1. What is the acronym ICAO means?

a. International of civil aviation organization

b. International of civil aircraft organization
c. International of civil air organization

2. The annex to the ICAO cenvention provides spesification to ensure a level of safety above a
prescribe in similar aircraft operations throughout the world is
A. Annex 6
B. Annex 7
C. Annex8

3. The annex to the ICAO convention specifies requirement for registration and identification of
aircraft is
A. Annex 6
B. Annex 7
C. Annex 8

4. The licence category issued under CASR 65 is

A. Category A (airframe) and E (engine)
B. Category A (Airframe & Engine) and C (Avionic)
C. Category A (Airframe) and E (Engine)

5. The category A are subdivided into subcategories relative to combination of basic certificate
category. The licence A1.4 means
A. Airframe, Airplane, and piston Engine
B. Airframe, Helicopter and Piston Engine
C. Airframe, Airplane and Turbine Engine

6. The validity of certificate of maintencance approval (COMA) is

A. Remain valid unlless it is revoked, Suspended or canceled
B. Not exceed 2 years, unless it is revoked, suspended, or canceled
C. Not exceed 3 years, unless it is revoked, suspended, or canceled

7. The duration of AMO certificate located in the Republic of Indonesia is

A. 24 month
B. 12 month
C. Still valid until is suspended or revoked

8. The duration of AMO certificate located outside the Republic Of Indonesia is

A. 24 month
B. 12 month
C. Still valid until is suspended or revoked
9. Part manufaceture in complete compliace with estabilhed Indonesia or industry spesification
which include design, manufacturing, and uniform identification requirement is
A. PMA part
B. TSO part
C. Standard part

10. Part of which a mandatory replacement limit is specified in the type design, the instruction of
continuing airworthiness, or rhe maintenance manual is
A. Time limited part
B. Replacement part
C. Newly overhauled part

11. What is the speed ration or and input gear with 36 teeth meshed to a gear with 20 teeth
A. 1:5
B. 1:0,56
C. 1:8

12. If an engine turning 1.965 rpm at 65 percent power, what is its maximum rpm
A. 2653
B. 3023
C. 3242

13. Solve the equation {(4x-3)+(-9x2)}:2=

A. -30
B. -15
C. -5

14. The speed of sound in the atmosphere

A. a varies according to the frequency of the sound
B. changes with a change in temperature
C. change with a change in pressure

15. in physics, which or the following factors are neccesary to determine power
1. force exerted
2. distance moved
3. time required
A. 1 & 2
B. 2 & 3
C. 1, 2 & 3
16. Which statement concerning heat and/or temperature is true
A. There is an inverse relationship between temperature and heat
B. Temperature is a measure of the kinetic energy of the molecules of any substance
C. Temperature is a measure of the potensial energy of the molecules of any substance

17. What is absolute hummidty

A. The temperature to which humid air must be cooled at constant pressure to become
saturated
B. The actual amount of the water vapor in a mixture of air & water
C. The ratio of water vapor avtually present in the atmosphere to the amount that would be
present if the air were saturated at the orevailing temperature & pressure

18. Which statement is true regarding an orthographic projection

A. There are always at least two views
B. It could have as many as eight views
C. One view, two view and three view drawing are the most common

19. Which statement is applicable when using a sketch for making a part
A. The skcetch may be used only if supplemental with three wies orthographic projection
drawings
B. The sketch must show all information to manufacture the part
C. The sketch need not show all necessary construction details

20. which material section line symbol indicates cast iron

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3

21. The useful load of an aircraft consist of

A. Crew , usebale fuel, passenger & cargo
B. Crew, usable fule & fixed equipment
C. Crew, passengers, usable fuel, oil, cargo & fixed equipment
22. Use of which of the following generally yields the highest degree of A/C leveling accurancy
A. Plumbob & chalk line
B. Sprint level (S)
C. Electronic load cell (S)

