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Nucleiacids

This document contains a multi-part exam question about DNA replication, Crohn's disease, and human chromosomes during mitosis. The exam asks students to: 1. Label a DNA nucleotide and describe two important features of DNA for semi-conservative replication. 2. Explain how pathogenic bacteria could trigger Crohn's disease symptoms based on information given. Suggest the meaning of a "genetic tendency" to the disease and why two drugs may control symptoms. 3. Identify two pieces of evidence from a photo of chromosomes that the cell was undergoing mitosis and explain the evidence.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

87 views89 pages

Nucleiacids

Uploaded by

dfq67gtkqs

We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.

Available Formats

Download as RTF, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

You are on page 1/ 89

_______________________

Name:
_
Nuclei acids A level
_______________________
Class:
_

_______________________
Date:
_

Time: 372 minutes

Marks: 298 marks

Comments:

Page 1 of 89
Q1.
(a) Draw and label a single DNA nucleotide.

(2)

(b) Give two features of DNA and explain how each one is important in the semi-
conservative replication of DNA.

1. _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

2. _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

The replication of the second strand of mtDNA only starts after two-thirds of the first
strand of mtDNA has been copied.

A piece of mtDNA is 16 500 base pairs long and is replicated at a rate of 50

nucleotides per second.

Tick (✓) the box that shows how long it would take to copy this mtDNA.

Page 2 of 89
A 330 seconds

B 440 seconds

C 550 seconds

D 660 seconds

(1)
(Total 5 marks)

Q2.
Read the following passage.

Sizes of populations of normal intestinal bacteria are usually controlled by

T cells that are produced slowly and in small numbers by the immune system.
These T cells do not normally survive for very long. As a result, they do not
release large amounts of cytokines. Cytokines are chemicals that can cause
swelling of the lining of the intestines. 5

Crohn’s disease is a long-lasting disease that causes swelling of the lining of

the intestines. It is believed that Crohn’s disease can be caused by a loss of
tolerance to normal intestinal bacteria, as shown by an unusually large
response by T cells. This response can be triggered by pathogenic bacteria in
the intestines of people with a genetic tendency to Crohn’s disease. 10

Some people’s Crohn’s disease can be controlled by a drug called

5-aminosalicylic acid (5-ASA) that reduces swelling. Another drug called
6-mercaptopurine (6-MP) may also be used. 6-MP inhibits an enzyme required
to make adenine and guanine. This is effective because most cells can recycle
nucleotides, but T cells are not able to do so. 15

Use information from the passage and your own knowledge to answer the questions.

(a) The Crohn’s disease symptom of swelling of the lining of the intestines could be
triggered by pathogenic bacteria in the intestines (lines 6–10).

Suggest how.

___________________________________________________________________

Page 3 of 89
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)

(b) Suggest the meaning of ‘a genetic tendency to Crohn’s disease’ (line 10).

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(c) Suggest why 5-ASA is only effective in controlling the swelling of the lining of the
intestines in some people with Crohn’s disease (lines 11–12).

___________________________________________________________________

Page 4 of 89
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(d) Suggest why 6-MP can be used to control the symptoms of Crohn’s disease (lines
13–15).

Do not include details of enzyme inhibition or protein synthesis in your answer.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)
(Total 10 marks)

Q3.
Figure 1 shows all the chromosomes present in one human cell during mitosis. A scientist
stained and photographed the chromosomes. In Figure 2, the scientist has arranged the

Page 5 of 89
images of these chromosomes in homologous pairs.

Figure 1 Figure 2

(a) Give two pieces of evidence from Figure 1 that this cell was undergoing mitosis.
Explain your answers.

1. _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

2. _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(b) Tick (✓) one box that gives the name of the stage of mitosis shown in Figure 1.

A Anaphase

B Interphase

Page 6 of 89
C Prophase

D Telophase

(1)

(c) When preparing the cells for observation the scientist placed them in a solution that
had a slightly higher (less negative) water potential than the cytoplasm. This did not
cause the cells to burst but moved the chromosomes further apart in order to reduce
the overlapping of the chromosomes when observed with an optical microscope.

Suggest how this procedure moved the chromosomes apart.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(d) The dark stain used on the chromosomes binds more to some areas of the
chromosomes than others, giving the chromosomes a striped appearance.

Suggest one way the structure of the chromosome could differ along its length to
result in the stain binding more in some areas.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(e) In Figure 2 the chromosomes are arranged in homologous pairs.

What is a homologous pair of chromosomes?

___________________________________________________________________

Page 7 of 89
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(f) Give two ways in which the arrangement of prokaryotic DNA is different from the
arrangement of the human DNA in Figure 1.

1. _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

2. _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 9 marks)

Q4.
(a) Describe the role of two named enzymes in the process of semi-conservative
replication of DNA.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)

Page 8 of 89
(b) Scientists investigated the function of a eukaryotic cell protein called cyclin A. This
protein is thought to be involved with the binding of one of the enzymes required at
the start of DNA replication.

The scientists treated cultures of cells in the following ways.

C – Control cells, untreated
D – Added antibody that binds specifically to cyclin A
E – Added RNA that prevents translation of cyclin A
F – Added RNA that prevents translation of cyclin A and added cyclin A protein

They then determined the percentage of cells in each culture in which DNA was
replicating.

Their results are shown in the table.

Percentage of cells where

Cell treatment
DNA was replicating

C
91
Control

D
Antibody that binds 11
specifically to cyclin A

E
RNA that prevents translation 10
of cyclin A

F
RNA that prevents translation
92
of cyclin A and added cyclin A
protein

Suggest explanations for the results in the table.

___________________________________________________________________

Page 9 of 89
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)
(Total 6 marks)

Q5.
The diagram shows part of a DNA molecule.

(a) How many nucleotides are shown in the diagram above?

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(b) Name the type of bond labelled X in the diagram.

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

Describe the function of each of these enzymes.

DNA helicase _______________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

DNA polymerase _____________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

Page 10 of 89
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(d) Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is a nucleotide derivative.

Contrast the structures of ATP and a nucleotide found in DNA to give two
differences.

1. _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

2. _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 6 marks)

Q6.
(a) Give the two types of molecule from which a ribosome is made.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(b) Describe the role of a ribosome in the production of a polypeptide. Do not include
transcription in your answer.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)

Page 11 of 89
(c) The table below shows the base sequence of part of a pre-mRNA molecule from a
eukaryotic cell.

Complete the table with the base sequence of the DNA strand from which this pre-
mRNA was transcribed.

DNA

A C G C A U U A U pre-mRNA
(1)

(d) In a eukaryotic cell, the base sequence of the mRNA might be different from the
sequence of the pre-mRNA.

Explain why.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 7 marks)

Q7.
(a) Name two enzymes involved in the semi-conservative replication of DNA.

1. _________________________________________________________________

2. _________________________________________________________________
(2)

(b) Sometimes, damage occurs during DNA replication. One enzyme involved in
repairing damage to DNA is called ATR.

ATR works as follows.

• ATR phosphorylates other enzymes involved in repairing DNA.

• ATR also phosphorylates substrates required to repair DNA.

When ATR phosphorylates other enzymes, these enzymes become able to bind to
their substrates.

Use your knowledge of enzyme structure to suggest why.

___________________________________________________________________

Page 12 of 89
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

Use your knowledge of energy changes in enzyme-catalysed reactions to suggest

why.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(d) Sometimes, a mutagenic agent causes DNA to break. A different enzyme called
ATM binds to the broken DNA. This leads to the activation of a protein coded for by
a tumour suppressor gene. The effect of ATM binding is to stop cell division until
DNA is repaired.

A mutation could result in a person having non-functional forms of the gene that
produces ATM.

What can you predict about the possible effects of having a non-functional form of
ATM?

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)
(Total 8 marks)

Page 13 of 89
Q8.
(a) The genetic code is degenerate and non-overlapping.

Explain the meaning of:

Degenerate _________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

Non-overlapping _____________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

The table shows a short section of a messenger RNA (mRNA) molecule and the section of
a polypeptide for which it codes.

mRNA GGG GCU UCA CCG GCA ACG

Polypeptide glycine alanine serine proline alanine threonine

(b) Name the bases represented in the table by:

A _________________________________

C _________________________________

G _________________________________

U _________________________________
(2)

___________________________________________________________________
(1)
(Total 5 marks)

Q9.
A bacterium is shown in the diagram.

Page 14 of 89
(a) Calculate the magnification of the image.

Magnification = _________________
(1)

(b) Complete the table to show the features of a bacterium and a virus.

Put a tick (✔) in the box if the feature is shown.

Surface Bacterium Virus

Cell-surface membrane

Nucleus

Cytoplasm

Capsid
(2)

(c) DNA and RNA can be found in bacteria.

Give two ways in which the nucleotides in DNA are different from the nucleotides in
RNA.

1. _________________________________________________________________

2. _________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 5 marks)

Page 15 of 89
Q10.
(a) DNA is a polymer of nucleotides. Each nucleotide contains an organic base.

Explain how the organic bases help to stabilise the structure of DNA.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(b) Triplets of bases in a DNA molecule code for the sequence of amino acids in a
polypeptide. The genetic code is frequently written as the three bases on mRNA that
are complementary to a triplet on DNA. Table 1 shows what different combinations
of bases on mRNA code for. The names of amino acids are abbreviated. For
example, ‘Ala’ stands for alanine.

Table 1

First base Second base Third

base
Guanine (G) Adenine (A) Cytosine (C) Uracil (U)

GGG Ala GAG Glu GCG Ala GUG Val G

GGA Gly GAA Glu GCA Ala GUA Val A
G
GGC Gly GAC Asp GCC Ala GUC Val C
GGU Gly GAU Asp GCU Ala GUU Val U

AGG Arg AAG Lys ACG Thr AUG Met G

AGA Arg AAA Lys ACA Thr AUA Iso A
A
AGC Ser AAC Asn ACC Thr AUC Iso C
AGU Ser AAU Asn ACU Thr AUU Iso U

CGG Arg CAG Gln CCG Pro CUG Leu G

CGA Arg CAA Gln CCA Pro CUA Leu A
C
CGC Arg CAC Hist CCC Pro CUC Leu C
CGU Arg CAU Hist CCU Pro CUU Leu U

UGG Trp UAG stop UCG Ser UUG Leu G

UGA stop UAA stop UCA Ser UUA Leu A
U
UGC Cyst UAC Tyr UCC Ser UUC Phe C
UGU Cyst UAU Tyr UCU Ser UUU Phe U

Suggest one advantage of showing the genetic code as base sequences on mRNA,

Page 16 of 89
rather than triplets on DNA.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(d) Use information from Table 1 to explain why the genetic code is described as
degenerate.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(e) Suggest the role of the mRNA base triplets UGA, UAG and UAA.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(f) Table 2 shows the sequence of mRNA bases forming part of a single gene.

Table 2

Base on
DNA
template

Base on
G U G U A C U G G
mRNA

Encoded
amino acid

Complete Table 2 to show the base sequence of the DNA template from which this

Page 17 of 89
mRNA was transcribed and the encoded amino acid sequence.
(2)
(Total 10 marks)

Q11.
Figure 1 shows one base pair of a DNA molecule.

Figure 1

(a) Name part F of each nucleotide.

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(b) Scientists determined that a sample of DNA contained 18% adenine.

What were the percentages of thymine and guanine in this sample of DNA?

Percentage of thymine

Percentage of guanine

(2)

During replication, the two strands of a DNA molecule separate and each acts as a
template for the production of a new strand.

Figure 2 represents DNA replication.

Figure 2

(c) Name the enzyme shown in Figure 2.

Page 18 of 89
___________________________________________________________________
(1)

The arrows in Figure 2 show the directions in which each new DNA strand is being
produced.

(d) Use Figure 1, Figure 2 and your knowledge of enzyme action to explain why the
arrows point in opposite directions.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(4)
(Total 8 marks)

Q12.
Read the following passage.

Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infects nerve cells in the face, including some near
the lips. Like many other viruses, HSV can remain inactive inside the body for
years. When HSV becomes active, it causes cold sores around the mouth.

Human cells infected with a virus may undergo programmed cell death. While
HSV is inactive inside the body, only one of its genes is transcribed. This gene is 5
the latency-associated transcript (LAT) gene that prevents programmed cell death
of an infected nerve cell.

