RBI Assistant Prelims PDF Course 2023

Reasoning Ability Day -11 (Eng)

Reasoning Ability

Directions (1-5): Study the following information e) 28 years

carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H were 4. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true
born in different years viz., 1988, 1989, 1994, with respect to the final arrangement?
2004, 2009, 2010, 2013 and 2016. Their ages I. E’s age is 9
are calculated with respect to 2022. II. Only two persons were born between H and C
The age of E is the multiple of 9. Only three III. A is elder to G
persons were born between E and A. As many a) Only II
persons born before A as after G. The difference b) Only I and II
between the ages of G and D is 6 years. H was c) Only II and III
born either immediately before or immediately d) Only III
after D. F is elder to B but younger than C, who e) Only I
was not the eldest person.
1. B was born in which of the following year? 5. Who among the following person was born in
a) 2009 2009?
b) 2016 a) G
c) 2010 b) B
d) 2013 c) C
e) 1994 d) A
e) F
2. What is the sum of the ages of A and C?
a) 62 Directions (6-10): Study the following information
b) 19 carefully and answer the questions given below.
c) 40 Eight persons are sitting in two parallel rows in
d) 18 such a way that there is an equal distance
e) 15 between adjacent persons. In row 1 A, B, C and
D are seated and all of them are facing south. In
3. What is the age of D? row 2 L, M, N and O are seated and all of them
a) 6 years are facing north. Each person in row 1 faces
b) 13 years exactly one person in row 2.
c) 34 years B sits second to the right of D. Only one person
d) 9 years sits between N and the one who faces D. A faces

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Reasoning Ability Day -11 (Eng)

the one who is an immediate neighbour of N. C c) Immediate right

sits second to the left of A. The one who faces C d) Third to the left
is an immediate neighbour of O. M sits e) Second to the right
immediate right of O.
6. Who among the following pair of persons sits 10. Who among the following person sits to the
at the extreme end? left of B?
a) C, L I. A
b) D, N II. The one who sits opposite to O
c) B, M III. C
d) A, N a) Only I and II
e) C, O b) Only II and III
c) Only II
7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain d) Only I and III
way based on the given arrangement and thus e) All I, II and III
form a group. Which one of the following does
not belong to the group? Directions (11-15): Study the following
a) B information carefully and answer the questions
b) C given below.
c) N Ten persons viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y
d) M are living in a five storey building where the
e) A lowermost floor is numbered as one and the floor
immediately above it is numbered as two and so
8. Who among the following person sits opposite on.
to A? Note-I: Each floor has two flats viz., Flat-A and
a) M Flat-B, where Flat A is to the west of flat B.
b) The one who sits immediate left of O Note-II: Flat B of floor 2 is immediately above
c) N Flat B of floor 1 and immediately below Flat B of
d) The one who sits second to the left of L floor 3 and so on, similarly for Flat A.
e) None of these Note-III: The area of each flat is same and only
one person lives in each flat and only two
9. What is the position of C with respect to the persons live on each floor.
one who sits opposite to L? T lives in Flat A of an even numbered floor and
a) Second to the left lives immediately below Y in different flats. As
b) Immediate left many floors below Y as above S, who lives

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Reasoning Ability Day -11 (Eng)

immediate southwest of W. Only one floor is b) Only II and III

between W and V. P lives northwest of V. R lives c) Only III
three floors below P in the same flat. U lives d) Only I
below X in different flats. Q doesn’t live on the e) All I, II and III
topmost floor.
11. Who among the following person lives in Flat 15. Who among the following persons live on the
A of the second floor? same floor?
a) V a) R and Y
b) R b) P and W
c) Y c) S and U
d) A d) P and S
e) W e) X and T

12. Q lives on which of the following floor and Directions (16-20): Study the following
flat? information carefully and answer the questions
a) Floor 5, Flat B given below.
b) Floor 1, Flat A Nine persons - D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L
c) Floor 4, Flat A travelled to Goa on three different dates 4th, 13th
d) Floor 2, Flat B and 22nd of three different months March, August
e) Floor 3, Flat B and November of the same year.
G travelled on an even numbered date of the
13. As many floors above V as below___. month having an even number of days. Only
a) P three persons travelled between G and K. F
b) R travelled immediately before K. As many persons
c) W travelled before F as after L. Only one person
d) Both b and c travelled between L and D. J travelled
e) Both a and b immediately before D. I travelled four persons
before J. Only two persons travelled between I
14. Which of the following statement(s) is/are and H.
true with respect to the final arrangement? 16. Who among the following person travelled to
I. Both X and Q do not live on the same floor Goa at last?
II. W lives on an even numbered floor a) D
III. P lives immediately below X b) G
a) Only II c) K

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Reasoning Ability Day -11 (Eng)

d) L I. J
e) E II. The one who travelled two persons before F
III. E
17. H travelled in which of the following month IV. The one who travelled immediately after D
and date? a) Only III
a) March 22 b) Only II and IV
b) November 13 c) Only I and III
c) August 4 d) Only III and IV
d) March 13 e) All I, II, III and IV
e) November 22
20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
18. If F is related to J and H is related to G in a way based on the given arrangement and thus
certain way, then in the same way who among form a group. Which one of the following does
the following person is related to E? not belong to the group?
a) D a) IF
b) I b) KJ
c) G c) DG
d) L d) LE
e) J e) KH

19. Who among the following person travelled to

Goa in November month?
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Answer Key with Explanation

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Directions (1-5):
1. Answer: D
2. Answer: B
3. Answer: E
4. Answer: A
5. Answer: C
Final arrangement

Again we have,
 As many persons born before A as after
G.
 The difference between the ages of G and
D is 6 years.
 H was born either immediately before or
We have, immediately after D.
 The age of E is multiple of 9.
 Only three persons were born between E
and A.
From the above conditions, there are two
possibilities

Again we have,
 F is elder to B but younger than C, who
was not the eldest person.

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After applying the above condition case-1 gets From the above conditions, there are two
eliminated because C was the eldest person, possibilities
hence case-2 shows the final arrangement.

Again we have,
 A faces the one who is an immediate
Directions (6-10): neighbour of N.
6. Answer: C  C sits second to the left of A.

