16/06/2022 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

MM : 720 Test - 6 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Complete Syllabus of Class-XI & XII

Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
SECTION-A 3. In which of the following case, potential at point
1. The motion of a body is given by the equation O is not zero?

dv
= 4 − 2v , where v is the speed in m/s and t is
dt
(1)
time in s. If the body was at rest at t = 0 then
magnitude of initial acceleration of the body is

(1) 2 m/s2

(2) 4 m/s2
(2)
(3) 6 m/s2

(4) 8 m/s2

2. If W is the work done in forming a bubble of (3)

radius r, the work done in forming a bubble of
radius 2r will be

(1) 2W

(2) 4W (4)

(3) W

(4) 3W

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CST-6 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

4. The voltmeter shown in figure reads 18 V across 9. A transverse wave described as

the 50  resistor. The resistance of the voltmeter
is
( ) ( )
Y = 0.04 sin  2.0 m−1 x + 60 s−1 t  propagates
 
on a stretched string having linear mass density
of 1.5 × 10–4 kg/m. The tension in string is
(1) 0.110 N
(2) 0.135 N
(3) 0.175 N
(4) 0.210 N
10. The ratio of smallest wavelength of radiation that
may be emitted by He+ to that of Li++ is
900 500
(1)  (2) 
25 7 (1) 4 : 9

900 240 (2) 9 : 4

(3)  (4) 
7 7 (3) 3 : 2
5. Two batteries of different emfs and different (4) 2 : 3
internal resistances are connected as shown in
figure. The voltage across AB in volts is  R 
11. The graph of ln   versus In(A) (R = radius of
R
 0 
a nucleus and A = its mass number) is
(1) Straight line (2) Ellipse
(3) Parabola (4) Circle
12. A particle having a charge of 80 C and a mass
(1) 5 V (2) 10 V of 8 mg is projected in a uniform magnetic field of
20 mT with a speed of 10 m s–1. If the velocity is
(3) 15 V (4) 2.5 V
perpendicular to the magnetic field, how long will
6. The speed of satellite revolving above the
it take for the particle to come back to its original
surface of earth at a height h is
position for the first time after being projected?
2GM GM
(1) (2) (1) 15.7 s (2) 31.4 s
R R
(3) 62.8 s (4) 7.84 s
2GM GM
(3) (4) 13. Consider the following two statements
R+h (R + h )
Statement-A: In a charge free region, electric
7. Two bodies projected with initial speed of 4 m/s filed lines can be taken to be discontinuous
at two different angles 1 and 2 covers equal curves.
range, then
Statement-B: The concept of field was first
(1) sin 1 = sin 2 (2) sin 1 = cos 2
introduced by Faraday.
(3) sin 1 = tan 2 (4) sin 1 = sin 22 Which of the following option is correct?
8. The equation of wave travelling on a stretched (1) Statement A is correct while statement B is
string along x-axis is given by incorrect
2
x t  (2) Statement A is incorrect while statement B is
− + 
Y = Ae  a b  correct
The dimensional formula of a and b respectively (3) Statement A and statement B both are
are correct
(1) [T] and [L] (2) [L] and [T] (4) Statement A and statement B both are
(3) [L] and [L] (4) [T] and [T] incorrect

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-6 (Code-A)

14. A conducting sphere of radius 5 cm has an 20. A p-n photodiode is manufactured from a
unknown charge. If the electric field at 10 cm semiconductor with band gap of 2.4 eV. The
from the centre of the sphere is 3 × 10 3 N/C and wavelength which can be detected is
points radially outward then net charge on the (1) 5000 nm (2) 5000 Å
sphere is
(3) 4000 nm (4) 600 nm
(1) 2.51 nC (2) 6.67 nC
21. Consider the following statements and choose
(3) 7.49 nC (4) 3.33 nC the correct statement(s).
15. Force acting on a body vary with the position(x) (a) Transistor oscillator utilises positive
according to the figure given below. feedback.
(b) Transistor amplifier never utilises the
negative feedback.
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only
(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
22. Using mass (M), length (L), time (T) and current
(A) as fundamental quantities, the dimensions of
Work done by this force on the body from x = 0 m magnetic permeability are
to x = 15 m will be (1) [ML2 T–2 A–2] (2) [ML T–2 A2]
(1) 120 J (2) 150 J (3) [ML2 T–2 A–1] (4) [ML T–2 A–2]
(3) 375 J (4) 75 J 23. The number of significant figures in result of
16. The maxima of decreasing intensity are observed (10.04 + 0.00230) is
in (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) Interference (2) Diffraction (3) 3 (4) 4
(3) Polarisation (4) Refraction 24. A stone of mass 0.20 kg tied to the end of a
17. An electromagnetic wave is generated by string, is whirled round in a circle of radius 1.2 m.
With what maximum speed stone can be whirled
(1) Charge moving with constant velocity
around if the string can withstand a maximum
(2) Charge at rest tension of 150 N? (Consider Horizontal circular
(3) Accelerating charges motion on smooth table)
(4) Both (1) and (2) (1) 20 m/s (2) 25 m/s
18. The latent heat of a body depends upon (3) 30 m/s (4) 35 m/s
(1) Pressure 25. A steel ring of radius 60 cm and cross-sectional
(2) Nature of phase change area 4 ×10–6 m2 is fitted on a wooden disc of
(3) Properties of substance radius 62 cm. If Young’s modulus of elasticity of
steel is 2 × 1011 N m–2, then tension with which
(4) All of these
the steel ring is expanded is
19. A cylinder of radius r and thermal conductivity K1
(1) 1.2 × 106 N (2) 2.67 × 104 N
is surrounded by a cylindrical shell of inner radius
r and outer radius 2r and thermal conductivity K2. (3) 3.48 × 105 N (4) 1.7 × 105 N
The two ends of system are maintained at 26. A heat engine operates in Carnot cycle between
temperature of T1°C and T2°C respectively. There 427°C and 27°C. It absorbed 15 kcal from the
is no heat loss from system. The equivalent source. The amount of heat that is converted into
thermal conductivity is given by work is equal to
K 2 + 3K1 K1 + 3K 2 (1) 6.23 × 103 cal
(1) (2)
4 4 (2) 7.52 × 103 cal
K1 + K 2 3K1 + 2K 2 (3) 8.57 × 103 cal
(3) (4)
2 4 (4) 9.42 × 103 cal