Scientists have found that transcription of the LAT gene produces a microRNA.
This microRNA binds to some of the nerve cell’s own mRNA molecules. These
mRNA molecules are involved in programmed cell death of nerve cells. The 10
scientists concluded that production of this microRNA allows HSV to remain in the
body for years.

Use information from the passage and your own knowledge to answer the following
questions.

(a) HSV infects nerve cells in the face (line 1). Explain why it infects only nerve cells.

___________________________________________________________________

Page 19 of 89
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)

(b) HSV can remain inactive inside the body for years (lines 2–3). Explain why this virus
can be described as inactive.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(c) Suggest one advantage of programmed cell death (line 4).

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(d) The scientists concluded that production of this microRNA allows HSV to remain in
the body for years (lines 10–12).

Explain how this microRNA allows HSV to remain in the body for years.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(4)
(Total 10 marks)

Q13.
The following figure represents part of a DNA molecule.

Page 20 of 89
(a) Draw a box around a single nucleotide.
(1)

The table below shows the percentage of bases in each of the strands of a DNA molecule.

DNA Percentage of each

strand base

A C G T

Strand 1 16

Strand 2 21 34

(b) Complete the table by adding the missing values.

(2)

(c) During replication, the two DNA strands separate and each acts as a template for
the production of a new strand. As new DNA strands are produced, nucleotides can
only be added in the 5’ to 3’ direction.

Use the figure in part (a) and your knowledge of enzyme action and DNA replication
to explain why new nucleotides can only be added in a 5’ to 3’ direction.

___________________________________________________________________

Page 21 of 89
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(4)
(Total 7 marks)

Q14.
(a) (i) Describe the role of DNA polymerase in DNA replication.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(1)

(ii) Other than being smaller, give two ways in which prokaryotic DNA is different
from eukaryotic DNA.

1. ____________________________________________________________

2. ____________________________________________________________
(2)

(b) The table shows the percentage of each base in the DNA from three different
organisms.

Percentage of each base in DNA

Organism
Adenine Guanine Thymine Cytosine

Human 30.9 19.9 29.4 19.8

Grasshopper 29.4 20.5 29.4 20.7

Virus 24.0 23.3 21.5 31.2

(i) Humans and grasshoppers have very similar percentages of each base in
their DNA but they are very different organisms.

Use your knowledge of DNA structure and function to explain how this is
possible.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(2)

(ii) The DNA of the virus is different from that of other organisms. Use the table
above and your knowledge of DNA to suggest what this difference is. Explain
your answer.

Page 22 of 89
______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 7 marks)

Q15.
(a) The events that take place during interphase and mitosis lead to the production of
two genetically identical cells. Explain how.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(4)

(b) A student cut thin sections of tissue at different distances from the tip of a root. She
stained the sections and viewed them with an optical microscope.

For each section, the student counted the number of cells in mitosis and the total
number of cells in each field of view. She then calculated a mitotic index for each
section using the equation:

mitotic index =

The student’s results arer shown in the graph.

Page 23 of 89
(i) The student cut thin sections of tissue to view with an optical microscope.
Explain why it was important that the sections were thin.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(2)

(ii) What does the graph show about the growth of roots?
Use the data to explain your answer.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 8 marks)

Q16.
(a) Explain how the structure of DNA is related to its functions.

___________________________________________________________________

Page 24 of 89
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(6)

Scientists investigated three genes, C, D and E, involved in controlling cell division.

They studied the effect of mutations in these genes on the risk of developing lung cancer.

The scientists analysed genes C, D and E from healthy people and people with lung
cancer.

• If a person had a normal allele for a gene, they used the symbol N.
• If a person had two mutant alleles for a gene, they used the symbol M.

They used their data to calculate the risk of developing lung cancer for people with
different combinations of N and M alleles of the genes. A risk value of 1.00 indicates no
increased risk. The following table shows the scientists’ results.

Risk of
Gene C Gene D Gene E developing
lung cancer

N N N 1.00

M N N 1.30

N N M 1.78

N M N 1.45

N = at least one copy of the normal allele is present

M = two copies of the mutant allele are present

(b) What do these data suggest about the relative importance of the mutant alleles of
genes C, D and E on increasing the risk of developing lung cancer? Explain your
answer.

___________________________________________________________________

Page 25 of 89
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)

Chemotherapy is the use of a drug to treat cancer. The drug kills dividing cells.
The figure below shows the number of healthy cells and cancer cells in the blood of a
patient receiving chemotherapy. The arrows labelled F to I show when the drug was given
to the patient.

Time / days

____________________ cells killed per unit volume of blood per day

(1)

(d) Describe similarities and differences in the response of healthy cells and cancer
cells to the drug between times F and G.

___________________________________________________________________

Page 26 of 89
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)

(e) More cancer cells could be destroyed if the drug was given more frequently.

Suggest why the drug was not given more frequently.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 15 marks)

Q17.
(a) DNA helicase is important in DNA replication. Explain why.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

Scientists investigating DNA replication grew bacteria for several generations in a nutrient
solution containing a heavy form of nitrogen (15N). They obtained DNA from a sample of
these bacteria.

The scientists then transferred the bacteria to a nutrient solution containing a light form of
nitrogen (14N). The bacteria were allowed to grow and divide twice. After each division,
DNA was obtained from a sample of bacteria.

The DNA from each sample of bacteria was suspended in a solution in separate tubes.
These were spun in a centrifuge at the same speed and for the same time. The diagram
shows the scientists’ results.

Page 27 of 89
(b) The table shows the types of DNA molecule that could be present in samples 1 to 3.
Use your knowledge of semi-conservative replication to complete the table with a
tick if the DNA molecule is present in the sample.

(3)

(c) Cytarabine is a drug used to treat certain cancers. It prevents DNA replication. The
diagram shows the structures of cytarabine and the DNA base cytosine.

Page 28 of 89
(i) Use information in the diagram to suggest how cytarabine prevents DNA
replication.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(2)

(ii) Cytarabine has a greater effect on cancer cells than on healthy cells. Explain
why.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(1)
(Total 8 marks)

Q18.
(a) Describe how DNA is replicated.

___________________________________________________________________

Page 29 of 89
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(6)

(b) The graph shows information about the movement of chromatids in a cell that has
just started metaphase of mitosis.

(i) What was the duration of metaphase in this cell?

minutes
(1)

(ii) Use line X to calculate the duration of anaphase in this cell.

minutes
(1)

(iii) Complete line Y on the graph.

(2)

Page 30 of 89
(c) A doctor investigated the number of cells in different stages of the cell cycle in two
tissue samples, C and D. One tissue sample was taken from a cancerous tumour.
The other was taken from non-cancerous tissue. The table shows his results.

Percentage of cells in each

stage of the cell cycle

Stage of the Tissue Tissue

cell cycle sample C sample D

Interphase 82 45

Prophase 4 16

Metaphase 5 18

Anaphase 5 12

Telophase 4 9

(i) In tissue sample C, one cell cycle took 24 hours. Use the data in the table to
calculate the time in which these cells were in interphase during one cell cycle.
Show your working.

Time cells in interphase ____________________ hours

(2)

(ii) Explain how the doctor could have recognised which cells were in interphase
when looking at the tissue samples.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(1)

(iii) Which tissue sample, C or D, was taken from a cancerous tumour?

Use information in the table to explain your answer.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(2)

Page 31 of 89
(Total 15 marks)

Q19.
The diagram shows part of a DNA molecule.

(a) (i) DNA is a polymer. What is the evidence from the diagram that DNA is a
polymer?

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(1)

(ii) Name the parts of the diagram labelled C, D and E.

Part C ________________________

Part D ________________________

Part E ________________________
(3)

(iii) In a piece of DNA, 34% of the bases were thymine.

Complete the table to show the names and percentages of the other bases.

Name of base Percentage

Thymine 34

Page 32 of 89
(2)

(b) A polypeptide has 51 amino acids in its primary structure.

(i) What is the minimum number of DNA bases required to code for the amino
acids in this polypeptide?

(1)

(ii) The gene for this polypeptide contains more than this number of bases.

Explain why

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(1)
(Total 8 marks)

Q20.
(a) The diagram shows a stage of mitosis in an animal cell.

(i) Name this stage.

______________________________________________________________
(1)

(ii) Describe what happens during this stage that results in the production of two
genetically identical cells.

______________________________________________________________

Page 33 of 89
(2)

(b) A sample of epithelial tissue from the small intestine of an animal was analysed.
Some of the cells had 8.4 units of DNA, others had only 4.2 units.

(i) Use your knowledge of the cell cycle to explain why some cells had 8.4 units
of DNA and others had only 4.2 units.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(2)

(ii) How many units of DNA would you expect to be present in a gamete formed in
this animal as a result of meiosis?

(1)
(Total 6 marks)

Q21.
The diagram shows a cell cycle.

Page 34 of 89
(a) In prophase of mitosis, the chromosomes become visible. Describe what happens in

(i) metaphase

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(2)

(ii) anaphase.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(2)

(b) (i) Cells lining the human intestine complete the cell cycle in a short time. Explain
the advantage of these cells completing the cell cycle in a short time.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(1)

(ii) The time required for a cell to complete the cell cycle was 4 hours 18 minutes.

Calculate the time required in minutes for this cell to multiply to produce eight
cells.
Show your working.

Answer ____________________
(2)

Page 35 of 89
drug may be effective against some types of cancer.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 9 marks)

Q22.
Write an essay on using DNA in science and technology.
(Total 25 marks)

Q23.
(a) The table shows some substances found in cells. Complete the table to show the
properties of these substances. Put a tick in the box if the statement is correct.

Substance

Statement DNA
Starch Glycogen Deoxyribose
helicase

Substance contains only

the elements carbon,
hydrogen and oxygen

Substance is made from

amino acid monomers

Substance is found in
both animal cells and
plant cells
(4)

(b) The diagram shows two molecules of β-glucose.

On the diagram, draw a box around the atoms that are removed when the two β-
glucose molecules are joined by condensation.
(2)

Page 36 of 89
(c) (i) Hydrogen bonds are important in cellulose molecules. Explain why.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(2)

(ii) A starch molecule has a spiral shape. Explain why this shape is important to its
function in cells.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(1)
(Total 9 marks)

Q24.
(a) Complete the table to show the differences between DNA, mRNA and tRNA.

Number of
Hydrogen bonds present ( )
Type of nucleic acid polynucleotide strands
or not present ( )
in molecule

DNA

mRNA

tRNA
(2)

(b) The diagram shows the bases on one strand of a piece of DNA.

(i) In the space below, give the sequence of bases on the pre-mRNA transcribed
from this strand.

Page 37 of 89
(2)

(ii) In the space below, give the sequence of bases on the mRNA produced by
splicing this piece of pre-mRNA.

(1)
(Total 5 marks)

Q25.
Figure 1 shows a short section of a DNA molecule.

Figure 1

(a) Name parts R and Q.

(i) R ____________________

(ii) Q ____________________
(2)

(b) Name the bonds that join A and B.

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(c) Ribonuclease is an enzyme. It is 127 amino acids long.

What is the minimum number of DNA bases needed to code for ribonuclease?

(1)

(d) Figure 2 shows the sequence of DNA bases coding for seven amino acids in the
enzyme ribonuclease.

Figure 2

Page 38 of 89
G T T T A C T A C T C T T C T T C T T T A

The number of each type of amino acid coded for by this sequence of DNA bases is
shown in the table.

Amino acid Number present

Arg 3

Met 2

Gln 1

Asn 1

Use the table and Figure 2 to work out the sequence of amino acids in this part of
the enzyme. Write your answer in the boxes below.

Gln

(1)

(e) Explain how a change in a sequence of DNA bases could result in a non-functional
enzyme.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)
(Total 8 marks)

Q26.
(a) There are two forms of nitrogen. These different forms are called isotopes. 15N is a
heavier isotope than the normal isotope 14N.

In an investigation, a culture of bacteria was obtained in which all the nitrogen in the
DNA was of the 15N form. The bacteria (generation 0) were transferred to a medium
containing only the normal isotope, 14N, and allowed to divide once. A sample of
these bacteria (generation 1) was then removed. The DNA in the bacteria of
generation 1 was extracted and spun in a high-speed centrifuge.

The bacteria in the 14N medium were allowed to divide one more time. The DNA was
also extracted from these bacteria (generation 2) and spun in a high speed
centrifuge.