7. Answer: E (All the persons sit at the extreme

ends except option e)
8. Answer: B
9. Answer: A
10. Answer: E
Final arrangement

Again we have,
We have,  The one who faces C is an immediate
 B sits second to the right of D. neighbour of O.
 Only one person sits between N and the  M sits immediate right of O.
one who faces D. After applying the above conditions case-1 gets
eliminated because there is no possibility to

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Reasoning Ability Day -11 (Eng)

place M, hence case-2 shows the final From the above conditions, there are two
arrangement. possibilities

Again we have,
 Only one floor is between W and V.
 P lives northwest of V.
 R lives three floors below P in the same
Directions (11-15): flat.
11. Answer: B
12. Answer: E
13. Answer: D
14. Answer: A
15. Answer: C
Final arrangement

Again we have,
 U lives below X in different flats.
 Q doesn’t live on the topmost floor.
After applying the above conditions case-2 gets
eliminated because Q lives on the topmost floor,
We have, hence case-1 shows the final arrangement.
 T lives in Flat A of an even numbered
floor and lives immediately below Y in
different flats.
 As many floors below Y as above S, who
lives immediate southwest of W.

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Reasoning Ability Day -11 (Eng)

 Only three persons travelled between G

and K.
 F travelled immediately before K.
From the above conditions, there are two
possibilities

Directions (16-20):
16. Answer: E
17. Answer: C
18. Answer: A
19. Answer: D
20. Answer: B (In all options, first person
travelled immediately before second person,
except in option b)
Final arrangement Again we have,
 As many persons travelled before F as
after L.
 Only one person travelled between L and
D.

We have,
 G travelled on an even numbered date of
the month having an even number of
days.

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Reasoning Ability Day -11 (Eng)

Again we have,
 J travelled immediately before D.
 I travelled four persons before J.
 Only two persons travelled between I and
H.
After applying the above conditions case-2 gets
eliminated because there is no possibility to
place H, hence case-1 shows the final
arrangement.
Score Booster
Directions (1-5): Study the following statements b) Either conclusion I or II follows
and then decide which of the given conclusions c) Both conclusions I and II follow
logically follows from the given statements d) Only conclusion II follows
disregarding the commonly known facts. e) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
1. Statements:
Only a few songs are lyrics 2. Statements:
No lyric is playlist At least some oil is water
All playlists are album Only a few water is juice
Conclusions: All juice is soda
I. All songs can be playlists Conclusions:
II. All albums can never be lyrics I. Some water can be Soda
a) Only conclusion I follows II. Some oil is not juice

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a) Only conclusion I follows Only a few books are ink

b) Either conclusion I or II follows No ink is rubber
c) Both conclusions I and II follow At least some rubbers are pen
d) Only conclusion II follows Conclusions:
e) Neither conclusion I nor II follows I. Some pens are books
II. No book is pen
3. Statements: a) Only conclusion I follows
All flour is powder b) Either conclusion I or II follows
Only a few mills are flour c) Both conclusions I and II follow
Some powders are not crunch d) Only conclusion II follows
Conclusions: e) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
I. All mills can be crunch
II. Some mills are powder. Directions (6-10): Study the following information
a) Only conclusion I follows carefully and answer the questions given below.
b) Either conclusion I or II follows 6. How many such pairs of letters are in the word
c) Both conclusions I and II follow “NATIONAL” each of which has as many letters
d) Only conclusion II follows between them as there in the English
e) Neither conclusion I nor II follows alphabetical series (both forward and backward
directions)?
4. Statements: a) One
Only a few machines are gun b) Two
All blades are gun c) Three
Some blades are sniper d) More than three
Conclusions: e) None
I. All blades can be machine
II. Some guns are not sniper 7. If 1 is added to the even digits and 1 is
a) Only conclusion I follows subtracted from the odd digits of the number
b) Either conclusion I or II follows “6328581753”, then which of the following digit is
c) Both conclusions I and II follow third from the right end?
d) Only conclusion II follows a) 3
e) Neither conclusion I nor II follows b) 9
c) 7
5. Statements: d) 2

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Reasoning Ability Day -11 (Eng)

e) 6 d) D
e) U
8. How many such pairs of digits are there in the
number “39428176” each of which has as many Directions (11-15): Study the following
digits between them as there are in the number information carefully and answer the questions
series (both forward and backward directions)? given below.
a) One G*LK=P5@Q%Y&TM#418S2!6Z^
b) Two F14
c) Three 11. How many such consonants are there in the
d) More than three given series each of which is immediately
e) None followed by a number and immediately preceded
by a symbol?
9. If all the letters of the word “MOUNTAIN” are a) One
arranged in alphabetical order from the left end, b) Two
then how many letters are there in the English c) Three
alphabetical series between the letters which are d) More than three
fourth from the right end and second letter from e) None
the left end?
a) Ten 12. If all the symbols are dropped from the given
b) Eight series, then which of the following element is
c) Thirteen thirteenth from the right end?
d) Four a) 8
e) Three b) S
c) Y
10. If in the word “INVESTMENT” all the vowels d) 1
are changed to the immediate previous letter e) Q
and all the consonants are changed to the
immediate next letter as per the English 13. Which of the following element is eighth to
alphabetical series, then which of the following the right of the fourteenth element from the right
letter is eighth from the right end? end of the given series?
a) W a) P
b) H b) @
c) O c) #

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Reasoning Ability Day -11 (Eng)

d) Y a) T
e) 6 b) B
c) Y
14. The number of letters to the left of % is the d) H
same as the number of symbols to the right of e) Cannot be determined
letter___ in the given series.
a) P 17. How is B related to H?
b) M a) Brother-in-law
c) Z b) Father
d) Q c) Sister-in-law
e) S d) Brother
e) Granddaughter
15. How many such numbers are there in the
given series each of which is immediately 18. How many male members are there in the
preceded by a symbol and immediately followed family?
by a consonant? a) Six
a) One b) Two
b) Two c) Five
c) Three d) Four
d) More than three e) Three
e) None
Directions (19-20): Study the following
Directions (16-18): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
information carefully and answer the questions given below.
given below. W is the mother of only H. L is the only
P is the only son of Y and he is the brother-in- granddaughter of U, who is married to W. J is the
law of B. T is the son of B. H is the paternal brother-in-law of H, who is the father of B. A is
uncle of T. O is the spouse of T and daughter-in- the daughter of M, who is the grandfather of B. M
law of V. M is the mother of V, who is not the has only two children.
brother of H. K is the brother of M. H doesn’t 19. How is A related to B?
have any sisters. a) Brother-in-law
16. Who among the following person is the b) Mother
brother-in-law of K? c) Sister

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Reasoning Ability Day -11 (Eng)

d) Brother b) B is the granddaughter of W

e) Grandfather c) A is the sister of J
d) B is the nephew of A
20. Which of the following statement is/are true? e) L and U are of the same gender
a) M is the father of H
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Answer Key with Explanation

1. Answer: D

4. Answer: A

2. Answer: E

5. Answer: B
3. Answer: C

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Given series:
G*LK=P5@Q%Y&TM#418S2!6Z^
F14
G*LK=P5@Q%Y&TM#418S2!6Z^
F14

Directions (6-10):
12. Answer: C
6. Answer: C
Given series:
G*LK=P5@Q%Y&TM#418S2!6Z^
F14
GLKP5QYTM418S26ZF14

7. Answer: E 13. Answer: E

6328581753 Given series:
7239490642 G*LK=P5@Q%Y&TM#418S2!6Z^
F14
8. Answer: C Fourteenth element from the right end is M, and
eighth element from the right of M is 6.

