X-SCIENCE

(GRAND TEST KIT)

GRAND TEST
KIT
FOR CLASS X
CHEMISTRY PHYSICS ENGLISH

MATHS COMPUTER BIOLOGY

PAK.STD. (U) PAK.STD. (U) SINDHI

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* Syllabus Prescribed by Government of Sindh

* Chapter Wise Guess Papers of All Subjects

* New Model Question Papers of All Subjects (With Solution Links)

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SHAH GROUP OF INSTITUTIONS
LIST OF DIFFERENT SUBJECTS AT S.S.C. ANNUAL EXAMINATION
FOR CLASS X (SCIENCE GROUP)

INDEX
S. NO. SUBJECTS PAGE #
CHEMISTRY (CHAPTER WISE GUESS PAPERS) 01 – 09
CHEMISTRY (NEW BOARD MODEL PAPERS) 09 – 10
PHYSICS (CHAPTER WISE GUESS PAPERS) 11 – 33
PHYSICS (NEW BOARD MODEL PAPERS) 33 – 34
BIOLOGY (CHAPTER WISE GUESS PAPERS) 35 – 56
BIOLOGY (NEW BOARD MODEL PAPERS) 56 – 57
COMPUTER (CHAPTER WISE GUESS PAPERS) 58 – 63
COMPUTER (NEW BOARD MODEL PAPERS) 63 – 65
MATHEMATICS (CHAPTER WISE GUESS PAPERS) 65 – 76
01
MATHEMATICS (NEW BOARD MODEL PAPERS) 76 – 78
ENGLISH (CHAPTER WISE GUESS PAPERS) 78 – 91
ENGLISH (NEW BOARD MODEL PAPERS) 91 – 93
PAKISTAN STUDIES (ENGLISH) (CHAPTER WISE GUESS PAPERS) 93 – 112
PAKISTAN STUDIES (ENGLISH) (NEW BOARD MODEL PAPERS) 112 – 113
PAKISTAN STUDIES (URDU) (CHAPTER WISE GUESS PAPERS) 114 – 143
PAKISTAN STUDIES (URDU) (NEW BOARD MODEL PAPERS) 143 – 145
SINDHI (CHAPTER WISE GUESS PAPERS) 146 – 178
SINDHI (NEW BOARD MODEL PAPERS) 179 – 182
02 ANNOUNCEMENT & SCHOLARSHIP LETTER 183 – 184
03 GRAND TEST TIMETABLE 185
 Page | 1

X-CHEMISTRY GUESS PAPER

SECTION ‘A’ SCAN ME
FOR GUESS PAPER
VIDEO

CHAPTER-1 CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. N2O4 ⇌ 2NO2 is an example of:
a) Reversible reaction b) irreversible reaction
c) Spontaneous reaction d) None of these
2. Reactions that proceed on both sides and never go to completion are called:
a) Irreversible reactions b) Reversible reactions
c) Opposing reactions d) Spontaneous reactions
3. Most chemical reactions are:
a) Reversible b) irreversible c) Exothermic d) endothermic
4. Chemical equilibrium is established in:
a) Irreversible reaction b) Reversible reaction c) Both d) None of these
5. The change of concentration of reactants or products per unit time is called:
a) Order b) Molecularity c) Rate of reaction d) none of these
6. Electrolytes which ionize to very small extent in a solution are called:
a) Strong electrolytes b) Neutral electrolytes c) Weak electrolytes d) None of these
7. CH3COOH is a:
a) Strong electrolyte b) Moderate electrolyte c) Weak electrolyte d) None of these
8. Rate of chemical reaction is directly proportional to the product of molar concentration of:
a) Products b) Reactants c) Both d) None of these
9. When a rate of forward reaction is equal to rate of backward reaction, then the equilibrium
established is called:
a) Chemical equilibrium b) Static equilibrium
c) Dynamic equilibrium d) None of these
10. Chemical equilibrium involving reactants and products in more than one phase is called:
a) Static b) dynamic c) Homogeneous d) Heterogeneous
11. What factors will change the equilibrium state of a system?
a) Temperature b) Pressure c) Volume d) All of the above
12. Concentration of reactants and products at the state of equilibrium is called:
a) Final concentration b) Initial concentration
c) Normal concentration d) Equilibrium concentration
13. Chemical equilibrium that consists of single phase is called:
a) Heterogeneous equilibrium b) Homogeneous equilibrium
c) Poly-phase equilibrium d) None of these
14. The rate at which a substance reacts, is directly proportional to its active mass and the rate
of a reaction is directly proportional to the product of the active masses of reacting
substances, is called:
a) Law of conservation of energy b) Le-Chateliers principle
c) Law of mass action d) None of these
15. Very large value of Kc indicates that the reaction is:
a) Partially complete b) Incomplete
c) Almost complete d) Tends of complete
16. The equilibrium constant can be used to predict:
a) The direction of a reaction b) The extent of a reaction
c) The effect of changing conditions d) All of the above
 Page | 2

CHAPTER-2 ACID, BASE AND SALT

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. All the citrus fruits contain:
a) Acetic acid b) Citric acid c) Lactic acid d) Butyric acid
2. Formic acid is found in:
a) Lemons b) Vinegars c) Grapes d) Sting of insects
3. Which is a weak acid?
a) NaCl b) H2S4 c) HNO3 d) H2CO3
4. Ascorbic acid is also called vitamin ____________.
a) A b) B c) C d) D
5. Coca Cola contain acid:
a) Carbonic acid b) Acetic acid c) Boric acid d) Formic acid
6. According to Arrhenius theory a base gives hydroxide (OH ) ion in water, while an acid gives:
-

a) Hydrogen ion b) Metallic ion c) Non-Metallic ion d) Ammonium ion

7. Following is an Arrhenius Acid.
a) HCl b) HNO3 c) H2CO3 d) All of these
8. Following is not a Lewis base.
a) NH3 b) H2O c) BF3 d) Cl–
9. A compound which given the H ions in aqueous solution is:
+

a) Arrhenius Base b) Arrhenius Acid c) Arrhenius Salt d) None of these

10. According to Bronsted Lowry theory, an acid is a proton donor while a base is an/a:
a) Proton acceptor b) Neutron acceptor c) Electron acceptor d) none of them
11. According to Lewis theory an acid is an acceptor of an electron pair while a base is a donor of:
a) Proton pair b) Neutron pair c) Electron pair d) none of them
12. According to Arrhenius theory following is a base give:
a) NH3 b) NaOH c) H2O d) All of these
13. According to Bronsted Lowry theory, following is a base:
a) HCl b) CH3COOH c) H2O d) None of them
14. According to Lewis theory following is a base:
a) OH– b) NH3 c) BF3 d) Both a and b
15. All the acids and bases react together to form salt and water; the reaction is called:
a) Hydrolysis b) Decomposition c) Synthesis d) Neutralization
16. Neutralization is an:
a) Endothermic reaction b) exothermic reaction
c) Addition reaction d) odd reaction
17. An ionic compound formed by the neutralization of an acid by a base is called:
a) a base b) an acid c) a salt d) an alkali
18. PH of an acid is:
a) Equal to 7 b) Equal to 14 c) More than 7 d) Less than 7
19. The pH value of distilled water is:
a) 1 b) 4 c) 7 d) 14
20. The pH of 0.01 M HCl is:
a) 4 b) 3 c) 1 d) 2
21. Which salt gives neutral solution?
a) CuSO4 b) NaHCO3 c) Na2CO3 d) NaCl
22. pH of a solution is equal to:
a) log[OH--] b) +log[OH--] c) -log[H+] d) log[H+]
23. The sum of pH and pOH is equal to:
a) 10 b) 14 c) 12 d) 7
24. Salts that are formed by the reaction of strong acid with weak base are:
a) Acidic Salts b) Common Salts c) Basic Salts d) Double Salts
 Page | 3

CHAPTER-3 ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. The branch of chemistry, which deals with the compound of carbon and hydrogen, is called:
a) Physical chemistry b) Inorganic chemistry
c) Organic chemistry d) Analytical chemistry
2. The first synthetic organic compound is:
a) Methane b) Ethane c) Urea d) Acetic gas
3. Which is pure carbon?
a) Coaltar b) Coal gas c) Coke d) none of these
4. Compounds which contain only carbon and hydrogen element are called:
a) Carbohydrates b) Hydrocarbons c) halides d) none of these
5. The hydrocarbons which contain one or more double or triple bonds are called:
a) Saturated hydrocarbons b) Unsaturated Hydrocarbons
c) Paraffin d) halogens
6. A combination of symbols of atoms or ions, that are held together chemically in a compound
is called:
a) Empirical Formula b) Formula c) Molecular formula d) Simplest Formula
7. It is the empirical formula of glucose:
a) CH2O b) C2H4O2 c) C5H10O5 d) C6H12O6
8. A formula that indicates the actual number and type of atoms in a molecule, is called:
a) Empirical formula b) Molecular formula c) Formula Mass d) Molecular Mass
9. Natural gas mainly consists of:
a) Methane b) Ethane c) Propane d) butane
10. The first member of alkene series is:
a) Methane b) Ethene c) Ethane d) Ethyne
11. Which one of the following molecules is an Alkane?
a) C5H8 b) C5H10 c) C5H11 d) C5H12
12. The general formula of alkane is:
a) CnH2n b) CnH2n+n c) CnH2n-2 d) CnH2n-1
13. The hydrocarbons in which carbon atom are arranged in a ring like structure, are called
a) Aliphatic b) Aromatic c) Alicyclic d) none of these
14. The process in which the octane rating of gasoline can be increased, is called:
a) Cracking b) Refining c) Reforming d) isomerism
15. A process that breaks large molecules into smaller one, is called:
a) Refining b) Reforming c) Cracking d) none of these
16. The quality of petrol is measured by:
a) Cracking b) Reforming c) Octane number d) Decane number
17. It is an Alkyl group:
a) C6H12 b) C6H13 c) C6H14 d) C6H15
18. The following are the functional group of alcohol.
a) -x b) -OH c) -COOH d) C = O

CHAPTER-4 BIOCHEMISTRY
SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. Which of these branches of chemistry deals with the study of compounds of living
organism?
a) Organic b) Analytical c) Environmental d) Biochemistry
2. Minerals that are required in larger quantities are called:
a) Macronutrients b) Micronutrients c) Active ions d) None of these
 Page | 4
3. It is considered as building material of protoplasm.
a) Lipids b) Carbohydrates c) Vitamins d) Proteins
4. Glycogen belongs to:
a) Saccharides b) nucleic acid c) Fats d) Simple proteins
5. Carbohydrates mostly contain:
a) Hydrogen b) Oxygen c) Carbon d) All of them
6. Which of the following is considered as simple carbohydrate?
a) Fiber b) Sucrose c) Starch d) All of them
7. The chemical name of table sugar is:
a) Glucose b) Sucrose c) Maltose d) Fructose
8. In plants, carbohydrates are stored in the form of
a) Starch b) Cellulose c) Both of them d) None of these
9. The protein is consist up of smaller units called:
a) Starch b) Glucose c) Amino acids d) None of them
10. The total number of amino acids is:
a) 12 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25
11. Amino acids that cannot be synthesis by the body itself are called:
a) Fiber b) Essential amino acid
c) Non-essential amino acid d) All of them
12. Proteins are obtained from:
a) Meat b) Pulses c) Eggs d) All of them
13. Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?
a) A b) B c) C d) None of these
14. It is required for the manufacture of plasma membrane and nucleic acid:
a) Phosphorus b) Iron c) Calcium d) Sodium
15. Deficiency of vitamin-k cause
a) Rickets b) Anemia c) Scurvy d) Beriberi
16. Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of vitamin:
a) A b) B c) C d) D
17. This vitamin is essential for vision:
a) A b) B c) C d) D
18. Which vitamin helps in clotting of blood?
a) A b) D c) K d) E

CHAPTER-5 ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY-I

ATMOSPHERE
SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. Which of the following is NOT a layer of the atmosphere?
a) The stratosphere b) The mesosphere c) The troposphere d) The introsphere
2. What is the most abundant element in the earth's atmosphere?
a) Nitrogen. b) Neon. c) Oxygen. d) Carbon dioxide.
3. What is the total percentage of nitrogen gas in the air?
a) 12 percent b) 21 percent c) 78 percent d) 87 percent
4. Which of the following is the layer closest to the ground?
a) The troposphere b) The exosphere c) The mesosphere d) The stratosphere
5. Which layer of the atmosphere contains the ozone layer?
a) Troposphere b) Mesosphere c) Stratosphere d) Thermosphere
6. Airplanes fly in:
a) Troposphere b) Mesosphere c) Stratosphere d) Thermosphere
7. Ozone layer is a part of:
a) Troposphere b) Mesosphere c) Stratosphere d) Thermosphere
 Page | 5
8. Increased levels of air pollution result in _______.
a) Soil erosion b) Global warming
c) Respiratory problems d) All of the above
9. The main contributors of acid rain are:
a) Sulphur oxides and carbon oxides b) nitrogen oxides and sulphur oxides
c) Carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide d) nitrogen oxides and carbon oxides
10. The pH of normal rainwater is:
a) Basic b) acidic c) alkaline d) None of these
11. Good ozone is found in the:
a) Stratosphere b) ionosphere c) troposphere d) mesosphere
12. Which of the Following Greenhouse Gases Is Present in Very High Quantities?
a) Carbon dioxide b) Ethane c) Propane d) Methane
13. Which of the following gases are called Greenhouse gases?
a) Methane b) Nitrogen c) Carbon dioxide d) Both a and c

CHAPTER-6 ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY-II WATER

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. Water covers ____% of the Earth's surface
a) 71 b) 80 c) 50 d) 40
2. _____ occur in all three states of matter.
a) Water b) Salt c) Acid d) Base
3. All plants and animals need ___________ to survive.
a) Water b) Salt c) Acid d) Base
4. There can be no life on earth without ___________.
a) Water b) Salt c) Acid d) Base
5. ____________ help to regulate body temperature and maintain other bodily functions.
a) Water b) Salt c) Acid d) Base
6. It helps to boost our energy levels:
a) Water b) Salt c) Acid d) Base
7. Water shows Anomalous behavior between:
a) 10 to 4˚C b) 0 to 5˚C c) 0 to -4˚C d) 4 to 0˚C
8. _________ is the water that form lather directly with the soap.
a) Hard water b) Soft water c) Partially hard water d) Very hard water
9. The hardness that cannot be removed by boiling is called:
a) Temporary hardness b) permanent hardness
c) Semi temporary hardness d) semi-permanent hardness
10. Which of the following is a waterborne disease?
a) Typhoid b) Cholera c) Diarrhea d) All of the above

CHAPTER-7 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. Identify the one which does not come under the chemical methods of quantitative analysis?
a) Gravimetric b) Titrimetric c) Volumetric d) Magnetic susceptibility
2. Which among the following is not a physical method?
a) X-ray fluorescence spectroscopy b) Atomic emission spectroscopy
c) Inert gas fusion d) Trace element analysis
3. Identify the test which is not a part of qualitative analysis?
a) Litmus test b) Kastle-Meyer test c) Iodine test d) Flame test
4. Spectrogram obtained as a result of spectroscopic measurements is due to the
a) Radiations absorbed b) Radiations absorbed only
 Page | 6
c) Radiations emitted only d) Radiations not absorbed
5. What type of method is the spectroscopic technique?
a) Instrumental methods b) Radioactive methods
c) Gravimetric method d) titrimetric method
6. Which of the following is not correct about High pressure liquid chromatography (HPLC)?
a) It requires high pressure for the separation of the species
b) There is no need to vaporize the samples
c) It is performed in columns d) It has high sensitivity

CHAPTER-8 INDUSTRIAL CHEMISTRY

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. Saponification results in the formation of:
a) Glass b) Polymer c) Fertilizer d) Soap
2. The branch of chemistry, which deals with the compound of carbon and hydrogen is called:
a) Physical chemistry b) Inorganic chemistry
c) Organic chemistry d) Analytical chemistry
3. Soaps are _____________ based soapy detergents.
a) Water b) Kerosene c) Oil d) Acid
4. Fraction of petroleum containing 10-16 carbons, and its boiling range 180°C TO 260C°.
a) Natural gas b) Gasoline c) Kerosene d) Light oil

SECTION ‘B’ SCAN ME

FOR GUESS PAPER
VIDEO

CHAPTER-1 CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Write down the difference between reversible and irreversible reaction.
2. Nitrogen oxides are air pollutants produced by the reaction of nitrogen and oxygen at high
temperature. At 2000o C, the value of equilibrium constant for the given reaction is 4.1x10-4.
𝑁2(𝑔) + 𝑂2(𝑔) ⇄
2𝑁𝑂(𝑔)
Find the concentration of NO in an equilibrium mixture at 1 atm pressure at 2000oC in air, [N2]
= 0.036 mol/L and [O2] = 0.0089 mol/L.
3. Write down Equilibrium Constant Expression (Kc) for the following balanced reversible
reactions.
N� + 2O� ⇌ 2NO�
H� + I� ⇌ 2HI
CO� + H� ⇌ CO + H� O

CHAPTER-2 ACID, BASE AND SALT

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Define PH and POH with formula. Calculate the pH of 0.01 M HCl solution.
2. What is neutralization reaction?
3. What are Acid and Bases? List some common acid and bases. Difference Between them
4. Calculate the pH and pOH of 10-5 molar solution of HNO3.
5. Discuss the Ionization of water.
6. Define Buffer Solution.
 Page | 7
8. Complete the following neutralization reactions between acids and bases.
9. Give reason:
ii) Why pure water is considered as weak electrolyte?

CHAPTER-3 ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Define the following with example:
a) Molecular formula b) Structural formula c) Condensed formula
2. A hydrocarbon contains six carbon atoms. Write its molecular formula. If it is:
i) An Alkane ii) An Alkene iii) An Alkyne
3. Define Homologous Series. What are the characteristics of Homologous series?
4. Define the following:
a) Functional group b) Isomerism c) Catenation.
5. What the uses of organic compounds?
6. Describe the General characteristics of organic compounds. (Any four)
7. Differentiate between Saturated and unsaturated Hydrocarbons.
8. Define the Vital Force Theory.

CHAPTER-4 BIOCHEMISTRY
SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. What is the importance of carbohydrates?
2. What is protein? What are the uses of protein?
3. What are essential and Non-essential Amino acids?
4. What are lipids and Fatty acids. Differentiate between fats and oils
5. What are Nucleic acids. Write three differences between DNA and RNA.

CHAPTER-5 ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY-I

ATMOSPHERE
SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. List 4 air pollutants and discuss any two of them?
2. What is acid rain? What are the causes behind it. (Name only). Two impacts of acid rain.
3. Write down the difference between Troposphere and Stratosphere.
4. Define Primary and Secondary pollutants.

CHAPTER-6 ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY-II WATER

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. What are the disadvantages of water hardness?
2. Explain water borne diseases. (Any three)
3. List 3 Water pollutants and discuss any one in detail.

CHAPTER-7 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Differentiate between Quantitative analysis and Qualitative analysis, name their types.
2. Define error, accuracy and Precision, Explain random error.
 Page | 8
3. Discuss the Applications of Analytical Chemistry.
4. Discuss Gas chromatography in detail.
5. What is infrared spectroscopy. Discuss it in detail.

CHAPTER-8 INDUSTRIAL CHEMISTRY

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Name the steps in sugar preparation.
2. Write down the importance of pharmaceutical industry.

SECTION ‘C’ SCAN ME

FOR GUESS PAPER
VIDEO

CHAPTER-1 CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Define chemical equilibrium. Explain stages of equilibrium.
2. State law of mass action and derive an expression for equilibrium constant.
3. Write down the application of equilibrium constant.
4. With the help of kc, how can you predict the direction of reaction or EXTENT of reaction.

CHAPTER-2 ACID, BASE AND SALT

SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. State and explain Arrhenius theory of acids and bases with the help of example.
2. State and explain Bronsted Lowry theory of acids and bases with the help of example.
3. State and explain Lewis’s theory of acids and bases with the help of example.
4. Define Kinds of salts OR Describe uses of some salts.

CHAPTER-3 ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Describe the types of Hydrocarbons.
2. IUPAC Naming of Alkanes, alkenes and alkynes.
3. Discuss the source of organic compounds.
a) Petroleum b) Coal
4. Identify the functional groups in the following compounds.
i) CH3 – CHO ii) CH3 – CH2 – OH iii) C3H7 – COOH
5. Give reason:
i) Why Silicon compounds are lesser than that of Carbon compounds?

CHAPTER-4 BIOCHEMISTRY
SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Explain the types of Vitamins.
2. Discuss classification of carbohydrates?
3. Explain DNA & RNA.
 Page | 9

CHAPTER-5 ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY-I

ATMOSPHERE
SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. What is Greenhouse effect? What are the effects of Global warming (Any two)?
2. What is Ozone depletion. Explain three effects caused by ozone depletion.

CHAPTER-6 ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY-II WATER

SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Define Soft & Hard water. Write down the Clarks methods to remove temporary hardness.
2. Write the importance & properties of water.

CHAPTER-8 INDUSTRIAL CHEMISTRY

SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Describe Fractional Distillation of petroleum (Refining of petroleum)?
2. What is saponification? Write down the industrial Preparation of Soap Briefly.

BOARD OF SECONDARY EDUCATION KARACHI

SCAN ME MODEL QUESTIONS PAPER
FOR
MODEL PAPER S.S.C. (ANNUAL) EXAMINATIONS 2023
SOLUTION CHEMISTRY (THEORY) PAPER-II
Time: 3 Hours CLASS X (Science Group) Max Marks: 60
SECTION “A” (MCQ’S – MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
Q1: Choose the correct answer from the given options: (12)
i. N2O4 ⇌ 2NO2 is an example of:
a) Reversible reaction b) irreversible reaction
c) Spontaneous reaction d) None of these
ii. Chemical equilibrium that consists of single phase is called:
a) Heterogeneous equilibrium b) Homogeneous equilibrium
c) Poly-phase equilibrium d) None of these
iii. Following is an Arrhenius Acid.
a) HCl b) HNO3 c) H2CO3 d) All of these
iv. The pH value of distilled water is:
a) 1 b) 4 c) 7 d) 14
v. Which salt gives neutral solution?
a) CuSO4 b) NaHCO3 c) Na2CO3 d) NaCl
vi. The first member of alkene series is:
a) Methane b) Ethene c) Ethane d) Ethyne
vii. Ozone layer is a part of:
a) Troposphere b) Mesosphere c) Stratosphere d) Thermosphere
viii. Fraction of petroleum containing 10-16 carbons, and its boiling range 180°C to 260C°.
a) Natural gas b) Gasoline c) Kerosene d) Light oil
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ix. Water covers _________% of the Earth’s surface.
a) 71 b) 80 c) 80 d) 40
x. The hardness that can be removed by boiling is called:
a) Temporary hardness b) Permanent hardness
c) Semi temporary hardness d) semi-permanent hardness
xi. Which of the following is water Borne disease:
a) Typhoid b) Cholera c) Diarrhea d) All of these
xii. What is the most abundant element in the earth's atmosphere?
a) Nitrogen. b) Neon. c) Oxygen. d) Carbon dioxide.

SECTION “B” (SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS) (24)

NOTE: Answer any Eight (08) questions from this section. Each carries 03 marks.
Q2. Narrate three differences between Troposphere and Stratosphere.
Q3. Write down Equilibrium Constant Expression (Kc) for the following balanced reversible
reactions.
N� + 2O� ⇌ 2NO�
H� + I� ⇌ 2HI
CO� + H� ⇌ CO + H� O
Q4. The Hydrogen ion concentration [H+] is 1×10-8 mol.dm-3. What is pH of the solution?
Q5. Identify the functional groups in the following compounds.
i) CH3 – CHO ii) CH3 – CH2 – OH iii) C3H7 – COOH
Q6. Define three types of salts with two examples each.
Q7. Indicate any three very common water borne diseases.
Q8. Define the terms:
Q9. Complete the following neutralization reactions between acids and bases.
Q10. Write any three significant uses of Carbohydrates.
Q11. Briefly describe any three beneficial impacts of pharmaceutical industry on human society.
Q12. Write down three characteristics of Organic compounds.
Q13. Give reason:
i) Why Silicon compounds are lesser than that of Carbon compounds?
ii) Why pure water is considered as weak electrolyte?

SECTION “C” (DETAILED-ANSWER QUESTIONS) (24)

NOTE: Answer any Four (04) questions from this section. Each carries 06 marks.
Q14. What are Lipids? Write five differences between Fats and Oils.
Q15. Describe process of Saponification with the help of flow sheet diagram.
Q16. What is Ozone? How does Ozone depletion occur by Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) also mention
some adverse impact of it?
Q17. Describe Gas Chromatography with diagram also write two uses of gas chromatography.
Q18. Define Equilibrium, State law of mass action and derive an expression for equilibrium
constant.
Q19. What are Soft Water and Hard Water and describe different methods of removing temporary
and permanent hardness.
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X-PHYSICS GUESS PAPER

SECTION ‘A’ SCAN ME
FOR GUESS PAPER
VIDEO

UNIT-10 GENERAL WAVES PROPERTIES

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. In a vacuum, all electromagnetic waves have the same
a) Speed b) Frequency c) Amplitude d) Wavelength
2. Waves transfer
a) Energy b) Frequency c) Wavelength d) Velocity
3. Which of the following devices can be used to produce both transverse and longitudinal
waves?
a) A string b) A ripple tank c) A Slinky spring d) A tuning fork
4. Waves that require material medium to travel are called:
a) Mechanical Waves b) Electromagnetic Waves
c) Both of these d) None of these
5. Waves that do not require material medium to travel are called:
a) Mechanical Waves b) Electromagnetic Waves
c) Both of these d) None of these
6. Which of the following characteristics of a wave is independent of the others?
a) Speed b) Frequency c) Amplitude d) Wavelength
7. The relation between v, f and λ of a wave is:
a) v f = λ b) f λ = v c) v λ = f d) v = λ / f
8. The regions of longitudinal waves in which the particles are closest together are called:
a) Crest b) Trough c) Compression d) Rarefaction
9. The regions of longitudinal waves in which the particles are furthest apart are called:
a) Crest b) Trough c) Compression d) Rarefaction
10. In transverse waves, the distance between two consecutive crest or trough is called:
a) Speed b) Frequency c) Amplitude d) Wavelength
11. One complete round trip of a vibrating body about its mean position is called:
a) Vibration b) Time Period c) Frequency d) Amplitude
12. The time taken by a vibrating body to complete one vibration is called:
a) Vibration b) Time Period c) Frequency d) Amplitude
13. The number of vibrations or cycles of a vibrating body in one second is called:
a) Vibration b) Time Period c) Frequency d) Amplitude
14. Unit of time period is:
a) Sec b) Sec-1 c) Hertz d) Metre
15. Unit of frequency is:
a) Sec b) Sec-1 c) Hertz d) Both b and c

UNIT-11 SOUND
SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. Sound waves are _________ waves.
a) Electromagnetic b) Mechanical c) Both of these d) None of these
2. Sound waves are _________waves.
a) Transverse b) Longitudinal c) Both of these d) None of these
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3. Sound waves consist of successive.
a) Crests and Troughs b) Compressions and Rarefactions
c) Crests and Rarefactions d) Compressions and Troughs
4. Pressure is greater at compression region of longitudinal waves due to ____ density of
particles.
a) High b) Low c) No d) Moderate
5. The separation between two consecutive compressions of the sound wave is called:
a) Time period b) Amplitude c) Frequency d) Wavelength
6. The distance covered by a sound wave in unit time is called:
a) Frequency b) Wavelength c) Sound velocity d) Amplitude
7. Velocity of sound is greater in:
a) Solid b) Liquid c) Gas d) Vacuum
8. Velocity of sound depends upon_______ of medium.
a) Temperature b) Pressure c) Density d) All of these
9. Speed of sound wave ________ with the increase in temperature of the medium.
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains same d) None of these
10. The approximate value of the speed of sound in air at O C temperature is
O

a) 332 m/s b) 34 m/s c) 17 m/s d) 680 m/s

11. Speed of sound at 25 C is:
O

a) 346 m/s b) 360 m/s c) 331 m/s d) 400 m/s

12. Sound travel faster in solid as compare to gases because of:
a) Gas molecules are packed loosely
b) Sound does not travel faster through a solid than a gas
c) Solid molecules are packed tightly d) Gas molecules move faster.
13. The two factors that affect the speed of sound in air are:
a) Humidity and volume of the air b) Temperature and mass of the air
c) Volume and mass of the air d) Temperature and humidity of the air.
14. The order of speed of the sound in different mediums from faster to slowest is
a) GasLiquidSolid b) LiquidSolidGas
c) SolidLiquidGas d) GasSolidLiquid
15. The sound with regular variation of frequency is called
a) Musical sound b) Noise c) Beat d) Pitch
16. It produces unpleasant effect on the ear.
a) Musical sound b) Noise c) Beat d) Pitch
17. ________ enables us to distinguish between a loud and a soft or faint sound.
a) Loudness b) Pitch c) Quality d) Noise
18. Higher the amplitude, ______ will be the sound.
a) Fainter b) Louder c) Shrill d) Grave
19. _______ enables us to distinguish between grave and shrill sounds.
a) Loudness b) Pitch c) Quality d) Noise
20. Pitch depends upon _______ of the vibrating body.
a) Wavelength b) Amplitude
c) Area of vibrating body d) Frequency
21. Characteristic of sound that enables us to distinguish between two sounds of same loudness
and pitch.
a) Loudness b) Pitch c) Quality d) Noise
22. The sound heard after reflection is called:
a) Musical Sound b) Noise c) Echo d) Beats
23. The time interval between original sound and echo should be equal to or more than
a) 0.001 second b) 0.01 second c) 0.1 second d) 1 second
24. The distance between the source of sound and the reflecting surface should be at least
a) 20 metre b) 17 metre c) 25 metre d) 15 metre
25. Sounds having frequency less than 20 Hz or audible range is called:
a) Infrasonic Sound b) Ultrasonic c) Audible Sound d) None of these
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26. Sounds having frequency greater than 20,000 Hz or audible range is called:
a) Infrasonic Sound b) Ultrasonic c) Audible Sound d) None of these
27. Ultrasounds are used in _______to create moving images of the heart walls.
a) Ultrasonography b) SONAR
c) RADAR d) Echocardiography
28. SONAR stands for:
a) Sound Navigation and Ranging b) Sonic Navigation and Ranging
c) Sound and Noise Arranging Reader d) None of these

UNIT-12 ELECTROMAGNETIC SPECTRUM

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. The phenomena of splitting up of light into it constitute colours is known as:
a) Diffraction of light b) Refraction of light c) Dispersion of light d) Reflection of light
2. Which of these waves bend more in white light spectrum.
a) Red b) Violet c) Green d) Blue
3. White light splits into a series of colour which is called:
a) Spectrum of white light. b) Series of white light
c) Colours of white light d) Nature of white light
4. A narrow beam of white light passes from air into the glass and is refracted. The
characteristic remains unchanged in it is:
a) Direction b) Frequency c) Speed d) Wavelength
5. Those waves that do not require material medium for propagation are called
a) Mechanical Wave b) Electromagnetic waves
c) Both of these d) None of these
6. When a charged particle oscillate, which of its field oscillates.
a) Electric Field b) Magnetic Field c) Both of these d) None of these
7. They are always transverse waves.
a) Mechanical Wave b) Electromagnetic waves
c) Both of these d) None of these
8. In vacuum, electromagnetic waves has a constant speed of:
a) 3 x 108 m/s b) 30 x 108 m/s c) 3 x 109 m/s d) 30 x 109 m/s
9. The velocity of light in a diamond is (whereas the refractive index of a diamond with respect
to vacuum is 2.5)
a) 1.2 x 108 m/s b) 5 x 108 m/s c) 1.2 x 1010 m/s d) 2.5 x 108 m/s
10. The group containing only electromagnetic waves is:
a) Light waves, Radio waves, Microwaves b) Light waves, Radio waves, Sound waves
c) Light waves, Sound waves, microwaves d) Radio waves, sound waves, microwaves
11. It is the entire range of electromagnetic radiations based on their frequencies or wave length.
a) Mechanical Spectrum b) White Light Spectrum
c) Electromagnetic Spectrum d) Ordinary Spectrum
12. ________ have the longest wavelength in the entire electromagnetic spectrum
a) Gamma Rays b) Visible Light c) Radio Waves d) Micro Waves
13. They are emitted by antennas through oscillating current.
a) Gamma Rays b) Visible Light c) Radio Waves d) Micro Waves
14. They are used to heat food in microwave ovens, satellite communication and wireless
networking.
a) Gamma Rays b) Visible Light c) Radio Waves d) Micro Waves
15. Human body also gives out:
a) X-Rays b) Gamma Rays
c) Visible Light d) Infrared radiations
16. They are used in optical fibers, microscopes, endoscopy and for vision.
a) X-Rays b) Gamma Rays
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c) Visible Light d) Infrared radiations
17. It is emitted by the sun and hotter stars (about 25000oC).
a) X-Rays b) Ultraviolet
c) Visible Light d) Infrared radiations
18. They are high energy waves that are produced when fast moving electrons lose their energy
quickly.
a) X-Rays b) Gamma Rays
c) Visible Light d) Infrared radiations
19. They are the most energetic waves that are emitted when unstable nuclei decay into stable
nucleus.
a) X-Rays b) Gamma Rays
c) Visible Light d) Infrared radiations
20. Some materials absorb ultraviolet radiations and convert its energy into light. This
phenomenon is called:
a) Sterilization b) Fluorescence c) Endoscopy d) None of these
21. CT scan is used to diagnose diseases and injuries. It used a series of low frequency
a) Gamma Rays b) X-rays
c) Ultraviolet rays d) Infrared radiations
22. All electromagnetic waves of the entire spectrum have a same, constant _____in vacuum
a) Wavelength b) Frequency c) Speed d) All of these
23. The process of destroying micro-organisms from an instrument to prevent the spread of
infection is called:
a) Sterilization b) Fluorescence c) Endoscopy d) None of these
24. The electromagnetic rays used in radiotherapy to destroy cancer cells are:
a) Infrared Rays b) Visible Rays c) X-rays d) Ultraviolet Rays

UNIT-13 GEOMETRICAL OPTICS

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. When bouncing back of light into the same medium is known as:
a) Refraction of light b) Dispersion of light c) Interference of light d) Reflection of light
2. During reflection, the angle of reflection is _______ the angle of incidence
a) Equal b) Less than c) Greater than d) Not related
3. The ray of light that is sent back into the same medium is known as:
a) Refracted Ray b) Incident Ray c) Reflected Ray d) Normal
4. The spherical mirror which has inner surface polished for reflection is called:
a) Concave mirror b) Convex mirror c) Plane mirror d) Lens
5. The spherical mirror which has outer surface polished for reflection is called:
a) Concave mirror b) Convex mirror c) Plane mirror d) Lens
6. The centre of the spherical mirror is called:
a) Center of curvature b) Pole
c) Principle Axis d) Radius of curvature
7. The center of the hollow sphere of which the mirror is a part is called:
a) Center of curvature b) Pole
c) Principle Axis d) Radius of curvature
8. The distance between the center of curvature and the pole is called:
a) Center of curvature b) Pole
c) Principle Axis d) Radius of curvature
9. The image formed by a convex mirror is always a:
a) Real and Inverted b) Real and Erect
c) Virtual and Erect d) Virtual and Inverted
10. Which mirror is used in vehicles as rear-view mirrors?
a) Concave Mirror b) Convex Mirror c) Plane Mirror d) Prism
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11. A ________ is used in a microscope to illuminate object.
a) Concave Mirror b) Convex Mirror c) Plane Mirror d) Prism
12. Dentists used __________ for the examination of tooth.
a) Concave Mirror b) Convex Mirror c) Plane Mirror d) Prism
13. When light travels from rarer to denser medium, it bends.
a) Towards Normal b) Away from Normal c) Remains Undeflected d) None of these
14. When light travels from denser to rarer medium, it bends:
a) Towards Normal b) Away from Normal c) Remains Undeflected d) None of these
15. During refraction of light which of the following remains unchanged.
a) Speed b) Direction c) Wavelength d) Frequency
16. The ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is called:
a) Medium Constant b) Reflective Index c) Refractive index d) Great Ratio
17. It has no unit:
a) Frequency b) Wavelength c) Refractive Index d) All of these
18. o
The angle of incidence for which the angle of refraction is 90 is called:
a) Angle of incidence b) Critical angle c) Angle of Refraction d) Angle of deviation
19. For total internal reflection, light must travel from:
a) Denser to rarer medium b) Rare to denser medium
c) Rarer to rarer medium d) Denser to denser medium
20. It is a transparent body bounded by three rectangular and two triangular surfaces.
a) Lens b) Mirror c) Plane mirror d) Prism
21. The angle between the extended incident and emergent ray is called:
a) Angle of incidence b) Critical angle c) Angle of Refraction d) Angle of deviation
22. It is a piece of transparent refracting medium bounded by spherical surfaces
a) Lens b) Glass Slab c) Prism d) Plane Mirror
23. A ________ is thick from the middle and thin from the edges.
a) Concave Lens b) Glass Slab c) Convex Lens d) None of these
24. A ________ is thin from the middle and thick from the edges.
a) Concave Lens b) Glass Slab c) Convex Lens d) None of these
25. Its focal length is taken positive.
a) Concave Lens b) Convex Lens c) Plane Mirror d) None of these
26. Which of the following optical device contains convex lens.
a) Camera b) Projector
c) Photographic Enlarger d) All of these
27. It is an optical device that is used to produce a real and magnified image of an object or a film
onto a surface.
a) Camera b) Projector
c) Photographic Enlarger d) All of these
28. The reciprocal of focal length in meters is called:
a) Power of lens b) Magnification c) Resolving power d) None of these
29. Its unit is diopter
a) Power of lens b) Magnification c) Resolving power d) None of these
30. The apparent increase in size of an object is called:
a) Power of lens b) Magnification c) Resolving power d) None of these
31. The Minimum distance between eye and object at which object can be seen clearly is called
a) Far point of the eye b) Near point of the eye.
c) Mid-point of the eye. d) None of these
32. The near point of normal human eye is
a) 20 cm b) 25cm c) 30 cm d) 35 cm
33. It is also called magnifying glass.
a) Simple Microscope b) Compound Microscope
c) Telescope d) Spectroscope
34. It is an optical instrument used to see small objects which cannot be seen by naked eyes.
a) Simple Microscope b) Compound Microscope
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c) Telescope d) Spectroscope
35. In a compound microscope, which lens has short focal length:
a) Objective Lens b) Condenser Lens c) Projection Lens d) Eyepiece
36. In a telescope, which lens has short focal length:
a) Objective Lens b) Condenser Lens c) Projection Lens d) Eyepiece
37. Final image produce by a compound microscope is:
a) Real and small b) Virtual and small
c) Real and magnified d) Virtual and magnified
38. In this defect, person can see near objects clearly but distant objects become blur.
a) Long sightedness b) Short sightedness c) Color Blindness d) Astigmatism
39. Myopia is due to the eye ball become.
a) Short b) Thin c) Elongated d) Thick
40. ______________ lens is used to correct myopia.
a) Convex lens b) Concave lens c) Cylindrical lens d) None of these
41. In this defect, person can see distant objects clearly but near objects become blur.
a) Long sightedness b) Short sightedness c) Color Blindness d) Astigmatism
42. Hyperopia is due to the eye ball become.
a) Short b) Thin c) Elongated d) Thick
43. ______________ lens is used to correct hyperopia.
a) Convex lens b) Concave lens c) Cylindrical lens d) None of these