The diagram shows the results of this investigation.

Page 39 of 89
(i) Which part of the DNA molecule contains nitrogen?

______________________________________________________________
(1)

(ii) Explain why the DNA from generation 1 is found in the position shown.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(2)

(iii) Complete the diagram to show the results for generation 2.

(2)

(b) The table shows the percentage of different bases in the DNA of different
organisms.

Organism Adenine% Guanine% Thymine% Cytosine%

Human 19

Bacterium 24 26 24 26

Virus 25 24 33 18

(i) Complete the table to show the percentages of different bases in human DNA.
(2)

(ii) The structure of virus DNA is different from the DNA of the other two
organisms. Giving evidence from the table, suggest what this difference might
be.

Page 40 of 89
______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 9 marks)

Q27.
(a) Nucleic acids, such as DNA, are polymers, made up of many repeating monomer
units. Name the monomer from which nucleic acids are made.

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(b) The table shows the percentage of different bases in the DNA of some organisms.

Percentage of each base

Organism
Adenine Guanine Cytosine Thymine

Human 31.2 18.8 18.8 31.2

Cow 27.9 22.1 22.1 27.9

Salmon 29.4 20.6 20.6 29.4

Rat 28.6

Virus 24.7 24.1 18.5 32.7

(i) Calculate the missing figures for rat DNA and write them into the table.
(2)

(ii) The virus has single-stranded DNA as its genetic material. Explain the
evidence from the table which suggests that the DNA is single-stranded.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 5 marks)

Q28.
(a) Starch and protein are biologically important polymers.

Page 41 of 89
(i) Explain what is meant by a polymer.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(1)

(ii) Give one example of a biologically important polymer other than starch or
protein.

______________________________________________________________
(1)

(b) In an investigation, the enzyme amylase was mixed in a test tube with a buffer
solution and a suspension of starch. The amylase broke down the starch to maltose.
When all the starch had been broken down, a sample was removed from the test
tube and tested with biuret reagent.

(i) Explain why a buffer solution was added to the amylase-starch mixture.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(2)

(ii) What colour would you expect the sample to go when tested with biuret
reagent?

______________________________________________________________
(1)

(iii) Give an explanation for your answer to part (ii)

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 7 marks)

Q29.
The diagram shows the process of DNA replication. The horizontal lines represent the
positions of bases.

Page 42 of 89
(i) What is represented by the part of the DNA molecule labelled W?

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(ii) In the diagram, A represents adenine and C represents cytosine.

Name the base found at

position X; __________________________________________________________

position Y; __________________________________________________________

position Z. __________________________________________________________
(3)
(Total 4 marks)

Q30.
Read the following passage.

Malaria is a disease so deadly that it has devastated armies and destroyed great civilisations.
It has been estimated that in the course of history malaria has been responsible for the death
of one out of every two people who have ever lived. Even today, with all the advantages of
modern technology, it is still responsible for some three million deaths a year.

5 The first half of the twentieth century was a time of hope for malarial control. The drugs
chloroquine and proguanil had just been discovered and there seemed a real possibility of a
malaria-free world. Unfortunately, this honeymoon ended almost as soon as it had started,
with the emergence of drug-resistant parasite populations. Scientists now accept that whatever
new drug they come up with, it is likely to have a very limited effective life. As a result, they
10 are increasingly looking at combinations of drugs.

Page 43 of 89
The approach to malaria control which holds the best hope is the production of a vaccine. One
of these is being developed by a researcher in South America. His vaccine is based on a small
synthetic polypeptide called SPf66 which is dissolved in a saline solution and given as an
injection. A series of early trials on human volunteers produced confusing results. In one trial
15 the effectiveness of the vaccine was claimed to be 80% while, in others, the results were
statistically insignificant. Not only were the results inconclusive but the methods used were
challenged by other scientists. In particular, the controls were considered inappropriate.

Another, possibly more promising, approach has been the development of a DNA-based
vaccine. In theory, all that is required is to identify the DNA from the parasite which encodes
20 key antigens. Unfortunately, scientists have hit snags. Although they have succeeded in
sequencing the human genome, the genome of the malarial parasite has created major
difficulties. This is partly because of the very high proportion of the bases adenine and
thymine. In some places these two bases average 80%, and on chromosomes 2 and 3 nearly
100% of the bases present are adenine and thymine. Because of this, it has proved impossible
25 to cut the relevant DNA with the commonly available restriction enzymes into pieces of a
suitable size for analysis.

Use information from the passage and your own knowledge to answer the following
questions.

(a) Explain how a resistant parasite population is likely to arise and limit the life of any
new anti-malarial drug (lines 8 - 9).

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)

(b) A person has a 1 in 500 probability of being infected by a chloroquine-resistant

strain of malarial parasite and a 1 in 500 probability of being infected by a proguanil-
resistant strain. Use a calculation from these figures to explain why scientists are
“increasingly looking at combinations of drugs” (lines 9 - 10).

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(1)

(ii) The controls for the SPf66 vaccine trials were considered inappropriate (line

Page 44 of 89
17).

Suggest how the control groups in these trials should have been treated.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(2)

(d) In some of the DNA of a malarial parasite, the proportion of adenine and thymine
bases averages 80% (lines 22 - 23). In this DNA what percentage of the nucleotides
would you expect to contain

(i) phosphate; ____________________________________________________

(ii) guanine? ______________________________________________________

(2)

(e) (i) Use your knowledge of enzymes to explain why restriction enzymes only cut
DNA at specific restriction sites.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(3)

(ii) Restriction enzymes that can cut the DNA of chromosomes 2 and 3 produce
pieces that are too small for analysis. Explain why these restriction enzymes
produce small DNA fragments.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 15 marks)

Q31.
(a) Explain why the replication of DNA is described as semi-conservative.

___________________________________________________________________

Page 45 of 89
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(b) Bacteria require a source of nitrogen to make the bases needed for DNA replication.
In an investigation of DNA replication some bacteria were grown for many cell
divisions in a medium containing 14N, a light form of nitrogen. Others were grown in
a medium containing N, a heavy form of nitrogen. Some of the bacteria grown in a
15

N medium were then transferred to a N medium and left to divide once.

15 14

DNA was isolated from the bacteria and centrifuged.

The DNA samples formed bands at different levels, as shown in the diagram.

(i) What do tubes A and B show about the density of the DNA formed using the
two different forms of nitrogen?

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(1)

(ii) Explain the position of the band in tube C.

______________________________________________________________

Page 46 of 89
______________________________________________________________
(2)

(c) In a further investigation, the DNA of the bacterium was isolated and separated into
single strands. The percentage of each nitrogenous base in each strand was found.
The table shows some of the results.

Percentage of base present

DNA sample Adenine Cytosine Guanine Thymine

Strand 1 26 28 14

Strand 2 14

Use your knowledge of base pairing to complete the table.

(2)
(Total 7 marks)

Q32.
(a) Describe and explain how the structure of DNA results in accurate replication.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(4)

(b) Describe the behaviour of chromosomes during mitosis and explain how this results
in the production of two genetically identical cells.

___________________________________________________________________

Page 47 of 89
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(7)

(c) A cancerous tumour is formed by uncontrolled mitotic division. This results in a mass
of cells with an inadequate blood supply. Drugs are being developed which only kill
cells in a low oxygen environment. Suggest how these drugs could be useful in the
treatment of cancer.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 13 marks)

Q33.
New alleles arise as a result of mutations in existing genes. These mutations may occur
during DNA replication.

(a) Explain what is meant by an allele.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(b) Explain how DNA replicates.

___________________________________________________________________

Page 48 of 89
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(4)

(c) Explain why a mutation involving the deletion of a base may have a greater effect
than one involving substitution of one base for another.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)
(Total 8 marks)

Q34.
(a) The mRNA codon for the amino acid tyrosine is UAU.

(i) Give the DNA triplet for tyrosine.

______________________________________________________________
(1)

(ii) Give the tRNA anticodon for tyrosine.

______________________________________________________________
(1)

(b) Give two ways in which the structure of a molecule of tRNA differs from the
structure of a molecule of mRNA.

1. _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

2. _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 4 marks)

Q35.
A student carried out an investigation into the mass of product formed in an enzyme-
controlled reaction at three different temperatures. Only the temperature was different for
each experiment. The results are shown in the graph.

Page 49 of 89
(a) Use your knowledge of enzymes to explain

(i) why the initial rate of reaction was highest at 55 °C;

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(2)

(ii) the shape of the curve for 55 °C after 20 minutes.

______________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________
(3)

(b) Explain why the curves for 27 °C and 37 °C level out at the same value.

___________________________________________________________________

Page 50 of 89
(2)
(Total 7 marks)

Page 51 of 89
Mark schemes

Q1.
(a) 1. Phosphate, deoxyribose and base correctly labelled;
Accept P in a circle / Pi / PO43– for phosphate.
Do not accept phosphorus for phosphate.
Do not accept only pentose for deoxyribose.
Ignore references to sugar.
Accept a named base, (eg adenine, thymine, guanine,
cytosine).
Do not accept uracil or only letters (eg A, T, G or C).
Ignore labelled bonds

2. Correct shapes and bonds in the correct positions (as shown below);

Accept correct shapes with incorrect labels

Accept any orientation of diagram, eg inverted / mirror image
Accept any pentagon for deoxyribose
2

(b) 1. Weak / easily broken hydrogen bonds between bases allow two strands to
separate / unzip;
may appear in the same feature

2. Two strands, so both can act as templates;

may appear in the same feature

3. Complementary base pairing allows accurate replication;

Allow description of complementary base pairing and
accurate replication.
2 max

(c) C. 550 seconds;

1
[5]

Q2.
(a) 1. (Presence of) antigen of the (pathogenic) bacteria;
Assume bacteria are pathogenic unless otherwise stated

2. (Causes) more T cells produced / faster T cell production;

Page 52 of 89
3. Against (the pathogen and) normal bacteria;

4. (Long lasting as) cells do not die / live for longer;

5. (More) cytokines / chemicals causing swelling are produced;

3 max

(b) 1. (Some people) have a mutation / allele / gene;

2. (That) increases the chances / risk / makes it more likely for / causes them to
have an unusually large T cell response;
OR
(That) lowers / removes tolerance to (normal) intestinal bacteria;
2

2. (That) 5-ASA drugs cannot control / reduce;

3. Some people may be allergic to / cannot tolerate 5-ASA;

4. So cannot take it;

Award 1 and 2
OR
Award 3 and 4
2

(d) 1. (Lack of adenine and guanine) will slow / stop DNA synthesis / replication (in T
cells);

2. Affects T cells more as they cannot recycle nucleotides;

Needs idea of more / greater effect.
Accept converse idea that ‘other’ cells not as affected as
they can recycle nucleotides.

3. (6-MP therefore) suppresses / slows the (unusually large) T cell / immune

response
OR
(6-MP causes) fewer / no T cells (to be) produced;
Accept (6-MP) acts as an immunosuppressant drug

4. (So) less cytokine is produced (and therefore less swelling);

3 max
[10]

Q3.
(a) 1. The (individual) chromosomes are visible because they have condensed;
Both parts of each answer are required – evidence and
explanation.
For ‘they’ accept ‘chromosomes/chromatin/DNA’
Accept ‘tightly coiled’ or ‘short and thick’ for condensed but
do not accept ‘contracted’.

Page 53 of 89
Ignore references to nucleus/nucleolus/nuclear membrane.

2. (Each) chromosome is made up of two chromatids because DNA has

replicated;
Both parts of each answer are required – evidence and
explanation.
Accept ‘sister chromatids’ for ‘two chromatids’.
Ignore references to nucleus/nucleolus/nuclear membrane.

3. The chromosomes are not arranged in homologous pairs, which they would be
if it was meiosis;
Both parts of each answer are required – evidence and
explanation.
Accept not meiosis because bivalents/chiasmata/crossing
over not seen.
Ignore references to nucleus/nucleolus/nuclear membrane.
2 max

(b) Automarked q – ✔ prophase

(c) 1. Water moves into the cells/cytoplasm by osmosis;

Reject water moving into chromosomes/nucleus.