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CST-6 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

27. The density of a gas is 9 × 10–2 kg/m3

and root 32. For a damped oscillator, amplitude becomes
th
mean square velocity of gas molecules is  1
 4  of its initial value in T time. After what time
400 m/s. The pressure exerted by the gas on the  
walls of the vessel is th
 1 
from beginning will amplitude be   of its
(1) 4556 N/m2 (2) 8225 N/m2  64 
(3) 7520 N/m2 (4) 4800 N/m2 initial value?
28. If the apparent value of dip at a place in two (1) 2T (2) 3T
perpendicular vertical planes are respectively 60° (3) 4T (4) 5T
and 45° then true angle of dip at that place is 33. In the given magnetic flux versus time graph, find
magnitude of emf induced in the loop at t = 3 s.
(1) tan–1(2)
4
(2) tan−1  
3

 3
(3) tan−1 
 4 
 

(4) tan−1 ( 5) (1) 5 V (2) 4 V

(3) 30 V (4) Zero
29. The r.m.s. value of current I = (4 cos t + 34. An object is kept at (0, 5) and a plane mirror is
2 sin t ) is inclined at 45° with x-axis as shown in figure.
Coordinates of image formed by the mirror will be
(1) 10 A (2) 2 10 A

(3) 2 20 A (4) 2 5 A
30. A (2 × 2) square sheet is cut out from a (4 × 4)
square sheet as shown in the figure. Shift in
centre of mass will be (take length and breadth in
metre)

(1) (0, –5)

(2) (–5, 0)
(3) (5, 0)
(4) No image will be obtained
35. A thin biconvex lens is cut into four parts which
are rearranged as shown. If power of lens is P,
2 the power of combination after rearranging will be
(1) m (2) 2 2 m
3

74
(3) m (4) 1 m
3
31. A sphere is in pure rolling on the ground with
speed v. The speed of its bottom-most point at
any instant is
(1) v (2) 2v
(1) P (2) 2P
(3) 2v (4) Zero (3) 4P (4) Zero

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-6 (Code-A)

SECTION-B 40. A particle having charge of 2 C, mass of 1 kg and

36. A sphere of radius R, made of material of relative speed of 2 m/s enters a uniform magnetic field,
density 1.5 has a concentric cavity of radius r. It having magnetic induction of 2 T at an angle
just floats when placed in a tank full of water. The  = 30° between velocity vector and magnetic
R induction. The pitch of its helical path is
value of will be (in meters)
r
1 3
(1) 3 (2) ( 3 ) 3 (1) 
2
1 (2) 3
1
 2 3
(3) ( 2) 3 (4)  
(3) 2 3
3
37. The charge on capacitor B in steady state is 3
(4) 
equal to 4
41. Three identical spheres are kept in such a way
that each touches the other two. The magnitude
of the gravitational force on any of the spheres
due to the other two is (M : mass of sphere,
a : radius of sphere)

GM 2
(1)
2a2

GM 2
(2)
20 35 4a2
(1) C (2) C
3 7 GM 2
(3) 3
60 a2
(3) C (4) 12 C
7
3 GM 2
38. In the following circuit, the current through the (4)
4 a2
resistor R = 2  connected between points A and
B, is I amperes. The value of I is 42. A uniform rope of length l and mass m is
connected to a uniform chain of length l and
mass 3m and hung vertically as shown in figure.
If the system is inverted and hung from same
point then change in gravitational potential
energy of the system will be

(1) 1 A (2) 2 A
(3) 3 A (4) 4 A
39. The stopping potential for photoelectrons ejected
from a surface by 375 nm photons is 1.870 V.
The stopping potential for 600 nm photons is
nearly
(1) 1.627 V (2) 0.627 V (1) mgl (2) 3mgl
(3) 2.627 V (4) 3.627 V (3) 2mgl (4) –2mgl

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CST-6 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

43. A slab of thickness t and refractive index 2 is (1) 12.5%

kept in a medium of refractive index 1. If two (2) 22.4%
rays parallel to each other passes through such a
100
system with one ray passing through the slab, (3) %
then the magnitude of path difference produced 13
between them due to slab will be 50
(4) %
3
47. A 3 kg block is moving in plane with its x and y.
coordinates given by x = 5t2 – 3 and y = 3t3 + 5.
Where x and y are in metre and t in second.
What is the magnitude of the force acting on this
mass at t = 2 s?
(1) 112 N
   
(1)  1 − 1 t (2)  2 − 1 t
    (2) 316 N
 2   1 
(3) 59 N
(3) ( 2 − 1 ) t (4) ( 1 − 1) t (4) 138 N
44. If a = (10 ± 0.1) cm, b = (20 ± 0.2) cm and c = (80 48. An alternating emf 200 V, 50 Hz is connected to
± 0.4) cm, then the maximum percentage error in a circuit of resistance 1  and inductance 0.01 H
a2 b in series. What is the current in the circuit?
calculation of is
c4 (1) 60.6 A
(1) 6% (2) 4% (2) 32.63 A
(3) 5% (4) 2%
(3) 72.3 A
45. The depletion width of a p-n junction depends on
(4) 50.75 A
which of the following parameters given below?
49. A man standing on a still boat jumps out
(a) Temperature
horizontally with speed of 20 m/s with respect to
(b) Type of semiconductor material
boat. If mass of man is 70 kg and that of boat is
(c) Doping concentration
210 kg. Speed of boat after man jumps will be
(d) Biasing of junction
(1) 20 m/s
(1) (a), (b), (c)
(2) 6.67 m/s
(2) (b), (c), (d)
(3) 5 m/s
(3) (a), (c), (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d) (4) 15 m/s