14. Answer: D
Given series:

9. Answer: D G*LK=P5@Q%Y&TM#418S2!6Z^

MOUNTAIN F14

AIMNNOTU Five letters are there to the left of % in the given

Four letters are there between I and N as per the series, which is same as the number of symbols

English alphabetical series. to the right of Q.

10. Answer: A 15. Answer: A

INVESTMENT Given series:

HOWDTUNDOU G*LK=P5@Q%Y&TM#418S2!6Z^
F14

Directions (11-15): G*LK=P5@Q%Y&TM#418S2!6Z^

11. Answer: B F14

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Reasoning Ability Day -11 (Eng)

Directions (19-20):
Directions (16-18): 19. Answer: B
16. Answer: C 20. Answer: C
17. Answer: D
18. Answer: A

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -11 (Eng)

Quantitative Aptitude

Direction (1-5): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:
The given pie chart shows the degree distribution of the number of dresses (Kurtas and Jeans) sold by
five different shops (A, E, I, O and U).

NOTE:
I. x - y = 10°
II. The sum of the number of dresses (Kurtas and Jeans) sold by the given shops are 7200.
1. If the ratio of the number of kurtas dresses to C. 860
jeans dresses sold by shop A is 5:3, then find the D. 900
number of kurtas sold by shop A? E. 1080
A. 900
B. 1080 3. If the number of jeans sold by shop E is 250
C. 980 more than the number of kurtas sold by the same
D. 1125 shop, then find the number of jeans sold by shop
E. 1050 E?
A. 379
2. If the number of kurtas sold by shop I is 40% B. 468
of the total number of dresses sold by shop I, C. 567
then find the number of jeans sold by shop I? D. 600
A. 450 E. 625
B. 690

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4. If the total number of dresses sold by shop Z 5. If the selling price of a jean dress is Rs. 500
is 800 less than the number of dresses sold by and the selling price of a kurta dress is Rs.300 in
shop U, then find the average of the number of shop A. The total selling price of dresses in shop
dresses sold by shops O and Z together? A is Rs.6 lakhs. Find the number of kurtas sold in
A. 1000 shop A?
B. 850 A. 800
C. 960 B. 990
D. 1260 C. 780
E. 1050 D. 1050
E. 1500

Direction (6-10): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:
The table given below shows the number of plum cakes sold, the number of ice-cream cakes sold, the
number of chocolate cakes sold and the total number of cakes (plum + ice-cream + chocolate) sold by
RRR bakeries from Monday to Friday of a particular week.

Note:
The ratio of the number of plum cakes sold on Tuesday, the number of ice-cream cakes sold on Monday
and the number of chocolate cakes sold on Tuesday is 4:2:5 respectively.
6. Find the difference between the number of D. 270
plum cakes sold on Friday and the number of E. 300
chocolate cakes sold on Wednesday by RRR
bakeries? 7. If the total number of cakes sold by RRR
A. 150 Bakeries on Monday, Wednesday and Saturday
B. 175 together is 12800 and the ratio of the number of
C. 240 plum cakes, ice-cream cakes and chocolate

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cakes sold on Saturday is 5:4:3 respectively, 9. Find the ratio of the total number of cakes sold
then find the number of ice-cream cakes sold by on Monday to that on Wednesday.
RRR Bakeries on Saturday? A. 12:5
A. 2090 B. 12:11
B. 2000 C. 11:12
C. 1380 D. 5:12
D. 1670 E. 11:5
E. 1880
10. If each plum cake sold in all days is Rs. 80
8. The total number of cakes sold by RRR per kg and each chocolate sold in all days are
Bakeries on Tuesday is approximately how much Rs. 180 per kg. Find the difference of revenue
percent more/less than the sum of the number of generated by the number of plum cakes sold on
chocolate cakes sold on Monday, Wednesday Tuesday and the number of chocolate cakes sold
and Friday? on Thursday (Assume each cake’s weight is 1
A. 1%more Kg)
B. 9% more A. Rs. 45000
C. 12% more B. Rs. 45800
D. 3% more C. Rs. 47800
E. 6% more D. Rs. 46900
E. Rs. 48000

Direction (11-15): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions:
The bar graph given below shows the total number of chocolates and the number of dark chocolates sold
by ‘Amul ltd’ in six different months (January, February, March, April, May, June) of a year.
Note: The total number of chocolates sold = Number of dark chocolates sold + Number of white
chocolates sold in the respective months.

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -11 (Eng)

11. Find the ratio between the number of white number of chocolates sold by ‘Amul ltd’ in
chocolates sold in January and the number of February?
dark chocolates sold in April by ‘Amul Ltd’? A. 30%
A. 12: 7 B. 42%
B. 7: 12 C. 25%
C. 6: 11 D. 20%
D. 11: 6 E. 15%
E. None of these
14. If the total number of chocolates sold in July
12. Find the average number of dark chocolates by ‘Amul ltd’ is 20% more than that in June and
sold by ‘Amul ltd’ in January, February and May the number of dark chocolates sold by ‘Amul ltd’
together? in July is 30% more than that in May, then find
A. 760 the number of white chocolates sold by ‘ Amul
B. 780 ltd’ in July?
C. 820 A. 580
D. 740 B. 720
E. None of these C. 960
D. 630
13. The number of white chocolates sold by E. 910
‘Amul ltd’ in June is how much percent of total

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -11 (Eng)