UNIT-14 ELECTROSTATICS
SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. Who came up with the terms positive and negative charge.
a) Coulomb b) Faraday
c) Volta d) Benjamin Franklin
2. Like charges _____ each other
a) Attract b) Repel c) Both of these d) None of these
3. It is a scalar quantity and its SI unit is Coulomb (C)
a) Electric current b) Electric Potential c) Electric field intensity d) Electric charge
4. When a charged body comes in contact with a neutral object, then object becomes charged
by:
a) Induction b) Conduction c) Friction d) Rubbing
5. When two plastic rods are rubbed through animal fur, they will acquire:
a) Same Charge b) Opposite Charge c) No charge d) None of these
6. It is a sensitive device which is used to detect the electrical nature of an object.
a) Electroscope b) Telescope c) Microscope d) Spectroscope
7. The magnitude of force between two-unit positive charges when the distance between them
is 1m would be:
a) 0N b) 1N
c) 2N d) Coulombs Constant
8. Coulombs law most closely resembles with
a) Law of conservation of energy b) Newton’s law of gravitation
c) Newton’s 2 law of motion
nd
d) Faraday’s law
9. If the electrostatic force between two electrons is F Newton, then the electrostatic force
between two protons at the same distance is
a) 0N b) 2F c) 2/3F d) F
10. When distance between two charges double, the electrostatic force between them would be:
a) Double b) Remain same c) One forth d) One third
11. Region around a charge within which its electrostatic force would be felt is called
a) Magnetic Field b) Gravitational Field c) Electric Field d) None of these
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12. It is a vector quantity.
a) Electric current b) Electric potential
c) Potential Difference d) Electric field intensity
13. The unit of electric field intensity is
a) Ampere b) Newton/Coulomb c) Volt d) Coulomb
14. Electric Lines of force originate from
a) Positive charge b) Negative charge c) Both charges d) None of these
15. Electric field is directed from
a) Positive to negative b) Negative to Positive
c) Positive to positive d) Negative to Negative
16. The work done on a unit charge against electric field intensity is called:
a) Electric field b) Electric current c) Electric potential d) Electric field
17. The unit of electrostatic potential is:
a) Volt b) Coulomb c) Ampere d) Ohm
18. If one coulomb charge is displaced through one joule of work against the electric field then
potential is:
a) One Coulomb b) One Ampere c) One Volt d) One Ohm
19. Which of the following is an application of electrostatics:
a) Photocopying and Xerography b) Spray Painting
c) Electrostatic Air Cleansing d) All of these
20. In electrostatic spray painting, car and spray gun is given
a) Same Charges b) Opposite Charges c) No Charges d) None of these
21. In electrostatic air cleansing, dust and smoke particles are ionized by passing them through a
a) Neutral Ionizer b) Charged ionizer c) Collecting Plate d) Condenser
22. The presence of a dielectric between the plates of capacitors, the capacitance of capacitor.
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Remain constant d) Remain unchanged
23. A device which is used to store electric charges is called:
a) Voltmeter b) Capacitor c) Ammeter d) Electroscope
24. The unit of capacitance is:
a) Volt b) Coulomb c) Farad d) None of these
25. Two capacitors of 8µF are connected in series then the equivalent capacitance is
a) 1/4 µF b) 2 µF c) 3 µF d) 6 µF
26. When plates of the capacitors are joined end to end forming a single path, it is called
a) Series Combination b) Parallel Combination c) Both of these d) None of these
27. Amount of charge stored in each plate is same, such combination of capacitors is called
a) Series Combination b) Parallel Combination c) Both of these d) None of these
28. When plates of the capacitors are joined directly with the source of potential difference, it is
called:
a) Series Combination b) Parallel Combination c) Both of these d) None of these
29. Potential difference across each capacitor is same, such combination of capacitors is called
a) Series Combination b) Parallel Combination c) Both of these d) None of these

UNIT-15 CURRENT ELECTRICITY

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. The materials through which electric charges can flow easily are called
a) Conductors b) Insulators c) Resistors d) Thermistors
2. The rate of flow of electric charges through the given cross section of a conductor is called
a) EMF b) Voltage c) Resistance d) Electric current
3. Its unit is Coulomb/sec which is also called as ampere.
a) Voltage b) EMF c) Resistance d) Electric current
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4. The flow of positive charges from positive terminal to negative terminal is called
a) Electronic Current b) Conventional current c) Alternating Current d) Direct Current
5. The flow of electrons from negative to positive terminal is called
a) Electronic Current b) Conventional current c) Alternating Current d) Direct Current
6. Its direction changes periodically
a) Electronic Current b) Conventional current c) Alternating Current d) Direct Current
7. In an electric circuit when electrons move from low to high potential they will
a) Gain energy b) Lose their identity c) Lose energy d) Gain potential
8. Which of the following is the purpose of connecting a battery in an electric circuit?
a) To maintain resistance across the conductor b) To vary resistance across the conductors
c) To maintain constant potential difference across the conductor
d) To main varying potential difference across the conductor.
9. Its SI unit is Joules/Coulomb which is called Volt
a) EMF b) Potential Difference c) Both of these d) None of these
10. The work done on unit charge to displace it from lower potential to higher potential of the
battery is called:
a) EMF b) Potential Difference c) Electric current d) Resistance
11. Ohm’s law states that:
a) Resistance increases as current increases b) Resistance decreases as current increases
c) Resistance increases as voltage increases d) Current increases as voltage increases
12. The condition for the validity of Ohm’s law is that the
a) Temperature should remain constant b) Current should be proportional to voltage
c) Resistance must be wire wound type d) All of the above
13. Ohm’s law is not applicable to:
a) Semiconductors b) DC circuit c) Small resistors d) High currents
14. The device that does not follow ohm’s law is known as a
a) Non-ohmic device b) Ohmic Device c) Both of these d) None of these
15. Resistance of a conductor does not depend on
a) Length of the conductor b) Area of conductor
c) Density d) Resistivity
16. The property of a body to oppose the flow of electric charge through it is called electric
a) Capacitance b) Potential c) Resistance d) Conductance
17. Its unit is Ohm (Ω)
a) Capacitance b) Potential c) Resistance d) Conductance
18. Resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to
a) Temperature b) Area c) Length d) All of these
19. Its unit is Ohm.meter (Ω.m)
a) Capacitance b) Potential c) Resistance d) Resistivity
20. If different resistors are joined end to end with each other, this combination is called
a) Series Combination b) Parallel Combination c) Mixed Combination d) None of these
21. In which combination of resistors, there is only one path for the flow of electric current?
a) Series Combination b) Parallel Combination c) Mixed Combination d) None of these
22. In which combination, the equivalent resistance of the circuit is equal to the sum of all the
resistances
a) Series Combination b) Parallel Combination c) Mixed Combination d) None of these
23. Two resistances of 6Ω and 12Ω are connected in parallel. Their net resistance is
a) 7 Ω b) 6 Ω c) 4 Ω d) 5 Ω
24. In which combination of resistors, there is separate path for each resistors for electric current?
a) Series Combination b) Parallel Combination c) Mixed Combination d) None of these
25. The amount of heat generated depends upon:
a) Square of current b) Resistance c) Time duration d) All of these
26. ____________is a large unit of electrical energy
a) Joule b) Watt c) Kilowatt Hour d) Electron Volt
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27. 1kWh =
a) 3.6 × 10� J b) 36 × 10� J c) 3.6 × 10�� J d) 3.6 × 10�� J
28. It is a two terminal electrical component that is used to provide obstruction in the path of
current in a circuit.
a) Resistor b) Switches c) Battery d) Transducer
29. It is an electrical component that converts one form of energy into another form of energy
a) Resistor b) Switches c) Battery d) Transducer
30. It is an electronic component that is used to detect light
a) LDRs b) Thermistors c) Galvanometer d) Relays
31. It is an electronic component that is used to detect change in temperature.
a) LDRs b) Thermistors c) Galvanometer d) Relays
32. Which of the following is used for the detection of small electric currents through a circuit.
a) Ammeter b) Voltmeter c) Galvanometer d) Ohmmeter
33. To convert Galvanometer into ______, a very low resistance is connected in parallel to
Galvanometer.
a) Ammeter b) Voltmeter c) Galvanometer d) Ohmmeter
34. To convert Galvanometer into _____________, a high resistance is connected in series to
Galvanometer.
a) Ammeter b) Voltmeter c) Galvanometer d) Ohmmeter
35. Which wire is connected to a large metal plate buried deep in the ground near the house?
a) Earth Wire b) Neutral Wire c) Live Wire d) All of these
36. This wire is maintained at zero potential by connecting it to the Earth at the power station
itself.
a) Earth Wire b) Neutral Wire c) Live Wire d) All of these
37. This wire is at a high potential.
a) Earth Wire b) Neutral Wire c) Live Wire d) All of these

UNIT-16 ELECTROMAGNETISM
SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. An electric charge at rest produce:
a) Electric Field b) Magnetic Field c) Both Fields d) No Field
2. An isolated moving charge produces:
a) Electric Field b) Magnetic Field c) Both Fields d) No Field
3. A current carrying conductor produces:
a) Electric Field b) Magnetic Field c) Both Fields d) No Field
4. Which statement is true about the magnetic poles.
a) Unlike poles repel b) Like poles attract
c) Magnetic poles do not affect each other d) A single magnetic pole does not exist
5. Unit of magnetic field intensity is:
a) Ampere b) Tesla c) Weber d) None of these
6. If the current in a wire which is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field increase, the force
on the wire.
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains the same d) Will be zero
7. The magnetic force experienced by a moving charge in a magnetic field is directly proportional
to:
a) Magnitude of the charge b) Velocity of the charge
c) Magnetic field Induction d) All of these
8. Direction of magnetic force is __________ to the plane of velocity and magnetic field.
a) Perpendicular b) Parallel c) Same d) None of these
9. The magnetic force experienced by a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field is directly
proportional to
a) Amount of Current b) Length of Conductor
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c) Magnetic field of Induction d) All of these
10. A DC motor converts
a) Mechanical energy into electrical energy b) Mechanical energy into chemical energy
c) Electrical energy into mechanical energy d) Electrical energy into chemical energy
11. Which part of a DC motor reverses the direction of current through the coil every half cycle?
a) The armature b) The commutator c) The brushes d) The slip rings
12. Magnetic torque experienced by a current carrying loop is depends upon
a) Number of loops b) Area of loop
c) Magnetic field of induction d) All of these
13. Phenomena by which an emf is induced in a conductor due to change in magnetic field is
called.
a) Electromagnetic Pulse b) Electromagnetic induction
c) Electric Induction d) Simple Induction
14. Who proposed two laws related to the phenomena of Electromagnetic Induction?
a) J. Henry b) M. Faraday c) Ampere d) Maxwell
15. The direction of induced EMF in a circuit is in accordance with conservation of
a) Mass b) Charge c) Momentum d) Energy
16. Lenz’s law is consistent with
a) Law of conservation of energy b) Newton’s third law of motion
c) Both of these d) None of these
17. A device which converts mechanical energy into electrical energy is called
a) Electric Generator b) Electric Motor c) Galvanometer d) None of these
18. Changing current in one coil induced emf in the other coil. This phenomena is known as
a) Self-Inductance b) Electromagnetic Induction
c) Mutual Inductance d) Motional EMF
19. Coil having current passing through it is called
a) Primary coil b) Secondary coil c) Neutral Coil d) None of these
20. The unit of Mutual Inductance is
a) Farad b) Ampere c) Henry d) Gauss
21. The step-up transformer
a) Increases the input current b) Increases the input voltage
c) Has more turns in the primary d) Has less turns in the secondary coil
22. The turn ratios of a transformer is 10. It means
a) IS = 10 IP b) NP = 10 Ns c) NS = 10 NP d) VS = 10 VP
23. Transformer works on the principle of
a) Magnetic Torque b) Mutual induction c) AC generator d) None of these
24. Which transformer has number of turns in primary coil less than number of turns in
secondary coil
a) Step-up transformer b) Step-down transformer
c) Both of these d) None of these
25. Generating stations used _______ transformers to increase the alternating voltage.
a) Step-up transformer b) Step-down transformer
c) Neutral Transformer d) None of these
26. Transformers work only with
a) D.C. b) A.C. c) Both of these d) None of these
27. Battery charger is supplied by a
a) Step-up transformer b) Step-down transformer
c) Neutral Transformer d) None of these
28. Work done on a charge by magnetic force is
a) Greater than zero b) Less than zero c) Zero d) None of these
29. Two wires placed parallel with current flowing in the same direction will
a) Attract b) Repel c) Not affected d) None of these
30. Electric field and magnetic field in an electromagnetic wave are
a) perpendicular to each other b) Parallel to each other
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c) Both of these d) None of these
31. Magnetic lines of force are ________ lines.
a) Real b) Imagniary c) Both of these d) None of these

UNIT-17 & 18 INTRODUCTORY ELECTRONICS &

INFORMATION & COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY
SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. Modern appliances use
a) Digital electronics b) Simple Technologies
c) Old Technologies d) Traditional Technologies
2. They have greater speed, sensitive and accurate
a) Electrical Devices b) Mechanical Devices c) Electronic devices d) None of these
3. These devices controls the flow of electrons in a circuit.
a) Electrical Devices b) Mechanical Devices c) Electronic devices d) None of these
4. It is the branch of applied physics that deals with the development & utilization of electron
emitting devices.
a) Electricity b) Optics c) Mechanics d) Electronics
5. It deals with those circuits that have continuously varying signals.
a) Analogue electronics b) Digital Electronics c) Both of these d) None of these
6. It deals with those circuits that have discrete signals.
a) Analogue electronics b) Digital Electronics c) Both of these d) None of these
7. Digital electronics uses only ____ digits.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 6 d) 4
8. A circuit which converts analogue signal into a digital signal is called as
a) DAC b) ADC c) CCA d) DDC
9. Process of emission of electrons from the surface of a hot metal is called as
a) Permission b) Thermionic emission c) Thermal Expansion d) Thermal Ejection
10. They have large number of free electrons
a) Metals b) Non-metals c) Both of these d) None of these
11. Beam of fast-moving electrons coming out from cathode:
a) Anode Rays b) Alpha Rays c) Gamma Rays d) Cathode rays
12. Cathode rays can be deflected by
a) Electric field b) Magnetic field c) Both of these d) None of these
13. Properties of cathode rays is independent of:
a) Material of cathode b) Gas in the discharge tube
c) Both of these d) None of these
14. Electron beam deflects towards the ___________ charged plate making a parabolic path
a) Positive b) Negative c) Neutral d) None of these
15. When electron beam passes through electric field, which of the following increases.
a) Energy b) Speed c) Both of these d) None of these
16. When electron beam passes through __________ field, its energy and speed do not change.
a) Electric b) Magnetic c) Both d) None
17. Will the process of thermionic emission still occur, if air is in the tube instead of having vacuum
in it?
a) Yes b) No c) Sometimes d) None of these
18. It is an electronic instrument used to obtain waveform of input signal.
a) Electron Gun b) Discharge Tube
c) Transistor d) Cathode Ray Oscilloscope
19. It acts as a source of electron beam in CRO.
a) Electron gun b) Deflecting plate c) Front Panel d) Screen
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20. Brightness control in CRO is achieved by:
a) Cathode b) Anode c) Grid d) X Shift
21. George Boole invented a special algebra called
a) Simple Algebra b) Statistical Algebra c) Logical Algebra d) Boolean algebra
22. The possible combinations of input and output states of digital circuit can be represented by
a) Simple Table b) Truth Table c) Graph d) Pie Chart
23. Output of AND gate will be '1' only when all of its inputs are at logic
a) 1 b) 0 c) Any of these d) None of these
24. If input in AND gate are 1 and 0 then output of AND gate will be
a) 0 b) 1 c) Any of these d) None of these
25. AND gate operates on logical
a) Addition Rules b) Multiplication Rules c) Compliment Rules d) None of these
26. Boolean Expression for AND gate is
a) Y = A x B b) Y = A + B c) Y = A . B d) Y = (A + B)’
27. Output of OR gate will be '1' if either or all of the inputs are
a) 1 b) 0 c) Any of these d) None of these
28. OR gate operates on logical
a) Addition Rules b) Multiplication Rules c) Compliment Rules d) None of these
29. Boolean Expression for AND gate is
a) Y = A x B b) Y = A . B c) Y = A + B d) Y = (A + B)’
30. It also called as inverter
a) NAND Gate b) Not Gate c) OR Gate d) NOR Gate
31. In NOT Gate, If the input is '1' then the output is
a) 1 b) 0 c) Any of these d) None of these
32. The Boolean expression of NOT gate is
a) Y = A’ b) Y = 𝐴 c) Both of these d) None of these
33. It acts in the manner of the multiplication rules followed by inversion.
a) NAND Gate b) Not Gate c) OR Gate d) NOR Gate
34. The Boolean expression of NAND gate is
a) Y = (A . B)’ b) Y = 𝐴𝐵 c) Both of these d) None of these
35. It acts in the manner of the addition rules followed by inversion.
a) NAND Gate b) Not Gate c) OR Gate d) NOR Gate
36. The Boolean expression of NOR gate is
a) Y = (A + B)’ b) Y = (A . B)’ c) Y = A’ d) Y = 𝐴
37. Scientific methods used to store and arrange information for proper use and to
communicate is called:
a) Information Technology b) Data Management
c) Telecommunication d) Word Processing
38. The method that is used to communicate information to far off places instantly is called
a) Information Technology b) Data Management
c) Telecommunication d) Word Processing
39. They are facts and figures needed by programs so that it can produce meaningful
information
a) Data b) Information c) Both of these d) None of these
40. The devices that are used to command the data to the computer are known as
a) Output Devices b) Input Devices c) Storage Device d) Software
41. Type of computer program that performs a specific function are called
a) Software b) Hardware c) Application Software d) System Software
42. Input, processing, output and storage are collectively referred to as:
a) Information Processing Cycle b) Software Life Cycle
c) Hardware Life Cycle d) Information Technology
43. Which one of the following is not considered as a system software?
a) Assembler b) Interpreter c) Compiler d) Tally
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44. ICT Stands for:
a) Information & Communication Technology b) Integrated Circular Technology
c) Intensive Computer Techniques d) Interfacing Computer Theories
45. They are the devices that process the input signal.
a) Transmitters b) Transmission Channel
c) Receiver d) None of these
46. It is the medium which sends the signal from source to destination.
a) Transmitters b) Transmission Channel
c) Receiver d) None of these
47. They are the devices that receive and process the signal and deliver it to the transducers.
a) Transmitters b) Transmission Channel
c) Receiver d) None of these
48. Light waves have a _____ frequency than radio waves
a) Higher b) Lower c) Equal d) None of these
49. Transmission channel for light waves is an:
a) Coaxial Cable b) Optical Fibre c) Space d) Copper Wire
50. Another name for a supercomputer is a:
a) High Performance Computer b) Mainframe Computer
c) Maxi Computer d) None
51. The name given to a sequence of instructions in a computer language to get the desired
result is:
a) Program b) Decision Table c) Pseudo code d) Algorithm
52. USB stands for:
a) Ultra Serial Bus b) Universal Serial Bus
c) Unlimited Structured Bit d) Unified Status Bus

UNIT-19 & 20 ATOMIC STRUCTURE & NUCLEAR

STRUCTURE
SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. The word atom means
a) Undivided b) Divided c) Large d) Tiny
2. Most of the alpha particles pass without any deflection suggest that
a) Nucleus contains positive charge b) Nucleus contains negative charge
c) Mass of atom is uniformly divided d) Most of the atom consist of empty spaces
3. In an atom, the nucleus when compared to the extra nucleus part is
a) More significant in volume & heavier in mass b) Smaller in volume but heavier in mass
c) More significant in volume but lighter in mass
d) Smaller in volume and lighter in mass
4. Alpha particles passing close to the nucleus shows deflection suggest that:
a) Nucleus contains positive charge b) Nucleus contains negative charge
c) Mass of atom is uniformly divided d) Most of the atom consist of empty spaces
5. Atom consists of negatively charged
a) Protons b) Electrons c) Neutrons d) Photons
6. If an element B has five protons and six neutrons what will be the symbol of element B
a) 6B11 b) 5B11 c) B11 d) 11B5
7. Nucleons are bounded tightly together by the nuclear forces called
a) Quark b) Gluons c) Gravitational Force d) None of these
8. Its charge is equal to electron and it is 1836 times heavier than electron.
a) Proton b) Nucleons c) Neutron d) Quark
9. It is also called nucleons number
a) Atomic Number b) Charge Number c) Mass Number d) None of these
 Page | 24
10. Atomic mass of an element is equal to
a) Mass of protons and neutrons b) Mass of protons and electrons
c) Mass of electrons and neutrons d) Mass of protons only
11. Isotopes have same
a) Chemical Properties b) Chemical & Physical Properties
c) Physical Properties d) None of these
12. The elements with the most isotopes are
a) Cesium b) Xenon c) Both of these d) None of these
13. The neutral atoms of all of the isotopes of the same element have
a) Different Number of Protons b) An exact numbers of protons
c) Exact numbers of Neutrons d) An exact number of nucleons
14. Consider the species 17C35 and 17C37. These species have
a) The exact number of nucleons b) The exact number of neutrons
c) The exact number of protons d) The exact mass number
15. The number of neutron(s) in Protium is:
a) No b) One c) Two d) Three
16. It is the branch of physics that deals with the study of changes occurring in the nuclei of
atoms.
a) Atomic Physics b) Nuclear Physics c) Plasma Physics d) Solid State Physic
17. Who first observed the phenomena of radioactivity?
a) Henri Becquerel b) Newton c) Maria Currie d) Einstein
18. Isotopes above the stability line have excess neutrons. The decay for
a) β- emission b) β+ emission c) Gamma Emission d) Alpha Emission
19. Isotopes below the line of stability have excess protons. The decay for:
a) β- emission b) β+ emission c) Gamma Emission d) Alpha Emission
20. These rays consist of helium nuclei (2He4)
a) Alpha Rays b) Beta Rays c) Gamma Rays d) Sound Waves
21. They are high energy electromagnetic radiations of short wavelength
a) Alpha Rays b) Beta Rays c) Gamma Rays d) Sound Waves
22. They deflected towards the positive electric field.
a) Alpha Rays b) Beta Rays c) Gamma Rays d) Sound Waves
23. The phenomena of splitting matter into positive and negative ions is called
a) Penetration b) Ionization c) Both of these d) None of these
24. The original nucleus before decay is called
a) Parent Nucleus b) Daughter Nucleus c) Stable Nucleus d) None of these
25. Due to release of an alpha particle, radioactive nucleus shows a
a) Decrease of 4 units in mass number b) Decrease of 2 units in atomic number
c) Both of these d) None of these
26. During beta decay radioactive nucleus shows no change in
a) Mass Number b) Atomic Number c) Charge Number d) None of these
27. In beta plus decay, energetic is emitted along with neutrino.
a) Electron b) Proton c) Neutron d) Positron
28. Emission of which particle shows no change in mass number and atomic number
a) Alpha Particle b) Beta Positive c) Beta Negative d) Gamma Particle
29. Radiation coming from outer space is called
a) Outer Radiation b) Cosmic Radiation c) Exoradiation d) Thermal Radiation
30. Iodine - 131 has a half-life of 8 days. Suppose given sample of Iodine – 131 contains 20000
nuclei. So after 16 days, the remaining nuclei in the sample will be
a) 20000 b) 10000 c) 5000 d) 2500
31. The process of calculating the approximate age of an organic matter by using radioactive
isotopes is called
a) Soft dating b) Hard dating c) Age dating d) Radioactive dating
32. It unit is Becquerel (Bq)
a) Half Life b) Activity c) Binding Energy d) Binding Fraction
 Page | 25
33. It is used for the monitoring of thyroid functioning
a) Phosphorus-32 b) Carbon-14 c) Iodine-131 d) Hydrogen-3
34. It is used for the diagnosis of brain tumor and the affected part of the body
a) Phosphorus-32 b) Carbon-14 c) Iodine-131 d) Hydrogen-3
35. In agriculture, it is used to trace fertilizer uptake by plants
a) Phosphorus-32 b) Carbon-14 c) Iodine-131 d) Hydrogen-3
36. Process of splitting a heavy nucleus into lighter fragments with the emission of energy when
bombarded by a slow-moving neutron is called
a) Nuclear Fusion b) Nuclear Fission
c) Both of these d) None of these
37. In nuclear reactors, ______are used to absorb excess neutrons to slow down the reaction
a) Coolant b) Concrete Walls c) Lead d) Moderators
38. The process in which two lighter nuclei are fused to form a heavy nucleus is called
a) Nuclear Fusion b) Nuclear Fission c) Both of these d) None of these
39. Which of the following are least hazardous
a) Alpha Rays b) Beta Rays c) Gamma Rays d) All of these
40. Which of the following are the most dangerous radiation.
a) Alpha Rays b) Beta Rays c) Gamma Rays d) All of these
41. The amount of energy required to break a nucleus into its constituent nucleons is called
a) Packing Fraction b) Mass defect c) Binding Energy d) Half-Life

SECTION ‘B’ SCAN ME

FOR GUESS PAPER
VIDEO

UNIT-10 GENERAL WAVES PROPERTIES

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Write differences between transverse wave and longitudinal waves.
2. Write differences between mechanical wave and electromagnetic waves.
3. Wave motion transfer energy without moving matter. Justify this statement with an example.
4. Define diffraction of wave.
5. What are damped oscillations? How damping progressively reduces the amplitude of
oscillation?
6. Write practical application of damped motion.
7. If the length of a simple pendulum is doubled, what will be the change in its time period?
8. What will be the effect on the period of simple pendulum if there is an increase in its (i) length
(ii) mass?
9. What is the wavelength of a radio wave broadcasted by a radio station with a frequency of
1300 kHz?
10. The waves moving in the pond have a wavelength of 1.6 m and a frequency of 0.80 Hz.
Calculate the speed of these water waves.
11. If 50 waves pass through a point in the rope in 10 seconds, what are the frequency and the
period of the wave? If its wavelength in 8 cm, calculate the wave speed. Explain the type of
wave produced.
12. A slinky has produced a longitudinal wave. The wave travels at a speed of 40 cm/s and the
frequency of the wave are 20 Hz. What is the minimum separation between the consecutive
compressions?
13. Suppose a student is generating waves in a slinky. The student’s hand makes one complete
forth and back oscillation in 0.40 sec. The wavelength in the slinky is 0.60 m. For this wave,
determine period, frequency and wave speed.
14. A simple oscillating pendulum has a length of 80.0 cm. Calculate its period and frequency
when g = 9.8 m/s2.
 Page | 26

UNIT-11 SOUND
SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Why sound waves referred to as mechanical waves?
2. Why sound waves are called longitudinal waves?
3. Why pressure is greater at compression region of longitudinal waves?
4. Why can we not hear the explosives sound produced in the Sun?
5. Can sound travel through solids and liquids?
6. Why is the speed of the sound greater in solids than in liquids or gases?
7. How can we reduce noise pollution?
8. Distinguish between musical sound and noise.
9. Define Audible frequency range.
10. Define Infrasonic and Ultrasound.
11. Why SONAR is used instead of RADAR for determining the depth of sea floor?
11. Explain the working and application of a SONAR.
12. How can defects in a metal block be detected using ultrasound? Explain with the help of a
diagram.
13. How is ultrasound used for cleaning?
14. Calculate the speed of sound in air at 50OC? Given that speed of sound at 0OC is 331 m/s.
15. A person has an audible range from 20 Hz to 20 kHz. What are the distinguishing wavelengths
of sound waves in air corresponding to these two frequencies? Take the speed of sound in air
as 340 m/s.
16. A ship uses ultrasound pulses to measure the depth of the submarine beneath the ship. A
sound pulsing is transmitted into the sea and the echo from the sea bed is received after 40
ms. The speed of sound in sea water is 1480 m/s. Calculate the deepness of the submarine.
17. At night, bats emit pulses of sound to detect their prey. The speed of sound in air is 340 m/s
(i) A bat emits a pulse of the sound of wavelength 0.0080 m. Calculate the frequency of
the sound.
(ii) The pulse of sound hits its prey and is reflected in the bat. The bat receives the pulse
0.10 sec after it is emitted. Calculate the distance traveled by the pulse of sound
during this time.
(iii) Calculate the distance of prey from the bat

UNIT-12 ELECTROMAGNETIC SPECTRUM

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Define spectrum and explain the spectrum of white light.
2. Why red light is used in traffic signals?
3. Write some characteristics of electromagnetic waves.
4. What is electromagnetic spectrum. List the main components of the electromagnetic
spectrum in.
5. Explain positron emission tomography (PET).
6. Write the advantage of X-rays in medical industry.
7. Ultraviolet rays have a higher frequency than radio waves. Can UV rays travel faster in a
vacuum?
8. Compare the properties of ultraviolet rays and radio signals.
a) Which one travels at a faster speed? b) Which wave has a greater frequency?
c) Which wave has a greater wavelength?
9. What is the main source of radio waves?
10. What is the main advantage of using radio waves in communication?
11. Why are microwaves preferred in satellite communication?
12. What type of radiation is commonly used in remote controllers for household appliances?
 Page | 27
13. How do the molecules emit infrared radiations?
14. How intruder alarms help security personnel visualize the thermal image?
15. On what principle do optical fibers work?
16. Reference the daily life application of optical fiber in telecommunication and medical
industry?
17. Exposure to sunlight can damage the skin. Exposure to sunlight does not damage the skin.
State the possible reason.
18. Why ultraviolet rays are used medically supervised control in sunbeds?
19. Describe sterilization.
20. X-rays are used to detect cracks in metals. Explain how?
21. Where do gamma rays come from?
22. Electromagnetic radiation having 15.0 µm wavelength is classified as infrared radiation. What
is the frequency? Given that the speed of light is 3 x 108 m/s.
23. What is the frequency of the 193 nm ultraviolet radiation used in laser eye surgery?
24. Calculate the wavelength of 100 MHz radio waves used in an MRI unit?
25. The distance from earth to sun is 1.49 x 1011 m. How long a radio pulse radiated from the sun
takes to reach on the earth?
26. Distances in space are often measured in units of light years. The distance light travels in one
year. Find the distance in kilometers in a light year?
27. What is the frequency of green light with a wavelength of 5.5 x 107 m?
28. A typical household microwave oven operates at a frequency of 2.45 GHz. What is the
wavelength of this radiation?

UNIT-13 GEOMETRICAL OPTICS

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Define reflection of light? Outline a diagram to illustrate reflection at a plane surface.
2. Express the laws of reflections.
3. Describe the following terms used in reflection through spherical mirrors.
4. Write differences between real image and virtual image.
5. Write differences between concave mirror and convex mirror.
6. Write the characteristics of image formed by convex mirror.
7. Write some uses of convex and concave mirror.
8. Define the refraction of light. Outline the passage of light through a parallel sided glass slab.
9. Express the laws of refraction
10. Which physical quantity remains unaffected when refraction of light occurs?
11. What do you understand by the refractive index of a material?
12. Describe how total internal reflection is used in an endoscope?
13. Write differences between convex and concave lens.
14. Write the characteristics of image formed by concave lens.
15. Describe the power of a lens and its units.
16. Define magnification. Write its formula.
17. Define near point and far point of the eye.
18. What is meant by short sightedness? How can this defect be corrected?
19. What is meant by long sightedness? How can this defect be corrected?
20. Why is a normal eye not able to see the objects put closer than 25 cm?
21. A thumb pin is positioned at a distance of 15 cm from a convex mirror of a focal length of 20
cm. Determine the position and nature of the image.
22. An image of a specimen appears to be 11.5 cm behind a concave mirror with a focal length of
13.5 cm. find the specimen’s distance from the mirror.
23. A convex mirror used for rear view on an automobile has a radius of curvature of 4.00 m. If a
bus is located at 5.00 m from this mirror, find the image’s position, nature and size.
 Page | 28
24. A concave lens of focal length 20 cm forms an image 15 cm from the lens. Determine the
power of a lens. Also, how far is the object positioned from the lens?
25. The angle of incidence for a ray of light from air to water interface is 40 O. If the ray travels
through the water with a refractive index of 1.33, calculate the angle of refraction.

UNIT-14 ELECTROSTATICS
SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Define electric charge. Define its unit.
2. Describe the methods of charging bodies.
3. Define the phenomenon of electrostatic induction with the help of an experiment.
4. Define electric field and electric field intensity.
5. In what direction will a positively charges particles move in an electric field?
6. Describe the concept of electrostatic potential
7. Describe potential difference as energy transfer per unit charge.
8. Provide an example of when static electricity could cause harm as well as the measure taken
to prevent injury.
9. Why do a gasoline truck trailing a metal chain beneath it?
10. What do you mean by the capacitance of a capacitor? Define unit of capacitance.
11. Give some examples of where capacitors are used in different kinds of electrical devices.
12. What is the electric force of repulsion between two electrons at a distance of 1m?
13. Two-point charges q1 = 5µC and q2 = 3µC are placed at a distance of 5 cm. What will be the
coulomb’s force between them?
14. If 2µC charge is placed in the field of 3.42 x 1011 N/C. What will be the force on it?
15. What is the charge on the capacitor, if a 40µF capacitor has a potential difference of 6V across
it?
16. The potential difference between two points is 100V. If an unknown charge is moved between
the points, the amount of work done is 500J. Find the amount of charge?
17. Find the equivalent capacitance when a 4 µF, 3 µF and 2 µF capacitor are connected in series.

UNIT-15 CURRENT ELECTRICITY

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Define electric current. Write its mathematical expression and define its unit.
2. Write differences between alternating current and direct current.
3. Define potential difference. Write its mathematical expression and define its unit.
4. Define electromotive force. Write its mathematical expression.
5. Does a circuit need a potential difference in order for current to flow through it?
6. Define resistance. Write its mathematical expression and define its unit.
7. Explain Joule’s law and the process of energy dissipation in a resistance.
8. What is moving coil galvanometer? Write its principle.
9. What is ammeter? Write its principles.
10. What is voltmeter? Write its principles.
11. When a fuse is used in a circuit, does it control the current or the potential difference?
12. Calculate the potential difference between two points A and B if it takes 9 x 10-4J of external
work to move a charge of +9 µC from A to B
13. The potential difference applied to a portable radio terminal is 6.0V. Determine the resistance
of the radio when a current of 20mA flows through it
14. Resistances of 4Ω, 6Ω and 12Ω are connected in parallel and then connected to a 6V emf
source. Determine the value of
 The circuit’s equivalent resistance
 The total current flowing through the circuit
 The current that flows through each resistance
 Page | 29

UNIT-16 ELECTROMAGNETISM
SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Define magnetic field of induction. Write its formula and unit.
2. Enlist the factors affecting the induced EMF.
3. Explain how an AC generator work in its most simple form.
4. Explain the phenomena of Mutual Inductance.
5. Compile a list of the numerous applications of transformers (step-up and step-down) that can
be found in your home.
6. Why the work done on a charge is zero by magnetic force?
7. If two wires placed parallel, when current following in same direction, what will be happen?
8. What is the angle between 𝐸�⃗ and 𝐵 �⃗ in an electromagnetic wave?
9. Are magnetic lines of force real?
10. What is the source of the magnetic field?
11. Can monopole of magnet exist?
12. What is the direction of magnetic field inside the bar magnet?
13. How do DC motor coils rotate?
14. Can a transformer operate on direct current?
15. A wire in a magnetic field generates voltage. To generate maximum voltage, move the wire in
what direction relative to the field?
16. How can the turning effect of a coil be increases?
17. What is the role of Earth’s magnetic field?
18. A wire carrying 4 A current and has length of 15cm between the poles of a magnet is kept at
an angle of 30O to the uniform field of 0.8 T. Find the force acting on the wire?
19. A square loop of wire of side 2.0 cm carries 2.0 A of current. A uniform magnetic field of
magnitude 0.7 T makes an angle of 30O with the plane of the loop. What is the magnitude of
torque on the loop?
20. A transformer is needed to convert a mains 220 V supply into a 12 V supply. If there are 2200
turns on the primary coil, then find the number of turns on the secondary coil.