46. A thermodynamic process of one mole of an 50. A square sheet of area 1 mm2 is kept in front of a
ideal monoatomic gas is shown in figure. The concave mirror of focal length 30 cm. What will
efficiency of cyclic process ABCA will be be area of image formed by the mirror if its
principal axis passes through centre of sheet and
is perpendicular to it and placed at 90 cm from
mirror?
(1) 1 mm2
(2) 0.25 mm2
(3) 4 mm2
(4) 0.5 mm2

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-6 (Code-A)

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 56. Natural polymer among the following is
51. Statement-I: I-Cl is more reactive than Cl2. (1) Poly (Butadiene – Acrylonitrile)
Statement-II: Interhalogen compounds are (2) cis-1, 4-polyisoprene
diamagnetic in nature. (3) Polythene
In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) Polyvinyl chloride
correct answer from the options given below. 57. Trichloro derivative of sucrose is
(1) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is (1) Saccharin (2) Alitame
correct (3) Sucralose (4) Aspartame
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct –1
58. The energy (kJ mol ) of one mole of electrons of
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are radiations whose frequency is 2 × 1014 Hz, is
incorrect (1) 436.1 (2) 132.8
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is (3) 79.8 (4) 624.5
incorrect 59. Match the following elements with their IUPAC
52. In which of the following reactions, N2 is not name and identify correct option.
obtained? Name according to IUPAC
(1) NH4Cl (aq) + NaNO2 (aq) ⎯⎯→ IUPAC nomenclature Official Name
 a. Unnilunium (i) Dubnium
(2) (NH4)2 Cr2O7 ⎯⎯→
 b. Unniloctium (ii) Bohrium
(3) Ba(N3)2 ⎯⎯→
c. Unnilpentium (iii) Mendelevium
(4) NH2CONH2 + 2H2O ⎯⎯→
d. Unnilseptium (iv) Hassium
53. Maximum number of structural isomers possible
for the molecular formula C4H11N is (1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) 7 (4) 8 60. Enzymes that utilise ATP in phosphate transfer
require which metal as co-factor?
54. Cumene is oxidised in the presence of air to give
(1) Ca (2) Mg
a compound X which on treating with dilute acid
gives phenol and a compound Z. (3) Na (4) K
The correct statement(s) about the above 61. The ratio of 2-centre-2-electron bonds to
reaction sequence is/are 3-centre-2-electron bonds in diborane is
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
(I) Compound X contains a peroxy linkage
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 2 : 3
(II) Cumene is 1-phenylpropane
62. Which among the following is not a pesticide?
(III) Z on reaction with methyl magnesium
bromide followed by hydrolysis gives a (1) Aldrin (2) Sodium chlorate
tertiary alcohol. (3) Dieldrin (4) DDT
(1) II and III only (2) I and II only 63. Statement I : Heavy water used as a moderator
in nuclear reactors.
(3) I and III only (4) I, II and III
Statement II : Perhydrol is used as an antiseptic.
55. Correct order of boiling point is
In the light of above statements choose the
(1) n-butane < ethoxyethane < pentan-1-ol < correct option among the following.
pentanal
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(2) ethoxyethane < n-butane < pentanal <
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
pentan-1-ol incorrect
(3) n-butane < ethoxyethane < pentanal < (3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
pentan-1-ol incorrect
(4) n-butane < pentanal < ethoxyethane < (4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
pentan-1-ol correct
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CST-6 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

64. Match the elements in column-I with their method

of purification in column-II. (1)
Column-I Column-II

a. Titanium (i) Zone refining

b. Zinc (ii) Electrolytic (2)

refining

c. Germanium (iii) van Arkel Method

d. Copper (iv) Distillation

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(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
65. Which of the given reaction is an example of
disproportionation reaction? (4)
(1) Br2 + 5H2O2 → 2BrO3− + 4H2O + 2H+

(2) S8 + 12OH– → 4S2– + 2S2 O32 − + 6H2O 70. Consider the following statements
(3) 2Cu2+ (aq.) + 4I– (aq.) → Cu2I2 (s) + I2 (aq.) (a) Electromeric effect is a temporary effect
(4) (NH4)2Cr2O7 → N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O (b) In negative resonance effect, the transfer of
66. Incorrect statement among the following is electrons is always from an atom or
substituted group attached to the conjugated
(1) For two-dimensions square close packing,
system.
co-ordination number is 4
(2) For three-dimensions AAA --- type of lattice, (c) Inductive effect operates through  bond
co-ordination number is 8 The correct statements are
(3) For two-dimensions Hexagonal close (1) (a) and (b) only
packing, co-ordination number is 6 (2) (b) and (c) only
(4) For three-dimensions ABCABC --- type of (3) (a) and (c) only
lattice, co-ordination number is 12
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
67. For a conductivity cell containing 10–3 M KCl
71. Statement-I : Aldehydes which do not have an
solution at 298 K the resistance is 1500 ohm and
-hydrogen atom, undergo disproportionation
conductivity is 0.15 × 10–3 S cm–1. The cell
reaction on heating with concentrated alkali.
constant of the cell is
Statement-II : Benzaldehyde on reaction with
(1) 10 cm–1 (2) 0.1 cm–1
concentrated alkali gives sodium phenoxide and
(3) 0.115 cm–1 (4) 0.225 cm–1
sodium benzoate.
68. For NaCl crystal there is one Schottky defect per
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) 1016 ions (2) 1020 ions correct answer from the options given below
(3) 1014 ions (4) 1022 ions
(1) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
69. Consider the following reaction sequence correct
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
incorrect
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
Products A and B respectively are incorrect

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-6 (Code-A)

72. Match List-I with List-II 80. Which among the following pair of solution shows
positive deviation from Raoult’s law?
List-I List-II
(1) CH3OH + H2O
(Name of (Deficiency
Vitamins) Diseases) (2) CHCl3 + CH3COCH3
(3) H2O + HNO3
a. Vitamin B12 (i) Convulsions
(4) C2H6 + C6H5CH3
b. Vitamin B1 (ii) Beri beri
81. Which of the following solutions has maximum
c. Vitamin B2 (iii) Pernicious anaemia boiling point?