23. What nondestructive testing methode requires little or no part preparation, is used to detect
surface or near surface to separete metals or alloys and their heat treat conditions
A. Eddy current inspection
B. Ultrasonic inspection
C. Magnetic particle inspection

24. What methode magnetic particle inspection is used most often to inspect A/C part for invisible
crack and other defect
A. Residual
B. Inductance
C. Continuous

25. Select the solvent recommended for wipedown of cleaned surfaces just before painting
A. Alphatic naptha
B. Dry cleaning solvent
C. Aromatic naptha

26. Nickel cadmium battery cases &drain surfaces which have been affected by with a solution of
A. Boric Acid
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Pottasium hydroxide

27. Moustyre, mildew, chemical & acid have no effect on

A. Glass fabric
B. Linen fabric
C. Dacron fabric

28. Fungicide & mildewcide addictive are important for fabric covered A/C such as
A. Corron and dacron
B. Cotton and linen
C. Glass and linen

29. Allumunium-pigment in dioe is used primarilly to

A. Periode a silver color
B. Aid in sealing out mousture from the fabric
C. Reflect ultraviolet from the fabric
30. A correct use for acetone is to
A. Thin zinx chromate orimer
B. Remove grease from fabric
C. Thin dope

31. A company of plastic material that is capable of softening or flowing when reheated is described
as a
A. Themocouple
B. Thermoture
C. Thermostat

32. The classificarion for high tehnsile strength fiberglass used in A/C structure is
A. E-glass
B. S-glass
C. G-glass

33. Which is an identifying characteristic of acrylic plastica

A. Zinx chloridawill have no effect
B. Acrylic has a yellow with tint when viewed from the edge
C. Accetone will not soften plastic, but woll change the color

34. Why is it neccesary to use flux on a silver soldering operations

A. To chemically ckeas the base metal of oxide film
B. To prevent overheating of the base metal
C. To increase heat conductivity

35. Engine mount members should preferably to repair by using a

A. Large diameter tube with fish mouth and no rosette welds
B. Large diameter tube with fish mouth and rosette welds
C. Smaller diameter tube with fishmouth and rosette welds

36. What is the profile of a turbine engine compressor blade

A. The keading edge of the blade
B. A reduced balde tip thickness
C. The curvature of the blade root

37. The fan rotational speed of a dual axial compressor forward fan engine in the same the
A. Low pressure compressor
B. Forward turbine wheel
C. High pressure compressor
38. The abbeviation Pt7 used in turbine terminology means
A. the total inlet pressure
B. pressure & temperature at station no 7
C. The total pressure at station no 7

39. The blending of blade a vanes in a turbine engine

A. Is usually accomplished only at engine overhaul
B. Shiuld be performed parallel to the length of the blade using smooth contours to minimuze
stress point
C. May sometimes be a accomplished with the engine installed, ordinarily suing power tools

40. What turbine engine section provides for proper mixing of the fuel and air
A. Combustion section
B. Compressor section
C. Diffuser section

41. In a gas turbine engine combustion occurs at a constan

A. Volume
B. Pressure
C. Density

42. Which statement is true regarding jet engine

A. At lower engine speeds, thrust increase rapidly with small increase in Rpm
B. At higher engine speeds, thrust increase rapidly with small increase in Rpm
C. The thrust delivered oer ound of air consumed is less at high altitude than at low altitude

43. Some high-volume turboprop and turbojet engines are equipped with two-spool or split
compressors. When these engines are operated at high altitudes, the
A. low-pressure rotor will increase in speed as the compressor load decreases in the lower
density air.
B. throttle must be retarded to prevent overspeeding of the high-pressure rotor due to the
lower density air.
C. low-pressure rotor will decrease in speed as the compressor load decreases in the lower
density air

44. Turbine nozzle diaphragms located on the upstream side of each turbine wheel are used in the
gas turbine engine to
A. decrease the velocity of the heated gases flowing past this point.
B. direct the flow of gases parallel to the vertical line of the turbine blades.
C. increase the velocity of the heated gases flowing past this point
45. Where is the highest gas pressure in a turbojet engine?
A. At the outlet of the tailpipe section.
B. At the entrance of the turbine section.
C. In the entrance of the burner section.