2. Cell/cytoplasm gets bigger;

Accept idea of cell/cytoplasm has greater
volume/swells/expands.
Ignore references to pressure changes, turgidity and
chromosomes being more dilute.
Ignore references to changing water/fluid contents of the cell.
Allow ECF for ‘nucleus expands’ but not for ‘chromosomes
expand’.
2

(d) Differences in base sequences

Differences in histones/interaction with histones

Differences in condensation/(super)coiling;
Answer must be in context of differences in arrangement of
chromosomes not just related to the properties of the stain.
Accept spec section 8 ideas e.g. different
methylation/acetylation
Accept different genes
Reject different alleles
1

(e) (Two chromosomes that) carry the same genes;

Reject ‘same alleles’

Page 54 of 89
Accept ‘same loci’ (plural) or ‘genes for the same
characteristics’
1

(f) (Prokaryotic DNA) is

1. Circular (as opposed to linear);

2. Not associated with proteins/histones ;

3. Only one molecule/piece of DNA

OR
present as plasmids;
Max 1 if prokaryotic DNA only found as plasmids OR if
prokaryotic DNA is single stranded.
Ignore references to nucleus, exons, introns or length of
DNA. Do not credit converse statements.
Ignore descriptions of eukaryotic DNA alone.
2 max
[9]

Q4.
(a) 1. (DNA) helicase causes breaking of hydrogen/H bonds (between DNA strands);
Reject ‘helicase hydrolyses hydrogen bonds’.

2. DNA polymerase joins the (DNA) nucleotides;

Reject if suggestion that DNA polymerase joins the
complementary nucleotides or forms H bonds.
Reject if joining RNA nucleotides or forming RNA.

3. Forming phosphodiester bonds;

(b) 1. (Treatment D Antibody binds to cyclin A so) it cannot bind to

DNA/enzyme/initiate DNA replication;
For ‘bind to enzyme’ accept ‘activate’.
Idea of ‘initiate DNA replication’ must be linked to start not
just less replication.
For ‘enzyme’ accept named enzyme.

2. (Treatment E) RNA interferes with mRNA/tRNA/ribosome/polypeptide

formation (so cyclin A not made);

3. In Treatment F added cyclin A can bind to DNA/enzyme (to initiate DNA

replication)
OR
Treatment F shows that it is the cyclin A that is being affected in the other
treatments
OR
Treatment F shows that cyclin A allows the enzyme to bind (to DNA)
OR
(Some cells in D or E) can continue with DNA replication because they have a
different cyclin A allele
OR

Page 55 of 89
(Some cells in D or E) can continue with DNA replication because the
antibody/RNA has not bound to all the cyclin A protein/mRNA
OR
(Some cells in E) can continue with DNA replication because they contain
previously translated cyclin A;
Context needed for Treatment F but it does not need to be
named.
For ‘enzyme’ accept named enzyme.
3
[6]

Q5.
(a) 8;
Accept eight
1

(b) Phosphodiester (bond);

Accept phonetic spellings
1

(c) 1. DNA helicase – (unwinding DNA and) breaking

hydrogen bonds / bonds between chains / bases /
strands;
2. DNA polymerase – joins (adjacent) nucleotides OR
forms phosphodiester bond / sugar-phosphate
backbone;
1. Accept H bonds.
1. Accept hydrolyses for breaks
2. Reject forms hydrogen bonds (between nucleotides /
bases)
2

(d) 1. ATP has ribose and DNA nucleotide has deoxyribose;

2. ATP has 3 phosphate (groups) and DNA nucleotide
has 1 phosphate (group);
3. ATP – base always adenine and in DNA nucleotide
base can be different / varies;
Both parts of each MP needed
3. Reject Uracil / U
3. Accept C, T or G for different bases
Accept annotated diagram for any of the three marks
2 max
[6]

Q6.
(a) 1. One of RNA / ribonucleic acid(s) / nucleotide(s)/nucleic acid(s) / rRNA /
ribosomal RNA / ribosomal ribonucleic acid
and
one of protein(s) / polypeptide(s) / amino acid(s) / peptide(s) / ribosomal
protein;
Reject DNA, deoxyribonucleic acid, tRNA, transfer RNA,
transfer ribonucleic acid, mRNA, messenger RNA,
messenger ribonucleic acid.

Page 56 of 89
Ignore enzyme(s), base(s).
1

(b) 1. mRNA binds to ribosome;

2. Idea of two codons / binding sites;
3. (Allows) tRNA with anticodons to bind / associate;
4. (Catalyses) formation of peptide bond between amino acids (held by
tRNA molecules);
5. Moves along (mRNA to the next codon) / translocation described;
Assume ‘it’ refers to ribosome.
3 max

(d) 1. Introns (in pre-mRNA);

2. Removal of sections of (pre-mRNA) / splicing;
Introns removed’ scores 2 marks.
Reference to ‘introns present in mRNA’ disqualifies mp1 but
allow ECF for mp2.
Accept for 1 mark mRNA contains only exons.
2
[7]

Q7.
(a) 1. (DNA) helicase;
2. (DNA) polymerase;
List Rule Applies
Accept (DNA) ligase / Primase / telomerase / Topoisomerase
/ DNA gyrase
Reject RNA
Accept phonetic spellings
2

(b) 1. Changes tertiary structure of the enzyme;

2. (Enzyme) active site formed / able to be formed / active site becomes
complementary;
1. Accept tertiary symbol 3 °
1. Ignore 3D
2. Reject refs to inhibition / inhibitors
2. Ignore refs to E-S complexes form
2. Ignore refs to substrate phosphorylation
2

(c) (Phosphorylation / phosphate) makes substrates more reactive / raises their

energy level(s) / lowers activation energy for the reaction;
Ignore provides energy unqualified
Ignore refs to kinetic energy unqualified
1

(d) 1. ATM will not bind to (broken) DNA;

2. DNA not repaired / cell still has broken DNA;
3. Cell division continues / tumour forms;

Page 57 of 89
4. Tumour suppressor (gene) not effective / not activated;
5. May have no effect in diploid / heterozygous (organism);
6. (Which) still has a functional ATM / ATM gene;
3 max
[8]

Q8.
(a) 1. Degenerate: more than one (base) triplet for each amino acid;

2. Non-overlapping: each base is part of only one triplet.

Accept codon (as would be applicable to mRNA code)
2

(b) A = adenine

C = cytosine

G = guanine

U = uracil
All four correct = 2
One error = 1
Two or more errors = 0
2 max

Q9.
(a) × 20 000
Accept range from 18 000 to 22 000
1

(b)

✔
1 mark for each correct column
2

(c) 1. DNA contains thymine and RNA contains uracil;

2. DNA contains deoxyribose and RNA contains ribose.

2
[5]

Q10.
(a) 1. Hydrogen bonds between the base pairs holds two strands together

Page 58 of 89
2. Many hydrogen bonds provides strength
Reject strong hydrogen bonds
2

(b) (Because) ribosomes assemble polypeptides using mRNA code

OR
DNA has two strands each with a different (complementary) base sequence;
1

(d) 1. (Because) some amino acids have more than one codon / mRNA code;

2. Correct example from table.

(e) 1. Stop translation;

2. Result in detachment of polypeptide chain from ribosome.

(f)

CAC ATG ACC

Val Tyr Trp

Mark each row
2
[10]

Q11.
(a) Deoxyribose.
1

(b) 1. Thymine 18 (%);

2. Guanine 32 (%).
2

(c) DNA polymerase.

(d) 1. (Figure 1 shows) DNA has antiparallel strands / described;

2. (Figure 1 shows) shape of the nucleotides is different / nucleotides
aligned differently;
3. Enzymes have active sites with specific shape;
4. Only substrates with complementary shape / only the 3’ end can bind
with active site of enzyme / active site of DNA polymerase.
4
[8]

Q12.
(a) 1. Outside of virus has antigens / proteins;
2. With complementary shape to receptor / protein in membrane of cells;
3. (Receptor / protein) found only on membrane of nerve cells.

Page 59 of 89
Accept converse argument
3

(b) 1. No more (nerve) cells infected / no more cold sores form;

2. (Because) virus is not replicating.
2

(c) Prevents replication of virus.

(d) MicroRNA binds to cell’s mRNA (no mark)

1. (Binds) by specific base pairing;
2. (So) prevents mRNA being read by ribosomes;
3. (So) prevents translation / production of proteins;
4. (Proteins) that cause cell death.
4
[10]

Q13.
(a) Box around single nucleotide.
1

(b)
DNA Percentage of each base
strand
A C G T

Strand 1 (16) 34 21 29

Strand 2 29 (21) (34) 16

2 rows correct = 2 marks;

1 row correct = 1 mark.
2

(c) 1. Reference to DNA polymerase;

2. (Which is) specific;
3. Only complementary with / binds to 5’ end (of strand);
Reject hydrogen bonds / base pairing

4. Shapes of 5’ end and 3’ end are different / description of how different.

4
[7]

Q14.
(a) (i) Joins nucleotides (to form new strand).
Accept: joins sugar and phosphate / forms sugar-phosphate
backbone
Reject: (DNA polymerase) forms base pairs / hydrogen
bonds
1

(ii) (Prokaryotic DNA)

1. Circular / non-linear (DNA);

Page 60 of 89
Accept converse for eukaryotic DNA
Ignore: references to nucleus, binary fission, strands and
plasmids

2. Not (associated) with proteins / histones;

Accept does not form chromosomes / chromatin

3. No introns / no non-coding DNA.

Accept only exons
Q Neutral: no ‘junk’ DNA
2 max

(b) (i) 1. Have different genes;

Reject: different alleles

2. (Sobases / triplets) are in a different sequence / order;

Accept: base sequence that matters, not percentage

3. (So) different amino acid (sequence / coded for) / different protein /

different polypeptide / different enzyme.
Unqualified ‘different amino acids’ does not gain a mark
Reject: references to different amino acids formed
Ignore: references to mutations / exons / non-coding / introns
2 max

(ii) (Virus DNA)

1. A does not equal T / G does not equal C;
Accept: similar for equal
Accept: virus has more C than G / has more A than T

2. (So) no base pairing;

3. (So) DNA is not double stranded / is single stranded.
2 max
[7]

Q15.
(a) 1. DNA replicated;
Reject: DNA replication in the wrong stage

2. (Involving) specific / accurate / complementary base-pairing;

Accept: semi conservative replication

3. (Ref to) two identical / sister chromatids;

4. Each chromatid / moves / is separated to (opposite) poles / ends of cell.

Reject: meiosis / homologous chromosomes / crossing over
Note: sister chromatids move to opposite poles / ends = 2
marks for mp 3 and mp 4
Reject: events in wrong phase / stage
4

(b) (i) 1. To allow (more) light through;

Accept: transparent

Page 61 of 89
2. A single / few layer(s) of cells to be viewed.
Accept: (thin) for better / easier stain penetration
2

(ii) 1. More / faster mitosis / division near tip / at 0.2 mm;

Neutral: references to largest mitotic index

2. (Almost) no mitosis / division at / after 1.6 mm from tip;

Accept: cell division for mitosis
Penalise once for references to meiosis

3. (So) roots grow by mitosis / adding new cells to the tip.