UNIT-17 & 18 INTRODUCTORY ELECTRONICS &

INFORMATION & COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY
SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Write some advantages of Digital electronics (devices) over analogue electronics devices.
2. Define the role of vacuum tube in electronics.
3. Write difference between Analogue and Digital Signals
4. What are the functions of DAC and ADC?
5. Explain Thermionic emission. Demonstrate the process of thermionic emission by diagram?
6. What are cathode rays? Write some properties of cathode rays.
7. What makes the cathode give off electrons? Why the cathode repel electrons?
8. Will there be any change in the properties of cathode rays if the gas in the tube or the metal
used as cathode is changed?
9. Explain what makes the electrons accelerate from the cathode towards the anode?
10. What happens to the energy and speed of electron beam when it passes through an electric
field?
11. How the beam of electron produced by the electron gun can be directed to a specific target?
12. Is there any change occurs in the direction of an electron beam when it passes through a
magnetic field?
13. What happens to the energy and speed of electron beam when it passes through a magnetic
field?
 Page | 30
14. Give any three effects of deflection of electron beam by a magnetic field.
15. Define the following: Input device, Output Device, System Software and Application software.
16. What is the difference between hardware and software? Name different software.
17. Differentiate between the primary memory and the secondary memory.
18. What is the difference between RAM and ROM memories?
19. What do you understand by the term word processing and data managing?

UNIT-19 & 20 ATOMIC STRUCTURE & NUCLEAR

STRUCTURE
SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Why it was proposed that most atoms possess an empty space.
2. Define Atomic Nucleus. Which particles are found in the nucleus of an atom?
3. Define Atomic Number (Z) and Mass Number (A).
4. What is the isotope? Explain isotope with an example.
5. Why are the chemical properties of an element’s different isotopes identical?
6. How does the number of protons in a nucleus distinguish one element from the other?
7. List the physical properties of different isotopes of an element that are different.
8. Define the term Radioactivity.
9. Define radioactive elements.
10. Write some important properties of alpha rays.
11. Write some important properties of beta rays.
12. Write some important properties of gamma rays.
13. Define Ionization and penetrating power.
14. The uranium isotope 92U238 with atomic mass (nucleo number) 238 and atomic number 92.
a) State the nucleon number.
b) Uranium-238 nuclide decays to form a thorium nuclide (symbol Th) by the emission
of an alpha particle. State
 The proton number of an alpha particle
 The nucleon number of an alpha particle
 The proton number of thorium
 The nucleon number of thorium isotopes formed.
c) Complete the nuclear equation of the uranium decay.
15. Write a short note on background radiation.
16. What do you understand by the half-life of a radioactive element?
17. Explain Radioactive Dating.
18. Define Nuclear Fission Reaction with an example.
19. What do you mean by chain reaction?
20. How nuclear fission chain reaction is make controllable in reactors.
21. When a slow-moving neutron hits a 92U235 nucleus, it splits into the nucleus of barium 56Ba141
and nucleus of Krypton 36K92 and emits three neutrons energy is released
92U + 0n1  92U236  56Ba141 + 36Kr92 + 30n1 + energy
235

a) State name of the nuclear process

b) Which of the two isotopes of U-235 and U-236 have a shorter half life
c) How can we make radioisotopes artificially? Describe a suitable example.
d) For the given process, state its one application in our daily lives.
22. Explain Nuclear Fusion reaction with an example.
23. The reaction that takes place at the center of the sun can be represented as
21P1 + 20n1  2He4 + energy
a) State the name of this type of reaction
b) Also define the reaction
 Page | 31
c) A nuclear fusion reaction is a more reliable and sustainable energy source than
nuclear fission chain reaction. Justify this statement with suitable arguments.
24. What are the common radiation hazards?
25. Why is an alpha source more harmful when lodged into the body?
26. Which type of radiation is more hazardous than other radiations? Explain why?
27. Describe briefly the safety that are taken against radiation hazards.
28. A living plant contains approximately the same isotopic abundance of C-14 as does
atmospheric Carbon dioxide. The observed rate of decay of C-14 from a living plant is 15.3
disintegrations per minute per gram of carbon. How much disintegration per minute per gram
of carbon will be measured from a 12900-year-old sample? (The half-life of C-14 is 5730 years).
29. The smallest C-14 activity that can be measured is about 0.20%. If C-14 is used to date an
object, the object must have dies within how many years?
30. How long will it take for 25% of the C-14 atoms in a sample of C-14 to decay?

SECTION ‘C’ SCAN ME

FOR GUESS PAPER
VIDEO

UNIT-10 GENERAL WAVES PROPERTIES

SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. What are the different characteristics of waves?
2. Derive a relationship between velocity, frequency and wavelength of a wave. Write a
formula relating velocity of a wave to its time period and wavelength.
3. Does increasing the frequency of a wave also increase its wavelength? If not, how are these
quantities related?
4. Define reflection of wave. Explain it with the help of an experiment.
5. Define refraction of wave. Explain it with the help of an experiment.
6. What is simple harmonic motion? What are the necessary conditions for a body to execute
simple harmonic motion?
7. Prove that motion of a simple pendulum executes simple harmonic motion.
8. Prove that motion ball placed in a bowl execute simple harmonic motion.

UNIT-11 SOUND
SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. What is the effect of temperature and humidity on the speed of sound wave?
2. Define musical sound. Explain the characteristics of musical sound.
3. Define Echo. Explain the conditions necessary for hearing an echo.

UNIT-12 ELECTROMAGNETIC SPECTRUM

SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. What is electromagnetic spectrum. List the main components of the electromagnetic
spectrum in decreasing order of their wavelength and explain each of them in detail.

UNIT-13 GEOMETRICAL OPTICS

SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Write the characteristics of image formed by concave mirror when object is placed in different
positions.
 Page | 32
2. What do you understand by the term total internal reflection? State the conditions required
for total.
3. Write the characteristics of image formed by convex lens.
4. What is a projector? Explain its working.
5. What is a photographic enlarger? Explain its working.
6. What is simple microscope? With the help of a ray diagram, explain its working and give the
magnifying power of it.
7. What is compound microscope? With the help of a ray diagram, explain its working and give
the magnifying power of it.
8. What is refracting telescope? With the help of a ray diagram, explain its working and give the
magnifying power of it.

UNIT-14 ELECTROSTATICS
SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Explain how an electroscope is built and how it operates.
2. State and explain the Coulomb’s law.
3. Describe how the capacitor works as a device that stores electrical charges.
4. What is series combination of capacitors? Write its characteristics and derive the formula for
the equivalent capacitance for series combination.
5. What is parallel combination of capacitors? Write its characteristics and derive the formula
for the equivalent capacitance for parallel combination.

UNIT-15 CURRENT ELECTRICITY

SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Describe Ohm’s law and its limitations
2. Explain what influences the resistance of a metal conductor and how you measured it.
3. What is series combination of resistors. Determine the effective resistance of a number of
resistances that are connected in series and write advantages and disadvantages of series
combintaion.
4. What is parallel combination of resistors. Determine the effective resistance of a number of
resistances that are connected in parallel and write advantages and disadvantages of parallel
combintaion.
5. Define some important electrical components of circuit.
6. Define electric power and power dissipation.

UNIT-16 ELECTROMAGNETISM
SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. State that a current carrying coil in a magnetic field will experience a torque.
2. Explain that the direction of an induced EMF opposes the change causing it and relate this
phenomenon to conservation of energy.
3. What is a transformer? Recognize that a transformer is based on the concept of mutual
induction
4. Explain how force work on an isolated charge moving in a uniform magnetic field.
5. Explain how a force work on a current carrying conductor that is perpendicular to the
magnetic field.
6. Explain the phenomena of Electromagnetic Induction. Write Faraday’s Law of electromagnetic
 Page | 33

UNIT-17 & 18 INTRODUCTORY ELECTRONICS &

INFORMATION & COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY
SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. State and explain the phenomenon of the production of an electron beam by an electron gun?
2. Is there any change occurs in the direction of an electron beam when it passes through an
electric field?
3. Demonstrate by a diagram the deflection of electron beam by an electric field.
4. What is Cathode Ray Oscilloscope? Explain how the beam of electrons is produced inside the
cathode ray oscilloscope. Explain the function of different parts of a cathode ray oscilloscope.
5. Define Logic Gates. Explain AND gate and OR gate with the help of truth table and draw their
diagram.
6. Explain NOT gate, NAND gate and NOR with the help of truth table and draw their diagram.
7. Give some examples of LOGIC GATES.
8. What are the components of information technology? Clearly indicate the function of each
component.
9. Write a short note on flow of information.
10. Explain briefly the transmission of radio waves through space.
11. What is computer? What is the role of computer in everyday life?
12. Explain the two main services provided by the internet.

UNIT-19 & 20 ATOMIC STRUCTURE & NUCLEAR

STRUCTURE
SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Cite the Geiger Marsden experiment with the help of a diagram. Give the Rutherford Model
of an atom.
2. What is nuclear Transmutation? Explain Alpha decay, beta decay and gamma decay.
3. What are radioactive isotopes? Write some of its applications.

BOARD OF SECONDARY EDUCATION KARACHI

SCAN ME MODEL QUESTIONS PAPER
FOR
MODEL PAPER S.S.C. (ANNUAL) EXAMINATIONS 2023
SOLUTION
PHYSICS (THEORY) PAPER-I
Time: 3 Hours CLASS X (Science Group) Max Marks: 60
SECTION “A” (MCQ’S – MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
Q1: Choose the correct answer from the given options: (12)
i. Which of the following devices can be used to produce both transverse and longitudinal
waves?
a) A string b) A ripple tank c) A Slinky spring d) A tuning fork
ii. Time period of a simple pendulum is given by:
� � �
a) 𝑇 = 2𝜋� b) 𝑇 = 2𝜋� c) 𝑇 = 2𝜋� d) None of these
� � �

iii. Speed of sound at 25OC is:

a) 346 m/s b) 360 m/s c) 331 m/s d) 400 m/s
 Page | 34
iv. Ultrasounds are used in _______to create moving images of the heart walls.
a) Ultrasonography b) SONAR
c) RADAR d) Echocardiography
v. A __________ image can be obtained on a screen.
a) Real b) Virtual c) Both d) None of these
vi. When distance between two charges double, the electrostatic force between them would
be:
a) Double b) Remain same c) One forth d) One third
vii. Electric Lines of force originate from:
a) Positive charge b) Negative charge c) Both charges d) None of these
viii. Ohm’s law states that
a) Resistance increases as current increases b) Resistance decreases as current increases
c) Resistance increases as voltage increases d) Current increases as voltage increases
ix. Unit of magnetic field intensity is:
a) Ampere b) Tesla c) Weber d) None of these
x. Coil having current passing through it is called
a) Primary coil b) Secondary coil c) Neutral Coil d) None of these
xi. Analogue signals can be represented by a:
a) Sine wave b) Parabolic path c) Square wave d) Linear wave
xii. Mass number of an element is equal to:
a) Mass of protons and neutrons b) Mass of protons and electrons
c) Mass of electrons and neutrons d) Mass of protons only

SECTION “B” (SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS) (24)

NOTE: Answer any Eight (08) questions from this section. Each carries 03 marks.
Q2. What is wave front? Write its two types.
Q3. Write down three differences between Musical Sound and Noise.
Q4. What are Radio waves, how radio waves are produced? Write its one use in
Telecommunication.
Q5. Why does a Proton have a positive charge?
Q6. Write down any three daily life applications of Transformer.
Q7. What do you mean by storage device? Name any two storage devices.
Q8. How long will it take to decay for 36.0 mg of Ra-226 to leave 4.5 mg. the half-life of the isotope
is 1600 years.
Q9. Define Atomic mass. Also find Number of protons and Neutron in Lithium (3Li7).
Q10. How much voltage will be dropped across a 50 KΏ resistance whose current is 300μA.
Q11. Calculate the force acting on a charge of 3μC, when the electric field intensity is 5N/C
Q12. What is the frequency of 193 nm ultraviolet radiation used in laser eye surgery?
Q13. An image of a specimen appears to be 11.5cm behind a concave mirror with a focal length of
13.5 cm. Find the specimen’s distance from the mirror.

SECTION “C” (DETAILED-ANSWER QUESTIONS) (24)

NOTE: Answer any Four (04) questions from this section. Each carries 06 marks.
Q14. What is cathode ray Oscilloscope? Also describe the basic principle and working with
diagram.
Q15. What are Ultra Sounds? Explain two applications of Ultra Sound that are used in Hospital.
Q16. Describe the construction and working of Projector with the help of ray diagram.
Q17. Describe Rutherford’s experiment for the separation of Radioactive rays.
Q18. Describe turning effect on a current caring coil in a magnetic field with diagram.
��
Q19. What is an electric Power? Derive and explain Power dissipation in a resistor (Derive 𝑃 = )
�
 Page | 35

X-BIOLOGY GUESS PAPER

SECTION ‘A’ SCAN ME
FOR GUESS PAPER
VIDEO

CHAPTER-1 GASEOUS EXCHANGE

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. The process of taken air in and out of the body is called
a) Respiration b) Gaseous Exchange c) Breathing d) None of these
2. Which of the following is a biomechanical process
a) Breathing b) Gaseous Exchange c) Respiration d) Both a and b
3. Respiratory surface possesses following property:
a) Thin and wet b) Permeable c) Very large d) All of these
4. In unicellular organisms, which of the following serve as respiratory surface:
a) Endoplasmic Reticulum b) Nucleus
c) Cytoplasm d) Plasma Membrane
5. The respiratory surface of human is:
a) Nostril b) Bronchiole c) Alveoli d) Trachea
6. The amount of molecular oxygen in water is about:
a) 5% b) 10% c) 21% d) 50%
7. Which respiratory medium is better?
a) Air b) Water c) Both of these d) None of these
8. Which of the following is a catabolic process.
a) Respiration b) Gaseous Exchange c) Breathing d) Photosynthesis
9. Which of the following is an anabolic process.
a) Respiration b) Gaseous Exchange c) Breathing d) Photosynthesis
10. Which gas is released during photosynthesis?
a) Carbon dioxide b) Oxygen c) Both of these d) None of these
11. Which gas is released during respiration?
a) Carbon dioxide b) Oxygen c) Both of these d) None of these
12. Each stoma is formed by
a) One guard cell b) Two guard cells c) Three guard cells d) Four guard cells
13. The minute openings through which leaves perform gaseous exchange are called
a) Lenticels b) Root Hairs c) Stomata d) Tubes
14. Which of the following is true for stomata:
a) They contain chlorophyll b) They have thick inner wall
c) They have thin outer wall d) All of these
15. Stomata remains open during:
a) Night b) Day c) Day & Night d) None of these
16. Woody stem and mature roots perform gaseous exchange through:
a) General Body Surface b) Stomata
c) Lenticels d) None of these
17. Plants do exchange of gases through:
a) Roots b) Stomata c) Stem d) All of these
18. Larynx is located on:
a) Lungs b) Trachea c) Bronchus d) Bronchiole
19. In human, there are _____ pairs of ribs.
a) 10 b) 12 c) 14 d) 16
20. Glottis contains a valve called ________ which covers the glottis during swallowing of food.
a) Epiglottis b) Pharynx c) Internal Nostrils d) Larynx
 Page | 36
21. Each lung is enclosed by two membranes called:
a) Peritoneum b) Pleural Membranes c) Pericardium d) Capsule
22. Each lung is made up of millions of:
a) Alveoli b) Trachea c) Bronchus d) Bronchiole
23. The amount of molecular oxygen in inhaled air is about
a) 5% b) 16% c) 21% d) 50%
24. Concentration of which gas remains unchanged during ventilation.
a) Oxygen b) Carbon dioxide c) Nitrogen d) All of these
25. Inspiration involves
a) Contraction of intercostal muscles b) Contraction of Diaphragm
c) Inward movement of ribs d) Both a & b
26. Expiration involves:
a) Relaxation of intercostal muscles b) Relaxation of Diaphragm
c) Outward movement of ribs d) Both a & b
27. During inspiration, the pressure inside the chest cavity:
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains same d) None of these
28. During expiration, the pressure inside the chest cavity
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains same d) None of these
29. Dome shaped muscles beneath the rib cage is called
a) Intercostal b) Fiber c) Diaphragm d) Sternum
30. Increase in rate of breathing is due to the following:
a) Increase CO2 in blood b) Increase O2 in blood
c) Decrease CO2 in blood d) Decrease O2 in blood
31. Breathing is regulated by:
a) Heart muscles b) Mid Brain
c) Thalamus of brain d) Hypothalamus of brain
32. In anaerobic respiration, which of the following is formed:
a) CO2 b) Water c) Lactic acid d) None of these
33. Additional amount of oxygen to get rid of lactic acid is called:
a) Oxygen credit b) Oxygen debt
c) Extra Breathing d) Additional Breathing
34. Which of the following disorder is associated with degeneration of alveoli?
a) Bronchitis b) Lung cancer c) Asthma d) Emphysema
35. Which of the following disorder is associated with inflammation of air passage ways?
a) Bronchitis b) Lung cancer c) Asthma d) Emphysema
36. Accumulation of which causes cramp and pain in muscles
a) Lactic acid b) CO2 c) Both of these d) None of these
37. Streptococcus pneumonia is the common cause of
a) Bronchitis b) Pneumonia c) Asthma d) Emphysema
38. ________ is the main cause of lung cancer:
a) Heavy Exercise b) Virus c) Bacteria d) Smoking

CHAPTER-2 HOMEOSTASIS
SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. The internal condition of an organism is referred as:
a) Homeostasis b) Internal Metabolism
c) Internal environment d) Feedback Mechanism
2. A set of metabolism reaction which maintain internal environment is:
a) Positive Feedback b) Negative Feedback
c) Osmoregulation d) Homeostasis
3. The maintenance of body temperature with in suitable limit is called:
a) Homeotherm b) Thermoregulation c) Osmoregulation d) Heterotherm
 Page | 37
4. Maintaining the balance between water and solute content of the cell is called:
a) Homeotherm b) Thermoregulation c) Osmoregulation d) Heterotherm
5. Removal of extra liquid water in the form of droplets is called:
a) Exudation b) Guttation c) Respiration d) Transpiration
6. Removal of extra water in the form of vapors is called:
a) Exudation b) Guttation c) Respiration d) Transpiration
7. Transpiration takes place through:
a) Lenticels b) Stomata c) Cuticle d) All of these
8. Guttation takes place through:
a) Hydathodes b) Stomata c) Cuticle d) None of these
9. Plants grow near coastal area are called:
a) Xerophyte b) Halophyte c) Epiphyte d) Hygrophyte
10. Cacti is an example of
a) Hydrophytes b) Halophytes c) Mesophytes d) Xerophytes
11. Plants which are found in fresh water either partly or completely submerged are called:
a) Hydrophytes b) Halophytes c) Mesophytes d) Xerophytes
12. Plants which are found in moderate water containing soil are called:
a) Hydrophytes b) Halophytes c) Mesophytes d) Xerophytes
13. Plants which are found in dry places such as desserts are called:
a) Hydrophytes b) Halophytes c) Mesophytes d) Xerophytes
14. Some plants store water in parenchymatous cells of stem or leaves which makes stem or
leaves juicy called:
a) Succulents organs b) Juicy organs c) Reduced stem d) None of these
15. Fresh water unicellular organisms contain which organelle for storing excess water
a) Food Vacuole b) Contractile Vacuole c) Lysosome d) None of these
16. Organisms which has isotonic internal environment with respect to outer environment are
called:
a) Fresh Water Organisms b) Marine Organisms
c) Osmoconformer d) None of these
17. Water which contains low amount of salt is called:
a) Marine Water b) Fresh Water c) Hard Water d) None of these
18. Multicellular fishes remove excess water by passing a large quantity of very dilute urine
a) Concentrated Urine b) Dilute Urine c) Salts d) None of these
19. Water which contains high amount of salt is called:
a) Marine Water b) Fresh Water c) Hard Water d) None of these
20. Organisms of marine water have __________ internal environment
a) Hypertonic b) Isotonic c) Hypotonic d) Mix
21. They do not have osmoregulatory mechanism:
a) Fresh Water Organisms b) Marine Organisms
c) Osmoconformer d) None of these
22. The removal of metabolic waste from the body is called
a) Homeostasis b) Osmoregulation
c) Excretion d) Thermoregulation
23. The excretory organ of earthworm is:
a) Protonephridia b) Metanephridia c) Malpighian Tubules d) Kidney
24. The excretory organ of Planaria is:
a) Protonephridia b) Metanephridia c) Malpighian Tubules d) Kidney
25. The excretory organ of Cockroach is:
a) Protonephridia b) Metanephridia c) Malpighian Tubules d) Kidney
26. The excretory organ of Vertebrate is:
a) Protonephridia b) Metanephridia c) Malpighian Tubules d) Kidney
27. Following are nitrogenous wastes:
a) Urea b) Ammonia c) Uric Acid d) All of these
 Page | 38
28. The excretory compound of arthropods are:
a) Dilute Urine b) Ammonia c) Uric Acid pellets d) None of these
29. The excretory compound of Annelida is:
a) Dilute Urine b) Ammonia c) Uric Acid pellets d) None of these
30. During aerobic respiration, cells produce
a) Oxygen b) Carbon dioxide c) Nitrogen d) Ammonia
31. Lungs help in the excretion of:
a) Nitrogenous waste b) Solid Waste c) Excess Minerals d) Carbondioxide
32. The excretory system of human is also called _______ system
a) Nervous b) Respiratory c) Urinary d) Digestive
33. It passes the urine from kidney to urinary bladder.
a) Ureter b) kidney c) Urethra d) Urinary Bladder
34. It is a thin-walled muscular bag like structure which temporarily stores the urine.
a) Ureter b) kidney c) Urethra d) Urinary Bladder
35. It is a tube which opens urinary bladder to outside the body.
a) Ureter b) kidney c) Urethra d) Urinary Bladder
36. The kidney is enclosed in a membrane called:
a) Pericardium b) Peritoneum c) Pleural Membrane d) Plumule
37. When there is excess water in body fluid, then
a) Kidney reabsorbed less water from the filtrate.
b) Kidney reabsorbed more water from the filtrate
c) It does not affect kidney operation d) None of these
38. Which of the following part of nephron lie in medulla:
a) Distal Convoluted Tubule b) Loop of Henle
c) Proximal Convoluted Tubule d) Bowmann’s Capsule
39. They are the functional units of kidney.
a) Neurons b) Epithelial c) Nephron d) None of these
40. Each nephron has cup shaped:
a) Distal Convoluted Tubule b) Loop of Henle
c) Proximal Convoluted Tubule d) Bowmann’s Capsule
41. Inside Bowman’s capsule, a dense network of capillaries is present which is known as:
a) Glomerulus b) Loop of Henle
c) Proximal Convoluted Tubule d) Bowmann’s Capsule
42. Bowman’s capsule gives out a coiled tubule known as:
a) Distal Convoluted Tubule b) Loop of Henle
c) Proximal Convoluted Tubule d) Bowmann’s Capsule
43. The proximal convoluted tubule descends down into a U tubule called:
a) Distal Convoluted Tubule b) Loop of Henle
c) Proximal Convoluted Tubule d) Bowmann’s Capsule
44. The ascending limb of loop of henle becomes coiled again to form:
a) Distal Convoluted Tubule b) Loop of Henle
c) Proximal Convoluted Tubule d) Bowmann’s Capsule
45. Selective reabsorption in nephron takes place at:
a) Glomerulus b) Malpighian Body c) Convoluted Tubules d) Loop of Henle
46. Most of the blood filtration occurs in:
a) Malpighian Body b) Distal Convoluted Tubule
c) Loop of Henle d) Collecting Duct
47. It is a technique to remove nitrogenous waste from the patients of renal failure
a) Lithotripsy b) Dialysis c) Chemotherapy d) Physiotherapy
48. It is a surgical procedure in which failed kidney is replaced by a healthy kidney from a donor
a) Lithotripsy b) Dialysis c) kidney transplant d) Physiotherapy
49. Organs of human body which is considered the largest organ is
a) Skin b) Liver c) Brain d) Digestive Tract
 Page | 39
50. Blood vessels, nerve receptor endings and sweat glands are present in:
a) Epidermis b) Dermis c) Endodermis d) Hypodermis
51. When body temperature start rises, what happens then
a) Vasodilation b) Sweating c) Laying down of hairs d) All of these

CHAPTER-3 COORDINATION & CONTROL

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. The type of coordination through electrochemical signals is:
a) Nervous b) Chemical c) Mechanical d) All of these
2. This coordination involves the activity of neurons
a) Nervous b) Chemical c) Mechanical d) All of these
3. The activity in relation to changes in environment is:
a) Stimulus b) Response c) Both a & b d) None of these
4. The type of coordination exhibited by Plants:
a) Nervous b) Chemical c) Mechanical d) Both a & b
5. The detectable change in the environment is called:
a) Stimulus b) Response c) Receptors d) Effector
6. They are the group of cells present in the sense organs that receive stimulus
a) Stimulus b) Response c) Receptors d) Effector
7. They are the nerves that carry nerve impulse from receptors to coordinator.
a) Sensory Nerves b) Motor Nerves c) Inter Nerves d) None of these
8. They are the nerves that carry nerve impulse from coordinators to effectors.
a) Sensory Nerves b) Motor Nerves c) Inter Nerves d) None of these
9. Vital functions for survival of animals are regulated by:
a) CNS b) PNS
c) Somatic sub-division d) Autonomic sub-division
10. Which of the following cell has the ability to generate and conduct impulse
a) Epithelial cell b) Muscle fibre c) Neuron d) All of these
11. It is the main part of nervous system that receives impulses and processes it
a) CNS b) PNS
c) Somatic sub-division d) Autonomic sub-division
12. It is the part of nervous system that connects the central nervous system to different parts of
the body through nerves
a) CNS b) PNS
c) Somatic sub-division d) Autonomic sub-division
13. This pathway conduct impulses from receptors to CNS
a) Sensory Pathway b) Motor Pathway c) Both of these d) None of these
14. This pathway conduct impulses from CNS to effectors
a) Sensory Pathway b) Motor Pathway c) Both of these d) None of these
15. The part of brain involved in reasoning is:
a) Fore brain b) Cerebrum c) Cortex d) Frontal Lobe
16. The part of brain involved in balance and precision in movements is:
a) Cerebrum b) Cerebellum
c) Thalamus d) Medulla Oblongata
17. It is the largest part of forebrain
a) Cerebrum b) Cerebellum
c) Thalamus d) Medulla Oblongata
18. It lies above mid brain and associated with heartbeat, blood pressure, sleep, hunger etc.
a) Cerebrum b) Cerebellum c) Thalamus d) Hypothalamus
19. It receives and directs the impulses to the appropriate region of the cortex
a) Cerebrum b) Cerebellum c) Thalamus d) Hypothalamus
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20. The shortest path of reflex action consists of:
a) 1 neuron b) 2 neuron c) 3 neuron d) Many neurons
21. They are sudden involuntary actions of the body in response to stimuli
a) Voluntary actions b) Involuntary actions c) Reflex actions d) None of these
22. The type of lens in our eye is:
a) Convex b) Concave c) Both a & b d) None of these
23. The automatic process of altering focus to get sharper image of near object is:
a) Vision b) Accommodation c) Focus d) All of these
24. The Vitamin necessary for proper vision is:
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin B c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin D
25. A colour blind person cannot see:
a) Anything b) Red c) White d) Black
26. The book “Kitab-ul-Manazir” was written by:
a) Jabir bin Hayan b) Ibn-al-Haitham c) Ali Ibn-Isa d) Bu-Ali Sina
27. The elongation of eyeball results in
a) Hyperopia b) Myopia c) Colour Blindness d) Paralysis
28. Sensory hair cells are present in:
a) Retina b) Cochlea c) Skin d) Nose
29. Which of the following is the smallest bone of the human body.
a) Malleus b) incus c) Stapes d) Ulna
30. Semicircular canals and vestibule help in:
a) Hearing b) Sighting c) Balance of the body d) Coordination
31. The chemicals released from one cell and carried to signal some distant cell through blood
are:
a) Neurotransmitters b) Enzymes c) Hormones d) All of these
32. They secrete enzymes into a specific region of the body through a duct
a) Exocrine Glands b) Endocrine Glands c) Receptor d) Effectors
33. They are ductless glands that secrete hormones directly into the blood
a) Exocrine Glands b) Endocrine Glands c) Receptor d) Effectors
34. Which of the following gland is also called master gland of the body
a) Thyroid Gland b) Gonads c) Pancreas d) Pituitary Gland
35. Which of the following hormone is responsible for the decreases in the level of calcium ions
in blood
a) Thyroid-stimulating hormone b) Thyroxin
c) Calcitonin d) FSH
36. It is located in the abdomen between stomach and small intestine.
a) Adrenal Gland b) Pancreas c) Testis d) Thyroid Gland
37. Male gonads are:
a) Adrenal Gland b) Pancreas c) Testis d) Thyroid Gland
38. Female gonads are:
a) Adrenal Gland b) Pancreas c) Testis d) Ovaires
39. It reduces the inflammatory responses and pain
a) Insulin b) Glucagon c) Cortisol d) Adreline
40. It is also called emergency hormone
a) Insulin b) Glucagon c) Cortisol d) Adreline
41. These are the disorders that are caused due to any disturbance in the blood supply to
nervous systems.
a) Vascular Disorder b) Functional Disorder c) Both of these d) None of these
42. These are the disorders that are caused due to any disturbance in nerve impulse generation
and transmission:
a) Vascular Disorder b) Functional Disorder c) Both of these d) None of these
43. Epilepsy is the temporary recurrent seizures marked by convulsions due to abnormal and
excessive discharge of nerve impulses in brain
a) Epilepsy b) Paralysis c) Diabetes d) Long sightedness
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CHAPTER-4 SUPPORT & MOVEMENT

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. Irritation caused by stimulus is the main cause of:
a) Tropism b) Movement c) Locomotion d) Arthritis
2. Those organisms that have the ability to move from place to place
a) Sessile b) Motile c) Both of these d) None of these
3. The deposition of calcium and phosphate in bones is called
a) Saponification b) Deposition c) Calcification d) None of these
4. The condition in which the vacuole of plant cell get swell due to absorption of water is
called:
a) Flaccid b) Plasmolysis c) Turgidity d) None of these
5. This type of movement is caused by internal stimulus.
a) Autonomic b) Paratonic c) Both of these d) None of these
6. Movements due to external stimulus is known as
a) Autonomic b) Paratonic c) Both of these d) None of these
7. It is the type of movement in which the organism changes its place in response to stimulus.
a) Tactic Movement b) Tropic Movement
c) Nastic Movement d) Autonomic Movement
8. The growth movement of organs in response to stimuli is called
a) Tactic Movement b) Tropic Movement
c) Nastic Movement d) Autonomic Movement
9. It is the movement in which the direction is not related to stimulus direction but instead
dictates by plant structure:
a) Tactic Movement b) Tropic Movement
c) Nastic Movement d) Autonomic Movement
10. It is the hard external covering:
a) Exoskeleton b) Endoskeleton c) Hydrostatic skeleton d) None of these
11. It is the hard internal structure
a) Exoskeleton b) Endoskeleton c) Hydrostatic skeleton d) None of these
12. Which of the following has hydrostatic skeleton:
a) Earthworm b) Human c) Bird d) Butterfly
13. Which of the following is not a function of endoskeleton.
a) Forming blood cells b) Protection c) Movement d) Transportation
14. It help in conserving water
a) Exoskeleton b) Endoskeleton c) Both of these d) None of these
15. Which of the following is function of endoskeleton.
a) Forming blood cells b) Protection c) Movement d) All of these
16. The head of femur attached with:
a) Pelvic girdles b) Pectoral girdle
c) Scapula d) Acetabulum of pelvic girdles
17. How many bones does human skeleton has:
a) 200 b) 204 c) 206 d) 208
18. Which of the following is a part of axial skeleton:
a) Pectoral girdle b) Pelvic girdle c) Femur d) Ribs
19. The largest bone of the body is:
a) Radius b) Ulna c) Vertebrae d) Femur
20. The cartilage are made up of cells called:
a) Osteoclast b) Osteocyte c) Chondrocytes d) Chaonocyte
21. Which of the following is more elastic in nature:
a) Ligament b) Tendon c) Bone d) All of these
22. The band of tough, fibrous, connective tissue which are attached to bone at joints called:
a) Ligament b) Tendon c) Bicep d) Tricep
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23. Which of the following join bone with another bone
a) Tendon b) Ligament c) Blood d) Fats
24. Which of the following muscles are voluntary in action:
a) Smooth Muscles b) Cardiac Muscles c) Skeletal Muscles d) None of these
25. Which of the following muscles are involuntary in action:
a) Smooth Muscles b) Cardiac Muscles c) Both of these d) None of these
26. Striation (Light and Dark Bands) are present in
a) Skeletal Muscles b) Cardiac Muscles c) Both of these d) None of these
27. The large muscles of arm are:
a) Bicep b) Triceps c) Tetracep d) Pentacep
28. The muscle which is responsible to straighten the limb is:
a) Ligament b) Skeleton Muscle c) Flexor d) Extensor
29. The pair of muscle where both work in opposite direction:
a) Antagonist b) Cardiac c) Smooth d) Abductor
30. When flexor contracts, the extensor
a) Contracts b) Relax c) Does not change d) None of these
31. Softening and weakening of bone in children due to deficiency of vitamin D called:
a) Osteoporosis b) Osteoarthritis c) Rickets c) Rheumatic Fever
32. Which of the following vitamin is necessary for calcium absorption:
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin B c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin D
33. The swelling of joints is called
a) Arthritis b) Osteoporosis c) Rickets d) None of these
34. Osteoporosis is more common in:
a) Men b) Women c) Children d) None of these
35. Sometimes immune system attacks the cells of joint. This can lead to
a) Osteoarthritis b) Rheumatoid Arthritis c) Psoriatic Arthritis d) All of these
36. They are the bones forming cells
a) Osteoblast b) Osteocyte c) Osteoclast d) None of these
37. They are the mature bone cells
a) Osteoblast b) Osteocyte c) Osteoclast d) None of these
38. They are the bone dissolving cells
a) Osteoblast b) Osteocyte c) Osteoclast d) None of these

CHAPTER-5 REPRODUCTION
SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. The process which is essential for continuing and survival of species is:
a) Digestion b) Respiration c) Reproduction d) Excretion
2. The type of reproduction which is necessary for evolution is:
a) Vegetative propagation b) Fragmentation
c) Sexual Reproduction d) Cloning
3. Variation is present in this type of reproduction:
a) Sexual Reproduction b) Asexual Reproduction
c) Both of these d) None of these
4. The unicellular structure, responsible for asexual reproduction without fusion is:
a) Pores b) Spores c) Gametes d) Pollen grains
5. The example of stem which run horizontally on the surface of soil to produce vegetatively.
a) Mint b) Ginger c) Onion d) Bryophyllum
6. Plant stem that arise from buds on the base of parent plants are:
a) Bulb b) Rhizome c) Sucker d) Runner
7. Cultivating a new plants with the involvement of human efforts is called.
a) Vegetative Propagation b) Artificial Propagation
c) Sexual Reproduction d) None of these
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8. The outermost whorl of the flower is:
a) Calyx b) Corolla c) Androecium d) Gynoecium
9. The innermost whorl of the flower is:
a) Calyx b) Corolla c) Androecium d) Gynoecium
10. The Opening in the ovule is called:
a) Testa b) Chalaza c) Microphyle d) Embryo sac
11. The cells towards microphyle end are called:
a) Antipodals b) Synergids c) Funicle d) Chalaza
12. The cells towards chalaza are called
a) Antipodals b) Synergids c) Funicle d) Chalaza
13. The reproductive part of Angiospermic plants is
a) Roots b) Stem c) Leaves d) Flower
14. The 3N zygote is angiosperm develop into:
a) Seed coat b) Cotyledon c) Embryo d) Endosperm
15. The ripened ovule is called:
a) Fruit b) Seed c) Seed Coat d) None of these
16. The ripened ovary is called:
a) Ovary b) Ovule c) Seed coat d) None of these
17. The transfer of pollen grain from anther to stigma of the same flower is called:
a) Cross Pollination b) Self-Pollination c) Both of these d) None of these
18. The type of fertilization which is found in Angiospermic plants is:
a) External Fertilization b) Pollination
c) Internal Fertilization d) Double Fertilization
19. The transfer of pollen grain from anther to stigma of the another flower is called:
a) Cross Pollination b) Self-Pollination c) Both of these d) None of these
20. The seed coat has ______ layers:
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
21. The seeds having one cotyledon are called:
a) Dicot b) No Cot c) Monocot d) None of these
22. The seeds having two cotyledon are called:
a) Dicot b) No Cot c) Monocot d) None of these
23. The ripened ovule in which a dormant embryo lives is called
a) Flower b) Leaves c) Seed d) Bud
24. The process by which dormant seed wakes up and start to form seedling is called:
a) Pollination b) Fertilization c) Germination d) Transpiration
25. The type of germination in which cotyledon remains inside the soil is called:
a) Epigeal Germination b) Hypogeal Germination
c) Both of these d) None of these
26. The type of germination in which cotyledon comes above the soil is called:
a) Epigeal Germination b) Hypogeal Germination
c) Both of these d) None of these
27. Which of the following is a necessary factor for the germination of seed:
a) Oxygen b) Optimum Temperature
c) Water d) All of these
28. During unfavorable conditions, amoeba reproduce by:
a) Binary Fission b) Multiple Fission c) Both of these d) None of these
29. During favorable conditions, amoeba reproduce by:
a) Binary Fission b) Multiple Fission c) Both of these d) None of these
30. It is the fastest and simplest mode of asexual reproduction
a) Fission b) Regeneration c) Budding d) None of these
31. The capability of an organism to re-grow its lost part is called.
a) Fission b) Regeneration c) Budding d) None of these
32. The process of developing egg or ovum into new individual without fertilization is called
a) Fission b) Regeneration c) Parthenogenesis d) Fragmentation
 Page | 44
33. Gametes are produced by:
a) Meiosis b) Mitosis c) Amitosis d) Fission
34. The process by which gametes are produced is called:
a) Mating b) Fertilization c) Gametogenesis d) All of these
35. The process by which male gametes are formed is called:
a) Gametogenesis b) Spermatogenesis c) Oogenesis d) Fertilization
36. The process by which female gametes are formed is called:
a) Gametogenesis b) Spermatogenesis c) Oogenesis d) Fertilization
37. The pairing of organisms to collect their gametes at the same place for sexual reproduction
is called:
a) Mating b) Fertilization c) Gametogenesis d) All of these
38. The fusion of haploid male and female gametes to form a diploid zygote is called
a) Mating b) Fertilization c) Gametogenesis d) All of these
39. The type of fertilization in which gametes fused inside the body of female is called:
a) External Fertilization b) Pollination
c) Internal Fertilization d) Double Fertilization
40. The type of fertilization in which gametes fused outside the body of female is called:
a) External Fertilization b) Pollination
c) Internal Fertilization d) Double Fertilization
41. The female gametes are fertilized in the rear end of:
a) Oviduct b) Fallopian Tube c) Ovaries d) Both a & b
42. Testis are packed with tightly coiled:
a) Vas deferens b) Seminiferous tubules
c) Urethra d) Scrotum
43. Testis are hanging outside the body in a sac like pouch called
a) Vas deferens b) Seminiferous tubules
c) Urethra d) Scrotum
44. Sperms leave epididymis through a duct called:
a) Vas deferens b) Seminiferous tubules
c) Urethra d) Scrotum
45. It is a duct that passes sperm outside the body
a) Vas deferens b) Seminiferous tubules
c) Urethra d) Scrotum
46. AIDS is caused by:
a) Virus b) Bacteria c) Fungus d) Plasmodium
47. Which of the following is the cause of AIDS transmission:
a) Un-sterilized syringes b) Unchecked Blood Transfusion
c) Sexual intercourse d) All of these