46. An exhaust cone placed aft of the turbine in a jet engine will cause the pressure in the first part
of the exhaust duct to
A. increase and the velocity to decrease.
B. increase and the velocity to increase.
C. decrease and the velocity to increase

47. What is the function of the stator vane assembly at the discharge end of a typical axial-flow
compressor?
A-To straighten airflow to eliminate turbulence.
B-To direct the flow of gases into the combustion chambers.
C-To increase air swirling motion into the combustion chambers.

48. The turbine section of a jet engine

A. Increases air velocity to generate thrust forces.
B. utilizes heat energy to expand and accelerate the incoming gas flow.
C. drives the compressor section

49. When starting a turbine engine,

A. a hot start is indicated if the exhaust gas temperature exceeds specified limits.
B. an excessively lean mixture is likely to cause a hot start.
C. release the starter switch as soon as indication of light-off occurs.

50. In the dual axial-flow or twin spool compressor system, the first stage turbine drives the
A-N 1 and N2 compressors.
B-N2 compressor.
C-N1 compressor.
51. During inspection, turbine engine components exposed to high temperatures may only be
marked with such materials as allowed by the manufacturer. These materials generally include
1.layout dye.
2. commercial felt tip marker.
3. wax or grease pencil.
4. chalk.
5. graphite lead pencil
A- l,2,and4.
B- 1, 3, and4.
C-2,4, and 5

52. When starting a turbine engine, a hung start is indicated if the engine
A-exhaust gas temperature exceeds specified limits.
B-fails to reach idle RPM.
C-RPM exceeds specified operating speed.

53. What are the two basic elements of the turbine section in a turbine engine?
A-Impeller and diffuser.
B-Hot and cold.
C-Stator and rotor.

54. The function of the exhaust cone assembly of a turbine engine is to

A-collect the exhaust gases and act as a noise suppressor.
B-swirl and collect the exhaust gases into a single exhaust jet.
C-straighten and collect the exhaust gases into a solid exhaust jet.

55. What are the two functional elements in a centrifugal compressor?

A-Turbine and compressor.
B-Bucket and expander.
C-Impeller and diffuser.

56. What must be done after the fuel control unit has been replaced on an aircraft gas turbine
engine?
A-Perform a full power engine run to check fuel flow.
B-Recalibrate the fuel nozzles.
C-Retrim the engine.
57. If, during inspection at engine overhaul, ball or roller bearings are found to have magnetism but
otherwise have no defects, they
A-cannot be used again.
B-are in an acceptable service condition.
C-must be degaussed before use
58. A turbine engine compressor which contains vanes on both sides of the impeller is a
A-double entry centrifugal compressor.
B-double entry axial-flow compressor.
C-single entry axial-flow compressor.

59. What is the first engine instrument indication of a successful start of a turbine engine?
A-A rise in the engine fuel flow.
B-A rise in oil pressure.
C-A rise in the exhaust gas temperature.

60. Some engine manufacturers of twin spool gas turbine engines identify turbine discharge
pressure in their maintenance manuals as
A. Pt7
B. Pt2
C. Tt7

61. Which of the following is the ultimate limiting factor of turbine engine operation?
A-Compressor inlet air temperature.
B-Turbine inlet temperature.
C-Burner-can pressure.

62. The basic gas turbine engine is divided into two main sections: the cold section and the hot
section.
(1) The cold section includes the engine inlet, compressor, and turbine sections.
(2) The hot section includes the combustor, diffuser, and exhaust sections.
Regarding the above statements,
A-only No. 1 is true.
B-only No. 2 is true.
C-neither No.1nor No. 2 is true

63. ( 1 ) Welding and straightening of turbine engine rotating airfoils does not require special
equipment.
(2)Welding and straightening of turbine engine rotating airfoils is commonly recommended by
the manufacturer. Regarding the above statements,
 A-only No. 1 is true.
B-only No. 2 is true.
C-neither No. 1nor No. 2 is true.

