SR NEET DATE: 18.03.

2024
Time: 9.00 AM to 11.00 AM BIOLOGY GT-3 (XII Syllabus) Max.Marks: 400
Important Instructions:
Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response will get 4 marks.
For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.
BOTANY
1. Choose the incorrect statement of the following:
I. Each cell of sporogenous tissue in anther is a potential pollen grain.
II. Generative cell of a pollen grain has a large and irregularly shaped nucleus.
III. In over 60% of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at 3-cell stage.
IV. All members of legumes maintain the viability of pollen grains for months.
(1) I, III and IV (2) II, III and IV (3) III and IV (4) I, II, III and IV
2. The plant part which consists of two generations, one within the other is:
(1) Unfertilized ovule (2) Germinated pollen grain
(3) Seed (4) Embryo
3. Arrange the following structures in the increasing order of minimum reduction divisions required for
their formation:
I. 120 antipodal cells II. 60 synergids III. 25 egg cells IV. 50 embryo sacs
The correct answer is:
(1) II, I, III, IV (2) III, II, I, IV (3) IV, III, II, I (4) IV, I, II, III
4. Choose the correct statement of the following:
I. Flowers in castor and maize prevent both autogamy and geitonogamy.
II. Often flowers in animal pollinated plants are specifically adapted for a specific species of
animal.
III. Majority of plants use abiotic pollinators such as wind and water.
IV. Flowers are 6 feet height in Yucca for insect pollination.
(1) I and II (2) II and III (3) Only II (4) Only III
5. Assertion (A): Usually endosperm development precedes embryo development in flowering plants.
Reason (R): In flowering plants, most zygotes divide only after certain amount of endosperm is formed.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly explains (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
List- I List- II
I. False fruit A. Black pepper
II. Perisperm B. Grasses
III. Polyembryony C. Strawberry
IV. Apomixis D. Mango
(1) I- C, II- A, III- D, IV- B (2) I- D, II- A, III- B, IV- C
(3) I- D, II- C, III- A, IV- B (4) I- C, II- D, III- B, IV- A

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7. Apomictic seeds are better than hybrid seeds for farming because:
(1) Those are more expensive (2) Farmers have to buy those seeds every year
(3) There is no segregation of characters in progeny (4) All of the above
8. Choose the correct statement of the following:
I. Watson and Crick got the Nobel prize for the discovery of double helix structure of DNA in
1953.
II. Mendel conducted hybridisation experiments on garden pea for seven years during 1856- 1863.
III. Law of purity of gametes is universally applicable to all sexually reproducing organisms.
IV. Punnet square was developed by a British botanist R.C. Punnet.
(1) I, III and IV (2) II and III (3) II, III and IV (4) Only- III
9. Which of the following is not a pleiotropic gene?
(1) Starch branching enzyme (SBE-1) gene in pea
(2) Sickle cell disease (SCD) gene
(3) Phenylketonuria (PKU) gene
(4) Gene controlling human blood groups (gene- I)
10. A map unit (mu) or centiMorgan (cM) is equal to:
(1) The distance between genes which represents 100% cross over.
(2) The distance between genes which represents 50% cross over.
(3) The distance between genes which represents 1% cross over.
(4) The distance between genes which represents 0.01% cross over.
11. Assertion (A): Dominance is not the autonomous feature of a gene or the product that it has
information for.
Reason (R): If starch grain size is considered as the phenotype, alleles of a hybrid show incomplete
dominance.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly explains (A).
12. The probability of nonpartental combinations which are completely homozygous in a two gene
inheritance is:
(1) 1/2 (2) 1/4 (3) 1/8 (4) 1/16
13. Statement-I (S-I): Modified allele is equal to unmodified allele, if a less effective enzyme is produced.
Statement-II (S-II): Less effective enzyme is produced due to the presence of a recessive allele pair.
(1) S-I is true and S-II is false (2) S-I is false and S-II is true
(3) Both S-I and S-II are true (4) Both S-I and S-II are false
14. Respiratory infections were caused by:
(1) TMV (2) T- bacteriophages (3) LAB (4) Adenovirus
15. Vitamin B12 content in the curd is improved by:
(1) Lactobacillus (2) Leuconostoc (3) Yeast (4) Penicillium
16. Choose the incorrect statement of the following:
(1) Genetically engineered streptokinase is used as a clot buster.
(2) Cyclosporin-A is isolated from Cyclosporium species.
(3) Statins reduce blood cholesterol levels by a mechanism of competitive enzyme inhibition.
(4) All of the above