15. If ‘Amul ltd’ sold each dark and white 18.D and E started a business by investing Rs.
chocolate for Rs. 30 and Rs. 20 respectively, 13500 and Rs. 21500 respectively. If F joined
then find the total revenue generated by ‘Amul after 6 months from starting with a certain
ltd’ in March by selling all chocolates. investment, then the total profit at the end of 2
A. Rs. 36,600 years is Rs. 6450 out of which D’s share is Rs.
B. Rs. 28,800 1620. Find the investment of F.
C. Rs. 32,600 A. Rs. 28000
D. Rs. 27,800 B. Rs. 25000
E. Rs. 33,400 C. Rs. 30000
D. Rs. 27500
16.Simple interest after 2 years when Rs. ‘Y’ is E. Rs. 24000
invested at 15% p.a. is Rs. 1800. Find the
compound interest received on the same sum at 19.A trader marked up the price of an article by
the same rate, if the interest is compounded 75%. When the article is sold at two successive
annually. discounts of x% and 14.28%. There is neither
A. Rs. 1935 profit nor loss. Find the value of x.
B. Rs. 1645 A. 35
C. Rs. 1820 B. 30
D. Rs. 1920 C. 32.32
E. Rs. 2180 D. 33.33
E. 66.66
17. A train crosses two persons running in the
same direction at the speed of 12 km/hr and 20 20.The current ages of M and N are in the ratio
km/hr respectively in 40 seconds and 42 of 6: 7 respectively. If ten years hence from now,
seconds respectively. Find the speed of the train. the ratio of age of M to that of N will become 8: 9,
A. 50 km/hr then find the difference between their current
B. 50 m/s ages.
C. 150 km/hr A. 5 years
D. 180 m/s B. 10 years
E. None C. 15 years
D. 7 years
E. 8 years

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -11 (Eng)

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Answer Key with Explanation

Direction (1-5): Required answer = 1500*60% = 900
x + y = 360° - (65° + 50° + 75°)
= 360° - 190° 3. Answer: E
x + y = 170° ---- 1 In shop E,
From Note I, Jeans + Kurtas = 1000 --- 1
x – y = 10° ----- 2 Jeans – Kurtas = 250 ---- 2
Solving equations 1 & 2, we get By solving eqn 1 & 2,
x = 90°, y = 80° Number of jeans sold = 625
From Note II, 360° = 7200
1° = 20 4. Answer: E
Number of dresses sold by shop Z = 1300 – 800
= 500
Required average = (1600 + 500)/2 = 1050

5. Answer: E
Let the number of kurtas and the number of
jeans sold by shop A be x and y respectively.
x + y = 1800 -- 1
1. Answer: D
300x + 500y = 600000
Required answer = 1800*(5/8) = 1125
3x + 5y = 6000 --- 2
By solving eqn 1 & 2,
2. Answer: D
x = 1500, y = 300

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -11 (Eng)

Number of kurtas sold in shop A = 1500 Number of plum cakes sold from Monday to
Friday = 17400 – (5300 + 5600) = 6500
Direction (6-10):
Let the number of plum cakes and chocolate
cakes sold on Tuesday be 4x and 5x
respectively and the number of ice-cream cakes
sold on Monday be 2x.
Total number of cakes sold on Tuesday = 3600
ATQ, 4x + 5x + 900 = 3600
9x = 2700 6. Answer: E
x = 300 Required difference = 1500 – 1200 = 300
Number of plum cakes sold on Tuesday = 4x =
1200 7. Answer: B
Number of chocolate cakes sold on Tuesday = Total number of cakes sold on Saturday = 12800
5x = 1500 – (2000 + 4800) = 6000
Number of ice-cream cakes sold on Monday = Number of ice-cream cakes sold on Saturday =
2x = 600 (4/12)*6000 = 2000
Total number of cakes sold on Monday = 600 +
600 + 800 = 2000 8. Answer: B
Total number of cakes sold on Wednesday = Sum of the number of chocolate cakes sold on
17400 – 2000 – 3600 – 3000 – 4000 = 4800 Monday, Wednesday and Friday = 800 + 1500 +
Number of ice-cream cakes sold on Wednesday 1000 = 3300
= 4800 – (2100 + 1500) = 1200 Required % = [(3600 – 3300)/3300]*100 = 9%
Number of ice-cream cakes sold on Friday = more
5300 – (600 + 900 + 1200 + 800) = 1800
Number of plum cakes sold on Friday = 4000 – 9. Answer: D
(1800 + 1000) = 1200 Required ratio = 2000: 4800 = 5:12
Number of chocolate cakes sold on Thursday =
3000 – (1400 + 800) = 800 10. Answer: E
Number of chocolate cakes sold from Monday to Required difference = (800*180) – (1200*80)
Friday = 800 + 1500 + 1500 + 800 + 1000 = = 8000*(18 - 12)
5600 = Rs. 48000

Direction (11-15):

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In January: 16. Answer: A

Number of white chocolates sold = 1200 – 720= ATQ,
480 (Y*15*2)/100 =1800
Similarly, we can calculate other values. (30Y/100) =1800
Y =1800*(100/30) =Rs.6000
So, interest received if the interest was
compounded annually =6000*{1+ (15/100)} 2
=6000 *(115/100)2 -6000
=6000*(23/20)2 – 6000
=7935 – 6000 = Rs. 1935

11. Answer: C 17. Answer: B

Required ratio =480: 880 =6: 11 The train crosses First person = 12*(5/18)*40 =
400/3 m
12. Answer: B The train crosses Second person= 20*(5/18)*42
Required average = (720+960+660)/3 =2340/3 = 2100/9 m
=780 The train travels at a distance = (2100/9) –
(400/3) = 900/9m
13. Answer: A = 100 m in 2 sec = 50 m in 1 sec
Required percentage = (420/1400)*100 =30% Speed of the train = 50 m/sec

14. Answer: D 18. Answer: B

Total number of chocolates sold by ‘Amul ltd’ in The ratio of investment of ‘D’ and ‘E’ = 13500:
July =1.20*1240 =1488 21500 = 27: 43 = ratio of profit of ‘D’ and ‘E’
Total number of Dark chocolates sold by ‘Amul So, profit share of ‘E’= 1620*(43/27) = Rs. 2580
ltd’ in July = 660*1.3 =858 The profit share of ‘F’ = 6450 -2580 -1620 =Rs.
Total number of White chocolates sold by ‘Amul 2250
ltd’ in July = 1488 - 858 =630 Let the investment of ‘F’ =Rs. X
We know that the investment ratio of ‘D’ and ‘F’
15. Answer: E = profit sharing ratio of ‘D’ and ‘F’
Required amount = (30*740) + (20*560) So, (13500*4): (X*3) = 1620: 2250
=22200+11200 =Rs. 33,400 18000: X =18: 25
X =Rs.25000