CHAPTER-6 INHERITANCE
SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. Branch of biology deals with the study of heredity and variation is called:
a) Inheritance b) Heredity c) Genetics d) Evolution
2. Two similar chromosomes in a cell which are similar in shape, size and position of
centromere called:
a) Chromatids b) Arms c) Homologous d) Homology
3. The genetic constitution of a trait is called:
a) Genotype b) Phenotype c) Genome d) Phenyl
4. The physical appearance of an individual is called:
a) Genotype b) Phenotype c) Genome d) Phenyl
5. The alternative form of a gene is called:
a) Loci b) Alleles c) Gene d) None of these
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6. Organism which has both alleles of a gene pair for a character similar is called:
a) Homozygous b) Heterozygous c) Allelomorph d) Hybrid
7. The place of a gene in a chromosome is called gene locus.
a) Loci b) Alleles c) Gene Point d) None of these
8. The chemical material of a chromosome is called:
a) Chromatin b) Chromeres c) Chromonema d) Chromatid
9. The small segment of DNA which has information to code one protein is called
a) Nucleotide b) Polynucleotide c) Gene d) Exon
10. The basic unit of inheritance is
a) Specie b) Cell c) Gene d) Population
11. Chromosomes was first observed by German embryologist:
a) Watson b) Singer c) Walter Fleming d) Mendel
12. Which of the type of chromosome does not present in human.
a) Metacentric b) Sub-metacentric c) Acrocentric d) Telocentric
13. In DNA, Adenine always pair with
a) Guanine b) Cytosine c) Thymine d) Uracil
14. In DNA, Cytosine always pair with:
a) Guanine b) Cytosine c) Thymine d) Adenine
15. The double helix model of DNA was proposed by:
a) Margulis & Schwartz b) Singer & Nicholson c) Watson & Crick d) None of these
16. The basic unit of DNA is called:
a) Nucleoprotein b) Nucleotide c) Nucleoside d) Rungs
17. Nitrogenous base is attached at ____ carbon of sugar
a) 1st b) 2nd c) 4th d) 5th
18. Phosphate group is attached at ____ Carbon of sugar
a) 1st b) 2nd c) 4th d) 5th
19. Which of the following is not present in DNA
a) Adenine b) Guanine c) Cytosine d) Uracil
20. The enzyme used in DNA transcription is
a) RNA Polymerase b) DNA Polymerase c) Oxidase d) None of these
21. RNA contains ______ sugar
a) Deoxyribose sugar b) Ribose Sugar c) Heptose Sugar d) Hexose Sugar
22. This RNA carries information towards ribosomes.
a) tRNA b) mRNA c) rRNA d) None of these
23. DNA contains ______ sugar
a) Deoxyribose sugar b) Ribose Sugar c) Heptose Sugar d) Hexose Sugar
24. Proteins are synthesized by
a) Mitochondria b) Chloroplast c) Golgi Bodies d) Ribosomes
25. Which of the following is known as the father of genetics
a) C. Darwin b) R. Whittaker c) G. J. Mendel d) Bu Ali Sina
26. G. J. Mendel studied different generations of ______ plant
a) Mango b) Brassica c) Garden Pea d) Vinca rosa
27. During gametes formation, Gene pair separated and one gamete receive one kind of gene,
this is called law of
a) Segregation b) Dominance
c) Independent Assortment d) None of these
28. Law of segregation is proposed by:
a) C. Darwin b) R. Whittaker c) G. J. Mendel d) Bu Ali Sina
29. During gametes formation, gene pairs separate and independently assorted, this is called
law of:
a) Segregation b) Dominance
c) Independent Assortment d) None of these
30. Law of independent assortment is proposed by:
a) C. Darwin b) R. Whittaker c) G. J. Mendel d) Bu Ali Sina
 Page | 46
31. The cross between two individuals differing in one trait is called:
a) Monohybrid Cross b) Dihybrid Cross c) Test Cross d) Trait Cross
32. The cross between two individuals differing in two trait is called:
a) Monohybrid Cross b) Dihybrid Cross c) Test Cross d) Trait Cross
33. If the blood contains antigen B, antibody A and rhesus protein, then the blood group will be
a) A+ b) B+ c) A- d) B-
34. If the blood contains no antigen and no rhesus protein, then the blood group will be
a) AB+ b) AB- c) O- d) O+
35. Gene for a trait having three or more contrasting forms are called:
a) Dihybrid Allele b) Combine Allele c) Multiple Alleles d) None of these
36. Gene for antigens has _____ alleles.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
37. Persons having Rhesus factor present in the blood are designated:
a) Rh Positive b) Rh Negative c) Rh Neutral d) None of these
38. The blood group that can donate to all the four groups is
a) A b) B c) AB d) O
39. The blood group that can accept blood from all the four groups is
a) A b) B c) AB d) O
40. Which blood group is the universal donor?
a) A b) B c) AB d) O
41. Which blood group is the universal recipients?
a) A b) B c) AB d) O
42. If Homozygous Blood Group A male marries a homozygous blood group B female, All the
child in F1 carries blood group.
a) A b) B c) AB d) O
43. If both alleles express in heterozygous condition, the phenomenon is
a) Multiple Allele b) Co-Dominance
c) Incomplete Dominance d) None of these
44. If both alleles blended to form an intermediate phenotype, the phenomenon is
a) Multiple Allele b) Co-Dominance
c) Incomplete Dominance d) None of these
45. Inheritance of Blood group is the example of:
a) Complete Dominance b) Co-Dominance
c) Incomplete Dominance d) None of these
46. Flower of Japanese 4, O clock plants shows
a) Complete Dominance b) Co-Dominance
c) Incomplete Dominance d) None of these
47. Which of the following can be the cause of variations
a) Mutation b) Fertilization c) Crossing Over d) All of these
48. The small differences in characters among the individuals of the same species are called:
a) Genetic Variations b) Environmental Variations
c) Continuous Variations d) Discontinuous Variations
49. The sudden and sharp differences in characters among the individuals of the same species
are called:
a) Genetic Variations b) Environmental Variations
c) Continuous Variations d) Discontinuous Variations
50. During meiosis, the non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes exchange their
segments by a process called:
a) Mutation b) Fertilization c) Crossing Over d) All of these
51. The Famous book of Charles Darwin is
a) Kitab-ul-Manazir b) As-Sha
c) Origin of Species d) Evolution of the Species
 Page | 47
52. Change in the characteristics of a species over several generations during the course of time
is called:
a) Variation b) Evolution c) Innovation d) Limitation
53. Theory of Natural Selection is proposed by
a) Mendel b) Whittaker c) C. Darwin d) Lamarck
54. Appendix of man and pelvic bones of whale are:
a) Analogous Organs b) Vestigial Organs c) Homologous Organs d) None of these
55. Flipper of whale, wings of birds and arms of human are:
a) Analogous Organs b) Vestigial Organs c) Homologous Organs d) None of these
56. Wings of flies and wings of birds are:
a) Analogous Organs b) Vestigial Organs c) Homologous Organs d) None of these

CHAPTER-7 MAN & HIS ENVIRONMENT

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. The study of interactions of living organism with living and non-living components of the
environment:
a) Genetics b) Ecology c) Cytology d) Histology
2. Place or area where an organism normally lives is called its:
a) Biome b) Biosphere c) Habitat d) None of these
3. Organisms which are morphologically similar and can interbreed to produce fertile offspring
are called:
a) Specie b) Population c) Community d) Ecosystem
4. Group of individuals of same species living together in the same habitat is called
a) Specie b) Population c) Community d) Ecosystem
5. Group of individuals of different species living together in the same habitat is called
a) Specie b) Population c) Community d) Ecosystem
6. A community with its non-living environment, including land, water and atmosphere,
constitutes
a) Specie b) Population c) Community d) Ecosystem
7. The part of earth and its atmosphere that is capable of supporting life and contains living
organisms is called:
a) Biome b) Biosphere c) Habitat d) None of these
8. 1 The interaction of all the organisms of a community with each other and with their non-
living environment is called:
a) Ecosystem b) Habitat c) Biosphere d) Population
9. All the living organisms of an ecosystem form ________ components
a) Abiotic b) Biotic c) Both of these d) None of these
10. __________ components of an ecosystem are the non-living physical aspects of
environment
a) Abiotic b) Biotic c) Both of these d) None of these
11. Plant captures light energy from sun by:
a) Respiration b) Photosynthesis c) Transpiration d) Transportation
12. It makes vitamin D in human
a) Temperature b) Soil c) Water d) Light
13. Its variation affects the rate of metabolic reaction by affecting the enzyme activities:
a) Temperature b) Soil c) Water d) Light
14. Upper layer of earth which is enriched with nutrients is:
a) Layer b) Hydrosphere c) Humus d) None
15. ____________ is necessary for photosynthesis
a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Carbondioxide d) Helium
16. ____________ is necessary for respiration
a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Carbondioxide d) Helium
 Page | 48
17. It includes all the green plants that can synthesize their food:
a) Producers b) Consumers c) Decomposers d) None of these
18. It includes all the organisms that cannot synthesize their food
a) Producers b) Consumers c) Decomposers d) None of these
19. They feed on dead organisms by converting complex molecules to simpler form
a) Producers b) Consumers c) Decomposers d) None of these
20. They consume or feed upon plants
a) Primary Consumer b) Secondary Consumer
c) Tertiary Consumer d) Quaternary Consumer
21. They consume or feed upon primary consumers.
a) Primary Consumer b) Secondary Consumer
c) Tertiary Consumer d) Quaternary Consumer
22. They consume or feed secondary consumer
a) Primary Consumer b) Secondary Consumer
c) Tertiary Consumer d) Quaternary Consumer
23. Those organisms that feed upon plants are called
a) Herbivores b) Carnivores c) Omnivores d) Decomposers
24. Those organisms that feed upon other animals
a) Herbivores b) Carnivores c) Omnivores d) Decomposers
25. Those organisms that feed upon both plants and other animals are called
a) Herbivores b) Carnivores c) Omnivores d) Decomposers
26. Which of the following is the biotic component of an ecosystem?
a) Air b) Water c) Soil d) Decomposers
27. The different feeding level of organisms in an ecosystem
a) Trophic Level b) Ecological Level c) Biological Level d) Feeding Level
28. _______ is the primary source of energy in ecosystem
a) Fossil Fuel b) Heat c) Sun d) Sound
29. It is a linear sequence of organisms through which nutrients and energy pass as one organism
eats another:
a) Food Chain b) Food Web c) Food Pyramids d) All of these
30. Combination of many highly interconnected food chains is called:
a) Food Chain b) Food Web c) Food Pyramids d) All of these
31. The reduction of energy at various trophic levels can be expressed in the form of a pyramid
called:
a) Pyramid of Energy b) Pyramid of Number
c) Pyramids of Biomass d) Food Chain
32. The recycling of bio elements through biotic and abiotic components of ecosystem is called:
a) Bio Cycle b) Biogeo Cycle
c) Biogeochemical Cycle d) Chemical Cycle
33. The primary source of carbon for living organism is:
a) Fossil Fuels b) CO2 Gas c) Coal d) Coke
34. Plants use carbon dioxide for the formation of carbohydrates by the process called:
a) Transpiration b) Respiration c) Photosynthesis d) Transportation
35. The conversion of free nitrogen gas from atmosphere into nitrates is called:
a) Nitrification b) Nitrogen Fixation c) Denitrification d) Deamination
36. The process of converting nitrogenous compounds of living organisms into nitrates is
called:
a) Nitrification b) Nitrogen Fixation c) Denitrification d) Deamination
37. The process of converting nitrogenous compounds of living organisms into free nitrogen is
called:
a) Nitrification b) Nitrogen Fixation c) Denitrification d) Deamination
38. Air contain 78%
a) Oxygen b) Carbondioxide c) Nitrogen d) Water vapors
 Page | 49
39. _________ is one of the important components of protein and nucleic acids
a) Oxygen b) Carbondioxide c) Nitrogen d) Water vapors
40. Biological interaction among organisms associated with the need for common resources is
called:
a) Predation b) Parasitism c) Competition d) Symbiosis
41. It is a biological interaction where a predator feeds on its prey.
a) Predation b) Parasitism c) Competition d) Symbiosis
42. It is the symbiotic relationship in which both the organisms get benefit.
a) Ectoparasite b) Endoparasite c) Mutualism d) Commensalism
43. It is the symbiotic relationship in which one get benefit and the other neither gets benefit nor
harmed
a) Ectoparasite b) Endoparasite c) Mutualism d) Commensalism
44. They live outside on the body of host:
a) Ectoparasite b) Endoparasite c) Mutualism d) Commensalism
45. They live inside the body of host:
a) Ectoparasite b) Endoparasite c) Mutualism d) Commensalism
46. Increase in the number of people in a population is called
a) Green House Effect b) Ozone Depletion c) Population Growth d) Acid Rain
47. Warming of surface of earth due to accumulation of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere is
called:
a) Green House Effect b) Ozone Depletion c) Population Growth d) Acid Rain
48. Migration of peoples from rural to urban areas is called
a) Urbanization b) Population Growth c) Deforestation d) All of these
49. Undesirable changes in the environment that will harmfully effect life is called:
a) Urbanization b) Green House Effect c) Pollution d) Ozone Depletion
50. Acids rain, greenhouse effect and ozone depletion are the main effects of
a) Air Pollution b) Water Pollution c) Soil Pollution d) Noise Pollution
51. __________ is caused due to excessive amount of noise:
a) Air Pollution b) Water Pollution c) Soil Pollution d) Noise Pollution
52. Ozone layer is formed from _____ molecule
a) O b) O2 c) O3 d) CO2
53. Increase the rate of growth of algae is called:
a) Urbanization b) Eutrophication c) Sewage d) None of these
54. They are the resources which are reusable:
a) Renewable b) Non-Renewable c) Both of these d) None of these
55. They are the resources which are not reusable:
a) Renewable b) Non-Renewable c) Both of these d) None of these

CHAPTER-8 BIOTECHNOLOGY
SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. The earlier biotechnologists were
a) Biologist b) Agriculturists c) Genetics d) Farmers
2. The science of manipulation of living organisms for the welfare of mankind is
a) Biotechnology b) Marine Biology c) Anatomy d) Taxonomy
3. Who coined the term biotechnology?
a) Karl Ereky b) R. Hooke c) Brown d) None of these
4. He convinced the scientific community that all fermentations are the results of microbial
activity.
a) Karl Ereky b) R. Hooke c) L. Pasteur d) None of these
5. In acidic formulation lactic acid produced from:
a) Pyruvic acid b) Acetic acid c) Citric acid d) Glyceric acid
 Page | 50
6. The metabolic process in which glucose are broken down in the absence of oxygen to form
ATP:
a) Aerobic Respiration b) Anaerobic Respiration
c) Photosynthesis d) None of these
7. In acidic fermentation, pyruvic acid breaks down into:
a) Acetic acid b) Lactic acid c) Citric acid d) Alcohol
8. In alcoholic fermentation, pyruvic acid breaks down into:
a) Acetic acid b) Lactic acid c) Citric acid d) Alcohol
9. The container use to grow bacteria on large scale are called
a) Chillers b) Sterilizers c) Fermenters d) Ferments
10. Fermenter optimizes the growth of the organisms by controlling
a) Nutrients b) Oxygen c) Temperature d) All of these
11. Extra circular DNA which use as vector of gene is
a) Genome b) Plasmid c) Pilli d) Ligase
12. The vector DNA and the attached gene of interest are collectively called
a) Recombinant DNA b) DNA c) ligase d) Ferment
13. Which enzyme is used to join portions of DNA?
a) Ligase Enzyme b) Hydrolytic Enzyme c) Restriction Enzyme d) None of these
14. Which enzyme is used to cut portions of DNA?
a) Ligase Enzyme b) Hydrolytic Enzyme c) Restriction Enzyme d) None of these
15. The complete graph of human genome was studies by
a) PCR b) HGP c) Medicine d) Some-clonal
16. _______ are anti-viral proteins produced by cells infected with viruses
a) Insulin b) Interferons c) Beta-endorphin d) Antibiotic
17. It refers to the pure or mixed cultures of algae, yeasts, fungi or bacteria used as a protein
sources:
a) Interferons b) Single Celled Protein c) Fermentation d) None of these

CHAPTER-9 PHARMACOLOGY
SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. The branch of biomedical science which deals with the study of composition, properties,
medical applications and mode of action of drugs:
a) Biotechnology b) Pharmacology c) Genetic Engineering d) Chemotherapy
2. Any substance that can alters normal body function is known:
a) Chemical b) Toxins c) Interferons d) Drugs
3. Chemical substance used in the diagnosis, cure, treatment, or prevention of disease is called:
a) Pharmaceutical Drugs b) Medicinal Drugs
c) Addictive Drugs d) Both a and b
4. Drugs that make person relaxed by feeling pleasure, acting on the CNS and finally person
dependent on them:
a) Pharmaceutical Drugs b) Medicinal Drugs
c) Addictive Drugs d) Both a and b
5. Quinine from cinchona tree is used to treat
a) Malaria b) Cancer c) Rabies d) Pyrexia
6. The pain reliever morphine is made from
a) Cinchona Tree b) Opium c) Microorganisms d) Minerals
7. They are also called painkillers:
a) Analgesics b) Antibiotics c) Sedative d) Vaccines
8. They either kill bacteria or inhibit the bacterial growth
a) Analgesics b) Antibiotics c) Sedative d) Vaccines
9. They are used to induce sedation by reducing irritability or excitement
a) Analgesics b) Antibiotics c) Sedative d) Vaccines
 Page | 51
10. They are used to develop immunity against viral and bacterial infections
a) Analgesics b) Antibiotics c) Sedative d) Vaccines
11. They are antimicrobial substances that are applied to living tissues to reduce the possibility
of microbial infections
a) Analgesics b) Antibiotics c) Antiseptics d) Disinfectants
12. They are the substances that destroy microorganisms found on non-living objects
a) Analgesics b) Antibiotics c) Antiseptics d) Disinfectants
13. He was the first scientist to promote the idea of sterilize surgical instruments.
a) A. Flemming b) J. Lister c) E. Jenner d) L. Pasteur
14. He discovered the antibiotic Penicillin from fungus.
a) A. Flemming b) J. Lister c) E. Jenner d) L. Pasteur
15. They are strong painkillers that bind with the pain receptors present in CNS and reduce pain
a) Hallucinogens b) Narcotics c) Antibiotics d) Vaccines
16. They are the drugs that cause changes in perception, thought, emotion and consciousness.
a) Hallucinogens b) Narcotics c) Antibiotics d) Vaccines
17. They are antibiotics that kill bacteria:
a) Broad spectrum b) Narrow spectrum c) Bactericidal d) Bacteriostatic
18. They are antibiotics that work by stopping bacterial growth:
a) Broad spectrum b) Narrow spectrum c) Bactericidal d) Bacteriostatic
19. It is a material containing weakened or killed pathogens:
a) Antibiotic b) Analgesics c) Vaccine d) Disinfectants
20. The first vaccine was introduced in 1796 by a British physician:
a) A. Flemming b) J. Lister c) E. Jenner d) L. Pasteur
21. Process whereby a person is made immune to an infectious disease, typically by the
administration of a vaccine:
a) Immunization b) Contamination c) Both of these d) None of these

SECTION ‘B’ SCAN ME

FOR GUESS PAPER
VIDEO

CHAPTER-1 GASEOUS EXCHANGE

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Differentiate between breathing and respiration
2. Name five animals which use their body surface for gaseous exchange.
3. Define respiratory surface. Write properties of respiratory surface.
4. Define respiratory medium. Which respiratory medium is better and why?
5. Write differences between photosynthesis and respiration.
6. Why the stomata generally open during day time?
7. Draw a neat and labeled diagram of stomata.
8. Which parts of the plant intake CO2 and give out O2, take in oxygen and give out CO2 during
day time?
9. Draw a neat and label diagram of human respiratory system.
10. Why do we have to breathe through nostrils rather than oral cavity?
11. Draw a chart showing composition of inhaled and exhaled air.
12. Distinguish between inspiration and expiration
13. Why breathing rate increase during exercise?
14. Why do we deep breathe during or immediately after exercise?
15. What do you mean by Oxygen Debt?
16. Write a short note on bad effects of smoking.
 Page | 52

CHAPTER-2 HOMEOSTASIS
SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Define homeostasis. What are the three aspects of homeostasis?
2. Why homeostasis is required?
3. Write difference between transpiration and guttation.
4. Why plants remove liquid water instead of water vapors?
5. How plant survive in saltish water?
6. Write a short note on osmoregulation in fresh water organisms.
7. Write a short note on osmoregulation in marine organisms.
8. What are excretory organs? Name the excretory organs of different animals
9. Draw a neat and label diagram of human excretory system.
10. Write about the structure of kidney.
11. Explain the role of kidney in osmoregulation.
12. Draw a neat and label diagram of longitudinal section of kidney.
13. Draw a neat and labelled diagram of nephron.
14. Why filtration at para tubular capillaries called ultra-filtration?
15. Why skin is considered as excretory organ?
16. What type of structures are present in dermis to perform different functions?

CHAPTER-3 COORDINATION & CONTROL

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Write difference between nervous and chemical coordination.
2. Why the nervous coordination is faster than chemical coordination?
3. Which of the two coordination is better and why?
4. Explain the pathway of nervous coordination.
5. What is Neuron? Explain its structure.
6. What are the different types of neurons?
7. Draw a neat and labeled diagram of neuron.
8. Define Reflex action. How reflex action works by a reflex arc?
9. Why driving license is not issued to a color-blind person?
10. Draw a neat and labeled diagram of human eye.
11. Define Endocrine System.
12. Define Pituitary Gland. Write the names of hormones secrete by it with their function.
13. Define Thyroid Gland. Write the names of hormones secrete by it with their function.
14. Why thyroid gland swells up and give the name of the disease?
15. Define Pancreas. Write the names of hormones secrete by it with their function.
16. Define Gonads. Write the names of hormones secrete by it with their function.
17. Define Adrenal Gland. Write the names of hormones secrete by it with their function.
18. Write a short note on diabetes mellitus.
19. Write some important disorders of nervous system.
20. Define feedback mechanism with types.

CHAPTER-4 SUPPORT & MOVEMENT

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Define the following terms.
 CYCLOSIS  LOCOMOTION  CALCIFICATION
2. Define movement.
3. Define turgidity of plant cell.
4. Define the two types of movement on the basis of stimulus.
 Page | 53
5. Define the types of movement on the basis of response.
6. Define skeleton. What are the different types of skeletons?
7. Write differences between exoskeleton and endoskeleton.
8. What are the main functions of exoskeleton?
9. What are the main functions of endoskeleton?
10. Name the longest and shortest bones of human skeleton.
11. Write difference between bones and cartilages.
12. Locate the cartilages in different organs.
13. Enlist the name and number of bones present in hind limb.
14. What are the different types of joints?
15. Locate the immovable joints in the human body.
16. Locate hinge joint in the body of human
17. Distinguish between ligament and tendon.
18. Draw neat and labeled diagram of hinge joint and ball and socket joint.
19. Compare the three types of muscles.
20. What do you mean by bicep and tricep muscles?
21. Define the following:
 Antagonism  Antagonistic muscles  Flexion
 Extension  Flexor  Extensor
22. What is rickets? Give its causes.
23. Why skeletal system is called a dynamic system?

CHAPTER-5 REPRODUCTION
SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Write differences between asexual and sexual reproduction.
2. How a new plant develops with an already growing plant?
3. How leaves develop into new plants?
4. Define Artificial Propagation. Write some methods of it.
5. Explain the structure of Angiospermic flower.
6. Draw a neat and labeled diagram showing longitudinal section of Angiospermic flower.
7. Draw a neat and labeled diagram of structure ovule.
8. Draw a neat and labeled diagram of male gametophyte of Angiospermic plant.
9. Define pollination and its types.
10. Write the adaptive characters of wind and water pollinated flowers.
11. Write the adaptive characters of insect pollinated flowers.
12. Draw a neat and labeled diagram of monocot and dicot seed.
13. Define germination of seed. What are its types?
14. Write differences between epigeal and hypogeal germination.
15. Draw a neat and labeled diagram showing epigeal and hypogeal germination.
16. What are the conditions necessary for the germination of seed?
17. Define the gametogenesis and name its types.
18. Draw a neat and labeled diagram showing spermatogenesis.
19. Draw a neat and labeled diagram showing oogenesis.
20. Write differences between external fertilization and internal fertilization.
21. Draw and explain the reproductive system of male rabbit.
22. Draw and explain the reproductive system of female rabbit.

CHAPTER-6 INHERITANCE
SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Define the following:
 Genetic  Inheritance  Heredity  Gene
 Page | 54

 Gene locus  Alleles  Phenotype  Genotype

 Dominant character  Recessive character  Homozygous  Heterozygous
 Homologous chromosomes  Heterologous chromosomes
 Parental generation  First filial generation  Second filial generation
2. What is gene and how it works?
3. What are the different types of chromosomes?
4. How can a long single unbroken DNA strand fit into a chromosome?
5. Write differences between DNA and RNA.
6. What are the traits studied by Mendel?
7. State and Explain Law of Dominance.
8. What do you mean by monohybrid cross?
9. What do you mean by dihybrid cross?
10. What is Rhesus factor in the blood group?
11. What is Co-Dominance and Incomplete dominance?
12. What is Incomplete dominance?
13. Which of the phenomena of inheritance is there where both factors express in heterozygous
condition.
14. Define Homologous organs, analogous organs and vestigial organs.

CHAPTER-7 MAN & HIS ENVIRONMENT

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Define the Levels of ecological organization
2. What are abiotic components? Name some important abiotic components.
3. What is the effect of light on ecosystem?
4. What is the effect of temperature on ecosystem?
5. What is the effect of water on ecosystem?
6. Define the following
● Herbivores ● Carnivores ● Omnivores
7. What are trophic levels? Explain different trophic levels.
8. What is food chain and food web?
9. Explain Competition and Predation
10. Explain Symbiosis and its types
11. Explain Parasitism and its types
12. Explain greenhouse effects.
13. Describe depletion of ozone layer.
14. Describe eutrophication or algal bloom and its effects.
15. What do you mean by conservation? Explain how can we conserve our nature?

CHAPTER-8 BIOTECHNOLOGY
SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Why bread has small holes in it? OR Why bread dough rises during bread making?
2. Write some application of fermentation. OR What food and non-food products are created by
fermentation?
3. What types of microorganisms cause fermentation to occur?
4. What are some advantages and disadvantages of fermentation in food processing?
5. What factors can affect the fermentation process?
6. Name some of the fermented food products of Pakistan.
7. What kind of enzyme allows scientists to cut & paste pieces of DNA together to form
recombinant DNA?
 Page | 55
8. Explain how making human tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) in Chinese hamster ovary
(CHO) cells is an example of genetic engineering.
9. Name four recombinant DNA products available on the markets.
10. What is Human Genome Project? What are its objectives?

CHAPTER-9 PHARMACOLOGY
SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Define pharmacology.
2. Define drugs. What are the types of drugs?
3. Classify drugs on the basis of mode of action.
4. What do you mean by antibiotic resistance?
5. Why antibiotics are not effective against viral infection?

SECTION ‘C’ SCAN ME

FOR GUESS PAPER
VIDEO

CHAPTER-1 GASEOUS EXCHANGE

SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Discuss human respiratory system with the help of suitable illustration.
2. Explain the process of ventilation in man.
3. Explain some important respiratory disorders?

CHAPTER-2 HOMEOSTASIS
SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Define the types of plants on the basis of availability of water and salts
2. Describe the urinary system of man with the help of diagram.
3. Describe the structure of nephron.
4. Explain the formation of urine.
5. Describe different disorders of kidney and their treatment?
6. How skin works as thermoregulatory organ?

CHAPTER-3 COORDINATION & CONTROL

SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Explain nervous system and its components.
2. Define Structure and function of human brain with the help of labelled diagram.
3. Explain some major defects of eye.
4. Draw a neat and labeled diagram of human ear.

CHAPTER-4 SUPPORT & MOVEMENT

SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Write a short note on Arthritis.
2. Prove that the skeletal system is dynamic system.
3. Describe the flexon and extension in human arm.
4. Explain disorders of bones and their causes.
 Page | 56

CHAPTER-5 REPRODUCTION
SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Describe different methods of asexual reproduction in protists, bacteria and plants.
2. Describe different modes of asexual reproduction in animals.
3. What are sexually transmitted diseases? Explain some important STDs

CHAPTER-6 INHERITANCE
SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Write a brief structure of DNA OR Describe the Watson and Crick model of DNA.
2. State and Explain law of segregation OR law of purity of gametes.
3. Define Law of independent assortment. OR Explain the inheritance of dihybrid cross
4. Explain Multiple alleles with example.
5. Explain Darwin’s Theory of Evolution.

CHAPTER-7 MAN & HIS ENVIRONMENT

SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Describe biotic factors of an ecosystem
2. Define Carbon cycle with the help of labeled diagram.
3. Explain Nitrogen Cycle with the help of labeled diagram.
4. Explain Deforestation, causes and its effect.
5. What is air pollution? Describe hazardous effects caused by air pollution.
6. What is water pollution? Describe hazardous effects caused by water pollution

CHAPTER-8 BIOTECHNOLOGY
SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Define biotechnology. Explain the scope and application of biotechnology in detail.
2. Define genetic engineering. Write some of its application.
3. Define Fermentation. Define its types.
4. Explain the basic methodology of genetic engineering.

CHAPTER-9 PHARMACOLOGY
SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Describe different sources of medicinal drugs.
2. What are addictive drugs? What are its types?
3. What are antibiotics? What are its types? State some side effects of using antibiotics.
4. What is vaccine? Explain the mechanism of vaccine with the help of diagram.

BOARD OF SECONDARY EDUCATION KARACHI

SCAN ME MODEL QUESTIONS PAPER
FOR
MODEL PAPER S.S.C. (ANNUAL) EXAMINATIONS 2023
SOLUTION
BIOLOGY (THEORY) PAPER-II
Time: 3 Hours CLASS X (Science Group) Max Marks: 60
SECTION “A” (MCQ’S – MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
 Page | 57
Q1: Choose the correct answer from the given options: (12)
i. The respiratory surface of human is:
a) Nostril b) Bronchiole c) Alveoli d) Trachea
ii. Stomata remains open during:
a) Night b) Day c) Day & Night d) None of these
iii. Guttation takes place through:
a) Hydathodes b) Stomata c) Cuticle d) None of these
iv. They are the nerves that carry nerve impulse from coordinators to effectors.
a) Sensory Nerves b) Motor Nerves c) Inter Nerves d) None of these
v. A colour blind person cannot see:
a) Anything b) Red c) White d) Black
vi. Which of the following has hydrostatic skeleton:
a) Earthworm b) Human c) Bird d) Butterfly
vii. Parent bacteria divide into two daughter bacteria; this type of reproduction is called:
a) Multiple Fission b) Binary Fission c) Sexual Reproduction d) None of these
viii. Inner wall of pollen grain is called:
a) Funicle b) Exine c) Intine d) Testa
ix. The place of a gene in a chromosome is called:
a) Loci b) Alleles c) Gene Point d) None of these
x. Algae, Plants, Animals, Bacteria and fungi are ______ components of ecosystem.
a) Abiotic b) Biotic c) Both of these d) None of these
xi. __________ is caused due to excessive amount of noise:
a) Air Pollution b) Water Pollution c) Soil Pollution d) Noise Pollution
xii. Vaccine provide immunity to a disease by stimulating the production of:
a) Antigens b) Antibodies c) Lipids d) Enzymes

SECTION “B” (SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS) (24)

NOTE: Answer any Eight (8) questions from this section. Each carries 3 marks.
Q2. State three differences between Inspiration and Expiration.
Q3. Define Homeostasis. What are excretory organs in man?
Q4. Define the following. i) Myopia ii) Colour blindness iii) Hyperopia
Q5. Draw labelled diagram of Nephron.
Q6. Write any three differences between Cartilage and Bone.
Q7. Name and define common types of Arthritis.
Q8. Define Spermatogenesis and Oogenesis.
Q9. Write three characteristics of Chemical Cycle.
Q10. Define feedback control mechanism of hormonal secretion.
Q11. Draw neat and labelled diagram of Reproductive organs of rabbit.
Q12. Express with the help of checker board Expected ratio in Dihydrid Cross.
Q13. Write about artificial ventilator.