Accept: growth occurs at / near / just behind the tip (of the
root)
Accept: converse arguments
2 max
[8]

Q16.
(a) 1. Sugar-phosphate (backbone) / double stranded / helix so provides strength /
stability / protects bases / protects hydrogen bonds;
Must be a direct link / obvious to get the mark
Neutral: reference to histones

2. Long / large molecule so can store lots of information;

3. Helix / coiled so compact;

Accept: can store in a small amount of space for ‘compact’

4. Base sequence allows information to be stored / base sequence codes

for amino acids / protein;
Accept: base sequence allows transcription

5. Double stranded so replication can occur semi-conservatively / strands

can act as templates / complementary base pairing / A-T and G-C so
accurate replication / identical copies can be made;

6. (Weak) hydrogen bonds for replication / unzipping / strand separation /

many hydrogen bonds so stable / strong;
Accept: 'H-bonds' for ‘hydrogen bonds’
6

(b) 1. (Mutation) in E produces highest risk / 1.78;

2. (Mutation) in D produces next highest risk / 1.45;

3. (Mutation) in C produces least risk / 1.30;

Must be stated directly and not implied
E > D > C = 3 marks
Accept: values of 0.78, 0.45 and 0.30 for MP1, MP2 and
MP3 respectively
If no mark is awarded, a principle mark can be given for the
idea that all mutant alleles increase the risk

Page 62 of 89
3

(d) (Similarities):

1. Same / similar pattern / both decrease, stay the same then increase;

2. Number of cells stays the same for same length of time;

Ignore: wrong days stated

(Differences):

(Per unit volume of blood)

3. Greater / faster decrease in number of healthy cells / more healthy cells

killed / healthy cells killed faster;
Accept: converse for cancer cells
Accept: greater percentage decrease in number of cancer
cells / greater proportion of cancer cells killed

4. Greater / faster increase in number of healthy cells / more healthy cells

replaced / divide / healthy cells replaced / divide faster;
Accept: converse for cancer cells
For differences, statements made must be comparative
3 max

(e) 1. More / too many healthy cells killed;

2. (So) will take time to replace / increase in number;

Neutral: will take time to ‘repair’

3. Person may die / have side effects;

2 max
[15]

Q17.
(a) 1. Separates / unwinds / unzips strands / helix / breaks H-bonds;
1. Q Neutral: strands / helix split
1. Accept: unzips bases

2. (So) nucleotides can attach / are attracted / strands can act as

templates;
2. Q Neutral: bases can attach
2. Neutral: helix can act as a template
2

(b)

Page 63 of 89
One mark for each correct row
3

(c) (i) 1. Similar shape / structure (to cytosine) / added instead of cytosine /
binds to guanine;
1. Accept: idea that only one group is different
1. Reject: same shape

2. Prevents (complementary) base pairing / prevents H-bonds

forming / prevents formation of new strand / prevents strand
elongation / inhibits / binds to (DNA) polymerase;
2. Accept: prevents cytosine binding
Neutral: ’prevents DNA replicationߢ as given in the question
stem
Neutral: ’competitive inhibitorߢ unqualified
Neutral: inhibits DNA helicase
2

(ii) (Cancer cells / DNA) divide / replicate fast(er) / uncontrollably;

Accept: converse argument for healthy cells
1
[8]

Q18.
(a) 1. Strands separate / H-bonds break;
1. Q Neutral: strands split
1. Accept: strands unzip

2. DNA helicase (involved);

3. Both strands / each strand act(s) as (a) template(s);

4. (Free) nucleotides attach;

4. Neutral: bases attach
4. Accept: nucleotides attracted

5. Complementary / specific base pairing / AT and GC;

6. DNA polymerase joins nucleotides (on new strand);

6. Reject: if wrong function of DNA polymerase

Page 64 of 89
7. H-bonds reform;

8. Semi-conservative replication / new DNA molecules contain one old

strand and one new strand;
8. Reject: if wrong context e.g. new DNA molecules contain
half of each original strand
6 max

(b) (i) 18;

Do not accept 17.5
1

(ii) 10;
1

(iii) 1. Horizontal until 18 minutes;

Allow + / - one small box

2. (Then) decreases as straight line to 0 μm at 28 minutes;

2. Allow lines that start from the wrong place, ending at 0 at
28 minutes
2

(c) (i) Two marks for correct answer of 19.68 or 19.7;;

Accept 19hrs 41mins

One mark for incorrect answers in which candidate clearly multiplies by

0.82;
Allow one mark for incorrect answers that clearly show 82%
of 24 (hours)
2

(ii) 1. No visible chromosomes / chromatids / visible nucleus;

(iii) D (no mark)

1. Lower % (of cells) in interphase / higher % (of cells) in mitosis /

named stage of mitosis;
1. Accept: ‘less’ or ‘more’ instead of ‘%’
1. Do not accept: higher % (of cells) in each / all stage(s)

2. (So) more cells dividing / cells are dividing quicker;

2. Accept: uncontrolled cell division
2. Do not award if Tissue C is chosen
2
[15]

Q19.
(a) (i) Repeating units / nucleotides / monomer / molecules;
Allow more than one, but reject two
1

(ii) 1. C = hydrogen bonds;

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2. D = deoxyribose;
Ignore sugar

3. E = phosphate;
Ignore phosphorus, Ignore molecule
3

(iii)
Name of base Percentage

Thymine 34

Cytosine / Guanine 16

Adenine 34

Cytosine / Guanine 16

Spelling must be correct to gain MP1

First mark = names correct
Second mark = % correct, with adenine as 34%
2

(b) (i) 153;

(ii) Some regions of the gene are non-coding / introns / start / stop code /
triplet / there are two DNA strands;
Allow addition mutation
Ignore unqualified reference to mutation
Accept reference to introns and exons if given together
Ignore ‘junk’ DNA / multiple repeats
1
[8]

Q20.
(a) (i) Anaphase
1

(ii) 1. Sister / identical chromatids / identical chromosomes;

Reject: Homologous chromosomes separate.
Allow any reference to chromatids / chromosomes being
identical e.g. same DNA

2. To (opposite) poles / ends / sides;

(b) (i) 1. 8.4 / cells with twice DNA content = replicated DNA / late
interphase / prophase / metaphase / anaphase;
Any reference to interphase must suggest towards end of
interphase.
'Chromosomes replicate' is not enough for DNA replicates.

2. 4.2 = DNA not replicated / (early) interphase / telophase / cell just

Page 66 of 89
divided / finished mitosis;
2

(ii) 2.1;
1
[6]

Q21.
(a) (i) Spindle formed / chromosome / centromere / chromatids
attaches to spindle;

Chromosomes / chromatids line up / move to middle / equator

(of cell);
Do not award second mark for answers referring to
chromosomes ‘pairing up’.
Ignore reference to homologous chromosomes unless
context suggests pairing which negates second mark.
Neutral: Details on nuclear membrane.
Accept: Diagram for second marking point.
2

(ii) Chromosome / centromere splits / chromatids / ‘chromosomes’

separate / pulled apart;

To (opposite) sides / poles / centrioles (of cell);

Reject: Homologous chromosomes separate for first marking
point.
Accept: Diagram for second marking point.
Chromatids / ‘chromosomes’ move to poles / sides /
centrioles = 2 marks.
2

(b) (i) Form / replace cells quickly / rapidly / divide / multiply / replicate rapidly;
Neutral: Repair cells.
Answers must convey idea of ‘speed’.
1

(Ii) Correct answer = 774 minutes / 12 hours 54mins = 2 marks;;

Incorrect answer but indicates 3 cell cycles involved = one mark;

(c) Prevents / slows DNA replication / doubling / prevents / slows mitosis;

New strand not formed / nucleotides (of new strand) not joined
together / sugar-phosphate bonds not formed;
First marking point must be in context of DNA replication not
cell replication.
Do not negate first marking point if role of DNA polymerase
is described incorrectly e.g. Reject: ‘joins bases / strands
together’.
Role of DNA polymerase must be correct for last marking
point.
2

Page 67 of 89
[9]

Q22.

21 – 25 Extended Response shows holistic approach to the question with

abstract a fully integrated answer which makes clear links
between several different topics and the theme of the
Generalised question.
beyond specific
context Biology is detailed and comprehensive A-level content,
uses appropriate terminology, and is very well written
and always clearly explained.

No significant errors or irrelevant material.

For top marks in the band, the answer shows evidence

of reading beyond specification requirements.

16 – 20 Relational Response links several topics to the main theme of the

question, to form a series of interrelated points which
Integrated into a are clearly explained.
whole
Biology is fundamentally correct A-level content and
contains some points which are detailed, though there
may be some which are less well developed, with
appropriate use of terminology.

Perhaps one significant error and, or, one irrelevant

topic which detracts from the overall quality of the
answer.

11 – 15 Multistructural Response mostly deals with suitable topics but they

are not interrelated and links are not made to the
Several aspects theme of the question.
covered but they
are unrelated Biology is usually correct A-level content, though it
lacks detail. It is usually clearly explained and generally
uses appropriate terminology.

Some significant errors and, or, more than one

irrelevant topic.

6 – 10 Unistructural Response predominantly deals with only one or two

topics that relate to the question.
Only one or few
aspects covered Biology presented shows some superficial A-level
content that may be poorly explained, lacking in detail,
or show limited use of appropriate terminology.

May contain a number of significant errors and, or,

irrelevant topics.

1–5 Unfocused Response only indirectly addresses the theme of the

question and merely presents a series of biological
facts which are usually descriptive in nature or poorly
explained and at times may be factually incorrect.

Page 68 of 89
Content and terminology is generally below A-level.

May contain a large number of errors and, or, irrelevant

topics.

0 Nothing of relevance or no response.

Commentary on terms and statements in the levels mark scheme

The levels mark scheme for the essay contains a number of words and statements
that are open to different interpretations. This commentary defines the meanings of
these words and statements in the context of marking the essay. Many words and
statements are used in the descriptions of more than one level of response. The
definitions of these remain the same throughout.

Levels mark scheme word/statement Definition

Holistic Synoptic, drawing from different topics

(usually sections of the specification)

A fully integrated answer which makes All topics relate to the title and theme of
clear links between several different the essay; for example, explaining the
topics and the theme of the question biological importance of a process.

When considering, for example, the

importance of a process, the
explanation must be at A-level
standard.

‘Several’ here is defined as at least four

topic areas from the specification
covered. This means some sentences,
not just a word or two. It does not mean
using many examples from one topic
area.

Biology is detailed and comprehensive Detailed and comprehensive A-level

A-level content, uses appropriate content is the specification content.
terminology, and is very well written
and always clearly explained. Terminology is that used in the
specification.

Well written and clearly explained

refers mainly to biological content and
use of terminology. Prose, handwriting
and spelling are secondary
considerations. Phonetic spelling is
accepted, unless examiners are
instructed not to do so for particular
words; for example, glucagon, glucose
and glycogen.

No significant errors or irrelevant A significant error is one which

material. significantly detracts from the biological
accuracy or correctness of a described
example. This will usually involve more

Page 69 of 89
than one word.

Irrelevant material is several lines (or

more) that clearly fails to address the
title, or the theme of the title.

For top marks in the band, the answer An example that is relevant to the title
shows evidence of reading beyond and is not required in the specification
specification requirements. content. The example must be used at
A-level standard.

Response mostly deals with suitable Not addressing the biological theme of
topics but they are not interrelated and the essay (e.g. importance) at A-level
links are not made to the theme of the standard.
question.

Please note that to obtain full credit, students must use information to show the
importance of Using DNA in science and technology.

Topics

DNA and classification

2.2 Structure of DNA

2.3 Differences in DNA lead to genetic diversity

2.9 Comparison of DNA base sequences

Genetic engineering and making useful substances

2.5 Plasmids

The use of recombinant DNA to produce transformed

5.8
organisms that benefit humans

Other uses of DNA

2.5 Cell cycle and treatment of cancer

Gene therapy;
Medical diagnosis and the treatment of human disease;
5.8
The use of DNA probes to screen patients for clinically
important genes.

In order to fully address the question and reach the highest mark bands students must
also include at least four topics in their answer, to demonstrate a synoptic approach to the
essay.

Students may be able to show the relevance of other topics from the specification.