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17. Match List-I with List-II and select correct answer:
List- I List- II
I. Baculovirus A. Nitrogen fixers in paddy fields
II. Cyanobacteria B. Biocontrol agent of arthropods
III. Glomus C. Freeliving diazotroph
IV. Azotobacter D. Mycorrhiza
(1) I- C, II- A, III- D, IV- B (2) I- B, II- A, III- D, IV- C
(3) I- D, II- C, III- A, IV- B (4) I- B, II- D, III- A, IV- C
18. Which of the following can digest cellulosic waste material?
(1) Aspergillus niger (2) Propionibacterium
(3) Clostridium butylicum (4) Methanobacterium
19. Alexander Flemming observed Penicillium mold on the unwashed plates of -----------:
(1) Actinomycetes (2) Streptomyces (3) Staphylococci (4) Streptococci
20. Which of the following is the correct expression of central dogma of molecular biology after the
discovery of RTases?
(1) DNA→ RNA→ Proteins (2) DNA ⇌RNA ⇌Protein
(3) DNA→DNA⇌RNA→Protein (4) DNA→RNA⇌Protein
21. The enzyme that catalyses the opening of of ds-DNA during transcription:
(1) DNA helicase (2) DNA topoisomerase
(3) DNA polymerase (4) RNA polymerase
15 15
22. How many cells will not contain N N DNA, If the Meselson- Stahl experiment is performed for 80
minutes by using a single E. coli cell?
(1) 18 cells (2) 16 cells (3) 14 cells (4) 10 cells
23. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
List- I List- II
I. UTR A. RNA polymerase-III
II. snRNA B. Methionyl- tRNA
III. 23S rRNA C. 7- Methyl GTP cap in mRNA
IV. Initiator tRNA D. Peptidyl transferase activity
(1) I- C, II- A, III- D, IV- B
(2) I- C, II- B, III- D, IV- A
(3) I- C, II- D, III- B, IV- A
(4) I- C, II- D, III- A, IV- B
24. The presence of an adaptor molecule that would one hand read the code and on other hand would bind
to specific aminoacids. The above line is related to:
(1) Ribosomes (2) mRNA (3) rRNA (4) tRNA
25. The sequence of mRNA is:
5’AGGAGGUAUGGCUCAGUAGUGAUAAAAAAAAAAAA3’.
The peptide chain formed from the above mRNA consists of how many aminoacid residues?
(1) Three (2) Five (3) Seven (4) Eleven
26. Assertion (A): Transcription and translation are not coupled in eukaryotes.
Reason (R): Primary transcripts contain both exons and introns.
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly explains (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

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27. The Lac- i gene of lac operon is mutated such that its product is not formed. In this case what will
happen to Lac- z, y and a genes?
(1) z, y and a- genes are not always transcribed.
(2) z, y and a- genes are not always translated.
(3) z, y and a- genes are constitutively expressed.
(4) All of the above.
28. Choose the correct statement of the following:
(1) In 1969, Stanley Cohen performed the studies on a couple of restriction enzymes in E. coli.
(2) Herbert Boyer developed a method for removing plasmids from one bacterial cell and
reinserting them into other cells.
(3) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer constructed first artificial recombinant DNA molecule in
1972.
(4) Cohen and Boyer used antibiotic resistance genes from E. coli plasmids in the construction of
first rDNA.
29. A good vector used in recombinant DNA technology contains:
(1) Many, preferably more than two, recognition sites for the commonly used REN.
(2) Very few, preferably, a single recognition site for the commonly used REN.
(3) Ori- which is used for the insertion of alien DNA into it.
(4) Both 2 and 3.
30. Assertion (A): EcoRI is used to create sticky ends on a dsDNA.
Reason (R): Sticky ends easily form hydrogen bonds with their complementary cut counterparts.
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly explains (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
31. A recombinant DNA is created by inserting a Lac- z gene into ampr gene of pBR322 vector. Which
gene can be used to select the recombinants?
(1) Ampr (2) Tetr (3) Both Ampr and Tetr (4) None of these
32. Which step of PCR actually utilises dNTPs and Taq DNA polymerase?
(1) Denaturation (2) Primer annealing (3) Extension (4) All of these
33. Pest resistant transgenic plants show:
(1) Increased efficiency of mineral usage (2) Enhanced nutritional value
(3) Increased reliance on agrochemicals (4) Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides
34. RNAi occurs at the level of:
(1) Transcription (2) Reverse transcription
(3) Translation (4) More than one option
35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
List- I List- II
I. ADA gene A. Rosie
II. Human α- lactalbumin gene B. Emphysema
III. α-1- antitrypsin gene C. Golden rice
IV. β- carotene gene D. SCID
(1) I- D, II- A, III- B, IV- C (2) I- B, II- C, III- D, IV- A
(3) I- C, II- D, III- B, IV- A (4) I- D, II- C, III- B, IV- A
36. If pollen grains shed at 2- celled stage, the male gametes will be formed from generative cell during:
(1) Growth of pollen tube in the stigma (2) Growth of pollen tube in the style
(3) Growth of pollen tube into ovary (4) Entry of pollen tube into embryo sac