SECTION “C” (DETAILED-ANSWER QUESTIONS) (24)

NOTE: Attempt any four questions each carries 06 marks.
Q14. Draw a neat and Labelled diagram of Stages of fruit formation.
Q15. Describe the structure of Human Brain with the help of labelled diagram.
Q16. Describe the theory of Natural Selection (Darwinism).
Q17. Describe Ecological Pyramid and its types.
Q18. Define Biotechnology. Describe the scope and importance of Biotechnology.
Q19. Describe Nitrogen cycle as biogeochemical.
 Page | 58

X-COMPUTER GUESS PAPER

SECTION ‘A’ SCAN ME
FOR GUESS PAPER
VIDEO

CHAPTER-1 PROBLEM SOLVING

& ALGORITHM DESIGNING
SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. To "bake a cake" is an example of:
a) problem b) strategy c) algorithm d) solution
2. How many possible solu�ons are there for a problem?
a) Mul�ple b) One c) Three d) Two
3. _________shows the logic of program graphically.
a) Data Structure b) Graph c) Algorithm d) Flowchart
4. The diamond symbol represents the:
a) Input/output b) Processing c) Remarks d) Decision making
5. A _______________ is a par�cular way of organizing data in a computer to use it effectively.
a) Data Structure b) Graph c) Algorithm d) Flowchart
6. The elements of a __________data structure are not connected in a sequence.
a) Linear b) Non-Linear c) Both d) None
7. Elements of data structure are not connected sequentially.
a) Array b) Graph c) Queue d) Stack
8. When that data is Pushed in stack, it means that data is:
a) inserted b) deleted c) sorted d) edited
9. Traversing an array means accessing:
a) first element b) last element
c) any specific element d) each and every element of the array
10. ______stores data in hierarchal manner.
a) Stack b) Queue c) Array d) Tree
11. In binary tree, each child can have maximum:
a) one node b) two nodes c) three nodes d) four nodes
12. A type of graph data structure in which nodes are connected by edges which are bidirec�onal
is called as:
a) Directed b) Undirected c) Unified d) Simple
13. In directed graph Nodes are connected by directed edges – they are:
a) Unidirectional b) Bidirectional c) Both d) None

CHAPTER-2 BASICS OF PROGRAMMING IN C++

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. C++ was developed by ___________:
a) Denis Riche b) Bjarne Stroustrup c) George Bool d) None
2. High-level languages have syntax that is:
a) Easily readable by humans b) Easily readable by machines
c) Easily readable by both d) None of the above
3. ___________ is used to create standalone applica�ons which may run on a single computer
or in distributed network:
a) Java b) C++ c) C Language d) Pascal
 Page | 59
4. ________ is the language that is used everywhere but mainly in systems programming and
embedded systems.
a) Java b) C++ c) C Language d) Pascal
5. _____________ Languages are easy for machines to read and hard for humans.
a) High Level b) Low level c) Middle level d) None
6. There are _______ types of language translator.
a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Five
7. All errors, detected by users are typically:
a) Syntax Errors b) Semantic Errors c) Run- Time Errors d) Logical Errors
8. Total __________ reserved words in C++.
a) 90 b) 85 c) 95 d) None
9. A bool data can store following type of value:
a) Numbers b) Strings c) Fractional numbers c) True or false
10. C language is used in the development of?
a) Databases b) Graphic applications c) Word processors d) None

CHAPTER-3 INPUT / OUTPUT HANDLING IN C++

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. Which operator is used for input stream?
a) > b) << c) >> d) <
2. gets stands for _________.
a) get stream b) get string c) get str d) get std
3. getch() and getche() are included in _________ header file.
a) <cstdio.h> b) <conio.h> c) <stdlib.h> d) <stdio.h>
4. Which operator is used for output stream?
a) > b) << c) >> d) <
5. Which of the following operator is used to add the operands.
a) + b) – c) * d) %
6. Which operator is used for logical AND operations?
a) & b) && c) || d) !
7. cout << 12-6/2; what will be the result on screen:
a) 3 b) 6 c) 9 d) 12
8. a=10 ;
c=a+=5;
c= ?
a) 15 b) 10 c) 20 d) None

CHAPTER-4 CONTROL STRUCTURE

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. A computer program is the set of instructions in__________ form.
a) sequential b) Random c) Both d) None
2. Jump statements are also the example of _________.
a) Control Structure b) loop
c) Decision making structure d) All of them
3. Decision Control statements in C++ can be implemented using.
a) if b) if- else c) Conditional d) All of them
4. Using "else" is _______ with "if" statement.
a) prohibited b) advised c) compulsory d) optional
5. Which of the following delimiters are used to create block of statements.
a) < > b) { } c) [ ] d) None
 Page | 60
6. "break" statement is used with _________.
a) if b) switch c) for d) while
7. How many types of loop are there?
a) one b) two c) three d) four
8. "continue" statement takes control to the __________.
a) top of loop b) end of loop c) top of function d) end of function
9. In "goto" statement label is followed by __________ character.
a) colon(:) b) semi-colon (;) c) single quote (') d) double quote (")
10. exit() function is used to _________.
a) close function b) close loop c) close program d) close switch

CHAPTER-5 FUNCTIONS
SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. The functions that are defined by the programmer are called:
a) Built-In function b) User-defined-function
c) Subfunction d) Function
2. A programmer creates a function for a particular task and the programmer wants to include
that function in program. Which extension is required to save that function?
a) .obj b) .h c) .cpp d) .exe
3. In C++, int main( ) returns which data type value by default?
a) float b) int c) char d) double
4. The parameters specified is the function header are called:
a) formal parameters b) actual parameters
c) default parameters d) command line parameters
5. The word "prototype" means:
a) Declaration b) Calling c) Definition d) Both a and b
6. The function prototype consists of:
a) Name of function
b) the parameters are passed to the function
c) The value return from function d) All of these
7. All variables declared in function definition are called
a) Local variable b) Instance variable c) Global variable d) Static variable
8. Which are not the built-In Function?
a) sqrt() b) time() c) exp () d) sin()

CHAPTER-6 DIGITAL LOGIC DESIGN

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. To calculate perform calculation and store data computer user ______ number system.
a) Binary b) Hexa- decimal c) Octal d) None
2. ____________ are the basic building blocks of any digital system.
a) Logic gates b) Digital c) Circuit d) None
3. The universal gate is __________.
a) NAND Gate b) AND Gate c) OR Gate d) None
4. In AND Gate both condition will be _______ to get the answer is true.
a) True b) False c) both d) None
5. A _________ is used to show the NAND operation.
a) ( . ) b) ( + ) c) ( / ) d) None
6. The Boolean Algebra is used for
a) Creating Circuits b) Apply 12 rules of Boolean
c) Simplify Boolean expression d) Differentiate the gates
 Page | 61
7. A.A=0 is a ___________ rule of Boolean Algebra.
a) 1st b) 8th c) 6th d) 10th
8. A+Ā.B=A+B is a ___________ rule of Boolean Algebra.
a) 3rd b) 6th c) 5th d) 11th
9. Boolean expression of the given circuit is:

��������
a) 𝐴 +𝐵 b) B.A c) A.B d) �����
A. B

CHAPTER-7 INTRODUCTION TO SCRATCH

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. Scratch is one of such ______________ language.
a) Programming b) Gaming c) both d) None
2. The feature of scratch is ___________.
a) It is a visual b) Its free forever
c) No need to remember codes d) All
3. A scratch programs is at least made up with ____________.
a) many sprites b) one sprite and code
c) one sprite d) one sprite and backdrop

SCAN ME

SECTION ‘B’ FOR GUESS PAPER

VIDEO

CHAPTER-1 PROBLEM SOLVING & ALGORITHM

DESIGNING
SECTION B (SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS)
1. What is problem solving?
2. What is problem solving strategy?
3. What is the difference between algorithm and flowchart?
4. What are the qualities of good algorithms?
5. List any three advantages of designing flowcharts.
6. With the help of a sketch define: Push, Pop, Overflow and Enqueue, Dequeue.
7. What is the difference between queue and stack data structure?
8. What is the difference between tree and graph data structure?

CHAPTER-2 BASICS OF PROGRAMMING IN C++

SECTION B (SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS)
1. Define C++ Programming language.
2. Write the difference between High- & Low-Level language.
3. Write the Difference between Compiler & Interpreter.
4. Define Compiler, Translator and Assembler.

CHAPTER-3 INPUT / OUTPUT HANDLING IN C++

SECTION B (SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS)
1. Write the basic structure in C++?
 Page | 62
2. What is Comment in C++? Also define its types with example.
3. Discuss the Logical Operator.
4. Define input and output functions in C++. (Atleast Three)
5. All Programs (Related the Topics)
6. Define reserve words.
7. Rules to describe identification.
8. Define Escape sequence with examples?

CHAPTER-4 CONTROL STRUCTURE

SECTION B (SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS)
1. Write the difference between while and do-while loop.
2. Define break statement with example.
3. Write the difference between for and while loop.
4. Define Jump statement.

CHAPTER-5 FUNCTIONS
SECTION B (SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS)
1. Differentiate between Pre-defined and user defined functions?
2. What is the purpose of keyword “Void” in function?
3. Write down the advantages of user-define function in C++?
4. Differentiate between Function definition and user Function declaration.

CHAPTER-6 DIGITAL LOGIC DESIGN

SECTION B (SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS)
1. Define Boolean Algebra. Why do we use them?
3. Explain the purpose of Truth table.
4. Define Basic logic gates & Universal logic gates.
5. Draw logic circuit of the given Boolean Expression. (All Examples).
6. Truth table and simplification of expressions.

CHAPTER-7 INTRODUCTION TO SCRATCH

SECTION B (SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS)
1. Write the difference between sprite and script.
2. What is the difference between online and offline scratch?
3. Define Scratch.

SCAN ME

SECTION ‘C’ FOR GUESS PAPER

VIDEO

CHAPTER-1 PROBLEM SOLVING & ALGORITHM

DESIGNING
SECTION C (DETAILED ANSWER QUESTIONS)
1. Explain Problem Solving Process.
 Page | 63

CHAPTER-2 BASICS OF PROGRAMMING IN C++

SECTION C (DETAILED ANSWER QUESTIONS)
1. List five common high-level languages used and describe their purpose.
2. Explain errors and also its type
3. Explain the components of IDE.

CHAPTER-3 INPUT / OUTPUT HANDLING IN C++

SECTION C (DETAILED ANSWER QUESTIONS)
1. Explain Operators and its types.
2. Write a Dynamic Program in C++ to apply all arithmetic Operators.

CHAPTER-4 CONTROL STRUCTURE

SECTION C (DETAILED ANSWER QUESTIONS)
1. Explain if-else statement with structure and example.
2. Explain else-if statement with structure and example.
3. Explain while Loop with structure and example.
4. All Programs Related Topics.

CHAPTER-5 FUNCTIONS
SECTION C (DETAILED ANSWER QUESTIONS)
1. Define function prototype.

CHAPTER-7 INTRODUCTION TO SCRATCH

SECTION C (DETAILED ANSWER QUESTIONS)
1. Define different components of Scratch Editor.
2. Define few blocks with purpose and example.

BOARD OF SECONDARY EDUCATION KARACHI

SCAN ME MODEL QUESTIONS PAPER
FOR
MODEL PAPER S.S.C. (ANNUAL) EXAMINATIONS 2023
SOLUTION
COMPUTER STUDIES (THEORY) PAPER-II
Time: 3 Hours CLASS X (Science Group) Max Marks: 60
SECTION “A” (MCQ’S – MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
Q1: Choose the correct answer from the given options: (12)
1. How many possible solutions are there for a problem?
a) Multiple b) One c) Three d) Two
2. Defining a problem means identifying:
a) Symptoms b) Real Problem c) Solution d) Factors
3. ________ is the language that is used everywhere but mainly in systems programming and
embedded systems.
a) Java b) C++ c) C Language d) Pascal
4. It is used for multiple-line explanations. Symbols ____________ are needed at the start and
end of the statements.
a) / b) \ c) /*… */ d) None
 Page | 64
5. cout << 12-6/2; what will be the result on screen:
a) 3 b) 6 c) 9 d) 12
6. if else and switch are which type of control structures?
a) assignment b) selection c) sequence d) iteration
7. Which looping process is best used when the number of iterations is known?
a) for b) while c) do-while d) none
8. while loop is also called _________ repetition loop
a) Definite b) indefinite c) both d) None
9. How many minimum numbers of functions should be present in a C++ program for its
execution?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
10. (A + B)(A + C) = A + BC is a ___________ rule of Boolean Algebra.
a) 1st b) 8th c) 6th d) 12th
11. Repeat 10, forever and if … then codes are available in ____________.
a) motion b) control c) look d) sensing
12. In scratch, the character which moves on the stage is called a _____________.
a) Sprite b) Command c) Script d) Event

SECTION “B” (SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS) (24)

NOTE: Answer any Eight (08) questions from this section. Each carries 03 marks.
Q2: Why we make block of statements using braces?
Q3: Write an algorithm to calculate the multiplication and division of any two numbers.
Q4: Write down the purpose and syntax (any three).
do – while, break, cout, switch.
Q5: Define Logical Operators with example.
Q6: Describe Local Variables used in C++.
Q7: Simplify the following Boolean expression. Z = AB + A(B+C) + B(B+C)
Q8: Remove the error(s) from the following statements: (if any)
i) cout << I read in class X ii) if {c < 10}; iii) cin<< abc ;
Q9: What is the importance of flowchart for solving a problem?
Q10: Describe Script Area in Scratch Editor.
Q11. Define the term function.
Q12: Write down the output of the following program.
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int b;
for (b=0; b<=10; b++)
{
cout << “\n” << b;
}
return 0;
}
Q13: What is the use of Scratch Editor?

SECTION “C” (DETAILED-ANSWER QUESTIONS) (24)

NOTE: Answer any Four (04) questions from this section. Each carries 06 marks.
Q14: Write a program in C++ using Arithmetic Assignment Operators.
Q15: Draw the logic circuit of the given Boolean expression.
i. Y = 𝐴BC (𝐴 + 𝐷) ii. X = 𝐴𝐵 (𝐶 + 𝐷)
Q16: Why do we need Language Translator? Describe its types.
Q17: Describe Linear Data Structure and its types.
 Page | 65
Q18: State the function declaration or function prototype.
Q19: Write the use of the following codes of Scratch Editor:
(i) forever (ii) wait (iii) play
(iv) sound (v) goto x, y (vi) say

X-MATHS GUESS PAPER

SECTION ‘A’ SCAN ME
FOR GUESS PAPER
VIDEO

CHAPTER – 17 SETS AND FUNCTIONS

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
i. The set of first three prime numbers is:
a) {1,2,3} b) {2,3,5} c) {1,3,5} d) {2,3,7}
ii. A set which contains all the sets under consideration is called:
a) Universal b) null c) sub d) none of these
iii. Two sets A and B are said to be ___________ sets if they have same cardinality 𝑛(𝐴) = 𝑛(𝐵)
a) equal b) equivalent c) finite d) infinite
iv. The set of odd positive integers is:
a) Infinite b) finite c) subset d) empty
v. The number of elements in power set {1, 2, 3} are:
a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8
vi. Different number of ways to describe sets are:
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
vii. Every set is a _____________ of itself.
a) Power set b) super set c) subset d) none of these
viii. If 𝐴 = {1, 2, 3, 4} and 𝐵 = {3, 4} then 𝐴 − 𝐵 equals to:
a) {1, 2, 3, 4} b) {1, 2} c) {𝑐, 𝑑} d) {1, 2, 3}
ix. (A’)’ =
a) A b) A’ c) 𝜙 d) U
x. By associative property of intersection 𝐴 ∩ (𝐵 ∩ 𝐶) = ____________
a) (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) ∪ 𝐶 b) (𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) ∩ 𝐶 c) (𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) ∪ 𝐶 d) (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) ∩ 𝐶
xi. By associated property of union 𝐴 ∪ (𝐵 ∪ 𝐶) =
a) (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) ∪ 𝐶 b) (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) ∩ 𝐶 c) (𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) ∩ 𝐶 d) (𝐴 ∪ 𝐶) ∩ 𝐶
xii. If R = {(1, 2), (2, 3) (3, 4) }, Domain R = --------------
a) {1} b) {1, 2} c) {1, 2, 3} d) { 2 , 3 }
xiii. The set consisting of all the first elements of each ordered pair in the relation is called:
a) subset b) domain of relation
c) range of relation d) complement of a set

CHAPTER – 18 VARIATIONS
SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. In a proportion 𝑝: 𝑞 ∷ 𝑟: 𝑠, 𝑝 is called:
a) third proportional b) mean c) fourth proportional d) first proportional
2. In a ratio 𝑙: 𝑚, 𝑙 is called:
a) consequent b) antecedent c) relation d) none of these
3. In a ratio 𝑢: 𝑣, 𝑣 is called:
a) antecedent b) consequent c) relation d) none of these
 Page | 66
4. The mean proportional between 𝑎� and 𝑏 � is ____________.
�
a) √𝑎𝑏 b) 𝑎𝑏 c) d) −𝑎𝑏
�
5. If 1,9, 𝑥 and 45 are in proportion, then 𝑥 =
�
a) 27 b) c) 5 d) 405
�
6. If 𝑝: 𝑞 = 𝑟. 𝑠 then 𝑝: 𝑟 = 𝑞: 𝑠 this property is called:
a) compodendo b) invertendo c) dividendo d) alternando
7. The fourth proportional to 3,5,12 is:
a) 20 b) 15 c) 60 d) 36
8. If 2𝑥, 3𝑦 and 6𝑧 are in continued proportion then:
a) 𝑦 � = 12𝑥𝑦 b) 9𝑦 � = 𝑥𝑧 c) 9𝑦 � = 12𝑥𝑧 d) 3𝑦 � = 4𝑥𝑧
9. If 𝑎: 4 ∷ 15: 5 then 𝑎 = ______________
a) 20 b) 15 c) 12 d) 10

CHAPTER – 19 MATRICES & DETERMINATION

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION
i. If m denotes the number of rows and n denote the number of columns such that m = n, then
matrix is called __________ matrix…
a) Rectangular b) Equal c) Square d) Null
𝑖 0
ii. If A= � �, then A² is
0 −𝑖
a) I₂ b) I₃ c) -I₂ d) O
iii. If A is any square matrix such that Aᵗ = -A is said to be:
a) Diagonal matrix b) Scalar matrix
c) Symmetric matrix d) Skew Symmetric matrix.
iv. If A , B and C are matrices of same order then (ABC)ᵗ =
a) Aᵗ. Bᵗ. Cᵗ b) Cᵗ Bᵗ Aᵗ c) Cᵗ Aᵗ Bᵗ d) (Bᵗ Aᵗ)Cᵗ
5 1
vi. Find x if � �= x + 4
2 𝑥
� �
a) b) c) 0 d) None of them
� �
vii. For matrix A, (A⁻¹)⁻¹= --------
a) A⁻² b) A c) A⁻¹ d) A²

CHAPTER – 20 THEORY OF QUADRATIC EQUATIONS

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION
1. For what value of K of the equation 9y 2 + Ky + 16 = 0 that will make the roots equal _______.
a) 565 b) 3⁄5 c) ± 24 d) 510
2 �
2. If b - 4ac = 0, then roots of the equation ax + bx + c = 0 are __________.
a) Real, Unequal b) Real, Equal c) Rational, Equal d) Imaginary
3. If D > 0, and not perfect square then roots ax � + bx + c = 0 are ___________.
a) Real b) Imaginary c) Rational d) Irrational
4. The roots of the equation x � + 16 = 8x are ___________.
a) Real, Unequal b) Real, Equal c) Imaginary d) Rational, unequal
���� √�
5. The square of is __________.
�
���� √� ���� √�
a) -1 + i√3 b) c) 1 + √3 d)
� �
6. The sum of all Cube roots of Unity is ___________.
a) One b) Zero c) 1 d) -1
7. The product of all Cube roots of Unity is ___________.
a) Unity b) Zero c) 𝜔 d) -1
 Page | 67
8. If 𝜔 is the imaginary Cube roots of Unity, then the cube roots of 125 are _________.
a) 3, 𝜔, 3𝜔� b) – 3, - 3𝜔, - 3 c) – 5, - 5𝜔, - 5𝜔� d) 5, 5𝜔, 5𝜔�
9. Cube roots of – 1 are ____________.
a) 1, 𝜔, 𝜔� b) – 1, - 𝜔, - 𝜔� c) 1, - 𝜔, 𝜔� d) – 1, - 𝜔, 𝜔�
10. 𝜔 4 = ___________.
a) 0 b) 𝜔 c) 𝜔� d)1
11. The sum of the roots of the equation px � + qx + r = 0
�𝐪 𝐪 �𝐪 𝐫
a) 𝐫 b) 𝐩 c) 𝐩 d) 𝐩
12. The sum of the roots of the equation ax � + 5x + 3 = 0 will be 10 if “a” is ______________.
�� �
a) b) c) 0 d) 5
� �
�
13. The product of the roots of the equation 𝑎𝑥 – 2x + 7 = 0 is -7 if “a” is _____________.
a) 0 b) Unity c) -1 d) √−1
14. If both roots of the equation ax � + bx + c = 0 may be vanish then __________.
a) a = 0 b) a = c = 0 c) b = c = 0 d) a = b = 0

CHAPTER – 21 PARTIAL FRACTIONS

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
i. An improper fraction can be reduced into proper fraction by
a) addition b) multiplication c) subtraction d) division
�
ii. Partial fractions of can have a form
(���)(���)(���)
� � � � � � � �
a) + + b) + c) + + d) None of these
��� ��� ��� ��� ��� ��� ��� ���
���
iii. Find the partial fractions of � ��� are _________________.
�
�� ��� � ��� � ��� �� ���
a) − � b) + � c) − � d) + �
� � �� � � �� � � �� � � ��
� � ��
iv. is:
(���)(���)
a) Proper fraction b) An improper fraction c) An identity d) A constant term
����
v. The fraction � � ����� is known as:
a) Proper b) Improper c) Both (a) and (b) None of these

CHAPTER – 22 BASIC STATISTICS

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
i. Arithmetic mean is based on the use of ___________ observations of data.
a) Middle b) Extreme c) All d) None
ii. The ungrouped data must be ordered first to find _______________
a) A.M. b) Mode c) Median d) Range
iii. Mode of grouped data is obtained graphically using ____________
a) Histogram b) Polygon c) Ogive d) Bar chart
iv. The A.M. of {0, 90, k, 10, 100} is 40, then k = ________
a) 0 b) 90 c) 10 d) 100
v. The value appears most often in a set of data is called
a) Arithmetic mean b) Median c) Mode d) Average
vi. In a series 0, 1, 4, 6, 7, 9, 12 the median is:
a) 7 b) 6.5 c) 6 d) 9
vii. If the sum of 10 observations is 125, its mean is --------------.
a) 5 b) 50 c) 12.5 d) 75
viii. If S.D of a Series is 4, its variance -----------.
a) 2 b) 20 c) 36 d) 16
 Page | 68
ix. The variances is the square of the _____________.
a) A.M. b) Median c) Range d) S.D.

CHAPTER – 23 PYTHAGORAS THEOREM

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
i. Diagonal of a rectangle measures 6.5cm. If its width is 2.5cm, its length is:
a) 9cm b) 4cm c) 6cm d) 3cm
ii. Which of the following are the sides of a right-angled triangle?
a) 3, 4, 5 b) 2, 3, 4 c) 5, 6, 7 d) 4, 5, 6
iii. In a right-angled triangle, the greatest angle is:
a) 100o b) 90o c) 80o d) 110o
iv. In a right-angled triangle hypotenuse is opposite side to:
a) Acute angle b) Right angle c) Obtuse angle d) None
v. If 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐 are sides of right-angled triangle, with 𝑐 is the larger side, then:
a) 𝑐 � = 𝑎� + 𝑏 � b) 𝑏 � = 𝑐 � + 𝑎� c) 𝑎� = 𝑏 � + 𝑐 � d) 𝑐 � = 𝑎� − 𝑏 �

CHAPTER – 24 RATIO AND PROPORTION

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. In a proportion, the product of means is equal to _________ of extremes.
a) sum b) difference c) quotient d) product
2. ____________ triangles are always similar.
a) right b) scalene c) acute angled d) equilateral
3. The symbol of similarity of triangles is ___________.
a) = b) ≅ c) ~ d) ↔
4. If a line parallel to base of a triangle and divides one side in 2:3 then it will divide other side
in _________.
a) 3:2 b) 2:3 c) 2:6 d) 5:3
5. If a line intersects two sides of a triangle in same ratio, then it is ____________ to other side.
a) parallel b) non-parallel c) coincident d) all of these
6. The corresponding sides of two similar triangles are ___________.
a) equal b) un-equal c) proportional d) None of these
7. If the ratio of two corresponding sides of similar triangle is 5:7 then ratio of their areas is equal
to ___________.
a) 5:7 b) 7:5 c) 25:7 d) 25:49
8. If the ratio of corresponding sides of similar triangles is 2: 𝑥 and that of areas is 4:9 then
𝑥 = ________________
a) 3 b) -3 c) both a and b d) none of these

CHAPTER – 26 TANGENTS OF A CIRCLE

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. If a point is outside the circle then from this point we can draw ______________ tangent(s)
to the circle.
a) one b) two c) three d) none
2. Angle between the radial segment and tangent at its outer end point is ______________.
a) 45° b) 60° c) 90° d) 120°
6. The maximum number of common tangents between two circles touching internally is _____.
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
 Page | 69
7. The maximum number of common tangents between two circles touching externally is _____.
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

CHAPTER – 27 CHORDS AND ARCS

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
i. If a chord of a circle subtends, a central angle of 60o. Then the chord and the radial segment
are ____________.
a) Parallel b) Perpendicular c) Congruent d) Incongruent
ii. An arc subtends a central angle of 45o then the corresponding chords will subtend a central
angle of?
a) 15o b) 30o c) 45o d) 60o
iii. The length of a chord and the radial segment of a circle are congruent, the central angle made
by the chord will be:
a) 60o b) 75o c) 90o d) 45o
iv. Out of two congruent arcs of a circle, if one is making a central angle of 30o then the other arc
will subtend the central angle:
a) 60o b) 90o c) 75o d) 30o
v. Diameter divides the circle into _____________ parts.
a) Two b) Three c) Four d) All of these

CHAPTER – 28 ANGLES IN A SEGMENT OF A CIRCLE

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. Inscribed angle of --------- is obtuse.
a) minor arc b) major arc c) semi-circle d) all of these
2. ---------- is the circular region bounded by arc and its chord
a) Sector b) Segment c) Major arc d) Circumference
3. If 2x and 60° are the measures of inscribed angles of same segment then x = ----------------
a) 120° b) 60° c) 20° (d) 30°
4. The inscribed angle of minor arc of circle is ------------ angle.
a) acute b) obtuse c) right d) reflex
5. The inscribed angle of major arc of circle is ------------ angle.
a) acute b) obtuse c) right d) reflex
6. Sum of opposite angles of cyclic quadrilateral is ----------
a) 90° b) 180o c) 270° d) 360°
7. A parallelogram inscribed in a circle is -------
a) kite b) trapezium c) rectangle d) rhombus
8. The sum of central angles of all the arcs of a circle is ---------
a) 90° b) 180° c) 360° d) 1000°

CHAPTER – 29 PRACTICAL GEOMETRY – CIRCLES

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. Right bisectors of non-parallel ________________ intersect at the centre of the circle.
a) Radial segments b) Chords c) Tangents d) none of these
2. Each interior angle of regular hexagon is equal to ________________
a) 90° b) 108° c) 120° d) 135°
3. A circle which touches all the sides of triangle is called _________________
a) circumcircle b) incircle c) excircle d) tricircle
 Page | 70
4. A circle which touches one side of triangle externally and two produced sides internally is
called __________.
a) circumcircle b) incircle c) excircle d) tricircle
5. The point of intersection of internal bisectors of angles of a triangle is called
a) excentre b) circum centre c) centroid d) incentre
6. If a regular hexagon is inscribed in a circle then length of each side of hexagon __________
radius of the circle.
a) < b) > c) = d) <
7. ________________ common tangents do not intersect the line segment joining the centres
of the circle
a) internal b) transverse c) direct d) vertical
8. If two circles of radii 5cm and 2cm touch each other externally then the distance between
their centres are _______________
a) 5cm b) 10cm c) 3cm d) 7cm
9. If two circles of radii 5cm and 2cm touch each other internally then the distance between their
centres are _________________
a) 5cm b) 10cm c) 3cm d) 7cm
10. Two or more converging lines always intersect each other at _________________
a) single point b) two points c) more than one point d) none of these

CHAPTER – 30 INTRODUCTION TO TRIGONOMETRY

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
i. The system of measurement in which angle is measured in radian is called:
a) CGS system b) Sexagesimal c) MKS system d) circular system
ii. 10° = _____________
a) 600” b) 3600” c) 600’ d) 600
�
iii. 5 radians = ____________
�
a) 115° b) 225° c) 135° d) 45°
iv. The conversion of 10°30’ in radian measure is ____________.
��
a) 56 𝜋 b) �� c) 30° d) 210°
v. 1° is equal to ____________.
a) 0.01475 rad b) 0.01754 rad c) 0.01745 rad d) 0.01545 rad
vi. 0° = _____________ radians.
� ���
a) b) c) Zero d) 𝜋
��� �
�
vii. - radians = ___________ degree
�
a) 60° b) -60° c) 30° d) -30°
viii. What is the value of θ, if S = 30.2 cm and r = 2 cm.
�
a) 15.1 rad b) c) 30° d) 210 cm
�
�
ix. Find the sign of Tan �− � � ____________.
a) + v E b) – v E c) False d) None of these
x. All trigonometric functions are positive in ____________ quadrant.
a) 1st b) 2nd c) 3rd d) 4th
xi. sec � θ − tan� θ = ________________
a) 0 b) 1 c) –1 d) cos� θ
xii. (1 + tan� θ) (1 - Sin� θ) = _____________.
a) 1 b) -1 c) Sin θ d) Cos θ
xiii. If an object is above the level of an observer than angle formed between the horizontal line
and observer’s line of sight is called:
a) an angle of depression b) an angle of elevation
c) an obtuse angle d) None of these
 Page | 71

SECTION ‘B’ SCAN ME

FOR GUESS PAPER
VIDEO

CHAPTER – 17 SETS AND FUNCTIONS

SECTION B
Q1. Write power set of 𝐴 = {5,10,15}
Q2. If 𝑈 = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}, 𝐴 = {1,3,5,7,9} and 𝐵 = {2,4,6,8}. Prove De-Morgan’s Law.
Q3. If 𝐴 = {𝑎, 𝑏} and 𝐵 = {𝑐, 𝑑} then prove 𝐴 × 𝐵 ≠ 𝐵 × 𝐴.
Q4. Find 𝑥, 𝑦 if (3 − 2𝑥, 𝑦 − 1) = (𝑥 − 7, 2𝑦 + 5)
Q5. If 𝑃 = {𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐, }, {𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧}𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑅 = {𝑝, 𝑞, 𝑟, 𝑠} the find;
i. A function f from P into Q.
ii. A function g from R onto P.
iii. A function h from P to R which is injective.
iv. A function k from Q to P which is injective.
Q6. Find the power set of {a, b, c, d}
Q7. If M = {1, 2}, and N = {3}, find all binary relations in M × N
Q8. If A = {1,2,3,4} and B = {2,3,4,5}
Q9. Identify which one of the following is a function from A to B also define type of a function.
i) R1 = {(1,2), (2,3), (3,4)}
ii) R2 = {(1,2), (2,3), (3,4), (4,5)}
iii) R3 = {(1,2), (2,3), (3,4), (4,4)}
iv) R4 = {(1,2), (2,3), (3,4), (4,5)}
Q10. If A = {1,2,3} and B = {2,3,4}, find
i) A function ‘f’ from A into B
ii) A function ‘f’ from A onto B
Q11. Spelling “Matrices and determinants” correction.

CHAPTER – 18 VARIATIONS
SECTION B
1. Find the value of ‘a’ if the ratios 3a + 4: 2a + 5 and 4:3 are equal
2. If F varies directly an m³ when m=3 and F=81, find F when m=5.
3. If y varies inversely as x and y=10 when x=3, find y when x=10.
4. Solve the following equation by using componendo- dividend theorem.
(���)� �(���)² � √����√��� �
i) (���)²�(���)² = �
ii) =�
√����√���
5. If a : b = c : d = e : f then show that:
� � �²��² �²�� � � �⁴ �� �� �� �² �² �²
i) = iii) + + = + +
�� ��² �²��⁵ �⁴ �� �� �� �² �² �²
Q6. Labour cost C varies jointly as the number of worker ‘n’ and the average number of days, if
the cost of 100 worker for 15 days is 9000, then find the labour cost of 300 workers for 20
days.

CHAPTER – 19 MATRICES & DETERMINATION

SECTION B
8 2 −1 1 4 −4
Q1. Show that AB ≠ BA when A= �2 1 2 � and B= �2 5 7 �.
2 3 0 0 4 −3
 Page | 72
𝑎 𝑏 3 −1 1 0
Q2. If � �+� �=� �, then find a, b, c and d.
𝑐 𝑑 1 0 0 1
Q3. Evaluate each of the following determinants:
−3 4 −5 4 3 −5 −2 0 0
(i) � 2 −3 −5� (ii) �−5 −1 −5� (iii) �−6 𝑥 1 �
1 3 5 2 4 4 −4 0 −1
3 6
Q4. Find inverse if exist 𝐵 = � �
5 10
Q5. Find the solution by matrix inversion method and cramer’s rule:
(i) 2x – 4y= -12
2y + 3x =0

CHAPTER – 20 THEORY OF QUADRATIC EQUATIONS

SECTION B
Q1. Determine the value of m in the following quadratic equations that will make the
roots equal. (m+1) x² + 2(m+3) x + (2m+3) = 0, provided m≠ -1
Q2. Show that the roots of the following quadratic equations are real.
�
x²-2x�𝑘 + �x + 3=0, ∀ 𝑘 ∈ ℝ − {0}
�
Q3. Show that the roots of the quadratic equation given by (x-a)(x-b)+(x-b)(x-c)+(x-c)(x-a)=0 are
real and they cannot be equal unless a=b=c.
Q4. Find all the cube roots of:
(i) 64 (ii) –125
Q5. Evaluate the following:
(i) (1+𝜔²)⁴ (ii) (1 − 𝜔 + 𝜔²)(1 + 𝜔 − 𝜔²)
�
Q6. Find the value of m, if Sum of the roots of the equation x²+(3m-7) x +5m=0 is times the
�
product of its roots.
Q7. Find the value of m, if The roots of the equation x² -5x +2m =0 differ by 1.
Q8. Find the value of k, if The roots of the equation on 5𝑥 � − 7𝑥 + 𝑘 − 2 = 0 satisfy the
relation 2𝑎 + 5𝛽 = 1
� �
Q9. If a,𝛽 are the roots of the equation px² + qx + q = 0, p ≠ 0, find the value of � + �
� �
Q10. Solve the following systems of equations:
1. 2x – y = 3 and x² + y² = 2
� �
2. + =2 and 4x + 3y = 25
� �
3. x² + y² = 25 and (4x – 3y)(x – y – 5) = 0
4. x² + y² = 5 and xy = 2
Q11. If a,𝜷 are the roots of the equation 6x² - 3x = 1=0. From the equations whose roots are:
� � � �
(i) a∝ + 1 , 2𝛽 + 1 (ii) , (iii) a + 𝛽, � + �
� �

CHAPTER – 21 PARTIAL FRACTIONS

SECTION B
Resolve the following into partial fractions
�� �(���) � � �����
1. 2. 3.
� � �� � � ����� �(���)(���)

CHAPTER – 22 BASIC STATISTICS

SECTION B
1. Plot histogram, relative frequency polygon, and ogive for the following data.
 Page | 73

Class limits 10.5-10.9 11.0-11.4 11.5-11.9 12.0-12.9 13.0-13.4

Frequencies 2 7 10 12 8
2. The daily earnings for ten workers in Rs. Are: 188, 170, 172, 125, 115, 195, 181, 190, 195,
190. Find A.M., G.M., H.M, median and mode.
3. If W = {148, 145, 160, 157, 156, 160, 160, 165}, then:
Show that H.M. <G.M. <A.M. < Median < Mode for W.
4. Find range, variance, mean deviation and standard deviation of number of absentees in a
class for last seven days: 3, 5, 3, 2, 4, 1, 8.
5. Find average attitude for dogs using A.M. median and mode from 60 people data.
Attitude Love dogs Like dogs No opinion Dislike dogs Hate dogs
Number of people 20 15 4 13 8
6. Daily wages (in Rs. 100) for thousand employees in a factory are given. Find A.M., G.M.,
H.M., median, quartiles and modal wages.
Daily wages (in Rs.100 22 24 26 28 30 32 34 36 38 40 42 44
Number of employees 3 13 43 102 175 220 204 139 69 25 6 1
7. The following data show number of devices resulting in observed values in appropriate
ranges. Find A.M., G.M., H.M., median, quartiles and mode.
Class limits 10.5-10.9 11.0-11.4 11.5-11.9 12.0-12.4 12.5-12.9
Frequencies 2 7 10 12 8
Q8. Find range, mean deviation, variance and standard derivations of scores of two batsmen in 6
innings. Who is more consistent player?
Batsmen – A 12 15 0 185 7 19
Batsmen – B 47 12 76 48 4 51

CHAPTER – 23 PYTHAGORAS THEOREM

SECTION B
Q1. The three sides of a triangle are of measure 9.5cm. and 𝑥𝑐𝑚. For what value of 𝑥 will the
side represent right triangle?
Q2. The foot of a ladder is placed 6 feet from a wall. If the top of the ladder rests 8 feet up on
the wall. How long is the ladder?
Q3. The sides of a rectangular swimming pool are 50m and 30m. What is the length between
the opposite corners?
Q4. A manager goes 18m due east and then 25m due north. Find the distance of his current
position from the starting point.

CHAPTER – 27 CHORDS AND ARCS

SECTION B
THEOREM 27.1
If two arcs of a circle (or congruent circles) are congruent then the corresponding chords arc equal.

CHAPTER – 28 ANGLES IN A SEGMENT OF A CIRCLE

SECTION B
THEOREM 28.1 The measure of a central angle of a minor arc of a circle is double that of the angle
subtended by the corresponding major arc.
OR Central angle of a minor arc is double in measure of the inscribed angle of the corresponding
major arc.
Theorem 28.4 The opposite angles of any quadrilateral inscribed in a circle are supplementary.
a) The angle in a semi – circle is a right angle.
 Page | 74
OR The angle inscribed in a semi – circle is right angle
b) The angle in a segment greater than the semi – circle is less than a right angle.
OR The angle inscribed in a major arc is acute.
c) The angle in a segment less than a semi – circle is greater than a right angle.
OR The angle inscribed in a minor arc is obtuse

CHAPTER – 30 INTRODUCTION TO TRIGONOMETRY

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS)
1. Find the arc length of a unit circle, corresponding to the central angle measuring 30°
�
2. The arc of a circle subtends an angle of � radians at the centre. The radius of a circle is 5cm,
find; i) length of an arc ii) area of a circular sector
3. A point is moving on the circle of radius 10cm. If it makes 3.5 revolutions, find the distance
travelled by the point.
4. If a point on the rim of a 21cm diameter fly wheel travels 5040 meters per minute through,
how many radians does the wheel turn in a second?
5. A car is running on a circular path of radius equal to double the arc of the circle travelled by
the car. Find the angle subtended by the arc at the centre of the circular path.
6. In a circle of radius 12c, an arc subtends a central angle of 84°. Find its arc length and also
calculate area of the sector.
7. Find remaining trigonometric functions/ratios, if:
√�
i) sin θ = and θ lies in second quadrant.
�
�
ii) cos θ = and θ lies in fourth quadrant.
�
�
iii) tan θ = − and θ lies in second quadrant.
�
8. Prove the following trigonometric identities:
������
ii) = tanθ + secθ, (cosθ ≠ θ)
����
iii) tanθ = sinθ√1 + tan� θ, (cosθ ≠ θ)
iv) cos� θ − sin� θ = cos� θ − sin� θ
v) sin� θ = sinθ − sinθcos� θ
������ ������
vii) � = (tanθ ≠ θ)
������ ����
� �
viii) 𝑆𝑖𝑛 𝜃 + 𝐶𝑜𝑠 𝜃 = 1
9. From the top of a light house 102 meters high, measure of the angle of depression of a ship
is 18°30’. How far is the ship from the light house?
10. Find the angle of elevation when a 6m high bamboo makes a shadow of length 2√3m.
11. An observation balloon is 4280m above the ground and 9613m away from a farm house.
Find angle of depression of the farm house as observed from the balloon.
12. An angle of elevation of the top of cliff is 30o. Walking 210 meter from point towards the cliff
the angle of elevation is 45o. Find the height of cliff.
SCAN ME

SECTION ‘C’ FOR GUESS PAPER

VIDEO

CHAPTER – 19 MATRICES & DETERMINATION

SECTION C
1 −1 3
Q7. Find inverse if exist 𝐸 = � 2 1 2�
−2 −2 1
 Page | 75

CHAPTER – 21 PARTIAL FRACTIONS

SECTION C
���� �������� � � � ����
1. (���)�
2. (���)(���)�
3.
(���)(� � ��)

CHAPTER – 23 PYTHAGORAS THEOREM

SECTION C
Q1. In a right angled triangle, the square of the length of hypotenuse is equal to sum of the square
of the length of the other two sides.
Q2. If the square of one side of triangle is equal to the sum of the square of the other two sides,
then the triangle is a right-angled triangle.