d. Vitamin B6 (iv) Cheilosis (1) 0.1 m Glucose (2) 0.2 m Urea

(3) 0.1 m AlCl3 (4) 0.15 m KCl
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
82. Yellow coloured precipitate formed during
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) haloform test is of
73. 2 mol an ideal gas expanded against 1 atm (1) CHF3 (2) CHCl3
pressure from 10 L to 20 L at 27°C. Heat
(3) CHBr3 (4) CHI3
absorbed in the above process is
83. Electrophile for Reimer-Tiemann reaction is
(1) 10 L-atm (2) 20 L-atm
(1) CCl4 (2) CHCl3
(3) 40 L-atm (4) 30 L-atm
(3) :CCl2 (4) NaOH
74. Secondary valency of cobalt in complex
84. Partial pressure of H2 in a mixture of 4 g of H2
[Co(NH3)6]Cl3 is
and 16 g of O2 in an open container will be
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) 1 atm (2) 0.8 atm
(3) 6 (4) 4
(3) 0.5 atm (4) 0.67 atm
75. Equilibrium constant varies with
85. Yellow colour of potassium dichromate in basic
(1) Addition of catalyst medium is due to presence of
(2) Change in temperature (1) Cr2O72− (2) CrO24−
(3) Addition of inert gas at constant pressure
(3) Cr3+ (4) CrO5
(4) Change in volume
SECTION-B
76. is known as 86. Benzamide on reaction with lithium aluminium
hydride followed by hydrolysis gives
(1) *2pz (2) 2px
(3) *2px (4) 2pz (1) (2)
77. The process of settling of colloidal particles is
known as (3) (4)
(1) Peptization (2) Osmosis
87. Lyman series of hydrogen atom falls in which of
(3) Coagulation (4) Dialysis the following region of electromagnetic
78. Which of the following plot is straight line for first spectrum?
order reaction R → P? (1) Microwave (2) Ultraviolet
 1 (3) Visible (4) Infrared
(1) [R] vs t (2) In[R] vs  
t 88. The correct order of decreasing thermal stability
(3) t1/2 vs [R]0 (4) rate vs t is given by

79. Which of the following will contain maximum (1) BaCO3 > MgCO3 > CaCO3 > BeCO3
number of atoms? (2) BeCO3 > MgCO3 > BaCO3 > CaCO3
(1) 1 g dihydrogen (2) 2.24 L O2 at STP (3) BeCO3 > MgCO3 > CaCO3 > BaCO3
(3) 16 g SO3 (4) 10 g Ca (4) BaCO3 > CaCO3 > MgCO3 > BeCO3

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CST-6 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

89. The number of mole of KMnO4 that will be 94. Standard enthalpy of formation is non-zero for
needed to react with one mole of FeSO 4 in acidic (1) C(graphite) (2) O2(g)
medium is
(3) P(white) (4) Br2(g)
2 2 95. Which among the following complex compound
(1) (2)
3 5 can be optically active?
1 4 (1) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (2) K[Co(en)Cl2Br2]
(3) (4)
5 7
(3) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (4) [Pt(NH3)(H2O)ClBr]
90. Given : (i) Cu2+ + e– → Cu+, E° = 0.15 V 96. For the reaction 2N2O5(g) → 4NO2(g) + O2(g) if
(ii) Cu+ + e– → Cu, E° = 0.52 V −[N2O5 ] [O2 ]
is x then is
Electrode potential, E° for the reaction t t
Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu, will be nearly (1) x (2) (x)2
(1) 0.45 V (2) 0.28 V x
(3) (4) 2x
(3) 0.33 V (4) 0.39 V 2
91. IUPAC name of the given compound is 97. The accumulation of molecular species at the
surface rather than the bulk of a solid or liquid is
termed as
(1) Absorption (2) Adsorption
(3) Sorption (4) Desorption
(1) 4-Bromo-1-methyl-3-nitrobenzene
98. Bond order of S – O bond in SO24− ion is
(2) 2-Bromo-5-methyl-1-nitrobenzene
(1) 1
(3) 1-Bromo-4-methyl-2-nitrobenzene
(2) 2
(4) 6-Bromo-3-methyl-1-nitrobenzene
3
92. Major product of the given reaction is (3)
2
4
(4)
3
99. Which of the following can act as bronsted base
(1) (2)
but not as Bronsted acid?
(1) HCO3−
(3) (4)
(2) HSO−4

(3) H2PO2−
93. The ester which is most easily hydrolysed in
presence of aqueous alkali is (4) H2PO4−

100. Critical temperature of a gas can be expressed

as
(1) (2)
a
(1)
27b2

8a
(2)
27Rb
(3) (4) (3) 3b
a
(4)
Rb

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-6 (Code-A)

BOTANY
SECTION-A 107. Read the following statements and select the
101. The chief sink for the mineral elements in plants incorrect one.
are all, except (1) Turgor pressure in cells helps in extension
(1) Young leaves growth

(2) Storage organs (2) Water provides medium for enzymatic

reaction for growth
(3) Lateral meristems
(3) Nitrogen helps in release of metabolic energy
(4) Senescing parts
essential for growth activities in plants
102. Read the following statements and mark the
(4) Nutrients acts as a source of energy for
correct option:
growth in organisms
Statement-A: Rhizobium and Frankia are free-
108. Select the odd one out w.r.t. asexual
living in soil, but as symbionts, can fix
reproduction.
atmospheric nitrogen.
(1) Gamete formation can occur
Statement-B: Nitrogenase enzyme is present in
(2) Involvement of only one parent
both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells.
(3) Gametic fusion is absent
(1) Only statement A is correct
(4) Morphologically and genetically different
(2) Only statement B is correct
individuals are produced
(3) Both the statements are incorrect
109. How many sequential mitotic nuclear divisions
(4) Both the statements are correct are required for the formation of 8-nucleate stage
103. At the onset of anaphase of the embryo sac?
(1) Chromosomal material condenses (1) Eight (2) Three
(2) Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform (3) Four (4) Two
(3) Chromosomes move to spindle equator and 110. Which of the following beverages is not
get aligned produced by distillation of fermented broth?
(4) Chromosomes arranged at metaphase plate (1) Wine (2) Brandy
split simultaneously (3) Whisky (4) Rum
104. In prophase I synaptonemal complex is formed 111. The similarity between mango and wheat is that
during both
(1) Leptotene (2) Diplotene (1) Belong to the same class
(3) Diakinesis (4) Zygotene (2) Are members of same plant family
105. Unicellular alga which is rich in proteins and is (3) Belong to the order sapindales
used as food supplements by space travelers is (4) Share the same division
(1) Chlorella (2) Spirogyra 112. Which of the following taxonomic aids provides
(3) Gracilaria (4) Ectocarpus information about both plants and animals?
106. In gymnosperms (1) Flora (2) Botanical garden
(1) The female gametophyte have independent (3) Museum (4) Herbarium
free-living existence 113. If there is oxidation of fatty acids, proteins and
(2) Two different types of spores are produced carbohydrates then the common intermediate
(3) Ovules are enclosed by an ovary wall among them which enters the Krebs cycle is