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37. In a fruit fly, the genes (a) and (b) are linked and showed 20% recombination. If the wild males (++)
are crossed with recessive females (ab/ab), what will be the percentage of gametes in F1?
(1) ++ 10%: +a 40%: +b 40%: ab 10%
(2) ++ 40%: +a 10%: +b 10%: ab 40%
(3) ++ 50% : ab 50%
(4) ++ 30%: +a 20%: +b 20%: ab 30%
38. Choose the incorrect statement of the following:
(1) In 1902 chromosome movement during mitosis had been worked out.
(2) Sutton united the knowledge of chromosomal segregation with Morgan principles and called it
as chromosomal theory of inheritance.
(3) Morgan found that genes for white eyes and miniature wings were more tightly linked than those
of white eyes and yellow body.
(4) All of the above.
39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
List- I List- II
I. A,B and O blood group system in human A. Incomplete dominance
II. Human skin colour B. Codominance
III. Pink flowers in snapdragon C. Quantitative inheritance
IV. AB- blood group D. Multiple alleles
(1) I- C, II- A, III- D, IV- B (2) I- D, II- A, III- B, IV- C
(3) I- D, II- C, III- A, IV- B (4) I- C, II- D, III- B, IV- A
40. Rod shaped viruses can be observed under microscope at ------------- magnification:
(1) 1,00,000 X (2) 50,000 X (3) 1000 X (4) 100 X
41. Statement-I (S-I): The effluent from the settling tanks is generally released into natural water bodies
like rivers and streams.
Statement-II (S-II): Till date, no man made technology has been able to rival the microbial treatment
of sewage.
(1) S-I is true and S-II is false
(2) S-I is false and S-II is true
(3) Both S-I and S-II are true
(4) Both S-I and S-II are false
42. Sickle cell anaemia is due to ------------- type of point mutation:
(1) Addition (2) Transversion (3) Deletion (4) Transition
43. Assertion (A): tRNAs are absent for stop codons.
Reason (R): UAG, UGA and UAA are the nonsense codons.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly explains (A).
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not correctly explains (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
44. Choose the correct statement of the following:
1. The genes present in the operon are needed together to function in the same or related
metabolic pathway.
2. The accessibility of promoter region in prokaryotic DNA is in many cases regulated by the
interaction of proteins with operator sequences.
3. Regulation of an operon can also be visualized as regulation of enzyme synthesis by its
substrate.
4. All of the above.