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Investment of F =Rs. 25000 {(6x +10)/ (7x+10)} =8/9

9 *(6x+10) =8 *(7x+10)
19. Answer: D 54x+90 =56x+80
175*(100 - x)% *(6/7) = 100 2x =10
x = 33.33% x=5
Difference between their current ages =7x -6x
20. Answer: A x = 5 years
Let the current ages of ‘M’ and ‘N’ be 6x years
and 7x years, respectively
Score Booster
Directions (01-05): What value should come in 4. (120 * 15 – 16 * 25) ÷ (130 * 4 – 2 * 250) = (?
the place of (?) in the following questions. ÷ 35-1)
1. 9 – (9 – (9 – 9 (9 + 9))) =? * 9 A.2
A.-17 B.5
B.-15 C.6
C.-18 D. 7
D.-12 E.3
E.-16
5. 3(5/8) – 12(9/16) + 5(3/4) + 6(7/8) =? + 3
2. (8 + 8 * 15 – 8 – 10) ÷ (145 * 4 – 114 * 5) =? * A.17/16
55 B.15/16
A.1/4 C.13/16
B.1/5 D.11/16
C.1/6 E.21/16
D.1/7
E.1/8 Directions (06-10): What approximate value
should come in the place of (?) in the following
3. 3900 ÷ 15 * 11 – 452=? * √25 questions.
A.192 6. 15.932 + 39.94% of 350.11 =? * 216 * 6-2
B.180 A.72
C.167 B.66
D.156 C.50
E.135 D.54
E.78

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Directions (11-15): What value should come in

7. (145.06 + 3.98 * 15.02 – (11.98 * 13.05)) =? * the place of (?) in the following number series?
6.99 11. 120, 240, ?, 160, 80, 32
A.8 A.240
B.9 B.230
C.7 C.220
D.6 D.210
E.5 E.190

8. (15.04% of 299.91 + (10.82 * 11.91)) = 14(? – 12. 53, 65, 82, ?, 139, 183
√49) – 19 A.110
A.4 B.108
B.6 C.106
C.9 D.104
D.8 E.102
E.7
13. 512, 384, 288, 216, ?, 121.5
9. (25.89 * 26.91) ÷ 18.01 + 11.11% of 404.91 + A.152
3! =? B.192
A.75 C.182
B.70 D.162
C.80 E.172
D.85
E.90 14. 444, 220, 108, ?, 24, 10
A.54
10. 31.011.99 – 81.81% of 143.01 + (81.88 + B.52
√1226) =?2 C.56
A.31 D.58
B.41 E.62
C.33
D.39 15. 2, -1, ?, 26, 86, 207
E.43 A.9
B.8

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C.5 20. 415, 199, 74, 20, -17, -25

D.6 A.-17
E.3 B.-25
C.74
Directions (16-20): Find out the wrong number in D.199
the following number series. E.20
16. 25, 34, 59, 108, 189, 302
A.302 Directions (21-25): Following question contains
B.108 two equations as I and II. You have to solve both
C.189 equations and determine the relationship
D.59 between them and give an answer as,
E.34 21.
I) 2x2 – 19x + 17 = 0
17. 67, 78, 98, 117, 165, 212 II) 21y2 – 22y + 5 = 0
A.165 A. x > y
B.212 B. x ≥ y
C.117 C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
D.78 D. x < y
E.98 E. x ≤ y

18. -3, -1, 9, 36, 85, 167 22.

A.167 I) 5x2 – 19x + 12 = 0
B.85 II) 5y2 – 8y – 4 = 0
C.36 A. x > y
D.-3 B. x ≥ y
E. -1 C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
D. x < y
19. 5, 6, 11, 34, 134, 676 E. x ≤ y
A.6
B.134 23.
C.34 I) x2 + 12x + 36 = 0
D.676 II) 2y2 + 12y + 16 = 0
E.11 A. x > y

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B. x ≥ y D. x < y
C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined. E. x ≤ y
D. x < y
E. x ≤ y 25.
I) 3x – 9 = 7y
24. II) 4y = √441 – 7x
I) 6x2 + 31x + 25 = 0 A. x > y
II) 3y2 + 33y + 90 = 0 B. x ≥ y
A. x > y C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
B. x ≥ y D. x < y
C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined. E. x ≤ y
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Or Scan the QR Code to Get the Detailed Video Solutions

Answer Key with Explanation

1. Answer: A 3900 ÷ 15 * 11 – 452=? * √25
9 – (9 – (9 – 9 (9 + 9))) =? * 9 260 * 11 – 452 =? * 5
9 – (9 – (9 – 162) =? * 9 835/5 =?
9 – 162 =? * 9 167 =?
-17 =?
2. Answer: B 4. Answer: A
(8 + 8 * 15 – 8 – 10) ÷ (35 * 2 – 12 * 5) =? * 55 (120 * 15 – 16 * 25) ÷ (130 * 4 – 2 * 250) = (? ÷
110/10 =? * 55 35-1)
1/5 =? (1800 – 400) ÷ (520 – 500) =? * 35
1400/20 =? * 35
3. Answer: C 2 =?

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(26 * 27) ÷ 18 + 1/9 * 405 + 6 =?

5. Answer: D 39 + 45 + 6 =?
3(5/8) – 12(9/16) + 5(3/4) + 6(7/8) =? + 3 90 =?
(3 – 12 + 5 + 6) + (5/8 – 9/16 + 3/4 + 7/8) =? + 3
2(27/16) – 3 =? 10. Answer: A
59/16 – 3 =? 31.011.99 – 81.81% of 143.01 + (81.88 + √1226)
11/16 =? =?2
312 – 9/11 * 143 + 82 + 35 =?2
6. Answer: B 961 – 117 + 82 + 35 =?2
15.932 + 39.94% of 350.11 =? * 216 * 6-2 961 =?2
162 + 40/100 * 350 =? * 216/36 31 =?
256 + 140 =? * 6
396/6 =? 11. Answer: A
66 =? 120 ÷ 0.5 = 240
7. Answer: C 240 ÷ 1 = 240
(145.06 + 3.98 * 15.02 – (11.98 * 13.05)) =? * 240 ÷ 1.5 = 160
6.99 160 ÷ 2 = 80
(145 + 4 * 15 – (12 * 13)) =? * 7 80 ÷ 2.5 = 32
49/7 =?
7 =? 12. Answer: C
53 + 12 = 65
8. Answer: C 65 + (12 + 5) = 82
(15.04% of 299.91 + (10.82 * 11.91)) = 14(? – √49) 82 + (17 + 7) = 106
– 19 106 + (24 + 9) = 139
15/100 * 300 + 11 * 12 = 14(? – 7) – 19 139 + (33 + 11) = 183
45 + 132 + 19 = 14(? – 7)
196 = 14(? – 7) 13. Answer: D
142 = 14(? – 7) 512 * 3/4 = 384
2 =? – 7 384 * 3/4 = 288
9 =? 288 * 3/4 = 216
9. Answer: E 216 * 3/4 = 162
(25.89 * 26.91) ÷ 18.01 + 11.11% of 404.91 + 3! 162 * 3/4 = 121.5
=?