Note, other topics from beyond the specification can be used, providing they relate to the
title and contain factually correct material of at least an A-level standard. Credit should not
be given for topics beyond the specification which are below A-level standard.
[25]

Page 70 of 89
Q23.
(a)

One mark for each correct column

Mark ticks only and ignore crosses
4

(b) 1. Two marks for box round two hydrogens and one of the oxygens from
OH groups on carbons 1 and 4;;

2. One mark from incorrect answer involving any two hydrogens and an
oxygen from carbons 1 and 4;
Do not award marks if all atoms concerned are on same
carbon atom or are on carbon atoms other than 1 and 4 or
where the answer does not have two hydrogen and one
oxygen
2

(c) (i) 1. Holds chains / cellulose molecules together / forms cross links
between chains / cellulose molecules / forms microfibrils, providing
strength / rigidity (to cellulose / cell wall);

2. Hydrogen bonds strong in large numbers;x

Principles here are first mark for where hydrogen bonds are
formed and second for a consequence of this.
Accept microfibres
2

(ii) Compact / occupies small space / tightly packed;

Answer indicates depth required. Answers such as “good for
storage”, “easily stored” or “small” are insufficient.
1
[9]

Q24.
(a)
DNA 2

mRNA 1

tRNA 1

One mark for each correct column

Regard blank as incorrect in the context of this question
Accept numbers written out: two, one, one
2

(b) (i) Marking principles

1 mark for complete piece transcribed;

Page 71 of 89
Correct answer
UGU CAU GAA UGC UAG

1 mark for complementary bases from sequence transcribed;

but allow 1 mark for complementary bases from section
transcribed, providing all four bases are involved
2

(ii) Marking principle

1 mark for bases corresponding to exons taken from (b)(i)
Correct answer
UGU UGC UAG
If sequence is incorrect in (b)(i), award mark if section is from
exons. Ignore gaps.
1
[5]

Q25.
(a) (i) Deoxyribose;
pentose / 5C sugar = neutral
1

(ii) Phosphate / Phosphoric acid;

phosphorus / P = neutral
1

(b) Hydrogen (bonds);

(c) 381 / 384 / 387;

(d) (Gln) Met Met Arg Arg Arg Asn;

(e) Change in (sequence of) amino acids / primary structure;

Change in hydrogen / ionic / disulfide bonds leads to change in tertiary

structure / active site (of enzyme);

Substrate cannot bind / no enzyme-substrate complexes form;

Q Reject = different amino acids are formed
3
[8]

Q26.
(a) (i) base / named bases;
reject nucleotide or uracil
1

(ii) it has been produced by semi-conservative

replication / one old strand and one new;
One strand has 15N bases and the other 14N;
Accept light / heavy N (therefore) it is less dense / lighter;
2

Page 72 of 89
(iii) one band is in same position as generation 1;
one band higher;
accept a line. N.B. need a visible gap
2

(b) (i) A = 31 and JT = 31;

C = 19;
2

(ii) viral DNA single-stranded / not double-stranded;

evidence from table e.g. not equal amount of A and T
/ C and G / all different;
2
ignore no base-pairing In this Question assume It’ means
viral DNA
[9]

Q27.
(a) nucleotide;
1

(b) (i) 21.4, 21.4; 28.6;

(ii) amounts of A and T / C and G / complementary bases different;

therefore no base-pairing;
2 max
[5]

Q28.
(a) (i) (Molecule) made up of many identical / similar molecules / monomers /
subunits;
Not necessary to refer to similarity with monomers.
1

(ii) Cellulose / glycogen / nucleic acid / DNA / RNA;

(b) (i) To keep pH constant;

A change in pH will slow the rate of the reaction / denature
the amylase / optimum for reaction;
2

(ii) Purple / lilac / mauve / violet;

Do not allow blue or pink.
1

(iii) Protein present / the enzyme / amylase is a protein;

Not used up in the reaction / still present at the end of
the reaction;
2
[7]

Q29.
(i) sugar or phosphate / S-P / nucleotide chain / backbone /

Page 73 of 89
original / parent DNA;
1

(ii) X thymine; Y guanine; Z adenine;

(Allow T, G and A) Reject: thiamine
3
[4]

Q30.
(a) Presence of resistant and non-resistant varieties / mutation produces resistant
variety;
Resistant ones survive / non-resistant ones killed by treatment;
These will reproduce and produce more resistant parasites / pass on resistance
allele;
3

(b) Likelihood of being infected (by strain resistant to both drugs) is less;
1/500 × 1/500/1/250 000;
Drug has longer effective life;
max 2

(ii) Given injections of saline / injection without SPf66;

(otherwise) treated the same as experimental group;
2

(d) (i) 100%;

(ii) 10%;
1

(e) (i) Different lengths of DNA have different base sequences / cut at specific
sequence;
Results in different shape / different shape of active site;
Therefore (specific sequence) will only fit active site of enzyme;
3

(ii) Recognition sites contain only AT pairs;

Which would occur very frequently;
2
[15]

Q31.
(a) each strand copied / acts as a template;
(daughter) DNA one new strand and one original / parent strand;
2

(b) (i) 15
N / tube B (DNA), more / greater density;
(reject heavier)
1

(ii) DNA with one heavy and one light strand;

new / synthesised strand, made with 14N / light strand;

Page 74 of 89
2

Q32.
(a) 1 two strands therefore semi-conservative replication (possible);
2 base pairing / hydrogen bonds holds strands together
3 hydrogen bonds weak / easily broken, allow strands to separate;
4 bases (sequence) (exposed so) act as template / can be copied;
5 A with T, C with G / complementary copy;
6 DNA one parent and one new strand;
4 max

(b) 1 chromosomes shorten / thicken / supercoiling;

2 chromosomes (each) two identical chromatids / strands / copies
(due to replication);
3 chromosomes / chromatids move to equator / middle of the spindle / cell;
4 attach to individual spindle fibres;
5 spindle fibres contract / centromeres divide / repel;
6 (sister) chromatids / chromosomes (separate)
move to opposite poles / ends of the spindle;
7 each pole / end receives all genetic information /
identical copies of each chromosome;
8 nuclear envelope forms around each group of chromosomes /
chromatids / at each pole;
7 max

(c) cancer cells killed, normal body cells survive;

cancer cells low oxygen (as blood supply cannot satisfy demand);
2
[13]

Q33.
(a) different form of a gene;
1

(b) hydrogen bonds broken;

semi-conservative replication / both strands used (as templates);
nucleotides line up complementary / specific base pairing / A and T / C and G;
DNA polymerase;
4

(c) deletion causes frame shift / alters base sequence (from point of mutation);
changes many amino acids / sequence of amino acids (from this point);
substitution alters one codon / triplet / one amino acid altered / code
degenerate / same amino acid coded for;
3
[8]

Q34.

Page 75 of 89
(a) (i) ATA;
1

(ii) AUA;
1

(b) tRNA ‘clover leaf’ shape; (allow reference to loop / folded structure)
tRNA standard length;
tRNA has an amino acid binding site;
tRNA has anticodon available / three exposed bases;
tRNA has hydrogen bonds (between base pairs);
2 max
[4]

Q35.
(a) (i) substances / molecules have more (kinetic) energy / moving faster;
(reject vibrate)

increased collisions / enzyme substrate complexes formed;

(ii) causes denaturation / tertiary structure / shape change / H+ / ionic bonds

break;
(shape) of active site changed;
substrate no longer binds / not complementary to (active site);
3

(b) all substrate changed into product / reaction is complete;

same amount of product formed as same initial substrate concentration;
2
[7]

Page 76 of 89
Examiner reports

Q1.
Question (a) required students to draw a diagram that is included in the specification. Just
under half (46.3%) were able to do this successfully. The main issues were bonds drawn
in the wrong place, and the use of the word pentose, rather than deoxyribose. Most were
able to recognise that it was supposed to be a pentagonal molecule.

Again, question (b) should have been simple recall of knowledge; however, only 9.2%
scored two marks. Features were simply described and not explained. Students did not
give the idea that the hydrogen bonds between bases were weak or easily broken, and,
for mark point 2, most students said there were two strands, so one acts as a template,
rather than both being templates.

32.3% of students scored the mark for question (c), with many appearing simply to guess,
as demonstrated by no working appearing on their scripts.

Q2.
Generally, the comprehension was far better answered than in 2017. This may be partly
due to the specification content included this year compared with last. The main issue, as
with last year, is that students attempted to answer the question without using the
passage. However, these are true comprehension questions. This was the main issue with
question (a), though 70.7% of students did score at least one mark. Many students
appreciated that the presence of an antigen caused the production of more T cells which
resulted in increased amounts of cytokines being produced. Other students appreciated
the former but attributed the swelling to the accumulation of T cells. There were some
spurious arguments based on alteration of water potential resulting in accumulation of
water, and hence swelling.

(b) was similarly well answered, but those students who failed to score (28.8%) gave
vague responses, such as ‘it is passed on’ and also thought that those with Crohn’s
disease had genes to make bacteria pathogenic instead of normal.

(c) was poorly answered, with nearly 80% scoring zero marks. Students failed to get from
the passage that 5-ASA is a drug that reduces swelling. Incorrect answers centred round
“the body seeing the drug as foreign”, “being immune to the drug”, “making antibodies
against the drug”, “digesting the drug”, “having no receptors for the drug” or, as 5-ASA is
an acid, it “denaturing protein/cytokines”. A significant number of students attempted to
relate their argument to an allergy to the drug, but many expressed this in terms of
suffering side-effects.

(d) was better answered, with the majority of students able to follow the idea that DNA
replication will slow, meaning fewer T cells and less cytokine. The question gave guidance
not to include details of enzyme inhibition or protein synthesis. This was to help guide
students to the correct answer; many based their arguments on a failure to form enzyme-
substrate complexes, despite the advice. There was some confusion of cytokine and
cytosine, and some students thought that 6-MP would have stopped bacteria or “Crohn’s”
reproducing, not T cells.

Q3.
This question was loosely based on the skills students would have developed when
completing required practical activity 2 – “Preparation of stained squashes of cells from
plant root tips; set-up and use of an optical microscope to identify the stages of mitosis in

Page 77 of 89
these stained squashes and calculation of a mitotic index”. Students should have
observed cells undergoing mitosis surrounded by many cells that were not and, therefore,
should have considered why they looked different.

Many incomplete answers were seen to question (a). Students were required to give
evidence and to explain that piece of evidence, but often only gave half the story. Some
students used Figure 2 rather than Figure 1 and some tried to explain which stage of
mitosis was shown, rather than simply that it was happening. Confusion was
demonstrated here and in question (e) between a homologous pair of chromosomes and
a pair of chromatids in a single chromosome. Worryingly, 62% of students failed to score
on this opening question; only 5.8% gained both marks.

In part (b), 69.3% of students correctly identified that these cells were in prophase.VWithin
required practical activity 2, students needed to spread the cells out to gain a clear view;
question (c) was based on a similar principle, but using a different method. It required
standard knowledge of osmosis, but the novel context threw many students. The majority
could state that the water would move into the cells by osmosis, but then often referenced
increased pressure, rather than the idea of the volume of the cells increasing. Some
complex, incorrect answers were seen in which students attempted to describe changes
in polar interactions between the chromosomes and water, and how these would change.

Question (d) tested Assessment Objective 2 (application of knowledge) and there were
several parts of the specification from which students could select material to support their
answer. 42.2% did this successfully; those who did not often did not describe sufficiently
how a feature would be different along the length of the chromosome to result in the
striped appearance. For example, mentioning “histones” or “bases” alone was not
creditworthy.

In question (e), only 36.9% of students could define the term ‘homologous chromosome’.
It is likely that more students could have written about independent segregation or
crossing over of homologous chromosomes, but this question revealed that they did not
fully understand this biological term. Many students only referred to the origin of the
chromosomes as paternal and maternal.VFor question 01.6, most students (83.2%)
scored at least one mark, but there were many good answers limited to one out of two by
demonstration of fundamental misunderstanding. The most common of these was that
only eukaryotic DNA is a double helix and that prokaryotic DNA is single-stranded.

Q4.
Despite question (a) testing recall (AO1) from section 3.1.5.2 of the specification, only
24.4% of students achieved all three marks. Many answers included DNA helicase
‘hydrolysing’ hydrogen bonds, which was not given credit. Answers often also included
DNA polymerase catalysing the formation of complementary base pairs, or hydrogen
bonding between bases; this statement negated mark point 2.

Question (b) was another that required explanations of results, so the students were
expected to use some knowledge within each marking point. Able students responded
with clear explanations about the effects of the antibody and how the RNA could prevent
translation using correct technical language and an appropriate level of knowledge for an
A-level question. Some answers were very good indeed. Many answers, however, were
descriptions of the data without any explanation. A very high proportion of students
(15.4%) made no attempt at this question.

Q5.
Students found questions (a) and (b) accessible, with the majority scoring the marks.

Page 78 of 89
Answering question (c) should have involved only simple recall, however only 28% of
students scored two marks. When describing the role of DNA helicase, many used very
simple language, such as ‘unwinds’ or ‘unzips’. Such terms were not accepted at GCE
level. When describing the role of DNA polymerase, the most common mistake was
stating that it forms hydrogen bonds between bases. There was also confusion with
protein synthesis; many students stated that DNA polymerase forms pre-mRNA.

For question (d), 25% of students failed to score any marks, usually because they did not
follow the command word and thus failed to give a contrasting statement; for example,
‘ATP has ribose, DNA has deoxyribose.’ Many thought adenosine is a base.

Q6.
It was hoped that this would provide a reasonably straightforward start to the paper,
assessing AO1 on topics 3.1.5.1 and 3.4.2.