(4) Pollen grains are carried to ovule by water (1) Acetyl CoA (2) Pyruvic acid
currents (3) OAA (4) Citric acid

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CST-6 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

114. A variety of rapeseed mustard resistant to aphids 122. What does ‘Z’ represents in equation
has been developed by IARI. It is log S = log C + Z log A for species area
(1) Pusa Sawani (2) Pusa Sem 2 relationship?
(3) Pusa Gaurav (4) Pusa Sem 3 (1) Species richness
115. Read the following statements and state true (T) (2) Regression coefficient
or false (F) for them.
(3) Y-intercept
A. The level of thermal tolerance of different
(4) Area
species determine to a large extent their
geographical distribution. 123. All of these are obligate parasites, except
B. A vast majority of organisms are stenothermal. (1) Viroid
A B (2) Tobacco mosaic virus

(1) T F (3) Rhizopus

(4) T4 phage
(2) F T
124. Neurospora does not
(3) T T
(1) Have cell wall
(4) F F
(2) Reproduce asexually by motile spores
116. Correct expression for GPP (Gross primary
(3) Have septate mycelia
productivity) is
(4) Have perfect stage in its life cycle
(1) NPP = GPP + R (2) NPP = GPP  R
125. Identify the wrong match.
(3) GPP = NPP ÷ R (4) GPP – R = NPP
117. In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, electrons are (1) Agaricus – Edible ascocarp
donated to PS-II by which of the given molecule?
(2) Gonyaulax – Flagellated protist
(1) CO2 (2) H2O
(3) Colletotrichum – Lack sexual spores
(3) NADPH (4) NADH
118. Which of the given is not a component of (4) Slime mould – Phagotrophic
nucleoside?
126. The recombination frequency between genes
(1) Purine (2) Ribose sugar A and B present on X chromosome is 17% while
(3) Phosphate (4) Pyrimidine C and D is 13%.
119. Variations at the genetic level is called Select the correct option concluded from above
polymorphism. It arises due to given information.
(1) Satellite DNA (2) Introns
(1) Genes A and B are closely situated than
(3) Mutations (4) Exons genes C and D
120. In the first phase of translation (2) Genes A and B are completely linked
(1) Smaller subunit of ribosome encounters
(3) Genes A and B must be present on one
mRNA
chromatid and C and D on sister chromatid
(2) Amino acids are activated
(4) Genes A and B are distantly situated than
(3) Peptide bond is formed
genes C and D
(4) Two amino acids are joined together
127. Select the wrong statement for persons suffering
121. Presence of large amounts of nutrients in water
with Klinefelter’s syndrome.
causes all of the given, except
(1) Such persons are sterile male
(1) Excessive growth of phytoplanktons
(2) Algal bloom (2) They have chromosome complement 44 +
XO
(3) Increase in biochemical oxygen demand
(BOD) (3) They have trisomy of sex chromosomes
(4) Increase in dissolved oxygen (DO) (4) They have feminine pitched voice

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-6 (Code-A)

128. A colourblind male marries to a normal female 134. The functions of which of the following cell
and they have their first child as colourblind organelles are not coordinated with the members
female. What will be the genotype of the father of endomembrane system?
and mother respectively?
(1) Lysosome
(1) XCY, XX (2) XCY, XCX
(2) Vacuole
(3) XY, XCXC (4) XY, XCX
(3) Golgi complex
129. Stilt roots in maize arise from
(1) Maturation zone of radicle (4) Peroxisome

(2) Lower nodes of the stem 135. On the sides of centromere, disc shaped
(3) The junction of radicle and plumule structures are present known as

(4) Nodes of underground stem (1) Telomeres

130. Identify the statement which is true regarding the (2) Secondary constrictions
structure in the below given figure labelled as X. (3) Kinetochores
(4) Satellite
SECTION-B
136. How many plants given in the box show haplo-
diplontic pattern of life cycle?
(1) This structure in Australian Acacia expands, Ectocarpus, Kelps, Fucus, Volvox, Wolfia,
becomes green and synthesises food Eucalyptus, Ginkgo
(2) In pea plant, this structure modifies into
tendril (1) 1
(3) In Bougainvillea, this structure is modified (2) 3
into thorn (3) 2
(4) This structure becomes fleshy and stores (4) 5
food in cactus
137. Read the following statements and mark true (T)
131. Regarding the element of complex tissue in
or false (F).
flowering plants which has sieve plates, identify
the option that is not true. I. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association of a
(1) Its function is controlled by an adjacent cell fungus with a root system.
(2) It lacks nucleus at maturity II. Imbibition is a special type of diffusion.
(3) It possesses peripheral cytoplasm III. Facilitated transport is not highly selective.
(4) It is mainly responsible for the transportation I II III
of water and minerals
132. The cells of secondary medullary rays in dicot (1) T F F
plants are formed by (2) T T F
(1) Pith cells (2) Parenchyma cells
(3) F T T
(3) Vascular cambium (4) Endodermal cells
133. Select the incorrect statement from the (4) T T T
following. 138. Which plant growth regulator is an adenine
(1) Genetic material in PPLO is naked derivative?
(2) Plasmids are circular single stranded DNA (1) Auxin
outside the genomic DNA
(2) Kinetin
(3) Organelles found in prokaryotes are non-
membrane bound (3) Abscisic acid
(4) Mesosome is characteristic of prokaryotes (4) Ethephon