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14. Answer: B 85 + 92 + 1 = 167

444 ÷ 2 – 2 = 220
220 ÷ 2 – 2 = 108 19. Answer: B
108 ÷ 2 – 2 = 52 5*1+1=6
52 ÷ 2 – 2 = 24 6 * 2 – 1 = 11
24 ÷ 2 – 2 = 10 11 * 3 + 1 = 34
34 * 4 – 1 = 135
15. Answer: E 135 * 5 + 1 = 676
2 + 13 – 4 = -1 20. Answer: E
-1 + 23 – 4 = 3 415 – 63 = 199
3 + 33 – 4 = 26 199 – 53 = 74
26 + 43 – 4 = 86 74 – 43 = 10
86 + 53 – 4 = 207 10 – 33 = -17
-17 – 23 = -25
16. Answer: A
25 + 32 = 34 21. Answer: A
34 + 52 = 59 2x2 – 19x + 17 = 0
59 + 72 = 108 2x2 – 2x – 17x + 17 = 0
138 + 92 = 189 2x (x - 1) – 17 (x – 1) = 0
340 + 112 = 310 (2x – 17) (x – 1) = 0
x = 1, 17/2
17. Answer: C 21y2 – 22y + 5 = 0
67 + 11 = 78 21y2 – 7y – 15y + 5 = 0
78 + 20 = 98 7y (3y – 1) – 5 (3y – 1) = 0
98 + 29 = 127 (7y – 5) (3y – 1) = 0
127 + 38 = 165 y = 5/7, 1/3
165 + 47 = 212 x>y

18. Answer: C 22. Answer: C

-3 + 12 + 1 = -1 5x2 – 19x + 12 = 0
-1 + 32 + 1 = 9 5x2 – 15x – 4x + 12 = 0
9 + 52 + 1 = 35 5x (x – 3) – 4 (x – 3) = 0
35 + 72 + 1 = 85 (5x – 4) (x – 3) = 0

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x = 4/5, 3 24. Answer: A

5y2 – 8y – 4 = 0 6x2 + 31x + 25 = 0
5y2 – 10y + 2y – 4 = 0 6x2 + 6x + 25x + 25 = 0
5y (y – 2) + 2 (y – 2) = 0 6x (x + 1) + 25 (x + 1) = 0
(5y + 2) (y – 2) = 0 (6x + 25) (x + 1) = 0
y = 2, -2/5 x = -25/6, -1
The relationship between x and y can’t be 3y2 + 33y + 90 = 0
determined. Divide by 3,
y2 + 11y + 30 = 0
23. Answer: D y2 + 6y + 5y + 30 = 0
x2 + 12x + 36 = 0 y (y + 6) + 5 (y + 6) = 0
x2 + 6x + 6x + 36 = 0 (y + 5) (y + 6) = 0
x (x + 6) + 6 (x + 6) = 0 y = -5, -6
(x + 6) (x + 6) = 0 x>y
x = -6, -6
2y2 + 12y + 16 = 0 25. Answer: A
Divide by 2, 3x – 9 = 7y
y2 + 6y + 8 = 0 3x – 7y = 9 -----(1)
y2 + 2y + 4y + 8 = 0 4y = √441 – 7x
y (y + 2) + 4 (y + 2) = 0 7x + 4y = 21 ---(2)
(y + 2) (y + 4) = 0 Solve 1 and 2,
y = -2, -4 x=3
x<y y=0
x>y

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English Language Day -11 (Eng)

English Language

Directions (1-5): In the questions given below, a B) EDBC; A

sentence is divided into five fragments. Find the C) CADE; B
fragment that is out of the context and rearrange D) DCEA; B
the remaining parts to form a meaningful E) No correction required; D
sentence.
1) Prosperity will have a solid foundation (A)/ 4) A student who was injured (A)/ in the
When our two countries achieve stability (B)/ Ukrainian capital Kyiv recently (B)/ the
peace and harmony, global peace and (C)/ and passengers included Harjot Singh, (C)/ in a
prosperity and live in (D) your own will reach the shooting incident (D) / Ukrainian people with
shore (E). humanitarian assistance (E).
A) DCEB; A A) CADB; E
B) ACBD; E B) BDEA; C
C) BDCA; E C) AECB; D
D) ACBE; D D) ECAB; D
E) No correction required; C E) No correction required; A

2) At the university and it (A)/ Four buses had 5) Ramifications the next time you (A)/country
arrived (B)/ evacuation plan came to nought (C)/ wanted to extradite someone (B)/ the court
students would get priority (D)/ was decided that warned the government (C)/ This will have far-
women (E). reaching (D)/ want to extradite someone", (E).
A) ACED; B A) AEDB; C
B) BEDC; A B) DAEC; B
C) EBCA; D C) AECB; D
D) BAED; C D) CADB; E
E) No correction required; B E) No correction required; C

3) In the Ukrainian city of Sumy (A)/ and Directions (6-10): In each of the questions given
expressed hope that they would (B)/ lead to a below, a set of sentences is given, which when
cessation of the conflict (C)/ negotiations properly sequenced, from a coherent paragraph.
between Russia and Ukraine (D)/ Prime Minister Arrange the sentences in the correct sequence
Modi welcomed the ongoing (E). and answer the questions that follow. There are
A) BDCA; E

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multiple other questions based on the ENTIRE A) CDEAF

PASSAGE. Answer accordingly. B) FCBEA
A) Shows include live music, narration, and C) CBEFA
gestures taken from dance. D) BCEFA
B) The music that accompanies is dramatic and E) CEADF
beautifully blends folk and classical elements.
C) A puppet is one of the most remarkable and 9) What is the adjoining pair of statement A after
ingenious inventions of man. rearrangement?
D) Almost all types of puppets are found in India. A) FB
E) Puppetry is a type of (A)/ narrative theatre; at B) DC
the (B)/ crossroads between bardic (C)/ C) BE
storytelling or theatre plays (D). D) ED
F) Puppets from different parts of India have their E) CE
own identity.
6) Which of the following statements is the ODD 10) Which is the last statement after
statement here? rearrangement?
A) A A) E
B) B B) A
C) C C) D
D) D D) C
E) E E) F

7) Some part of the statement E may have Directions (11-15): In each questions, a sentence
errors. Find out which part of the sentence has with four words in bold type is given. One of
an error and select the appropriate option. If a these four words given in bold may either be
sentence is free from error, select 'No Error'. wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of
A) A the sentence. Find the word which is wrongly
B) B spelt or inappropriate, if any. That word would be
C) C your answer. If all the words given in bold are
D) D correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context
E) No error. of the sentence, mak “all correct” as your
answer.
8) What is the final sequence after 11) For this reason (A), it is very important to
rearrangement? protect (B) yourself from scan (C) artists (D).