(a) Only 22% of students could correctly name the types of molecule that make up a
ribosome.

(b) This question was answered much more successfully than (a), with 48% of students
gaining all three marks.

(d) Although 83% of students scored 2 marks for this question, there were some
incorrect answers, e.g., indicating that the introns removed from the pre-mRNA were
made of DNA.

Q7.
(a) It was pleasing to see that nearly all students could name two enzymes involved in
DNA replication; 92% got both marks.

(b) This question discriminated well. 40% of students obtained one mark, usually by
noting that phosphorylation of the enzyme caused the active site to be formed, or to
become complementary to the substrate. About 38% of students obtained two
marks, usually by also noting that phosphorylation changed the tertiary structure of
the enzyme (which caused the change to the active site). Some students’
terminology was poor and confused, and some referred, wrongly, to phosphate as a
competitive, or non-competitive inhibitor. Some failed to mention the active site at
all, even though the question asks why enzymes become able to bind to their
substrates.

(c) About 50% of students obtained the mark, by reference to the substrate becoming
more reactive, or phosphorylation (of the substrate) lowering the activation energy
for the reaction. Quite a few made vague references to kinetic energy changes that
were not credited. Some wrongly continued to focus on phosphorylation of the
enzyme.

(d) This was well done by many, with 47% obtaining 3 marks, but still discriminated
quite well. Most students appeared to be able to follow the story in the stem of the
question and apply some basic principles, such as the mutation leading to a form of
ATM unable to bind to broken DNA. Only 3% of students failed to score.

Q14.

Page 79 of 89
(a) (i) Only a quarter of students obtained the mark. DNA polymerase catalyses the
reactions that make the polymer, DNA. It does this by catalysing the formation
of bonds between nucleotides that have already undergone complementary
base-pairing to an exposed template strand. Many students described DNA
polymerase as making nucleotides base-pair and this was not given credit.

(ii) Many students appeared to ignore ‘DNA’ in the question and included various
differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, including differences in
how they divide. As a result, only a quarter obtained 2 marks.

(b) (i) About 40% of students obtained 2 marks in this part. This was usually for
references to different sequences of bases resulting in different proteins being
made. Some failed to obtain one of these marks because they referred to
different sequences on DNA making or producing different amino acids. Few
students noted that different species have different genes, reflected in different
base sequences.

(ii) About half of students failed to score in this part. The question did
discriminate, in that students who did well on the whole paper tended to do
well on this question. Most commonly, correct responses referred to the
differences in percentages of C and G and A and T and then went on to
suggest there was no base-pairing. A few students correctly suggested the
DNA was single-stranded. Weaker responses simply restated the numbers
from the table.

Q15.
(a) The examiners noted that many students approached this part as ‘describe mitosis’
and proceeded to do so in various degrees of correct detail. The question asked for
an explanation of how events in mitosis lead to the production of genetically identical
cells. Some students focused on DNA replication but ignored chromatid movements
and others only discussed chromatids. Many obtained 1 or 2 marks for references to
DNA replication and / or chromatids moving to the poles (of the spindle).

Some students clearly got confused between sister chromatids and homologous
pairs of chromosomes.

The examiners were looking for replication of DNA, involving complementary base-
pairing, in order to produce exact copies of genetic information. Then, how this is
linked to sister chromatids and how their separation during mitosis leads to
genetically identical cells.

(b) (i) About 60% of students correctly suggested that the sections had to be thin to
allow light to pass through but few went beyond that. The examiners were
looking for the idea that thin sections would allow individual cells, or layers of
cells, to be seen (and the chromosomes within them, if present). Only about
20% obtained a second mark.

(ii) Many students wrote about the size of the mitotic index in this part, simply
describing the graph and not explaining growth. The examiners were looking
for answers relating the rate of mitosis at the tip of the root to growth. A third of
students did this and obtained both marks.

Q16.
Parts (a), (b) and (d) proved to be good discriminators.

Page 80 of 89
(a) It was disappointing that only just below 40% of students scored at least half marks.
This was mainly due to simply describing the structure of DNA, without explaining
how these features relate to its functions. Some students wrote about DNA structure
and function in different paragraphs. This made it unclear which feature went with
which function, as no direct links had been made. In contrast, there were some truly
excellent responses, which had clearly been well planned before putting pen to
paper. The most common mark points awarded were for the sugar-phosphate
backbone providing strength or protecting bases, the helix allowing the molecule to
be compact, weak hydrogen bonds allowing strand separation or replication and the
two strands acting as templates or allowing semi-conservative replication. Relatively
few students linked complementary base pairing with accurate replication or the
production of identical copies of DNA. Similarly, few students referred to DNA as a
large molecule that can store lots of information, or the base sequence coding for
amino acids. Weaker responses often mentioned this in the context of the genetic
code being degenerate. Indeed, some students thought that the base sequence
causes amino acids to be produced. The ability to convey that many hydrogen
bonds provide stability was rarely seen. It was also unfortunate that a number of
students wasted their time by writing about irrelevant topics such as the differences
between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA and the role of histones. There were also
some lengthy accounts of DNA replication, enzyme structure and the different levels
of protein structure.

(b) Many students scored at least two marks for stating that a mutation in gene E
produces the highest risk and a mutation in gene C produces the lowest risk.
However, only the best responses also referred to gene D. Students who did not
mention any of the genes usually picked up one mark for noting that all of the
mutant alleles increase the risk of lung cancer. Surprisingly, some thought that a
mutation in gene D produces the highest risk.

(d) Two-thirds of students scored at least two marks. Many were able to identify the
decrease, plateau and increase for healthy cells and cancer cells. However,
relatively few made reference to the plateau occurring for the same length of time.
Students who failed to gain a mark for a similarity usually ignored the plateau. Most
students spotted that a greater number of healthy cells were killed or that they
experienced a faster decrease in number. Similarly, it was impressive to see that
some used data from the graph to calculate that a greater proportion of cancer cells
were killed. Many students also noted the faster increase in the number of healthy
cells.

(e) Half of students scored full marks. This was usually for mentioning that too many
healthy cells would be killed, which could kill the patient or cause side effects.
However, relatively few appreciated that it would take time to replace the healthy
cells that had been killed.

Q17.
(a) This proved to be a good discriminator. Most students were aware that DNA
helicase separates strands or breaks hydrogen bonds. However, only better
responses went on to state that this allows nucleotides to attach or the strands to act
as templates. Unfortunately, poor expression or a lack of precision let down some
students. This was usually for DNA ‘splitting’, or ‘bases’, rather than nucleotides,
attaching.

(b) Just under half of students gained full credit.

Page 81 of 89
(c) (i) This proved to be a good discriminator. A quarter of students scored full marks.
Most were aware that cytarabine has a similar structure to cytosine. However,
weaker responses were often vague regarding the subsequent effect of this,
eg ‘prevents DNA replication’ or ‘inhibits helicase’. Similarly, there were many
unqualified references to cytarabine acting as a competitive inhibitor. It was
only the best responses that suggested cytarabine may prevent base pairing,
prevent the formation of a new strand or act as an inhibitor of DNA
polymerase.

(ii) Just over seventy percent of students were aware that cancer cells divide
faster than healthy cells.

Q18.
(a) This proved to be an excellent discriminator. Just over 70% of students scored at
least half marks. Many were aware of the breaking of hydrogen bonds, the role of
DNA helicase and complementary base pairing. However, it was only better
responses that referred to the attachment of free nucleotides (as opposed to free
bases) and both strands acting as templates. DNA polymerase was frequently
mentioned but its role was often confused in weaker responses. This enzyme joins
nucleotides on the newly formed strand, it does not cause complementary base
pairing. Some students negated the mark for semi-conservative replication through
poor expression. The most common examples of this included ‘each new DNA
molecule contains half of the original strand’ and ‘new strands contain half of the
original strand’. Very few students wrote about hydrogen bonds reforming.

(b) (i) Two-thirds of students correctly gave the duration of metaphase as 18

minutes.

(ii) 80% of students correctly calculated the duration of anaphase as 10 minutes.

(iii) This proved to be a good discriminator. Most students gained one mark for
extending the horizontal line to 18 minutes, or decreasing this line to 0 μm at
28 minutes. Weaker responses often showed the horizontal line increasing.

(c) (i) 70% of students correctly calculated the time the cells were in interphase as
19.7 hours. Very few students gained the principle mark for multiplying by
0.82.

(ii) Just under half of students were aware that cells in interphase could be
detected by a visible nucleus or the inability to see chromosomes. Weaker
responses typically referred to the inability to see DNA or that the cells in
interphase would contain twice the amount of chromosomes.

(iii) This proved to be a good discriminator. Most students were aware that cancer
cells divide more rapidly than healthy cells. However, it was only better
responses that referred to data in the table and correctly linked this to tissue
D. Some students wrongly thought that more cells in interphase meant more
rapid cell division due to increased DNA replication.

Q19.
(a) (i) Students were aware that polymers were made of many monomers, but in
many cases went on to include descriptions in their answers that implied they
did not understand what the monomers in this case were. A number of
answers suggested that each strand was a monomer or that the monomers
were amino acids.

Page 82 of 89
(ii) Most students knew the names of the parts of the diagram; the most common
mistake was giving ‘sugar’ or ‘ribose’ instead of deoxyribose.

(iii) In order to gain both marks, students had to show that they knew the names
of the bases. This proved very revealing in that almost all knew the initial
letters of the four bases but only a minority could write down the names
correctly. About half were able to complete the simple calculation to give the
percentage of the other three bases.

(b) (i) Those who failed to gain credit often did so because they were, apparently, of
the opinion that one base coded for three amino acids.

(ii) Introns, non-coding DNA, start and stop codes were all known to be non-
coding DNA and, thus, adding to the length of the gene without contributing to
the polypeptide. Some students also mentioned addition mutations or the fact
that there are two strands. A minority of students incorrectly linked the
degeneracy of the genetic code to the difference in number of bases.

Q20.
(a) (i) Over 80% of students correctly named this stage of mitosis as anaphase. A
common incorrect response was telophase.

(ii) Most students gained one mark for describing the separation of the
chromatids to opposite sides of the cell. However, less than 30% of students
explained that the chromatids would be identical in terms of their genetic
content. Most students simply stated that the cells being produced would be
identical. This was in the stem of the question and, therefore, did not gain
credit.

(b) (i) This proved to be a very effective discriminator. The most common mark was
for linking cells containing 8.4 units with DNA replication. It was only better
students who correctly explained how cells with 4.2 units were produced. A
third of students gained no credit, often referring to meiosis, gametes and
haploid cells in their explanations.

(ii) Two thirds of students correctly showed that a gamete formed in this animal
would contain 2.1 units of DNA.

Q21.
(a) (i) It was clearly evident that the vast majority of candidates had a good
understanding of what happens in metaphase with two thirds of candidates
gaining both marks and only ten percent scoring zero. Most candidates gained
credit for mentioning chromosomes moving to the equator of the cell. A
number of candidates, however, referred to homologous chromosomes
aligning in pairs and described metaphase I of meiosis.

(ii) Almost seventy five percent of candidates gained two marks often by stating
that ‘chromatids move to opposite poles’. Again, approximately ten percent of
candidates scored zero.

(b) (i) Although most candidates appreciated that the cells lining the human intestine
needed to be replaced only half of the candidates conveyed the idea that this
occurs quickly. A significant number of candidates simply stated that the cells
needed to be repaired.

Page 83 of 89
(ii) Almost half the candidates gained both marks for 774 minutes or 12 hours 54
minutes. A small number of candidates provided an incorrect answer but
correctly indicated three cell cycles for one mark. Many of the remaining
candidates used four cell cycles to obtain an incorrect answer of 1032
minutes.

(c) There were some excellent detailed answers to this question which gained both
marks. These were, however, in the minority. Most candidates gained at least one
mark usually for stating that DNA replication would be inhibited. Generally, there was
considerable confusion over the role of DNA polymerase, with many candidates
believing it to be involved in breaking hydrogen bonds or in complementary base
pairing.

Q22.
Using DNA in science and technology

The very best essays from candidates who selected this option were outstanding. They
reviewed, often in great detail, the relevant aspects of the specification although not
always incorporating the role of DNA in the classification of organisms. Considering that
much of the content of this essay could be drawn from this unit, it was surprising how poor
many answers were. Understanding of techniques was often extremely limited, particularly
in vivo gene cloning and the use of markers. Many essays presented no more than a
broad overview either emphasising ethical issues at the expense of biological detail or
failing to distinguish established practice from wishful thinking.