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CST-6 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

139. Read the following statements and select the 144. The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro called
correct option for blanks A, B and C. upon all nations to take appropriate measures for
I. The body of ovule fuses with funicle in the (1) Conservation of biodiversity
region called A . (2) Controlling emission of ozone depleting
substance
II. Female gametophyte is also called B .
(3) Reducing air pollution
III. C plays an important role in guiding the (4) Considering noise as air pollutant
pollen tube into synergids. 145. All of the given are dissolved materials present
as impurities in waste water, except
A B C
(1) Nitrate (2) Ammonia
(1) Hilum Embryo Antipodal cell
(3) Phosphate (4) Silt and clay
(2) Nucellus Ovary Polar nuclei 146. A protozoan without locomotory structure is
(3) Micropyle Ovary Filiform (1) Entamoeba (2) Trypanosoma
apparatus (3) Plasmodium (4) Paramecium
(4) Hilum Embryo Filiform 147. Mark the autosomal dominant disorder among
sac apparatus the following.
140. Which among the following can be directly (1) Sickle cell anaemia
released into natural water bodies? (2) Colour blindness
(1) Primary effluent (2) Secondary effluent (3) Phenylketonuria
(3) Primary sludge (4) Activated sludge (4) Myotonic dystrophy
141. 148. Regarding the position of calyx, corolla and
androecium w.r.t. ovary on thalamus, select the
example which is odd one out.
The given pyramid is most probably of
(1) Brinjal (2) Guava
(1) Energy in tree ecosystem
(3) China rose (4) Mustard
(2) Number in grassland ecosystem
149. In dicot stem, the lateral meristem which is
(3) Biomass in aquatic ecosystem
secondary in origin is
(4) Number in aquatic ecosystem
(a) Cork cambium
142. Select the incorrect statement about
(b) Fascicular vascular cambium
competition.
(c) Interfascicular cambium
(1) Totally unrelated species can also compete
The correct one(s) is/are
for same resources
(1) (a) only (2) All (a), (b) and (c)
(2) In competition, the fitness of one species is
lowered in the presence of another species (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (b) and (c) only
(3) Resource partitioning promotes co-existence 150. Select the incorrect match from the following.
(4) In general, carnivores are appear to be more (1) Phospholipids - Major lipids in
adversely affected than plants and herbivores bacterial cell
wall
143. In sickle cell anaemia, there is point mutation in
which a change of single base pair in the gene (2) Centrioles - Absent in
almost all plant
for beta globin chain results in the substitution of
cells
(1) Glutamic acid by valine
(3) Cytoskeletal - Present in
(2) Valine by glutamic acid structures eukaryotes
(3) Phenylalanine by glutamic acid (4) Compartmentalisation - Absent in
(4) Lysine by Arginine of cytoplasm prokaryotes

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-6 (Code-A)

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 156. Observe the labelling in the given figure and
151. Read the following statements carefully and select the sphincter which guards this duct.
choose the option with only correct statements.
(a) Spermatogonia produce sperm cells by
spermatogenesis that begins at puberty.
(b) All spermatogonia periodically undergo
meiosis.
(c) A primary spermatocyte completes first
meiotic division during embryonic
development.
(d) The secondary spermatocytes have only 23 (1) Sphincter of Boyden
chromosomes each.
(2) Sphincter of Oddi
(1) (a) and (b) (3) Cardiac sphincter
(2) (b) and (c) (4) Ileocecal sphincter
(3) (c) and (d) 157. The abnormal frequency of bowel movement and
(4) (a) and (d) increased liquidity of the faecal discharge is
(1) Jaundice (2) Vomiting
152. In which of the following organisms, kidneys do
not play any significant role in removal of (3) Indigestion (4) Diarrhoea
nitrogenous waste? 158. Match the formed elements in column I with their
percent in total WBCs in column II. Select the
(1) Macaca (2) Delphinus
correct option.
(3) Catla (4) Pavo
Column I Column II
153. The type of origin shown by muscles is same as
a. Eosinophils (i) 60-65%
that of blood vessels, bone and cartilage. Identify
the type of origin and select the correct option. b. Monocytes (ii) 0.5-1%
(1) Ectodermal (2) Endodermal c. Basophils (iii) 6-8%
(3) Mesodermal (4) Ecto-endodermal d. Neutrophils (iv) 2-3%
154. About ______ percent of the body weight of a (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
human adult is contributed by muscles. (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
Select the option that fills the blank correctly. 159. In which of the following adult organisms, the
(1) 40-50 (2) 60-70 blood is oxygenated by gills and is supplied to the
body parts?
(3) 70-80 (4) 20-30
(1) Frog (2) Aptenodytes
155. Select the incorrect statement from the following.
(3) Scoliodon (4) Calotes
(1) Poultry includes chicken, ducks and turkeys
160. To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is connected
but not geese. to the machine with three electrical leads
(2) Poultry is the class of domesticated fowl used attached one to each ‘A’ and to the ‘B’.
for food or for their eggs. Select the option correctly representing A and B.
(3) Selection of disease free and suitable breeds A B
are important components of poultry farm (1) Wrist Left chest region
management. (2) Ankle Left wrist
(4) Bird flu virus drastically affected egg and (3) Wrist Left ankle
chicken consumption. (4) Ankle Left chest region

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CST-6 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

