is
e −3t
e −3t
+e −2t
 a. 70V
c.  
 0 e −2t 
  b. 140 V
e 3t
−e −3t
+e −2t

d.   c. 99 V
0 e − 2t 
 
d. 220 V

NG 23 (GROUP A) 22
87. In the given circuit diagram, V01, V02 are the 89. The conduction angle of the thyristor in the
given circuit diagram if triggered
outputs of inverter 1 and inverter 2. The load
continuously for Vs = 100 sin ωt and E = 50V
voltage waveform Vo is is

a. 150°
b. 120°
c. 180°
d. 100°

90. In a three phase inverter, harmonics existing


in the line voltages are
a. triplen harmonics
b. Non - triplen harmonics
c. Harmonics are absent
a. d. Fifth order harmonics and third order
harmonics
91. What can you comment about the data bus
widths of microprocessors: 8085 and 8086?
a. Both of these microprocessors have
b. 8-bit data bus only
b. Both of these microprocessors have
16-bit data bus only
c. Whereas 8086 has a 8-bit long data
bus, 8085 has 16-bit long data bus.
d. Whereas the data bus width of
c.
microprocessor 8085 is of 8-bit size,
that of 8086 is of 16-bit size.
92. What can you comment about the time taken
for the machine cycles of the microprocessor
8085?
a. Whereas ‘opcode fetch’ machine cycle
d.
takes 4 or 5 T-states, the ‘ memory
read’ machine cycle always takes
4 T-states only.
b. Whereas ‘opcode fetch’ machine cycle
88. A full converter fed separately excited DC takes 4 or 6 T-states, the ‘memory read’
machine cycle always takes 3 T-states
motor with field current remaining constant, only.
is c. Both ‘opcode fetch’ machine cycle and
‘memory read’ machine cycle uniformly
a. Constant torque drive take 5 T-states only.
b. Constant kW drive d. Both ‘opcode fetch’ machine cycle and
c. Constant speed drive ‘memory read’ machine cycle uniformly
d. Variable load speed drive take 4 T-states only.

23 NG 23 (GROUP A)
93. The highest priority interrupt of 99. Which one of the following is the appropriate
microprocessor 8085, which is also expression corresponding to x (n) * δ (n − k ) =
non-maskable, is a. x (n)
a. RST 6.5
b. x (k )
b. TRAP
c. x ( k) * δ (n − k )
c. INTR
d. x( k) * δ (k)
d. INTA
100. What is the inverse z-transform of
94. The instruction at the physical location X ( z ) = 1 /(1 − 1.5z −1 + 0.5z −2 ) if ROC is
21234h is to be pointed by the instruction
0. 5 < z < 1 ?
pointer register. Assuming the contents of the
code segment register to be 2111h, the a. − 2u( −n − 1) + (0.5)n u(n )
contents of the instruction pointer is
b. − 2u( −n − 1) − (0.5)n u(n )
a. 0123h
b. 0124h c. − 2u( −n − 1) + (0.5)n u( −n − 1)
c. 1234h d. 2u(n ) + (0.5)n u( −n − 1)
d. 0234h
101. Which of the following parameters are
required to calculate the correlation between
95. When a ‘PUSH’ instruction is executed by the the signals x (n ) and y(n) ?
microprocessor 8085, what happens to the
contents of the stack pointer? a. Time delay
b. Attenuation factor
a. incremented by two
c. Noise signal
b. incremented by one
d. All of the above
c. decremented by two
d. decremented by three 102. What is the value of the coefficient α 2(1) in
the case of FIR filter represented in direct
96. The 8051 instruction required to switch to form structure with m = 2 in terms of K1 and
bank 2 from the default bank is, K2?
a. SETB 0D4h a. K1 K 2
b. SETB 0D3h b. K1 (1 − K 2 )
c. CLR 0D4h c. K1 (1 + K 2 )
d. CLR 0D3h
d. K1 / K 2

97. Find the Nyquist rate and Nyquist interval 103. Paschen’s law states that
for the signal f (t ) = sin(500πt ) . a. breakdown voltage is a function of pd
a. 500 Hz, 2 sec b. breakdown voltage is a function of
b. 500 Hz, 2 msec electric field
c. 2 Hz, 500 sec c. electronegative gases have high
d. 2 Hz, 500 msec breakdown strength
α and γ depends on E/p
d.
98. Zero-state response of the system is response
of the system 104. The reflection coefficient for a travelling
voltage wave at a junction of two impedances
a. when initial state of the system is zero
Z1 and Z 2 is
b. due to input alone
a. ( Z1 + Z 2 ) /( Z1 − Z 2 )
c. due to input alone when initial state of
the system is zero b. ( Z 2 − Z1 ) /( Z 2 + Z1 )
d. due to input alone when initial state is c. 2Z1 /( Z1 + Z 2 )
neglected
d. 2Z2 /( Z1 + Z2 )

NG 23 (GROUP A) 24
105. For a 1 cm gap in air at 760 mm pressure and 110. Which of the following motor is preferred for
20°C temperature, the breakdown voltage is electric traction?
a. 41kV a. DC Shunt motor
b. 39.7kV b. DC Series motor
c. 22.92kV c. Synchronous motor
d. Universal motor
d. 30.3kV

111. A solid angle is expressed in terms of


106. Voltage stabilizers used for regulating high
a. Radians / metre
dc voltages are
b. Radians
a. series type c. Steradians
b. shunt type d. Degrees
c. both series and shunt type
112. The efficiency of high pressure mercury
d. shunt or series or degenerative
vapour lamp is
a. 30-40 watts/lumen
107. Indirect strokes near overhead transmission
b. 30-40 lumens/watt
lines induce over voltage’s due to
c. 40-50 watts/lumen
a. electrostatic induction d. 40-50 lumens/watt
b. both electrostatic and electromagnetic
induction 113. A slab of insulating material 130 cm2 in area
and 1 cm thick is to be heated by dielectric
c. only electromagnetic induction
heating. The power required is 400 W at
d. conduction currents through line 30 MHz. The material has a relative
conductors permittivity of 5 and power factor of 0.05.
Determine the necessary voltage
108. An impulse voltage generator has a generator a. 960 V
capacitance of 0.01 μF , load capacitance of b. 960 kV
c. 859 V
1 nF, front resistance of R1 = 110 Ω and tail
d. 859 kV
resistance of R2 = 400 Ω. The tail time is
a. 60 µs 114. In atomic hydrogen welding, the electrode is
b. 40 µs made of
c. 28 µs a. Carbon
d. 2 µs b. Graphite
c. Tungsten
109. For an RC divider to be compensated, the d. Mild steel

condition is
115. The efficiency of solar cell panel is
a. R1C1 = R2C2
a. 90-95%
b. R1C2 = R2C1 b. 85-95%
c. 45-50%
c. R1C1 = R2C1
d. 20-25%
d. ( R1 + R2 )(C1 + C2 ) < 1μ sec

——————

25 NG 23 (GROUP A)

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