Q23.
(a) Although this question produced an even spread of marks across the entire ability
range, the overall marks were disappointing for a question largely targeted at Grade
E candidates. Many appeared uncertain as to the distribution of starch and
glycogen, the identity of deoxyribose as a carbohydrate or of DNA helicase as an
enzyme.

(b) Most candidates were able to gain some credit for recognising that condensation
involved the elimination of a molecule of water, although there were some who
apparently failed to appreciate that water molecules contained two hydrogen atoms
and an oxygen atom, or that condensation involved linking the molecules shown.
The better candidates selected the appropriate atoms and gained both of the
available marks.

(c) In part (i), candidates were usually able to make an appropriate reference to the role
of hydrogen bonds in strengthening either cellulose or the cell wall. Many, however,
were uncertain as to the location of these bonds and produced answers referring to
linking the β-glucose residues. Part (ii) was usually well answered and most
candidates were able to discuss the compact shape of starch molecules. There
were, however, some answers incorrectly based on the idea of a large surface area
to volume ratio.

Q24.
(a) This part of the question was often poorly answered. While errors in the first column
were perhaps predictable, those not infrequently given in the second column
suggested confusion between polynucleotide strands and bases or even
chromosomes.

(b) This question was marked in such a way that a candidate who made a single error

Page 84 of 89
was still able to gain some credit. The answers to both parts were generally sound
although there were occasional errors involving giving the base sequence on the
complementary DNA strand, or resulting from uncertainty over splicing.

Q25.
(a) (i) Most candidates correctly named part R as deoxyribose. Answers identifying
part R as pentose or as a five carbon sugar were considered too imprecise
due to the question clearly identifying the molecule as being DNA.

(ii) Most candidates correctly named part Q as a phosphate group or as

phosphoric acid. Unfortunately, some candidates incorrectly named parts R
and Q the wrong way round.

(b) Almost every candidate correctly stated ‘hydrogen bonds’.

(c) Approximately fifty percent of candidates obtained this mark. Although there was a
wide range of incorrect answers, the most common error was to divide, rather than
multiply the number of amino acids by three.

(d) Over 90 % of candidates were able to correctly work out the sequence of amino
acids.

(e) This question proved to be an effective discriminator. Most candidates gained at

least one mark, often by mentioning a change in the sequence in amino acids.
However, a significant number of candidates incorrectly referred to ‘different amino
acids being formed’. Many of these candidates gained a second mark for describing
that the active site or tertiary structure would be altered. Better candidates gained
maximum marks either by linking this to enzyme-substrate complexes not being
formed or to changes in hydrogen/disulfide bonds.

Q26.
Unit 2

(a) In (i), this was known by most, though a few failed to gain marks by suggesting
‘nucleotide’ ‘amino group’ or even ‘phosphate’.

Part (ii) was often poorly answered by repeating the given part, that 14N is lighter
than 15N. Better answers recognised that semi-conservative replication would mean
that one of the strands would contain the heavier isotope, and one the lighter
isotope. A few candidates thought that the bands were bacteria or nitrogen.

Candidates often scored one mark for (iii), usually for the higher band, but it was
rare for candidates to score both marks.

(b) In (i), most candidates scored both marks.

Many scored full marks for (ii). However, the weakest candidates thought that viral
DNA had different base-pairing rules.

Unit 3

(a) Specifically, nitrogen is part of the organic base. The chemical understanding of
some was shown to be poor with suggestions of phosphates or amino acids. From
the responses provided, it would seem that few candidates were familiar with semi-
conservative replication. Few were able to express this concept and explanations

Page 85 of 89
were not convincing.

(b) Candidates were familiar with base pairing and most calculated the appropriate
percentages. Fewer recognized, from the evidence provided from the different
percentages of all the bases, that viral DNA is single stranded.

Q27.
Unit 2

(a) Surprisingly few gave the correct response of nucleotides. Many gave one or all of
the parts of a nucleotide, or amino acids.

(b) (i) Virtually all candidates gained two marks for calculating the missing figures.

(ii) Though most candidates had the right idea, many found it difficult to explain
that the bases did not show a 1:1 ratio and were therefore not paired. The
concept of base pairing was often omitted.

Unit 3

(a) A wide variety of answers was seen here ranging from no response to amino acids,
assorted sugars, a list of the components of DNA and, in a disappointingly small
number of scripts, nucleotides.

(b) A pleasing number of candidates scored two marks here but several went astray as
a result of poor maths or weak biology. Part (ii) proved a test of expression and
many spent time explaining that the virus DNA was double-stranded or used much
of the margin to fit in all their ideas.

Q28.
(a) Imprecise expression frequently limited the marks awarded for part (i). Care clearly
needed to be taken to avoid suggesting too few components, with answers such as
that a polymer consisted of ‘two or more’ monomers. Those who did not make use of
the term ‘monomer’ needed to indicate, in some way, the similarity of the
constituents. They did not always do this. The most frequent reason for failing to
gain credit for part (ii) was where candidates gave substances, such as
haemoglobin and amylopectin, which were excluded by the wording of the question.
Nevertheless, many candidates gave correct answers.

(b) In part (i), most candidates recognised the importance of buffers in maintaining pH,
although some associated them with temperature. Better candidates could generally
develop the idea and usually gained a second mark through reference to
denaturation. Unfortunately, some saw parts (ii) and (iii) as a trick and pointed out
that since starch was not a protein, it would give a negative result. Others made the
same error by simply failing to focus on the right component of the mixture. Perhaps
more disturbing is the continued failure of so many candidates at this level to learn
the relevant information relating to basic biochemical tests. There was again much
confusion over test and result, apparent both here and in the answers to Question 4
(b).

Q29.
BYA2

Some candidates found it difficult to see what was required here but any appropriate

Page 86 of 89
answer was accepted. The second part was generally well answered although some failed
to gain marks as a result of poor spelling.

BYA3

In part (i) there were some vague answers which did not gain credit. Although examiners
allowed a variety of correct responses, some candidates simply offered nucleotide. This
was not specific enough. A small number referred to the phosphate chain or deoxyribose
backbone, showing a lack of understanding of the structure of DNA. In part (ii), X and Y
were usually correct, but Z was sometimes named as uracil. Examiners were amazed at
the number of spelling variants offered for thymine.

Q30.
(a) Many candidates understood the basic principles of natural selection underlying this
part of the question and better answers related these to the development of
resistance in malarial parasites. Responses, however, were frequently marred by
imprecise use of terms. Thus malarial parasites were variously described as
developing resistance, immunity or, in some cases, allergies to the drugs concerned,
while resistance was described as taking place in bacteria, the disease or even in
the human population.

(b) Evidence from BYA5 suggests that many candidates understand that probabilities
are combined by multiplication. However, they were unable to apply this principle to
the example in this part of the question. The most frequent response was to add the
two figures. The resulting value of 1/250 then proved difficult to explain, and the
simple idea that the probability of being infected by a strain of malarial parasite
resistant to both drugs was much lower eluded most.

(c) The concept of a control proved surprisingly unfamiliar to most candidates and even
the best seldom progressed beyond explaining that a control offered a standard
against which to compare the effectiveness of the vaccine. This idea should have
given rise, in part (ii), to injection with saline only in an otherwise identically treated
control group. Answers ranged from those who clearly failed to appreciate the nature
of a control and discussed issues which were largely ethical in nature, to responses
which were in varying degrees incomplete. Such responses included making sure
that both groups “lived in the same place” or “were the same age”, ignoring the fact
that these were only part of a whole range of factors which should have been kept
constant. Evidence from this question and from the coursework suggests that the
issue of controls is one that needs to be addressed by centres.

(d) Better candidates experienced little apparent difficulty in identifying the correct
percentages here. Incorrect answers fell into no set pattern and most responses
which could conceivably be given arose at least once.

(e) Many candidates were obviously of the opinion that restriction enzymes function in a
way that is totally different from other enzymes, and attempted to explain their
specificity in part (i) in terms of base pairing. Others clearly understood the
principles involved but neglected to relate their understanding of enzyme action to
this particular question. A lack of precision characterised many of the answers to
part (ii). Thus there were frequent references to adenine and thymine but not to
these bases forming the restriction sites. However, most candidates were able to
equate the frequency of cutting to the small size of the resulting fragments.

Q31.
This question produced a large spread of marks. Inaccurate use of terminology

Page 87 of 89
compromised the marks gained by many candidates in parts (a) and (b).

(a) Generally this part was poorly done. Most candidates seemed unaware that both
strands were replicated. Answers lacked clarity because candidates used the word
‘strand’ loosely when trying to explain DNA replication. They seemed aware that
DNA is a double helix but not that this is a double polynucleotide or that the
polynucleotides are the strands and the double helix a molecule.

(b) Again, the imprecise use of the word ‘strand’ revealed a lack of understanding of
DNA replication. The most common error described half the new DNA strand as 14N
and half 15N.

Q32.
This question gave candidates the opportunity to display their knowledge of factual
material from the specification. Answers were often marred by inaccurate recall and poor
expression. Once again, weaker candidates failed to select the appropriate information to
answer the question set.

(a) Generally this section was poorly done with little reference to the question. Most
candidates attempted to describe DNA replication without explanation as to how the
structure of the molecule allows this to happen. Base pairing, often quoted, was well
understood.

(b) There were some good answers but very few examples of full marks. Most
candidates described chromosomes shortening, referred to movement to the
equator and had some knowledge of the cause of chromatid separation. Beyond this
there was confusion over the involvement of homologous pairs and many
candidates failed to mention the identical nature of chromatids. Only the very able
candidates alluded to the significance of the movement to opposite poles. Weaker
candidates could not put the events of the process into order. It was disappointingly
rare to read a logically presented, coherent full answer. The majority of the
candidates could use the information in the stem of the question and gained both
marks.

(c) Targeting of the cells as a concept was only implied, but not referred to, so
restricting some candidates to one mark.

Q33.
There were some excellent answers to this question with the most able candidates
gaining maximum marks. Weaker candidates were often able to obtain some marks in
parts (b) and part (c).

Surprisingly, explaining what is meant by an allele proved to be quite difficult for many
candidates. There were many vague references to an allele ‘being part of a gene’ or
‘being a gene for eye colour’. The context provided by candidates often suggested that
alleles were different genes.

As in previous years a significant number of candidates confused DNA replication with

Page 88 of 89
transcription. It was often difficult to give credit in these answers, except for the first mark
point referring to hydrogen bonds being broken. As in previous years, there was
considerable confusion concerning the role of DNA polymerase. However, naming the
enzyme itself was credited in this answer to avoid a double penalty for incorrectly
describing its role in question 6(b). There was also some confusion between bases and
nucleotides. Nevertheless, better candidates had little difficulty obtaining maximum marks,
some answers displaying knowledge well beyond the requirements of this specification.
Weaker candidates often gained marks for referring to semi-conservative replication and
complementary base pairing.

In part (c) the effects of a mutation involving a deletion or a substitution were generally
well known. Most candidates referred to ‘frame shifts’ and appreciated the degenerate
nature of the genetic code. However, some weaker candidates referred to ‘amino acids in
the DNA’ being deleted or substituted. Better candidates had little difficulty gaining
maximum marks.

Q34.
Although only a few candidates obtained maximum marks on this question, most
candidates were able to gain between two and four marks.

Better candidates had little difficulty in providing the correct responses for parts (i) and (ii).
Weaker candidates often correctly identified the DNA triplet for tyrosine but gave an
incorrect tRNA anticodon for the same amino acid.

The most frequent correct responses referred to the 'clover leaf' or folded structure of
tRNA, the presence of an amino acid binding site or the anticodon. Incorrect responses
included references to tRNA consisting of two strands, possessing three anticodons or
possessing thymine rather than uracil.

Q35.
(a) Many candidates gained full marks, although some referred to breaking of
disulphide bridges. A common error, caused by misinterpretation of the graph axes,
was to attribute the levelling off to a maximum rate of reaction, with all the active
sites being used.

(b) Many candidates appreciated that all the substrate had been used up but most were
reluctant to relate this to the same amount of product or that the initial substrate was
the same.

Page 89 of 89

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