161. Junctions which facilitate the rapid transfer of 166. Select the incorrect match w.r.t rDNA technology.
ions, small molecules and sometimes big
(1) Bioprocess – Maintenance of sterile
molecules are engineering ambience
(1) Tight junctions (2) Gap junctions
(2) Genetic – Alteration of genetic
(3) Adhering junctions (4) Desmosomes engineering material
162. In female Periplaneta, genital pouch is formed by
(3) Downstream – Biosynthetic stage
(1) 7th, 8th and 9th sternum processing
(2) 9th, 10th terga and 9th sternum
(4) Biosynthetic – Culturing of
(3) 7th, 8th terga and 9th sternum stage recombinant host cells
(4) 9th, 10th sterna and 9th tergum
167. Match column I with column II and choose the
163. How many statements given below are correct? correct option.
(a) Seed ferns are common ancestors for
Column I Column II
gnetales and cycads.
a. Salmonella (i) Source of EcoRI
(b) Zosterophyllum are avascular land plants typhimurium
evolved in Silurian period.
b. Bacillus thuringiensis (ii) Used in developing
(c) Lycopods are oldest extant vascular land transgenic tobacco
plants. plant
(d) Sphenopsids are evolved from the group of c. Agrobacterium (iii) Used in creating first
plants to which Psilophyton belongs. tumefaciens recombinant DNA

(1) Two d. Escherichia coli (iv) Gene used in

creating biopesticide
(2) Three
(3) Four (1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

(4) One (3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
168. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the
164. Read the following statements and choose the
plasmid vector became possible with the enzyme
correct option.
_______.
Statement A: Similarities in proteins and genes
Choose the option which correctly fills the blank.
among diverse organisms indicates common
(1) Restriction endonuclease
ancestry.
(2) DNA ligase
Statement B: Humans and chimpanzees also
show biochemical similarities. (3) Alkaline phosphatase
(4) DNA polymerase
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
169. Choose the correct option to complete the
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
analogy.
(3) Only statement A is correct
Saw fish : Gill slits are present : : _____: Gill slits
(4) Only statement B is correct are absent
165. How many options given in the box are not true (1) Dog fish (2) Devil fish
for Darwinian theory of evolution? (3) Sting ray (4) Angel fish
Directional variations, Saltation, Minor 170. Choose the correct match.
variations, Inheritance of ‘factors’, Heritable (1) Balanoglossus – Stomochord
variations, Reproductive fitness (2) Cucumaria – Water canal system
(1) Four (2) Two (3) Chaetopleura – Chitinous exoskeleton
(3) Three (4) Five (4) Octopus – Dorsal hollow nerve cord
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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-6 (Code-A)

171. Match items in column-I with those in column-II 174. How many statements given below are correct?
and choose the correct option. (i) Relaxin is secreted by the ovary in the later
Column-I Column-II phase of pregnancy.
(ii) Inner cell mass differentiates into ectoderm
a. Annelids (i) Triploblastic
and endoderm just before implantation.
acoelomate
(iii) Implantation leads to pregnancy.
b. Platyhelminths (ii) Ciliated comb
(iv) Embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called
plates
morula.
c. Aschelminths (iii) Metamerism
(1) 2
d. Ctenophores (iv) Pseudocoelomates (2) 1
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (3) 4
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) 3
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) 175. Identify the label given in the diagram whose
function is to reduce friction on the lung surface
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
and if this is not present, then there will be
172. When two parents participate in the reproductive damage to the membranes which finally would
process and also involve A of B , it is affect breathing.
called sexual reproduction.
Choose the option which fills the blanks A and B
correctly.

A B

(1) Isolation Male and female gametes

(2) Fusion Male gametes

(3) Gametogenesis Only female gametes

(4) Fusion Male and female gametes

Select the correct option.
173. Assertion (A): During pregnancy the level of
several hormones like estrogens, progestogens, (1) B (2) A
cortisol, prolactin, thyroxine, etc are increased (3) C (4) D
several folds in the maternal blood. 176. How many of the following are indicators of
Reason (R): Increased production of these improved reproductive health of society?
hormones is essential for supporting the foetal (a) More couples with larger families
growth, metabolic changes in mother and (b) Better detection and cure of STIs
maintenance of pregnancy. (c) Better post-natal care
In light of above statements, choose the correct (d) Increased number of medically assisted
answer from options given below. deliveries
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (e) Increased IMR
correct explanation of (A) Choose the correct option from the following.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (1) One
correct explanation of (A) (2) Three
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) Four
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true (4) Five

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CST-6 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

177. Rashmi had a sexual encounter with an unknown 181. Match column I with column II and select the
partner, without any protection. correct option.
In a few days she develops itching, fluid Column I Column II
discharge and swelling in the genital region. a. Phosphate and (i) Peptide bond
In spite of the discomfort she does not go to the hydroxyl group of
sugar in a nucleotide
doctor. What is the most probable reason for this
and what kind of complications can this infection b. Polymer of amino (ii) Glycosidic bond
lead to? acids

Choose the appropriate option. c. Polysaccharides (iii) Hydrogen bond

d. Adenine and thymine (iv) Ester bond
(1) Afraid of social stigma; ectopic pregnancies,
in a DNA
still birth or infertility
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(2) Afraid of social stigma; malaria, filariasis or
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
chikungunya
182. Read the statements A and B carefully and select
(3) Unafraid of social stigma; syphilis, gonorrhea the correct answer.
or genital herpes
Statement A: Enzyme-substrate complex
(4) Unafraid of social stigma; abortions, produced during a catalysed reaction is highly
ascariasis, or taeniasis reactive.
178. At present, about ______ recombinant Statement B: This complex dissociates into its
therapeutics have been approved for human-use product and changed enzyme with an
intermediate formation of enzyme-product
worldwide, and ______ of these are presently
complex.
being marketed in India.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
Choose the option that respectively fills the
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
blanks correctly.
(3) Only statement A is correct
(1) 12, 30 (2) 32, 14 (4) Only statement A is incorrect
(3) 27, 22 (4) 30, 12 183. Applying the general rule of thumb, calculate the
179. The optic nerve leaves the eye at a particular increase in rate of reaction if the temperature
point. rises from 20°C to 60°C.
Select the correct option.
Read the following about this point.
(1) 2 times (2) 4 times
(a) Abundant photoreceptor cells present
(3) 8 times (4) 16 times
(b) Point is slightly above the posterior pole of
184. The active form of protozoa causing amoebic
the eyeball dysentery feeds upon
(c) Macula lutea is present lateral to this point. (1) Erythrocytes only
(d) It is medial to the posterior pole of the eye (2) Mucosa and submucosa of duodenum
ball. (3) Erythrocytes, mucosa and submucosa of
Choose the option which has all the correct ones colon
from above. (4) Mucosa and submucosa of colon only
(1) a, b only (2) b, c only 185. Select the event that is responsible for the chills
and high fever recurring every three to four days
(3) a, c, d only (4) b, c, d only in a person suffering with Plasmodium infection.
180. How many hormones given in the box are (1) Entry of sporozoites in the RBCs of human
produced by pars distalis? host through mosquito bite
(2) Multiplication of sporozoites within
FSH, TSH, Birth hormone, ACTH,
hepatocytes
ADH, MSH
(3) Rupture of RBCs to release haemozoin in
(1) Two (2) Three blood
(3) Four (4) Six (4) Development of gametocytes