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A) Reason B) Pensile
B) Protect C) Page
C) Scan D) Emblem
D) Artists E) All are correct
E) All are correct.
Directions (16-20): In the following questions, a
12) The distribution (A) of sheer (B) is given by part of the sentence has been given in bold
the partially (C) shaded rectangles (D). which may or may not require improvement.
A) Distribution Choose the correct alternative that may help
B) Sheer improve the given sentence grammatically and
C) Partially contextually. If no improvement is required,
D) Rectangles choose “No improvement” as your answer.
E) All are correct. 16) Foreign businesses in developing countries
have usually problems with lack of infrastructure
13) Her throat (A) was soar (B) and she was and rigid laws.
sneezing (C) and coughing (D). A) Usual problems as
A) Throat B) Usually problems on
B) Soar C) The usual problems of
C) Sneezing D) Usual problems
D) Coughing E) No correction required.
E) All are correct
17) Initiatives from last year's budget has been
14) Would revealing (A) your secret (B) to him provided adequate allocations in this budget.
make him piety(C) you or drive (D) him away? A) Has being providing
A) Revealing B) Have been provided
B) Secret C) Has provided
C) Piety D) Have be provided
D) Drive E) No correction required.
E) All are correct
18) We truly have a long way to go in build
15) Some lottery (A) website is pensile (B) still on health resilience.
the home page (C) even the national emblem A) To go in building
(D). B) To going in build
A) Lottery C) To go about built

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D) To goes in build E) No correction required.

E) No correction required.
20) India has adequate medical colleges and
19) They have negligible expert in international good infrastructure.
law. A) Have adequate medical colleges
A) Negligible expert to B) Has adequately medical colleges
B) Negligible expertise in C) Had adequately medical colleges
C) Negligible experts on D) Have adequately medical colleges
D) Negligible expertise to E) No correction required.
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Or Scan the QR Code to Get the Detailed Video Answers

Answer Key with Explanation

1. Answer: C 3. Answer: B
The correct sequence is: The correct sequence is:
When our two countries achieve stability and Prime Minister Modi welcomed the ongoing
prosperity and live in peace and harmony, global negotiations between Russia and Ukraine and
peace and prosperity will have a solid expressed hope that they would lead to a
foundation. cessation of the conflict.
Fragment E is an odd statement here. Fragment A is the odd statement here.

2. Answer: D 4. Answer: A
The correct sequence is: The correct sequence is:
Four buses had arrived at the university and it The passengers included Harjot Singh, a student
was decided that women students would get who was injured in a shooting incident in the
priority. Ukrainian capital Kyiv recently.
Fragment C is the odd statement here. Fragment E is the odd statement here.

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5. Answer: B We read all the sentences carefully.

The correct sequence is: We observe that:
"This will have far-reaching ramifications the next Statement C gives an introduction of "puppet".
time you want to extradite someone", the court Statement E adds more information about: what
warned the government. is a "puppet"?
Fragment B is the odd statement here. So, CE is a pair.
Statement E ends with some examples and
6. Answer: B statement A continues with more examples.
We read all the sentences carefully. Statement E says: in India, all types of puppets
We observe that: are found and statement F adds more
Statement C gives an introduction of "puppet". information about their identity.
Statement E adds more information about: what Hence, the final sequence is:
is a "puppet"?
So, CE is a pair. 9. Answer: D
Statement E ends with some examples and The final sequence is:
statement A continues with more examples. "CEADF"
Statement E says: in India, all types of puppets So, the adjoining pair of statement A is: ED
are found and statement F adds more Hence, option D is the correct answer.
information about their identity.
Hence, the final sequence is: 10. Answer: E
"CEADF" The final sequence is:
Statement B doesn't fit anywhere in the "CEADF"
formation and is out of context. Hence, option E is the right answer.
Thus, Statement B is the odd statement here.
11. Answer: C
7. Answer: D "Scan" must be replaced with "Scam".
In statement E, "Scam" doesn't make any sense here.
"Or" must be replaced by "and". Hence, option C is the correct answer.
Between is always followed by the conjunction
"and". 12. Answer: B
Hence, option D is the right answer. "Sheer" must be replaced by "shear"
Sheer: complete or absolute.
8. Answer: E Shear: to cut as hair or wool.

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'Has' will be replaced by 'Have', because here

13. Answer: B the subject is 'initiatives' which is plural. So
"Soar" must be replaced by "sore". ‘Have’ helping verb is required here.
Soar: to rise to heights Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Sore: painful
18. Answer: A
14. Answer: C A preposition always takes the ‘ing’ from of verb.
"Piety" must be replaced by "pity". So ‘Build’ must be replaced by ‘Building’.
Pity: compassion Hence, option A is the right answer.
Piety: quality or state of being pious.
19. Answer: B
15. Answer: E ‘Expert’ must be replaced by ‘Expertise’. An
The sentence is correct in its present form. expert is a person with extensive knowledge or
Pensile: Suspended from above. ability in a given subject. So, expertise is needed
Hence, option E is the correct answer. here and the correct preposition is “in” here.
Expertise: a high level of special knowledge or
16. Answer: C skill.
Option C is contextually correct here. Hence, option B is the right answer.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
20. Answer: E
17. Answer: B The given sentence is correct in its present form.
Hence, option E is the correct answer.
Score Booster
Directions (1-7): Read the following passage E. All I, II and III
carefully and answer the following questions.
1. The coal crisis has forced the Indian 2. Which of the following statements is/are true
government to _______? to the context of the passage?
I. To increase domestic production I. The target of net-zero carbon emissions of
II. Importing of coals India is by 2050.
III. Reducing exports to different countries II. Power generation is the main source of
A. Only I carbon emissions.
B. Only III III. Coal is the dirtiest fossil fuel.
C. Both I and II A. Only I
D. Both II and III B. Only III

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C. Both I and II D. technologies remain uncertain.