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45. Identify the correct sequence of the following steps of genetic engineering:
I. Isolation of desired DNA fragment.
II. Culturing the host cells in a medium in a large scale.
III. Isolation of DNA from an organism.
IV. Ligation of DNA fragment into a vector.
V. Extraction of the desired (recombinant) product.
VI. Fragmentation of DNA by restriction endonucleases.
(1) I, VI, III, IV, II, V (2) III, VI, I, IV, II, V
(3) III, IV, I, VI, II, V (4) I, IV, III, VI, II, V
46. Assertion (A): DNA is isolated and purified in the first step in genetic engineering.
Reason (R): Restriction enzymes can not digest impure DNA.
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly explains (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
47. Increased yields during green revolution were mainly due to:
(1) Use of improved crop varieties (2) Use of agrochemicals
(3) Better management practices (4) Both 2 and 3
48. A stirred tank bioreactor is usually cylindrical because:
(1) It facilitates the proper transfer of air
(2) It facilitates the proper formation of oxygen bubbles
(3) It facilitates the proper break down of froth formed
(4) It facilitates proper mixing of reactor components
49. Which of the following REN creates blunt ends in a dsDNA?
(1) EcoRV (2) HindII (3) PvuII (4) All of these
50. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
Column- I Column- II (Gene/ product)
I. Heat shock method A. Thermostable DNA polymerase
II. Agarose gel electrophoresis B. Heterologous host
III. DNA amplification C. To check the progression of restriction enzyme digestion
IV. Recombinant protein D. To improve the DNA uptake by bacterial cells
(1) I- C, II- A, III- D, IV- B (2) I- D, II- A, III- B, IV- C
(3) I- D, II- C, III- A, IV- B (4) I- C, II- D, III- B, IV- A
ZOOLOGY
51. Haemophilia can be spread through:
1. Haemophilic father 2. Haemophilic mother
3. Unaffected carrier mother 4. All given cases
52. Westren ghats have a greater _________ species diversity than the eastern ghats.
1. Fishes 2. Reptilian 3. Avian 4. Amphibian
53. Match the trophic levels with their correct species examples in grassland ecosystem:
Column – I Column – II
(a). Fourth Trophic Level (i) Crow
(b). Second Trophic Level (ii) Vulture
(c). First Trophic Level (iii) Rabbit
(d). Third Trophic Level (iv) Grass
Select the correct option
1. (a) – i, (b) – ii, (c) – iii, (d) – iv 2. (a) – ii, (b) – iii, (c) – iv, (d) - i
3. (a) – iii, (b) – ii, (c) – i, (d) – iv 4. (a) – iii, (b) – iv, (c) – ii, (d) - i
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54. Relaxin hormone helps in:
1. Conception 2. Fertilization 3. Lactation 4. Parturition
55. Read the statement A and B and choose the correct option:
Statement A: Presence of X or Y chromosome in the sperm determines sex of the embryo.
Statement B: Morula gets implanted into the uterine endometrium.
1. If both statements are correct 2. If both statements are incorrect
3. If only statement A is correct 4. If only statement B is correct
56. The recombinant DNA technological processes have made immense impact in the area of human
health by:
1. enabling mass production of therapeutics.
2. these therapeutics includes hormones, factors, vaccines, antibiotics etc.,
3. These are safe and are more effcetive.
4. All of the above statements.
57. Match List – I with List – II with reference to area and bird species diversity:
A. California I. 1200
B. New York II. 56
C. Greenland III. 105
D. India IV. 1400
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1. A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I 2. A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
3. A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I 4. A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
58. A lady is 15 weeks pregnant. Various tests confirm that if her child born, it would suffer from a serious
illness leading to a serious handicap. What is the best suggested option to this case as per the MTP
(amendment) Act 2017?
1. MTP can’t be performed
2. MTP can be easily performed without any restrictions
3. MTP can be performed only if two medical practitioners agree for it
4. MTP can be performed only after determination of the sex of the baby
59. The trait for mendelian disorder is:
1. Either dominant or recessive 2. Either linked to autosomes or allosomes.
3. Can be easily studies by pedigree analysis 4. All the above mentioned characters.
60. When gene targeting involving gene amplification is attempted in an individual’s tissue to traet disease,
it is known as:
1. Safety testing 2. Biopiracy 3. Gene Therapy 4. Molecular Diagnosis
61. The rate of biomass production by autotrophs which becomes available for the consumption to
heterotrophs is termed as
1. Net primary productivity 2. Gross primary productivity
3. Net community productivity 4. Secondary productivity
62. The pro – hormone need to be processed before it becomes a fully mature and functional hormone
‘insulin’. What is the step you recommend in this maturation:
1. C – peptide should be added
2. New disulphide bonds to be added
3. New amino acid stretches will be added to the peptide ‘B’
4. Peptide – C should be removed.
63. Transgenic animal:
1. In the place of its gene, it carries foregig gene.
2. Physically carries its gene and also physically foreign gene.
3. Carries its own gene but express foreign animal characters.
4. Its DNA manipulated to possess and express an extra gene.
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64. Identification and enumeration of plant and animal species of an ecosystem gives its:
1. Stratification 2. Biome 3. Biotope 4. Species composition
65. In the given expression “GPP – R = NPP”, the ‘R’ stands for:
1. A part of the productivity utilized by the plant for respiration.
2. A part of the productivity utilized by the primary consumer for respiration
3. A part of the productivity utilized by the primary carnivore for respiration
4. All the above listed are valid
66. It is well argued that within ____________ of years, man created new breeds.
1. Hundreds 2. Thousands 3. Millions 4. Billions
67. Evolution is a stochastic process based on chance ________ in nature and chance ________ in an
organism. (Fill the blank with appropriate word respectively).
1. Nature, mutation 2. Mutation, mutation
3. Variation, variation 4. Determinism, occurrence
68. Match the following
A. Lamarck I. Russia
B. Charles Darwin II. French Naturalist
C. Oparin III. American
D. S. L. Miller IV, British Naturalist
Choose the correct option
1. A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV 2. A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
3. A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I 4. A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III
69. The female heterogametic condition is shown by all, except
1. Birds 2. Moth 3. Butterflies 4. Drosophila
th
70. If a female had her menstrual cycle on 12 September, as a medical profession recommend her
timetable for using of OCP:
1. Start 1st pill on 12th September and continue till 28th September.
2. Start 1st pill on 23rd September and stop using after 21 days.
3. 1st pill should be taken on 15th September and last pill on 5th October.
4. 1st pill on 18th September and last pill on 8th October.
71. Read the following statements and choose the correct option
Statement (A): Human females produce only one type of egg
Statement (B): In humans, males determines the sex of the offspring
1. Only statement A is correct 2. Only statement B is correct
3. Both statements (A) and (B) are correct 4. Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect
72. The royal family showing a number of haemophilic descendents is:
1. Queen Elizebeth 2. Queen Sheikh 3. Queen Victoria 4. Queen Paris
73. In this given pedigree, what is the mode of inheritance