CHAPTER – 23 PYTHAGORAS THEOREM

SECTION C
1. If a line segment intersects the two sides of a triangle in the same ratio then it is parallel to
the third side.
2. If two triangles are similar, the measures of their corresponding sides are proportional.
3. Prove that the line drawn parallel to the parallel sides of a trapezium divides the non-parallel
sides proportionally.
4. Prove that the line segment drawn through the mid-point of a side of a triangle and parallel
to another side bisects the third side.
5. Prove that the line which divides the non-parallel sides of a trapezium proportionally is parallel
to the third side.

CHAPTER – 25 CHORDS OF A CIRCLE

SECTION C
Theorem 25.2: A straight line, drawn from the centre of a circle to bisect a chord (which is not a
dimeter) is perpendicular to the chord.
Theorem 25.3: Perpendicular from the centre of a circle to chord bisects it.
Theorem 25.4: If two chords of a circle are congruent then they will be equidistant from the centre.

CHAPTER – 26 TANGENTS OF A CIRCLE

SECTION C
THEOREM 26.1: If a line is drawn perpendicular to a radial segment of a circle at its outer end point,
it is tangent to the circle at that point.
THEOREM 26.2: The tangent to a circle and the radial segment joining the point of contact and the
centre are perpendicular to each other.
THEOREM 26.3: The two tangents, drawn to a circle from a point outside it, are equal in length.
THEOREM 26.4 Case (A): If two circles touch externally, the distance between their centres is equal to
the sum of their radii.
THEOREM 26.4 Case (B): If two circles touch internally, the distance between their centres is equal to
the sum of their radii.
THEOREM 26.3: The two tangents, drawn to a circle from a point outside ti, are equal in length
(Remove from section C)
 Page | 76

CHAPTER – 29 PRACTICAL GEOMETRY – CIRCLES

SECTION C
1. Draw an inscribed equilateral triangle of a circle with radius 3.8cm with centre O.
2. Draw a circle of radius 2.9cm with centre C. Draw a tangent to the circle from a point P of the
circle.
3. Draw two equal circles each of radius 3.3cm with centres at point A and B such that m𝐴𝐵 =
7.8CM
a) Draw direct common tangents to these circles.
b) Draw transverse common tangents to these circles.
4. Draw two unequal circles of radii 3.3cm and 2.1cm with centres, A and B respectively such
that m𝐴𝐵 =8cm.
a) Draw direct common tangents to these circles.
b) Draw transverse common tangents to these circles.
5. Construct the ABC and draw its circumcircle in each case.
𝑚𝐴𝐵���� = 5.5𝑐𝑚, 𝑚𝐴𝐶 ���� = 6𝑐𝑚, 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑚𝐴 = 50�
���� ����
𝑚𝐴𝐵 = 6𝑐𝑚, 𝑚𝐵𝐶 = 4.5𝑐𝑚 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑚𝐴𝐶 ���� = 5𝑐𝑚
6. Construct the PQR and draw its in circle.
𝑚𝑃𝑄���� = 5𝑐𝑚, 𝑚𝑄𝑅���� = 6.5𝑐𝑚, 𝑚𝑅𝑃
���� = 5.5𝑐𝑚
𝑚𝑃𝑄 = 6𝑐𝑚 , 𝑚𝑃 = 60 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑚𝑄 = 50�
�

7. Construct the XYZ and draw its escribed circle opposite to Y in each case
𝑚𝑥𝑦��� = 4.5𝑐𝑚, 𝑚𝑦𝑧 ��� = 5𝑐𝑚, 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑚𝑦 = 30�
𝑚𝑥𝑦��� = 5.5𝑐𝑚, 𝑚𝑦𝑧 ��� = 6𝑐𝑚, 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑚𝑥𝑧 ��� = 2.5𝑐𝑚
8. Draw a circle of radius 3.2cm with centre P. Draw tangent to the circle from a point Q which
is at a distance of 8 cm from P.
9. Draw two tangents to a circle of radius 3.3cm with centre C meeting each other at angle of
measure (i) 50o (ii) 63o

BOARD OF SECONDARY EDUCATION KARACHI

SCAN ME MODEL QUESTIONS PAPER
FOR
MODEL PAPER S.S.C. (ANNUAL) EXAMINATIONS 2023
SOLUTION
MATHEMATICS (CLASS X) PAPER-II
Time: 3 Hours (Science Group) Max Marks: 75
SECTION “A” (MCQ’S – MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
Q1: Choose the correct answer from the given options: (15)
i. {0,1,2,3, … . . } is the set of:
a) Prime No. b) Integer c) Whole No. d) Even No.
ii. Every set is a _____________ of itself.
a) Power set b) super set c) subset d) none of these
iii. Sets are generally represented by:
a) small letters b) greek letters c) capital letters d) none of these
iv. If 𝑥 + 5: 𝑥 + 7 = 5: 7 then 𝑥 is equal to ____________.
a) 2 b) -1 c) 0 d) 1
5 1
v. Find x if � �= x + 4
2 𝑥
� �
a) b) � c) 0 d) None of them
�

vi. 𝜔 4 = ___________.
a) 0 b) 𝜔 c) 𝜔� d)1
 Page | 77
vii. The product of the roots of the equation 𝓵𝑥 � + mx + n = 0
�� � �� �
a) b) c) d)
ℓ � ℓ ℓ
�
viii. Partial fractions of (���)(���)(���) can have a form
� � � � � � � � � � �
a) + ��� + ��� b) ��� + ��� c) ��� + ��� + ��� d) ��� + ��� + ���
���
ix. The value appears most often in a set of data is called
a) Arithmetic mean b) Median c) Mode d) Average
x. Median of 1, 3, 8, 11, 15, 18, 19 is:
a) 11 b) 15 c) 13 d) none of these
xi. Right bisectors of non-parallel ________________ intersect at the centre of the circle.
a) Radial segments b) Chords c) Tangents d) none of these
xii. ________________ angles of regular polygon are equal in measure.
a) Interior b) Exterior c) both a & b d) none of these
xiii. 1° is equal to ____________.
a) 0.01475 rad b) 0.01754 rad c) 0.01745 rad d) 0.01545 rad
xiv. What is the value of θ, if S = 30.2 cm and r = 2 cm.
�
a) 15.1 rad b) c) 30° d) 210 cm
�
xv. All trigonometric functions are positive in ____________ quadrant.
a) 1st b) 2nd c) 3rd d) 4th

SECTION “B” (SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS) (30)

NOTE: Attempt any (06) questions from given 10 questions of this section. All questions carry
equal marks.
Q2: If 𝑃 = {𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐} and 𝑄 = {𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧}, find:
√����√��� �
Q3: Solve the following equation by using componendo-dividendo theorem. =
√����√��� �
Q4: Show that: (1 + ω)(1 + ω� )(1 + ω� )(1 + ω� ) = (ω + ω� )�
��� ���� �������
Q5: Resolve into partial fraction.
(���)(���)
Q6: For {148,145,160,157,156,160,160,165} Show that H. M < G. M < A. M
������ ����
Q7: �
������
= ������ , (cosθ ≠ 1)
�
∧
Q8. Find the area of the sector, whose radius is 4cm with central angle of � radian.
Q9: A straight line, drawn from the center of a circle to bisect a chord (Which is not a diameter) is
perpendicular to the chord.
Q10: It the angles subtended by two chords of a circle (or congruent circles) at the centers
(corresponding centers) are equal, the chord are equal.
Q11: The angle in a segment less than the semi-circle is greater than a right angle.
OR Find the variance of the marks of students which are 10, 20, 30, 40, 50, 60

SECTION “C” (DETAILED-ANSWER QUESTIONS) (30)

NOTE: Attempt any three questions from this section. All questions carry equal marks.
2 1 1
Q12: Find the inverse of the matrix A = �3 2 1� by Adjoint method.
2 1 2
Q13: If the square of one side of triangle is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides,
then the triangle is a right-angled triangle. Prove it.
 Page | 78
Q14: A line parallel to one side of triangle and intersecting the other two sides, divides them
proportionally. Prove it.
Q15: Draw two unequal circles of radii3.3 cm and 2.1 cm with centres, A and B respectively such
that 𝑚𝐴𝐵 = 8𝑐𝑚. Draw direct common tangents to these circles. (Also write Steps of
construction)
Q16: The tangent to a circle and the radial segment joining the point of contact and the centre are
perpendicular to each other. Prove it.
OR If two circles touch externally, the distance between their centres is equal to the sum of their
radii. Prove it.

X-ENGLISH GUESS PAPER

SECTION ‘A’
SCAN ME
FOR GUESS PAPER
VIDEO

UNIT-1 CONTRIBUTIONS OF NOTABLE LEADERS

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. The poem “The Voice of God” is written by:
a) Louis I. Newman b) John Keats c) William Wordsworth d) none of them
2. The poet climbed the top most:
a) Tree b) Steeple c) Building d) none of these
3. Who dwells among the people?
a) God b) The poet c) An angel d) none of these
4. Poet Louis I. Newman lectured at:
a) Brown University b) Columbia University
c) Oxford University d) Blue Heaven University
5. The Caliph Haroon-ur-Rashid was known and respected for his:
a) Justice and knowledge b) Knowledge and wisdom
c) Justice and wisdom d) Injustice and cruelty
6. The Caliph disguised himself as a:
a) common man b) poor man c) rich man d) gentle man

UNIT-2 LABOUR AND PEOPLE’S RIGHTS

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. At the time of the battle of _______________, our Last Prophet Hazrat Muhammad (SAWW)
took part in digging a trench.
a) Uhad b) Badar c) Khandaq d) Tabooq
2. Sultan Nasir Udin earned his living by making:
a) caps b) pots c) amours d) jewellery
3. “Akhtar was feeling cross” means Akhtar was:
a) not feeling well b) angry c) satisfied d) none of these
4. “Hazrat Fatima (R.A) ground corn.”
Here “ground” means:
a) powdered b) dried c) sowed d) none of these
5. “Is it a matter of shame to clean what we make dirty?” This line is spoken by:
a) Akhtar b) Rukhsana c) Bilal d) Uncle
 Page | 79
6. Who once carried on his shoulders a large sack of flour for a needy family?
a) Hazrat Abu Bakar (RA) b) Hazrat Umar (RA)
c) Hazrat Usman (RA) d) Hazrat Ali (RA)
7. Hazrat Ali laboured in the garden of:
a) neighbours b) his friend c) Paradise d) Jew

UNIT-3 PRACTICING POSITIVE WORK ETHICS

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. The spider was hanging from a fine silken:
a) rope b) clothes c) thread d) none of them
2. King Bruce ruled over:
a) England b) America c) Pakistan d) Scotland
3. The spider succeeded in the ________ attempt.
a) eight b) tenth c) ninth d) eleventh
4. The poem King Bruce and Spider has been written by:
a) Thomas Moore b) Eliza Cook
c) Charles Mackey d) William Wordsworth
5. The poem “Little Things” is composed by:
a) Julia Carney b) David Bates c) Wordsworth d) none of them
6. Little words of love make our world an / a:
a) hell b) Eden c) garden d) none of these
7. Eden is the garden of ________where our first parents Adam and Eve lived.
a) heaven b) flowers c) paradise d) place
8. Success begins with a fellow’s:
a) fight b) will c) suggestion d) none of these
9. Life’s battles don’t always go to the:
a) friends b) stronger c) weaker d) none of these9.
10. The poet of the poem The Man Who Wins is:
a) Ellen M.H. Gates b) anonymous
c) Thomas Moore d) Ralph Waldo Emerson
11. Anonymous means:
a) well- known poet b) common man
c) unknown poet d) none of these

UNIT-4 MEDIA FOR INFORMATION AND REFLECTION

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. The world has now become a:
a) global village b) zoo c) crowded place d) distressed place
2. The social media has revolutionized the concept of:
a) living b) meeting
c) communication d) exchanging presents
3. One of the biggest contributions of the social media is the:
a) ease of connectivity b) ease of traveling
c) quick access to the current affairs d) none of these
4. ___________ are social animals.
a) Reptiles b) Humans c) Insects d) none of these
5. _________ travel very fast via the social media.
a) Rumours b) Weather updates c) Sports news d) none of these
 Page | 80

UNIT-5 RESPECTING SELF AND OTHERS

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. The name of the village station was:
a) Umerkot b) Shikarpur c) Patni d) Goth haji shah
2. The first person who was surprised upon hearing the address was:
a) van driver b) porter c) villager d) Mr. Karim
3. How many bedrooms were there in the house?
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
4. Porter is a person who:
a) drives the cab b) serves food in the train
c) carries luggage d) gives travelling guidelines
5. Who had the second strange experience?
a) Mr. Aziz b) Mr. Karim c) Children d) Mrs. Aziz

UNIT – 6 CHARACTER BUILDING

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. It is better to rule the people by love than:
a) war b) impoliteness c) terror d) fear
2. The main idea of the poem is to speak gently with:
a) children b) young people c) all people d) old people
3. The poem “Speak Gently” is composed by:
a) Eliza Cook b) David Bates c) Anonymous d) Louis I. Newman

UNIT – 7 PRAISING NATURE

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. The final destination of the tour was:
a) Jamshoro b) Sehwan c) Gorakh Hills d) Hyderabad
2. The Gorakh Hills is the highest place in:
a) Pakistan b) Baluchistan c) Sehwan d) Sindh
3. For lunch Asif and his parents had:
a) fish and chips b) sugarcane juice and rolls
c) fish and sugarcane juice d) Sandwich and sugarcane juice
4. There was more greenery on _____________ of the river.
a) the right side b) the left side c) the bank d) both sides
5. According to Ibn-e-Battuta, ______________ makes one a good storyteller.
a) reading b) listening to good stories
c) not speaking d) travelling
6. The Shrine of Lal Shahbaz Qalandar is in:
a) Jhelum b) Multan c) Sehwan d) Lahore
7. GPS stands for:
a) Global Positioning Studio b) Giant Petroleum Services
c) Great Public Support d) Geographical Positioning System
8. On the way back, they travelled from:
a) Ayub Bridge b) New Khairabad Bridge
c) Attock Bridge d) Dadu-Moro Bridge
 Page | 81

UNIT – 8 CIVIC SENSE AND CIVIC ACTIVITIES

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. Wearing or not wearing a seat belt can be a matter of:
a) life and death b) personal defeat c) no concern d) little importance
2. Brain injury in a motorbike accident can lead to permanent:
a) forgetfulness b) disability c) problems d) ill health
3. One of the key reasons for the accidents is:
a) over-speeding b) bad roads c) no traffic lights d) no security
4. These laws are constituted to save the lives of motorbike riders.
a) Helmet laws b) Traffic laws c) Social laws d) Riding laws
5. Not wearing seat belts also has serious _______________ implications.
a) physical b) mental c) financial d) economic
6. Poem: The Blind Men and The Elephant has been composed by:
a) John Godfrey Saxe b) William Wordsworth
c) Allama Iqbal d) Eliza Cook
7. If you are mute, you cannot:
a) see b) taste c) speak d) hear
8. Who was right about the elephant was like?
a) blind man 1 b) blind man 2 c) blind man 3 d) none of them
9. What part of the elephant was smooth and sharp?
a) its tusks b) its trunk c) its teeth d) its legs
10. Who touched the broad and sturdy side of the elephant?
a) The first man b) The second man c) The third man d) The fourth man

SCAN ME

SECTION ‘B’ FOR GUESS PAPER

VIDEO

UNIT-1 CONTRIBUTIONS OF NOTABLE LEADERS

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS)
Q2. Answer the following questions in two to three sentences each.
i. Why did God tell him to go down again?
ii. What is the main idea given through the poem “The Voice of God”?
iii. What was the Caliph Haroon-ur-Rashid known and respected for?
iv. Why did Caliph Haroon-ur-Rashid disguise himself as a common man?
v. What was the dispute between the rich man and the beggar? How was it settled?

Q3. Do as directed:
CHANGE INTO INTERROGATIVE
I had new clothes.
CHANGE INTO AFFIRMATIVE
Do you have a laptop?
We will not be here.

CHANGE INTO NEGATIVE

Did you have time?
He has lots of free time.

PUNCTUATE THE FOLLOWING

i. sameer and ali went to quetta last july
ii. are Zahra and samina coming today asked mrs afzal
 Page | 82
iii. we are planning to go to islamabad in march to see the faisal mosque
iv. hurrah pakistan has won the world cup we must meet celebrate enjoy and have fun
v. can we go to the seaside, father the children asked its such a lovely day

USE SUFFIX
i. create
ii. state
iii. friend

USE PREFIX
i. happy
ii. official
iii. regular

Q4. Use the following idioms in your own sentences.

i. a bed of roses
ii. a chicken hearted
iii. a child’s play
iv. a close shave/ a narrow shave
v. a fish out of water
vi. a rainy day

Q5. Identify the part of speech for the underlined words in the following sentences.
i. Do you know about me?
ii. She drives very carefully after the accident.
iii. They went to Lahore last year.
iv. We live in Karachi.

Q6. Translate the following paragraph into Urdu / Sindhi:

A newspaper has become a part of our life. It brings to us news from all corners of the world.
With half an hour, it makes us well-informed about the events of the world. Newspaper has various
sections. It gives us information about National and international affairs.

UNIT-2 LABOUR AND PEOPLE’S RIGHTS

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS)
Q2. Answer the following questions in two to three sentences each.
i. What does the life of the Holy Prophet teach us?
ii. Were the companions of the Holy Prophet (P.B.U.H.) like him and how did they set up
the examples of dignity of work?
iii. What does everyone on china do?
iv. How did Mr. Inayat convince Akhtar not to mind working with his own hands in
future?
v. What lesson do you learn from the text?

Q3. Do as directed:
CHANGE INTO PRESENT CONTINUOUS
Do I not brush teeth twice a day?

CHANGE INTO PRESENT PERFECT

She cooks delicious food.
 Page | 83
CHANGE INTO PRESENT PERFECT CONTINUOUS
We have won the match.

CHANGE INTO PRESENT SIMPLE

I had new clothes.

Q4. Use the following idioms in your own sentences.

i. a snake in the grass
ii. add fuel to fire
iii. again and again
iv. an apple of eye
v. at large
vi. at the eleventh hour

Q5. Identify the part of speech for the underlined words in the following sentences.
i. He was very concerned about their problems.
ii. I gently told him to get down.
iii. Hurrah! We have won the match.
iv. I will go to Lahore and meet my friends.

Q6. Translate the following paragraph into Urdu / Sindhi:

Allama Iqbal is our national poet. He was born at Sialkot and got his early education from there
as well. He came to Lahore then. He did his masters in Philosophy. He remained a professor at
Government College for some time and went to England later on. On his return from England, he
started practicing law but he did not like it much. His major interest was in poetry and national issues.
He has expressed his emotions in his verses.

UNIT-3 PRACTICING POSITIVE WORK ETHICS

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS)
Q2. Answer the following questions in two to three sentences each.
i. What lesson did the King Bruce learn from the spider?
ii. What is the message of the poem: King Bruce and the Spider?
iii. What is the central idea of the Poem: King Bruce and the Spider?
iv. What is the main central idea of the poem: Little Things?
v. What place is Eden and how can we make our world an Eden?
vi. Who according to the poet can be successful in life?
vii. What is the message given in the poem “The Man Who Wins”?

Q3. Do as directed:
USE ARTICLES
i. ____ Australian sheep gives us ____ good wool.
ii. To help the students, ____ example has been given in the exercise.
iii. ____ factory is being built next to our house.

CHANGE INTO PAST CONTINUOUS

Did he come here in the morning?

CHANGE INTO PAST PERFECT

Akbar wrote a poem for his mother.

CHANGE INTO PAST PERFECT CONTINUOUS

We have won the match.
 Page | 84
CHANGE INTO PAST SIMPLE
I will buy new clothes.

Q4. Use the following idioms in your own sentences.

i. back out
ii. black sheep
iii. bread and butter
iv. break out
v. by fits and starts
vi. by hook by crook

Q5. Identify the part of speech for the underlined words in the following sentences.
i. She always tries to work efficiently.
ii. She usually eats at home, because she likes cooking.
iii. Aleem attends his patients carefully.
iv. He bought three eggs but did not take any in breakfast.

Q6. Translate the following paragraph into Urdu / Sindhi:

A king ruled over a country. There was abundance of water in the country, the soil was fertile, and
there was plenty of greenery for the cattle to graze. The orchards were full of fruit trees. In spite of
this, the king was unhappy and sad because his people were not happy under his rule.

UNIT-4 MEDIA FOR INFORMATION AND REFLECTION

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS)
Q2. Answer the following questions in two to three sentences each.
i. Write down the positive aspects of the social media with respect to students.
ii. How has social media revolutionized the concept of communication?
iii. Write down the negative aspects of the social media with respect to business. Also state its
ways of reduction.

Q3. Do as directed:

CHANGE INTO FUTURE CONTINUOUS

Will you go to Lahore next month?

CHANGE INTO FUTURE PERFECT

We will not support you.

CHANGE INTO FUTURE PERFECT CONTINUOUS

We have won the match.

CHANGE INTO FUTURE SIMPLE

I met my friends.

CHANGE THE VOICE

i. The poor are helped by him.
ii. She cooks delicious food.
iii. I wrote a letter.
iv. Players were not selected by us.
v. She will kill mosquitoes.
vi. Is a car being destroyed by them?
vii. Had we lost the key?
 Page | 85
viii. Do not water the plants.
ix. Let this letter be copied.
x. Who plays cricket?

Q4. Use the following idioms in your own sentences.

i. by leaps and bounds
ii. crocodile’s tears
iii. from hand to mouth
iv. heart and soul
v. in black and white
v. lion’s share

Q5. Identify the part of speech for the underlined words in the following sentences.
i. They will tell us the truth.
ii. She writes beautifully.

Q6. Translate the following paragraph into Urdu / Sindhi:

Hard work is a key to success. We gain dignity through hard work. Nothing can be gained without
work. All those who have succeeded in this world were hardworking. They did their work regularly and
seriously. Fool is the man who wants to get his object without working hard.

UNIT-5 RESPECTING SELF AND OTHERS

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS)
Q2. Answer the following questions in two to three sentences each.
i. What happened to Mr. Karim on the seventh night?
ii. What was the second incident happened with Mr. Karim?

Q3. Do as directed:
USE MODAL VERBS
i. Its raining! You _____ take an umbrella.
ii. Its very cold outside. You ______ wear a jacket.
iii. _______ you please send me the money?

USE PLURALS
i. Put these ________ (apple) in the ________ (box).
ii. There are some __________ (sheep) grazing in the ___________ (field).
iii. She has bought _________ (jeans) and _______ (shoe) from the mall.

Q4. Use the following idioms in your own sentences.

i. pros and cons
ii. red handed
iii. red letter day
iv. through thick and thin
v. to beat about the bush
vi. to blow one’s own trumpet
vii. to break in
viii. to break the ice

Q5. Identify the part of speech for the underlined words in the following sentences.
i. I have bought a new car.
ii. My cat drinks milk.
 Page | 86
iii. He goes to school.
iv. The Earth is spherical.

Q6. Translate the following paragraph into Urdu / Sindhi:

The main responsibility of a good government is to lower the prices of the necessities of the
life for the people of its country. Necessities of life do not mere mean food grains. Food grains, clothes,
medical facilities and education are also the basic necessities of life. The government should try its
best to lower the prices so that the common people belonging to both village and city communities
may be able to lead a proper life.

UNIT – 6 CHARACTER BUILDING

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS)
Q2. Answer the following questions in two to three sentences each.
i. Why should we speak gently to the aged ones?
ii. What is the lesson given in this poem?
iii. What are the disadvantages of speaking harshly?

Q3. Do as directed:
CHANGE THE NARRATION
i. Ali said to us, “You do not support me.”
ii. I said to her, “They do not teach you.”
iii. Ayesha said to us, “I do not like you.”
iv. He said, “Do you teach here?”
v. He said to us, “Do you not go to school?”
vi. She said to him, “I always go to school on time.”
vii. Usman said, “I support the poor.”
viii. He said, “Shall I help you?”
ix. She said to them, “I might cook food.”
x. He said to them, “Water boils at 100oC.”

Q4. Use the following idioms in your own sentences.

i. to bury the hatchet
ii. to call a spade a spade
iii. to come off with flying colours
iv. to cry for the moon
v. to cry over spilt milk
vi. to end in smoke
vii. to fall short
viii. to flare up

Q5. Identify the part of speech for the underlined words in the following sentences.
i. I ate dinner.
ii. He loves to play basketball.
iii. I don’t like tea.
iv. She doesn’t study English on Monday.

UNIT – 7 PRAISING NATURE

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS)
Q2. Answer the following questions in two to three sentences each.
i. Why is Gorakh Hills a good place for a holiday?
 Page | 87
ii. Why did Asif and his family have to sleep in a tent?

Q3. Do as directed:
USE CORRECT FORM OF VERB
i. If you had not been late, we _________ (not/miss) the bus.
ii. If she _________ (go) to university, she would have studied French.
iii. She _________ (pass) the exam, if she had studied harder.
iv. We would have come), if we _________ (be) invited.
v. If he had attempted the question, the teacher ________ (give) him some marks.

USE PREPOSITIONS
1. He can’t perform any more _______________ his failing health.
2. The villagers had to carry pails of water _______________ their work in the fields.
3. Sameer was never _______________ his parents going to the city.
4. This theory is wrong _______________ his philosophy.
5. The match was delayed _______________ rain.
6. This dog has been sitting _______________ me for one hour.
7. I gave him a new book _______________ the one I lost.
8. We will inform you later, _______________ the situation.
9. The van stopped _______________ the hospital.
10. You will have to leave your position _______________ any change in the plan.

Q4. Use the following idioms in your own sentences.

i. to get rid of
ii. to give up
iii. to leave no stone unturned
iv. to look after
v. to look down upon
vi. to make the most of
vii. to nip in the bud
viii. to poison one’s ears

Q5. Indicate the part of speech of the underlined words:

i. We did not watch TV last night.
ii. Dogs bark louder after midnight.
iii. She can cook the pasta as she wants.
iv. Can you draw a map of Pakistan?
v. Hurria is my best friend.

UNIT – 8 CIVIC SENSE AND CIVIC ACTIVITIES

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS)
Q2. Answer the following questions in two to three sentences each.
i. What important safety measures can save people’s life?
ii. How can not wearing a helmet change the life of bike riders and their families forever?
iii. Why should people not wear helmets? Give reasons.
iv. What is the moral of the Poem: Six Blind Men and The Elephant?

Q3. Do as directed:
CHANGE THE NARRATION
i. He said to us, “Don’t smoke here, please.”
ii. Ali said, “Do not smoke here, Ayesha”
iii. He said to you, “What were you doing?”
 Page | 88
iv. We said to them, “Where were you?”
v. You said, “Wow! You look beautiful.”

USE RELATIVE PRONOUN

i. Mr. Arshad, ________ is a taxi driver, lives on the corner.
ii. Thank you very much for your e-mail, ______ was very interesting.
iii. The man, _________ father is a professor, forgot his umbrella.

Q4. Use the following idioms in your own sentences.

i. to poke one’s nose
ii. to pull one’s leg
iii. to rain cats and dogs
iv. to run short of
v. to see eye to eye
vi. to turn a deaf ear
vii. to wind up
viii. with open arms

Q5. Indicate the part of speech of the underlined words:

i. You don’t listen to me.
ii. They will tell us the truth.
iii. Does she drink coffee?
iv. The train will leave in ten minutes.
v. Does he play tennis?

Q6. Translate the following paragraph into Urdu / Sindhi:

The first element of national conduct is patriotism. Patriotism is such a passion that sacrifices
personal interest upon national interests. The citizen of a free country must think before doing every
work that doing such a work is useful or not for the nation. The second important element of national
conduct is to employ honesty and justice in every walk of life.

SCAN ME

SECTION ‘C’ FOR GUESS PAPER

VIDEO

UNIT-1 CONTRIBUTIONS OF NOTABLE LEADERS

SECTION C (DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
Q6. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Another thing that is essential for good health is rest. When food is burnt in the cells of the
body at a high rate, the blood cannot carry away the waste materials as fast as they are formed. They,
therefore, accumulate in the cells and prevent them from working properly, and causes fatigue.
Fatigue makes people ill-tempered; slows up their thinking power and causes them to make mistakes
and lowers their resistance to disease. Sitting or lying down quietly is a good way of resting and so is
working at some hobby that does not require much physical energy but nothing can replace sleep.
i. Why can the blood not carry away the waste materials as fast as they are formed?
iii. How is fatigue harmful to us?
iv. What is the best form of rest for a man?
v. What does a man do in such situation of fatigue?
vi. Summarize the paragraph.
vii. Write noun form of ‘high’
viii. Give it a suitable title.
ix. Write past participate form of: ‘carry’ ‘prevent’
x. Give antonym of: ‘fast’ ‘good’
 Page | 89

UNIT-2 LABOUR AND PEOPLE’S RIGHTS

SECTION C (DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
Q6. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
A man is known by the company he keeps. A good student should avoid the company of those
who keep playing all the time. Many students miss their classes and seldom do their homework
properly because other students do the same. There are other hardworking students who learn their
lesson while others are playing. They know that there is a time for study and there is another time for
games. At the time, fixed for playing, they come out in the open. They run and enjoy time fully. They
play hockey, football and cricket. They also know that playing games is good for health, they are
healthy looking. A sickly student is not so quick in learning his lesson as a healthy one.
i. Whose company should a good student avoid? Why?
ii. Why do many students miss their classes?
iii. Write a famous proverb that comes into mind about health.
iv. Write noun of: ‘know’
v. Summarize the paragraph.
vi. Give it a suitable title.
vii. Write past participate form of: ‘know ‘is’
viii. Give antonym of: ‘run’ ‘good’

UNIT-4 MEDIA FOR INFORMATION AND REFLECTION

SECTION C (DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
Q6. Write an essay of five paragraphs on the following topics:
i. Lavish Spending on Weddings
ii. Migration Of People from Rural to Urban Areas
iii. Internet Improves Quality of Life

UNIT-5 RESPECTING SELF AND OTHERS

SECTION C (DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
Q7. Letter to the Editor
i. Write a letter to the editor of a newspaper about the frequent breakdown of electricity.
ii. Write a letter to the editor of a newspaper about the shortage of water supply.
iii. Write a letter to editor on stagnant sewage water in your locality.
Q8. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below:
All spiders spin webs. That's because webs help spiders. Webs help spiders do three things. Webs help
spiders hold eggs. Webs help spiders hide. And webs help spiders catch food. Many spiders like to lay
their eggs in their webs. The webs help keep the eggs together. Webs help spiders keep their eggs
safe. Most spiders are dark. They are brown, grey or black. But spider webs are light. They are white
and cloudy. When spiders hide in their webs, they are harder to see. Webs help spiders catch food.
Spider webs are sticky. When a bug flies into the web, it gets stuck. It moves around. It tries to get out.
But it can't, it is trapped! Spiders can tell that the bug is trapped. That's because spiders feel the web
move. And the spider is hungry. The spider goes to get the bug. As you can see, webs help spiders hold
eggs. And webs help spiders catch food. Without webs, spiders would not be able to live like they do.
Spiders need their webs to survive!

i. Write down the three listed reasons why spiders spin webs?
ii. What happens when a bug gets trapped into the web?
iii. What do you know about the colours of spiders?
iv. Write noun of: ‘move’
 Page | 90
v. Summarize the paragraph.
vi. Give it a suitable title.
vii. Write past participate form of: ‘live’ ‘lay’
viii. Give antonym of: ‘dark’ ‘move’
ix. Find the word of same meaning from the above passage for each of the following word exist,
cover.

UNIT – 6 CHARACTER BUILDING

SECTION C (DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
Q6. Write an essay of five paragraphs on the following topics:
i. Acquiring A New Skill ii. Importance Of Sports

UNIT – 7 PRAISING NATURE

SECTION C (DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
Q6. Write an essay of five paragraphs on the following topics:
i. Sports And Games Should Be Made Compulsory for All Students
ii. Students Should Be Encouraged to Speak English in School
UNIT – 8 CIVIC SENSE AND CIVIC ACTIVITIES
SECTION C (DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
Q7. Write an essay of five paragraphs on the following topic:
i. Students Should Not Be Allowed to Bring Mobile Phones in School

Q8. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Garbage cans are not magical portals. Trash does not disappear when you toss it in a can. If there are
no magic garbage fairies, where does all that trash go? There are four methods to managing waste:
recycling, landfilling, composting, and incinerating. Let's take a quick look at each.
Recycling is the process of turning waste into new materials. For example, used paper can be turned
into paperboard, which can be used to make book covers. Recycling can reduce pollution, save
materials, and lower energy use.
Landfilling is the oldest method of managing waste. In its simplest form, landfilling is when people
bury garbage in a hole. Over time the practice of landfilling has advanced. Garbage is compacted
before it is thrown into the hole. In this way more garbage can fit in each landfill.
Compositing is when people pile up organic matter, such as food waste, and allow it to decompose.
The product of this decomposition is compost. Compost can be added to the soil to make the soil
richer and better for growing crops.
One thing that is easier to do is burning garbage. There are two main ways to incinerate waste. The
first is to create or harvest a fuel from the waste. The second is to burn the waste directly. The heat
from the incineration process can boil water, which can power steam generators but creates pollution.
Usually, the community in which you live manages waste. Once you put your garbage in that can, what
happens to it is beyond your control. But you can make choices while it is still in your possession. You
can choose to recycle, you can choose to compost, or you can choose to let someone else deal with
it. The choice is yours.

i. What are the different ways to manage waste?

ii. What happens when we do recycling?
iii. Which two methods of waste management do you believe are best for society? Support your
argument with text.
iv. Write noun of: ‘manage
 Page | 91
v. Summarize the paragraph.
vi. Give it a suitable title.
vii. Write past participate form of: ‘allow’ ‘burn’
viii. Give antonym of: ‘easier’ ‘boil’

BOARD OF SECONDARY EDUCATION KARACHI

SCAN ME NEW MODEL QUESTIONS PAPER
FOR
MODEL PAPER S.S.C. (ANNUAL) EXAMINATIONS 2023
SOLUTION
ENGLISH (COMPULSORY) PAPER-II
Time: 3 Hours CLASS X (Science Group) Max Marks: 100
SECTION “A” (COMPULSORY) MCQs – MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Q1: Choose the correct answer from the given options: Marks: 20
i. Who dwells among the people?
a) God b) The poet c) An angel d) none of these
ii. “Is it a matter of shame to clean what we make dirty?” This line is spoken by:
a) Akhtar b) Rukhsana c) Bilal d) Uncle
iii. The spider succeeded in the ________ attempt.
a) eight b) tenth c) ninth d) eleventh

iv. Eden is the garden of ________where our first parents Adam and Eve lived.
a) heaven b) flowers c) paradise d) place
v. Haroon-ur-Rashid was the Caliph of:
a) Saudi Arabia b) Baghdad c) Persia d) None of these
vi. _________ travel very fast via the social media.
a) Rumours b) Weather updates c) Sports news d) none of these
vii. It is better to rule the people by love than:
a) war b) impoliteness c) terror d) fear
viii. The poem “Speak Gently” is composed by:
a) Eliza Cook b) David Bates c) Anonymous d) Louis I. Newman
ix. The Shrine of Lal Shahbaz Qalandar is in:
a) Jhelum b) Multan c) Sehwan d) Lahore
x. Brain injury in a motorbike accident can lead to permanent:
a) forgetfulness b) disability c) problems d) ill health
xi. Who touched the broad and sturdy side of the elephant?
a) The first man b) The second man c) The third man d) The fourth man
xii. Who was right about the elephant was like?
a) blind man 1 b) blind man 2 c) blind man 3 d) none of them
xiii. According to Ibn-e-Battuta, ______________ makes one a good storyteller.
a) reading b) listening to good stories c) not speaking d) travelling
xiv. The name of the village station, in the Chapter: A Bad Dream, was:
a) Umerkot b) Shikarpur c) Patni d) Goth haji shah
xv. The comparative degree of “high” is:
a) higher b) highest c) height d) highness
xvi. A word which joins words, clauses and sentences together is called:
a) Interjection b) Conjunction c) Preposition d) Adjective
xvii. The spider was hanging from a fine silken:
a) rope b) clothes c) Silken wall d) none of them
xviii. Julia Carney has mentioned the word “little” in her poem:
a) One time b) Two times c) Three times d) Four times
xix. Sultan Nasir Udin earned his living by making:
a) caps b) pots c) amours d) jewellery
 Page | 92
xx. Poet Louis I. Newman lectured at:
a) Brown University b) Columbia University
c) Oxford University c) Harvard University

SECTION “B” (SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS) (40)

Q2. Answer any 5 of the following questions in two to three sentences each. (10 Marks)
i. Why was the poet asked to go down again in the poem “The Voice of God”?
ii. Why is China having a rapid progress?
iii. What lesson did the king learn from the spider?
iv. What is the message of the poem “Little Things”?
v. What happened to Mr. Abdul Karim when he went for a walk?
vi. How did the caliph decide the case?
vii. How can social media be handy for the students now-a-days?

Q3. Do as directed. (as instructed in the bracket) (20 Marks)

i) (Use Preposition)
a. He succeeded in getting what he wanted
b. The shop does not have the toy, I was looking for
ii) (Use Article)
a. This is the most important question.
b. I want an apple for breakfast.
iii) (Change the voice)
a. Where did they spend all the money?
b. The Carpenter makes a beautiful dressing table.
c. He will convey my important message to him.
iv) (Change the Narration)
a. He says to them, “You are doing your work.”
b. She said “Fish cannot live without water.”
c. They exclaimed that those mangoes were very sweet.
d. She said to him, “Did you see the snake in the compound of this house?”
v) Formation of Sentences (change the following sentences as suggested in the bracket)
a. Did he go there in his mother’s absence? (Change into assertive)
b. Girls are playing hide and seek in the moon-lit night. (Change into future continuous)
c. Has it been drizzling since noon? (Change into past perfect continuous)
d. Thirsty crow does not fly here and there. (Change into interrogative)
e. I have so many oranges. (Change into negative)
f. Now it is my turn said he to them (punctuate)
vi). a. Give prefix to: Relevant
b. Give suffix to: Wonder
c. Write homophone of: Accept

Q4. Indicate the kind of part of speech of the underlined words. (5)
i) I have learned this poem before.
ii) She told me the same story twice.
iii) He talked very mildly.
iv) He was ordered to stand still here.
v) They are partly wrong in this matter.