64. Turbine engine components exposed to high temperatures generally may NOT be marked with
1. layout dye.
2. commercial felt tip marker.
3. wax or grease pencil.
4. chalk.
5. graphite lead pencil.
A- l,2,and3.
B-3 and5.
C -4 and 5

65. Turbine blades are generally more susceptible to operating damage than compressor blades
because of
A-higher centrifugal loading.
B-exposure to high temperatures.
C-high pressure and high velocity gas flow

66. Main bearing oil seals used with turbine engines are usually what type(s)?
A-Labyrinth and/or carbon rubbing.
B-Teflon and synthetic rubber.
C-Labyrinth and/or silicone rubber

67. How does a dual axial-flow compressor improve the efficiency of a turbojet engine?
A-More turbine wheels can be used.
B-Higher compression ratios can be obtained.
C-The velocity of the air entering the combustion chamber is increased.

68. Three types of turbine blades are

A-reaction, converging, and diverging.
B-impulse, reaction, and impulse-reaction.
C-impulse, vector, and impulse-vector.
69. Which statements are true regarding aircraft engine propulsion?
1 . An engine driven propeller imparts a relatively small amount of acceleration to a large mass
of air.
2. Turbojet and turbofan engines impart a relatively large amount of acceleration to a smaller
mass of air.
3. In modern turboprop engines, nearly 50 percent of the exhaust gas energy is extracted by
turbines to drive the propeller and compressor with the rest providing exhaust thrust.
A. 1,2, & 3
B. 1,2
C. 1,3

70. An advantage of the axial-flow compressor is its

A-low starting power requirements.
B-low weight.
C-high peak efficience

71. What is one purpose of the stator blades in the compressor section of a turbine engine
A-Stabilize the pressure of the airflow.
B-Control the direction of the airflow
C-Increase the velocity of the airflow

72. What is the purpose of the diffuser section in a turbine engine?

A-To increase pressure and reduce velocity.
B-To convert pressure to velocity.
C-To reduce pressure and increase velocity

73. Where do stress rupture cracks usually appear on turbine blades?

A-Across the blade root, parallel to the fir tree.
B-Along the leading edge, parallel to the edge.
C-Across the leading or trailing edge at a right angle to the edge length.
74. In which type of turbine engine combustion chamber is the case and liner removed and installed
as one unit during routine maintenance?
A-Can.
B-Can annular.
C-Annular

75. The diffuser section of a jet engine is located between

A-the burner section and the turbine section.
B-station No.7 and station No.8.
C-the compressor section and the burner section
76. How is anti-icing fluid ejected from the slinger ring on a propeller?
A-By pump pressure.
B-By centripetal force.
C-By centrifugal force.

77. On most reciprocating multiengine aircraft, automatic propeller synchronization is accomplished

through the actuation of the
A-throttle levers.
B-propeller governors.
C-propeller control levers.

78. Propeller fluid anti-icing systems generally use which of the following?
A-Ethylene glycol.
B-Isopropyl alcohol.
C-Ethyl alcohol.

79. What is a function of the automatic propeller synchronizing system on multiengine aircraft?
A-To control the tip speed of all propellers.
B-To control engine RPM and reduce vibration.
C-To control the power output of all engines

80. Ice formation on propellers, when an aircraft is in flight, will

A-decrease thrust and cause excessive vibration.
B-increase aircraft stall speed and increase noise.
C-decrease available engine power.

81. What unit in the propeller anti-icing system controls the output of the pump?
A-Pressure relief valve.
 B-Rheostat.
C-Cycling timer.

82. Proper operation of electric deicing boots on individual propeller blades may best be determine
by
A-feeling the sequence of boot heati g and have an assistant obvserve the loadmeter
indications.
flow.
B-observing the ammeter or loadmeter for current
C-feeling the boots to see if they are heating.