1. Autosomal dominant 2. Y – linked dominant

3. X – linked recessive 4. Y – linked recessive
74. Total number of chromosomes sequenced in HGP would be:
1. 22 2. 23 3. 24 4. 46
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75. Which of the following statements are correct about SAHELI.
A. Non – steroidal and non – hormonal pill B. Highly contraceptive value
C. Developed by CDRI, Lucknow D. Daily oral pill with very few side effects
1. ACD 2. BD 3. AB 4. ABC
76. Which of the following contraceptive method(s) block the transport of gametes
1. Tubectomy 2. Vasectomy 3. Spermicidal gel 4. Both 1 and 2
77. We can say that we are not healthy – when:
1. One of the organ is not working properly
2. One of the systems in the body is adversely affected.
3. Characterised by the appearance of various signs and symptoms.
4. All of the above
78. WIDAL test is used for the confirmation of:
1. Pneumonia 2. Typhoid 3. Cholera 4. Malaria
79. How many of following disease transmit by mosquito bite
A. Chikungunya, B. Malaria, C. Pneumonia, D. Dengue,
E. Plague, F. Polio, G. Syphilis, H. Filariasis
1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four
80. Consider the following statements:
Statement – I: Innate immunity is non – specific immunity.
Statement – II: It is present at the time of birth.
Choose the correct option:
1. Both the statements I and II are correct 2. Both the statements I and II are incorrect
3. Statement – I is only correct 4. Statement – II is only correct
81. Seminiferous tubules are composed of
1. Leydig cells 2. Glandular epithelium
3. Sensory epithelium 4. Germinal epithelium
82. Observe the following flow chart and choose right statement

1. ‘B’ causes the release of ‘E’ and ‘E’ inhibits the secretion of ‘D’ normally
2. ‘C’ causes the release of ‘D’ and ‘D’ concentrates ‘E’ inside the seminiferous tubule
3. ‘A’ is gnRH, ‘C’ is ICSH and ‘B’ is FSH
4. ‘A’ is gnRH, ‘C’ is LH and ‘B’ is FSH
83. Estrogen is produced by:
1. Growing follicle 2. Corpus luteum 3. Granulosa cells 4. All of these
84. If 4 individuals in the laboratory population of 40 fruitflies died during a specified time interval
(a week), the death rate in the population during that period is:
1. 0.2 individual per fruitfly per week 2. 1 individual per fruitfly per week
3. 0.1 individual per fruitfly per week 4. 2 individual per fruitfly per week