Q5. Translate the following paragraph into Urdu/Sindhi. (5)

The environment is the surrounding of an organism. The environment in which an organism
lives is made up of various components like air, water, land, etc. These components are found in fixed
proportions to create a harmonious balance in the environment for the organism to live in. Any kind
of undesirable and unwanted change in the proportions of these components can be termed as
 Page | 93
pollution. This issue is increasing with every passing year. It is an issue that creates economic, physical,
and social troubles.
SECTION “C” (DETAILED-ANSWER QUESTIONS) (30)
Q6. Read the given passage and fill in the blanks from the options provided in the box. (5)
Abide Laws Family suffering Lives

Helmet ___________ are constituted to save the lives of motorbike riders. Those who ___________
by the laws, not only save their own ___________ but also protect their ___________ from
unnecessary harm and ___________. Although this is challenging to wear it, but for the purpose of
protection, it is so important.
Q7. Write an essay of 120- 150 words on any one of the following: (10)
i) Importance of Health Education.
ii) Problems of Karachi.
iii) Energy crisis in Pakistan
OR
Suppose you are the manager of Pakistan Hockey Team. What steps will you take to get our national
sports back to the track to achieve its past glory? Write your plan of action briefly.

Q8. Write a letter to your cousin, inviting him/her to spend the summer vacation with you.
(10)
OR
Write a letter to the editor of a newspaper, complaining about the shortage of play ground in your
area.

Q9. Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow them: (15)
Educating boys and girls together has always been an important and stressful issue. Many
parents believe that the educational process can be more effective if the classes are divided according
to the gender of the students. Although same-gender schools are considered too conservative and
strict in today’s times. Nevertheless, there are still supporters of this manner of education. Some
parents are not in favor of a co-educational system as they feel that the presence of the opposite
gender distracts the attention of students and prevents them from concentrating on studies.
On the other hand, supporters of co-education feel that as boys and girls are different, it is a
valuable experience for both genders to communicate with each other. Moreover, the earlier boys
and girls begin to communicate, the sooner they acquire social skills, which are crucial to
communicating freely in the world. Further, if there are girls in the class, boys may well possibly try to
behave better in order not to lose face in front of the girls.
i. According to the writer, why are some parents not in favor of the co-education system? (3)
ii. According to the writer, why are socializing skills important? (3)
iii. Find a word from the above passage that means: (4)
a. traditional b. paying attention c. vital d. unfairness
iv. Write the summary of the above passage. (5)

X-PAK STUDIES GUESS PAPER

SECTION ‘A’
SCAN ME
FOR GUESS PAPER
VIDEO

CHAPTER-1 IDEOLOGICAL BASIS OF PAKISTAN

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SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)

1. ___________ is an organized and regular form of ideas about life or culture.
a) Ideology b) Religion c) Culture d) Power
2. The word ‘ideology’ is an ___________ word.
a) Arabic b) English c) French d) German
3. The word ideology was first used by French philosopher _______________ in the 18th century.
a) Count Destutt de Tracy b) Columbas
c) Newton d) Marshal
4. As compared to other societies, the society of ___________ is very unique and united.
a) Hindus b) Sikhs c) Muslims d) Jews
5. Islamic Ideology affects the _____________ of individuals.
a) Minds b) Habits c) Thoughts d) Character
6. The basic principles of Islam is ____________.
a) Justice b) Equality c) Fraternity d) Tolerance
7. The Quran is a Holy book that was revealed to the Prophet (PBUH) in about __________ years:
a) 25 b) 23 c) 20 d) 22
8. The Sunnah is the detailed explanation of the teachings of the _____________.
a) Quran b) Zabur c) Bibel d) Taurah
9. There are ___________ content of ideology.
a) one b) two c) three d) four
10. Patriotism means _____________.
a) Family love b) Country’s love c) Friendship d) Responsibilities
11. The literal meanings of fraternity are _____________.
a) Friendship b) Relationship c) Brotherhood d) Love
12. In a society where ___________ is giving priority, peace prevails.
a) Brotherhood b) Religion c) Justice d) Law
13. Only through ______________, a society can be peaceful and prosperous.
a) Religion b) Nationality c) Justice d) Culture
14. The best way to avoid conflict is ____________.
a) Nationality b) Personality c) Tolerance d) Cultism
15. ____________ means to put the right thing in the right place.
a) Justice b) Equality c) Brotherhood d) Tolerance
16. No aspect of life can exist without _____________.
a) Culture b) Religion c) Equality d) Justice
17. The Ideology of Pakistan is based on ______________.
a) Justice b) Islam c) Values d) Brotherhood
18. Pakistan came into being on the same day when the first _______ in India was converted to:
a) British b) Hindu c) Sikh d) Non-Muslim
19. Quaid-e-Azam was a real ____________ leader.
a) Religious b) Political c) Social d) Democratic
20. Our demand for ______________ is not for a piece of land.
a) Pakistan b) India c) Bangladesh d) Afghanistan
21. The national poet of Pakistan is ____________.
a) Allama Iqbal b) Quaid-e-Azam c) Liaquat Ali Khan d) Sir Syed
22. ____________ was a great thinker and philosopher.
a) Allama Iqbal b) Quaid-e-Azam c) Liaquat Ali Khan d) Sir Syed
23. ____________ gives the idea of a separate homeland for the Muslims of South Asia.
a) Allama Iqbal b) Quaid-e-Azam c) Liaquat Ali Khan d) Sir Syed
 Page | 95

CHAPTER-2 THE MAKING OF PAKISTAN

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. ________________ was the founder of Faraizi Movement:
a) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan b) Sheikh Ahmed Sirhandi
c) Syed Ahmed shah d) Haji Shariat Ullah
2. _________ was conquer of Sindh in 712 A.D
a) Zaheer uddin Babar b) Shahab uddin Ghori c) Ghaznavi d) M. Bin Qasim
3. The first translate the Holy Quran in persian langaue was being _____
a) Azad b) Ghori c) Shah Waliullah d) Abdul Aziz
4. The real name of Shah Waliullah was:
a) Abdul Rahim b) Hafiz ul Mulk c) Taj uddin d) Qutubuddin
5. The movement of Syed Ahmed Shaheed Barelvi is known as:
a) Tehreek-e-Pakistan b) Tehreek-e-Mujahedeen
c) Tehreek-e-Lahore d) None of these
6. Islam was spread in the sub-continent through:
a) Military b) Sufis & saints c) Emperors d) Teachers
7. Shah Waliullah was born in a village near Dehli in the year:
a) 1703 A.D. b) 1603 A.D. c) 1520 A.D. d) 1423 A.D
8. Shah Walliullah died in the year _____________.
a) 1762 b) 1750 c) 1760 d) 1800
9. Sir Syed Ahmed Khan established Muhammaden Anglo-oriental college in _______
a) Bombay b) Behar c) Aligrah c) Dehli
10. Two Nation theory was present by __________
a) Rehmat Ali b) Abdul Haleem c) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan d) Jinnah
11. The war of Independence started in the year:
a) 1950 AD. b) 1857 AD. c) 1980 AD. d) 1990 AD
12. The demand of Pakistan was based on:
a) Hindu Muslim conflict b) Nationalism
c) Two nation theory d) Development of Muslim
13. Quaid-e-Azam join the Muslim League in the year:
a) 1913 b) 1912 c) 1924 d) 1914
14. All India Muslim League was established in 1906 in _______
a) Lucknow b) Calcutta c) Dhaka d) Karachi
15. In 23rd March _______ Quaid-e-Azam advised the Muslims to observe a day of deliverance in
the year:
a) 1939 b) 1940 c) 1941 d) 1942
16. The first president of Muslim league was
a) Waqar ul Mukl b) Mohsin ul Mulk c) M.A Jauhar d) Sir Agha Khan
17. The Pakistan was established on this day of Ramadan:
a) 21st b) 22nd c) 23rd d) 27th
18. The name of Pakistan was proposed by:
a) Maulana Shaukat Ali b) Chaudhry Rehmat Ali
c) Chaudhry Nisar Ali d) Chaudhry Barkat Ali
19. The All India Muslim League was established in A.D. ___________.
a) 1906 b) 1913 c) 1920 c) 1939
20. Sindh was made a separate province in the year A.D.
a) 1947 b) 1935 c) 1927 d) 1938
21. _________ was conquer of Sindh in 712 A.D
a) Zaheer uddin Babar b) Shahab uddin Ghori c) Ghaznavi d) M. Bin Qasim
22. In Dec. 1885 A.O Hume made a political party was__________
a) Muslim students federation b) Indian National congress
c) Unit Party d) Labour Party
 Page | 96
23. The lucknow pact was signed in the year A.D.:
a) 1920 b) 1930 c) 1906 d) 1916
24. The agreement signed between All India Muslim League & congress in1916 A.D. is called:
a) Simla agreement b) Lucknow Pact
c) Indus basin Treaty d) Indian independent Act
25. In 1916, through the efforts of Quaid-e-Azam, An agreement was signed between the
congress and the Muslim League at:
a) Lucknow b) Karachi c) Dhaka d) Madras
26. The first governor general of Pakistan was ____________.
a) Quaid-e-Azam b) Allama Iqbal c) Abdul Haq d) Khaliq uz Zaman
27. The founder of Pakistan is ______________.
a) Quaid-e-Azam b) Allama Iqbal c) Abdul Haq d) Khaliq uz Zaman
28. In 1930, the Allahabad Address was delivered by:
a) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan b) Quaid-e-Azam c) Allama Iqbal d) Mohsin ul Mulk
29. Nehru Report was presented in ___________.
a) 1928 b) 1930 c) 1927 d) 1939
30. The first round table conference was held in _________.
a) 1927 b) 1928 c) 1929 d) 1930
31. The Allahabad address was delivered in:
a) 1930 b) 1929 c) 1928 d) 1927
32. The first-round table conference was held at ____________.
a) London b) Lahore c) New York d) Karachi
33. The fourteen points of Quaid-e-Azam was presented in:
a) 1930 b) 1929 c) 1928 d) 1939
34. The second world was started in ___________ A.D.
a) 1932 b) 1934 c) 1937 d) 1939
35. 32. Resolution of Pakistan was presented by.
a) Quaid-e-Azam b) Allama Iqbal c) Sir Syed d) A.K. Fazl ul Haq
36. Cripps Mission was Arrive in India in ____________
a) 1940 b) 1942 c) 1945 d) 1946
37. The planned of Partition of the sub-continent as announced:
a) 3rd June 1947 b) 15th June 1948 c) 20th May 1949 d) 25thJuly 1950
38. The Resolution of Pakistan was passed in the year
a) 1940 b) 1949 c) 1950 d) 1951
39. The Resolution of Pakistan was passed at ______________.
a) Karachi b) Peshawar c) Lahore d) Dehli
40. Quaid-e-Azam said his address to the Govt. Officers that they are the nation`s:
a) Rulers b) Servants c) Officers d) Descendents
41. The first governor general of Pakistan was:
a) Quaid-e-Azam b) Allama Iqbal c) Liaquat Ali Khan d) Nazim-ud-Din
42. The dispute between Pakistan and India is:
a) Kargil b) Kashmir c) Mastoon d) Makran
43. The India and Pakistan border is called:
a) Durand Line b) Kharan c) Mastoon d) Radcliff Border

CHAPTER-3 CONSTITUTIONAL DEVELOPMENT IN

ISLAMIC REPUBLIC OF PAKISTAN
SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. The administrative head of province is:
a) Chief Secretary b) Chief Minister c) Governor d) Speaker
2. The ___________ is very necessary for a country:
a) Constitutions b) High Court c) Governor d) Speaker
 Page | 97
3. The first Prime Minister of Pakistan was:
a) Muhammad Ali Bogra b) Khuwaja Nazim uddin
c) Quaid-e-Azam d) Liaquat Ali Khan
4. The objective Revolution was approved on 12th March:
a) 1947 A.D. b) 1949 A.D. c) 1948 A.D. d) 1950 A.D
5. The first governor general of Pakistan was:
a) Quaid-e-Azam b) Liaquat Ali Khan
c) Khuwaja Nazim uddin d) Iskandar Mirza
6. The second governor general of Pakistan was:
a) Quaid-e-Azam b) Liaquat Ali Khan
c) Khuwaja Nazim uddin d) Iskandar Mirza
7. The biggest dispute between the India & Pakistan is:
a) Kashmir b) Siachin c) Kargil d) Balakot
8. The constitutional name of Pakistan is:
a) Peoples republic of Pakistan b) Islamic state of Pakistan
c) Islamic Republic of Pakistan d) Democratic state of Pakistan
9. The constitution of Pakistan promulgated on 23 March 1956 was:
rd

a) First b) Second c) Third d) None of these

10. The first constituent Assembly of Pakistan was dissolved by __________________.
a) Ghulam Muhammad b) Ayub Khan
c) Muhammad Ali Bogra d) Iskandar Mirza
11. The formed of constitutions of 1956 is:
a) Unitary b) Presidential c) Parliamentary d) Provincial
12. General Yaha Khan abrogated the constitution of the year:
a) 1956 b) 1962 c) 1973 d) None of them
13. The Constitution of 1962 was framed by:
a) General Ayub Khan b) General Yaha Khan
c) General Pervez Musharaf d) None of them
14. The abrogated of constitution of 1962 was:
a) General Rahim b) Ghulam Muhammad
c) General Ayub Khan d) General Yahya Khan
15. The formed of constitution of 1962 is:
a) Unitary b) Parliamentary c) Presidential d) Provincial
16. East Pakistan separated from us in the year A.D. ___________________.
a) 1971 b) 1965 c) 1947 d) 1977
17. Bangladesh was recognized by Pakistan during this conference:
a) Second b) First c) Third d) Fourth
18. The National Language of Pakistan is:
a) Siraiki b) Urdu c) Punjabi d) Pushto
19. In the _________ constitution of Pakistan it is Urdu declared the official language.
a) 1956 b) 1962 c) 1973 d) None of them
20. The form of constitution of 1973 is:
a) Unitary b) Presidential c) Parliamentary d) Provincial
21. The upper house is called:
a) Parliament b) P.M House c) President House d) Senate
22. The lower house is called:
a) Parliament b) National Assembly c) President House d) Senate
23. First time the definition of Muslim was launched by constitution of:
a) 1970 b) 1964 c) 1965 d) 1973
24. The official name of Pakistan is:
a) Islamic Republic of Pakistan b) Republic of Pakistan
c) People Republic of Pakistan d) United Republic of Pakistan
 Page | 98

CHAPTER-4 THE LAND AND CLIMATE OF PAKISTAN

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. The old name of Khyber Pakhtunkhwa was:
a) Swat b) N.W.F.P c) Peshawar d) Khyber
2. The country situated in the north of Pakistan is:
a) China b) Russia c) Nepal d) Bhutan
3. The total area of Baluchistan in square kilometer is:
a) 74521 b) 347190 c) 208345 d) 27220
4. India is situated in the ______ of Pakistan.
a) East b) West c) North d) South
5. In the North West Pakistan Lies are neighbouring country:
a) Afghanistan b) India c) Iran d) Bangladesh
6. China is situated in the _____ of Pakistan.
a) East b) West c) North d) South
7. Iran is situated in the ___________ of Pakistan.
a) East b) West c) South West d) North West
8. In the south west of Pakistan _____________ is our neighboring country.
a) China b) India c) Iran d) Afghanistan
9. According to the area of biggest province of Pakistan is:
a) Punjab b) Sindh c) K.P.K d) Baluchistan
10. The main dispute between the India and Pakistan is.
a) Kargil b) Kashmir c) Murree d) Sawat
11. Afghanistan is situated in the ________ of Pakistan.
a) East b) West c) South West d) North West
12. The total area of Pakistan is ___________ sq. km/sq miles.
a) 796096 b) 24357 c) 35335 d) 60758
13. Arabian Sea is situated the ___________ of Pakistan.
a) East b) West c) South d) North
14. The coastal area of Pakistan is about ___________ Kilometers long.
a) 700 b) 800 c) 850 d) 900
15. The total length of Himalayan range in km is:
a) 2430 b) 2500 c) 8126 d) 4600
16. The highest mountain peak of Pakistan is:
a) Nanga Parbat b) K-2 c) Trichmir d) Peer Panjal
17. The highest peak of Karakoram range is ______.
a) Trichmir b) Nanga parbat c) K-2 d) The Himaliyas
18. The highest peak of Himaliyan range is _____________.
a) Nanga Parbat b) K-2 c) Tirch Mir d) Takht-e-Sulaiman
19. The average height of Karakoram range is about ___________ meters.
a) 5000 b) 7000 c) 8000 d) 6000
20. The total height of Nanga Parbat is __________ meters:
a) 7500 b) 8126 c) 6500 d) 5000
21. The highest peak of Hindukash range is _____________.
a) Nanga Parbat b) K-2 c) Tirch Mir d) Takht-e-Sulaiman
22. The total height of Tirch Mir is __________ meters:
a) 7690 b) 5000 c) 7680 d) 8000
23. ___________ is the biggest Desert of Pakistan.
a) Thar b) Thal c) Cholistan d) Chagai
24. ___________ is the largest Port of Pakistan.
a) Karachi Port b) Kemari Port c) Pasni Port d) Gawadar Port
25. The average conditions of temperature, rainfall, humidity are called:
a) Plains b) Plateau c) Climate d) Air Pressure
 Page | 99
26. Pakistan is divided in these climatic regions:
a) Four b) Two c) Six d) Five
27. There are ____________ types of environmental pollution.
a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Five
28. Carbon dioxide and Carbon monoxide making the ___________ pollution.
a) Water b) Air c) Land d) Noise
29. Nuclear tests and explosions create _________ pollution.
a) Water b) Air c) Soil d) Noise
30. The total area of the planet earth is __________ Water.
a) 71% b) 81% c) 91% d) 61%
31. The total area of the planet earth is __________ Land.
a) 29% b) 39% c) 49% d) 59%
32. ___________ % water on the earth is salty.
a) 77 b) 87 c) 97 d) 57

CHAPTER-5 RESOURCES OF PAKISTAN

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. ___________ are the actual wealth and capital country.
a) Peoples b) Forest c) Rivers d) Resources
2. In Pakistan only ___________ percent area is covered with forest.
a) 9.2 b) 4.5 c) 3.6 d) 2.8
3. Changa Manga and chicha watni’s forest are called ______________.
a) Sub-Mountainous forest b) Mountainous Forest
c) Canal forest d) Tidal Forest
4. _____________ is used for Plaster of Paris.
a) Chromite b) Iron c) Gypsum d) Salt
5. The Biggest Mines of chromite is located to _____________.
a) USA b) Russia c) Pakistan d) India
6. The Biggest Saltmines in the world is located at:
a) Karachi b) Chagi c) Makarwal d) Khewra
7. Chromite is a metal which is used make for a ___________.
a) Gypsum b) Iron c) Steel d) Sulfur
8. The natural gas was first found in Pakistan at:
a) Khizar b) Othal c) Sui d) Zoob
9. ____________ is used for making of cement.
a) Chromite b) Marble c) Iron ore d) Lime stone
10. ___________ Marble is considered the most valued and quality marble.
a) India b) Bangladesh c) Iran d) Pakistan
11. In ___________ natural gas was discovered at sui in Pakistan.
a) 1950 b) 1951 c) 1952 d) 1953
12. Between the Pakistan and India, the Indus Basin Treaty was signed an agreement in
___________.
a) 1948 b) 1956 c) 1960 d) 1965
13. The Chasma Barrage is constructed on the river.
a) Jehlum b) Ravi c) Chanab d) Indus
14. Indus Basin Treaty was signed between India and Pakistan due to the struggle of _______.
a) USA b) UN c) World Bank d) Security Council
15. The Mangla Dam is constructed on the river:
a) Chanab b) Indus c) Jehlum d) Ravi
16. The warsak Dam is constructed on the river.
a) Indus b) Kabul c) Chanab d) Jehlum
17. The Tarbela Dam is constructed on the river:
a) Kabul b) Indus c) Ravi d) Jehlum
 Page | 100
18. ___________ is the source of irrigation in Baluchistan.
a) Wells b) Ponels c) Tube wells d) Karez
19. It has the largest systems of Canal irrigation in the world.
a) India b) Pakistan c) Afghanistan d) China
20. ___________ is the most important food crop according to the growth and agriculture land.
a) Rice b) Wheat c) Cotton d) Sugar cane
21. ____________ is a important cash crops of Pakistan.
a) Cotton b) Rice c) Sugar cane d) Wheat
22. Sugar cane is the main source of ____________.
a) Oil b) Sugar making c) Medicine d) Textile
23. Crops are field in Pakistan __________ times in a year.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
24. Majority of the population of the Pakistan is associated with:
a) Agriculture b) Trade c) Fishing d) Industry
25. In 1971, the first Atomic Power Plant of Pakistan is developed in _____________.
a) Karachi b) Quetta c) Lahore d) Khanewal

CHAPTER-6 INDUSTRIAL DEVELOPMENT OF PAKISTAN

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. The process of making useful products from raw materials is called industry.
a) Technical Skills b) Trade c) Industry d) Field
2. Sialkot is famous for these good:
a) Electric b) Sports c) Industrial d) Defence
3. Karachi shipyard and Engineering Work limitedly was established at Karachi in the year.
a) 1956 b) 1958 c) 1960 d) 1962
4. The Pakistan of Steel Mills was Established with the assistance of the country:
a) China b) Russia c) USA d) Iran
5. The biggest industry of Pakistan is Cotton ______________.
a) Wool b) Fabric c) Silk d) None of them
6. There are about ________ ghee and edible oil factories in Pakistan.
a) 120 b) 130 c) 150 d) 160
7. Limestone and ___________ is making for cement.
a) Gypsum b) Iron ore c) Chromite d) Sulphur
8. There are about _________ sugar factories in Punjab.
a) 40 b) 45 c) 49 d) 78
9. At the time of independence in 1947, there was a cement factory in Pakistan.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) None of them
10. Synthetic silk is also called ____________.
a) Naiwon b) Ryan c) Testron d) Linon
11. ____________ is famous for electronic equipment and vehicle.
a) Taiwan b) Pakistan c) Japan d) Russia
12. The number of industrial labour employed in the textile industry of Pakistan is about:
a) 10% b) 20% c) 40% d) 50%
13. The number of textile mills in Pakistan approximately.
a) 600 b) 500 c) 1050 d) 650
14. The total length of Shahrah-e-Pakistan is:
a) 1735 km b) 1835km c) 1935 km d) 2035 km
15. The biggest railway line of Pakistan is started Karachi to _____________.
a) Rawalpindi b) Lahore c) Peshawar d) Quetta
16. The oldest and main highway of Pakistan is:
a) Quetta Peshawar Highway b) Super Highway
c) Indus Highway d) Pakistan Highway
 Page | 101
17. Pakistan highway is called ____________.
a) RCD highway b) Karakoram highway c) National highway d) Indus highway
18. The longest highway of Pakistan is _______________.
a) Indus highway b) Motorway c) Super highway d) Pakistan highway
19. The total length of Karachi Hyderabad Super Highway is ____________ kilometer.
a) 180 b) 140 c) 170 d) 225
20. The total airports of Pakistan is ___________.
a) 35 b) 40 c) 44 d) 48
21. The airline in Pakistan which was established in 1955 is known as ________.
a) PIA b) Aero Asia c) Shaheen Airlines d) Air Blue
22. At present, the total Airlines of Pakistan is ______________
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
23. PIA is established in ______________.
a) 54 b) 55 c) 56 d) 57
24. The total length of roads in Pakistan is _____________.
a) 259758 km b) 259700 km c) 259600 km d) 257500 Km
25. The length of Lahore –Islamabad Motorway is _______ km.
a) 763 b) 367 c) 376 d) 736
26. The most important seaport of Pakistan is ___________.
a) Karachi b) Port Qasim c) Pasni d) Gwadar
27. The full form of E-Commerce is ______________.
a) Electronic Commerce b) Early Commerce
c) Education Commerce d) English Commerce

CHAPTER-7 POPULATION OF PAKISTAN

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. Karachi the biggest city of Pakistan has a population of about:
a) 5millions b) 10 millions c) 15 millions d) 20 millions
2. The number of big cities in Pakistan is:
a) 10 b) 12 c) 14 d) 15
3. Amongst most thickly populated counties of the world Pakistan stands:
a) 3rd b) 4th c) 5th d) 6th
4. The first census in south Asia took place in A.D.
a) 1872 b) 1957 c) 1972 d) 1981
5. In Pakistan, the average population per square kilometers is ________.
a) 144 b) 155 c) 166 d) 177
6. After the establishment of Pakistan, the first census was taken place in A.D.
a) 1962 b) 1952 c) 1951 d) 1981
7. The fifth census in Pakistan took place in A.D.
a) 1998 b) 1972 c) 1981 d) 1985
8. The third census in Pakistan took place in A.D.
a) 1951 b) 1961 c) 1972 d) 1981
9. According to population, the biggest province of Pakistan is:
a) Baluchistan b) Sindh c) Punjab d) K.P.K.
10. According to the 1998 census, there are Urdu speakers in Pakistan:
a) 3.55% b) 7.57% c) 10.53% d) 14.52%
11. The second census in Pakistan took place in A.D.
a) 1951 b) 1961 c) 1972 d) 1981
12. The fourth census in Pakistan took place in A.D.
a) 1951 b) 1961 c) 1972 d) 1981
13. Pakistan’s per capita income is annual:
a) 8800 b) 8000 c) 9600 d) 9800
 Page | 102
14. The majority of Pakistan’s population is associated with it:
a) Agriculture b) Trade c) Fishing d) None of them
15. The female literacy rate of Pakistan, according to A.D. 1998 census is:
a) 36% b) 40% c) 46% d) 50%

CHAPTER-8 CULTURE OF PAKISTAN

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. The things made by camel skin of ____________ are very famous.
a) Hyderabad b) Multan c) Lahore d) Peshawar
2. Engraved furniture and Brass metal object of ____________ are very famous.
a) Lahore b) Faisalabad c) Chiniot d) Bahawalpur
3. ____________ is a sacred religious task in the Culture of Pakistan.
a) Mutual Relation b) Marriage c) Entertainment d) Event
4. The ancient Aryan People spoke ___________ language.
a) Prakrit b) Sanskrit c) Hindi d) Persian
5. Culture means ______________.
a) Writing b) Reading c) Working d) Grow something
6. ___________ is a National Sports of Pakistan.
a) Cricket b) Hockey c) Football d) Boxing
7. ______________ is a National Flower of Pakistan.
a) Sunflower b) Rose c) Jasmine d) Tulip
8. Pakistani National Anthem was writing by _____________.
a) Allama Iqbal b) Sir Syed c) Hafiz Jalandhri d) Faiz Ahmed Faiz
9. ___________ “Ajrak” is very famous in the country.
a) Sindhi b) Balochi c) Punjabi d) Bengali
10. The Highest military award of Pakistan is.
a) Nishan-e-Basalat b) Nishan-e-Jurrat
c) Nishan-e-Haider d) Nishan-e-Pakistan
11. Moen-Jo-Daro was found at Larkana district in ______________.
a) 1920 b) 1925 c) 1930 d) 1940
12. Eid-ul-Fitr is celebrated in the month of:
a) Safar b) Shawwal c) Zilqad d) Rajab
13. Eid-ul-Azha is celebrated in the month of ______.
a) Safar b) Shawwal c) Zil Hajj d) Rajab
14. Eid Milad-un-Nabi is the month of the _____________, the Twelfth Day of Islam is
celebrated with great religious fervor.
a) Shawwal b) Rabi ul Awwal c) Zil Hajj d) Rajab
15. ______________ is also called way of life.
a) Fraternity b) Love c) Culture d) Equality
16. The shrine of Hazrat Abdullah Shah Ghazi is in:
a) Islamabad b) Karachi c) Lahore d) Multan
17. This province of Pakistan is known as “Babul Islam”.
a) Punjab b) Sindh c) Kyber pakhtunkhwa d) Balochistan
18. Rehman baba and Khusal Khan Khattak were famous poets of this language.
a) Sindhi b) Balochi c) Pushto d) Saraiki
19. Gul Khan Nasser and Azad Jamal Uddin was the Poet of _____________ Language.
a) Sindhi b) Balochi c) Punjabi d) Pashto
20. Sachal Sarmast was a sufi poet of the language of:
a) Punjabi b) Sindhi c) Pashto d) Balochi
21. Hazrat Sultan Bahu and Hazrat Bulhe Shah were the famous poets of this language.
a) Balochi b) Punjabi c) Pashto d) Sindhi
 Page | 103
22. Urdu as declared the Official Language of Pakistan in ______________ constitution.
a) 1956 b) 1962 c) 1973 d) None of them
23. In Pakistan more than _______ languages are spoken:
a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) 40
24. ____________ Language played an important role in promoting Pakistan Movement.
a) Hindi b) Gujrati c) Urdu d) Bengali
25. _______ language has the distinction of being the first local language in which the Holy
Quran was translated.
a) Balochi b) Sindhi c) Pushto d) Punjabi
26. __________ is a official language of Province Sindh.
a) English b) Urdu c) Sindhi d) Arabic
27. Shah Jo Risalo was written by ______________.
a) Hashim Shah b) Waris Shah c) Shah Abdul Latif d) Baba Bulleh Shah
28. An institution for the development of Sindhi language established in the year:
a) 1990 b) 1995 c) 1997 d) 1999
29. Hazrat Shah Abdul Latif Bhitai was the famous poet of this language:
a) Sindhi b) Balochi c) Pushto d) Siraiki
30. Sindhi language is written in a modified script of:
a) Persian b) Turkish c) Arabic d) Hindi

CHAPTER-9 EDUCATION IN PAKISTAN

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. The Education provided in class IX and X is called:
a) Primary b) Middle c) Secondary d) Higher Education
2. The First Educational Conference is held on.
a) 1947 b) 1948 c) 1954 d) 1960
3. In Pakistan it is called medical degree:
a) M.B.B.S b) M.S.C c) L.L.M d) B.S.C
4. This institution is responsible for the preparation and development of textbooks in Sindh.
a) B.S.E.K b) Educational foundation
c) Higher Educational Commission d) Sindh Text Book Board Jamshoro
5. There are ___________ types of education is given in Pakistan.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
6. The subject of _____________ is necessary to get admission at medical level.
a) Chemistry b) Biology c) Physics d) Computer
7. Knowledge is such wealth which does not _____________ on use.
a) Ineffective b) Tastless c) Increase d) Decrease
8. Even after so years in Pakistan the literacy rate in only ____________ percent.
a) 38 b) 40 c) 51 d) 61
9. No system of education is above the level of its _____________.
a) Teachers b) Parents c) Students d) Public
10. The quality of ____________ and its quality has a direct impact on the economic
development of any country.
a) Trade b) Agriculture c) Industry d) Education
11. University Grand Commission has a between University ______________.
a) Teacerhs b) Parents c) Students d) Government
12. Information technology is an innovation in the field of ______________.
a) Medical b) Agriculture c) Telecommunication d) Engineering
13. ______________ is giving help in the education of “Information Technology” with the
procedure of distance education.
a) Quaid-e-Azam University b) Allama Iqbal Open University
c) Virtual University d) Agriculture University
 Page | 104
14. The education which is obtained by correspondence letter writing is called _____________.
a) Formal education b) Information education
c) Cultural education d) Distance education

CHAPTER-10 PAKISTAN – A WELFARE STATE

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. A welfare state provides basic requirement to its citizens.
a) Rulers b) Citizens c) Institutions d) None of these
2. The ruler of an Islamic welfare state is a ____________ of powers.
a) King b) Inheritor c) Caretaker d) Trustee
3. Pakistan is an Islamic _____________ state.
a) Ideological b) Islamic c) Welfare d) Democratic
4. Islam is a complete _____________.
a) Code of life b) Principle of life c) Guide of life d) Caravan of life
5. The ___________ of a welfare state are patriotic, bold and outspoken.
a) Rulers b) Citizens
c) Soldiers d) Government servants
6. ______________ presented the concept of welfare state fourteen centuries ago.
a) Greek Thinkers b) Buddhism c) Christianity d) Islam
7. Sovereignty in Islam belongs to Almighty Allah and the ___________ protect the life, property
and honour of its individuals.
a) Democracy b) Socialism c) State d) Government
8. In a nutshell, the concept of an Islamic welfare state is that is maintains _____________.
a) Supreme of law b) Democracy c) Equality d) Moderation.
9. The Islamic welfare state is always accountable to its ______________.
a) Sovereignty b) Caliph c) Political Institutions d) People
10. During the period of Righteous caliphs (632-661 A.D) the concept of ______________ was
fully practical.
a) Greek politics b) Democratic c) Kingdom d) Welfare state.
11. All the citizens in Pakistan have responsibility to pay ____________ regularly.
a) Utility Bills b) Salaries c) Taxes d) Fees
12. _______________ are too short as compared that of problems in Pakistan.
a) Means b) Resources c) Facilitates d) Administration
13. A network of _____________ is set up all around Pakistan.
a) Roads b) Railways c) Education d) Industries
14. The foremost national objectives of Pakistan are the setting up of a/an ______________ as
per the teachings of Islam and principle of democracy.
a) Parliamentary system b) Presidential system
c) Democratic society d) Islamic society
15. _________________ have been established to develop the universal education at federal and
provincial levels.
a) Welfare Organizations b) Economic Organizations
c) Social Organization d) Educational Foundation
16. The present world has practically shrunk into a ____________.
a) Universal Brotherhood b) Universal Unity
c) Universal Federation d) Global Village
17. For universal brotherhood and peace atmosphere of love among _________ is to be created.
a) Rulers b) World Nations
c) World Foundation d) World Institutions
18. There is a difference between the _______ and the resources in different parts of Pakistan.
a) Industry b) Production
c) Agriculture d) Means of Transport
 Page | 105
19. _______________ in food is an imported national need of Pakistan.
a) Savings b) Protection c) Self-sufficiency d) Storage
20. Industries are being set up to provide employment in the backward and __________ areas.
a) Fertile b) Deprived c) Developed d) Residential

CHAPTER-11 THE CIVIC LIFE IN PAKISTAN

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. Democracy means government of the ________.
a) Prime Minister b) President c) People d) Government
2. In Democratic Government all _______________ elect their representation by voting.
a) Members of Assembly b) Citizens
c) Lords d) Soldiers
3. In democratic government people enjoy a lot of _______________
a) Friendship b) Study c) Freedom d) None of these
4. The laws are generally of ________ types
a) Two b) four c) Five d) Six
5. The law are relating to property and civil rights known as____________.
a) Civil law b) criminal law c) Country law d) none of these
6. People in authority break a law to benefit themselves creates ___________________.
a) Freedom b) Corruption c) Values d) None of these
7. The resident of a city is known as_____________
a) Common People b) People c) Citizen d) None of these
8. Each citizen has the rights of adobt and practices any _____________
a) Religion b) faith c) Culture d) Friendship
9. Students must complete their education with________________
a) Cheating b) devotion c) Unlawfulness d) None of these
10. ___________Control corruption from provincial level.
a) NAB b) FIA
c) Anti-Corruption department d) None of these

CHAPTER-12 PROTECTION OF HUMAN RIGHTS

SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. According to black’s law dictionary ________ can be described as the freedom, immunities
and benefits.
a) Human right b) Mankind c) Decent life d) Natural rights
2. The human right day is celebrate across the world on _____________.
a) 9th December b) 8th December c) 10th December d) 11th December
3. ________ are those rights which are inherent dignity of each human beings.
a) Human rights b) Universal rights c) Rights of mankind d) Duties
4. The keep is the ________ of country’s integrity is the responsibility of every citizen.
a) Benefit b) Safety c) Defense d) Damage
5. It is the ________ of every citizen to enjoy the economic, social and cultural rights.
a) Responsibility b) Liable c) Intelligent d) Guardian
6. Education is a ________ need of a person.
a) Low full b) Basic c) Compulsory d) Religious
7. ________ works in a country to obligate the law.
a) Governments b) Courts c) Police d) Army
8. The human rights are also known as ________.
a) Universal Rights b) Basic rights c) Personal rights d) Good rights
 Page | 106
9. The development of the idea of human rights was started in the ________ century.
a) Fifteenth b) Eighteenth c) Nineteenth d) Twenty
10. The citizen must be respect the honorable
a) Government b) Army c) Courts d) States
11. All human beings as born free and ________ in dignity and rights.
a) Equal b) Different c) Unique d) None of them
12. Every person has the right to a ________.
a) Nationality b) To rule c) Welfare state d) Sectarianism
13. ________ up to elementary level should be free.
a) Medical facilities b) Education c) Employment d) Jobs
14. Every person has a responsibility of respect and protect the ________ of others.
a) Duties b) Rights c) Independence d) Democracy
15. ________ out of total number of members can deliberate on the issues in the council.
a) 44 b) 45 c) 46 d) 47
16. The main council of UN is based in ________.
a) Sri Lanka b) Bangkok c) Geneva d) England
17. The council of UN meets ________ times in a year.
a) One time b) Two times c) Three times d) Four times

18. In a democratic type of govt., people enjoy more __________.

a) Rights b) Duties c) Profession d) Laws
19. The law are of ________ types.
a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Five
20. The bribe and corruption have weakened our country’s ________.
a) Lawlessness b) Society c) Roots d) Economy
21. It is the obligation of a citizen t respect & obey federal provincial and local ____________.
a) Rights b) Duties c) Laws d) Orders
22. Promote Pakistan in a ______________ way.
a) Easy b) Positive c) Direction d) Wrong
23. _____________ is a subsidiary body of the general assembly.
a) Human rights council b) United Nations c) Educational Council d) Citizenship

CHAPTER-13 PROTECTION OF CITIZEN’S RIGHTS

AND THE ROLE OF INSTITUTIONS
SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. The institution is generally referred as the “Poor Man’s Court”.
a) High Court b) City Court c) Ombudsman d) Supreme Court
2. It has been serving the people of Pakistan more that:
a) One decades b) Two decades c) Three decades d) Four decades
3. Ombudsman is an official.
a) Government b) Non-government c) Private d) Volunteer
4. An ombudsman is an official appointed by:
a) Government b) Parliament c) Both a and b d) Public
5. The purpose of this organization is to bridge the gap between the citizen and the
administrator.
a) Supreme court b) National assembly c) Senate d) Ombudsman
6. This institution helps to curb misuse of discretionary powers.
a) Institution of Ombudsman b) National Assembly
c) City Court d) Senate
7. The ombudsman’s office may register the complaint through.
a) Post b) Email c) Online d) All of them
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8. The institution came in to being against Harassment of Women under the:
a) Protection Act 2010 b) Protection Act 2020
c) Protection Act 2011 d) Protection Act 2021
9. The purpose of the Protection Act 2010 is to create a safe environment.
a) for women b) for children c) for men d) None of them
10. The Human Rights cell is established in:
a) Supreme Court b) High Court c) Parliament d) Islamabad

SCAN ME

SECTION ‘B’ FOR GUESS PAPER

VIDEO

CHAPTER-1 IDEOLOGICAL BASIS OF PAKISTAN

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Write the fundamental concepts of Islamic Ideology / Society?
2. What are the sources of Islamic Ideology?
3. What is the role of ideology in buildings National Character? Write four points.
4. Write 4 Principles of democracy as practiced in Islam.
5. Write four sentences of Ideology of Pakistan.
6. Describe the statement of Quaid -e-Azam on the ideology of Pakistan.
7. Describe Allama Iqbal’s views on the ideology of Pakistan?