D. Both II and III E. Both B and C
E. All I, II and III
6. Which of the following doesn’t come under the
3. According to the estimates based on data category of renewable energy?
from the International Renewable Energy A. Biomass
Agency (IRENA) which of the following is B. Crude oil
incorrect? C. Water
A. Non-renewable fossil fuels account for 70% D. Sun
of the current generation capacity. E. Wind
B. Current generation capacity is 452,3038 MW.
C. Non-renewable fossil fuels account for 11% of 7. Which of the following words is the synonym
the hydro/marine power. of the highlighted word “formidable”?
D. All are correct A. Effortless
E. All are incorrect B. Accessible
C. Facile
4. India’s transformation from a fossil-fuel- D. Arduous
dependent economy to one based on renewable E. Both A and B
energy. What does this transformation involve?
I. Massive high-cost and high-risk Directions (8-13): A passage is given below.
II. A very long-gestation investments Some words are missing out. Options in each
III. Technological, managerial and regulatory question have been given below the passage.
capacity Choose the words that will not fit in the given
A. Only I context for each blank
B. Only III Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of
C. Both I and II MSMEs and has ____(A)_____ implemented the
D. Both II and III One District One Product programme, which
E. All I, II and III provides the ideal ecosystem for success of an
initiative like the Ubharte Sitaare Fund. The fund
5. Choose the erroneous option- will go a long way in making India a major
A. The willingness of developed countries exporting hub.
B. especially the US, to make available MSMEs have been at the forefront of the
C. adequate low-cost finance and required government's economic policy through policies

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 RBI Assistant Prelims PDF Course 2023
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like change in definition of MSMEs to ensure A. Adequate

____(B)_____ flexibility, effective implementation B. Complete
of ECLGS and Factoring Bill increasing the C. Requisite
number of designated NBFCs to 9,000. The D. Sufficient
''Ubharte Sitaare Fund'' ____(C)____ been set up E. None of the above
by Exim Bank and SIDBI.
The fund is expected to identify Indian 10) The word that won’t fit in the blank labeled
____(D)_____ with potential advantages by way (C) is?
of technology, products or processes along with A. Was
export potential, but which are currently B. Has
underperforming or unable to tap their latent C. Were
potential to grow. The bank has developed a D. Have
robust pipeline of over 100 potential proposals E. All except (b)
and supported several companies across a
diverse range of sectors. MSMEs are vital to 11) The blank (D) can’t take which of the
keep the wheels of economy ___(E)___. They following words?
also create jobs, innovate and are risk takers. A. Institutions
Accordingly, India Exim Bank's Ubharte Sitaare B. Companies
Programme (USP) identifies Indian companies C. Organizations
that have the potential to be future champions in D. Enterprises
the domestic arena ____(F)____ catering to E. None of the above
global demands.
8) Out of the given options, which of the 12) Which of the following words is not suitable
following words would be inappropriate in the for the blank labeled (E)?
blank (A)? A. Going
A. Weakly B. Moving
B. Effectively C. On track
C. Efficaciously D. Stagnant
D. Significantly E. All of the above
E. None of the above
13) The blank (F) won’t pick which of the
9) Which word should be a misfit for the blank following words?
labeled (B)? A. While

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B. Except D. None
C. With E. Along with

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Answer Key with Explanation

1. Answer: C renewable fossil fuels account for 70% of the
Refer to the first paragraph- “Ironically, the coal current (2020) generation capacity of 452,3038
crisis has forced the Indian government to ramp MW, followed by hydro/marine power at 11%,
up domestic production and imports of coal, the solar and wind power at 6% each, nuclear power
dirtiest fossil fuel, while the world focuses on net- at 5% and bio-energy at 2%”
zero carbon emissions by 2050.” From the
above quoted lines we can say that option C is 4. Answer: C
the correct answer. Refer to the second last paragraph- “The
transformation will involve massive high-cost,
2. Answer: D high-risk, long-gestation investments. There is
Statements II and III are true to the context of little fiscal space for large public investment in
the passage but I one is incorrect because the renewables, while private investment in
world focuses on net-zero carbon emissions by renewables at scale is just starting.” Hence
2050. Hence option D is the correct answer. option C is the correct answer.

3. Answer: D 5. Answer: D
None of the given statements is incorrect Option D is incorrect, usage of “remain” is
Refer to the second paragraph- “ Estimates grammatically incorrect, rather it should be
based on data from the International Renewable “remains”. All the remaining options are correct.
Energy Agency (IRENA) indicate that non-

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6. Answer: B So, the most obvious choice out of the given

Renewable energy means energy from a source words should be ‘has’.
that is not depleted when used, such as wind or All the words other than has can be eliminated.
solar power. Biomass, Water, Sun, Wind falls
under the same category, thus making option B 11. Answer: A
i.e. Crude oil as the correct answer. The paragraph is talking about the MSMEs
which are small enterprises or businesses.
7. Answer: D Out of the given words, ‘institutions’ is a misfit as
The highlighted word “formidable” means it is generally used for an education organization
requiring considerable physical or mental effort or a religious entity so this will not fit in the
so “arduous” is the correct synonym. Facile, context of the paragraph.
Effortless and Accessible means entirely
opposite. So option D is apt 12. Answer: D
8. Answer: A As per the paragraph, MSMEs are vital or most
The passage praises UP for being able to important to keep the economy on track and
implement the mentioned policy nicely. So, the moving. Now, the options are easy and it is very
word that doesn’t fit should be a negative word easy to select a word that would spoil the
that would indicate that the policy has not been meaning of the sentence.
implemented properly. Stagnant means something that has stopped or
The best word accordingly would be weakly in been stuck with neither a forward nor a
option (a). backward movement. A stagnant wheel won’t
help in moving the economy and hence is the
9. Answer: E correct answer option.
All the given words are synonyms of each other
and the best word that would fit in the given 13. Answer: B
blank is adequate. But as we need to find a word The word that doesn’t fit is ‘except’ as the line
that won’t fit the blank, we would choose option talks about the companies being number one in
(e) as the correct answer. domestic markets as well as the global
champions.
10. Answer: E The sense is this with that. So, except that
The sentence is in the present perfect tense as means other than will not fit in the blank.
the word after the blank ie; ‘been’ gives us a hint.

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