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85. Ootid is formed along with:
1. Ovum 2. 2nd polar body
3. Secondary Oocyte 4. Primary oocyte
86. In the given expression, Nt + 1 = Nt + [(B + I} – (D + E)], the aphabet ‘N’ stands for:
1. Natality 2. Mortality
3. Density 4. Number of individual
87. Read the following statements carefully:
A. As per IUCN (2004) data, the total number of plant and animal species described so far is slightly
more than 1.5 million.
B. For many taxonomical groups, species inventories are more complete in tropics than in temperate
countries.
C. Overwhelmingly large proportion of the species waiting to be discovered are in the tropics.
D. Robery May places the global species diversity estimate of about 7 billion.
The correct statements among the above are:
1. Only B abd C 2. A and C 3. Only A 4. A, B, C and D.
88. Given below are two statements:
Statement – I: More than 70% of all the species recorded are animals.
Statement – II: The remaining 30% are the plants (including algae, fungi, bryophytes, gymnosperms
and angiosperms).
1. Both the statements – I and II are correct
2. Both the statements – I and II are incorrect
3. Statement – I is incorrect but statement – II is correct
4. Statement – I is only correct
89. The following methods serve the function of early diagnosis:
1. Recombinant DNA technology
2. Polymerase Chain Reaction
3. Enzyme lInked Immuno – Sorbent Assay
4. ELISA, PCR and rDNA.
90. In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of
the following statement is correct:
1. There is no relation between the gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity
2. Gross primary productivity is always less than the net primary productivity
3. Gross primary productivity is always more than the net primary productivity
4. Gross primary productivity and the net primary productivity are always same
91. The following is/are the example for homologous organs?
1. Vertebrate hearts
2. Vertebrate brains
3. Mammalian forelimbs
4. All the above
92. Assertion (A): The rate of appearance of new formsis linked to the life cycle or the life span..
Reason (R): Microbes that divide fast has the ability to multiply and become millions within hours
whereas for fish or fowl, it would take millions of years.
1. Both A and R are true, R is a clear explanation to A.
2. Both A and R are true. R is not a clear explanation to A.
3. A is true and R is false
4. Both A and R are false
93. ZZ/ZW type of sex determination is seen in:
1. Platypus 2. Snails 3. Cockroach 4. Peacock
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94. Match List – I with List – II:
List – I List – II
(a). Vaults (i) Entry of sperms through cervix is blocked
(b). IUD (ii) Removal of Vas Deferens
(c). Vasectomy (iii) Phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus
(d). Tubectomy (iv) Removal of Fallopian tube
Choose the correct answer from the option given below
1. a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – ii 2. a – iv, b – ii, c – i, d – iii
3. a – i, b – iii, c – ii, d – iv 4. a – ii, b – iv, c – iii, d – i
95. Which of the following group is NOT of infectious diseases:
1. Cancer, Allergy, Rheumatoid arthritis 2. Dysentery, Plague, Diphtheria
3. Polio, Pneumonia, Tetanus 4. Small pox, Ringworm, Common cold
96. Match List – I with List – II with reference to the structure of sperm:
List – I (Part) List – II (Role)
A. Head I. Sperm motility
B. Acrosome II. Storehouse of many enzymes
C. Middle piece III. Elongated nucleus
D. Tail IV. Mitochondria
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1. A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I 2. A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
3. A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I 4. A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
97. In the month of January, Siberian Cranes migrate from Russia to India for breeding and a survey was
done on them:
Till December, total population of Siberain cranes = 1200
Number of births = 400
Number of deaths = 400
Number of cranes immigrated = 600
Number of cranes emigrated = 600
Calculate the present population
1. 1500 2. 1000 3. 2000 4. 1200
98. Read the following statements carefully regarding predators:
A. They acts as conduits for energy transfer across trophic levels.
B. They keep prey population under control.
C. They help in maiantaining species diversity in a community.
D. They reduces the intensity of competition among the competing prey species.
E. Predators are too efficient and overexploits its prey.
Identify the correct statements among the above.
1. Only A and B 2. A, B, C and D 3. C, D and E 4. A, B, C, D and E
99. Both Equador Forest and Midwest Forest belongs to:
1. United States of America 2. United Kingdom
3. Europe 4. North Easyt Asia
100. The in – situ conservation refers to:
1. Conserve only endangered species 2. Conserve only extinct species
3. Protect and conserve whole ecosystem 4. Conserve only high risk species

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