CHAPTER-2 THE MAKING OF PAKISTAN

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. What were the four objectives of Shah Waliullah’s movement?
2. State four main Objectives of Syed Ahmed Shaheed’s Movement. Also tell what was the
impact of this movement.
3. Write four sentences on Aligarh Movement; also write what role did this movement play
to educate the Muslim of South Asia.
4. Write three sentences of “Two Nation Theory”. Also write which theory is the base of the
creation of the Pakistan.
5. Write four sentences of the Role of Mulim League in the struggle for Independence.
6. State role of Sindh in four sentences in the creation of Pakistan.
7. Name four women of Sindh who worked in Pakistan movement.
8. State four main qualities of the Quaid-e-Azam’s personality.
9. State any four points of Quaid-e-Azam’s fourteen points. Also write what was the impact
of these points on the politics of the Muslims South Asia.
10. Write four sentences on Lahore Resolution / Resolution of Pakistan:
11. Mention four main responsibilities of citizens in an Ideological State.

CHAPTER-3 CONSTITUTIONAL DEVELOPMENT IN

ISLAMIC REPUBLIC OF PAKISTAN
SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. State four main features of objective resolution?
2. Describe four main causes of the separation of East Pakistan.
3. State any four Islamic Provisions of the 1973 constitution.
 Page | 108

CHAPTER-4 THE LAND AND CLIMATE OF PAKISTAN

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. State the importance of the location of Pakistan in four sentences:
2. Name four mountains & Mountainous Range of Pakistan.
3. Write four deserts of Pakistan.
4. Name four ports of Pakistan and which is the largest port of Pakistan?
5. Write down any four effects of the climate on the human life?
6. Name climatic regions of Pakistan?
7. Suggest four steps to reduce environmental pollution?
8. Write any four causes of environment pollution?
9. Write four sentences of Air Pollution.

CHAPTER-5 RESOURCES OF PAKISTAN

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Name the natural resources of Pakistan.
2. Write four sentences on importance of Resources in National Development.
3. State four advantages of forests.
4. State four uses of natural gases:
5. Name four barrages of Pakistan:
6. Name four multipurpose dams of Pakistan.
7. Write four sentences on Indus Basin Treaty.
8. Name four agricultural Universities of Pakistan.
9. What do you mean by cash crops? Name four cash crops of Pakistan.
10. What do you mean by food crops? Name four food crops of Pakistan.
11. Mention four agricultural problems of Pakistan.
12. Write four sentences of Nuclear Energy of Pakistan.

CHAPTER-6 INDUSTRIAL DEVELOPMENT OF PAKISTAN

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Write importance of Industry in National Development in four sentences?
2. Suggest four steps for industrial development?
3. Name four cottage industries of Pakistan?
4. Name four heavy industries of Pakistan?
5. Name four defense industries of Pakistan?
6. Write four main industries of Pakistan and their centers of location?
7. Write few sentences of cotton and sugar industries?
8. Name four highways of Pakistan?
9. Name four Airlines working in Pakistan nowadays?
10. Name six imports of Pakistan?
11. Name six exports of Pakistan?

CHAPTER-7 POPULATION OF PAKISTAN

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. State four main causes of high growth rate of population in Pakistan.
2. Suggest four steps to reduce high growth rate of population in Pakistan?
3. Write down four sentences on the importance of census?
4. Write down four sentences on effects of growing population on health?
 Page | 109

CHAPTER-8 CULTURE OF PAKISTAN

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Write any four characteristics of culture?
2. Name four important fairs of Pakistan?
3. Write the name of four saints of Pakistan and from where they belong?
4. Name four important festivals of Muslims in Pakistan?
5. Write four sentences on culture of Pakistan?
6. Write four sentences of Urdu language?
7. Name four regional languages of Pakistan?
8. Write four sentences on Sindhi language?

CHAPTER-9 EDUCATION IN PAKISTAN

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Name the Education Policies of Pakistan?
2. Describe four stages of formal education system?
3. What is the condition of literacy rate in Pakistan? Write few sentences about it?
4. Mention four problems of education in Pakistan?
5. Write few sentences on the advantages of technical and professional education?
6. Write down any four objectives of education of the information technology?

CHAPTER-10 PAKISTAN – A WELFARE STATE

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Write down the four sentences on The Islamic concept of a welfare state.
2. Write down the four duties of the welfare state.
3. State four main national objectives of Pakistan.
4. Write four sentences on the role of an individual in a welfare state.
5. Write down any four steps have taken by the government for self-sufficiency of Food in
Pakistan.

CHAPTER-11 THE CIVIC LIFE IN PAKISTAN

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Write four lines about democratic government?
2. Define types of Law?
3. Write four rights of a citizen?
4. Write four duties or obligations of a citizen?
5. Write the bad effects of corruption?
6. Write the names of the institution made by the Govt. to control corruption.

CHAPTER-12 PROTECTION OF HUMAN RIGHTS

SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. When and why we the Human Rights Day celebrate?
 Page | 110

CHAPTER-13 PROTECTION OF CITIZEN’S RIGHTS

AND THE ROLE OF INSTITUTIONS
SECTION B (SHORT QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Write four sentences on the Ombudsman’s Intentions?
2. What is the way of filling complaint in ombudsman office?
3. How any why the institution of female ombudsman came into existence in Pakistan?
4. What is the purpose of Sindh Government’s Human Rights department?

SCAN ME

SECTION ‘C’ FOR GUESS PAPER

VIDEO

CHAPTER-1 IDEOLOGICAL BASIS OF PAKISTAN

SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Explain in detail principles of democracy in Islam.
2. Briefly describe Quaid-e-Azam’s views on the ideology of Pakistan.
3. Briefly describe Allama Iqbal’s views on the ideology of Pakistan.

CHAPTER-2 THE MAKING OF PAKISTAN

SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Mention the role of Shah Waliullah in the Revivalist Movement?
2. What were the main objectives of the “Faraizi Movement”?
3. Describe the achievements of Aligarh Movement.
4. Describe the role of Muslim League in the struggle of Pakistan.
5. Highlight the main points, which make the character of Quaid-e-Azam a model for
others.
6. Write down the fourteen points of Quaid-e-Azam.
7. Write a short note on Pakistan Resolution.
8. Describe Two Nation Theory.

CHAPTER-3 CONSTITUTIONAL DEVELOPMENT IN

ISLAMIC REPUBLIC OF PAKISTAN
SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Why did East Pakistan separate from West Pakistan?
2. Write down the Islamic features of 1973 constitution.

CHAPTER-4 THE LAND AND CLIMATE OF PAKISTAN

SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Define the importance of the location of Pakistan in the South Asian region.
2. What is Environmental Pollution? And what are the preventive measures for Environmental
Pollution?
 Page | 111

CHAPTER-5 RESOURCES OF PAKISTAN

SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. What are the advantages of forests?
2. Name the mineral resources of Pakistan.
3. What are the agricultural problems of Pakistan?
4. Write a note on Nuclear Energy in Pakistan.

CHAPTER-6 INDUSTRIAL DEVELOPMENT OF PAKISTAN

SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. What steps can be taken for industrial development in Pakistan?
2. Write a note on cotton and sugar industries in Pakistan?
3. What are the main industries of Pakistan?
4. What are the uses of E-Commerce?

CHAPTER-7 POPULATION OF PAKISTAN

SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. What are the causes of growth of population in Pakistan?
2. What are the effects of growing population on health and education?

CHAPTER-8 CULTURE OF PAKISTAN

SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Describe the salient features of Pakistani Culture?
2. Describe the importance of Urdu language as the national language?

CHAPTER-9 EDUCATION IN PAKISTAN

SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Write a note on teacher-training in Pakistan?
2. What are the educational problems of Pakistan?
3. Mention the objectives of IT education in Pakistan?

CHAPTER-10 PAKISTAN – A WELFARE STATE

SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. What is the concept of an Islamic Welfare State?
2. State the important national goals of Pakistan and review them in detail.
3. Explain the character of an individual in a welfare state?
4. Why are sustained constructive efforts necessary for Pakistan?

CHAPTER-11 THE CIVIC LIFE IN PAKISTAN

SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Describe the rights and obligations (duties) of a citizen.
2. What is the meaning of Corruption? What are the harmful effects on the society?
 Page | 112

CHAPTER-12 PROTECTION OF HUMAN RIGHTS

SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. Describe the UN Human rights declaration, 1948?

CHAPTER-13 PROTECTION OF CITIZEN’S RIGHTS

AND THE ROLE OF INSTITUTIONS
SECTION C (DETAILED QUESTIONS ANSWERS)
1. What is the role of Women Ombudsman in Pakistan?

BOARD OF SECONDARY EDUCATION KARACHI

SCAN ME MODEL QUESTIONS PAPER
FOR
MODEL PAPER S.S.C. (ANNUAL) EXAMINATIONS 2023
SOLUTION
PAKISTAN STUDIES
Time: 3 Hours CLASS X (Science Group) Max Marks: 75
General Instructions:
Section ‘A’: It consists of 15 multiple choice questions (MCQs) and all of them are to be answered.
Section ‘B’: It consists of 10 Short answer questions of which 06 questions are to be answered.
Section ‘C’: It comprises of 05 Descriptive answer questions of which 03 questions are to be answered.
Time: Half Hour SECTION “A” (MCQ’S – MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS) Marks: 15
NOTE:
(i) Attempt all the questions of this section.
(ii) Do not copy down the question. Write only the answer against the proper number of the questions.
(iii) Each question carries ONE mark.

Q1: Choose the correct answer from the given options:

1. Allama Iqbal delivered his sermon at Allahabad in the year:
a) 1930 b) 1965 c) 1920 d) 1955
2. Conquer of Sindh in 712 AD was:
a) Zaheer ud din Babar b) Shabab ud din Ghouri
c) Mehmood Ghaznavi d) Muhammad Bin Qasim
3. The first president of All India Muslim League was:
a) Waqar ul Mulk b) Mohsin ul Mulk c) M.A. Jauhar d) Sir Agha Khan
4. Two Nation Theory was present by:
a) Rehmat Ali b) Abdul Halim
c) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan d) Muhammad Ali Jinnah
5. The formed of constitution of 1973 is:
a) Unitary b) Presidential c) Parliamentary d) Provincial
6. The objective resolution was approved on 12th March:
a) 1947 b) 1949 c) 1948 d) 1950
7. The highest peak of Karakoram range is:
a) Trichmir b) Nanga Parbat c) K-2 d) The Himaliyas
8. Natural gas was discovered at Sui in Pakistan.
a) 1950 b) 1951 c) 1952 d) 1953
9. The total area of Pakistan is sq km/sq miles.
a) 796096 b) 24357 c) 35335 d) 60758
10. The Pakistan Steel Mills was established with the assistance of this country.
a) China b) Russia c) USA d) Iran
 Page | 113
11. In Pakistan, the average population per square kilometer is:
a) 144 b) 155 c) 166 d) 177
12. This province of Pakistan is known as Babul Islam.
a) Punjab b) Sindh c) KPK d) Baluchistan
13. Today world is like a:
a) Global war b) Global unity c) Global organization d) Global village
14. The human right day is celebrating across the world on:
a) 9th December b) 8th December c) 10th December d) 11th December
15. The institution is generally referred as the poor Man’s Court.
a) High court b) City court c) Ombudsman d) Supreme court

SECTION “B” (SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS) (30)

NOTE: Attempt any SIX (6) questions. All questions carry equal marks. Do not copy questions.
Q2. Define Democracy. Write down any four Principles of Democracy in Islam.
Q3. Name any five mineral resources of Pakistan.
Q4. Write down any five achievements of Aligarh Movement.
Q5. Mention any five salient features of Objectives Resolution.
Q6. Write down five causes of growth of population in Pakistan.
Q7. Define Culture. Write down any four of its characteristics.
Q8. Mention any five problems of Industrial Sector of Pakistan.
Q9. Write down any five the National goals of Pakistan.
Q10. Write any five functions of Ministry of Human Rights in Pakistan.
Q11. Write down any five rights and duties of the citizens of Pakistan.

SECTION “C” (DETAILED-ANSWER QUESTIONS) (30)

NOTE: Attempt any THREE (3) questions. All questions carry equal marks.
Q12. What role was played by the provinces in the struggle for Pakistan?
Q13. Describe the importance of Festivals as a part of our culture.
Q14. Critically evaluate the state of human rights in Pakistan and suggest measures to safeguard
them.
Q15. Mention the objectives of IT education in Pakistan.
Q16. Write down a detailed note on any ONE of the following:
i. Physical features of Pakistan.
ii. The role of women Ombudsperson in Pakistan.
iii. Two-Nation Theory.
 Page | 182
4 -:Ϯ̰ϟ ϝΎϴΧ ϱΰ‫ד‬ήϣ ϮΟ Ϣψϧ ‫ד‬ϫ ϪΑ ϦϬϨ‫ ד‬ϥΎϣ ϦϴՑϴϫ (Ώ)
ϮΌϳ֌ (iii) ϱέΎϫ (ii) έΎδϨγ Ϯϛ ϮΟ ̮γ ϥϮϳΎՍΑ (i)

3 -:Ϯϳήϛ ϮϤΟήΗ ٩ ˯˴ ϭΩέ΍ ϮΟ ϑ΍ή̳΍ήϴ̡ Ϟϧ֌ Տϴϫ (Ν)

Ϧϫ֋Ο .ϲϫ΁ ‫؟‬ϧ ϲΌη ‫؟‬Α ‫ד‬ϳֆϭ ϥΎ̯ ήϴϤο ϲΟ ϥΎϫϭ΍٩ ΎϴϧΩ‫؟‬Η ϥΎϳέΎϳ֌ Ϯՠ ϦϴϘϳ ϲ̯ ϥΎϫϭ΍ ˯˵ ΁
ϲ‫ד‬ϴΟ ϲΗ ϥϮϣ ‫؟‬Η ϥϮϬ̴γ ϲΌ̩ ϥΎγ ˯˴ ϱΩΎϤΘϋ΍ΩϮΧ ϥΎϫϭ΍ Ϧϫ֋Η Ϯϴՠ ζϴ̡ ٩ έϮπΣ ϲΟ ΍ΪΧ ϥΎϫϭ΍
‫ل‬΍Ωϧϳ֌ϡΎΟϧ΍έγ ϲΟ ϲ̳ΩϧίϖΑΎρϣ ϲϬϧ΍ ˯˶ .Ύϳ֋ռ ϱή‫ ד‬΍έϮ̡ ϥϮϣ ϲϫ΍ ΎΌϫ Ϟϴ̯έ νήϓ
 Page | 181
:Ϯ̰ϟ Ώ΍ϮΟ ΎΟ Ϧϟ΍Ϯγ Ϟϧ֌٩ ήΧ΁ ϲϫ̡֞ ϑ΍ή̳΍ήΌ̡ Ϟϧ֌ Տϴϫ
˯˶ Ϯ̡ ϥΎ̯ ϦՔ ϲϨϴϬϣ ϲ̯ ϲՌֆέ ‫؟‬Η ˬϲΠ̯έ٩ ϥΎϳֆ ϪΑ Ϯϫ΍ ˯˶ Ϯ̡ ϥΎ̯ ϦϬϨΗ .ϲΠϫ ϭήΟ΍ Ϯռ΍ ˬϞϳέΎϬՔ ϪθϴϤϫ ϮՌֆέ
ΏάΟ ؑ΍ήϴϣ٨ գՍγ٩ έΎռ .ϲΠ‫ ד‬ϑΎλ ϲϠϣ ϥΎγ έΎռ ϲ̯ ϥϮϧΎՠ ϲΟ ϲΘϴ̡ ϱֆΎ̯٨ ˯˵ Ύ̡̪ֆέϲΟ֌ έϭήο Ϯ̢ϴϟ
.Ύՠ Ϧհϭ ϲՠ
ˮϲΟήϬ̳ ؒΌϫ ϦΌϴ‫ ד‬ϮՌֆέ .i
ˮϲΟήϬ̳ ؒ΋ϭֆ ϥΎγ Ύռ ϮϧΎՠ ΎΟ ϲΘϴ̡ ϱֆΎ̯٨ ˯˵ Ύ̡̪ֆέ .ii
ˮΎՠ Ϧϴՠ ΏάΟ Ύռ٩ έΎռ .iii
ˮϲΟέϬ̳ ؑή‫ ד‬Ύռ ˯˶ Ϯ̡ ϥΎ̯ ϦՔ ϲϨϴϬϣ ϲ̯ ϲՌֆέ .iv

30 ϥ
 ϮϛέΎϣ 40% (ϝ΍Ϯγ ΎΟ Ώ΍ϮΟ ϲϧΎϴΑ)´Ν³ ϮμΣ
6 -:Ϯ̰ϟ ϥϮϤπϣ ϲΗ ϥ΍ϮϨϋ ‫ד‬ϫ ϪΑ ϦϬϨ‫ ד‬ϥΎϣ ϦϴՑϴϫ .6
ϥΎΘδ‫ד‬Ύ̡ ϡ˶ Ϯϳ iii) Ϣ γϮϣ ϲΟ έΎϬΑ ii) ΖϤψϋ ϲΟ ΩΎΘγ΍ i)

Ζγ΍ϮΧέΩ ˯˶ ϻ ΕίΎΟ΍ ϲΟ ؒհϭ ϲΗ ‫ד‬Ϩ‫ ̡ד‬ϲ̯ ˯˴ ϲՌΎϳήΘγΎϣւϴϫ/ήΘγΎϣ ւϴϫ ϲΟ ϝϮ‫ד‬γ΍ ϲΠϨϬϨ̡ .7
6 .Ϯ̰ϟ
Ύϳ
ήϬ̳ ϲΟ Ϧϴ̡έ έ΍ΰϫ ΞϨ̡ ˯˶ ϻ ˯˴ ϱέ΍ΪϳήΧ ϲΟ ϡέΎϔϴϧϮϳ٨ ϦΑΎΘ‫ ד‬βΌϧΎ̯ ϲ̰ϟ ςΧ ϲ̯ ΐΣΎλ Ϊϟ΍ϭ ϲΠϨϬϨ̡
.Ϯϳή‫ד‬

6 :Ϯ̰ϟ ϥΎγ ϲϟ΍ϮΣ ϲΟ ήϋΎη٨ Ϣψϧ ϲՌΎϬΠϤγ ϲΟ ϦՔ‫؟‬Α ϥ‫ ו‬ϥΎϣ ϥήόη Ϟϧ֌ Տϴϫ .8
ˬϲ˰˰ϟϮϬΟ ϮΟ ϡϼγ΍ ΩϧϬΟ٩ ΎϴϧΩ ϝΎη ϪθϴϤϫ .i
.Ύ̡ήΑ ϲΗ΍ Ϣ ΋Ύϗ ϲϫέ ˬϲ̪Ϭ̡ ϲհϭ Ϯγ ϲդ ϲΘΟ
ˬΩϫ΍έ ϥΎ˰˰˰˰˰˰ϳέΎϬϧίϭέ ϲ˰˰Ο ؒ˰˰˰˰˰̩΍ ϲ˰˰˰˰˰˰˰˰˰Ο ˯˴ ϱέ΁ .ii
ϭϳ‫ ו‬ϲ˰ϗΪλ ή˰˰˰˰˰˰˰˰˰γ ϥϮ˰˰˰˰˰˰˰˰˰ϣௌ αΪϨϴ˰Ռ΁
ˬ̲ϧέ ϲ˰˰˰˰˰˰˰˰΋ϻ ΖϨΤϣ ϲΠϨϬϨΗ .iii
.̲Ϩγ ϮΟ ̮γ ϲΌՠ Ϧհϭ ̭֌
ˬ˯˵ Ύ‫׶‬ϫ٩ Ϧ΋΍Ϯϫ ϲΠϨϬϨΗ٨ ‫ד‬θϣ٩ ˯˴ ϲ՜ϣ ϲΠϨϬϨΗ .iv
.Ϧσϭ ΍έ΍ֆ ϱΪϨγ Εή˰˰˰˰˰˰˰˰ϣ΍ ؒմ ΝϮϣ ήϫ ϲΟ ؑ΍ήϬϣ
Ύϳ
-:Ϯ̰ϟ ϥΎγ ϲϟ΍ϮΣ ϲΟ ήϋΎη٨ Ϣ ψϧ ΢ϳήθΗ ϲΟ ΪϨΑ Ϟϧ֌ Տϴϫ
ˬϱή˰˰‫ ו‬Ϯՠ ϲ΋΍ήΑ ‫؟‬ΑϮ‫ ד‬ϲՍ̯ ϲΟ ϥΎγ ϥϮϣ
ˬϱέϭ ϱ֌ϥ΍‫؟‬Α‫؟‬Η‫؟‬ϧ ϥΎϣ ˯˴ ϲ΋΍ήΑ ϲΠϨϬϨϣϝΩ
ˬϲ˰˰˰˰‫ו‬ϴϧ Ϯϴ̡ αΪϨϛ ؑΎγϝΩ‫؟‬Α ϥΎγ ϥ΍ ˯˵ ΁
!ϱέֆ Ϊϧϭ΍Ϊ˰˰˰˰˰˰˰˰˰˰˰Χ ϝΎ˰˰˰˰˰˰˰η ՟ϫ Ϯ˰˰˰˰˰˰Ο ϖϴϓϮΗ

5 -:Ϯ̰ϟ ³ϝΎϴΧ ϱΰ‫ד‬ήϣ” Ύϳ ³ϮλϼΧ”ϮΟ ϖΒγ ‫ד‬ϫ ϪΑ ϦϬϨ‫ ד‬ϥΎϣ ϦϴՑϴϫ  ϒϟ΍) .9
έϮ̡ήμϧ iii) ϦϫέΎՔ‫؟‬Η‫؟‬Α ii) ϲϫ΁ ΖϟϭΩ ήϨϫ i)
 Page | 180
-ؑϳ֌ ______ ϭΟ ϡΎόϧ΍ ϥϳϫԸ΍ ϭϳԸ΍ ϲϠϫ ؑΎ̡ ϥϭΗϭγ ϲϫԸ΍ ϥΎϣ΍ ϥϣ΍ ٩ ‫ה‬Ϡϣ ϲՌΎϫ (15
ϭέϭ̡ Ω ϭλΣ Ν ֆ΍ Ώ ϭմγ ϑϟ΍

Main Paper
60ϥϭ̯έΎϣ ϝ‫ו‬ ‫דل‬ϼ‫ ו‬ϲ΋΍ֈ΍ Εϗϭ
30ϥϭ̯έΎϣ 40% ϝ΍ϭγΎΟΏ΍ϭΟέλΗΧϣ ΏϭλΣ
10 ϭ̰ϟΏ΍ϭΟΎΟϥϟ΍ϭγϥΟϧ̡ϭΑ ϥ‫ו‬ϥΎϣ ϥϳՐϳϫ .2
ˮϲϫ΁ ΎռϲϧόϣϲΟΡϼρλ΍ ؑ‫׶‬ϟ έϬΟϧϳ‫ו‬ .i
ˮΎՠϥϠϣ ؑΎհϫ΍ ΍֞Ϭ‫ו‬ΎΟΏΩ΍ ϱֆϧγ٩έϭΩϲΟϥΑέϋ .ii
ˮϭΩϧ΁ϥ΋ϳ‫ו‬ϭϣΗΎΧϭΟϥϠϳ֞΍ֆΩηέ΍٨ϡϳϠγ .iii
ˮϮϳ΍ևՔ ϦϬϨϛ ήϴΒόΗ ϮΟ Ώ΍ϮΧ ϲ̯ϲ˴΋ϫ֞ϛϡϳϠγ .iv
ˮϦϫ΁ ΍ΪϨϴՠ ̲ϧέ έΎ̩΍֞Ϭ‫ ו‬ΎΟ ‫ד‬ήΟ΍ .v
ˮϲϫ΁ ϱΪϨϳϭ ϲΌϛ ϥΎγ Ύռ ΕΎϋϭήη ϲΟ ̰ؒϟ ςΧ .vi
ˮ Ϯϫ Ϯ‫ד‬Ύϫέ ϮΟ ϲաϛ ϲγ
஫ έΎϓ ϥΎϤϠγ ΕήπΣ .vii
ˮϱήϛ Ϯՠ ΎϋΩϱ֞Ϭ‫ ו‬ϲ̯ ˯˴ ϱέΎϫ ήϋΎη .viii
ˮ ϱήϬ̳ Ϯՠ ؑέϮϬ̳ ϪϫΎγ ήγ ϥΎաϣ ϲΟ ϦϬϨϛ ήϋΎη .ix

4 -:ϮϴϫΎՐ ϼϤΟ ΎΟ ϦΌ̩‫؟‬Α Ϧ‫ ד‬ϥΎϣ Ϧψϔϟ ϦϴՑϴϫ .3

ϱ֞Ύս̡ - ϖΤΘδϣ -ˬ ΩϮΒϬΑ - ϲϣΎϨ ‫ד‬ϴϧ έ΍ή‫ד‬Η - ‫ד‬Ύϫ- ΍έΎδ̡

-:Ϯ̰ϟ Ϊο ΎΟ ϦΌ̩‫؟‬Α Ϧ‫ ד‬ϥΎϣ Ϧψϔϟ ϦϴՑϴϫ  ϒϟ΍ .4

ϡ΍Ϯϋ - ήϬη - Ώ΍ήΧ - ϲΨγ - ϡ ΩΎΧ - ήΒϫέ - ϡ ΍ήΣ

-:Ϯ̰ϟ ϊϤΟ Ύϳ ΪΣ΍ϭ ΎΟ ϦՌ‫؟‬Α Ϧ‫ ד‬ϥΎϣ Ϧψϔϟ ϦϴՑϴϫ (Ώ

Ϯ̡̰ - ϡ Ϯϗ ˵
- ΍ήϤ‫ ד‬-ϲՠΎϫ - ՟ϫ - ϥϮ΋ΎϋΩ

-:Ϯ̰ϟ ΚϧϮϣ Ύϳ ήϛάϣΎΟ ϦՌ‫؟‬Α Ϧ‫ ד‬ϥΎϣ Ϧψϔϟ ϦϴՑϴϫ (Ν

ϱΩ΍ΰϬη - ϲ‫ד‬ήϬΟ - ϲ̩Ύ̩ - ϥϮΌ‫ ׵‬- ήՍϛ΍ւ - ΕέϮϋ

-:Ϯ̰ϟ ϒλϭ ϲ˴Όϳ֌ ϝΎΜϣϭΟ ‫ד‬ϫ‫؟‬Α ϦϬϨ‫ ד‬ϥΎϣ ϦϴՑϴϫ (Ω

ϑήχˬ ήΟ ϑήΣ

-:Ϯ̰ϟ ϲϨόϣ
Ի ٩ ˯˴ ϱևϨγ ϲΟ ϦΣϼτλ΍ ϦΌ̩ ‫؟‬Α Ϧ‫ ד‬ϥΎϣ ϦϴՑϴϫ .5
ؒϴՠ ϮՌΎս̡ - ؑ֞ΎΘϟ ϥΎՑϴϫ ϥήϴ̡ - ؒϳ֌ ϥ΍֞ϫ - ؑ֋ռ Εάϟ - ؒ΋Ύ‫ ׵ؒ ׵‬- ؒ‫׶‬ϟ ήϬΠϨϴ‫ ד‬- ؒհϭ ϲՍ̯ ˯˶ Ϯ̳
(֞ΪϨϠϫ) Ύϳ
 Page | 179

ϲ̩΍έ‫ ו‬ϥηϳ‫ו‬ϭΟϳ΍ ϱέւϧ‫ז‬ϳγ ϑ΁ ւέϭΑ

SCAN ME
ϥ
 ΎΣΗϣ΍՚ϳ‫ז‬ϳϔϳ՜έγϝϭ‫ז‬γ΍ϱέւϧ‫ז‬ϳγ MODELFORPAPER
ω
 ˻˹˻˼έ̡ϳ̡ ϝւΎϣ SOLUTION

 ̟ϭέ̳αϧ΋Ύγ ˯ ϥϭϳϫ֌ αϼ‫ו‬ ϲ

 ϣίϻαΑϳϠγ ϱֆϧγϥϭϣοϣ
75:ϥϭ‫ו‬ έΎϣ ϝ‫ו‬ ‫ד‬
 ϼ‫ ו‬ϲ՜Εϗϭ
20% ϝ΍ϭγ ΎΗ΋΍ւϧϭ̩ ؑϬ̳ ϑϟ΍ϭλΣ
ϲϫ΁ϭΟ ‫ד‬έΎϣ ‫ה‬ϫϝ΍ϭγ ‫ה‬ϫέϫ΍Ωϧϳϭ Ύϧ֌ 15 MCQSϥΎϣ̶λΣϥϫ՚ϭϧ .1
‫ل‬΍Ωϧϳϭ Ύϧ֌ϥΎϣϥϣυϧ٨ϥϘΑγ ϡΎϣΗ
-ϲϫԸ΍ έ΍ϭϳϣΫ ΩϭΧ ˯˶ ϻ ϫϭ֌ϲΟϧϬϧ̡ ______ (1
έΎ‫ו‬ΩΑ Ω Ώ΍έΧ Ν ϱέΎϫϭ֌ Ώ έΎ̳ϫΎϧ̳ ϑϟ΍
-ϭϳՠέϧέϭ̳ϭΟϥϳ΋΍Ωϣ٩ϲϧΎϣίϲΟ ______‫؟‬οέϲγέΎϓϥΎϣϠγΕέοΣ (2
‫؟‬οέέϣϋΕέοΣ Ώ ‫؟‬οέ έ‫ז‬ΑϭΑ΍ΕέοΣ ϑϟ΍
‫؟‬οέϲϠϋΕέοΣ Ω ‫؟‬οέϥΎϣΛϋΕέοΣ  Ν
-ϲ΋‫ו‬ΕΎϓϭϲΗ ______έϔλ 14ϑϳρϠϟ΍ΩΑϋ ϩΎη (3
ϫ 1108 Ω ϫ 1142 Ν ϫ 1163 Ώ ϫ 1165 ϑϟ΍
-ϭՠϲϠϣ ______ϥΎγ ϲϫ֞ϳ̡ ϥϳՠϭ̩ϭϠγϠγϲΑγϧϭΟϥΟ ‫؟‬οέέϔόΟϡΎϣ΍ΕέοΣ (4
‫؟‬οέϥγΣϡΎϣ΍ΕέοΣ Ώ ‫؟‬οέϥϳγΣϡΎϣ΍ΕέοΣ ϑϟ΍
‫؟‬οέέϣϋΕέοΣ Ω ‫؟‬οέϲϠϋΕέοΣ Ν
-ϲϫԸ΍ ϲΗ ______έ΍Ωϣϭέ΍ΩϭΟϝ΍ϭί٨ ϝ΍Ύϣ‫ˬו‬ϝίϧΗ٨ϲϗέΗϲΟϥϣϭϗ (5
ϱֆՔ Ω ΩΎΣΗ΍ Ν ϡ‫ז‬ΣϣϥϳϘϳ Ώ ρΑοϭϡυϧ ϑϟ΍
-ϲϫԸ΍ έϋΎη ϭΟ ΎϋΩ ϡυϧ (6
ϑϳρϟ ϩΎη Ώ ϲՌΎϫϭϳγΩϣΣϣ΢Ηϓ ϡϳ‫ז‬Σ ϑϟ΍
έϓΎγϣϖϳΩλΩϣΣϣ Ω ϥϳγΣΗ ϡ ϳ‫ז‬Σ  Ν
-ϭϫϭΩϧϭ̡ ϭֈ΍֌ϭΟΕ΍έ٩ϥ΍ϭΟϲ΋ϫ ϱ֞ϫ΍ ϲՐϭ‫ו‬Ύϫ΍ (7
ϭέΎ̡ Ω ˯˵ ϲγ (Ν ̟ւ Ώ ϑϭΧ ϑϟ΍
-ϲϫԸ΍ ϭΑ΋̩ ϲ̯ ϥ΍ ˬϲϫԸ΍ ϭΑ֌ϝ΍ϭΣ΍ϝΎΣ٩ ϲ̳ΎդϥϬϧΟϲΟρΧ (8
ϲ΋΍ΩΗΑ΍ Ω ϲϣΎΗΗΧ΍ Ν ϭέγ Ώ ΕέΎΑϋ ϑϟ΍
-ϲϫԸ΍ ٩ ̲΋ϫ έϬη ϲΟ ______ϡΎϘϣέΩλϭΟΕϟ΍Ωϋϲϣ΍ϭϗϻ΍ϥϳΑ (9
Ύ‫ז‬ϧϟϱέγ Ω ւϧϳϟϱίϭϳϧ Ν ւϧϳϠ̴ϧ΍ Ώ ւϧϳϟΎϫ ϑϟ΍
-Ύ΋ϫ΍έ΍ϭ ϲ΋ΎՐγϲ΋Ύϔλ٨ΕϠλΧ ‫ה‬ϳϧ٨ ______‫؟‬ϧ΍֌ϳ‫ו‬έϳϣ ϡ ‫ו‬ΎΣΎΟ ֆϧγ (10
‫؟‬ϧ ‫؟‬Αϭ‫ ו‬Ω ΕϓΎϳϲϗέΗ Ν ϝϳέֆγ Ώ ‫؟‬ΗϓΎϳΏϳΫϬΗ ϑϟ΍
-ϥϫԸ΍ ϝϳ̡ռΎϋϭϣΟϣ ______ΎΟϱέϋΎηϲΟϲ΋΍Ω̳ ϡ ϳέ‫ז‬ϟ΍ΩΑϋ (11
‫؟‬Ϭ̩ Ω έΎ̩ Ν ϲ՜ Ώ ‫؟‬Α ϑϟ΍
-ϥϫԸ΍ ΍ΩϧϳέդέϭέοϱέοΎΣϲΗέΑϗϲΟ ______٨ϱέϭϧ ϭϬՌΎϣ ֞Ωϧϳ΍ Ήϻ ˶ ؑϣϬ̳ ϲΗֈϧֈ έϬΟϧϳ‫( ו‬12
ϫΎηέΩϧϠϗ Ω ΏϳΑΣ ϩΎη Ν ϩΎη ϱ֞Ωϧϭϫ Ώ ϑϳρϟϫΎη ϑϟ΍
-ϭϳՠωϭέηϥΎ̯ω______ ϝ‫ז‬՜΍έϭΩϭΟϥέϣϭγ (13
1051 Ω 1085 Ν 1055 Ώ 1050 ϑϟ΍
-ϲ΋ϫ ϲ΋΍֞ϭΟ ______ ˯˵ ΎդϲΟ ϲՌΎϬϣέϳλϧΩΟγϣ ϲ‫ו‬έ΍έϗ (14
ϥΎΧέϳλϧ Ν ϥΎΧΩΩϣ Ω ϥΎΧέ΍έϗ Ώ ϥΎΧέ΍έϗ΍ ϑϟ΍
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5
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158

SHAH GROUP OF INSTITUTIONS

GRAND TEST SCHEDULE 2022-23
IX-X-XI-XII (Science & Commerce Group)
IX-SCI X-SCI DATE DAY XI-SCI XII-SCI DATE DAY
Urdu Pak. Std. 28 Mar
th
Tue Urdu Urdu 26 Apr
th
Wed
Islamiat Sindhi 30th Mar Thurs Islamiat Pak. Std. 28th Apr Fri
English English 1st Apr Sat English English 30th Apr Sun
Chemistry Chemistry 3rd Apr Mon Chem/Comp Chem/Comp 2nd May Tue
Physics Physics 5th Apr Wed Maths/Botany Maths/Botany 4th May Thurs
Maths Maths 7th Apr Fri Zoology Zoology 6th May Sat
Comp / Bio Comp / Bio 9th Apr Sun Physics Physics 8th May Mon

XI-COM XII-COM DATE DAY

Urdu Urdu 26 Apr
th
Wednesday
Islamiat Pakistan studies 28th Apr Friday
English English 30th Apr Sunday
POC Banking 2nd May Tuesday
Economics Commercial Geography 4th May Thursday
Business Maths Statistics 6th May Saturday
Accounting Accounting 8th May Monday

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