83. A propeller synchrophasing system allows a pilot to reduce noise and vibration by
A-adjusting the phase angle between the propellers on an aircraft's engines.
B-adjusting the plane of rotation of all propellers.
C-setting the pitch angle of all propellers exactly the same

84. Which of the following determines oil and grease specifications for lubrication of propellers?
A-Airframe manufacturers.
B-Engine manufacturers.
C-Propeller manufacturers

85. Grease used in aircraft propellers reduces the frictional resistance of moving parts and is easily
molded into any form under pressure. This statement defines
A-antifriction and plasticity characteristics of grease.
B-antifriction and chemical stability of grease.
C-viscosity and melting point of grease

86. What factor i s not usedin the operation of an aircraft gas turbine engine fuel control unit?
A-Compressorinlet air temperature.
B-Mixture control position.
C-Power lever position.

87. I n order to stabilizecams, springs, and linkages within the fuel control, manufacturers generally
recommend that all final turbine engine trim adjustments be made in the
A-increasedirection.
 B-decreasedirection.
C-decrease direction after over-adjustment.

88. When trimming a turbine engine, the fuel control is adjusted to

A-produce as much power as the engine i s capable of producing.
B-set idle RPM and maximum speed or EPR.
C-allow the engine to produce maximum RPM without regard to power output

89. A supervisory electronic engine control (EEC) is a system that receives engine operating
information and
A-adjusts a standard hydromechanical fuel control unit to obtain the most effective engine
operation.
B-develops the commands to various actuators to control engine parameters.
C-controls engine operation according to ambient temperature, pressure, and humidity.

90. A full-authority electronic engine control (EEC) is a system that receives all the necessary data
for engine operation and
A-adjusts a standard hydromechanical fuel control unit to obtain the most effective engine
operation.
B-develops the commands to various actuators to control engine parameters.
C-controls engine operation according to ambient temperature, pressure, and humidity.

91. In a supervisory EEC system, any fault in the EEC that adversely affects engine operation
A-causes redundant or backup units to take over and continue normal operation.
B-usually degrades performance to the extent that continued operation can cause damage to
the engine.
C-causes an immediate reversion to control by the hydromechanical fuel control unit.

92. The active clearance control (ACC) portion of an EEC system aids turbine engine efficiency by
A-adjusting stator vane position according to operating conditions and power requirements.
B-ensuring turbine blade to engine case clearances are kept to a minimum by controlling case
temperatures.
C-automatically adjusting engine speed to maintain a desired EPR

93. What should be checkedlchanged to ensure the validity of a turbine engine performance check
if an alternate fuel is to be used?
A-Fuel specific gravity setting.
B-Maximum RPM adjustment.
C-EPR gauge calibration.
94. The generally acceptable way to obtain accurate onsite temperature prior to performing engine
trimming is to
A-call the control tower to obtain field temperature.
B-observe the reading on the aircraft Outside Air Temperature (OAT) gauge.
C-hang a thermometer in the shade of the nose wheel-well until the temperature reading
stabilizes.

95. An aircraft should be facing into the wind when trimming an engine. However, if the velocity of
the wind blowing into the intake is excessive, it is likely to cause a
A-false low exhaust gas temperature reading.
B-trim setting resulting in engine overspeed.
C-false high compression and turbine discharge pressure, and a subsequent low trim

96. A form memiry which to be unlimited is called

A. Ultra short term memory
B. Short term memory
C. Long term memory
97. Human memory is fallible, it means that
A. Information may be stored correctly
B. Information may be stored incorrectly
C. Information may be easy to retrieve

98. The use of a personal note book to capture such information on a permanent basic can be
dangerous, why?
A. May not be read
B. May be lost
C. May be become out of date

99. Counting tools before and after working is to avoid

A. FOD
B. Damaged tools
C. Lost tools

100. Claustrophobia can be defined as abnormal fear of being in

A. Depth
B. Height
C. An enclosed space