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-6 (Code-A)

SECTION-B (1) Six (2) Four

186. Select the correct statement from the following. (3) Five (4) Three
(1) Kidneys are reddish brown, round-shaped 189. Assertion (A): If BamHI cuts a 12 kb linear
structures situated between the levels of last dsDNA fragment at two restriction sites which are
thoracic and third lumbar vertebra. at the same distance from the ends and each
(2) Kidneys are close to the dorsal inner wall of other, then only one band is obtained on agarose
the abdominal cavity. gel electrophoresis.
Reason (R): Three equal sized fragments will be
(3) Each kidney of an adult human measures
obtained on restriction digestion by BamHI.
0.5 - 0.7 m in width, 0.2 – 0.3 m in thickness
In the light of above statements, choose the
with an average weight of 120 – 150 g.
correct answer from the following options.
(4) Towards the centre of the inner convex
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
surface of the kidney is a notch called hilum
correct explanation of (A)
through which the ureter, blood vessels and
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
nerves pass.
correct explanation of (A)
187. Match column I with column II and select the
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
correct option.
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false
Column I Column II 190. If initially two identical dsDNA fragments are
a. (i) Implant taken for in-vitro amplification, then how many
copies of DNA will be obtained after 5 cycles of
PCR?
(1) 32 (2) 64
b. (ii) Copper T
(3) 10 (4) 16
191. Complete the analogy by choosing the correct
option.
Vertebrate brains : Divergent evolution
: : Eyes of the Octopus and of mammals
c. (iii) Condom for male : ________
(1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Homologous organs
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Parallel evolution
d. (iv) Female condom
192. Select the incorrect match from the given
options.
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(1) Periplaneta – Head, thorax and abdomen
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(2) Pila – Head, muscular foot and visceral hump
188. How many of the stated functions are performed
(3) Rana – Head, neck and trunk
by conducting part of human respiratory system?
(4) Saccoglossus – Proboscis, collar and trunk
(a) Clearing the incoming air by trapping dust
particles present in it. 193. Read the following statements A and B and
choose the correct answer.
(b) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and
Statement A: The most unique mammalian
atmospheric air.
characteristic is the presence of milk producing
(c) Conducting air from external nostrils upto mammary glands.
bronchioles.
Statement B: Mammals have one pair of limbs,
(d) Bringing the temperature of air upto the body adapted for walking, running, climbing, burrowing
temperature. swimming or flying.
(e) Making the incoming air humid by providing (1) Both statements A and B are correct
moisture produced by epithelium of nasal (2) Only statement A is incorrect
cavities.
(3) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(f) Transporting the atmospheric air to the alveoli.
(4) Only statement B is incorrect
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CST-6 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

194. Match column-I with column-II and choose the 197. Parts A and B make up the CNS.
correct answer. Select the option that correctly identifies A and B.
Column-I Column-II A B
a. Breasts in lactating (i) Presence or (1) Brain Spinal cord
mothers absence is not a
(2) Brain Somatic neural system
reliable indicator of
virginity (3) Spinal cord PNS
b. Colostrum (ii) Cushion of fatty (4) Visceral nervous Cerebrum
tissue covered by system
skin and pubic hairs 198. Match the disorders in column I with their correct
c. Mons pubis (iii) Contains several causes in column II.
antibodies absolutely Column I Column II
essential for
newborns a. Diabetes insipidus (i) Hyperthyroidism

d. Hymen (iv) 15-20 mammary b. Graves’ disease (ii) Deficiency of

vasopressin
lobes each
c. Addison’s disease (iii) Hyposecretion of
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
hormones of
(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) adrenal medulla
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(iv) Hyposecretion of
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) corticoids
195. The correct route through which action potential Select the correct option.
travels in heart is
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv)
(1) SAN → Purkinje fibres → Bundle of His →
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
AV node → Heart muscle
199. Read the statements given below carefully
(2) SAN → AVN → Purkinje fibres → Bundle of regarding competitive inhibition.
His → Heart muscle (a) The inhibitor closely resembles the enzyme in
(3) AVN → Bundle of His → SAN → Purkinje its molecular structure.
fibres → Heart muscle (b) Inhibitor competes with the substrate for
(4) SAN → AVN → Bundle of His → Purkinje substrate binding site of the enzyme.
fibres → Heart muscle (c) It leads to decline in activity of the enzyme.
196. Read the following statements carefully. (d) Malonate inhibition by succinic
dehydrogenase is example of the same.
Statement A: Increased agricultural yields have
been partly due to the use of better management How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
practices and use of agrochemicals, but mainly
due to the use of improved crop varieties. (1) One (2) Two
Statement B: GMOs increased reliance on (3) Three (4) Four
chemical pesticides by producing pesticide 200. How many of the diseases given below in the box
resistant crops. are the result of autoimmunity?
(1) Both statements A and B are correct Rheumatoid arthritis, Vitiligo, Psoriasis,
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect Myasthenia gravis, Hay fever
(3) Statement A is correct, B is incorrect (1) Two (2) Three
(4) Statement A is incorrect, B is correct (3) Four (4) Five

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